Participant ID 244551218630

Participant Name DURGESHWAR TIWARI

Test Center Name Cavalier Animation - Education Foundation
Test Date 27/03/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 11:30 AM
Subject Electrical Engineer

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

I love to travel but to I hate going to Adam’s house as the journey is excessively long and
exhausting.
Ans 1. toddler

2. tedious

3. taxidermy

4. tempting

Question ID : 4410096579
Option 1 ID : 44100926069
Option 2 ID : 44100926067
Option 3 ID : 44100926070
Option 4 ID : 44100926068
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.2 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It is also a different question from 'What antecedent factors—for example, personal ity, IQ,
risk profile, or quality of network—make the process go faster or more smoothly?”
B. Despite the trends, the study of career transitioning is still in its infancy.
C. There is plenty of how-to advice, but we still know precious little about exactly how people
change careers.
D. 'How' one changes careers is a very different question from 'when' or 'with what frequency
within a given population'.
Ans 1. ABCD

2. BCDA

3. DABC

4. CADB

Question ID : 4410096575
Option 1 ID : 44100926054
Option 2 ID : 44100926051
Option 3 ID : 44100926053
Option 4 ID : 44100926052
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The researchers focused ______ the impact of colonial policies on indigenous languages.
Ans 1. at

2. about

3. on

4. for

Question ID : 4410095562
Option 1 ID : 44100922030
Option 2 ID : 44100922033
Option 3 ID : 44100922031
Option 4 ID : 44100922032
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.4 Select the correct spelling of the underlined incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

The beneficiery of the grant was a scholar working on indigenous linguistic traditions.
Ans 1. beneficiary

2. beneficiery

3. benificiary

4. benefitiary

Question ID : 4410096664
Option 1 ID : 44100926407
Option 2 ID : 44100926408
Option 3 ID : 44100926410
Option 4 ID : 44100926409
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.5 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. He made about 14,000 predictions in his lifetime, and by 1970, 12,000
of those predictions had come true and 2,000 were still in the future.
B. Cayce is a very interesting prophet.
C. Out of 12,000 predictions, that’s incredible
D. And in all those predictions, he made only one tiny mistake.

Ans 1. DCBA

2. BADC

3. BACD

4. ABCD

Question ID : 4410096571
Option 1 ID : 44100926038
Option 2 ID : 44100926035
Option 3 ID : 44100926037
Option 4 ID : 44100926036
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

Dr. Geller gave a detailed, interesting, and engaging lecture on the Jurassic Age.
Ans 1. flowery

2. fancy

3. fascinating

4. farcical

Question ID : 4410096583
Option 1 ID : 44100926086
Option 2 ID : 44100926085
Option 3 ID : 44100926083
Option 4 ID : 44100926084
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Knave
Ans 1. Vibrant

2. Villain

3. Veneration

4. Vigilant

Question ID : 4410096645
Option 1 ID : 44100926333
Option 2 ID : 44100926331
Option 3 ID : 44100926334
Option 4 ID : 44100926332
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Despite the heavy rain, the hikers remained _____ and continued their journey up the mountain.
Ans 1. indifferent

2. careless

3. determined

4. reluctant

Question ID : 4410095494
Option 1 ID : 44100921773
Option 2 ID : 44100921771
Option 3 ID : 44100921770
Option 4 ID : 44100921772
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Licentious
Ans 1. Prosperous

2. Lubricous

3. Lecherous

4. Virtuous

Question ID : 4410096637
Option 1 ID : 44100926300
Option 2 ID : 44100926301
Option 3 ID : 44100926302
Option 4 ID : 44100926299
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He always dreamed of becoming ______ university professor, so he worked hard to achieve his
goal.
Ans 1. a

2. some

3. the

4. an

Question ID : 4410095491
Option 1 ID : 44100921760
Option 2 ID : 44100921761
Option 3 ID : 44100921758
Option 4 ID : 44100921759
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She completed her work _____, ensuring there were no mistakes.

Ans 1. carelessly

2. hastily

3. recklessly

4. meticulously

Question ID : 4410095496
Option 1 ID : 44100921779
Option 2 ID : 44100921780
Option 3 ID : 44100921781
Option 4 ID : 44100921778
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.12 Select the correct option that can substitute the highlighted word segment in the given
sentence.

She remained calm and composed during the intense debate, carefully choosing her words to
counter every argument.
Ans 1. letting the cat out of the bag

2. thinking on her feet

3. crying over spilled milk

4. barking up the wrong tree

Question ID : 4410096621
Option 1 ID : 44100926238
Option 2 ID : 44100926235
Option 3 ID : 44100926237
Option 4 ID : 44100926236
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 3
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Informed consent is fundamental to the ethical and legal doctrines respecting research
participants’ voluntary participation in clinical research, enshrined in such documents as the
1947 Nuremberg Code; reaffirmed in the 1964 Declaration of Helsinki, revised in 1975, and the
1978 Belmont Report; and codified in the United States in the 1981 Common Rule, revised in
2018 and implemented in 2019. Informed consent generally is understood to represent a
process, with the informed consent document having a central role. The characteristics of a
well-designed consent form are well known: the document must contain information, some
statutorily defined, necessary to allow a participant to make an informed decision; be written at
a reading level appropriate for its audience; and be of a length that enables complete and
thorough reading. Yet, the content and structure of this document has been the subject of
discussion for at least three decades, with a consistent consensus throughout this time that
these documents are too difficult to read, too complex, and too long and, as a result, frequently
fail to facilitate truly informed consent by study participants.

While much of the blame for the failure to provide sufficiently detailed, readable and brief
consent forms has been laid at the feet of sponsors and investigators, the reality is that while it
is possible to incorporate two of these three elements into a consent form, it is all but
impossible to incorporate all three, i.e., concise, sufficiently detailed yet easily readable, for
anything but the simplest of clinical trials. The study by Emmanuel and Boyle reviews the
consent forms for the COVID-19 vaccine phase III randomised clinical trials conducted by four
major pharmaceutical companies that resulted in US regulatory approvals for three of the four
vaccines, in the context of these issues.

The study by Emmanuel and Boyle highlights the deficiencies of the COVID-19 vaccine trial
consent forms in these areas, proposes revised consent form language to improve readability,
understanding and length, and underscores how the medical community has not responded
adequately to the decades-long valid criticisms concerning informed consent forms. The
revisions proposed by Emmanuel and Boyle to the relatively straightforward COVID-19 vaccine
trials’ consent forms yielded a document that was substantially longer than ideal, with an overall
higher-grade reading level than optimal, underscoring the fundamental inability to successfully
incorporate all three of the desirable qualities for a consent form into a single document.

SubQuestion No : 13
Q.13 Which document first enshrined the principle of informed consent in clinical research?
Ans 1. The 1981 Common Rule

2. The 1964 Declaration of Helsinki

3. The 1978 Belmont Report

4. The 1947 Nuremberg Code

Question ID : 44100931796
Option 1 ID : 441009126671
Option 2 ID : 441009126668
Option 3 ID : 441009126670
Option 4 ID : 441009126669
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Informed consent is fundamental to the ethical and legal doctrines respecting research
participants’ voluntary participation in clinical research, enshrined in such documents as the
1947 Nuremberg Code; reaffirmed in the 1964 Declaration of Helsinki, revised in 1975, and the
1978 Belmont Report; and codified in the United States in the 1981 Common Rule, revised in
2018 and implemented in 2019. Informed consent generally is understood to represent a
process, with the informed consent document having a central role. The characteristics of a
well-designed consent form are well known: the document must contain information, some
statutorily defined, necessary to allow a participant to make an informed decision; be written at
a reading level appropriate for its audience; and be of a length that enables complete and
thorough reading. Yet, the content and structure of this document has been the subject of
discussion for at least three decades, with a consistent consensus throughout this time that
these documents are too difficult to read, too complex, and too long and, as a result, frequently
fail to facilitate truly informed consent by study participants.

While much of the blame for the failure to provide sufficiently detailed, readable and brief
consent forms has been laid at the feet of sponsors and investigators, the reality is that while it
is possible to incorporate two of these three elements into a consent form, it is all but
impossible to incorporate all three, i.e., concise, sufficiently detailed yet easily readable, for
anything but the simplest of clinical trials. The study by Emmanuel and Boyle reviews the
consent forms for the COVID-19 vaccine phase III randomised clinical trials conducted by four
major pharmaceutical companies that resulted in US regulatory approvals for three of the four
vaccines, in the context of these issues.

The study by Emmanuel and Boyle highlights the deficiencies of the COVID-19 vaccine trial
consent forms in these areas, proposes revised consent form language to improve readability,
understanding and length, and underscores how the medical community has not responded
adequately to the decades-long valid criticisms concerning informed consent forms. The
revisions proposed by Emmanuel and Boyle to the relatively straightforward COVID-19 vaccine
trials’ consent forms yielded a document that was substantially longer than ideal, with an overall
higher-grade reading level than optimal, underscoring the fundamental inability to successfully
incorporate all three of the desirable qualities for a consent form into a single document.

SubQuestion No : 14
Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Concise
Ans 1. Lengthy

2. Clear

3. Precise

4. Readable

Question ID : 44100931793
Option 1 ID : 441009126657
Option 2 ID : 441009126656
Option 3 ID : 441009126658
Option 4 ID : 441009126659
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Informed consent is fundamental to the ethical and legal doctrines respecting research
participants’ voluntary participation in clinical research, enshrined in such documents as the
1947 Nuremberg Code; reaffirmed in the 1964 Declaration of Helsinki, revised in 1975, and the
1978 Belmont Report; and codified in the United States in the 1981 Common Rule, revised in
2018 and implemented in 2019. Informed consent generally is understood to represent a
process, with the informed consent document having a central role. The characteristics of a
well-designed consent form are well known: the document must contain information, some
statutorily defined, necessary to allow a participant to make an informed decision; be written at
a reading level appropriate for its audience; and be of a length that enables complete and
thorough reading. Yet, the content and structure of this document has been the subject of
discussion for at least three decades, with a consistent consensus throughout this time that
these documents are too difficult to read, too complex, and too long and, as a result, frequently
fail to facilitate truly informed consent by study participants.

While much of the blame for the failure to provide sufficiently detailed, readable and brief
consent forms has been laid at the feet of sponsors and investigators, the reality is that while it
is possible to incorporate two of these three elements into a consent form, it is all but
impossible to incorporate all three, i.e., concise, sufficiently detailed yet easily readable, for
anything but the simplest of clinical trials. The study by Emmanuel and Boyle reviews the
consent forms for the COVID-19 vaccine phase III randomised clinical trials conducted by four
major pharmaceutical companies that resulted in US regulatory approvals for three of the four
vaccines, in the context of these issues.

The study by Emmanuel and Boyle highlights the deficiencies of the COVID-19 vaccine trial
consent forms in these areas, proposes revised consent form language to improve readability,
understanding and length, and underscores how the medical community has not responded
adequately to the decades-long valid criticisms concerning informed consent forms. The
revisions proposed by Emmanuel and Boyle to the relatively straightforward COVID-19 vaccine
trials’ consent forms yielded a document that was substantially longer than ideal, with an overall
higher-grade reading level than optimal, underscoring the fundamental inability to successfully
incorporate all three of the desirable qualities for a consent form into a single document.

SubQuestion No : 15
Q.15 According to the passage, what challenge arises when drafting an ideal informed consent
form?
Ans 1. Translating it into multiple languages

2. Ensuring all participants sign the document

3. Balancing conciseness, detail and readability

4. Obtaining regulatory approval

Question ID : 44100931794
Option 1 ID : 441009126661
Option 2 ID : 441009126663
Option 3 ID : 441009126660
Option 4 ID : 441009126662
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Informed consent is fundamental to the ethical and legal doctrines respecting research
participants’ voluntary participation in clinical research, enshrined in such documents as the
1947 Nuremberg Code; reaffirmed in the 1964 Declaration of Helsinki, revised in 1975, and the
1978 Belmont Report; and codified in the United States in the 1981 Common Rule, revised in
2018 and implemented in 2019. Informed consent generally is understood to represent a
process, with the informed consent document having a central role. The characteristics of a
well-designed consent form are well known: the document must contain information, some
statutorily defined, necessary to allow a participant to make an informed decision; be written at
a reading level appropriate for its audience; and be of a length that enables complete and
thorough reading. Yet, the content and structure of this document has been the subject of
discussion for at least three decades, with a consistent consensus throughout this time that
these documents are too difficult to read, too complex, and too long and, as a result, frequently
fail to facilitate truly informed consent by study participants.

While much of the blame for the failure to provide sufficiently detailed, readable and brief
consent forms has been laid at the feet of sponsors and investigators, the reality is that while it
is possible to incorporate two of these three elements into a consent form, it is all but
impossible to incorporate all three, i.e., concise, sufficiently detailed yet easily readable, for
anything but the simplest of clinical trials. The study by Emmanuel and Boyle reviews the
consent forms for the COVID-19 vaccine phase III randomised clinical trials conducted by four
major pharmaceutical companies that resulted in US regulatory approvals for three of the four
vaccines, in the context of these issues.

The study by Emmanuel and Boyle highlights the deficiencies of the COVID-19 vaccine trial
consent forms in these areas, proposes revised consent form language to improve readability,
understanding and length, and underscores how the medical community has not responded
adequately to the decades-long valid criticisms concerning informed consent forms. The
revisions proposed by Emmanuel and Boyle to the relatively straightforward COVID-19 vaccine
trials’ consent forms yielded a document that was substantially longer than ideal, with an overall
higher-grade reading level than optimal, underscoring the fundamental inability to successfully
incorporate all three of the desirable qualities for a consent form into a single document.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of given word.

Deficiencies
Ans 1. Strength

2. Improvements

3. Shortcomings

4. Enhancements

Question ID : 44100931792
Option 1 ID : 441009126653
Option 2 ID : 441009126652
Option 3 ID : 441009126654
Option 4 ID : 441009126655
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Informed consent is fundamental to the ethical and legal doctrines respecting research
participants’ voluntary participation in clinical research, enshrined in such documents as the
1947 Nuremberg Code; reaffirmed in the 1964 Declaration of Helsinki, revised in 1975, and the
1978 Belmont Report; and codified in the United States in the 1981 Common Rule, revised in
2018 and implemented in 2019. Informed consent generally is understood to represent a
process, with the informed consent document having a central role. The characteristics of a
well-designed consent form are well known: the document must contain information, some
statutorily defined, necessary to allow a participant to make an informed decision; be written at
a reading level appropriate for its audience; and be of a length that enables complete and
thorough reading. Yet, the content and structure of this document has been the subject of
discussion for at least three decades, with a consistent consensus throughout this time that
these documents are too difficult to read, too complex, and too long and, as a result, frequently
fail to facilitate truly informed consent by study participants.

While much of the blame for the failure to provide sufficiently detailed, readable and brief
consent forms has been laid at the feet of sponsors and investigators, the reality is that while it
is possible to incorporate two of these three elements into a consent form, it is all but
impossible to incorporate all three, i.e., concise, sufficiently detailed yet easily readable, for
anything but the simplest of clinical trials. The study by Emmanuel and Boyle reviews the
consent forms for the COVID-19 vaccine phase III randomised clinical trials conducted by four
major pharmaceutical companies that resulted in US regulatory approvals for three of the four
vaccines, in the context of these issues.

The study by Emmanuel and Boyle highlights the deficiencies of the COVID-19 vaccine trial
consent forms in these areas, proposes revised consent form language to improve readability,
understanding and length, and underscores how the medical community has not responded
adequately to the decades-long valid criticisms concerning informed consent forms. The
revisions proposed by Emmanuel and Boyle to the relatively straightforward COVID-19 vaccine
trials’ consent forms yielded a document that was substantially longer than ideal, with an overall
higher-grade reading level than optimal, underscoring the fundamental inability to successfully
incorporate all three of the desirable qualities for a consent form into a single document.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 What is one key criticism of informed consent documents over the past three decades?
Ans 1. They are not required in clinical trials.

2. They fail to properly inform study participants.

3. They are only used in the United States.

4. They are too short and lack detail.

Question ID : 44100931795
Option 1 ID : 441009126666
Option 2 ID : 441009126665
Option 3 ID : 441009126667
Option 4 ID : 441009126664
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 The price of edible oil is first decreased by 20%. The decreased price is then increased by
20%. If the new price is less than the original price by ₹20, then the original price is:
Ans 1. ₹500

2. ₹350

3. ₹400

4. ₹200

Question ID : 44100937077
Option 1 ID : 441009147802
Option 2 ID : 441009147804
Option 3 ID : 441009147801
Option 4 ID : 441009147803
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.2 Ram and Mohan can complete a piece of work in 8 days and 12 days, respectively. They start
working together, but after 2 days, Ram leaves. How long will Mohan take to finish the
remaining work?
Ans 1. 5 days

2. 6 days

3. 7 days

4. 8 days

Question ID : 44100937119
Option 1 ID : 441009147965
Option 2 ID : 441009147966
Option 3 ID : 441009147967
Option 4 ID : 441009147968
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.3 A company records the salaries (in ₹, thousands) of 15 employees as follows:

25, 28, 30, 32, 35, 37, 40, 42, 45, 48, 50, 52, 55, 58, and 60
Find the median salary (in ₹).
Ans 1. 43,000

2. 42,500

3. 43,500

4. 42,000

Question ID : 44100939709
Option 1 ID : 441009158368
Option 2 ID : 441009158367
Option 3 ID : 441009158369
Option 4 ID : 441009158366
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.4 Which of the following is NOT a quadratic equation?
Ans 1. (K−7)2+5K = 3K2−8

2. (K+2)2+5 = 5K−17

3. (2K−3)(K+1) = (K−3)(2K+6)

4. K(3K−7) = (K+2)2

Question ID : 44100930257
Option 1 ID : 441009120395
Option 2 ID : 441009120393
Option 3 ID : 441009120394
Option 4 ID : 441009120392
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.5 10% of X’s income = 15% of Y’s income = 25% of Z’s income. If the total income is ₹18,600,
then what is the income of Y?
Ans 1. ₹6,200

2. ₹6,000

3. ₹36,000

4. ₹9,000

Question ID : 44100937069
Option 1 ID : 441009147772
Option 2 ID : 441009147769
Option 3 ID : 441009147771
Option 4 ID : 441009147770
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.6 A train goes from one place to another place at a speed of 60 km/hr. At what speed should it
return to have an average speed of 48 km/hr?
Ans 1. 40 km/hr

2. 50 km/hr

3. 55 km/hr

4. 60 km/hr

Question ID : 44100939052
Option 1 ID : 441009155743
Option 2 ID : 441009155745
Option 3 ID : 441009155744
Option 4 ID : 441009155742
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.7

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 44100940534
Option 1 ID : 441009161643
Option 2 ID : 441009161641
Option 3 ID : 441009161640
Option 4 ID : 441009161642
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.8

Ans 1.

2. c2

3. c

4.

Question ID : 44100934557
Option 1 ID : 441009137632
Option 2 ID : 441009137631
Option 3 ID : 441009137630
Option 4 ID : 441009137633
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.9

Ans 1. 19

2. 20.5

3. 19.5

4. 20

Question ID : 63068032107
Option 1 ID : 630680127908
Option 2 ID : 630680127911
Option 3 ID : 630680127909
Option 4 ID : 630680127910
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.10 The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 15. If the new number formed by reversing the
digits is greater than the original number by 27, find the sum of the original number and the
number obtained on reversing the digits.
Ans 1. 157

2. 165

3. 128

4. 139

Question ID : 44100928106
Option 1 ID : 441009111958
Option 2 ID : 441009111959
Option 3 ID : 441009111956
Option 4 ID : 441009111957
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.11 A sum of ₹30,000 is invested on simple interest partly at 4% and partly at R% per annum in the
ratio 8 : 7. If the total interest received after 2 years is ₹3,520, then what is the value of R?
Ans 1. 9

2. 6

3. 7

4. 8

Question ID : 44100931260
Option 1 ID : 441009124529
Option 2 ID : 441009124526
Option 3 ID : 441009124527
Option 4 ID : 441009124528
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.12 A sum of money is lent at compound interest for one year at 10% per annum. If the interest is
compounded half-yearly instead of annually, it yields ₹240 more. Find the principal amount
lent.
Ans 1. ₹88,000

2. ₹92,000

3. ₹96,000

4. ₹84,000

Question ID : 44100931268
Option 1 ID : 441009124559
Option 2 ID : 441009124560
Option 3 ID : 441009124561
Option 4 ID : 441009124558
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.13

Ans 1. 2L

2. 2M

3. M

4. L

Question ID : 44100943834
Option 1 ID : 441009174789
Option 2 ID : 441009174790
Option 3 ID : 441009174788
Option 4 ID : 441009174787
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.14 Two trains, each 120 metres long, are moving in opposite directions and cross each other in 6
seconds. If one of the trains crosses a 150-metre-long platform in 18 seconds, what can be
the ratio of their speeds?
Ans 1. 3 : 5

2. 3 : 4

3. 2 : 3

4. 4 : 1

Question ID : 44100939082
Option 1 ID : 441009155863
Option 2 ID : 441009155861
Option 3 ID : 441009155864
Option 4 ID : 441009155862
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 A person distributes his savings among his son, daughter and wife in such a way that the ratio
of the daughter's share to the wife's share, as well as the ratio of the wife's share to the son's
share is 5 : 3. If the daughter receives ₹56,000 more than the son, find the total savings of the
person (in ₹).
Ans 1. ₹1,73,600

2. ₹1,71,500

3. ₹1,74,400

4. ₹1,72,200

Question ID : 44100934668
Option 1 ID : 441009138072
Option 2 ID : 441009138070
Option 3 ID : 441009138073
Option 4 ID : 441009138071
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16 Three boxes with capacities of 28 kg, 42 kg and 70 kg are completely filled with three varieties
of rice: type A, type B, and type C, respectively. All three types of rice are thoroughly mixed
together to form a uniform mixture. This mixture is then redistributed back into the three
boxes. How many kilograms of type C rice will be present in the third box after redistribution?
Ans 1. 35

2. 38

3. 36

4. 32

Question ID : 44100931249
Option 1 ID : 441009124483
Option 2 ID : 441009124485
Option 3 ID : 441009124484
Option 4 ID : 441009124482
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.17 A shopkeeper sells a Yonex badminton racket whose marked price is ₹1,800, at a discount of
18% and gives a shuttle cock costing ₹288 free with each racket. If the shopkeeper gains 20%
on this transaction, then the cost price of each racket is:
Ans 1. ₹1,000

2. ₹990

3. ₹1,200

4. ₹820

Question ID : 44100937138
Option 1 ID : 441009148045
Option 2 ID : 441009148047
Option 3 ID : 441009148046
Option 4 ID : 441009148048
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 44100936992
Option 1 ID : 441009147462
Option 2 ID : 441009147464
Option 3 ID : 441009147461
Option 4 ID : 441009147463
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.19

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 44100928132
Option 1 ID : 441009112063
Option 2 ID : 441009112060
Option 3 ID : 441009112062
Option 4 ID : 441009112061
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.20 Two cyclists travel from X to Y at speeds of 18 km/hr and 24 km/hr. If one of them takes 15
minutes less than the other to reach the destination, then the distance (in km) between X and
Y is:
Ans 1. 40

2. 30

3. 18

4. 20

Question ID : 44100939068
Option 1 ID : 441009155808
Option 2 ID : 441009155807
Option 3 ID : 441009155806
Option 4 ID : 441009155805
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.21 The ratio of the heights of a right circular cone to a right circular cylinder is 3 : 4, and the ratio
of the radii of their bases is 2 : 3. If the volume of the cylinder is 216 cm3, find the volume (in
cm3) of the cone.
Ans 1. 22

2. 20

3. 24

4. 18

Question ID : 44100938184
Option 1 ID : 441009152302
Option 2 ID : 441009152301
Option 3 ID : 441009152303
Option 4 ID : 441009152300
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.22 In a circle with centre O, an arc AB subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. What is the
measure of the angle subtended by the same arc at a point C on the circumference?
Ans 1. 30°

2. 15°

3. 120°

4. 60°

Question ID : 44100938857
Option 1 ID : 441009154973
Option 2 ID : 441009154974
Option 3 ID : 441009154971
Option 4 ID : 441009154972
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.23 A shopkeeper sells an item at a 20% profit. If he had sold it for ₹200 less, he would have
incurred a 20% loss. Find the cost price (in ₹) of the item.
Ans 1. ₹550

2. ₹400

3. ₹500

4. ₹450

Question ID : 44100932426
Option 1 ID : 441009129182
Option 2 ID : 441009129179
Option 3 ID : 441009129181
Option 4 ID : 441009129180
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.24

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 44100936750
Option 1 ID : 441009146501
Option 2 ID : 441009146503
Option 3 ID : 441009146504
Option 4 ID : 441009146502
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.25 In △ABC, with centroid G and median AM, AG = 16 cm, AC = 25 cm and ∠AMC = 90°. Find the
area (in sq.cm) of △ABC.
Ans 1. 154

2. 158

3. 168

4. 162

Question ID : 44100937973
Option 1 ID : 441009151468
Option 2 ID : 441009151469
Option 3 ID : 441009151471
Option 4 ID : 441009151470
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.26 The given table shows the number of students who scored different marks in a test.
Marks 10 20 30 40 50 60 70
Frequency 5 8 12 15 14 10 6

What is the mode of the given data set?

Ans 1. 14

2. 40

3. 15

4. 50

Question ID : 44100939702
Option 1 ID : 441009158338
Option 2 ID : 441009158336
Option 3 ID : 441009158337
Option 4 ID : 441009158339
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.27 A man rows 18 km downstream in 2 hr and the same distance upstream in 3 hr. What is the
speed of the stream?
Ans 1. 1.2 km/hr

2. 3 km/hr

3. 1.5 km/hr

4. 2 km/hr

Question ID : 44100937165
Option 1 ID : 441009148188
Option 2 ID : 441009148185
Option 3 ID : 441009148187
Option 4 ID : 441009148186
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.28 The LCM of the two numbers is 392 times their HCF. If the sum of LCM and HCF is 1965 and
one of the numbers is 245, then the other number is:
Ans 1. 80

2. 45

3. 40

4. 35

Question ID : 44100936883
Option 1 ID : 441009147028
Option 2 ID : 441009147027
Option 3 ID : 441009147026
Option 4 ID : 441009147025
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.29

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 44100930210
Option 1 ID : 441009120205
Option 2 ID : 441009120208
Option 3 ID : 441009120207
Option 4 ID : 441009120206
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.30 The average weight of the first 11 students in a class is 96 kg, and the weight of the 12th
student is 33 kg more than the average weight of all 12 students. The weight of the 12th
student is:
Ans 1. 132 kg

2. 140.18 kg

3. 96 kg

4. 131 kg

Question ID : 44100936765
Option 1 ID : 441009146558
Option 2 ID : 441009146559
Option 3 ID : 441009146560
Option 4 ID : 441009146557
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.31 Three taps, P, Q and S, can fill an empty cistern in 15 minutes. The tap P alone can fill it in 30
minutes and the tap Q alone in 45 minutes. How long will the tap S alone take to fill the
cistern?
Ans 1. 45 minutes

2. 60 minutes

3. 90 minutes

4. 30 minutes

Question ID : 44100939027
Option 1 ID : 441009155649
Option 2 ID : 441009155646
Option 3 ID : 441009155648
Option 4 ID : 441009155647
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.32 The divisor is 45 times the quotient and 9 times the remainder. If the quotient is 25, then the
dividend is:
Ans 1. 24,150

2. 28,275

3. 10,250

4. 28,250

Question ID : 44100936816
Option 1 ID : 441009146758
Option 2 ID : 441009146757
Option 3 ID : 441009146760
Option 4 ID : 441009146759
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.33 A dealer wishes to gain 12% after allowing a discount of 10% on the marked price of ₹1,120.
What would have been the gain percentage if no discount was allowed?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 44100932713
Option 1 ID : 441009130074
Option 2 ID : 441009130076
Option 3 ID : 441009130077
Option 4 ID : 441009130075
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.34 The radius and height of cylinder A are 5 cm and 6 cm, respectively. The radius of cylinder B is
twice that of A, and its height is half that of A. What is the ratio of the total surface area of A
to the curved surface area of B?
Ans 1. 12 : 13

2. 11 : 6

3. 13 : 14

4. 10 : 11

Question ID : 44100938212
Option 1 ID : 441009152414
Option 2 ID : 441009152413
Option 3 ID : 441009152415
Option 4 ID : 441009152412
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Section : Intellectual Potential Test

Q.1 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following equation?
60 × 6 + 11 − 2 ÷ 20 = ?
Ans 1. 12

2. 5

3. 16

4. 8

Question ID : 4410091298
Option 1 ID : 4410095186
Option 2 ID : 4410095188
Option 3 ID : 4410095185
Option 4 ID : 4410095187
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.2 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below.
Both pairs follow the same pattern.

HPK : NTQ
DRV : JVB
Ans 1. KTP : QXV

2. HOC : NUI

3. ARL : GXP

4. KUJ : OZN

Question ID : 441009858
Option 1 ID : 4410093420
Option 2 ID : 4410093419
Option 3 ID : 4410093422
Option 4 ID : 4410093421
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.3 Refer to the following letter and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.

(Left) U M B & > H @ L = & N % K A £ U E * D F C < Q (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and
also immediately followed by a letter?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Question ID : 441009381
Option 1 ID : 4410091514
Option 2 ID : 4410091515
Option 3 ID : 4410091516
Option 4 ID : 4410091513
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.4 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. HK-MP

2. BE-GJ

3. FI-KO

4. OR-TW

Question ID : 44100939760
Option 1 ID : 441009158571
Option 2 ID : 441009158569
Option 3 ID : 441009158570
Option 4 ID : 441009158572
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.5 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MP-QA

2. YB-CM

3. VY-ZJ

4. SB-GY

Question ID : 441009549
Option 1 ID : 4410092184
Option 2 ID : 4410092185
Option 3 ID : 4410092182
Option 4 ID : 4410092183
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.6 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come
in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

23 C 56 A 7 D 9 B 2 = ?
Ans 1. 4

2. 9

3. 18

4. 13

Question ID : 4410091154
Option 1 ID : 4410094609
Option 2 ID : 4410094610
Option 3 ID : 4410094612
Option 4 ID : 4410094611
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.7 Ketan starts from Point Y and drives 24 km towards the north. He then turns left and drives 23
km, takes a left and drives 91 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 41 km. He takes a left
turn, drives 67 km, turns right and drives 29 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90
degrees turns only, unless specified.)
Ans 1. 48 km towards the east

2. 47 km towards the west

3. 51 km towards the east

4. 49 km towards the west

Question ID : 441009371
Option 1 ID : 4410091474
Option 2 ID : 4410091475
Option 3 ID : 4410091473
Option 4 ID : 4410091476
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.8 A, B, C, D, M, N, and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only one person sits between O and M when counted from the right of O. Only one person sits
between M and B. Only one person sits between O and D. Only two people sit between C and
B. Only one person sits between A and D.
Who sits third to the right of N?
Ans 1. D

2. M

3. A

4. C

Question ID : 441009352
Option 1 ID : 4410091399
Option 2 ID : 4410091400
Option 3 ID : 4410091397
Option 4 ID : 4410091398
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.9 Seven people A, C, G, K, M, S and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not
necessarily in the same order. A sits to the immediate right of K. Only two people sit between
A and C. G sits second the left of C. M sits to the immediate right of S. Who sits third to the
left of Y?
Ans 1. K

2. C

3. A

4. M

Question ID : 441009870
Option 1 ID : 4410093470
Option 2 ID : 4410093468
Option 3 ID : 4410093467
Option 4 ID : 4410093469
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(106, 45, 61)
(110, 55, 55)
Ans 1. (62, 20, 32)

2. (85, 30, 55)

3. (48, 28, 30)

4. (22, 7, 29)

Question ID : 4410091194
Option 1 ID : 4410094772
Option 2 ID : 4410094770
Option 3 ID : 4410094769
Option 4 ID : 4410094771
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.11 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
Some rings are tones.
No tones are sounds.

Conclusions:
(I): All rings are sounds.
(II): All tones are rings.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Both conclusions I and II follow.

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Question ID : 441009862
Option 1 ID : 4410093436
Option 2 ID : 4410093435
Option 3 ID : 4410093438
Option 4 ID : 4410093437
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.12 Each of the digits in the number 2471836 is arranged in ascending order from left to right.
The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original
number?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. One

4. Three

Question ID : 4410091227
Option 1 ID : 4410094903
Option 2 ID : 4410094901
Option 3 ID : 4410094902
Option 4 ID : 4410094904
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

10 27 45 64 84 ?
Ans 1. 111

2. 116

3. 101

4. 105

Question ID : 4410091319
Option 1 ID : 4410095271
Option 2 ID : 4410095272
Option 3 ID : 4410095269
Option 4 ID : 4410095270
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.14 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 387 857 235 496 217 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third digit
of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 11

2. 9

3. 10

4. 12

Question ID : 441009526
Option 1 ID : 4410092092
Option 2 ID : 4410092090
Option 3 ID : 4410092091
Option 4 ID : 4410092093
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘respect your parents’ is coded as ‘ab cd ef’ and ‘parents know
everything’ is coded as ‘ef gf lk’. How is ‘parents’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. ab

2. ef

3. cd

4. lk

Question ID : 44100938943
Option 1 ID : 441009155322
Option 2 ID : 441009155319
Option 3 ID : 441009155320
Option 4 ID : 441009155321
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English
alphabetical order?

WKG UHC SEY QBU OYQ ?

Ans 1. NTM

2. MVM

3. NUL

4. LWN

Question ID : 441009360
Option 1 ID : 4410091432
Option 2 ID : 4410091430
Option 3 ID : 4410091429
Option 4 ID : 4410091431
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(56, 28, 30)

(98, 49, 51)
Ans 1. (178, 90, 92)

2. (36, 18, 22)

3. (162, 83, 85)

4. (144, 72, 74)

Question ID : 4410091740
Option 1 ID : 4410096953
Option 2 ID : 4410096955
Option 3 ID : 4410096954
Option 4 ID : 4410096956
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.18 Seven boxes A, C, E, G, I, K, and M are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same
order. Exactly five boxes are kept between E and C. G is kept immediately above C. Only one
box is kept between E and M. K is kept immediately above A.
How many boxes are kept below I?
Ans 1. Five

2. Three

3. Six

4. None

Question ID : 441009277
Option 1 ID : 4410091099
Option 2 ID : 4410091098
Option 3 ID : 4410091100
Option 4 ID : 4410091097
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.19 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that
on the right side of ::?

# : HLG :: OSN : %
Ans 1. # = LPK; % = KOJ

2. # = LPK; % = KOI

3. # = LPK; % = KPJ

4. # = LPM; % = KOJ

Question ID : 44100967
Option 1 ID : 441009257
Option 2 ID : 441009258
Option 3 ID : 441009260
Option 4 ID : 441009259
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘LAMP’ is coded as ‘3192’ and ‘PALE’ is coded as ‘1432’. What is
the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 4

3. 1

4. 3

Question ID : 441009370
Option 1 ID : 4410091470
Option 2 ID : 4410091469
Option 3 ID : 4410091471
Option 4 ID : 4410091472
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.21 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. HA – LV

2. PQ – TL

3. VE – ZB

4. XG – BB

Question ID : 441009350
Option 1 ID : 4410091389
Option 2 ID : 4410091390
Option 3 ID : 4410091391
Option 4 ID : 4410091392
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.22 D is the mother of F. F is the brother of G. G is the wife of H. H is the father of J. How is D
related to J?
Ans 1. Father's mother

2. Mother's mother

3. Father's sister

4. Mother's sister

Question ID : 44100979
Option 1 ID : 441009307
Option 2 ID : 441009305
Option 3 ID : 441009308
Option 4 ID : 441009306
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.23 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below.
Both triads follow the same pattern.

NP - MR - LT
FH - EJ - DL
Ans 1. OQ - MS - KT

2. FM - EL - DK

3. SU - RW - QY

4. LN - MO -NP

Question ID : 441009300
Option 1 ID : 4410091192
Option 2 ID : 4410091191
Option 3 ID : 4410091190
Option 4 ID : 4410091189
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.24 Each of H, I, J, K, M, N and O has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday
and ending on Sunday of the same week. No one has exam before H. Only three people have
exam between H and M. Only one person has exam between M and I. N has exam on
Wednesday. O has exam on one of the days after K but on one of the days before J. On which
day of the week does O have exam?
Ans 1. Monday

2. Tuesday

3. Thursday

4. Saturday

Question ID : 441009363
Option 1 ID : 4410091441
Option 2 ID : 4410091442
Option 3 ID : 4410091443
Option 4 ID : 4410091444
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.25 This question is based on the given words.

ELF PUT HOP JAB

In each of the words, each vowel is changed to the second letter following it in the English
alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the
English alphabetical order. In how many letter-clusters thus formed will no vowel appear?
Ans 1. Two

2. Zero

3. One

4. Three

Question ID : 441009525
Option 1 ID : 4410092088
Option 2 ID : 4410092086
Option 3 ID : 4410092087
Option 4 ID : 4410092089
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.26 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come
in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

27 A 3 D 15 C 11 B 2 = ?
Ans 1. 9

2. 16

3. 12

4. 3

Question ID : 4410091155
Option 1 ID : 4410094614
Option 2 ID : 4410094616
Option 3 ID : 4410094615
Option 4 ID : 4410094613
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.27 Seven people L, M, N, O, R, S, and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only
three people sit between N and L when counted from the right of L. O sits second to the right
of L. T is an immediate neighbour of both R and N. S is not an immediate neighbour of L.
Who among the following are the immediate neighbours of M?
Ans 1. O and L

2. N and T

3. L and R

4. S and N

Question ID : 441009275
Option 1 ID : 4410091090
Option 2 ID : 4410091091
Option 3 ID : 4410091089
Option 4 ID : 4410091092
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.28 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English
alphabetical order?

KGU HCP EYK BUF YQA ?

Ans 1. UMW

2. UNX

3. VMV

4. WLU

Question ID : 441009362
Option 1 ID : 4410091437
Option 2 ID : 4410091440
Option 3 ID : 4410091439
Option 4 ID : 4410091438
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.29 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is D related to J if ‘D x F + G – H ÷ J’?

Ans 1. Mother's brother's son's wife

2. Mother's sister's son's wife

3. Father's brother's son's wife

4. Father's sister's son's wife

Question ID : 44100973
Option 1 ID : 441009283
Option 2 ID : 441009284
Option 3 ID : 441009281
Option 4 ID : 441009282
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.30 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the option in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following number-pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
50, 74
66, 90
Ans 1. 80, 94

2. 42, 66

3. 45, 60

4. 74, 108

Question ID : 4410091191
Option 1 ID : 4410094757
Option 2 ID : 4410094759
Option 3 ID : 4410094760
Option 4 ID : 4410094758
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.31 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 18 36 63 99 ?
Ans 1. 144

2. 132

3. 138

4. 126

Question ID : 4410091172
Option 1 ID : 4410094684
Option 2 ID : 4410094682
Option 3 ID : 4410094683
Option 4 ID : 4410094681
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.32 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All actors are dancers.
All dancers are singers.

Conclusions:
(I) All actors are singers.
(II) Some singers are dancers.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Question ID : 44100983
Option 1 ID : 441009323
Option 2 ID : 441009322
Option 3 ID : 441009324
Option 4 ID : 441009321
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.33 Refer to the following letter and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.

(Left) H Q E K \ / \ S + U * / K E W P ^ D N (Right)

How many such letters are there each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also
immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Three

4. Two

Question ID : 441009521
Option 1 ID : 4410092073
Option 2 ID : 4410092070
Option 3 ID : 4410092072
Option 4 ID : 4410092071
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.34 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same
order.
B is kept immediately above D. F is kept immediately above C. Only E is kept above A. Only
two boxes are kept above B. F is not kept at the third position from the bottom.
How many boxes are kept below G?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Two

4. Three

Question ID : 44100961
Option 1 ID : 441009233
Option 2 ID : 441009236
Option 3 ID : 441009234
Option 4 ID : 441009235
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Section : Domain Knowledge

Q.1 Damper winding is provided in a synchronous motor:

Ans 1. to increase synchronous reactance

2. to increase effective DC resistance

3. to reduce armature reaction

4. to start the motor

Question ID : 44100987383
Option 1 ID : 441009347372
Option 2 ID : 441009347374
Option 3 ID : 441009347371
Option 4 ID : 441009347373
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.2 A UJT exhibits negative resistance characteristics in which region?

Ans 1. For all regions after the peak point

2. After the valley point

3. Below the peak point

4. Between the peak point and valley point

Question ID : 44100982072
Option 1 ID : 441009325944
Option 2 ID : 441009325942
Option 3 ID : 441009325941
Option 4 ID : 441009325943
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.3 What does a Sankey diagram indicate in an electrical system?
Ans 1. Information flow

2. Energy flow

3. Financial flow

4. Water flow

Question ID : 44100957641
Option 1 ID : 441009229433
Option 2 ID : 441009229434
Option 3 ID : 441009229432
Option 4 ID : 441009229431
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.4 How does the use of phasors help in calculating the efficiency of a single-phase transformer?
Ans 1. Phasors provide the maximum current that a transformer can handle.

2. Phasors allow calculation of instantaneous current and voltage.

3. Phasors determine the thermal losses in the transformer.

4. Phasors simplify the calculation of power factor and hence, power losses.

Question ID : 44100968499
Option 1 ID : 441009272625
Option 2 ID : 441009272623
Option 3 ID : 441009272626
Option 4 ID : 441009272624
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.5 In a purely resistive AC circuit, the reactive power is ______.

Ans 1. maximum

2. always negative

3. equal to active power

4. zero

Question ID : 44100993004
Option 1 ID : 441009369708
Option 2 ID : 441009369706
Option 3 ID : 441009369705
Option 4 ID : 441009369707
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6 How does a solar charge controller prevent overcharging of a battery?
Ans 1. By reducing the PV array voltage

2. By increasing the load on the battery

3. By disconnecting the PV array from the battery or regulating the charging current

4. By discharging the battery completely

Question ID : 44100952510
Option 1 ID : 441009209130
Option 2 ID : 441009209131
Option 3 ID : 441009209128
Option 4 ID : 441009209129
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.7 Consider the following statements regarding phase difference. Which of the following options
is correct?

Statement 1: Two sinusoidal voltages are said to be in phase if their phase difference is zero.
Statement 2: If one waveform lags another by 90°, then they are considered to be completely
out of phase.
Ans 1. Both statements are correct, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
Statement 1.
2. Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.

3. Both statements are correct, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

4. Both statements are incorrect.

Question ID : 44100992662
Option 1 ID : 441009368558
Option 2 ID : 441009368559
Option 3 ID : 441009368557
Option 4 ID : 441009368560
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 1

Q.8 What is the primary purpose of high-temperature heat energy in a bottoming cycle of a co-
generation system?
Ans 1. To be directly converted into mechanical energy

2. To be released into the environment as waste heat

3. To improve fuel combustion efficiency

4. To be utilised in processes other than power generation

Question ID : 44100957622
Option 1 ID : 441009229357
Option 2 ID : 441009229358
Option 3 ID : 441009229355
Option 4 ID : 441009229356
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.9 In an electric power system, the load factor is defined as:
Ans 1. average load divided by the rated capacity of the system

2. average load divided by the maximum load

3. maximum load divided by the average load

4. total energy consumed divided by the maximum load

Question ID : 44100949382
Option 1 ID : 441009196808
Option 2 ID : 441009196810
Option 3 ID : 441009196809
Option 4 ID : 441009196811
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.10 Which of the following is a part of a shaded pole motor?

Ans 1. Cage rotor

2. Contactor

3. Brushes

4. Commutator

Question ID : 44100987180
Option 1 ID : 441009346514
Option 2 ID : 441009346513
Option 3 ID : 441009346512
Option 4 ID : 441009346511
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 In an RC firing circuit, the firing angle can vary from:

Ans 1. 0° to 90°

2. 90° to 180°

3. 180° to 360°

4. 0° to 180°

Question ID : 44100982063
Option 1 ID : 441009325905
Option 2 ID : 441009325906
Option 3 ID : 441009325908
Option 4 ID : 441009325907
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12 What is the primary reason for the proximity effect in conductors?
Ans 1. The physical movement of electrons towards the outer surface

2. Uneven heating of the conductor

3. Circulating currents due to mutual inductance between adjacent conductors

4. The resistance of the conductor

Question ID : 44100928807
Option 1 ID : 441009114729
Option 2 ID : 441009114728
Option 3 ID : 441009114726
Option 4 ID : 441009114727
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.13 Why was RISC architecture introduced?

Ans 1. To simplify the instruction set for faster execution

2. To increase the number of instructions in a processor

3. To make processors consume more power

4. To replace microcontrollers

Question ID : 44100998401
Option 1 ID : 441009391701
Option 2 ID : 441009391702
Option 3 ID : 441009391703
Option 4 ID : 441009391704
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.14 Class D commutation used for turning off the thyristor is a type of:
Ans 1. self commutation

2. external pulse commutation

3. voltage commutation

4. line commutation

Question ID : 44100982085
Option 1 ID : 441009325994
Option 2 ID : 441009325996
Option 3 ID : 441009325993
Option 4 ID : 441009325995
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 3
Q.15 When should the energy audit report be provided?
Ans 1. Before starting the audit

2. Only when requested by the management

3. After conducting a thorough energy audit

4. During the audit process

Question ID : 44100957644
Option 1 ID : 441009229444
Option 2 ID : 441009229443
Option 3 ID : 441009229446
Option 4 ID : 441009229445
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 3

Q.16 A single-phase AC circuit has an apparent power of 600 VA and an active power of 480 W.
Calculate the power factor of the circuit.
Ans 1. 0.6

2. 0.707

3. 0.8

4. 0.866

Question ID : 44100993024
Option 1 ID : 441009369796
Option 2 ID : 441009369794
Option 3 ID : 441009369793
Option 4 ID : 441009369795
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.17 Why is it beneficial to install a separate transformer for lighting system?

Ans 1. It increases overall power consumption.

2. It ensures stable voltage and reduces losses.

3. It increases energy losses.

4. It decreases initial costs.

Question ID : 44100957652
Option 1 ID : 441009229477
Option 2 ID : 441009229478
Option 3 ID : 441009229475
Option 4 ID : 441009229476
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.18 Which component of a wind turbine requires frequent lubrication to prevent wear?
Ans 1. Tower foundation

2. Rotor blades

3. Gearbox and bearings

4. Transformer

Question ID : 44100952115
Option 1 ID : 441009207581
Option 2 ID : 441009207579
Option 3 ID : 441009207580
Option 4 ID : 441009207582
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.19 Which of the following characteristics is exhibited by servo motor?

Ans 1. It provides precise open loop speed control.

2. It responds to error signal and accelerate load quickly.

3. A torque is developed in rotor which moves where reluctance of flux is minimum.

4. It can accelerate at very high inertia.

Question ID : 44100989983
Option 1 ID : 441009358103
Option 2 ID : 441009358102
Option 3 ID : 441009358104
Option 4 ID : 441009358105
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.20 Which component of wind turbine maintenance is directly related to the amount of plant
operation?
Ans 1. Periodic testing

2. Routine checks

3. Fixed operation and maintenance costs

4. Variable operation and maintenance costs

Question ID : 44100952099
Option 1 ID : 441009207523
Option 2 ID : 441009207520
Option 3 ID : 441009207521
Option 4 ID : 441009207522
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.21 What is the primary function of the controlling torque in electrostatic instruments?
Ans 1. To regulate the power supply

2. To provide a resisting force to the deflecting torque

3. To maintain the movement of the system

4. To increase the sensitivity of the instrument

Question ID : 44100973690
Option 1 ID : 441009293077
Option 2 ID : 441009293075
Option 3 ID : 441009293074
Option 4 ID : 441009293076
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.22 What is the purpose of an extension in moving iron instruments?

Ans 1. To make the instrument more accurate

2. To modify the frequency response

3. To protect the instrument from high currents

4. To increase the deflection range

Question ID : 44100973713
Option 1 ID : 441009293163
Option 2 ID : 441009293164
Option 3 ID : 441009293165
Option 4 ID : 441009293162
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.23 What does a higher star rating on an appliance indicate about its performance?
Ans 1. Lower efficiency

2. High energy efficiency and lower energy consumption

3. Greater energy consumption

4. Lower upfront cost

Question ID : 44100943206
Option 1 ID : 441009172288
Option 2 ID : 441009172289
Option 3 ID : 441009172287
Option 4 ID : 441009172290
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.24 Why are primary batteries also called 'dry batteries'?
Ans 1. Because they operate without electrolyte

2. Because the electrolyte is absorbed in the separator and no free liquid is present

3. Because they do not need maintenance

4. Because they use only dry chemicals

Question ID : 44100952515
Option 1 ID : 441009209148
Option 2 ID : 441009209149
Option 3 ID : 441009209150
Option 4 ID : 441009209151
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.25 What preventive action can help identify potential imbalance or misalignment in a Small Wind
Turbine?
Ans 1. Installing a larger generator

2. Monitoring vibration levels regularly

3. Increasing the rotor speed

4. Painting the turbine blades frequently

Question ID : 44100952196
Option 1 ID : 441009207903
Option 2 ID : 441009207906
Option 3 ID : 441009207904
Option 4 ID : 441009207905
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.26 The formula for string efficiency is given by the ratio of the voltage across the whole string to
the:
Ans 1. product of the number of discs and the voltage across the disc nearest to the
conductor
2. number of discs and the total voltage across the string

3. voltage across each individual disc

4. product of the number of discs and the voltage across the conductor

Question ID : 44100928490
Option 1 ID : 441009113496
Option 2 ID : 441009113497
Option 3 ID : 441009113499
Option 4 ID : 441009113498
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.27 What is the main purpose of a pulse transformer?
Ans 1. To provide electrical isolation between primary and secondary windings

2. To deliver continuous current to the load

3. To transfer electrical pulses from one circuit to another with minimal distortion

4. To step up voltage for high-frequency signals

Question ID : 44100968485
Option 1 ID : 441009272570
Option 2 ID : 441009272568
Option 3 ID : 441009272569
Option 4 ID : 441009272567
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.28 When should a generator be connected to the grid, according to the synchroscope?
Ans 1. When the synchroscope needle is pointing to the 'fast' side

2. When the synchroscope needle is pointing to the zero position (middle)

3. When the synchroscope needle is at the maximum deflection

4. When the synchroscope needle is pointing to the 'slow' side

Question ID : 44100973896
Option 1 ID : 441009293754
Option 2 ID : 441009293756
Option 3 ID : 441009293757
Option 4 ID : 441009293755
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.29 What is the role of the Prescaler in a counter module?

Ans 1. To store the count value

2. To reset the counter

3. To increase the counting speed

4. To slow down the input signal before counting

Question ID : 44100998393
Option 1 ID : 441009391667
Option 2 ID : 441009391668
Option 3 ID : 441009391665
Option 4 ID : 441009391666
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.30 What does the shunt branch of the transformer's equivalent circuit represent?
Ans 1. The leakage reactance of the transformer windings.

2. The load on the transformer.

3. The magnetising current and core losses.

4. The series resistance and reactance.

Question ID : 44100949171
Option 1 ID : 441009195983
Option 2 ID : 441009195980
Option 3 ID : 441009195981
Option 4 ID : 441009195982
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.31 Resistance start single phase induction motors are used in:
Ans 1. electric clocks

2. instrument servos

3. timing devices

4. domestic refrigerators

Question ID : 44100987293
Option 1 ID : 441009346965
Option 2 ID : 441009346966
Option 3 ID : 441009346964
Option 4 ID : 441009346963
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.32 Which of the following is correct regarding the primary and secondary windings of an
isolation transformer?
Ans 1. Connected in parallel

2. Electrically isolated but magnetically coupled

3. Electrically and magnetically connected

4. Connected in series

Question ID : 44100968477
Option 1 ID : 441009272535
Option 2 ID : 441009272537
Option 3 ID : 441009272538
Option 4 ID : 441009272536
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.33 Which of the following can decrease the transmission efficiency of a line?
Ans 1. Increasing resistance of the conductor

2. Reducing transmission distance

3. Increasing the transmission voltage

4. Using a higher power factor

Question ID : 44100928831
Option 1 ID : 441009114816
Option 2 ID : 441009114817
Option 3 ID : 441009114815
Option 4 ID : 441009114814
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.34 Which of the following is correct in regard to voltage regulation of a transformer?

Ans 1. The ratio of no-load voltage to full-load voltage.

2. The difference between no-load and full-load voltage, expressed as a percentage of the
full-load voltage.
3. The difference between primary voltage and secondary voltage at full load.

4. The ratio of full-load voltage to no-load voltage.

Question ID : 44100949173
Option 1 ID : 441009195989
Option 2 ID : 441009195990
Option 3 ID : 441009195991
Option 4 ID : 441009195988
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.35 Why is the load factor always less than 1?

Ans 1. Because the load factor is dependent on transmission losses

2. Because the power plant operates at full capacity all the time

3. Because the maximum demand is always less than the average load

4. Because the average load is always smaller than the maximum demand

Question ID : 44100960062
Option 1 ID : 441009239190
Option 2 ID : 441009239188
Option 3 ID : 441009239187
Option 4 ID : 441009239189
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.36 How is mutual-GMD (Dm) between two conductors defined?

Ans 1. The geometric mean of all possible distances between the conductors

2. The arithmetic mean of all distances between the conductors

3. The sum of conductor spacings

4. The mean radius of each conductor

Question ID : 44100928771
Option 1 ID : 441009114591
Option 2 ID : 441009114590
Option 3 ID : 441009114592
Option 4 ID : 441009114593
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.37 What type of solar charge controller is better suited for larger solar power systems?
Ans 1. Pulse Width Modulation

2. Manual Controllers

3. Analog Controllers

4. Maximum Power Point Tracking

Question ID : 44100952525
Option 1 ID : 441009209189
Option 2 ID : 441009209188
Option 3 ID : 441009209191
Option 4 ID : 441009209190
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.38 What is the name of the gas produced when biomass undergoes air gasification?
Ans 1. Producer gas

2. Hydrogen gas

3. Natural gas

4. Methane gas

Question ID : 44100960108
Option 1 ID : 441009239372
Option 2 ID : 441009239374
Option 3 ID : 441009239371
Option 4 ID : 441009239373
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.39 What is the formula for calculating units generated per annum?
Ans 1. (Maximum demand × Load factor) / 8760

2. Maximum demand × Load factor × 8760

3. (Maximum demand × 8760 ) / Load factor

4. Maximum demand × Average load × 8760

Question ID : 44100960052
Option 1 ID : 441009239149
Option 2 ID : 441009239147
Option 3 ID : 441009239150
Option 4 ID : 441009239148
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.40 What is a common solid biomass waste product used for energy?
Ans 1. Wood chips

2. Crude oil

3. Uranium

4. LPG

Question ID : 44100960125
Option 1 ID : 441009239436
Option 2 ID : 441009239435
Option 3 ID : 441009239438
Option 4 ID : 441009239437
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.41 What is the typical source of controlling torque in Moving Iron (MI) instruments?
Ans 1. Spring mechanism

2. Friction

3. Electromagnetic force

4. Gravitational pull

Question ID : 44100973704
Option 1 ID : 441009293126
Option 2 ID : 441009293129
Option 3 ID : 441009293127
Option 4 ID : 441009293128
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 1
Q.42 What is the primary function of a timer module in an ARM processor?
Ans 1. To count time intervals or generate delays

2. To perform arithmetic operations

3. To generate clock signals

4. To manage input/output operations

Question ID : 44100998394
Option 1 ID : 441009391671
Option 2 ID : 441009391672
Option 3 ID : 441009391669
Option 4 ID : 441009391670
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 1

Q.43 What is the primary principle behind the operation of an electrostatic voltmeter?
Ans 1. Electromagnetic induction

2. Thermal expansion

3. Electrostatic attraction and repulsion

4. Piezoelectric effect

Question ID : 44100973883
Option 1 ID : 441009293714
Option 2 ID : 441009293716
Option 3 ID : 441009293715
Option 4 ID : 441009293717
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.44 What is the purpose of the Sample and Hold circuit in an ADC?
Ans 1. To filter out noise from the input signal

2. To amplify the signal before conversion

3. To hold the converted digital value

4. To store the analog signal momentarily before conversion

Question ID : 44100998392
Option 1 ID : 441009391663
Option 2 ID : 441009391662
Option 3 ID : 441009391664
Option 4 ID : 441009391661
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.45 Blocked rotor test is performed on a three-phase induction motor to determine:
Ans 1. temperature withstand capability of the motor

2. no load power factor

3. power factor on the short circuit

4. no load current

Question ID : 44100988118
Option 1 ID : 441009350410
Option 2 ID : 441009350412
Option 3 ID : 441009350409
Option 4 ID : 441009350411
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.46 What was the main cause of the Northern India grid failure on 30th July 2012?

Ans 1. A sudden drop in power generation

2. Cyberattack on power infrastructure

3. Failure of a major hydroelectric plant

4. Overdrawing of power by the Northern Region and imbalance in load flow

Question ID : 44100960077
Option 1 ID : 441009239243
Option 2 ID : 441009239245
Option 3 ID : 441009239246
Option 4 ID : 441009239244
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 3

Q.47 What does the plant capacity factor represent?

Ans 1. The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy that could have
been generated
2. The ratio of maximum demand to the average demand

3. The ratio of actual energy produced to the total connected load

4. The ratio of connected load to the plant capacity

Question ID : 44100960055
Option 1 ID : 441009239160
Option 2 ID : 441009239161
Option 3 ID : 441009239159
Option 4 ID : 441009239162
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.48 A sinusoidal voltage is given by v(t) = 200 sin(314t + 30°). What is the correct phasor
representation of this voltage?
Ans 1. 314∠200°

2. 314∠−200°

3. 200∠−30°

4. 200∠30°

Question ID : 44100993088
Option 1 ID : 441009370042
Option 2 ID : 441009370043
Option 3 ID : 441009370040
Option 4 ID : 441009370041
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.49 Which of the following is/are NOT a key factor of power quality issue in the system?
Ans 1. Harmonic distortion

2. Voltage sags

3. Voltage surges

4. Power factor improvement

Question ID : 44100957648
Option 1 ID : 441009229460
Option 2 ID : 441009229459
Option 3 ID : 441009229461
Option 4 ID : 441009229462
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.50 In a squirrel cage induction generator, where does the reactive power required for operation
come from?
Ans 1. The power converter

2. The grid side power source

3. The turbine rotor

4. The stator of the generator

Question ID : 44100952069
Option 1 ID : 441009207403
Option 2 ID : 441009207401
Option 3 ID : 441009207400
Option 4 ID : 441009207402
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.51 How is an auto transformer different from a two-winding transformer?
Ans 1. It can only step up the voltage.

2. It has two separate windings.

3. It can only step down the voltage.

4. It uses a single winding for both primary and secondary.

Question ID : 44100968465
Option 1 ID : 441009272490
Option 2 ID : 441009272487
Option 3 ID : 441009272489
Option 4 ID : 441009272488
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.52 Which addressing mode is used in the following 8051 instruction?

MOV A, R0
Ans 1. Indirect Addressing

2. Immediate Addressing

3. Register Addressing

4. Direct Addressing

Question ID : 44100996886
Option 1 ID : 441009385572
Option 2 ID : 441009385571
Option 3 ID : 441009385573
Option 4 ID : 441009385574
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.53 In a parallel R-L circuit, the total current is obtained by the:

Ans 1. phasors sum of IR and IL

2. algebraic sum of IR and IL

3. multiplication of IR and IL

4. reciprocal of sum of IR and IL

Question ID : 44100991357
Option 1 ID : 441009363661
Option 2 ID : 441009363660
Option 3 ID : 441009363662
Option 4 ID : 441009363663
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.54 What is the primary reason for considering capacitance effects in medium transmission lines?
Ans 1. To increase power losses

2. To increase the resistance of conductors

3. To eliminate inductive reactance

4. To improve voltage regulation calculations

Question ID : 44100928840
Option 1 ID : 441009114851
Option 2 ID : 441009114852
Option 3 ID : 441009114853
Option 4 ID : 441009114850
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.55 The function of a pulse transformer used in the firing circuit is to:
Ans 1. feed voltage pulses to gate cathode circuit

2. isolate low-voltage gate circuit from high-voltage anode circuit

3. generate voltage pulses

4. turn ON SCR

Question ID : 44100982056
Option 1 ID : 441009325879
Option 2 ID : 441009325878
Option 3 ID : 441009325877
Option 4 ID : 441009325880
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.56 What is primary use of Megger in measurement?

Ans 1. Measuring current in a power line

2. Measuring frequency in an AC circuit

3. Measuring voltage in a DC circuit

4. Measuring insulation resistance

Question ID : 44100973756
Option 1 ID : 441009293325
Option 2 ID : 441009293322
Option 3 ID : 441009293323
Option 4 ID : 441009293324
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.57 What is the purpose of the INTR pin in an ADC interfaced with the 8051 microcontroller?
Ans 1. To reset the ADC

2. To enable the ADC

3. To select the ADC input channel

4. To indicate that the conversion is complete

Question ID : 44100997107
Option 1 ID : 441009386469
Option 2 ID : 441009386467
Option 3 ID : 441009386470
Option 4 ID : 441009386468
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.58 A single-phase AC circuit has a voltage of 230V (RMS) and a current of 10A (RMS) with a
power factor of 0.8 lagging. What is the reactive power?
Ans 1. 1.38 kVAR

2. 1.84 kVAR

3. 2.3 kVAR

4. 1.2 kVAR

Question ID : 44100992837
Option 1 ID : 441009369754
Option 2 ID : 441009369755
Option 3 ID : 441009369756
Option 4 ID : 441009369753
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.59 What happens to the size of a conductor when the voltage is increased by a factor of 'n’
(assuming constant transmission efficiency)?
Ans 1. Doubles the size of conductor

2. Remains unchanged

3. Decreases the size to 1/n2 of the original size

4. Increases by n2 times

Question ID : 44100952206
Option 1 ID : 441009207944
Option 2 ID : 441009207943
Option 3 ID : 441009207945
Option 4 ID : 441009207946
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.60 What is the primary function of an integrating instrument?
Ans 1. To measure the average value of a quantity over time

2. To measure the peak value of a quantity

3. To measure the instantaneous value of a physical quantity

4. To measure the voltage of AC circuits

Question ID : 44100973865
Option 1 ID : 441009293663
Option 2 ID : 441009293664
Option 3 ID : 441009293662
Option 4 ID : 441009293665
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.61 Which of the following is true about the diversity factor in a system?
Ans 1. A higher diversity factor usually means higher peak loads.

2. It helps to determine the total cost of energy generation.

3. It is used to reduce the total connected load in a system.

4. A higher diversity factor helps in reducing the maximum demand.

Question ID : 44100949389
Option 1 ID : 441009196837
Option 2 ID : 441009196836
Option 3 ID : 441009196838
Option 4 ID : 441009196839
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.62 How is a brownout different from a blackout?

Ans 1. A blackout is a total power loss, while a brownout is a partial voltage reduction.

2. A brownout affects a large area, while a blackout only affects industrial consumers.

3. A blackout reduces voltage, while a brownout completely shuts off power.

4. A brownout completely cuts power, while a blackout only reduces frequency.

Question ID : 44100960068
Option 1 ID : 441009239209
Option 2 ID : 441009239210
Option 3 ID : 441009239207
Option 4 ID : 441009239208
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.63 Stepper motor rotational speed is determined by __________.
Ans 1. synchronous speed

2. direction of torque developed

3. load

4. step pulse frequency

Question ID : 44100989986
Option 1 ID : 441009358117
Option 2 ID : 441009358116
Option 3 ID : 441009358115
Option 4 ID : 441009358114
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.64 A power station has the following daily load cycle:

260 MW for 6 hours
200 MW for 8 hours
160 MW for 4 hours
100 MW for 6 hours
The power station is equipped with 4 sets of 75 MW each. What is the plant capacity factor?
Ans 1. 80.2%

2. 61.1%

3. 70.5%

4. 55.6%

Question ID : 44100960059
Option 1 ID : 441009239177
Option 2 ID : 441009239175
Option 3 ID : 441009239176
Option 4 ID : 441009239178
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.65 In the All-Day Efficiency calculation, which of the following is included in the losses?
Ans 1. Only copper losses

2. Core and copper losses

3. Only mechanical losses

4. Only core losses

Question ID : 44100968493
Option 1 ID : 441009272600
Option 2 ID : 441009272601
Option 3 ID : 441009272602
Option 4 ID : 441009272599
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.66 What is the verification temperature for the resistance of the Government of India Ohm
Standard?
Ans 1. 25°C

2. 30°C

3. 20°C

4. 35°C

Question ID : 44100949289
Option 1 ID : 441009196449
Option 2 ID : 441009196450
Option 3 ID : 441009196448
Option 4 ID : 441009196451
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.67 The total Turn ON time of a thyristor is the sum of the ____________.
Ans 1. delay time, rise time and spread time

2. delay time and rise time only

3. reverse recovery time and gate recovery time

4. delay time, rise time and gate recovery time

Question ID : 44100982048
Option 1 ID : 441009325838
Option 2 ID : 441009325837
Option 3 ID : 441009325839
Option 4 ID : 441009325840
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.68 Why is energy conservation important in transformers?

Ans 1. To increase the number of turns

2. To decrease power losses and improve system efficiency

3. To increase the weight of transformers

4. To reduce the amount of power

Question ID : 44100943212
Option 1 ID : 441009172310
Option 2 ID : 441009172308
Option 3 ID : 441009172309
Option 4 ID : 441009172307
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.69 In a transposition cycle, how are the conductors arranged?
Ans 1. They change positions in a repeating sequence over equal distances.

2. They are twisted together to form a bundle.

3. They remain in the same position throughout the line.

4. They are placed farther apart to reduce capacitance.

Question ID : 44100928836
Option 1 ID : 441009114835
Option 2 ID : 441009114836
Option 3 ID : 441009114834
Option 4 ID : 441009114837
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.70 Gate pulse is required in a conventional SCR to:

Ans 1. maintain conduction

2. turn OFF the device only

3. turn ON the device only

4. turn ON and turn OFF the device

Question ID : 44100982098
Option 1 ID : 441009326056
Option 2 ID : 441009326054
Option 3 ID : 441009326053
Option 4 ID : 441009326055
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.71 The LPC2141 microcontroller features ______ pins.

Ans 1. 60

2. 40

3. 64

4. 32

Question ID : 44100998397
Option 1 ID : 441009391679
Option 2 ID : 441009391678
Option 3 ID : 441009391680
Option 4 ID : 441009391677
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.72 What does a power tower in CSP systems primarily do?
Ans 1. It stores solar energy for later use.

2. It concentrates sunlight onto a central receiver using mirrors.

3. It distributes electricity to the power grid.

4. It generates electricity directly through photovoltaic panels.

Question ID : 44100952358
Option 1 ID : 441009208529
Option 2 ID : 441009208528
Option 3 ID : 441009208531
Option 4 ID : 441009208530
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.73 Torque in a switched reluctance motor is:

Ans 1. inversely proportional to current

2. directly proportional to square of current

3. directly proportional to current

4. inversely proportional to square of current

Question ID : 44100989992
Option 1 ID : 441009358137
Option 2 ID : 441009358134
Option 3 ID : 441009358136
Option 4 ID : 441009358135
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.74 In a DC potentiometer, what does the null point indicate?

Ans 1. The voltage is at its highest level.

2. The resistance has reached its maximum value.

3. There is no current flowing through the circuit.

4. The measured voltage is equal to the reference voltage.

Question ID : 44100973835
Option 1 ID : 441009293573
Option 2 ID : 441009293570
Option 3 ID : 441009293571
Option 4 ID : 441009293572
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.75 Which of the following distribution systems is the most economical?
Ans 1. AC single-phase 5-wire system

2. AC 3-phase 3-wire system

3. AC single-phase 2-wire system

4. AC 3-phase 5-wire system

Question ID : 44100989897
Option 1 ID : 441009357748
Option 2 ID : 441009357747
Option 3 ID : 441009357749
Option 4 ID : 441009357746
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.76 Overcurrent protection in thyristor circuit can be achieved through the use of:
Ans 1. fast acting current limiting fuse

2. Snubber Circuit

3. Metal Oxide Varistors

4. Zener Diode

Question ID : 44100982027
Option 1 ID : 441009325756
Option 2 ID : 441009325754
Option 3 ID : 441009325753
Option 4 ID : 441009325755
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 2

Q.77 In a conventional pitch-controlled turbine, how does the blade adjust its pitch?
Ans 1. The entire blade changes shape without rotating

2. The entire blade rotates about its radial axis

3. The blade uses an external control surface like an aileron

4. Only the inner part of the blade rotates

Question ID : 44100952085
Option 1 ID : 441009207467
Option 2 ID : 441009207464
Option 3 ID : 441009207466
Option 4 ID : 441009207465
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.78 Which of the following AC distribution systems is most reliable?
Ans 1. Radial distribution system

2. Feeder distribution system

3. Ring main distribution system

4. Isolator distribution system

Question ID : 44100989893
Option 1 ID : 441009357731
Option 2 ID : 441009357732
Option 3 ID : 441009357730
Option 4 ID : 441009357733
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.79 If a load draws 4 kW real power and 3 kVAR reactive power, what is the apparent power?
Ans 1. 9 kVA

2. 4 kVA

3. 3 kVA

4. 5 kVA

Question ID : 44100992835
Option 1 ID : 441009369544
Option 2 ID : 441009369542
Option 3 ID : 441009369543
Option 4 ID : 441009369541
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.80 In a synchronous motor, mechanical power developed for constant supply voltage and
constant excitation will be maximum when:
Ans 1. load angle δ will be less than internal angle θ

2. load angle δ will be greater than internal angle θ

3. load angle δ will be equal to internal angle θ

4. load angle δ will be equal to zero

Question ID : 44100987417
Option 1 ID : 441009347541
Option 2 ID : 441009347540
Option 3 ID : 441009347539
Option 4 ID : 441009347542
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.81 Primary Substation receives power from:
Ans 1. distribution substation

2. generating station

3. step-down substation

4. load

Question ID : 44100989917
Option 1 ID : 441009357829
Option 2 ID : 441009357826
Option 3 ID : 441009357828
Option 4 ID : 441009357827
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.82 In a single phase AC circuit, supplied with a voltage V and drawing a current I, if ф is the phase
angle between V and I, what is expression for real power P consumed by the circuit.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 44100993050
Option 1 ID : 441009369893
Option 2 ID : 441009369892
Option 3 ID : 441009369894
Option 4 ID : 441009369895
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.83 Class C commutation used for turning off the thyristor is also known as:
Ans 1. load commutation

2. line commutation

3. impulse commutation

4. complementary commutation

Question ID : 44100982077
Option 1 ID : 441009325961
Option 2 ID : 441009325962
Option 3 ID : 441009325964
Option 4 ID : 441009325963
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.84 What is the primary function of the CPSR (Current Program Status Register) in an ARM
processor?
Ans 1. Storing general-purpose register values

2. Controlling pipeline execution

3. Managing system memory allocation

4. Holding condition flags, control bits and processor mode information

Question ID : 44100998399
Option 1 ID : 441009391685
Option 2 ID : 441009391688
Option 3 ID : 441009391686
Option 4 ID : 441009391687
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 1

Q.85 What is the primary function of a welding transformer?

Ans 1. To step up voltage for high-voltage applications

2. To provide power for industrial machines

3. To step down the voltage to provide the necessary welding current

4. To convert DC to AC

Question ID : 44100968481
Option 1 ID : 441009272551
Option 2 ID : 441009272553
Option 3 ID : 441009272552
Option 4 ID : 441009272554
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3