JNUEE PHD Management

Topic:‐ SMEH914 JNUS21

1) What is the name of the conceptual framework in which the research is carried out?[Question ID = 10000][Question
Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q001]
1. Research hypothesis [Option ID = 100000]
2. Synopsis of Research [Option ID = 100001]
3. Research paradigm [Option ID = 100002]
4. Research design [Option ID = 100003]

2) What is the main role of research?[Question ID = 10001][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q002]

1. Social status [Option ID = 100004]
2. To increase job prospects [Option ID = 100005]
3. Personal growth [Option ID = 100006]
4. Solution of problems for betterment of human kind [Option ID = 100007]

3) Which of the following features is considered as critical in qualitative research?[Question ID = 10002][Question

Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q003]
1. Data collection with research tools [Option ID = 100008]
2. Probability Sampling [Option ID = 100009]
3. Collecting data with bottom‐up empirical evidence [Option ID = 100010]
4. Data collection with schematic evidence [Option ID = 100011]

4) How is random sampling helpful?[Question ID = 10003][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q004]

1. Reasonably accurate [Option ID = 100012]
2. An economical method of data collection [Option ID = 100013]
3. Free from personal biases [Option ID = 100014]
4. All of the above [Option ID = 100015]

5) Which one among the following statement is false in the context of participatory research?[Question ID = 10004]
[Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q005]
1. It recognizes knowledge as power [Option ID = 100016]
2. It is a collective process of inquiry [Option ID = 100017]
3. It emphasizes people as experts [Option ID = 100018]
4. None of the Above [Option ID = 100019]

6) Which one among the following statements is true in the context of the testing of hypothesis?[Question ID = 10005]
[Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q006]
1. It is only the alternative hypothesis that can be tested [Option ID = 100020]
2. It is only the null hypothesis that can be tested [Option ID = 100021]
3. Both the alternative and the null hypothesis can be tested [Option ID = 100022]
4. Both the alternative and the null hypothesis cannot be tested [Option ID = 100023]

7) What does the longitudinal research approach actually deal with?[Question ID = 10006][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q007]
1. Long‐term research [Option ID = 100024]
2. Short‐term research [Option ID = 100025]
3. Horizontal research [Option ID = 100026]
4. None of the above [Option ID = 100027]

8) Which of the following does not correspond to characteristics of research?[Question ID = 10007][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q008]
1. Research is not passive [Option ID = 100028]
2. Research is systematic [Option ID = 100029]
3. Research is not problem‐oriented [Option ID = 100030]
4. Research is not a process [Option ID = 100031]

9) What is the main aim of interdisciplinary research?[Question ID = 10008][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q009]
1. To over simplify the problem of research [Option ID = 100032]
2. To bring out the holistic approach to research [Option ID = 100033]
3. To create a new trend in research methodology [Option ID = 100034]
4. To reduce the emphasis on a single subject in the research domain [Option ID = 100035]

10) A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political outfit in a rural area. So, what tool should
he prefer for the study?[Question ID = 10009][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q010]
1. Rating Scale [Option ID = 100036]
2. Interview [Option ID = 100037]
3. Questionnaire [Option ID = 100038]
4. All of the Above [Option ID = 100039]

11) The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?[Question ID = 10010]
[Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q011]
1. Casual Comparative Research [Option ID = 100040]
2. Historical Research [Option ID = 100041]
3. Descriptive Research [Option ID = 100042]
4. Experimental Research [Option ID = 100043]

12) How to judge the depth of any research?[Question ID = 10011][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q012]
1. By research area [Option ID = 100044]
2. By research duration [Option ID = 100045]
3. By research objectives [Option ID = 100046]
4. By total expenditure on research [Option ID = 100047]

13) Which of the following is the method of Research?

A. Survey
B. Interval
C. Observation
D. Philosophical

[Question ID = 10012][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q013]

1. A,B and D

[Option ID = 100048]
2. A, B and C

[Option ID = 100049]
3. B, C and D

[Option ID = 100050]
4. A, B Only

[Option ID = 100051]

14) A research problem is feasible only when[Question ID = 10013][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q014]

1. It has utility and relevance [Option ID = 100052]
2. It is new and adds something to knowledge [Option ID = 100053]
3. It is researchable [Option ID = 100054]
4. All of the above [Option ID = 100055]

15) Authenticity of a research finding depends upon[Question ID = 10014][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q015]
1. Validity [Option ID = 100056]
2. Objectivity [Option ID = 100057]
3. Originality [Option ID = 100058]
4. All of the above [Option ID = 100059]

16) What are the characteristics of a good thesis?

A. Reducing punctuations as well as grammatical errors to minimalist
B. Correct reference citations
C. Proper research design
D. Well defined abstract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10015][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q016]

1. B, C and D

[Option ID = 100060]
2. A, B, C and D

[Option ID = 100061]
3. A, B and C

[Option ID = 100062]
4. A, B and D

[Option ID = 100063]

17) Which one among the following statements are correct in context to research?
A) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution to a problem
B) It is a systematic, logical and unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and
formation of principles can be done
C) It is an intellectual inquiry
D) It enhances knowledge
[Question ID = 10016][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q017]
1. A, B, C and D [Option ID = 100064]
2. A, B and C [Option ID = 100065]
3. B, C and D [Option ID = 100066]
4. A, C and D [Option ID = 100067]

18) What are the correct sequence in the given elements of a dissertation?[Question ID = 10017][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q018]
1. Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations [Option ID = 100068]
2. Executive Summary; Literature Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography [Option ID = 100069]
3. Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References [Option ID = 100070]
4. Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussions and Conclusions [Option ID = 100071]

19) Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?[Question ID = 10018][Question
Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q019]
1. Census [Option ID = 100072]
2. National Sample Survey [Option ID = 100073]
3. Demographic Health Survey [Option ID = 100074]
4. National Family Health Survey [Option ID = 100075]

20) Characteristics of hypothesis is

A. Should be clear and precise
B. Should be capable of being tested
C. Must be specific
D. Should be amenable to testing within a reasonable time
E. Should be limited in scope
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 13414][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q020]

1. A and B

[Option ID = 100076]
2. C and D

[Option ID = 100077]
3. D and E

[Option ID = 100078]
4. A, B, C, D and E

[Option ID = 100079]

21) What is the use of Factor Analysis?[Question ID = 13415][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q021]

1. For setting the hypothesis [Option ID = 100080]
2. To understand the difference between two variables [Option ID = 100081]
3. To understand the relationship between two variables [Option ID = 100082]
4. To understand the difference between various variables [Option ID = 100083]

22) The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study _________[Question ID = 13416][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q022]
1. Vocational Interest [Option ID = 100084]
2. Human Relations [Option ID = 100085]
3. Professional Competence [Option ID = 100086]
4. Achievement Motivation [Option ID = 100087]

23) Which research design is appropriate for inferring cause and effect relationship?

[Question ID = 13417][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q023]

1. Exploratory

[Option ID = 100088]
2. Descriptive

[Option ID = 100089]
3. Causal

[Option ID = 100090]
4. Both Explorative and Descriptive

[Option ID = 100091]

24) Which design is used to measure the effects of two or more independent variables at various level.[Question ID =
13418][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q024]
1. Causal [Option ID = 100092]
2. Descriptive [Option ID = 100093]
3. Exploratory [Option ID = 100094]
4. Factorial [Option ID = 100095]

25) Which scale of measurement includes identification and classification of numbers and objects?[Question ID = 13419]
[Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q025]
1. Interval [Option ID = 100096]
2. Ratio [Option ID = 100097]
3. Nominal [Option ID = 100098]
4. Ordinal [Option ID = 100099]

26) Ordinal scales are used to measure the

[Question ID = 13420][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q026]

1. Attitude

[Option ID = 100100]
2. Opinion

[Option ID = 100101]
3. Perception

[Option ID = 100102]
4. All of the Above

[Option ID = 100103]

27) From the following which is/are monadic scales?

[Question ID = 13421][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q027]

1. Likert

[Option ID = 100104]
2. Stapel

[Option ID = 100105]
3. Semantic differential

[Option ID = 100106]
4. All of the above

[Option ID = 100107]

28) In which scaling technique the data obtained are ordinal in nature?

[Question ID = 13422][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q028]

1. Constant sum

[Option ID = 100108]
2. Q‐sort

[Option ID = 100109]
3. Rank order

[Option ID = 100110]
4. Paired comparison

[Option ID = 100111]

29) Match List I with List II

List I: Non‐Comparative ScaleList II: Characteristics

A. Continuous rating scale I. Continuous line
B. Semantic differential II. Unipolar ten point scale
C. Stapel Scale III. Seven point scale with bipolar labels
D. Likert Scale IV. Degree of agreement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 13423][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q029]

1. A‐I, B‐III,C‐II, D‐IV

[Option ID = 100112]
2. A‐II, B‐I, C‐IV, D‐III

[Option ID = 100113]
3. A‐IV, B‐I, C‐II, D‐III

[Option ID = 100114]
4. A‐I, B‐II, C‐IV, D‐III

[Option ID = 100115]

30) Match List I with List II

List I:Experimental DesignList II: Characteristics

A. Pre experimental I. Randomized
B. Statistical II. Time Series
C. Quasi‐experimental III. Pre‐Test, Post‐Test
D. True experimental IV. Static group

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 13424][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q030]

1. A‐I, B‐II,C‐IV, D‐III

[Option ID = 100116]
2. A‐II, B‐III,C‐I,D‐IV

[Option ID = 100117]
3. A‐IV, B‐I,C‐II,D‐III

[Option ID = 100118]
4. A‐IV, B‐I, C‐III, D‐II

[Option ID = 100119]

31) Match List I with List II

List I:‐ScaleList II:‐Permissible Descriptive Statistics

A. Nominal I. Percentile
B. Internal II. Range
C. Ratio III. Geometric Mean
D. Ordinal IV. Percentage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 13425][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q031]

1. A‐I, B‐II,C‐III, D‐IV

[Option ID = 100120]
2. A‐II, B‐IV, C‐I, D‐III

[Option ID = 100121]
3. A‐III,B‐I,C‐II,D‐IV

[Option ID = 100122]
4. A‐IV,B‐II,C‐III,D‐I

[Option ID = 100123]

32) Match List I with List II

List I List II
A. Questionnaire I. Cluster
B. Sampling II. Secondary data
C. Type of researchIII. Open ended questions
D. Data Collection IV. Exploratory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 13426][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q032]

1. A‐III, B‐I,C‐IV,D‐II

[Option ID = 100124]
2. A‐II,B‐III,C‐IV,D‐I

[Option ID = 100125]
3. A‐IV, B‐II, C‐III,D‐I

[Option ID = 100126]
4. A‐IV, B‐III,C‐II,D‐I

[Option ID = 100127]

33) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: An Ideal questionnaire should contain only open ended questions.

Statement II: An ideal questionnaire should contain only close ended questions

In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
[Question ID = 13427][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q033]
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 100128]
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Option ID = 100129]
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false [Option ID = 100130]
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true [Option ID = 100131]
34) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Questionnaire is the tool for data collection.

Statement II: Schedule is the tool for data collection.

In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
[Question ID = 13428][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q034]
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 100132]
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Option ID = 100133]
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false [Option ID = 100134]
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true [Option ID = 100135]

35) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Research outcome is the result of a systematic and step by step approach starting from defining research
problem.

Statement II: Research work often includes data collection, survey, data analysis and data interpretation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 13429][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q035]

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[Option ID = 100136]
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[Option ID = 100137]
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

[Option ID = 100138]
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

[Option ID = 100139]

36) Research design decision happen to be in respect of

A. What is the study about
B. What will be the sample design
C. What technique of data collection will be used
D. What type of data is required
E. Where will the study be carried out

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 13430][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q036]

1. A and B Only

[Option ID = 100140]
2. C and D Only

[Option ID = 100141]
3. A, C and E Only

[Option ID = 100142]
4. A,B,C,D,E Only

[Option ID = 100143]

37) Components of research problem are as following

A. There must be objectives
B. There must be alternative means for objectives
C. There must be problem of individual/group
D. There must remain some doubt in the mind of researcher with regard to selection of alternatives
E. There must be some environment (s) to which the difficulty pertains

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 13431][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q037]

1. A and B Only

[Option ID = 100144]
2. E and A Only

[Option ID = 100145]
3. C and D Only
 [Option ID = 100146]
4. A, B, C, D, E Only

[Option ID = 100147]

38) Match List I with List II

List I List II
A. Hypothesis TestingI. Exploratory, Experimental
B. Sampling Design II. Interview, Observation, Survey
C. Data Collection III. Sampling Unit, Size of sample
D. Types of Research IV. T‐Test, Chi‐square test, Z‐test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 13432][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q038]

1. A‐IV, B‐II, C‐III, D‐I

[Option ID = 100148]
2. A‐IV, B‐III, C‐I ,D‐II

[Option ID = 100149]
3. A‐IV, B‐III, C‐II, D‐I

[Option ID = 100150]
4. A‐III, B‐I, C‐II, D‐IV

[Option ID = 100151]

39) Researcher judiciously select the methods for study, keeping in view the following factor(s)

A. Objectives of the study

B. Financial support
C. Time
D. Precision
E. None of the above
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10019][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q039]

1. A and B Only

[Option ID = 100152]
2. C and D Only

[Option ID = 100153]
3. E Only

[Option ID = 100154]
4. A, B, C, D Only

[Option ID = 100155]

40) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sampling can save time and money. A sample study is usually less expensive than a census study and produce
results at a relatively faster speed.

Statement II: Sampling usually enables to estimate the sampling errors and thus assist in obtaining information concerning
some characteristics of the population.

In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
[Question ID = 10020][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q040]
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 100156]
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 100157]
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false [Option ID = 100158]
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true [Option ID = 100159]

41) Scale construction techniques involve the following approach

A. Cumulative scales
B. Arbitrary approach
C. Consensus approach
D. Item analysis approach
E. Factor Scales
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10021][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q041]

1. A and B Only

[Option ID = 100160]
2. B and C Only

[Option ID = 100161]
3. C and D Only

[Option ID = 100162]
4. A, B, C, D, E Only

[Option ID = 100163]

42) MDS in measurement technique means.

[Question ID = 10022][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q042]

1. Multi Dimensional Scaling

[Option ID = 100164]
2. Measuring Designing Scale

[Option ID = 100165]
3. Multi Dimensional Score

[Option ID = 100166]
4. Measuring Diversity Score

[Option ID = 100167]

43) Following are the methods of data collection

A. Content Analysis
B. Depth Interviews
C. Projective Techniques
D. Consumer Panels
E. Pantry Audits

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 10023][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q043]
1. A & B Only [Option ID = 100168]
2. B & C Only [Option ID = 100169]
3. C & D Only [Option ID = 100170]
4. A, B, C, D, E Only [Option ID = 100171]

44) The Likert‐type scale is

A. Easy to construct
B. Bipolar
C. Respondent Centric
D. Quantifiable

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10024][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q044]

1. A and B Only

[Option ID = 100172]
2. B and C Only

[Option ID = 100173]
3. A, C and D

[Option ID = 100174]
4. C and D Only

[Option ID = 100175]

45) From the list which are pictorial techniques

A. Thematic Apperception Test

B. Rosenzweig test

C. Rorschach test

D. Sociometry

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10025][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q045]

1. A and B Only
 [Option ID = 100176]
2. B and C Only

[Option ID = 100177]
3. C and D Only

[Option ID = 100178]
4. A, B, and C Only

[Option ID = 100179]

46) The correct sequence of report writing is

A. Logical analysis of the subject matter
B. Preparation of final bibliography
C. Preparation of the rough draft
D. Rewriting and publishing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10026][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q046]
1. A, B, C, D [Option ID = 100180]
2. C, A, B, D [Option ID = 100181]
3. A, C, B, D [Option ID = 100182]
4. D, C, B, A [Option ID = 100183]

47) Mean, Median and Mode are[Question ID = 10027][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q047]

1. Measures of deviation [Option ID = 100184]
2. Ways of sampling [Option ID = 100185]
3. Measures of control tendency [Option ID = 100186]
4. None of the above [Option ID = 100187]

48) Research is/are

(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10028][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q048]

1. A and B Only

[Option ID = 100188]
2. C and B Only

[Option ID = 100189]
3. A, B and C Only

[Option ID = 100190]
4. D Only

[Option ID = 100191]

49) Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?[Question ID = 10029][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q049]
1. Searching sources of information to locate problem [Option ID = 100192]
2. Survey of related literature [Option ID = 100193]
3. Identification of problem [Option ID = 100194]
4. Data collection [Option ID = 100195]

50) Information is/are

(A) Raw data
(B) Processed data
(C) Input data
(D) Organised data

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10030][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q050]

1. A Only

[Option ID = 100196]
2. B and D Only

[Option ID = 100197]
3. C Only

[Option ID = 100198]
4. D Only
 [Option ID = 100199]

51) Sustainable development can be thought of in the terms of three spheres which are

[Question ID = 10031][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q051]

1. Environment, Economy and Equity

[Option ID = 100200]
2. Environment, Economy and Society

[Option ID = 100201]
3. Environment, Ecology and Society

[Option ID = 100202]
4. Environment, Economy and Ecology

[Option ID = 100203]

52) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD) is also known as

[Question ID = 10032][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q052]

1. Rio 2010

[Option ID = 100204]
2. Rio 2011

[Option ID = 100205]
3. Rio 2012

[Option ID = 100206]
4. Rio 2013

[Option ID = 100207]

53) __________ is probably the best know parameter to monitor the public policy implementation by the government.
[Question ID = 10033][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q053]
1. Charging fees for services [Option ID = 100208]
2. Spending Money on Programs [Option ID = 100209]
3. Training and Education [Option ID = 100210]
4. Regulating the administration [Option ID = 100211]

54) The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by ____[Question ID = 10034][Question
Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q054]
1. Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 100212]
2. Prime Minister of India [Option ID = 100213]
3. President of India [Option ID = 100214]
4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 100215]

55) A _____________encompasses all activities associated with the flow and transformation of goods from the raw material
stage, through to the end user, as well as the associated information flows.[Question ID = 10035][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q055]
1. Production line [Option ID = 100216]
2. Marketing channel [Option ID = 100217]
3. Supply chain [Option ID = 100218]
4. Warehouse [Option ID = 100219]

56) ‘Kaizen’ is a Japanese term meaning__________.[Question ID = 10036][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q056]
1. A fool‐proof mechanism [Option ID = 100220]
2. Continuous improvement [Option ID = 100221]
3. A fishbone diagram [Option ID = 100222]
4. Just‐in‐time (JIT) [Option ID = 100223]

57) Reverse logistics is required because

[Question ID = 13473][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q057]

1. Goods are unsold

[Option ID = 100224]
2. Goods are defective

[Option ID = 100225]
3. The customers simply change their minds

[Option ID = 100226]
4. All of the above

[Option ID = 100227]

58) In view of project planning, the abbreviated term SMART stand for_________[Question ID = 13474][Question
Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q058]
1. Specific, Measurable, Actionable, Resourced, Timely [Option ID = 100228]
2. Suitable, Measurable, Actionable, Rewarded, Timely [Option ID = 100229]
3. Standardized, Measurable, Achievable, Rewarded, Timely [Option ID = 100230]
4. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Rewarded, Timely [Option ID = 100231]

59) National Rural Development Institute is situated at_________[Question ID = 13475][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q059]
1. Delhi [Option ID = 100232]
2. Hyderabad [Option ID = 100233]
3. Shimla [Option ID = 100234]
4. Mumbai [Option ID = 100235]

60) In reference to Rural Management, which statement is not correct

(A) Development of rural marketing relates to storage of the rural produces.
(B) Development of rural marketing relates to regulating the price of the agri produce items.
(C) Development of rural marketing relates to managing the end to end transportation.
‐[Question ID = 13476][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q060]
1. Statement A is not correct [Option ID = 100236]
2. Statement B is not correct [Option ID = 100237]
3. Statement C is not correct [Option ID = 100238]
4. All statements are not having relevance [Option ID = 100239]

61) National RURBAN Mission is also known as[Question ID = 13477][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q061]
1. Deen Dayal Rurban Mission (DDRM) [Option ID = 100240]
2. Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM) [Option ID = 100241]
3. Veer Savarkar Rurban Mission (VSRM) [Option ID = 100242]
4. None of the above [Option ID = 100243]

62) National RURBAN Mission aims to achieve the outcomes related to[Question ID = 13478][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q062]
1. Bridge the rural urban divide‐ economic, technological and those related to facilities and services [Option ID = 100244]
2. Spreading development in the region [Option ID = 100245]
3. Attracting investment in the rural areas [Option ID = 100246]
4. All of above [Option ID = 100247]

63) What is an advantage of a greenfield project over a brownfield project?[Question ID = 13479][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q063]
1. A greenfield project is usually started at a less cost than a brownfield project [Option ID = 100248]
2. Typically, a greenfield project requires fewer approvals than a brownfield project [Option ID = 100249]
3. Greenfield facilities are typically much less costly to operate and maintain than brownfield facilities [Option ID = 100250]
4. The time taken to initiate a greenfield project is less than the time required to do so for a brownfield project [Option ID = 100251]

64) Which of the following is not an IT infrastructure service component?[Question ID = 13480][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q064]
1. IT management services to plan and develop the infrastructure and provide project management [Option ID = 100252]
2. Computing platforms to provide a coherent digital environment [Option ID = 100253]
3. Physical facilities management to manage the facilities housing physical components [Option ID = 100254]
4. Operating system software [Option ID = 100255]

65) Which statement/s is/are true about the National solar mission?
I. A goal of increasing production of Photovoltaics to 1000 MW/year
II. Increase the use of solar thermal technologies in urban areas, industry and commercial establishments
III. A goal of deploying at least 1500 MW of solar thermal power generation

[Question ID = 13481][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q065]

1. Only I and II

[Option ID = 100256]
2. Only III

[Option ID = 100257]
3. All

[Option ID = 100258]
4. None of these

[Option ID = 100259]

66) Which of the following is/are salient features of Paris agreement?

A. It provides a transparency framework
B. It establishes a compliance mechanism in a punitive way
C. It mandates contribution of financial resources by developed countries on a voluntary basis

Select the correct answer from the following

[Question ID = 13482][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q066]
1. Only A [Option ID = 100260]
2. Only A and B [Option ID = 100261]
3. Only A and C [Option ID = 100262]
4. A, B and C [Option ID = 100263]

67) The world’s first 100% solar powered airport is located at

[Question ID = 13483][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q067]

1. Bengaluru, Karnataka

[Option ID = 100264]
2. Cochin, Kerala

[Option ID = 100265]
3. Chennai, Tamil Nadu

[Option ID = 100266]
4. Mumbai, Maharashtra

[Option ID = 100267]

68) Energy resources derived from natural organic materials are called_____________.[Question ID = 13484][Question
Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q068]
1. Geothermal energy sources [Option ID = 100268]
2. Fossil fuels [Option ID = 100269]
3. Biomass [Option ID = 100270]
4. All of these [Option ID = 100271]

69) In reference to spirituality, the quality management is driven by a focus on_______.[Question ID = 13485][Question
Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q069]
1. Workplace diversity [Option ID = 100272]
2. Workplace spirituality [Option ID = 100273]
3. Persistent improvement [Option ID = 100274]
4. Knowledge management [Option ID = 100275]

70) __________Yoga is pure spiritual devotion.[Question ID = 13486][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q070]

1. Shakti [Option ID = 100276]
2. Bhakti [Option ID = 100277]
3. Karma [Option ID = 100278]
4. Gyana [Option ID = 100279]

71) The last stage of Creative Thinking is _______[Question ID = 13487][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q071]
1. Verification [Option ID = 100280]
2. Evaluation [Option ID = 100281]
3. Incubation [Option ID = 100282]
4. Preparation [Option ID = 100283]

72) Why is empathy central to design thinking?[Question ID = 13488][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q072]

1. Design thinking wants to design products for every type of user. You need to know the full range of users to be able to do this well [Option ID =
100284]
2. Design thinking is about emotional bonding to your products before functionality. Empathy helps in designing for emotional needs [Option ID =
100285]
3. Design thinking wants to design products that meet your user’s need. This is only possible when you put yourself in their shoes [Option ID = 100286]
4. All of the above are correct [Option ID = 100287]

73) Every patent will be valid for 20 years from___________[Question ID = 13489][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q073]
1. Date of invention [Option ID = 100288]
2. Date of first application filling [Option ID = 100289]
3. Date of patent grant [Option ID = 100290]
4. None of the above [Option ID = 100291]

74) How long copyright for an author lasts?[Question ID = 13490][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q074]
1. The life of the author [Option ID = 100292]
2. The life of the author plus 60 years [Option ID = 100293]
3. 95 years [Option ID = 100294]
4. 75 years [Option ID = 100295]

75) Which of the following cannot be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights to others?[Question ID = 13491]
[Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q075]
1. Trademark [Option ID = 100296]
2. Patents [Option ID = 100297]
3. Designs [Option ID = 100298]
4. All of the above [Option ID = 100299]
76) The potential advantage(s) that can be gained by involving overseas subsidiaries in R&D activities offers benefits
to___________.[Question ID = 13492][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q076]
1. Local subsidiaries offer financial advantages such as lower land and labour costs [Option ID = 100300]
2. Local subsidiaries offer access to local companies [Option ID = 100301]
3. Local subsidiaries offer access to technical knowledge and skills [Option ID = 100302]
4. Local subsidiaries offer financial advantages as well as access to local markets, technical knowledge and skills [Option ID = 100303]

77) Match List I with List II

List‐I (Methods of creativity)List‐II (Feature)

A. Brainstorming I. New product or services
B. General group processing II. Creativity of ideas
C. Illumination method III. Backstop creativity process
D. Creative decision‐making IV. Discussion about innovation
V. Ranking of ideas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10037][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q077]

1. A‐1, B‐2, C‐3, D‐4

[Option ID = 100304]
2. A‐5, B‐3, C‐4, D‐2

[Option ID = 100305]
3. A‐3, B‐1, C‐2, D‐4

[Option ID = 100306]
4. A‐2, B‐5, C‐3, D‐4

[Option ID = 100307]

78) Corporate venturing is also called as___________[Question ID = 10038][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q078]
1. Entrepreneurship [Option ID = 100308]
2. Intrapreneurship [Option ID = 100309]
3. Act of stating a new venture [Option ID = 100310]
4. Offering new product by an existing company [Option ID = 100311]

79) Which statement is correct in reference to entrepreneurship management?

A. The specific job of Entrepreneurship in business enterprise is to make today's business capable of making the future
B. The specific job of Entrepreneurship in business enterprise is to enable today's already existing business to remain
existing and to remain successful in the future
[Question ID = 10039][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q079]
1. Statement A is correct [Option ID = 100312]
2. Statement B is correct [Option ID = 100313]
3. Statement A & B both are correct [Option ID = 100314]
4. Statement A & B both are incorrect [Option ID = 100315]

80) Match List I with List II

List‐I (Types of Debentures)List‐II (Elements)

A. Mortgage debentures I. Unsecured
B. Naked debentures II. Repayment
C. Convertible debentures III. Secured
D. Redeemable debentures IV. Option

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 10040][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q080]

1. A‐1,B‐2,C‐3, D‐4

[Option ID = 100316]
2. A‐1,B‐4,C‐3, D‐2

[Option ID = 100317]
3. A‐3,B‐4,C‐2,D‐1

[Option ID = 100318]
4. A‐3,B‐1,C‐4,D‐2

[Option ID = 100319]

81) Characteristic of venture capital firms is______________[Question ID = 10041][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q081]
1. Developing a portfolio of companies [Option ID = 100320]
2. Holding debt in the firms that are funded [Option ID = 100321]
3. Allowing firms to use the funds as they see fit [Option ID = 100322]
4. Having a short‐term investment horizon [Option ID = 100323]

82) Which of the following services are not offered by incubators?[Question ID = 10042][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q082]
1. Mentorship [Option ID = 100324]
2. Pitching before investor [Option ID = 100325]
3. Business idea selling [Option ID = 100326]
4. Backend start‐up support [Option ID = 100327]

83) Atal Tinkering Lab (ATL) is the initiative to build the culture of innovation in country which is supported by

[Question ID = 10043][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q083]

1. Department of Science and Technology

[Option ID = 100328]
2. Department of Biotechnology

[Option ID = 100329]
3. National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog)

[Option ID = 100330]
4. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

[Option ID = 100331]

84) Which is/are the most reliable funding source to experiment the idea?[Question ID = 10044][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q084]
1. Family [Option ID = 100332]
2. Friends [Option ID = 100333]
3. Relatives [Option ID = 100334]
4. All of the above [Option ID = 100335]

85) Incubators is preferred not to operate through______.[Question ID = 10045][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q085]
1. Section 8 entity [Option ID = 100336]
2. Private Limited entity [Option ID = 100337]
3. NGO entity [Option ID = 100338]
4. None of the above [Option ID = 100339]

86) Decision variables are _______________.[Question ID = 10046][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q086]

1. Controllable [Option ID = 100340]
2. Uncontrollable [Option ID = 100341]
3. Depends on parameters [Option ID = 100342]
4. None of the above [Option ID = 100343]

87) Technological progress is a three‐step process of___________[Question ID = 10047][Question Description =

S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q087]
1. Manufacturing, venturing and promotion [Option ID = 100344]
2. Creation, pricing and marketing [Option ID = 100345]
3. Invention, innovation and diffusion [Option ID = 100346]
4. Start‐ups, imitation and creative destruction [Option ID = 100347]

88) The creativity and innovation promoting strategy is characterized as[Question ID = 10048][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q088]
1. Low specialization and low formalization [Option ID = 100348]
2. Looser controls for new undertakings [Option ID = 100349]
3. A mixture of loose with tight properties [Option ID = 100350]
4. Tight controls over current activity [Option ID = 100351]

89) Spiritual Economics refers to an economic system based upon the Bhagavad Gita and as such offers an economic system
for a society established in transcendence[Question ID = 10049][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q089]
1. Given statement is absolutely correct [Option ID = 100352]
2. Given statement is absolutely wrong [Option ID = 100353]
3. Given statement is partially correct depends on the situation [Option ID = 100354]
4. Given statement is illogical and doesn’t make any sense to the concept [Option ID = 100355]

90) The stored learning from an organization’s history that can be used for decision‐making and other purpose is best
described as _____________.[Question ID = 10050][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q090]
1. Organizational learning [Option ID = 100356]
2. Knowledge warehouse [Option ID = 100357]
3. Organizational memory [Option ID = 100358]
4. Best practices [Option ID = 100359]

91) Which of the following is a specialist who elicits information and expertise from other professionals and translates it into
a set of rules or frames for an expert system?[Question ID = 10051][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q091]
1. Knowledge engineer [Option ID = 100360]
2. Knowledge translator [Option ID = 100361]
3. Knowledge analyst [Option ID = 100362]
4. Knowledge specialist [Option ID = 100363]

92) A collection of internal and external knowledge in a single location for more efficient management and utilization by
the organization is called as _________________ .[Question ID = 10052][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q092]
1. Organizational memory [Option ID = 100364]
2. A knowledge repository [Option ID = 100365]
3. A data warehouse [Option ID = 100366]
4. Knowledge management [Option ID = 100367]

93) Which of the services is not a part of preventive care?[Question ID = 10053][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q093]
1. Sentinel surveillance [Option ID = 100368]
2. Nutritional counselling [Option ID = 100369]
3. Non communicable disease prevention [Option ID = 100370]
4. OPD services [Option ID = 100371]

94) The type of managed care plan in which health care service provider fulfill services at competitive rates, to group of
employers is classified as _____________________. [Question ID = 10054][Question Description =
S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q094]
1. Preferred provider organization [Option ID = 100372]
2. Defined maintenance organization [Option ID = 100373]
3. Health maintenance organization [Option ID = 100374]
4. Non preferred provider organization [Option ID = 100375]

95) License required to start a new retail drug store is issued by ______________ .[Question ID = 10055][Question
Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q095]
1. Drug controller [Option ID = 100376]
2. Drug inspector [Option ID = 100377]
3. Government analyst [Option ID = 100378]
4. Registrar of state pharmacy council [Option ID = 100379]

96) In ideal drug store, the inventory is ________.[Question ID = 10056][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q096]
1. At level between excessive and inadequate [Option ID = 100380]
2. Inadequate [Option ID = 100381]
3. No ideal inventory [Option ID = 100382]
4. In excess [Option ID = 100383]

97) Which of the following statements regarding recent Government policy measures towards the public sector are true?
(A) Restructuring and reviving potentially viable PSU’s
(B) Closing down of those PSUs that cannot be revived
(C) Bringing down government equity in all non‐strategic PSUs to 50 percent or lower
(D) Fully protecting the interest of workers

[Question ID = 10057][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q097]

1. Only A, B and C [Option ID = 100384]
2. Only A, C and D [Option ID = 100385]
3. Only A, B and D [Option ID = 100386]
4. Only B, C and D [Option ID = 100387]

98) Fiscal deficit implies _______.[Question ID = 10058][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q098]

1. Total expenditure – Revenue receipts + Recovery of loans + Receipts from disinvestment [Option ID = 100388]
2. Total expenditure – Total receipts from all sources, Including borrowings [Option ID = 100389]
3. Total expenditure – Revenue receipts + Fresh loans [Option ID = 100390]
4. Total expenditure – Disinvestment receipts [Option ID = 100391]

99) Which of the following does not come under the category of Maharatna Companies?[Question ID = 10059][Question
Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q099]
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited [Option ID = 100392]
2. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited [Option ID = 100393]
3. Coal India Limited [Option ID = 100394]
4. Power Finance Corporation Limited [Option ID = 100395]

100) ‘Rule of Law’ means

(i) Supremacy of Judiciary
(ii) Supremacy of Law
(iii) Equality before Law
(iv) Supremacy of Parliament
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 10060][Question Description = S1_SMEH_914_PhD_Q0100]
1. (i) and (iii) [Option ID = 100396]
2. (iii) and (iv) [Option ID = 100397]
3. (ii) and (iv) [Option ID = 100398]
4. (ii) and (iii) [Option ID = 100399]