IAS Exam Congress

IASEC Essentials

Thematic Test Series

(For CSE Prelims-2025)

TTS-03
Full length Test - 03
TTS-1k21

(December 26, 2024)

This paper was created and curated by Kaptaan Jack Sparrow for @iasexamcongress.

TARGET-2025 TTS-25, Test-03

 IAS Exam Congress
Q1. Consider the following pairs: Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. Kirindi river — Sri Lanka 1. Nitrogen cycle is a type of sedimentary
2. Devoll river — Germany cycle.
3. Fuzhou — South Korea 2. Majority of free nitrogen is fixed by
How many of the pairs given above is/are biotic means.
correctly matched? Which of the statements given above is/
(a) Only one are correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) All three
(b) 2 only
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q2. The total time of sunrise or sunset at
a given place/point on Earth is generally
Q5. Oak-Rhododendron generally found
influenced by
in the upper reaches of Himalayas are the
1. Axial tilt of Earth
characteristic plants of
2. Significant size of Sun
(a) Sub-tropical forest
3. Rotational velocity of Earth
(b) Sub-alpine forest

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Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Temperate forest
given below:
(a) 1 only (d) Semi deciduous forest

(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 Q6. What is common to following places?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Vasvanadi,
2. Mundur
Q3. Consider the following:
3. Sung Valley
1. Molasses
Select the correct answer using following
2. Wheat
options:
3. Rice
4. Barley (a) All are known to have substantial

5. Cassava Uranium deposits

6. Corn (b) All are ancient sites having Buddhist
How many of these are generally used as footprints
feedstocks in distillery industries? (c) All of these are potential sites for
(a) Only three
geothermal energy production
(b) Only four
(d) All have some deposits of rare earth
(c) Only five
elements (REEs)
(d) All six

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Built on the legacy of TTS (for Prelims), PARAKH aims to plug in

the gaps in your preparations and allows you to practice answer writing in a
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PARAKH is a full fledged Test Series for Mains - 2025.

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Q7. With respect to the carbon neutral Q10. Consider the following statements:
certificate, consider the following: 1. Abhanga poetry was composed by
1. Carbon Trust has offered carbon saint-poets primarily describing the
neutral verification since 2012. childhood nuisances of Lord Ram.
2. In order to get a carbon neutral
2. Tukaram and Namdev have composed
certificate, a business organisation
some Abhangas.
must reduce at least 50% of the
3. Each abhanga is usually made up of
total carbon footprints compared to
four lines, with a characteristic
the previous year.
Select the correct answer using the code rhythm.

given below: How many of the statements given above

(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three

(d) None
Q8. Consider the following pairs:

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1. Cerrado — Brazil
Q11. Which of the following is/are the
2. Succulent Karoo — Estonia
feature/features of Brahmadeya Grants
3. Maputaland — Madagascar
during c 600-1200 AD?
4. Volga — Russia
1. Their creation meant a renunciation of
How many of the pairs given above is/are
actual or potential sources of revenue
correctly matched?
by the State.
(a) Only one
2. Most grants were made in unsettled
(b) Only two
areas.
(c) Only three
3. Some of these were meant to be a
(d) All four
political act, as, by agreeing to the
request of a local magnate, the king
Q9. Which of the following languages was made him an ally or confirmed his
the first to be given the status of classical allegiance.
language by government of India? Which of these is/are correct?
(a) Tamil (a) 1 only
(b) Marathi (b) 1 and 3
(c) Telugu (c) 2 and 3
(d) Kannada (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q12. Consider the following pairs: Q15. Consider the following:
1. Korkai — Pandyas 1. Lucknow
2. Motupalli — Kakatiyas 2. Jaipur
3. Kanyakubja — Gurjara Pratihara 3. Gwalior
4. Ohara — Pallavas 4. Varanasi
How many of the pairs given above is/are 5. Mumbai
correctly matched? How many of the cities listed above have
(a) Only one been identified as the creative cities as
(b) Only two ‘city of Music’ under the ambit of Creative
(c) Only three City Network by UNESCO?

(d) None of these (a) Only two

(b) Only three
(c) Only four
Q13. With reference to Indian History, in
(d) All five
which of the following contexts was the
terms, Vigraha, Adivaraha and Gadhaiya

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were used? Q16. In the context of economic policies,
(a) Different forms of Shiva worshipped in which of the following is/are feature/

distant part of Eastern India features of a ‘soft landing’ of an economy?

1. Increasing money supply to fight poor
(b) Different types of taxes applicable in
economic activity and achieving it
different parts of India
without increasing inflation
(c) Different types of coins prevalent in
2. Increasing interest rates in the
different parts of India economy to fight higher inflation and
(d) Different educational centres emerged achieving it without causing economic
during different political regimes recession
3. Increasing tax rates in economy to
Q14. Which of the following economic fight higher fiscal deficit and achieving
activities is not generally inferred from it without increasing inflation
the writings of Marco Polo? Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) production of fine and coarse cotton given below:
textiles (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Production of leather mats (b) 2 only
(c) Ship making industry at Broach coast (c) 1 and 3
(d) Operation of oil mills (d) 3 only

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Q17. In which of the following contexts is Q20. Consider the following statements:
a ‘Special Mention Account’, sometimes 1. European Fund for Sustainable
mentioned in news? Development (EFSD) is one of the
(a) Non-performing assets European Union's (EU) external
(b) Transfer payments financial instruments.
(c) Government bonds
2. EFSD supports international
(d) Balance of payments
partnerships and mobilises public
and private investments in EU's
Q18. Consider the following statements:
neighbourhood and in African
Statement I:
countries.
By tightening monetary policy, monetary
Which of the statements given above is/
authorities can control the depreciation
are correct?
of a currency in a short term when that
(a) 1 only
nation's currency is steeply depreciating.
(b) 2 only
Statement II:
(c) Both 1 and 2
Currency depreciation is the loss of value
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of a country's currency with respect to
one or more foreign reference currencies.

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Select the correct answer using the code Q21. Consider the following:
given below: 1. Shipping ports
(a) Both the statements are individually 2. Patent systems
true and Statement II is the correct 3. GPS
explanation of Statement I 4. Currency
(b) Both the statements are individually How many of the above is/are intangible
true but Statement II is not the public goods?
correct explanation of Statement I
(a) Only one
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(b) Only two
false
(c) Only three
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(d) All four
true

Q19. Which of the following is not a Q22. With reference to measures of

demand liability for a bank? money supply, which of the following is

not generally part of broad money?
(a) Unclaimed deposits
(a) Demand deposits with banks
(b) Recurring deposits
(b) Time deposits with banks
(c) Demand draft
(c) Demand deposits with post offices
(d) Gold kept in bank locker
(d) Currency with public

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Q23. Consider the following: Q26. Consider the following:
1. Increase in tax rates 1. Protozoa
2. Increase in government spending
2. Virus
3. Unemployment compensation from
3. Lichen
government
How many of the above is/are part of an 4. Bacteria
expansionary fiscal policy? 5. Saccharomyces
(a) Only one How many of the above listed organisms
(b) Only two or entities is/are generally known to give
(c) All three litmus?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q24. Consider the following commodities:
(c) Only three
1. Cardamom
(d) Only four
2. Pulses
3. Soya seeds
Q27. Which of the following kingdoms
4. Maize
has/have only unicellular organisms?

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5. Cottonseed
(a) Monera only
6. Onions
At present, how many of the above listed (b) Protista only
commodities is/are permitted for futures (c) Monera and Protista both
trading in India? (d) Protista and Fungi both
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q28. With respect to the space orbits,
(c) Only four how many of the following are generally
(d) All five operated in a Low Earth Orbit (LEO)?
1. Earth observation satellites
Q25. Consider the following statements: 2. Satellites used in GPS or similar
1. In a modern economy, a return to the systems
gold standard of the currency would 3. International Space Station
result in a more volatile economy.
4. Space based internet services
2. The gold standard tend to stabilizes
5. Anti-Satellite Missiles
prices and foreign exchange rates.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of these is/are correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only (a) Only two
(b) 2 only (b) Only three
(c) 1 and 2 (c) Only four
(d) None (d) All five

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Q29. Which of the following is the most Q32. Consider the following statements:
appropriate description of the term ‘data Statement I:
poisoning’ ? Observations in the infrared spectrum
(a) It is a malicious or a deliberate allows researchers to detect light from the
attempt to contaminate the training earliest galaxies and see through dust
data of a computer or artificial clouds.
intelligence program to compromise Statement II:
its performance Much of the visible and ultraviolet light
(b) It is a type of a cyber attack on released in the early Universe has now
machine learning (ML) algorithms to been stretched into the infrared region of
manipulate their learning capabilities the spectrum.
(c) It is a type of a cyber attack that Select the correct answer using the code
involves manipulating input data to given below:
evade detection or classification by a (a) Both the statements are individually
machine learning model
true and Statement II is the correct
(d) It is a process by which a ML or a AI explanation of Statement I
learning model is fed with offensive
(b) Both the statements are individually
language, biased or discriminatory

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true but Statement II is not the
content to produce unethical outcome
correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
Q30. In which of the following contexts is false
the term, ‘harpoons technology’ is seen in
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
the news
true
(a) Cleaning of oil spillage
(b) Removal of Active Space debris
Q33. Consider the following statements:
(c) Growth of coral reefs
1. Electromagnetic field (EMF) emissions
(d) UAVs/Drones
from Mobile towers are ionising radio
frequencies having minuscule power
Q31. Which of the following technologies
and are not capable of causing any
or techniques are generally used to treat
adverse environmental impact.
oil spills?
2. Radio frequency radiations are not
1. Bioremediation
known to cause cancer in humans.
2. Bioreactor
Which of the above statements is/are
3. Microbial fuel cells
correct?
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q34. Consider the following: Q37. Which of the following activities
1. Ground level ozone have been successfully performed using
2. Carbon dioxide Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs)?
3. Methane 1. Aerial photography
4. SO2
2. Traffic supervision
5. PM2.5
3. Disaster monitoring
How many of the above have been
identified for regular monitoring under 4. Precise agriculture
the National Air Quality Monitoring 5. Industrial inspection
Programme? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Only one given below:
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) Only three
(b) Only two
(d) Only four
(c) Only three

Q35. Consider the following: (d) All five

1. Treatment of nutrient deficient soils

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2. Bioremediation of heavy metals
3. Generation of live stock feeds Q38. Lagrange points (L1, L2 etc.) in
4. Production of organic fertiliser space are usually preferred to make
In how many of the above micro algae observations of the Sun-Earth system. In
species is/are generally advantageous? this context, L1 is often used primarily
(a) Only one
because
(b) Only two
1. Objects here are never shadowed by
(c) Only three
Earth or the Moon
(d) All four
2. It provides for an uninterrupted view
of the Sun
Q36. Recently scientists have reportedly
developed an innovative polymer material 3. Various space weather disruptions

containing mechanophores, in which of like solar winds or coronal mass

the following contexts is this material ejections never reaches this point
likely to assume significance? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) In developing leak proof non-plastic given below:
packaging materials (a) 1 only
(b) To study the response of the material
(b) 1 and 3
to high-speed projectile impacts
(c) 1 and 2
(c) To develop strong magnets
(d) 2 only
(d) None of these

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Q39. Consider the following tertiary Q42. Consider the following statements:
treatment methods for treatment of waste Statement I:
water: Parliament can impeach a supreme court
1. Ion-exchange method
or a high court judge by passing an
2. Reverse osmosis
appropriate motion.
3. Chemical oxidation method
Statement II:
4. Activated sludge process
Such a sitting judge can only be
Which of the above methods are correct?
impeached on the grounds of proved
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4 misbehaviour.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below:
(a) Both the statements are individually
Q40. In India, which of the following
true and Statement II is the correct
elections ensure that a unit of population
explanation of Statement I
of a region is represented by an entity
and uniformity is achieved at national (b) Both the statements are individually
level in this context? true but Statement II is not the

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1. Rajya Sabha Elections correct explanation of Statement I
2. Lok Sabha Elections (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
3. Election of the President false
4. Election of Vice President
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
Select the correct answer using the code
true
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only Q43. Union cabinet, sometimes seen in
(c) 1 and 3 news, consists of
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Prime Minister of India
2. Union Ministers
Q41. Consider the following statements:
3. President of India
1. Cess or surcharge are both extra
4. Ministers of State
constitutional arrangements used by
the government to raise revenue. Select the correct answer using the code

2. A cess is an additional tax or levy given below:

imposed on existing duties or taxes. (a) 1, 2 and 3
Which of these is/are correct? (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q44. Consider the following statements: Q46. At present, how many fundamental
1. As per a legal requirement, the duties are in the constitution of India?
maximum limit of eligible voters to
(a) Nine
vote per polling station is 2,000 voters
(b) Ten
for any given polling station.
(c) Eleven
2. As per the constitution of India, for a
candidate contesting for the office (d) Twelve
member of the parliament, he/she
requires at least 50 electors as Q47. Who can remove a serving member
proposers for their nomination paper of National Human Rights Commission?
to be deemed valid. (a) Parliament of India by passing a
3. As per a existing rules, a polling motion
station should be located so that (b) President under some conditions
voters typically travel no more than 2
(c) Any higher Court of law after due
kilometres to vote, with exceptions for
process
sparsely populated hilly or forest
areas. (d) Prime Minister on recommendation of

How many of the statements given above Law Ministry

is/are correct?

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(a) Only one Q48. Which one among the following is
(b) Only two not a characteristic of a federal system?
(c) All three (a) There are two distinct levels of
(d) None of these government
(b) The responsibilities and powers of
Q45. Consider the following statements each level of government are clearly
with respect to Indian Coast Guard: defined in a written Constitution
1. Indian Coast Guard was formally (c) There is no separation of powers
inaugurated during the Prime between the legislative and executive
Ministership of Shrimati Indira branches of government
Gandhi. (d) A Supreme Court is entrusted with
2. It operates under Ministry of Defence. the responsibility of interpreting these
provisions and arbitrating in matters
3. Indian Coast Guard is responsible for
of dispute
the execution of Search and Rescue
(SAR) operations in Indian Search and
Rescue Region. Q49. Local self-government can be best
How many of the statements given above explained as an exercise in
is/are correct? (a) Federalism
(a) Only one (b) Democratic decentralisation
(b) Only two (c) Administrative delegation
(c) All three (d) Direct democracy
(d) None of these

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Q50. Consider the following statements: Q52. Consider the following statements:
Statement I : Statement I :
The functions of Committee of Privileges The sovereignty of India cannot be
are semi-judicial in nature.
surrendered or pledged.
Statement II :
Statement II :
Committee of Privileges examines the
cases of breach of privileges of the House Indian constitution proposes a federation
and its members and recommends of states.
appropriate action. Select the correct answer using the
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
code given below:
(a) Both the statements are individually
(a) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement II is the correct
true but Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually (b) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement II is not the true but Statement II is not the
correct explanation of Statement I correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is

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false false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true
true

Q51. Consider the following statements

regarding the office of Governor in India? Q53. Consider the following:
1. One Governor can act as Governor of 1. Adult suffrage
more than one State. 2. Joint sitting of the two houses of
2. The Governor has the power to grant parliament
pardons, reprieves, remission of 3. Fundamental duties
punishment to persons convicted
4. Election of President
under the State Law.
How many of the above items have been
3. The Governor is appointed by the
adopted by the makers of constitution
President on the recommendation of
the Chief Minister of the respective from the constitution of United States of

State. America?
How many of these is/are correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All four
(c) All three (d) None of these
(d) None of these

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Q54. Consider the following statements: Q57. Consider the following writs:
1. The constitution of India proposes a 1. Certiorari
clear cut demarcation of territories of 2. Habeus Corpus
all the states of Union of India. 3. Prohibition
2. India follows a constitutional scheme 4. Quo Warranto
where all states have signed to form a How many of these writs can be issued
quasi federal state. against the judicial, quasi judicial and
Which of the statements given above is/ administrative authorities?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q58. The law which is infringing the

Q55. Consider the following:
rights of citizens after the commencement
1. State government to sign a resolution
of the constitution is ‘void ab initio’ for
2. Parliament needs to pass a motion
the citizens of the country but it will
3. State legislature to pass a resolution

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remain enforceable for the non-citizens
to support or oppose the demand
and companies. This largely follows from
4. Recommendation of the President
(a) Article 12
How many of the above is/are mandatory
provisions with regard to change in the (b) Article 13
name of a state of Indian Union? (c) Article 21
(a) Only one (d) Article 37
(b) Only two
(c) All four Q59. Consider the following:
(d) None 1. Right to form a company
2. Right to property
Q56. Which of the following parts of 3. Right to receive compensation
constitution promotes political equality in
4. Right to shelter
India?
5. Right to marriage
1. Fundamental Duties
2. Fundamental Rights How many of these rights are legal rights
3. Preamble in India enforced under some law?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) None
given below:
(b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2
(c) Only three
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) Only four
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q60. Consider the following statements: Q63. Consider the following statements:
1. All the members of panchayats at the 1. Terracotta models of the plough have
village, intermediate and district levels been found at sites in Cholistan and
shall be elected directly by the people. at Banawali (Haryana).
2. The chairperson of panchayats at the 2. There is evidence of a ploughed field
village, intermediate and district levels at Kalibangan associated with mature
shall be elected indirectly by and from phase of the Harappan civilization.
amongst the elected members thereof. 3. The ploughed field at Kalibangan had
Which of the statements given above is/ two sets of furrows crossing at right
are correct? angles to each other suggesting two
(a) 1 Only different crops were grown together in
(b) 2 Only it.
(c) Both 1 and 2 How many of these is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q61. Consider the following statements: (c) All three
1. The Ahmadiyya sect of Islam is based (d) None
on the belief in the prophethood of
Shah Walliullah. Q64. Which one of the following cannot

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2. It supported the concept of jihad as a be attributed to Shahjahan's reign ?
nonviolent form of struggle for self- (a) Moti Masjid
improvement. (b) Qila-i-Kuhna Masjid
3. The Ahmadiyya Movement believed in (c) Jama Masjid
separating the religious head from the (d) Rang Mahal
head of the state i.e. maintaining the
mosque's independence from the Q65. The Assam Company, consisting of
state.
the European tea planters, remained the
How many of these is/are correct?
virtual proprietor of the tea industry till
(a) Only one
1850. In the 1850s, who among the
(b) Only two
(c) All three following established two small
(d) None proprietary tea gardens of his own, which
were confiscated by the State after his
Q62. Who wrote the feminist text Stree- execution for treason in 1858 ?
Purush Tulana?
(a) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
(a) Pandita Ramabai
(b) Gunabhiram Barua
(b) Rukhmabai
(c) Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain (c) Lakhinath Bezbarua
(d) Tarabai Shinde (d) Maniram Dewan

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Q66. Dinabandhu Mitra published a play Q70. Consider the following statements:
in Bengali titled: Neel Darpan (Blue 1. Mughal paintings often recorded and
Mirror), which depicted the atrocities on documented significant events and
indigo planters. The play was translated interests of the emperors.
2. These were meant to be seen by the
into English by :
royals only.
(a) Reverend James Long
3. These paintings were a part of
(b) Dwarkanath Tagore
manuscripts and albums.
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutta How many of the statements given above
(d) Rabindranath Tagore is/are correct?
(a) Only one
Q67. National Mineral Development (b) Only two
Corporation, a Public Sector Undertaking (c) Only three
(d) None of these
under the Ministry of Steel, Government
of India has recently started mining Q71. Who among the following is formally
operations at Mount Celia Gold Project. recognised as India’s first woman teacher
The project is located in: who happen to write a poem titled Go, Get
(a) Kenya Education, to make a clarion call to the

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downtrodden to pursue education, and
(b) Nigeria
break free from the shackles of the caste
(c) Australia system?
(d) Uzbekistan (a) Savitri Bai Phule
(b) Tara Bai Shinde
Q68. 'Aryamanjushrimulakalpa' classified (c) Annie Beasant
(d) Kadambini Ganguly
as a Kriya-tantra class text is related to
which of the following sects of Buddhism?
Q72. Gadhika, a ritualistic art form of the
(a) Hinayana Adiya tribe, is primarily associated with
(b) Mahayana the state of
(c) Theravada (a) Assam
(d) Vajrayana (b) Tripura
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Q69. London Indian Society and the East
India Association are founded by whom
Q73. Which one of the following dynasties
among the following personalities? of the Vijayanagar empire was the only
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji Shaivite dynasty?
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (a) Sangama
(b) Saluva
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Tuluva
(d) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Aravidu

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Q74. Which one of the following explains Q77. Consider the following statements:
the 'Kudavolai' system prevalent during 1. In 1943, Subhash Chandra Bose had
Chola period? proclaimed Provisional Government of
(a) A System of granting the lands to Azad India in Germany.
Brahmans/Priests 2. Bose held the charge of foreign affairs
and war portfolios while Nehru was
(b) Trading mechanism used by different
declared as the head of the state of
types of traders
Azad Hind.
(c) Ancient electoral method used to elect
3. The Azad Hind government claimed
village representative
the authority over all Indian civilian
(d) Obligation of the villagers to provide
and military personnel in Britain's
labour services to state officials Southeast Asian colonies which had
fallen into Japanese hands during
Q75. Consider the following: World War II.
1. Rajendra Lahiri 4. Except for Italy, all members and their
2. Ashfaqullah Khan satellite governments of Axis powers
accepted the Azad Hind government.
3. Ram Prasad Bismil
How many is/are correct?
4. Batukeshwar Dutta (a) Only one

TTS-03
How many of these revolutionaries was/ (b) Only two
were directly associated with the Kakori (c) Only three
Robbery of 1925? (d) All four

(a) Only one

Q78. Which one of the following is the
(b) Only two major characteristic of deciduous trees ?
(c) Only three (a) They do not lose their leaves
(d) All four (b) They shed their leaves annually
(c) They synthesize their own food
Q76. Consider the following pairs: (d) They depend on other factors for their
food
1. Someswara — Kalyana Chalukyas
2. Ramaraya — Vijayanagar
Q79. Consider the following pairs:
3. Bhattaraka — East Ganga Dynasty 1. Point Calimere — Kerala
4. Bhanu Deva — West Ganga Dynasty 2. Harike — Tamil Nadu
5. Kharavela — Kalinga 3. Deepor Beel — Assam
Which of the pairs listed above is/are 4. Ashtamudi — Punjab
correctly matched? How many of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(a) Only one
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(b) Only two
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four

TARGET-2025
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 IAS Exam Congress
Q80. Which of the following plastics is Q84. Consider the following statements
most preferentially used to manufacture about North-facing slopes and South-
bottles to store milk, water and juice? facing slopes in Northern Hemisphere:
(a) High density Polyethylene (HDPE) 1. North-facing slopes are snow covered
(b) Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) while South-facing slopes are bare.
(c) Low-density Polyethylene (LDPE) 2. Snow on North-facing slopes is found
(d) Polypropylene (PP) at a lower altitude than South-facing
slopes.
Q81. In context of community ecology, 3. Tree line characteristics on the North
which of the following statements about facing slopes and South-facing slopes
'dominant' species is not correct ? are similar.
(a) Such species usually have maximum How many of the statements given above
impact on the total community. is/are correct?
(b) They usually have greater productivity (a) Only one
and greater biomass than others (b) Only two
(c) In tropical forests, insects are the (c) Only three
dominant species due to their (d) None
numerical abundance.
(d) Some species become dominant in a Q85. Consider the following statements:

TTS-03
community by successfully exploiting Statement I :
limited resources or by avoiding Special Vortex weather conditions in the
predation or disease. lower stratosphere above Antarctica in
winter causes denitrification and lead to
Q82. Consider the following: conversion of inactive chlorine into active
1. Acid action chlorine molecules.
2. Hydrolysis Statement II :
3. Salt Crystal Growth HCl and ClONO2 are two important active
How many of these is/are an example/ chlorine compounds.
examples of chemical weathering? Select the correct answer using the
(a) Only one code given below:
(b) Only two (a) Both the statements are individually
(c) Only three true but Statement II is the correct
(d) None explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually
Q83. Spatio-temporal changes in the high true but Statement II is not the
and low pressure systems in the tropical correct explanation of Statement I
eastern and western Pacific Ocean are (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
called as false
(a) Walker Oscillation
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(b) Walker Circulation
true
(c) Southern Oscillation
(d) Ferrel Oscillation

TARGET-2025
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TTS-25, Test-03
 IAS Exam Congress
Q86. APEDA is mandated with the Q89. Sisal plant is sometimes seen in the
responsibility of export promotion and news, in this context, consider the
development of how many of the following following:
scheduled products?
1. It has the ability to store water and
1. Fruits, Vegetables and their Products
2. Dairy Products. thrive in drought-prone areas.
3. Alcoholic beverages. 2. It is a native tree of India primarily
4. Herbal and Medicinal Plants. found in Eastern Himalayas.
5. Sugar Products Which of the statements given above is/
Select the correct answer using the code are correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) Only two
(b) 2 only
(b) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only four
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All five

Q90. Consider the following statements:

Q87. Consider the following statements
Statement-I:
about Invasive species:
1. Invasive species exhibit a higher biotic The amount of carbon dioxide in the

TTS-03
potential than the indigenous species. atmosphere of a planet can be used as an
2. Some invasive species can be used for indication for habitable zones.
soil conservation and as feed for Statement-II:
livestock. The decrease in carbon dioxide in the
Which of the statements given above is/
planet implies that some of it is being
are correct?
dissolved into an ocean or maybe even
(a) 1 only
captured by a planet-scale biomass.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 codes given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Q88. The Global Tree Assessment (GTA) correct and Statement-II is the correct
is an initiative of which of the following explanation for Statement-I
organisation?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) The United Nations Environment
correct and Statement-Il is not the
Programme (UNEP)
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) International Union for Conservation
(c) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is
of Nature (IUCN)
(c) Global Environment Facility (GEF) incorrect

(d) Intergovernmental Panel of Climate (d) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-

Change (IPCC) II is correct

TARGET-2025 TTS-25, Test-03

 IAS Exam Congress
Q91. Species of dusted apollo is often Q95. Consider the following statements:
reported in news, it is a 1. Arc volcanoes are found near the
(a) fish divergent plate boundaries.
(b) butterfly 2. Some of the world's classical examples
(c) moth of cone-shaped stratovolcanoes, such
(d) bird as Mount Fuji in Japan, Mayon in the
Philippines are Arc volcanoes.
Q92. Consider the following statements: 3. Some of the highest volcanoes on
1. Cellfree Deoxyribonucleic Acid (cfDNA) Earth are of Arc type, notably Nevado
fragments may contain some genetic Ojos del Salado in the Chilean Andes.
information.
How many of these is/are correct?
2. cfDNA can help in early detection of
(a) Only one
Cancer.
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/
(c) All three
are correct?
(d) None
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q96. As per recently passed Biological

TTS-03
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Diversity (Amendment) Act 2023, the
"Farmer's variety" means a variety which:

Q93. What causes the variation in 1. has originated and persisted under
temperature across different latitudes on cultivation or was specifically used for
Earth the purpose of cultivation
(a) The rotation of the Earth on its axis 2. was developed, grown and exchanged
(b) The distance of a location from the informally among farmers
Moon 3. has been traditionally cultivated and
(c) The tilt of the Earth's axis relative to evolved by the farmers in their field
its orbit around the Sun. 4. is a wild relative or landrace of a
(d) The presence of large water bodies variety about which the farmers
near the Equator. possess the common knowledge
5. was grown by ancient farmers and
Q94. Which one of the following species their successors
in the atmosphere does NOT cause Select the correct answer using the code
indirect radiative forcing?
given below:
(a) Aerosols
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Halocarbons
(b) 3 and 5
(c) Nitric oxide
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) Ozone
(d) 3 and 4

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 IAS Exam Congress
Q97. The upward movement of a parcel of Q99. Trees Outside Forests in India
air requires the mechanism, which may (TOFI) programme is a five-year joint
affect the ascent of air. Such mechanism
initiative by the United States Agency for
is called lifting mechanism. In this
International Development (USAID) and
context, how many of the following is/are
correct? the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
1. The adiabatic lifting is caused due to Climate Change, Government of India. In
cooling of a parcel of ascending air this context, how many states are part of
2. The cyclonic lifting is caused due to this program?
meeting of two thermally contrasted
(a) Five
air masses and subsequent formation
of cyclonic front. (b) Six
3. The orographic lifting is caused by (c) Seven
orographic barrier where in a (d) Eight
horizontally moving air encounters
hills or mountains and is forced to
rise along the windward slope of the Q100. Which of the following lakes is
hills. sometimes called as the skeleton lake and
4. The condensation lifting is caused due was in recently reported to have shrunk

TTS-03
to decrease of temperature of a parcel
due to climate change?
of ascending air beyond condensation
level. (a) Deepor Beel
5. The convectional lifting is caused due (b) Roopkund
to warming of surface air due to (c) Thol lake
insolation heating.
(d) Rudrasagar
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) Only four

Q98. Which of the following states is the

latest member of NATO group?
(a) Poland
(b) Finland
(c) Sweden
(d) Ukraine

…Concluded…

TARGET-2025 TTS-25, Test-03