500 Most Repeated NEET Questions
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khan.shifu999500 Most Repeated NEET Questions
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MOST REPEATED
ures
NEET PREVIOUSs, S YEAR F u t
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QUESTIONNAIRE
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
PHYSICS
Electrostatics ......................................................................................................................................................... 5
Current Electricity ................................................................................................................................................ 6
Magnetic Effects of Current & Magnetism and Matter .................................................................................... 7
Electromagnetic Induction & Alternating Current ........................................................................................... 8
Electromagnetic Waves ........................................................................................................................................ 8
Optics ..................................................................................................................................................................... 9
Physics and Measurement .................................................................................................................................... 10
Kinematics ............................................................................................................................................................. 11
Laws of Motion ...................................................................................................................................................... 11
Work Energy & Power .........................................................................................................................................
ur es 12
Centre of Mass, Momentum and Collision .........................................................................................................
F u t 12
in g
Rotational Motion ................................................................................................................................................. 12
h a p
Gravitation............................................................................................................................................................. 13
s ,S
Properties of Solids and Liquids .......................................................................................................................... 13
ea m
Heat and Thermodynamics .................................................................................................................................. 14
D r
Kinetic Theory of Gas ........................................................................................................................................... 15
in g
Oscillation and Waves .......................................................................................................................................... 15
u i d
Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation ................................................................................................................. 16
G
Atoms and Nuclei .................................................................................................................................................. 17
Electronic Devices ................................................................................................................................................. 17
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................... 62
CHEMISTRY
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure ...................................................................................................... 19
Redox Reactions .................................................................................................................................................... 19
Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry............................................................................................................ 20
Chemical Kinetics ................................................................................................................................................. 20
Coordination Compounds .................................................................................................................................... 20
Structure of An Atom ........................................................................................................................................... 21
Chemical Equilibrium .......................................................................................................................................... 21
Ionic Equilibrium .................................................................................................................................................. 22
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General Organic Chemistry ................................................................................................................................. 22
Isomerism............................................................................................................................................................... 23
Organic Compounds Containing Halogens ........................................................................................................ 24
Alcohol, Phenol and Ether.................................................................................................................................... 24
Aldehyde and Ketone ............................................................................................................................................ 25
D-F Block Elements .............................................................................................................................................. 26
Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives ............................................................................................................. 27
Biomolecules .......................................................................................................................................................... 27
Amines.................................................................................................................................................................... 28
Hydrocarbons ........................................................................................................................................................ 29
Periodic Properties................................................................................................................................................ 29
p-block (15-18) ....................................................................................................................................................... 30
p-block (13-14) ....................................................................................................................................................... 30
Mole & Eqt. Concept ............................................................................................................................................ 30
Solution .................................................................................................................................................................. 31
Electrochemistry ................................................................................................................................................... 31
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................... 62
BOTANY
Living World ......................................................................................................................................................... 32
s
ut ure
Biological Classification........................................................................................................................................ 32
g F
Plant Kingdom ...................................................................................................................................................... 33
pi n
Morphology of Flowering Plants ......................................................................................................................... 33
h a
Anatomy of Flowering Plants...............................................................................................................................
S 34
m s,
Cell - The Unit of Life ........................................................................................................................................... 35
D rea
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants .......................................................................................................................... 36
ng
Respiration in Plants............................................................................................................................................. 36
i d i
Plant Growth and Development .......................................................................................................................... 37
Gu
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants .......................................................................................................... 37
Principles of Inheritance and Variation.............................................................................................................. 38
Microbes in Human Welfare ................................................................................................................................ 39
Organisms and Population ................................................................................................................................... 40
Ecosystem............................................................................................................................................................... 40
Biodiversity and Conservation............................................................................................................................. 41
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................... 63
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ZOOLOGY
Animal Kingdom ................................................................................................................................................... 42
Structural Organisation in Animals .................................................................................................................... 43
Biomolecules .......................................................................................................................................................... 44
Cell Cycle and Cell Division ................................................................................................................................. 45
Breathing and Exchange of Gases ....................................................................................................................... 46
Body Fluids and Circulation ................................................................................................................................ 47
Excretory Products and Their Elimination ........................................................................................................ 48
Locomotion and Movement.................................................................................................................................. 50
Neural Control and Coordination ....................................................................................................................... 51
Chemical Coordination and Integration ............................................................................................................. 52
Human Reproduction ........................................................................................................................................... 53
Reproductive Health ............................................................................................................................................. 54
Molecular Basis of Inheritance ............................................................................................................................ 55
Evolution ................................................................................................................................................................ 57
Human Health and Diseases................................................................................................................................. 58
Biotechnology Principles and Processes .............................................................................................................. 59
Biotechnology and Its Application....................................................................................................................... 60
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................................... 63
ur es
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PHYSICS
ELECTROSTATICS
1. A electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30o with an 5. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown
electric field of intensity 2×105 NC−1. It experiences a in the figure is: [NEET (2021)]
torque equal to 4 Nm. Calculate the magnitude of
charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
[NEET (2023)]
(a) 6 mC (b) 4 mC
(c) 2 mC (d) 8 mC
2. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and (a) C/2 (b) 3C/2
R2 (R1 >>R2) have equal charges. The potential would (c) 3C (d) 2C
be: [NEET (2022)] 6. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
(a) More on bigger sphere of 3.2 ×10−7 C distributed uniformly, what is the
(b) More on smaller sphere magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the
(c) Equal on both the sphere centre of the sphere ? [NEET (2020)]
(d) Dependent on the material properly of the sphere 1
9 109 Nm 2 / C 2
3. Two point charges -q and +q are placed at a distance of 4
0
L, as shown in the figure.
(a) 1.28 × 104 N/C (b) 1.28 × 107 N/C
The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R
es
(c) 1.28 × 10 N/C
6
(d) 1.28 × 105 N/C
(R>>L) varies as: [NEET (2022)]
7.
ur
A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged.
u t
F
The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from
g
the center:
a p in [NEET (2019)]
(a) zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r increases
1 1
for r > R ,S h
(a)
R 2
(b)
R3 m s
ea
(b) zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r
(c)
1
(d)
1 r
increases for r > R
D
R4 R5
in g (c) decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
4. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged rally u i d (d) increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then B is G 8. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is
disconnected from the battery and connected to another
connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of
uncharged capacitor of capacitance C= 900 pF as shown resulting system: [NEET (2017)]
in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the (a) remains the same
system (b) is: [NEET (2022)] (b) increases by a factor of 2
(c) increases by a factor of 4
(d) decreases by a factor of 2
9. A capacitor of is 2μF charged as shown in the diagram.
When the switch S is turned to position 2, the
percentage of its stored energy dissipated is
[NEET (2016-II)]
(a) 4.5 x 10-6 J (b) 3.25 x 10-6 J
(c) 2.25 x 10-6 J (d) 1.5 x 10-6 J
(a) 0% (b) 20%
(c) 75% (d) 80%
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10. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. 15. The solids which have the negative temperature
The electric potential and the electric field at the centre coefficient of resistance are : [NEET (2020)]
of the sphere respectively are [NEET (2014)] (a) semiconductors only
Q Q (b) insulators and semiconductors
(a) and (b) Both are zero
4 0 R 4 0 R 2 (c) metals
(d) insulators only
Q
(c) zero and 16. In the circuits shown below, the readings of the
4 0 R 2 voltmeters and the ammeters will be (Assume all the
Q Voltmeter and Ammeter to be ideal) [NEET (2019)]
(d) and zero
4 0 R
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
11. The magnitude and direction of the current in the
following circuit is: [NEET (2023)]
(a) 0.5 A from A to B through E
5
(b) A from A to B through E
9
(c) 1.5 A from B to A through E
(d) 0.2 A from B to A through E (a) V1 = V2 and i1> i2
ur es
12. If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in (b) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
F u t
the circuit shown, the value of R is given by: (c) V2 > V1 and i1> i2
in g
[NEET (2023)] (d) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
h a p
,S
17. The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and
s
stretched m
r e a to 'n' times its original length, its new
gD
resistance will be [NEET (2017)]
i din R
Gu
(a) n2R (b)
n2
(a) 50 (b) 100
(c) 400 (d) 200 R
(c) nR (d)
13. 10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series n
to a battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance. 18. The potential difference (VA -VB) between the points A
Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery,
and B in the given figure is [NEET (2016-I)]
the current is increased n times. The value of n is:
[NEET (2023)]
(a) 100 (b) 1
(c) 1000 (d) 10
14. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance: (a) +3 V (b) +6 V
[NEET (2022)] (c) +9 V (d) –3 V
(a) Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
(b) Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
(c) Increases for conductors but decreases for
semiconductors
(d) Decreases for conductors but increases for
semiconductors
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23. A 250 – Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85μA and subjected
AND MAGNETISM to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for
19. A wire carrying a current I along the positive x-axis has rotating the coil by 180º against the torque is
length L. It is kept in a magnetic [NEET (2017)]
(a) 2.3 J (b) 1.15 J
field B 2 i 3 j 4 k T. The magnitude of the (c) 9.5 J (d) 4.55 J
magnetic force acting on the wire is: [NEET (2023)]
24. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a
(a) 5IL (b) 5IL circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the
(c) 3IL (d) 3IL centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil
20. A very ling conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil
shape from A to B as shown in figure. The magnetic of n turns will be [NEET (2016-I)
field at point P for steady current configuration is given (a) n2B (b) 2nB
by: [NEET (2023)] (c) 2n B
2
(d) nB
25. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a
uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium
state. The energy required to rotate it by 60o is W. Now
0i the torque required to keep the magnet in this new
(a) pointed away from the page
4R position is [NEET (2016-I)
0 i 2 3W
(b) 1 pointed away from the page (a) 3W (b)
4R 2
0i 2 2W W
r3es
(c) 1 pointed into the page (c) (d)
4 R 3
t u
(d)
0i
pointed into the page
26. A wire carrying current I has the
g Fushape as shown in
4R n
i semicircular portion of
adjoining figure. Linear parts
pwhile
of the wire are very long
21. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. h
and parallel to X-axis a
If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field s , Sin Y–Z plane. Magnetic field at origin
radius R is lying
eam
strength at the centre of the solenoid is : [NEET (2022)] is: [NEET (2015)]
(a) 6.28 x 10-2 T (b) 12.56 x 10-2 T D r
(c) 12.26 x 10 T
-4
(d) 6.28 x 10-4 T ing
22. A thick current cable of radius R carries current ‘I’ u i d
uniformly distributed across its cross - section. The G
variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the
distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is represented by:
0 I
[NEET (2021)] (a) B
i 2 k
4 R
(a) (b) 0 I
(b) B
i 2 k
4 R
I
(c) B 0 i 2 k
4 R
(c) (d)
I
(d) B 0 i 2 k
4 R
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32. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60
AND ALTERNATING CURRENTS mA. This inductor is of inductance [NEET (2018)]
27. The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance (a) 1.389 H (b) 138.88 H
4 carrying a current of 2 A is : [NEET (2023)] (c) 0.138 H (d) 13.89 H
33. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor
(a) 4mJ (b) 8mJ
50 reconnected in series across a source of emf, V=
(c) 8J (d) 4J
10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is
[NEET (2018)]
28. The net impedence of circuit (as shown in figure) will (a) 2.74 W (b) 0.43 W
be: [NEET (2023)] (c) 0.79 W (d) 1.13 W
34. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns per
meter. At the center of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns
and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with
(a) 15 (b) 5 5 the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at
a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance
(c) 25 (d) 10 2 of the coil is 10π2 Ω, the total charge flowing through
29. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance the coil during this time is [NEET (2017)]
C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are connected in series (a) 32 μC (b) 16 μC
to an ac source of potential difference ‘V’ volts as (c) 34 μC (d) 18 μC
shown in figures. 35. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50μF and a resistor 40
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10V and Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10
es
40V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing sin 340 t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is
through LCR series circuit is 10 2 . The impedance of
t ur
[NEET (2016-II)]
u
the circuit is : (a) 0.51 W
g F (b) 0.67 W
(c) 0.76 W
a p in (d) 0.89 W
h
36. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A
,S
s
flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn
m
ea
of the solenoid is 4 × 10−3Wb. The self inductance of
r
[NEET (2021)] g D
the solenoid is [NEET (2016-II)]
i d in (a) 4H (b) 3H
(a) 4 (b) 5 G u (c) 2H (d) 1H
37. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on
5 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the
(c) 4 2 (d)
2 secondary coil is 6 A, the voltage across the secondary
30. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. [NEET (2014)]
Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the (a) 450 V, 13.5 A (b) 600 V, 15 A
current in the primary circuit? [NEET (2021)] (c) 300 V, 15 A (d) 450 V, 15 A
(a) 2A (b) 4A
(c) 0.2A (d) 0.4A ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
31. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept
38. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to
perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When the
decrease in its operating frequency: [NEET (2023)]
plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around any of its (a) Displacement current increases.
coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil will (b) Displacement current decreases.
be: [NEET (2019)] (c) Capacitive reactance remains constant.
(a) 0.2 V (b) 2 × 10 −3V (d) Capacitive reactance decreases.
(c) 0.02 V (d) 2 V
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39. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, 45. In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal
the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all
10
frequency of 2.010 Hz and amplitude 48 Vm-1. Then layers are thin)? [NEET (2023)]
the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is : (Speed
8 1
of light in free space 310 ms ) [NEET (2023)]
8 7
(a) 1.6 10 T (b) 1.6 10 T
6 9
(c) 1.6 10 T (d) 1.6 10 T
40. When light propagates through a material medium of
relative permittivity r and relative permeability r , (a) −40 cm (b) −100 cm
(c) −50 cm (d) 40 cm
the velocity of light, v is given by (c - velocity of light
in vacuum) [NEET (2022)] 46. Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (f) but one is
r convex and the other one is concave. When they are
(a) v = c (b) v placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal
r
length of the combination will be: [NEET (2023)]
r c f f
(c) v (d) v (a) (b)
r r r 4 2
41. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x - (c) Infinite (d) zero
direction, which one of the following combination gives 47. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and
suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
magnetic field (B) respectively. [NEET (2021)]
since: [NEET (2021)]
ˆ
(a) j k , j k (b) ˆj k , j k
(a) A large aperture contributes to the quality and
(c) ˆj k , j k (d) ˆj k , j k visibility of the images
42. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 μF is being (b) A large area of the objective ensures better light
charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing
at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the
gathering power
ures
connecting wires and the displacement current through
(d) All of the above F t
(c) A large aperture provides a better resolution
u
the plates of the capacitor would be respectively.
[NEET (2019)] ing
48. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from
(a) 60 μA, 60μA (b) 60 μA, zero
h a p
a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose
(c) zero, zero (d) zero, 60μA
s ,S
objective has a diameter of 2m is: [NEET (2020)]
43. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean
ea m 7
(a) 7.32 10 rad
7
(b) 6.00 10 rad
square value of the electric field is Erms 6V / m . The
D r
g
7
(c) 3.66 10 rad (d) 1.83107 rad
peak value of the magnetic field is
i n
d 49. Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow:
i
Gu
given 3 108 m / s and 2 1.41 [NEET (2017)]
(a) The order of colours is reversed in the secondary
(a) 0.70 × 10 −8 T (b) 4.23 × 10 −8 T rainbow. [NEET (2019)]
(c) 1.41 × 10 −8 T (d) 2.82 × 10 −8 T (b) An observer can see a rainbow when his front is
towards the sun.
OPTICS (c) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion,
refraction and reflection of sunlight.
44. For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are (d) When the light rays undergo two internal
given below : reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow is
Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of formed.
slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant. 50. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence
Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in
by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength,
contact, what will be angle of refraction?
the angular separation of fringes decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct [NEET (2019)]
answer from the options given below : (a) 00
[NEET (2023)] (b) equal to angle of incidence
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (c) 900
(b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) 1800
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
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51. In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes
8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a
PHYSICS AND MEASUREMENT
monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If 56. The area of rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m
the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for
number of fringes he would observe in the same region correct significant digits is: [NEET (2022)]
of the screen is [NEET (2022)]
(a) 6 (b) 8 (a) 138 × 101 (b) 1382
(c) 9 (d) 12 (c) 1382.5 (d) 14 × 102
52. Find the value of angle of emergence from the prism. 57. If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational
constant, then E/G has dimensions of: [NEET (2021)]
Refractive index of the glass is 3 [NEET (2021)]
(a) [M][L0][T0] (b) [M2][L-2][T-1]
(c) [M ][L ][T ]
2 -1 0
(d) [M][L-1][T-1]
58. A screw gauge gives the following readings when used
to measure the diameter of a wire Main scale reading :
0 mm
(a) 45o (b) 90o Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
(c) 60o
(d) 30o Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100
53. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire
surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) from the above data is: [NEET (2021)]
and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the (a) 0.26 cm (b) 0.052 cm
refractive index of the material of the prism is μ, then (c) 0.52 cm (d) 0.026 cm
the angle of incidence is nearly equal to : 59. Taking into account of the significant figures, what is
[NEET (2020)] the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099m? [NEET (2020)]
(a) 9.980 m (b) 9.9 m
(a) μA (b)
(c) 9.9801 m (d) 9.98 m
ur es
2
2 u t
60. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the
F
(c) (d)
in g
measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D are
2
a p
1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Then the maximum
h
54. In Young's double slit experiment the separation d
,S
percentage of error in the measurement X, where X
s
between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength of the light
ea
AB 2 1/ 2
m
used is 5896Å and distance D between the screen and
D rC1/ 3 D3
, will be [NEET (2019)]
slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the
ing (a) 16% (b) – 10%
fringes is 0.200. To increase the fringe angular width to
u i d 3
0.200 (with same λ and D) the separation between the G (c) 10 (d) %
13
slits needs to be changed to [NEET (2018)]
(a) 2.1 mm (b) 1.9 mm 61. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can
(c) 1.8 mm (d) 1.7 mm e2
55. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity of light,
4 0
surface of a prism is 45o . The angle of prism is 60o . If
the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge]
the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of [NEET (2017)]
the material of the prism respectively, are 1
[NEET (2016-II)] 1 e2 2
1 e2
(a) (b) G
0 1 c2 G 4 c 4
(a) 45 , (b) 30 0 , 2
2 1 1
1 1 e2 2 e2 2
2
(c) 45 0 , 2 (d) 30 ,
0 (c) 2 G (d) c G
2 c 4 4
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62. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by 69. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The
[MaLbTc], then the physical quantity will be: speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due east.
[NEET (2009)] If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross
(a) Force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2 the river along the shortest path the angle at which he
(b) Pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2 should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by:
(c) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1 [NEET (2019)]
(d) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2 (a) 00 (b) 600 west
63. The ratio of the dimension of Planck's constant and that (c) 450 west (d) 300 west
of the moment of inertia is the dimension of: 70. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km
[NEET (2005)] h-1 and a ship B 100 km South of A, is moving
(a) Velocity Northwards with a speed of 10 km h-1. The time after
(b) Angular momentum which the distance between them becomes shortest, is:
(c) Time [NEET (2015)]
(d) Frequency (a) 10 2h (b) 0 h
KINEMATICS (c) 5 h (d) 5 2h
64. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s . At t =
2
LAWS OF MOTION
4s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting
71. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the
[NEET (2018)]
ball at t = 6 s? (Take g = 10 m/s2) [NEET (2021)]
(a) Frictional force opposes the relative motion
(a) 20 2 m / s , 0
(b) Limiting value of static friction is directly
(b) 20 2 m / s,10 m / s 2 proportional to normal reaction
(c) 20m / s, 5m / s 2 (d) 20m / s, 0 (c) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction
65. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2 , where A and
ur es
(d) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of
B are constants, then the distance travelled by it
length
F u t
between 1s and 2s is [NEET (2016-II)]
in g
72. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio
3
h a p
1: 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new force
,S
(a) A 4 B (b) 3A + 7B constant is k'. Then they are connected in parallel and
2
s
force constant is k". Then k' : k" is
m [NEET (2017)]
3
(c) A B
7
(d)
A B
ea
(a) 1 : 11
r (b) 1 : 14
2 3 2 3
g D
(c) 1 : 6 (d) 1 : 9
66. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east.
i d in
73. The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass `m' is
After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards
north. The average acceleration of the body is : G u indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The
change in momentum of the particle over the time
[NEET (2011)] interval from zero to 8 s is [NEET (2014)]
(a) 5 m/s2 (b) 1 m/s2
(c) 7 m/s2 (d) 7 m / s 2
67. A particle staring from the origin (0, 0) moves in a
straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at a later
time are
3, 3 . The path of the particle 3,3) makes
with the x-axis an angle of:- [NEET (2007)]
(a) 0o (b) 30o (a) 12 Ns (b) 6 Ns
(c) 45o (d) 60o (c) 24 Ns (d) 20 Ns
68. For angles of projection of a projectile at angles (45O –
) and (45O + ), the horizontal ranges described by the
projectile are in the ratio of: [NEET (2006)]
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
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74. A system consists of three masses m1 , m2 and m3
connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass
COM, MOMENTUM AND COLLISION
m hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal 79. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
table (the coefficient of friction = μ). The downward strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The
acceleration of mass m is: (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m) magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10
[NEET (2014)] m/s2 ) nearly: [NEET (2021)]
(a) 21 kg m/s (b) 1.4 kg m/s
(c) 0 kg m/s (d) 4.2 kg m/s
80. Two particles of mass 5kg and 10 kg respectively are
attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1m with
negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from
g 1 2 the 5kg particle is nearly at a distance of :
g 1 2
(a) (b) [NEET (2020)]
3 2
(a) 67 cm (b) 80 cm
g 1 g 2g (c) 33 cm (d) 50 cm
(c) (d)
9 3 81. Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards
each other under the action of their internal attraction.
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the speed
75. An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + of centre of mass of the system will be –
passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of [NEET (2010)]
1.5ms-1 . The frictional force opposing the motion is (a) 2v (b) zero
3000N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to (c) 1.5v (d) v
the lift in watts is:
(g =10 ms-2 ) [NEET (2022)] 82. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors
(a) 23000 (b) 20000
ur es
(c) 34500 (d) 23500
F t
i 2 j k and 3 i 2 j k , respectively. The centre of
u
76. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a mass of this system has a position vector:
in g
vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when:
h a p [NEET (2009)]
s, S
[NEET (2019)]
(a) i j k (b) 2 i 2 k
(a) The wire is horizontal
ea m
(b) The mass is at the lowest point
r
(c) 2 i j k
D
(d) 2 i j 2 k
(c) Inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
i g
nROTATIONAL MOTION
(d) The mass is at the highest point
i d
u 83. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc
77. A block of mass 10 kg, moving in direction with a
constant speed of 10ms-1, is subjected to a retarding
G about an axis passing through its centre and normal to
force F 0.1x J / m during its travel from x = 20m to
its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its
30m. Its final KE will be: [NEET (2015)]
diameter is [NEET (2022)]
(a) 250 J (b) 475 J
(c) 450 J (d) 275 J (a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 :1
78. The potential energy of a system increases if work is
done : [NEET (2011)] (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1: 2
(a) Upon the system by a conservative force 84. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating
(b) Upon the system by a nonconservative force.
about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required
(c) by the system against a conservative force.
(d) by the system against a nonconservative force to stop after 2π revolution is: [NEET (2019)]
3 4
(a) 210 Nm (b) 12 10 Nm
6 6
(c) 2 10 Nm (d) 210 Nm
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85. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with 90. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R)
moments of inertia I A and I B I B I A have equal at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the
kinetic energy of rotation. If L A and L B be their satellite in terms of g0, (acceleration due to gravity at
angular momentum respectively, then surface of earth), the value of acceleration due to gravity
[NEET (2016-I)]
at the earth's surface, is [NEET (2016-I)]
(a) LA 2LB (b) LB LA
mg 0 R 2 2mg0 R2
L (a) (b)
(c) LA LB (d) LA B 2 R h Rh
2
86. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and
2mg0 R 2 mg 0 R 2
radius r are placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis (c) (d)
XX’ which is touching to two shells and passing Rh 2R h
through diameter of third shell. Moment of inertia of the 91. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of
system consisting of these three spherical shells about
XX’ axis is: [NEET (2015)] earth is correctly represented by: [NEET (2014)]
(a)
2 11
(a) 4mr (b) mr 2
5
(b)
ur es
(c) 3mr
2
(d)
16
mr 2
F u t
5
in g
GRAVITATION h a p
87. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What (c) s ,S
is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half ea m
the radius of the earth ? [NEET (2020)] D r
(a) 30 N (b) 24 N ing
(c) 48 N (d) 32 N u i d
88. The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the G (d)
earth to a height h, which is equal to the radius of the
92. If ve is escape velocity and vo is orbital velocity of a
earth, is: [NEET (2019)]
statellite for orbit close to the earth's surface, then these
1
(a) 2 mgR (b) mgR are related by- [NEET (2012)]
2
(a) vo = ve (b) ve 2vo
3
(c) mgR (d) mgR (c) ve 2vo (d) vo 2ve
2
89. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space
PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS AND
after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two
LIQUIDS
will [NEET (2017)]
93. The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of
(a) move away from each other radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly: (surface
(b) will become stationary tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm-1)
(c) keep floating at the same distance between them. [NEET (2023)]
(a) 5.06×10 J
−4
(b) 3.01×10−4J
(d) move towards each other
(c) 50.1×10 J
−4
(d) 30.16×10−4J
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94. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d,
when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS
becomes constant after some time. If the density of 100. A cup of coffee cools from 900C to 800C in t minutes,
d when the room temperature is 200C. The time taken by
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the a similar cup of coffee to cool from 800C to 600C at a
2
ball will be : [NEET (2021)] room temperature same at 200C is [NEET (2021)]
3 10 5
(a) t (b) t
(a) Mg (b) 2 Mg 13 13
2
Mg 13 13
(c) t (d) t
(c) (d) Mg 10 5
2
95. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging 101. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminum rod of
from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes unknown length have their increase in length
to L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The independent of increase in temperature. The length of
expression for Young's modulus is : [NEET (2020)] aluminum rod is:
MgL MgL aC u 2.2 10 5 K 1
1.7 10 5 K 1 and Al
(a) (b)
AL1 A L1 L [NEET (2019)]
Mg L1 L (a) 113.9 cm (b) 88 cm
MgL1
(c) (d) (c) 68 cm (d) 6.8 cm
Al AL
102. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the
96. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and
following diagram. [NEET (2017)]
water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in
the capillary is 5gm. Another capillary tube of radius 2r
is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise
in this tube is : [NEET (2020)]
ur es
(a) 10.0 g
(c) 2.5 g
(b) 20.0 g
(d) 5.0 g F u t
97. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm is blown from a in g
detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 × 10– h a p
2
N/m. The pressure inside the bubble is equal to the s ,S
Match the following
pressure at a point Z0 below the free surface of water in
Column-1
ea m Column-2
a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = D r
(P) Process I (a) Adiabatic
103 kg/m3, the value of Z0 is: [NEET (2019)]
ing (Q) Process II (b) Isobaric
(a) 10 cm (b) 1 cm u i d (R) Process III (c) Isochoric
(c) 0.5 cm (d) 100 cm G (S) Process IV (d) Isothermal
98. Two wires are made of the same material and have the (a) P → c,Q → d, R → b, S → a
same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A (b) P → d,Q → b, R → a, S → c
and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the (c) P → a,Q → c, R → d, S → b
length of the first wire is increased by Δl on applying a (d) P → c,Q → a, R → d, S → b
force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second 103. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts
wire by the same amount? [NEET (2018)] completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is
(a) 4F (b) 6F absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted
(c) 9F (d) F into heat during its fall. The value of h is
99. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105 J/kg and g = 10 m/s2]
compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10 -11 Pa-1 and density [NEET (2016-II)]
of water is 103 kg/m3. "Find fractional change in
volume” [NEET (2015)] (a) 34 km (b) 544 km
(a) 1.4 × 10-2 (b) 0.8 × 10-2 (c) 136 km (d) 68 km
(c) 1.0 × 10-2 (d) 1.2 × 10-2
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104. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a
transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in the
KINETIC THEORY OF GASES
figure, 108. Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct
match from the given choices.
Column I Column II
(A) Root mean square speed of gas 1
(P) nmv 2
molecules 3
(B) Pressure exerted by ideal gas 3MT
(Q)
M
The change in internal energy of the gas during the (c) Average kinetic energy of a 5
transition is: [NEET (2015)] molecule (R) RT
2
(a) – 12 kJ (b) 20 kJ (D) Total internal energy of 1 mole 3
(c) – 20 kJ (d) 20 J of a diatomic gas (S) k B T
2
105. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at [NEET (2021)]
temperatures 0º C and 110º C, the rate of heat flow in (a) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained (b) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
at temperatures 100º C and 210º C, rate of heat flow will (c) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
be: [NEET (2015)] (d) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
(a) 4.0 J/s (b) 44.0 J/s 109. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter
(c) 16.8 J/s (d) 8.0 J/s d and number density n can be expressed as:
106. A thermodynamics system undergoes cyclic process [NEET (2020)]
ABCD as shown in fig. The work done by the system in 1 1
the cycle is [NEET (2014)] (a) 2 2
(b) 2 2 2
2n d 2n d
(c)
1
t u
(d) re1s 2
2n d
Fu 2n d
p i ng
a mass of gas have r.m.s. the
110. The molecules of ahgiven
S
, m s at 27 C and 1.0 × 10 N
velocity of s200 -1 o 5
e a m
m pressure.
−2
When the temperature and pressure of the
gasrare respectively, 127 C and 0.05 × 10 N m , the
D o 5 −2
g r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in m s is
din
-1
i
Gu
P0V0 [NEET (2016-II)]
(a) (b) Zero
2 400
(a) 100 2 (b)
(c) P0V0 (d) 2P0V0 3
107. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V
100 2 100
expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then (c) (d)
adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the 3 3
gas is:
5
[NEET (2014)]
OSCILLATIONS AND WAVES
3 111. The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic
P produced by an open pipe to that of dosed pipe having
(a) (b) 16P
64 the same length is : [NEET (2023)]
(c) 64P (d) 32P (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
112. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled,
then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a
transverse wave along the string is : [NEET (2022)]
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 :1
(c) 1: 2 (d) 1 : 2
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113. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material 118. When two monochromatic light of frequency ν and ν/2
are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping
6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat potential becomes Vs/2 and Vs respectively. The
frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 threshold frequency for this metal is: [NEET (2022)]
Hz, the original frequency of B will be : (a) 2 V (b) 3 V
[NEET (2020)] (c) 2/3 V (d) 3/2 V
(a) 536 Hz (b) 537 Hz 119. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential
(c) 523 Hz (d) 524 Hz difference of V volt. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the
114. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high 2
electron is 1.227 10 nm , the potential difference is:
building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple [NEET (2020)]
harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the 3 4
(a) 10 V (b) 10 V
pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
2
position. The time period of oscillation is (c) 10 V (d) 10 V
[NEET (2018)] 120. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is threshold
(a) 2s (b) s
frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum
(c) 2s (d) 1s
velocity of electrons emitted is v1 . When the frequency
115. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass
tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be of the incident radiation is increased to 5v0 the
adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same
27oC two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm plate is v2 . The ratio of v1 to v2 is [NEET (2018)]
and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
at 27oC is [NEET (2018)]
121. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of
(a) 350 m/s (b) 339 m/s
ur es
wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same
(c) 330 m/s (d) 300 m/s
u t
surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ,
F
116. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with
V
in g
the stopping potential is . The threshold wavelength
an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from
h a p 4
the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal ,S
for the metallic surface is
s
[NEET (2016-II)]
to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in second (a) 4
a m (b) 5
5e
r
is: [NEET (2017)]
g 2D
(c) (d) 3
din122. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall
4 2
(a) (b)
i
5 3
Gu on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelengths
5 5 0 of the emitted X - ray is [NEET (2016-I)]
(c) (d)
2
2h 2m2 c 2 3
(a) 0 (b) 0
mc h2
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND 2mc 2
(c) 0 (d) 0
RADIATION h
117. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), potassium (K) and 123. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with
Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV monochromatic light of wavelength, λ. The stopping
respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has potential for photo- electric current for this light is 3V0
an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these . If the same surface is illuminated with light of
wavelength 2λ the stopping potential is V0 . The
photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons ?
threshold wavelength for this surface for photoelectric
[NEET (2023)] effect is: [NEET (2015)]
(a) Both Na and K (b) K only
(a) (b) 6
(c) Na only (d) Cs only 6
(c) 4 (d)
4
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124. Which of the following figures represent the variation 129. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei
of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of
wavelength? [NEET (2015)] two daughter nuclei respectively is: [NEET (2022)]
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 4 : 5
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 25 : 16
130. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
(a) fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy
per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while
that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the
Binding Energy in the process is : [NEET (2021)]
(a) 804 MeV (b) 216 MeV
(b) (c) 0.9 MeV (d) 9.4 MeV
131. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series
and the last line of Lyman series is [NEET (2017)]
(a) 4 (b) 0.5
(c) 2 (d) 1
(c) 132. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd
orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ.
When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the
corresponding wavelength of the photon will be
[NEET (2016-I)]
(d) 9 20
(a) (b)
4 2 16 7
125. Light with an energy flux of 2510 Wm falls on a
perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the (c)
20
ur
(d)
16
es
surface area is 15 cm2 , the average force exerted on the 13
F u t 25
surface is [NEET (2014)]
in g
133. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
(a) 1.2010 N
6
(b) 3.0 10 N
6
h a p
monochromatic radiation of Å. Number of
(c) 1.2510 N
6
(d) 2.5 10 N
6
s ,S
spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be
126. If the momentum of an electron is changed by P, then
ea m [NEET (2014)]
the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by D r
0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be-
ing (a) 6 (b) 10
[NEET (2012)] u i d (c) 3 (d) 2
(a) 400 P (b)
P G 134. The Binding energy per nucleon of 37 Li and 42 He nuclei
200
are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the
(c) 100 P (d) 200 P
nuclear reaction 37 Li 11 H 24 He 24 He Q , the value
127. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have
energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a of energy Q released is: [NEET (2014)]
metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV (a) 8.4 MeV (b) 17.3 MeV
successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted (c) 19.6 MeV (d) -2.4 MeV
electrons will be : [NEET (2011)]
ELECTRONIC DEVICES
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 4 135. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance:
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1
[NEET (2022)]
ATOMS AND NUCLEI (a) Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
128. The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is (b) Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
(c) Increases for conductors but decreases for
5.31011 m What is the radius of third allowed orbit
semiconductors
of hydrogen atom? [NEET (2023)]
(d) Decreases for conductors but increases for
(a) 1.06Å (b) 1.59Å
semiconductors
(c) 4.77Å (d) 0.53 Å
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136. The truth table for the given logic circuit is: 140. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of
[NEET (2022)] current flowing through AB is [NEET (2016-II)]
(a) 0 A (b) 10-2A
(c) 10 A
-1
(d) 10-3A
141. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as
shown in the figure below. The current flowing through
the resistance R3 will be [NEET (2016-I)]
(a) (b)
(a) 10.0 A (b) 1.43 A
(c) 3.13 A (d) 2.5 A
142. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium
crystal : [NEET (2011)]
(a) its resistance is increased
(c) (d)
(b) it becomes a p-type semiconductor
137. Consider the following Statements (A) and (B) and
(c) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
identify the correct answer.
(d) there will be more free electrons than holes in the
A. A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when
semiconductor
used as a voltage regulator.
B. The potential barrier of p - n junction lies between
0.1 V to 0.3 V. [NEET (2021)]
ur es
(a) (A) is correct (B) is incorrect.
F u t
(b) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
in g
(c) (A) and (B) both are correct.
h a p
(d) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
s ,S
138. The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-
ea m
n junction diode is due to: [NEET (2020)]
D r
(a) both forward bias and reverse bias
ing
(b) increase in forward current
u i d
(c) forward bias only
(d) reverse bias only
G
139. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following
statement is true? [NEET (2019)]
(a) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms
are the dopants.
(b) Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants.
(c) Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants.
(d) Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent
atoms are the dopants.
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CHEMISTRY
CHEMICAL BONDING AND REDOX REACTIONS
MOLECULAR STRUCTURE 6. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation
1. The correct order of energies of molecular orbitals of reaction?
N2 molecule, is [NEET (2023)] (i) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu0
(a) σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < σ2pz < (π2px = π2py) < (ii) 3MnO24 4H 2MnO4 MnO2 2H 2O
(π*2px = π*2py) < σ*2pz
(iii) 2KMnO 4 K 2 MnO 4 MnO 2 O 2
(b) σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < σ2pz < σ*2pz < (π2px
= π2py) < (π*2px = π*2py) (iv) 2MnO4 3Mn 2 2H2 O 5MnO2 4H
(c) σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < (π2px = π2py) < (π*2px Select the correct option from the following
= π*2py) < σ2pz < σ*2pz [NEET (2019)]
(d) σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < (π2px = π2py) < σ2pz < (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (ii) only
(π*2px = π*2py) < σ*2pz
7. For the redox reaction
2. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II MnO4 C2O24 H Mn 2 CO2 H2O
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced
equation are [NEET (2018)]
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(a) MnO4 2,C2 O24 16, H 5
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(b) MnO4 2,C2 O24 5, H 16
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
ures
[NEET (2021)] (c) MnO4 16,C2 O42 5, H 2
F u t
ng
(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(d) MnO4 5,C2 O24 16, H 2
(b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
p i
a H O changes Cr O72 to
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) 8. In acidic medium, S h
s,
2 2
2
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. Amongst the following which one will have maximum
CrO which
5 m
einaCrO
has two ( − O − O − ) bonds. Oxidation state
'lone pair- lone pair' electron repulsions? D r
of Cr 5 [NEET (2014)]
g
din (c) + 5
(a) + 6 (b) – 10
[NEET (2022)]
i (d) + 3
(a) ClF3
(c) SF4
(b) IF5
(d) XeF2 Gu 9. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium,
KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in
4. Which one of the following pairs of species have the
oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from
same bond order? [NEET (2017)] [NEET (2022)]
(a) +7 to +4 (b) +6 to +4
(a) CN–, CO (b) N 2 , O2
(c) +7 to +3 (d) +6 to +5
(c) CO, NO (d) O2, NO+ 10. Which of the following reactions is the metal
5. Which of the following pairs of compounds is displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
[NEET (2021)]
isoelectronic and isostructural? [NEET (2017)]
(a) Fe + 2HCl ื FeCl2 + H2↑
(a) IBr2 , XeF2 (b) IF3, XeF2 (b) 2Pb(NO3)2 ื 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2↑
(c) 2KClO3 2KCl 3O 2
(c) BeCl2, XeF2 (d) TeI2, XeF2
(d) Cr2 O3 2Al Al 2 O3 2Cr
19 SCAN QR CODE TO ACCESS SOLUTIONS OF ALL QUESTIONS
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17. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606×10−3
THERMODYNAMICS AND S−1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to
THERMOCHEMISTRY 0.2 g is: [NEET (2020)]
11. For a given reaction, ΔH = 35.5 kJ mol–1 and ΔS = 83.6 (a) 500 s (b) 1000 s
JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous at: (Assume (c) 100 s (d) 200 s
that ΔH and ΔS do not vary with temperature) 18. For a first order reaction A → Products, initial
[NEET (2017)] concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001M
(a) all temperatures (b) T > 298 K after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min-
(c) T < 425 K (d) T > 425 K 1
is [NEET (2022)]
12. Consider the reaction 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2N2O5 (g)
ΔHr = − 111kJ. If N2O5 (s) is formed instead of (a) 1.3818 (b) 0.9212
N2O5 (g) in the above reaction, the ΔHr value will be (c) 0.4606 (d) 0.2303
[Given ΔHsublimation of N2O5 is 54 kJ mol-1] 19. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 +
[NEET (2015)] Y2 →→ 2XY is given below
(a) – 165 kJ (b) +54 kJ (a) X2 ֖֖ X + X (fast)
(c) +219 kJ (d) – 219 kJ
(b) X + Y2 →→ XY + Y(slow)
13. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands
from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure (c) X + Y →→ XY(fast)
of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is : The overall order of the reaction will be
[Given that 1 L bar = 100 J] [NEET (2019)] [NEET (2017)]
(a) 5 kJ (b) 25 J (a) 0 (b) 1.5
(c) 30 J (d) – 30 J (c) 1 (d) 2
14. In which case change in entropy is negative? 20. The slope of Arrhenius plot (ln k v/s 1/T) of first order
[NEET (2019)]
reaction is -5 ۭ 103 K. The value of Ea of the reaction
(a) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature.
(b) Sublimation of solid to gas is. Choose the correct option for your answer.
es
(c) 2H(g) → H2(g) [Given R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1] [NEET (2021)]
(d) Evaporation of water (a) 166 kJ mol-1
u t ur
(b) – 83 kJ mol-1
15. A gas is allowed to expand in a well-insulated container (c) 41.5 kJ mol-1
g F (d) 83.0 kJ mol-1
against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an
initial volume of 2.50L to a final volume of 4.50L. The
21.
in
Half-life period of a first-order reaction is 1386
a p
change in internal energy U of the gas in joules will be:
,S h
seconds. The specific rate constant of the reaction is:
m s [NEET (2009)]
ea
[NEET (2017)] (a) 5.0 × 10–2s–1 (b) 5.0 × 10–3s–1
(a) – 507J (b) + 505J
D r
(c) 0.5 × 10–2s–1 (d) 0.5 × 10–3s–1
(c) 1136.25J (d) – 500J
ing
22. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60
CHEMICAL KINETICS u i d minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed
16. The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a
G in approximately [NEET (2007)]
(a) 45 minutes
reaction. (b) 60 minutes
(c) 40 minutes
(d) 50 minutes (log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69 )
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
23. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for
The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, the color of complexes
respectively are [NEET (2022)] (A) Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+
(a) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first (B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+
order (y = t1/2, and x = concentration) (C) [Ni(en)3]2+ [NEET (2022)]
(b) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first (a) A > B > C (b) C > B > A
order (y = rate constant and x = concentration) (c) C > A > B (d) B > A > C
(c) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first
order (y = t1/2 and x = concentration)
(d) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first
order (y = rate and x = t1/2)
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24. What is the correct electronic configuration of the 29. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an
central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field iso-electronic pair? [NEET (2021)]
theory ? [NEET (2019)] (a) Mn2+, Fe3+ (b) Fe2+, Mn2+
(a) t 62g e 0g (b) e3 t32 (c) O2–, F– (d) Na+, Mg2+
30. Which one is a wrong statement?
(c) e4 t 22 (d) t 42g eg2 The electronic configuration of N atom is
[NEET (2018)]
25. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex
[Ni(CO4) ] are [NEET (2018)] (a)
(a) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(b) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(b) An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers
(c) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
while an electron in an atom is designated by four
(d) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
quantum numbers
26. Match List - I with List - II.
(c) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's'
List – I List – II orbital is equal to zero
(a) [Fe(CN)6] 3-
(i) 5.92 B.M. (d) The value of m for d 2 is zero
z
(b) [Fe(H2O)6] 3+
(ii) 0 B.M. 31. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n =
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4- (iii) 4.90 B.M. 3 and l = 1? [NEET (2016-I)]
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 B.M. (a) 6 (b) 10
(c) 14 (d) 2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
32. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital is
below. [NEET (2021)]
equal to: [NEET (2015)]
(a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (a) 0 (b) 6
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (c) 2 (d)
ur es
3
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
F u t
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
g
27. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of
pi n
absorption in the visible region for the complexes of 33.
N2 + 3H2 ֖֖ 2NH3 K1S h a
The equilibrium constants of the following are:
Co3+ is: [NEET (2017)]
m s,
N2 + O2 ֖֖ 2NO K2
rea
(a) Co(H2O)6]3+,[Co(NH3)6]3+,[Co(en)3]3+
(b) Co(NH3)6]3+,[Co(en)3]3+,[Co(H2O)6]3+ 1
D
H 2 O2 H 2 OK 3
ng
(c) Co(en)3]3+,[Co(NH3)6]3+,[Co(H2O)6]3+ 2
(d) Co(H2O)6]3+,[Co(en)3]3+,[Co(NH3)6]3+ i d i The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction
STRUCTURE OF AN ATOM Gu 5
2NH3 O2 ֖ 2NO 3H 2 O will be [NEET (2017)]
2
28. Identify the incorrect statement from the following. (a) K2K3/K1 (b) K32 K3 / K1
[NEET (2022)]
(c) K1K33 / K 2 (d) K2 K33 / K1
(a) All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when
34. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at
compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the
(b) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is
respective 3d orbitals. now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in
(c) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in the container. The maximum volume of the
energy in free state. container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum
(d) The shapes of dxy, dyz, and dzx orbitals are similar to value will be. [NEET (2017)]
(Given that : SrCO3(s) = SrO(s) + CO2(g), Kp = 1.6 atm)
each other; and d 2 2 and d 2 are similar to each
x y z (a) 4 litre (b) 2 litre
other. (c) 5 litre (d) 10 litre
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35. For the reaction: 40. Which will make basic buffer ? [NEET (2019)]
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ֖ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) (a) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M
Hr = – 170.8 kJ mol–1 NaOH
Which of the following statements is not true:- (b) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
[NEET (2006)] (c) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(a) At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO2(g) and (d) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25mL of 0.1 M
H2O(l) are not equal CH3COOH
(b) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given 41. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product
CO 2 1.6×10-10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be
by K p [NEET (2016-I)]
4 O 2
CH
(a) 1.6 × 10−9 M (b) 1.6 × 10−11 M
(c) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will
(c) Zero (d) 1.6 × 10−5 M
cause a shift to the right
42. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K’p are the
(d) The reaction is exothermic equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and
36. For the reversible reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ֖2NH3(g) T2 respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is
+ heat The equilibrium shifts in forward direction constant in temperature range between T1 and T2 , it is
[NEET (2014)] readily observed that [NEET (2014)]
(a) By decreasing the concentration of N2(g) and H2(g) 1
(a) K p K p (b) K p
(b) By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature K p
(c) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g)
(c) K p Kp (d) K p Kp
(d) By decreasing the pressure
37. Which one of the following statements is not correct? GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
[NEET (2017)]
(a) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions. 43. The IUPAC name of the compound
(b) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme
ur es
(c) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.
(d) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the F u t
presence of a catalyst
in g
IONIC EQUILIBRIUM h a p
s ,S [NEET (2017)]
38. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are
ea m
respectively, 1.1 × 10–12, 1.8 × 10–10, 5.0 × 10–13, 8.3 ×
D r
(a) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5al
(b) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
10–17. Which one of the following salts will precipitate ing
u i d (c) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
(d) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
last if AgNO3 solution is added to the solution G 44. Paper chromatography is an example of :
containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI and
[NEET (2020)]
Na2CrO4? [NEET (2015)] (a) Thin layer chromatography
(a) Ag2CrO4 (b) Agl (b) Column chromatography
(c) Adsorption chromatography
(c) AgCl (d) AgBr
(d) Partition chromatography
39. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are 45. Which of the following carbocations is expected to be
3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T(K). The correct option most stable? [NEET (2018)]
for the pH of dimethyl ammonium acetate solution is:
(a) (b)
[NEET (2021)]
(a) 7.75 (b) 6.25
(c) 8.50 (d) 5.50 (c) (d)
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46. The correct IUPAC name of the compound 51. The correct statement regarding the comparison of
staggered and eclipsed confirmations of ethane is:
[NEET (2016-II)]
(a) The staggered confirmation of ethane is more stable
than eclipsed confirmation, because staggered
[NEET (2011)]
confirmation has no torsional strain.
(a) 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1 ene
(b) The staggered confirmation of ethane is less stable
(b) 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene
than eclipsed confirmation, because staggered
(c) 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane
confirmation has no torsional strain.
(d) 3-Ethyl-4-propyl hex-5-ene
(c) The eclipsed confirmation of ethane is more stable
47. Which compound amongst the following is not an
than staggered confirmation, because eclipsed
aromatic compound? [NEET (2022)]
confirmation has no torsional
(a) (b) (d) The eclipsed confirmation of ethane is more stable
than staggered confirmation even though eclipsed
(c) (d) confirmation has torsional strain
52. Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?
48. The stability of carbanions in the following [NEET (2016-II)]
(a)
is in the order of [NEET (2008)]
(a) a > c > b > d (b) a > b > c > d (b)
(c) b > c > d > a (d) d > b > c > a
ur es
ISOMERISM
F u t
49. The order of stability of the following tautomeric in g
compounds is [NEET (2013)]
(c)
h a p
s ,S
eam
D r
ing (d)
u i d
G 53. CH3 – CHCl – CH2 – CH3 has a chiral centre. which one
of the following represents its Rconfiguration?
[NEET (2007)]
(a) I > II > III (b) III > II > I
(a) (b)
(c) II > I > III (d) II > III > I
50. Consider the following compounds
(c) (d)
Hyperconjugation occurs in: [NEET (2015)]
(a) I and III (b) I only
(c) II only (d) III only
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58. The correct order of increasing reactivity of C–X bond
ORGANIC COMPOUNDS towards nucleophile in the following compounds is:
CONTAINING HALOGENS
dry
3 RCOOH H O
54. RMgX CO 2 Y
ether
What is Yin the above reaction? [NEET (2022)]
(a) RCOO-Mg+X (b) R3CO-Mg+X
(c) RCOO- X+ (d) (RCOO)2Mg
55. The incorrect statement regarding chirality is:
[NEET (2010)]
[NEET (2022)]
(a) I < II < IV < III
(a) SN1 reaction yields 1 : 1 mixture of both
(b) II < III < I < IV
enantiomers.
(c) IV < III < I < II
(b) The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane
(d) III < II < I < IV
having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion of
configuration. ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
(c) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on 59. Consider the following reaction
each other.
(d) A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation.
56. For the following reactions : [NEET (2016-II)]
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH →CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + Identify products A and B [NEET (2023)]
H2O
(b) (a)
(b)
ur es
(c)
F u t
ing
Which of the following statements is correct ? (c)
h a p
(a) (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
(b) (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is s ,S
addition reaction. (d)
ea m
(c) (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is D r
addition reaction
d i n60.g Compound A, C H O, is found to react with NaOI
ui
8 10
(d) (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a
57.
reactions.
Which of the following compounds will undergo
G yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are
respectively [NEET (2018)]
racemization on reaction with aq.KOH?[NEET (2014)]
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(c) (c)
(d)
(d)
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61. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and
with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl
(c)
ether. A, B and C are in the order
[NEET (2018)]
(a) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
(b) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(c) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl (d)
(d) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
62. The reaction
65. Which one of the following is not formed when acetone
reacts with 2- pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH
followed by heating? [NEET (2022)]
is called [NEET (2015)] (a)
(a) Gaterman – Koch reaction
(b) Williamson Synthesis
(c) Williamson continuous etherification process (b)
(d) Etard reaction
63. Which one of the following is most reactive towards
electrophilic reagent ? [NEET (2011)]
(c)
(a)
(d)
res
(b)
t u
66. The intermediate compound
g Fuin the following
“X”
(c)
chemical reaction is
a p in [NEET (2021)]
,S h
m s
r ea
(d) D
g (a)
i d in
G u
ALDEHYDES AND KETONES
64. Identify product (A) is the following reaction :
[NEET (2023)]
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
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67. The product formed in the following chemical reaction
is [NEET (2021)]
D AND F BLOCK ELEMENTS
69. Which one of the following ions has electronic
configuration [Ar] 3d6? [NEET (2010)]
(a) Ni 3+
(b) Mn3+
(c) Fe 3+
(d) Co3+
(At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
70. Which one of the following does not correctly represent
(a)
the correct order of the property indicated against it?
[NEET (2012)]
(a) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ ; increasing magnetic
moment
(b)
(b) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting point
(c) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization
enthalpy
(d) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidatin
(c)
states
71. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin
magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and
assign the correct code [NEET (2018)]
(d)
68. Identify compound X in the following sequences of
reactions: [NEET (2020)]
ur es
F u t
(a) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii in g
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
h
(c) 1-iv, 2-v, 3-ii, 4-Ia p (d) 1-iii, 2-v, 3-i, 4-ii
s ,S
72. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in
ea m
aqueous solution? [NEET (2007)]
D r
(a) V 3+
(a)
ing (b) Ti3+
u i d (c) Mn3+
G (d) Cr3+
(At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
(b) 73. In which of the following pairs are both the ions
coloured in aqueous solution [NEET (2006)]
(a) Ni , Ti
2+ 3+
(b) Sc3+, Ti3+
(c) Sc3+, Co2+ (d) Ni2+, Cu+
(c)
74. Reasons of lanthanoid contraction is: [NEET (2014)]
(a) Decreasing nuclear charge
(b) Decreasing screening effect
(d) (c) Negligible screening effect of ‘f’ orbitals
(d) Increasing nuclear charge
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CARBOXYLIC ACIDS AND THEIR
(c)
DERIVATIVES
75. Match List - I with List – II
List - I List – II
(i) Hell-Volhard- (d)
Zelinsky reaction
(a)
(ii) Gattermann- 78. Which of the following represents the correct order of
(b) Koch the acidity in the given compounds? [NEET (2007)]
(a) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH >
(c) R – CH2 – OH + R’COOH (iii) Haloform ClCH2COOH
Conc.H2SO4 reaction
(b) BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH >
CH3COOH
(d) R - CH2COOH −
(c) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH >
i X2 /Re d P (iv) Esterification
CH3COOH
ii H 2O
(d) CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH >
Choose the correct answer form the options given FCH2COOH
below. [NEET (2021)] 79. Prppionic acid with Br2/P yields a dibromo product, Its
(a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) structure would be:- [NEET (2009)]
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (a)
76. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than
ur es
aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable
(b) CH2Br–CHBr–COOH F u t
molecular mass. It is due to their [NEET (2018)]
in g
(a) More extensive association of carboxylic acid via
h a p
,S
van der Waals force of attraction
(b) Formation of carboxylate ion
(c)
m s
(c) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
r ea
D
ng
(d) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding (d) CH Br–CH –COBr
2 2
77. In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a
d i
i BIOMOLECULES
product D. Identify the product D [NEET (2011)]
Gu 80. Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold
conditions only is [NEET (2014)]
(a) Aspartame (b) Alitame
(c) Saccharine (d) Sucralose
81. The non-essential amino acid among the following is :
[NEET (2019)]
(a) (a) leucine (b) alanine
(c) lysine (d) valine
82. Which of the following is water-soluble?
[NEET (2007)]
(a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin K
(b)
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B
83. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar ?
[NEET (2016-II)]
(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose
(c) Lactose (d) Glucose
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84. D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an 86. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl
oxime. The structure of the oxime would be substituted amines in aqueous solution is:
[NEET (2014)] [NEET (2009)]
(a) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2> (CH3)2NH
(b) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(a) (c) CH3NH2> (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
(d) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2> (CH3)3N
87. Identify the product in the following reaction :
[NEET (2023)]
(b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c)
es
88. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium
ur
salt RH2 X ?
F u t
[NEET (2014)]
(a) CH3CH 2 N2 X in g
a p
(b) C6 H5CH2 N2SXh
s ,
e 3Nm2 X
(c) CHa
r
(d) gD
(d) C6 H5 N2 X
in89.
u i d Which of the following reactions will NOT give
G primary amine as the product? [NEET (2023)]
i LiAlH 4
(a) CH 3 CN Product
ii H3O
i LiAlH 4
(b) CH 3 NC Product
ii H3O
i LiAlH 4
(c) CH 3CONH 2 Product
AMINES ii H3O
85. The correct increasing order of the basic strength for the 2 Br /KOH
(d) CH3CONH 2
Product
following compounds is [NEET (2017)]
(a) III < II < I (b) II < I < III
(c) II < III < I (d) III < I < II
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HYDROCARBONS
(c)
90. Consider the following compounds/species
(d)
94. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to
form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is
converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than
four carbon atoms. (A) is [NEET (2018)]
(a) CH3 – CH3 (b) CH2 = CH2
(c) CH ≡ CH (d) CH4
PERIODIC PROPERTIES
The number of compounds/species which obey 95. The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the
Huckel’s rule is _____ . [NEET (2023)] nearest noble gas configuration is [NEET (2023)]
(a) 6 (b) 2 (a) F (b) N
(c) 5 (d) 4 (c) Na (d) O
91. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of 96. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly
peroxide gives :- [NEET (2004)] represented? [NEET (2014)]
(a) 3-bromo propane (a) O2 − > F − > Na+
(b) Allyl bromide (b) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na3−
ur es
(c) n-propyl bromide (c) H− > H+ > H
F u t
(d) Isopropyl bromide (d) Na3+ > F− > O2−
in g
92. Products of the following reaction: 97.
a p
Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic
h
,S
i O3 compound. If the ground state electronic configuration
CH3C CCH 2 CH3 are
2 Hydrolysis
m s
of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this
[NEET (2005)]
r ea
compound is [NEET (2018)]
D
ng
(a) CH3COOH + CH3COCH3 (a) Mg2X (b) MgX2
(b) CH3COOH + HOOC. CH2CH3
d i
ui 98.
(c) Mg2X3 (d) Mg3X2
(c) CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO
(d) CH3COOH + CO2
G W Which of the following represents the correct order
of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign
93. What products are formed when the following for the elements O, S, F and Cl? [NEET (2010)]
compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of FeBr3 ? (a) Cl < F < O < S
[NEET (2014)] (b) O < S < F < Cl
(c) F < S < O < Cl
(d) S < O < Cl < F
99. Amongst the element with following electronic
configurations, which one of them may have the highest
ionization energy? [NEET (2009)]
(a) (a) [Ne]3S23p1
(b) [Ne]3s23p3
(c) [Ne]3s23p2
(d) [Ar]3d104s24p3
(b)
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104. In which of the following arrangements the given
P-BLOCK (15-18) sequence is not strictly according to the property
100. In which one of the following arrangements the given indicated against it? [NEET (2012)]
sequence is not strictly according to the properties (a) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : increasing pKa values
indicated against it? [NEET (2021)] (b) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing acidic
(a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic character
character (c) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing oxidising
(b) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing oxidizing power
power (d) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength
(c) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
(d) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values P-BLOCK (13-14)
101. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its 105. The stability of +1 oxidtion state increases in the
structure in Column – II and assign the correct code: sequence: [NEET (2009)]
Column-I Column-II (a) Ga < ln < Al < Tl
(p) XeF4 (i) pyramidal (b) Al < Ga < ln < Tl
(q) XeF6 (ii) square planar (c) Tl < ln < Ga < Al
(r) XeOF4 (iii) distorted octahedral (d) ln < Tl < Ga < Al
(s) XeO3 (iv) square pyramidal 106. Choose the correct statement: [NEET (2022)]
[NEET (2019)] (a) Diamond and graphite have two
(a) p → (ii); q → (iii); r → (iv); s → (i) dimensional network.
(b) p → (ii); q → (iii); r → (i); s → (iv) (b) Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
(c) p → (iii); q → (iv); r → (i); s → (ii) (c) Diamond is sp3 hybridised and graphite is
(d) p → (i); q → (ii); r → (iii); s → (iv) sp2 hybridized.
(d) Both diamond and graphite are used as dry
es
102. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
lubricants.
u t ur
107. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements
(Oxoacids of
g F
Sulphur)
(Bonds) is
a p in
(a) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
[NEET (2018)]
A. Peroxodisulphuric I. Two S-OH, Four
,S h
(b) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
acid S=O, One S-O-S m s
(c) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
r ea
(d) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
B. Sulphuric acid
II. Two S-OH, One
g D
108. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule
S=O
i d in [NEET (2016-I)]
C. Pyrosulphuric acid
III. Two S-OH, Four
G u (a) Gives up a proton
S=O, One S-O-O-S
(b) Accepts OH- from water releasing proton
IV. Two S-OH, Two (c) Combines with proton from water molecule
D. Sulphurous acid
S=O (d) Contains replaceable H+ion
Choose the correct answer from the options given 109. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis
below: [NEET (2023)] acid decreases in the sequence: [NEET (2010)]
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (a) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(b) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (b) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(c) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (d) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
103. Which is the correct statement for the given acids ? MOLE & EQT. CONCEPT
[NEET (2016-II)] 110. The right option for the mass of CO2 produced by
(a) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of
acid is a monoprotic acid. Ca = 40) [NEET (2023)]
(b) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while 1200K
CaCO
3 Cao CO 2
phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
(c) Both are diprotic acid (a) 1.76g (b) 2.64g
(d) Both are triprotic acids. (c) 1.32g (d) 1.12g
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111. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option ELECTROCHEMISTRY
for the empirical formula of this compound is: [Atomic 120. Given below are half cell reactions:
wt. Of C is 12, H is 1] [NEET (2021)] MnO 4 8H 5e Mn 2 4H 2 O,
(a) CH3 (b) CH4
(c) CH (d) CH2 Eo 1.510V
Mn 2 /MnO
4
112. Which one of the following has maximum number of
atoms? [NEET (2020)] 1
O2 2H 2e H 2 O,
(a) 1g of O2(g)(Atomic mass of O = 16) 2
(b) 1g of Li (s) (Atomic mass of Li = 7) E oO / H O 1.223V
(c) 1g of Ag (s) (Atomic mass of Ag = 108) 2 2
(d) 1g of Mg (s) (Atomic mass of Mg = 24) Will the permanganate ion, MnO4– liberate O2 from
113. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required water in the presence of an acid? [NEET (2022)]
to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s (a) Yes, because Eocell = + 0.287V
process is : [NEET (2019)] (b) No, because Eocell = – 0.287V
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) Yes, because Eocell = + 2.733V
(c) 40 (d) 10 (d) No, because Eocell = – 2.733V
114. 1.0g of Magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g of O2 in closed
vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much? 121. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S
(At.wt. Mg = 24; O = 16) [NEET (2014)] cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic
(a) Mg, 0.44g (b) O2, 0.28g acid? Choose the correct option.
(c) Mg, 0.16g (d) O2, 0.16g o
350S cm2 mol1
H
SOLUTIONS o 50S cm 2 mol1
[NEET (2021)]
115. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a CH3COO
solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio (a) 1.75 × 10-5 mol L-1
3 : 2 is: [NEET (2021)] (b) 2.50 ۭ 10-5 mol L-1
(a) 336 mm of Hg (b) 350 mm of Hg (c) 1.75 ۭ 10-4 mol L-1
ur es
(c) 160 mm of Hg (d) 168 mm of Hg
116. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
(d) 2.50 ۭ 10-4 mol L-1
F u t
Raoult’s law is : [NEET (2020)] g
122. The number of Faradays (F) required to produce 20g of
in
calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40
(a) Acetone + Chloroform gmol−1) is:
h a p [NEET (2020)]
(b) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(c) Ethanol + Acetone
(a) 3
s ,S (b) 4
(d) Benzene + Toluene
(c) 1
ea m (d) 2
117. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is : D r
123. For a cell involving one electron E ocell 0.59V at 298
[NEET (2019)]
ing K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is :
(a) Ethanol + Water
u i d 2.303 RT
(b) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
(c) Heptane + Octane
G Give that
F
0.059 V at T = 298K
[NEET (2019)]
(d) Water + Nitric acid
(a) 1.0 × 105 (b) 1.0 × 1010
118. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of
(c) 1.0 × 1030 (d) 1.0 × 102
the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is
[NEET (2016-I)] 124. If the Eocell for a given reaction has a negative value,
(a) 1 (b) 2 which of the following gives the correct reactionships
(c) 3 (d) 0 for the values of ΔGo and Keq? [NEET (2016-I)]
119. The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg-1 solution of X in water (a) ΔG >ל0; Keq > 1
is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which (b) ΔG <ל0; Keq > 1
one of the following statements is true in this case ? (c) ΔG <ל0; Keq < 1
[NEET (2015)] (d) ΔG >ל0; Keq <1
(a) Y is undergoing dissociation in water while X 125. The weight of Silver (At. Wt. = 108) displaced by a
undergoes no change. quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 ml of O2 at
(b) X is undergoing dissociation in water. STP will be [NEET (2014)]
(c) Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular (a) 54.0 g (b) 108.0 g
mass of Y. (c) 5.4 g (d) 10.8 g
(d) Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular
mass of Y.
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BOTANY
THE LIVING WORLD BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
1. In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical 6. Which of the following is correct about viroids?
arrangement in descending order is correct in the case [NEET (2020)]
of animals? [NEET (2022)] (a) They have DNA with a protein coat
(a) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, (b) They have free DNA without a protein coat
Species (c) They have RNA with a protein coat
(b) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, (d) They have free RNA without a protein coat
Species 7. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(c) Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, [NEET (2019)]
Species (a) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD
(d) Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, (b) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores
Species endogenously
(c) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-
2. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango
like hyphae
which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus.
(d) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies
[NEET (2019)]
8. Which of the following organisms are known as chief
(a) Mangifera indica Linn.
producers in the oceans? [NEET (2018)]
(b) Mangifera indica
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Diatoms
(c) Mangifera Indica
(c) Dinoflagellates (d) Euglenoids
(d) Mangifera indica Car. Linn
9. Select the wrong statement.
ur es
[NEET (2018)]
3. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules.
Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of F u
(a) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetest
nomenclature? [NEET (2016-i)] in g
(b) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures
(a) Biological names can be written in any language
in Sporozoans
h a p
(b) The first word in a biological name represents s ,S
(c) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and
the genus name, and the second is a specific
Plantae
eam
epithet D r
(d) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all
(c) The names are written in Latin and are italicized
in g
kingdoms except monera
(d) When written by hand, the names are to be u i d 10. Select the WRONG statement. [NEET (2016-II)]
underlined G (a) ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of
diatoms
4. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the (b) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
same species if they : [NEET (2007)] (c) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in
(a) Have same number of chromosomes water
(b) Can reproduce freely with each other and form (d) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible
seeds 11. Choose the wrong statement. [NEET (2015)]
(c) Have more than 90 percent similar genes (a) Penicillium is multicellular and produces
(d) Look similar and possess identical secondary antibiotics.
metabolites. (b) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical
5. ICBN stands for : [NEET (2007)] genetics.
(a) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature (c) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms.
(b) Indian Congress of Biological Names (d) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation.
(c) International code of Botanical Nomenclature
(d) International Congress of Biological Names
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12. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter 21. Archegoniphore is present in : [NEET (2011)]
and help in mineral cycling belong to [NEET (2015)] (a) Funaria (b) Marchantia
(a) Deuteromycetes (c) Chara (d) Adiantum
(b) Basidiomycetes 22. The gametophyte is not an independent, free living
(c) Phycomycetes generation in : [NEET (2011)]
(d) Ascomycetes (a) Pinus (b) Polytrichum
13. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in: (c) Adiantum (d) Marchantia
[NEET (2014)] 23. Male and female gametophytes are independent and
(a) Mode of nutrition free-living in – [NEET (2010)]
(b) Cell shape (a) Mustard (b) Castor
(c) Mode of reproduction (c) Pinus (d) Sphagnum
(d) Cell wall structure 24. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogram ?
14. Viruses have: [NEET (2014)] [NEET (2009)]
(a) Prokaryotic nucleus (a) Cedrus (b) Equisetum
(b) Single chromosome (c) Ginkgo (d) Marchantia
(c) Both DNA and RNA 25. In which one of the following, male and female
(d) DNA enclosed in a protein coat gametophytes do not have free-living independent
15. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas existence? [NEET (2008)]
and Chlorella have been included in [NEET (2012)] (a) Polytrichum (b) Cedrus
(a) Algae (b) Plantae (c) Pteris (d) Funaria
(c) Monera (d) Protista
MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING
PLANT KINGDOM
PLANTS
16. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among
the following: [NEET (2023)]
26.
ur es
Axile placentation is observed in [NEET (2023)]
(a) Selaginella and Salvinia
(a) China rose, beans and lupin
(b) Tomato, Dianthus and pea F u t
(b) Psilotum and Salvinia
i ng
(c) China rose, Petunia and lemon
p
(c) Equisetum and Salvinia
S h aand primrose
(d) Mustard, cucumber
s, Zygomorphic in:
(d) Lycopodium Selaginella
17. Floridean starch has structure similar to
27.
a m
The flowers are
[NEET (2020)]
D re
(a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar
(a) Mannitol and algin
ing (e) Chilli
(c) Cassia (d) Datura
(b) Laminarin and cellulose
u i d
(c) Starch and cellulose G Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: [NEET (2022)]
(d) Amylopectin and glycogen
(a) (a), (b), (c) only
18. Select the mismatch. [NEET (2017)]
(b) (b), (c) only
(a) Salvinia - Heterosporous
(c) (d), (e) only
(b) Equisetum - Homosporous
(d) (c), (d), (e) only
(c) Pinus - Dioecious
28. Ray florets have [NEET (2020)]
(d) Cycas - Dioecious
(a) Hypogynous ovary
19. Which one of the following statements is WRONG?
[NEET (2016-II)] (b) Half inferior ovary
(a) Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageen from (c) Inferior ovary
brown algae (d) Superior ovary
(b) Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria. 29. Placentation, in which ovules develop on the inner wall
(c) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food. of the ovary or in peripheral part is: [NEET (2019)]
(d) Algae increases the level of dissolved oxygen in (a) Axile (b) parietal
the immediate environment.
(c) Free central (d) Basal
20. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-
30. Coconut fruit is a [NEET (2017)]
flagellated gametes? [NEET (2014)]
(a) Nut (b) Capsule
(a) Ectocarpus (b) Ulothrix
(c) Drupe (d) Berry
(c) Spirogyra (d) Sargassum
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31. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, 37. The transverse section of a plant shows following
Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and anatomical features:
turnip have stamens with different lengths in their (i) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
flowers? [NEET (2016-II)] surrounded by bundle sheath.
(a) Four (b) Five (ii) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue.
(c) Six (d) Three (iii) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
32. Which of the following is not a stem modification? (iv) Phloem parenchyma absent.
[NEET (2016-I)] Identify the category of plant and its part:
(a) Pitcher of Nepenthes [NEET (2020)]
(b) Thorns of citrus (a) Dicotyledonous stem
(c) Tendrils of cucumber (b) Dicotyledonous root
(d) Flattened structures of Opuntia (c) Monocotyledonous stem
33. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of: [NEET (2010)] (d) Monocotyledonous root
(a) Gulmohur (b) Cassia 38. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather.
(c) Calotropis (d) Bean Select the most appropriate reason from the following:
34. The Replum is present in the ovary of flower of: [NEET (2019)]
[NEET (2008)] (a) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(a) Sunflower (b) Pea (b) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
(c) Lemon (d) Mustard (c) Tyloses in vessels
35. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip (d) Closure of stomata
upward, the four zones occur in the following order :- 39. Casparian strips occur in [NEET (2018)]
[NEET (2004)] (a) Pericycle
(a) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell (b) Cortex
es
enlargement (c) Epidermis
(b) Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, (d) Endodermis
u t ur
root cap 40. Stomata in grass leaves are
g F [NEET (2018)]
(c) Celldivision,cell maturation, cell enlargement, root
cap
(a) Rectangular
(b) Kidney shaped a p in
,S h
(d) Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, cell
s
(c) Dumb-bell shaped
m
ea
maturation (d) Barrel-shaped
ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS 41. r
Cortex is the region found between [NEET (2016-II)]
D
ing (a) Pericycle and endodermis
36. Read the following statements about the vascular
u i d (b) Endodermis and pith
bundles
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are
G (c) Endodermis and vascular bundle
(d) Epidermis and stele
arranged in an alternate manner along the different 42. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot
radii. root. Which of the following anatomical structures will
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess you use to distinguish between the two?
cambium [NEET (2014)]
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in (a) Secondary phloem
between xylem and phloem (b) Protoxylem
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem (c) Cortical cells
possess endarch protoxylem (d) Secondary xylem
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more 43. Ground tissue includes : [NEET (2011)]
than six xylem bundles present (a) All tissues internal to endodermis
Choose the correct answer from the options given (b) All tissues external to endodermis
below: [NEET (2022)] (c) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
(a) (a), (b) and (d) only
(d) Epidermis and cortex
(b) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
(c) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(d) All the options are correct.
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44. In barley stem vascular bundles are - [NEET (2009)] 48. Match List-I with List-II.
(a) Closed and radial
(b) Open and scattered List - I List – II
(c) Closed and scattered (a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in
(d) Open and in a ring chromosome
45. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of - (b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi
[NEET (2009)] apparatus
(a) Gram (b) Sorghum (c) Centromere (iii) Infolding in mitochondria
(c) Mustard (d) Soybean (d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened membranous
CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE sacs in stroma of plastids
[NEET (2021)]
46. Which of the following are NOT considered as the part
(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii)
of endomembrane system?
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)- (iv), (d)-(i)
A. Mitochondria
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)- (ii), (d)-(i)
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)- (iii), (d)-(ii)
C. Chloroplasts
49. The concept of “Omnis Cellula-e-cellula” regarding
D. Golgi complex
cell division was first proposed by: [NEET (2019)]
E. Peroxisomes
(a) Theodore Schwann
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
(b) Schleiden
given below: [NEET (2023)]
(c) Aristotle
(a) A, C and E only
(d) Rudolf Virchow
(b) A and D only
50. Which of the following pairs of organelles does not
(c) A, D and E only
contain DNA? [NEET (2019)]
(d) B and D only
47. Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer
(a) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
ur es
from the options given below:
(b) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
F
(c) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondriau t
List - I List – II
in
(d) Mitochondria and Lysosomes g
(a) Metacentric (i) Centromere situated 51. h a p
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed
chromosome close to the end
s ,S
by a single membrane? [NEET (2016-I)]
forming one
ea m
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplasts
extremely short and
D r
(c) Lysosomes (d) Nuclei
one
ing
52. Microtubules are the constituents of:
(b) Acrocentric (ii) Centromeres at the
u i d [NEET (2016-I)]
chromosome terminal end G (a) Cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
(c) Sub- (iii) Centromere in the (b) Spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
metacentric middle forming two (c) Centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
equal arms of (d) Centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
chromosomes 53. Which one of the following structures between two
(d) Telocentric (iv) Centromere slightly adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?
chromosome away from the middle [NEET (2010)]
forming one shorter (a) Plasmodesmata
arm and one longer (b) Plastoquinones
arm (c) Endoplasmic reticulum
[NEET (2022)] (d) Plasmalemma
(a) (a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (ii) 54. Polysome is formed by: [NEET (2008)]
(b) (a)- (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iv) (a) A ribosome with several subunits
(c) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (i) (b) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear
(d) (a)- (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii);(d) - (iv) arrangement
(c) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(d) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of
endoplasmic reticulum
35 SCAN QR CODE TO ACCESS SOLUTIONS OF ALL QUESTIONS
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55. Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of presence 62. In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions take
of genes in - [NEET (2004)] place at [NEET (2015)]
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum & mitochondria (a) Thylakoid lumen (b) Photosystem I
(b) Ribosomes and chloroplast (c) Photosystem II (d) Stromal matrix
(c) Lysosomes and ribosomes 63. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation
(d) Mitochondria and chloroplasts of : [NEET (2009)]
(a) ATP
PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS (b) NADPH
56. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the (c) ATP and NADPH
synthesis of one molecule of glucose during Calvin (d) ATP, NADPH and O2
cycle? [NEET (2023)] 64. In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is-
(a) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2 [NEET (2006)]
(b) 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2 (a) Ferredoxin
(c) 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2 (b) Cytochrome
(d) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2 (c) Plastocyanin
57. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maximum (d) An iron sulphur protein
at [NEET (2023)] 65. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis
(a) 700 nm (b) 660 nm during the dark reaction is :- [NEET (2004)]
(c) 780 nm (d) 680 nm (a) Oxaloacetic acid
58. Which one of the following is not true regarding the (b) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
release of energy during ATP synthesis through (c) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
chemiosmosis? It involves: [NEET (2022)] (d) Malic acid
(a) Development of proton gradient RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
(b) Development of electron gradient
66.
ur es
What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of
(c) Movement of protons across the membrane to the
stroma u t
glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?
F
in g [NEET (2022)]
(d) Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side (a) Four
h a p (b) Six
,S
of the membrane (c) Two (d) Eight
59. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is
m s
67. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
[NEET (2021)] r ea [NEET (2021)]
(a) Succinic acid
g D
(a) ATP is synthesized through complex V
(b) Phosphoglyceric acid
i d in (b) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton
(c) Pyruvic acid
G u gradients in respiration.
(d) Oxaloacetic acid (c) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
60. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCO enzyme in limited to the terminal stage
photorespiration leads to the formation of (d) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule
[NEET (2020)] of NADH gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one
(a) 1 molecule of 6-C compound FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(b) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2- 68. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first
C compound irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by
(c) 2 molecules of 3-C compound [NEET (2019)]
(d) 1 molecule of 3-C compound and 1 molecule of 2- (a) Hexokinase (b) Enolase
C compound (c) Phosphofructokinase (d) Aldolase
61. In a chloroplast, the highest number of protons are 69. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is
found in [NEET (2016-I)] [NEET (2019)]
(a) Stroma (a) 0.7 (b) 0.07
(b) Lumen of thylakoids (c) 0.09 (d) 0.9
(c) Inter-membrane space
(d) Antennae complex
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70. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle? 77. Name the plant growth regulators which upon spraying
[NEET (2017)] on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus
(a) During the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised [NEET (2020)]
(b) The cycle starts with the condensation of an acetyl (a) Ethylene (b) Abscisic acid
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric (c) Cytokinin (d) Gibberellin
acid 78. You are given a tissue with its potential for
(c) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the
reduced to NADH + H+ following pairs of hormones would you add to the
(d) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is medium to secure shoots as well as roots?
reduced to FADH2 [NEET (2016-II)]
71. Which of the following biomolecules is common to (a) Cytokinin and auxin
respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates (b) Auxin and abscisic acid
and proteins? [NEET (2016-II)] (c) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(a) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate (d) IAA and gibberellin
(b) Pyruvic acid 79. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of
(c) Acetyl CoA carotenoids ? [NEET (2009)]
(d) Glucose-6-phosphate (a) Abscisic acid
72. The energy-releasing metabolic process in which (b) Indole butyric acid
substrate is oxidised without an external electron (c) Indole-3-acetic acid
acceptor is called – [NEET (2010)] (d) Gibberellic acid
(a) Glycolysis 80. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly
(b) Fermentation matched ? [NEET (2007)]
es
(c) Aerobic respiration (a) IAA – Cell wall elongation
(d) Photorespiration (b) Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure
u t ur
(c) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
F
ng
73. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed :-
[NEET (2009)]
a p i
(d) Cytokinin – Cell division
(a) Anabolic (b) Catabolic SEXUAL REPRODCTION
, S h IN
(c) Parabolic (d) Amphibolic s
74. During which stage in the complete oxidation of FLOWERING
r eam PLANTS
gD
glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules 81. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is
formed from ADP - [NEET (2005)] i n
d (a) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
[NEET (2021)]
i
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Krebs cycle Gu (b) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
(c) Electron transport chain (c) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
(d) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA (d) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
75. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed 82. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place
by: [NEET (2020)]
by - [NEET (2004)]
(a) Wind and water
(a) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (b) Insects and water
(b) NAD+ (c) Insects or wind
(c) Molecular oxygen (d) Water currents only
(d) ATP 83. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:
[NEET (2019)]
PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT (a) Perisperm (b) Hilum
76. Plants follow different pathways in response to the (c) Tegmen (d) Chalaza
84. Double fertilization is [NEET (2018)]
environment or phases of life to form different kinds of
(a) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
structures. This ability is called [NEET (2021)]
(b) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(a) Plasticity (b) Maturity
(c) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with
(c) Elasticity (d) Flexibility
two different eggs
(d) Syngamy and triple fusion
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85. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both 94. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed
[NEET (2017)] with a white flower and in F1 generation, pink In
(a) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed
(b) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(c) Autogamy and xenogamy with a white flower and in F1 generation, pink flowers.
(d) Autogamy and geitonogamy Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
86. Coconut water from a tender coconut is
[NEET (2019)]
[NEET (2015)]
(a) Immature embryo (a) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance
(b) Free nuclear endosperm (b) Ratio of F2 is 1/4 (Red): 2/4 (Pink): ¼ (White)
(c) Innermost layers of the seed coat
(c) Law of Segregation does not apply in this
(d) Degenerated nucellus
87. Megasporangium is equivalent to [NEET (2013)] experiment.
(a) Embryo sac (d) This experiment does not follow the Principle of
(b) Fruit Dominance
(c) Nucellus
(d) Ovule 95. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has
88. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia and
[NEET (2011)] is sterile? [NEET (2019)]
(a) Zygote (b) Suspensor
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Egg (d) Synergid
89. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from : (b) Edward syndrome
[NEET (2010)] (c) Down’s syndrome
es
(a) Synergids
(d) Turner’s syndrome
(b) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
t u r
(c) Antipodal cells
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ g Fu
96. Which of the following characteristics represent
90.
(d) Diploid egg
Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the 1. Dominance
a p in in humans?
2. Codominance Sh
division of: [NEET (2007)]
m
3. Multiple s,
allele
(a) Microspore mother cell
(c) Generative cell
(b) Microspore
(d) Vegetative cell
a
re inheritance
4. Incomplete dominance
D
g (a) 2, 4 and 5
5. Polygenic [NEET (2018)]
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND
d i n
i (b) 1, 2 and 3
VARIATION Gu 97.
(c) 2, 3 and 5
Pick out the correct statements:
(d) 1, 3 and 4
91. XO type of sex determination can be found in
[NEET (2016-I)]
[NEET (2022)]
(A)
(a) Drosophila (b) Birds
(B) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(c) Grasshoppers (d) Monkeys
(C) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene
92. The recombination frequency between the genes a & c
(D) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene
is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d
disorder
is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of
(a) (A) and (D) are correct
these genes on a linear chromosome? [NEET (2022)]
(b) (B) and (D) are correct
(a) a , d, b, c (b) d, b, a, c
(c) (A), (C) and (D) are correct
(c) a, b, c, d (d) a, c, b, d
(d) (A), (B) and (C) are correct
93. In a cross between a male and female, both
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
[NEET (2021)]
(a) 25% (b) 100%
(c) 50% (d) 75%
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Guiding Dreams, Shaping Futures
98. Match the terms in Column I with their description in
Column II and chose the correct option :
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
Column-I Column-II 101. Match list I with list II.
(a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a
single character List I List II
(b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous (a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid
organism only one (b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
allele expresses itself (c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid
(c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
organism both alleles [NEET (2021)]
express themselves (a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iv)
fully (b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iii)
(d) Polygenic (iv) A single gene (c) (a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (ii)
inheritance influences many (d) (a)- (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii);(d) - (iv)
characters 102. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given
table? [NEET (2016-I)]
[NEET (2016-I)]
Code: (a) Microbe- Trichoderma polysporum; Product-
(a) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii) Cyclosporin A; Application- Immunosuppressive drug
(b) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)
(b) Microbe- Monascus purpureus; Product- Statins;
(c) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(d) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii) Application- Lowering of blood cholesterol
99. A gene showing codominance has (c) Microbe- Streptococcus; Product- Streptokinase;
[NEET (2015)]
res
Application- Removal of clot from blood vessel
t u
(a) One allele dominant on the other
Fu Product-
(d) Microbe- Clostridium butylicum;
g
(b) Alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome in of oil stains
Lipase; Application- Removal
a p
(c) Alleles that are recessive to each other
Sh in anaerobic sludge
103. What gases are produced
s ,
(d) Both alleles independently expressed in the digesters?m [NEET (2014)]
(a) r e a
heterozygote
g D Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO 2
100. Which one of the following symbols and its
idin (b) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and O 2
representation, used in human pedigree analysis is
Gu (c) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
correct – [NEET (2010)] (d) Methane and CO2 only
(a) 104. An organism used as a Biofertilizer for raising soyabean
crop is : [NEET (2011)]
(a) Nostoc (b) Azotobacter
(b)
(c) Azospirillum (d) Rhizobium
105. Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide ?
(c) [NEET (2009)]
(a) Xanthomonas Campestris
(b) Bacillus thringiensis
(d) (c) Trichoderma harzianum
(d) Nuclear Polyhedral Virus (NPV)
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(a) Amensalism (b) Commensalism
ORGANISMS AND POPULATION (c) Parasitism (d) Mutualism
106. Match List I with List II: 112. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that
[NEET (2016-I)]
List I List II(Species A and (a) More abundant species will exclude the less
(Interaction) B) abundant species through competition
A. Mutualism I. +(A), O(B) (b) Competition for the same resources excludes
B. Commensalism II. –(A), O(B) species having different food preferences
C. Amensalism III. +(A), –(B) (c) No two species can occupy the same niche
D. Parasitism IV. +(A), +(B) indefinitely for the same limiting resources
Choose the correct answer from the options given (d) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through
below: [NEET (2023)] competition
(a) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III 113. In which of the following interactions both partners are
(b) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II adversely affected? [NEET (2015)]
(c) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II (a) Competition (b) Predation
(d) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III (c) Parasitism (d) Mutualism
114. The figure given below is a diagrammatic
107. While explaining interspecific interaction of
representation of response of organisms to abiotic
population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial
factors. What do a, b and c represent respectively –
interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental
interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the
following interactions can be assigned (+) for one
species and (-) for another species involved in the
interaction? [NEET (2022)]
(a) Predation (b) Amensalism
t u res(2010)]
Fu
(c) Commensalism (d) Competition [NEET
108. Amensalism can be represented as [NEET (2021)]
g
(a) (a)- conformer; (b)- regulator; (c)- partial regulator
in
(a) Species A ( - ) ; Species B ( - ) p
(b) (a)- regulator; (b)- partial regulator; (c)- conformer
h a
,S
(b) Species A ( +) ; Species B (0) (c) (a)- partial regulator; (b)- regulator; (c)- conformer
(c) Species A ( - ) ; Species B (0)
m s
(d) (a)- regulator; (b)- conformer; (c)- partial regulator
(d) Species A ( + );Species B ( + )
r ea
115. The formula for exponential population growth is-
109. In a growing population of a country
g D
[NEET (2018)]
i d in (a) dt/dN = rN
[NEET (2006)]
(b) dN/rN = dt
(a) Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are
G u (c) rN/dN = dt (d) dN/dt = rN
equal in number
(b) Reproductive individuals are less than the post- ECOSYSTEM
reproductive individuals 116. In the equation:
(c) Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the GPP – R = NPP
reproductive individuals GPP is gross primary productivity, NPP is net primary
(d) Pre-reproductive individuals are less than the productivity, R here is ______. [NEET (2023)]
reproductive individuals (a) Respiratory quotient
110. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by (b) Respiratory loss
_____. [NEET (2016-II)] (c) Reproductive allocation
(a) G.F. Gause
(d) Photosynthetically active radiation
(b) MacArthur
(c) Verhulst and Pearl 117. Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles.
(d) C. Darwin This process is called: [NEET (2012)]
111. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘-’ sign (a) Catabolism (b) Fragmentation
to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interaction, then (c) Humification (d) Decomposition
the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘-’ refers
to [NEET (2016-II)]
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118. Which of the following statements is not correct? 123. In situ conservation refers to: [NEET (2022)]
[NEET (2021)] (a) Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
(a) Pyramid of energy is always upright (b) Conserve only high risk species
(b) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is (c) Conserve only endangered species
upright (d) Conserve only extinct species
(c) Pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted. 124. According to Robert May, the global species diversity
(d) Pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally upright is about [NEET (2020)]
119. In the equation GPP - R = NPP, R represents (a) 50 million (b) 7 million
[NEET (2021)] (c) 1.5 million (d) 20 million
(a) Environment factor 125. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ
(b) Respiration losses conservation of biodiversity? [NEET (2019)]
(c) Radiant energy (a) Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Retardation factor (b) Botanical Garden
120. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, (c) Sacred Grove
phosphorus, and calcium present in the soil at any given (d) Biosphere Reserve
time is referred to as [NEET (2021)]
(a) Standing state
(b) Standing crop
(c) Climax
(d) Climax community
BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
121. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ
conservation? [NEET (2022)]
(a) In vitro fertilization (b) National Parks
ur es
(c) Micropropagation (d) Cryopreservation
F u t
122. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien
in g
species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:
h a p
[NEET (2022)]
s ,S
(a) Population explosion (b) Competition
ea m
(c) Biodiversity loss (d) Natality
D r
ing
u i d
G
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ZOOLOGY
5. Read the following statements.
ANIMAL KINGDOM (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
1. The unique mammalian characteristics are (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
[NEET (2023)] animals.
(a) Hairs, pinna and mammary glands (c) Roundworms have organ-system level of body
(b) Hairs, pinna and indirect development organization.
(c) Pinna, monocondylic skull and mammary glands (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion
(d) Hairs, tympanic membrane and mammary glands (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
2. Select the correct statements with reference to Echinoderms.
chordates. [NEET (2023)] Choose the correct answer from the options given
A. Presence of mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord. below. [NEET (2021)]
B. Presence of closed circulatory system (a) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits (b) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
D. Presence of dorsal heart (c) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals (d) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Choose the correct answer from the options given 6. Match list I with list II.
below:
List I List II
(a) B and C only
(b) B, D and E only (a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
(c) C, D and E only (b) Canal system (ii)
u res
Ctenophora
t
(d) A, C and D only
(c) Comb plates (iii) Fu
Annelida
3. In which of the following animals, does the digestive
p i ng Porifera
ha
tract have additional chambers like crop and gizzard? (d) Cnidoblast (iv)
[NEET (2022)]
s ,S [NEET (2021)]
(a) Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
ea m
(a) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)
(b) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
D r
(c) Catla, Columbia, Crocodilus
in g (b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(d) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
u i d (c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
4. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as G
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all 7. Match the following:
chordates are not vertebrates List I List II
Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by the vertebral
(a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster
column in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of
appropriate answer from the options given below: War
[NEET (2022)]
(c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the [NEET (2021)]
correct explanation of (A)
(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (b) (a)- (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
(c) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)
(d) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
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8. Which of the following statements are true for the 12. In cockroach, excretion is brought about by
phylum Chordata? A. Phallic gland
(i) In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail B. Uricose gland
and it is present throughout their life. C. Nephrocytes
(ii) In Vertebrata, the notochord is present during the D. Fat body
embryonic period only. E. Collateral glands
(iii) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(iv) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, below: [NEET (2023)]
Tunicata, and Cephalochordata. [NEET (2020)] (a) A, B and E only
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (b) B, C and D only
(c) (iv) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (i) (c) B and D only
9. Match the following columns and select the correct (d) A and E only
option – 13. Match List I with List II.
Column I Column II List I List II
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias A. Mast cells I. Ciliated
(b) Adult with radial symmetry (ii) Scorpion epithelium
and larva with bilateral symmetry B. Inner surface of II. Areolar
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana bronchiole connective tissue
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta C. Blood III. Cuboidal
[NEET (2020)] epithelium
(a) a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d – iv D. Tubular parts of IV. Specialised
(b) a – ii; b – i; c – iii; d – iv nephron
es
connective tissue
ur
(c) a – i; b – iii; c – ii; d – iv
(d) a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii F u t [NEET (2023)]
Choose the correct answer from the options give below:
10. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched (a) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IVin g
with its two general characteristic? [NEET (2008)]
h a p
(b) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(a) matched with its two general characteristic? (1) s ,S
(c) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
Echinoderamata — Pentamerous radial symmetry and
ea m
(d) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III
mostly internal fertilization
D r
14. Which of the following statements wrongly represents
(b) Mollusca — Normally oviparous and development
ing the nature of smooth muscle? [NEET (2021)]
through a trochophore or veliger larva
u i d (a) Communication among the cells is performed by
(c) Arthropoda — Body divided into head, thorax and G intercalated discs
abdomen and respiration by tracheae (b) These muscles are present in the wall of blood
(d) Chordata — Notochord at some stage and separate vessels
anal and urinary openings to the outside (c) These muscle have no striations
(d) They are involuntary muscles
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN 15. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with
ANIMALS respect to cockroaches? [NEET (2021)]
11. Given below are two statements: (a) In females, the 7 -9 sterna together form a genital
th th
Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue. pouch
Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue. (b) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes bears a pair
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct of anal cerci
answer from the options given below: [NEET (2023)] (c) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. the midgut and hindgut
(b) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (d) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the
(c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. mouthparts
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
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16. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the
leakage of the substances across tissue and facilitation
BIOMOLECULES
of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid 20. Given below are two statements:
transfer of ions and molecules. [NEET (2021)] Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in
(a) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively a temporarily inactive state, whereas high temperature
(b) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are
(c) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively denatured by heat.
(d) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the
17. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the
particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive
these cells are mainly present in [NEET (2019)] inhibitor.
(a) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(b) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct answer from the options given below: [NEET (2023)]
(c) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(d) Bile duct and Bronchioles (b) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
18. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary (c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
canal of cockroach starting from mouth.[NEET (2019)] (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(a) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → 21. Given below are two statements:
Ileum → Colon → Rectum Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end
(b) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the
Crop → Colon → Rectum right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal).
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4
es
(c) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop →
Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
type.). u t ur
subunits (two subunits of α type and two subunits β
(d) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard →
g F
19.
Ileum → Colon → Rectum
Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain a p in
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below: [NEET (2023)]
type of connective tissue. identify the parts labeled A, ,S h
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are false.
m s
(b) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
ea
B, C and D and select the right option about them
r
(c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
D
ing (d) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
u i d 22. Read the following statements on lipids and find out
G correct set of statements: [NEET (2022)]
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a
glycolipid
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds
[NEET (2012)]
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains
(a) Part-A- Mast cell; Part-B- Marco phage; Part-C-
as oil in winter
Fibroblast; Part-D- Collagen fibres (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble
(b) Part-A- Macrophage; Part-B- Collegen fibres; in some organic solvents
Part-C- Fibroblast; Part-D- Mast cell (e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol,
monoglycerides are formed.
(c) Part-A- Mast cell; Part-B- Collegen fibres; Part- Choose the correct answer from the options given below
C- Fibroblast; Part-D- Macrophage (a) (a), (b) and (c) only
(d) Part-A- Macrophage; Part-B- Fibroblast; Part-C- (b) (a), (d) and (e) only
(c) (c), (d) and (e) only
Collegen fibres; Part-D- Mast cell
(d) (a), (b) and (d) only
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23. Match list I with list II. (b) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of
List I List II enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(a) Protein (i) C=C double (c) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of
bonds enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(b) Unsaturated fatty (ii) Phosphodiester (d) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of
acid bonds enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds 27. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and
[NEET (2021)] substrate concentration)
(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (iii)
(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i);(d) - (ii)
(c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iii)
(d) (a)- (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii)
24. Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'. [NEET (2011)]
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called What do the two axises (x and y) represent ?
unsaturated fatty acids. (a) x-axis- enzymatic activity,; y-axis- temperature
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid (b) x-axis- enzymatic activity,; y-axis- pH
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. (c) x-axis- temperature; y-axis- enzyme activity
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including (d) x-axis- substrate concentration; y-axis- enzymatic
carboxyl carbon activity
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms
es
Choose the correct answer from the options given below 28. Which one of the following structural formulae of two
[NEET (2021)]
u t ur
organic compounds is correctly identified along with its
(a) (b) and (c) only related function ?
g F
(b) (b) and (e) only
a p in
(c) (a) and (b) only
,S h
(d) (c) and (d) only
m s
25. Consider the following statements:
r ea [NEET (2011)]
(a) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to
g D
(a) A : Lecithin-a component of cell membrane
enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
i d in (b) B : Adenine-a nucleotide that makes up nucleic
(b) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound
prosthetic group is called apoenzyme. [NEET (2019)] G u acids
(a) (a) is true but (b) is false (c) A : Triglyceride-major source of energy
(b) Both (a) and (b) are false. (d) B : Uracil-a component of DNA
(c) (a) is false but (b) is true CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
(d) Both (a) and (b) are true.
29. Match List I with List II:
26. Which of the following describes the given graph
List I List Ii
CORRECTLY?
A. M Phase I. Proteins are synthesized
B. G2 Phase II.Inactive phase
C. Quiescent III.
Interval between
stage mitosis and initiation of
DNA replication
D. G1 Phase IV. Equational division
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: [NEET (2023)]
[NEET (2016-II)]
(a) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
(a) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of
(b) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(c) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(d) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
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30. Given below are two statements: (a) b, a, d, c (b) b, a, c, d
Statement I: During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is (c) a, b, c, d (d) b, c, d, a
metabolically inactive. 35. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in
Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted
during S phase of interphase. as 2C? [NEET (2014)]
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (a) G1 and S (b) Only G2
appropriate answer from the options given below: (c) G2 and M (d) G0 and G1
[NEET (2023)] 36. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle [NEET (2014)]
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (a) The amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(b) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. (b) The chromosome number is increased
(c) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. (c) The amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (d) The amount of DNA doubles in each cell
31. Select the correct statements:
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and GASES
chromatids separate. 37. Which of the following is not the function of the
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene. conducting part of the respiratory system?
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed [NEET (2022)]
during Telophase. (a) It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids (b) Inhaled air is humidified
of homologous chromosome. (c) Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body
es
Choose the correct answer from the options given temperature
below: [NEET (2023)]
t ur
(d) Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2
u
(a) B and D only (b) A, C and E only
F
38. The partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen (O2 ) and
g
32.
(c) B and E only (d) A and C only
Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase a p in
carbon dioxide (CO2 ) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
(Gap I) of interphase. [NEET (2020)]
are:
,S h [NEET (2021)]
s
(a) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
m
ea
(a) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not (b) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
replicate its DNA
D r
(c) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
(b) Nuclear division takes place
ing (d) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
(c) DNA synthesis or replication takes place
u i d 39. Select the favourable conditions required for the
(d) all of these G formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
33. Which of the following options gives the correct [NEET (2021)]
sequence of events during mitosis? [NEET (2017)] (a) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
(a) Condensation → crossing over → nuclear (b) Low pO2 , low pCO2 , more H+ , higher
membrane disassembly → segregation → telophase temperature
(b) Condensation → arrangement at equator → (c) High pO2 , low pCO2 , less H+ , lower temperature
centromere division → segregation → telophase (d) Low pO2 , high pCO2 , more H+ , higher
(c) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly temperature
→ crossing over → segregation → telophase 40. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport
(d) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly of oxygen. [NEET (2020)]
→ arrangement at equator → centromere division → (a) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of
segregation → telophase oxyhaemoglobin
34. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct (b) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of
sequence. [NEET (2015)] oxyhaemoglobin
a. Crossing over (c) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly
b. Synapsis related to partial pressure of O2
c. Terminalisation of chiasmata (d) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding
d. Disappearance of nucleolus with haemoglobin
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41. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. (c) A : alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of
(i) Contraction of diaphragm respiratory gases
(ii) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (d) D : Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and CO2 takes
(iii) Pulmonary volume decreases place here
(iv) Intra pulmonary pressure increases 45. What is vital capacity of our lungs? [NEET (2008)]
[NEET (2020)] (a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) volume
(b) Only (iv) (b) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
(c) (i) and (ii) (c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(d) (iii) and (iv) (d) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
42. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II and select the correct option given below:
BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION
Column I Column II 46. Match List I with List II:
a Tidal Volume (i) 2500-3000 List I List II
mL A. P-wave I. Beginning of systole
b Inspiratory Reserve (ii) 1100-1200 B. Q-wave II. Repolarisation of ventricles
volume mL C. QRS III. Depolarisation of complex
c Expiratory Reserve (iii) 500-550 mL atria
volume D. T-wave IV. Depolarisation of ventricles
d Residual Volume (iv) 1000-1100 Choose the correct answer from the options given
mL below: [NEET (2023)]
es
[NEET (2018)] (a) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(a) a → (iii); b → (i); c → (iv); d → (ii) (b) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
u t ur
(b) a → (i); b → (iv); c → (ii); d → (iii) (c) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
g F
(c) a → (iii); b → (ii); c → (i); d → (iv) (d) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
a p in
47. Which of the following statements are correct?
(d) a → (iv); b → (iii); c → (ii); d → (i)
,S h
43. Which of the following options correctly represents the
m s
A. Basophils are the most abundant cells of the total
ea
lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, WBCs.
respectively? [NEET (2018)]
D r
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.
(a) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of
ing C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response.
bronchioles
u i d D. Basophils have kidney-shaped nucleus.
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased G E. Basophils are agranulocytes.
respiratory surface Choose the correct answer from the options given
(c) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory below: [NEET (2023)]
surface (a) C and E only
(d) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of (b) B and C only
bronchioles (c) A and B only
44. The figure given below shows a small part of human (d) D and E only
lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which one 48. Which one of the following statements is correct?
of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is [NEET (2022)]
correctly identified along with its function, (a) The atrioventricular node (AVN) generates an action
potential to stimulate atrial contraction
(b) The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to
the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of
the atria
(c) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle
[NEET (2011)] during joint diastole
(a) B : red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly (d) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the
(b) C : arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues semilunar valves
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49. Persons with “AB” blood group are called “Universal
recipients”. This is due to [NEET (2021)]
(a) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(b) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in
plasma
(c) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of
RBCs
(a) A – Pulmonary vein – takes impure blood from body
(d) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg
50. Match the following columns and select the correct
(b) B – Pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to
option.
lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg
Column I Column II
(c) C – Vena Cava – takes blood from body parts to
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(d) D – Dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to body
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminases, parts, PO2 = 95 mm H
destructive Enzymes 54. What is true about RBCs in humans ? [NEET (2010)]
(d) (iv) Release granules containing (a) They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO2
Lymphocytes histamine (b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
[NEET (2020)] (c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and
(a) a – i; b – ii; c – iv; d – iii the rest 20 per cent of its transported in dissolved state
(b) a – ii; b – i; c – iii; d – iv in blood plasma
(c) a – iii; b – iv; c – ii; d – i (d) They do not carry CO2 at all
(d) a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii
es
55. Which two of the following changes (a – d) usualy tend
ur
51. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac
output is 5L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end
t
to occur in the plain dvellers when they move to high
F u
of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular
altitudes (3,500 m or more) ?
in g
systole is 50 mL. [NEET (2019)]
h p
(a) Increase in red blood cell size
a
,S
(b) Increase in red blood cell production
(a) 75 beats per minute s
(c) Increased breathing rate
m
(b) 100 beats per minute
ea
(d) Incrase in thrombocyte count
r
(c) 125 beats per minute
g D
Changes occurring are – [NEET (2010)]
(d) 50 beats per minute
i d in (a) (b) and (c) (b) (c) and (d)
52. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II and select the correct option given below. G u (c) (a) and (d) (d) (a) and (b)
Column I Column II EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR
(a) Tricuspid (i) Between left atrium and ELIMINATION
valve left ventricle
56. Match List I with List II.
(b) Bicuspid (ii) Between right ventricle
valve and pulmonary artery
List I List II
(c) Semilunar (iii) Between right atrium
A. Taenia I.Nephridia
valve and right ventricle
B. Paramoecium II.
Contractile vacuole
[NEET (2018)]
C. Periplaneta III.
Flame cells
(a) a → (i); b → (iii); c → (ii)
D. Pheretima IV.
Uricose gland
(b) a → (i); b → (ii); c → (iii)
[NEET (2023)]
(c) a → (iii); b → (i); c → (ii)
Choose the correct answer from the options give below:
(d) a → (ii); b → (i); c → (iii)
(a) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III
53. Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in
(b) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give
(c) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
its function/s. [NEET (2013)]
(d) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
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57. Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion 60. Match the items given in column I with those in Column
A and the other is labelled as Reason R. II and select the correct option given below.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: cortical and Column 1 Column II (Part of
juxtamedullary, based on their relative position in (Function) Excretory system)
cortex and medulla. (a) Ultrafiltration (i) Henle’s loop
Reason R: Juxtamedullary nephrons have short loop of (b) Concentration of (ii) Ureter
Henle, whereas cortical nephrons have longer loop of urine
Henle. (c) Transport of (iii) Urinary bladder
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct urine
answer from the options given below: [NEET (2023)] (d) Storage of urine (iv) Malpighian
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct corpuscle
explanation of A. (v) Proximal convoluted
(b) A is true, but R is false. tubule
(c) A is false, but R is true. [NEET (2018)]
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (a) a → (iv); b → (i); c → (ii); d → (iii)
explanation of A. (b) a → (v); b → (iv); c → (i); d → (ii)
58. Which of the following statements are correct? (c) a → (iv); b → (v); c → (ii); d → (iii)
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body (d) a → (v); b → (iv); c → (i); d → (iii)
switches off osmoreceptors. 61. Which of the following statements is correct?
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent [NEET (2017)]
diuresis. (a) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is
es
C. ANF causes vasodilation. permeable to water
D. ADH causes an increase in blood pressure.
t ur
(b) The descending limb of the loop of Henle is
u
E. ADH is responsible for a decrease in GFR. permeable to electrolytes
g F
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: [NEET (2023)] a p in
(c) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is
(a) B, C and D only (b) A, B and E only
impermeable to water
,S h
s
(d) The descending limb of the loop of Henle is
m
ea
(c) C, D and E only (d) A and B only impermeable to water
59. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may
D r
62. Figure shows human urinary system with structures
result in:
ing labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies
u i d them and given their characteristics and / or functions:
(a) Nitrogenous waste build up in the body
G
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-
intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropriate? [NEET (2013)]
[NEET (2019)] (a) A – Adrenal gland – located at the anterior part of
(a) (b) and (c) are correct the kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate
glycogen breakdown
(b) (c) and (d) are correct
(b) B – Pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner to
(c) (a) and (d) are correct hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle
(d) (a) and (b) are correct (c) C – Medulla – inner zone of kidney and contains
complete nephrons
(d) D – Cortex – outer part of kidney and do not
contain any part of nephrons
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63. Which one of the following option gives the correct 66. Which of the following is a correct match for disease
categorization of six animals according to the type of and its symptoms? [NEET (2022)]
nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C), they give out? (a) Arthritis - Inflamed joints
[NEET (2012)] (b) Tetany - high Ca2+ level causing rapid spasms
(a) A-AMMONOTELIC-Frog, Lizards; B- (c) Myasthenia gravis - Genetic disorder resulting in
UREOTELIC- Aquatic Amphibia, Humans; C- weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
URICOTELIC- Cockroach, Pigeon (d) Muscular dystrophy - An autoimmune disorder
(b) A-AMMONOTELIC-Aquatic Amphibia; B- causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
UREOTELIC-Frog, Humans; C-URICOTELIC- 67. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroach Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(c) A-AMMONOTELIC- Aquatic Amphibia; B- Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by
UREOTELIC-Cockroach, Humans; C- decreased bone mass and increased chances of fracture.
URICOTELIC- Frog, Pigeon, Lizards Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased
(d) A-AMMONOTELIC-Pigeon, Humans; B- levels of oestrogen.
UREOTELIC-Aquatic Amphibia, Lizards; C- In the light of the above statements, choose the most
URICOTELIC- Cockroach, Frog appropriate answer from the options given b
[NEET (2022)]
LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
64. Match List I with List II. explanation of (A)
List I (Type of List II (Found (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Joint) between) correct explanation of (A)
A. Cartilaginous I. Between flat skull
es
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Joint bones
B. Ball and II. Between adjacent
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
u t ur
Socket Joint vertebrae in 68. Match list I with list II.
g F
vertebral column List I
a p in List II
C. Fibrous Joint III. Between carpal and
metacarpal of
(a) Scapula
,S h (i) Cartilaginous joints
thumb
(b)
m s
Cranium (ii) Ventral part of the
D. Saddle Joint IV. Between humerus
r ea rib cage
and pectoral girdle
g D
(c) Sternum (iii) Part of the skull
Choose the correct answer from the options given
i d in (d) Vertebral (iv) triangular flat bone
below:
(a) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
[NEET (2023)]
G u column
[NEET (2021)]
(b) A–I, B–IV, C–III, D–II (a) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii);(d) - (i)
(c) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I (b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i)
(d) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
(c) (a)- (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iv)
65. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
skeletal muscle? (d) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (i)
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous 69. During the muscular contraction which of the following
connective tissue layer called fascicle. events occur?
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store (a) ‘H’ zone disappears
house of calcium ions. (b) ‘A’ band widens
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to (c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins.
(d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.
D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction
called sarcomere. (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options given
given below: [NEET (2023)] below. [NEET (2021)]
(a) B and C only (a) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(b) A, C and D only (b) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
(c) C and D only (c) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
(d) A, B and C only (d) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
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70. Match the following columns and select the correct 74. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :
option [NEET (2022)]
Column I Column II (a) The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic
(a) Floating ribs (i) Located between second and neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
seventh ribs (b) Electrical current can flow directly from one
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (c) Chemical synapse use neurotransmitters
(d) Glenoid (iv) Do not connect with the (d) Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is
cavity sternum always faster than that across an electrical synapse
[NEET (2020)] 75. Which of the following structures or regions is
(a) a – iii; b – ii; c – iv; d – i incorrectly paired with its functions? [NEET (2018)]
(b) a – iv; b – iii; c – i; d – ii (a) Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones
(c) a – ii; b – iv; c – i; d – iii and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst
(d) a – i; b – iii; c – ii; d – iv (b) Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that
71. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only "Y' pairs are true interconnect dif movement ferent regions of the brain;
ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of controls movement
X and Y and provides their explanation. [NEET (2017)] (c) Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and
(a) X = 24, Y = 7 - True ribs are dorsally attached to cardiovascular reflexes
vertebral column but are free on ventral side. (d) Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left
(b) X = 24, Y = 12 - True ribs are dorsally attached to and right cerebral hemispheres
vertebral column but are free on ventral side. 76. Myelin sheath is produced by [NEET (2017)]
es
(c) X = 12, Y = 7 - True ribs are attached dorsally to (a) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum. (b) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
u t ur
(d) X = 12, Y=5 - True ribs are attached dorsally to the
g F
(c) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes
vertebral column and sternum on the two ends.
a p in
(d) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
77. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given.
72. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint
,S h
Identify correctly at least two of A-D. [NEET (2013)]
in humans is [NEET (2013)]
m s
(a) Characteristics - Fluid cartilage between two bones,
r ea
limited movements, Examples - Knee joints
g D
(b) Characteristics - Fluid filled between two joints,
i d in
provides cushion, Examples - Skull bones
(c) Characteristics - Fluid filled synovial cavity G u
between two bones, Examples - Joint between atlas
and axis
(d) Characteristics - L carpals ymph filled between two (a) A - Receptor, C - Synaptic vesicles
bones, limited movement, Examples - Gliding joint (b) B - Synaptic connection, D - K+
between carpals (c) A - Neurotransmitter, B - Synaptic cleft
(d) C - Neurotransmitter, D - Ca++
NEURAL CONTROL AND
78. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action
COORDINATION potential results from the movement of: [NEET (2008)]
73. The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of (a) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, (b) Na+ ions from extracelluar fluid to intracellular
rage, fear, etc., are [NEET (2023)] fluid
(a) Corpora quadrigemina and hippocampus (c) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular
(b) Brain stem and epithalamus fluid
(c) Corpus callosum and thalamus (d) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular
(d) Limbic system and hypothalamus fluid
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79. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a 83. Match the following columns and select the correct
nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma option.
membrane has which type of electric charge ? Column I Column II
[NEET (2007)] (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(a) First positive, then negative and again back to (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
positive (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(b) First negative, then positive and again back to
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
negative
(c) First positive, then negative and continue to be [NEET (2020)]
negative (a) a – iii; b – i; c – iv; d – ii
(d) First negative, then positive and continue to be (b) a – ii; b – i; c – iv; d – iii
positive (c) a – iv; b – iii; c – i; d – ii
CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND (d) a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d – iv
84. Match the following hormones with the respective
INTEGRATION disease:
80. Match List I with List II. Column-I Column-II
List I List I A Insulin (i) Addison’s
(A) CCK (I) Kidney disease
(B) GIP (II) Heart
B Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes
(C) ANF (III) Gastric gland
(D) ADH (IV) Pancreas insipidus
C Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
Choose the correct answer from the options given D Growth (iv) Goitre
below: [NEET (2023)] Hormones
ur es
(a) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(b) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
F u t
(v) Diabetes mellitus
(c) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
Select the correct option:
in g [NEET (2019)]
(d) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
h a p
(a) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i)
,S
81. Which of the following are NOT under the control of (b) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)
thyroid hormone?
m s
(c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance.
r ea
(d) A – (v), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate.
g D
85. How does steroid hormone influence the cellular
C. Normal rhythm of sleep–wake cycle.
i d in activities: [NEET (2019)]
D. Development of immune system.
G u (a) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone
E. Support the process of RBCs formation. complex
Choose the correct answer from the options given (b) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell
below: [NEET (2023)] membrane
(a) B and C only (b) C and D only (c) Using aquaporin channels as second messenger
(c) D and E only (d) D and E only (d) Changing the permeability of the cell membrane
82. Which of the following are not the effects of 86. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
Parathyroid hormone ? reproduction, acts on [NEET (2017)]
a. Stimulates the process of bone resorption, (a) The posterior pituitary gland and stimulates the
b. Decreases Ca2+ level in blood, secretion of oxytocin and FSH
c. Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules, (b) The posterior pituitary gland and stimulates the
d. Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food,
secretion of LH and relaxin
e. Increases metabolism of carbohydrates.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options (c) The anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the
given below [NEET (2022)] secretion of LH and oxytocin
(a) (a) and (c) only (d) The anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the
(b) (b), (d) and (e) only secretion of LH and FSH
(c) (a) and (e) only
(d) (b) and (c) only
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87. Select the answer which correctly matches the
endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
function/deficiency symptom [NEET (2013)] 90. Given below are two statements:
(a) Endocrine gland - Anterior pituitary, Hormone – Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal
Oxytocin, Function/deficiency symptoms – Stimulates vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
uterus contraction during childbirth Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical
(b) Endocrine gland - Posterior pituitary symptoms - canal which along with vagina forms birth canal.
Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth , Hormone In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
- Growth Hormone (GH), Function/deficiency answer from the options given below: [NEET (2023)]
symptoms - Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Endocrine gland - Thyroid gland, Hormone – (b) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false.
Thyroxine, Function/deficiency symptoms - Lack of (c) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true.
iodine in diet result in goiter (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Endocrine gland - Corpus luteum, Hormone - 91. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Testosterone, Function/deficiency symptoms – Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Stimulates spermatogenesis Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for
implantation of blastocyst.
88. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus
well as the function. [NEET (2011)] luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of
(a) Source gland- Thyroid; Hormone- Thyroxine; endometrium.
Function- Regulates blood calcium level In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below: [NEET (2023)]
es
(b) Source gland- Anterior pituitary; Hormone-
Oxytocin; Function- Contraction of uterus muscles
explanation of A. u t ur
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct
during child birth
g F
(c) Source gland- Posterior pituitary; Hormone-
Vasopressin; Function- Stimulates resorption of water a p in
(b) A is true, but R is false.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
in the distal tubules in the nephron ,S h
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
m s
explanation of A.
ea
(d) Source gland- Corpus luteum; Hormone- Estrogen;
Function- Supports pregnancy
D r
92. Which of the following statements are true for
89. Given below is an incomplete table certain hormones,
ing spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?
their source glands and one major effect of each on the
u i d (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
G
body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the
completion of meiosis
blanks A, B and C.
Glands Secretion Effect on Body (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically
A Oestrogen Maintenance of dividing stem cell population
secondary sexual (d) It is controlled by the Luteinizing hormone (LH) and
characters Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the
Alpha cells of B Raises blood sugar anterior pituitary
Islets of level (e) It is initiated at puberty
Langerhans Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
Anterior C Over section leads given below: [NEET (2022)]
pituitary to gigantism (a) (c) and (e) only
[NEET (2011)] (b) (b) and (c) only
(a) A- Placenta; B- Glucagon; C- Calcitionin (c) (b), (d) and (e) only
(b) A- Ovary; B- Glucagon; C- Growth (d) (b), (c) and (e) only
(c) A- Placenta; B- Insulin; C- Vasopressin
(d) A- Ovary; B- Insulin; C- Calcitonin
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93. Which of the following hormone levels will cause (a) a → (i); b → (iii); c → (ii)
release of ovum (ovulation) from the graafian follicle ? (b) a → (ii); b → (iii); c → (i)
[NEET (2020)] (c) a → (iii); b → (ii); c → (i)
(a) Low concentration of LH (d) a → (iii); b → (i); c → (ii)
(b) Low concentration of FSH 98. The difference between spermiogenesis and
(c) High concentration of Estrogen spermiation is [NEET (2018)]
(d) High concentration of Progesterone (a) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells
94. Match the following columns and select the correct are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules,
option while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed
Column I Column II (b) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens in spermiation spermatids are formed
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic (c) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in
Gonadotropin (hCG) spermiation spermatozoa are formed
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum (d) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while
glands in spermiation spermatozoa are released from Sertoli
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the penis cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules
[NEET (2020)] 99. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic
(a) a – iii; b – ii; c – iv; d - i sectional view of the female reproductive system of
(b) a – ii; b – iii; c – iv; d – i humans. Which one set of three parts out of I- VI have
(c) a – iv; b – iii; c – i; d – ii been correctly identified ? [NEET (2011)]
(d) a – i; b – iv; c – ii; d – iii
95. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells
ur es
in male reproductive system. [NEET (2019)]
(a) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → duct Urethra F u t
→ Urethral meatus Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → in g
Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct Urethra → Urethral
h a p
meatus s ,S
(a) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian
(b) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
tube
ea m
Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
D r
(b) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV)
(c) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas
ing Fimbriage
deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal →
u i d (c) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
Urethra → Urethral meatus G (d) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus (VI) Cervix
(d) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra 100. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
96. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
pregnancy are [NEET (2018)] Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is
(a) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health
(b) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin Care Programme.
(c) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing
(d) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids menace of female foeticide.
97. Match the items given in column I with those in Column In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
II and select the correct option given below answer from the options given below: [NEET (2023)]
Column I Column II (a) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the correct
(a) Proliferative (i) Breakdown of explanation of A.
phase endometrial lining (b) A is true, but R is false.
(b) Secretory phase (ii) Follicular phase (c) A is false, but R is true.
(c) Menstruation (iii) Luteal phase (d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
[NEET (2018)] explanation of A.
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101. Match list I with list II with respect to methods of 104. Select the option including all sexually transmitted
contraception and their respective actions. Choose the diseases. [NEET (2020)]
correct answer from the options given below : (a) AIDS, Malaria, filaria
(b) Cancer, AIDS, syphilis
List I List II (c) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital Herpes
(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and (d) Gonorrhoea, tuberculosis and Genital herpes
Implantation 105. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
(b) Contraception (ii) Increase are transferred to assist those females who cannot
Pills phagocytosis of conceive? [NEET (2020)]
sperm within Uterus (a) ICSI and ZIFT (b) GIFT and ICSI
(c) Intrauterine (iii) Absences of (c) ZIFT and IUT (d) GIFT and ZIFT
Devices Menstrual cycle and 106. Which of the following contraceptive methods do
ovulation following involve a role of hormone? [NEET (2019)]
partition (a) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea pills
(d) Lactational (iv) They cover the cervix (b) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
Amenorrhea blocking the entry of (c) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods.
sperms (d) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency
[NEET (2022)] contraceptives
(a) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii) 107. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.
(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iii) [NEET (2019)]
(c) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i);(d) - (iii) (a) Multiload 375, Progestasert
es
(d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iv) (b) Progestasert, LNG-20
102. Match list I with list II. (c) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
u t ur
List I List II (d) Vaults, LNG-20
g F
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
a p in
108. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer
of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
Cervix is blocked
,S h [NEET (2010)]
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens
m s
ea
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms
within the Uterus D r
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube ing (c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
[NEET (2021)] u i d (d) Zygote only
(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii);(d) - (i) G MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
(b) (a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (ii) 109. Match List I with List II.
(c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iii)
(d) (a)- (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iv)
List I List II
103. Venereal diseases can spread through:
A. Gene ‘a’ I. β-galactosidase
(a) Using sterile needles;
B. Gene ‘y’ II. Transacetylase
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person;
C. Gene ‘I’ III. Permease
(c) Infected mother to foetus;
D. Gene ‘z’ IV. Repressor protein
(d) Kissing;
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(e) Inheritance
below: [NEET (2023)]
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
[NEET (2021)]
(b) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(a) (b) and (c) only
(c) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(b) (a) and (c) only
(d) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(c) (a), (b) and (c) only
(d) (b), (c) and (d) only
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110. Given below are two statements: 114. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will
Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged be the approximate number of base pairs?
DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in [NEET (2022)]
a region called nucleoid. Statement II: In eukaryotes, (a) 3.3 × 109 bp
the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the (b) 6.6 × 109 bp
positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome. (c) 3.3 × 106 bp
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (d) 6.6 × 106 bp
answer from the options given below: [NEET (2023)] 115. Complete the flowchart on central dogma.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(b) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false. [NEET (2021)]
(c) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true. (a) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation;
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (d)-Protein
111. Which one of the following is the sequence on (b) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication;
corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on mRNA (d)-Protein
formed is as follows: [NEET (2023)] (c) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-
5′ AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCG AUCG AUCG Transduction; (d)-Protein
3′? (d) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription;
(a) 3′ UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGC (d)-Transduction
5′ 116. Identify the correct statement. [NEET (2021)]
(b) 5′ ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG (a) The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to
3′ an mRNA
(b) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
es
(c) 3′ ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG
ur
5′ prokaryotes
(d) 5′ UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGC u t
(c) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added
F
UAGC 3′ to the 3’ end of hnRNA.
in g
112. Read the following statements and choose the set of a p
(d) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
h
correct statements:
s ,S
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin 117.
m
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process
ea
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active r
of transcription in eukaryotes?
D
[NEET (2021)]
(c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged
ing (a) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
DNA in nucleosome
u i d (b) Transcribes only snRNAs
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine. G (c) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(d) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
Choose the correct answer from the options given 118. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will
below: [NEET (2022)] be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine, and Cytosine
(a) (b), (d), (e) Only in it? [NEET (2021)]
(b) (a), (c), (d) Only (a) T: 30; G: 20; C: 20
(c) (b), (e) Only (b) T: 20; G: 25; C: 25
(d) (a), (c), (e) Only (c) T: 20; G: 30; C: 20
113. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing (d) T: 20; G: 20; C: 30
the whole genome of an organism, followed by 119. Which one of the following statements about Histones
assignment of functions to different segment, the is wrong? [NEET (2021)]
methodology adopted by him is called as: (a) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
[NEET (2022)] Arginine
(a) Sequence annotation (b) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
(b) Gene mapping (c) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
(c) Expressed sequence tags molecules.
(d) Bioinformatics (d) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
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120. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein 125. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d)
with 333 amino acids and the base at position 901 is given below about lac operon. [NEET (2010)]
deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 (a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor
bases how many codons will be altered? and inactivate it
[NEET (2017)] (b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the
(a) 33 (b) 333 operator region
(c) 1 (d) 11 (c) The z-gene codes for permease
121. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to (d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque
elongate [NEET (2017)] Monod
(a) The leading strand away from the replication fork. The correct statements are :
(b) The lagging strand away from the replication fork (a) (b) and (c) (b) (a) and (c)
(c) The leading strand towards the replication fork (c) (b) and (d) (d) (a) and (b)
(d) The lagging strand towards the replication fork
122. Satellite DNA is important because it:
EVOLUTION
[NEET (2015)] 126. Match list I with list II.
(a) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
(b) Shows a high degree of polymorphism in the List I List II
population and also the same degree of polymorphism (a) Adaptive (i) Selection of
in an individual, which is heritable from parents to radiation resistant varieties
children. due to excessive use
(c) Does not code for proteins and is the same in all of herbicides and
pesticides
es
members of the population.
(d) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication. (b) Convergent (ii)
ur
Bones of forelimbs
u t
123. Given below is a diagram representing the central evolution
g F
in Man and Whale
dogma of molecular biology and some statements
related to it: [NEET (2013)]
(c) Divergent
evolution a p in (iii) Wings of butterfly
and birds
(d) ,S
Evolution
hby (iv) Darwin Finches
m s
ea
anthropogenic
D r action
i. It was proposed by Francis Crick
ing [NEET (2021)]
ii. In some viruses the flow of genetic information
occurs in the reverse direction u i d (a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (iii)
iii. The processes 'd' and 'e' both take place in the G (b) (a)- (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii)
nucleus (c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i)
iv. Uracil can be found in both 'a' and 'b' (d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iv)
v. tRNA is involved only in 'e' 127. Match list I with list II.
vi. After 'c' is formed, it moves out of the nucleus into List I List II
the cytoplasm (a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
Which option represents all the correct statements?
(a) ii, iii, v, vi (b) ii, iv, v (b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard
(c) i, ii, v (d) i, ii, iii, vi adaptation
124. What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting? (c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish at
[NEET (2012)] adaptation depth
(a) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in (d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal
blood, skin and saliva adaptation
(b) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and [NEET (2021)]
grooves of the fingerprints (a) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(c) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short (b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)
DNA segments (c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (i)
(d) The relative proportions of prines and pyrimidines in (d) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
DNA
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128. Which of the following refer to the correct example(s) 134. Following are the two statements regarding the origin
of organisms which have evolved due to changes of of life:
environment brought about by anthropogenic action? (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth
(i) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(ii) Herbicide resistant weeds (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the
(iii) Drug resistant eukaryotes. chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the
(iv) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like above statements which one of the following options is
dogs. [NEET (2020)] correct? [NEET (2016-I)]
(a) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (a) (a) is correct but (b) is false
(b) only (iv) (b) (b) is correct but (a) is false
(c) only (i) (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) (i) & (iii) (d) Both (a) and (b) are false
129. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of 135. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different
[NEET (2020)] patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function.
(a) Industrial melanism This is an example of [NEET (2013)]
(b) Natural selection (a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to
(c) Adaptive radiation convergent evolution
(d) Convergent evolution (b) Homologous organs that have evolved due to
130. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino divergent evolution
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask: (c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
[NEET (2020)] convergent evolution
es
(a) CH4 , H2 , NH3 and water vapor at 600 ºC (d) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
(b) CH3 , H2 NH3 and water vapor at 600 ºC divergent evolution
u t ur
(c) CH4 , H2 , NH3 and water vapor at 800 ºC
HUMAN HEALTH AND gDISEASES F
(d) CH3 , H2 , NH4 and water vapor at 800 ºC
pi n
131. In a species the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5
List I S h a
136. Match List I with List II.
List II
kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight
A.
m s,
Ringworm I. Haemophilus influenzae
rea
between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants
B. Filariasis II. Trichophyton
born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die.
D
C. Malaria III. Wuchereria bancrofti
Which type of selection process is taking place?
d i ng D. Pneumonia IV. Plasmodium vivax
[NEET (2019)] i
Gu
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(a) Stabilizing selection below: [NEET (2023)]
(b) Disruptive Selection (a) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
(c) Cyclical Selection (b) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(d) Directional Selection (c) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(d) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
132. The chronological order of human evolution from early
137. Match List I with List II.
to the recent is [NEET (2016-II)]
(a) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis List I List II
→ Homo erectus A. Heroin I. Effect on cardiovascular
(b) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → system
Australopithecus → Homo erectus B. Marijuana II. Slows down body
(c) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → function
Ramapithecus → Homo erectus C. Cocaine III. Painkiller
(d) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo D. Morphine IV. Interfere with transport
habilis → Homo erectus of dopamine
133. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of Choose the correct answer from the options given
heterozygous individuals is represented by below: [NEET (2023)]
(a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
[NEET (2016-II)]
(b) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(a) 2pq (b) pq (c) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(c) q2 (d) p2 (d) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
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138. Given below are two statements: 143. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and
Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where select the right option giving their source and use.
the body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as
foreign bodies.
Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where
the body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most [NEET (2012)]
appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) Molecule-(b) Heroin; Source-Cannabis sativa;
[NEET (2022)] Use-Depressant and slows down body functions
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (b) Molecule-(b) Cannabinoid; Source-Atropa
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect belladona; Use-Produces hallucinations
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (c) Molecule-(a) Morphine; Source-Papaver
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct somniferum; Use-Sedative and pain killer
139. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired (d) Molecule-(a) Cocaine; Source-Erythroxylum coca;
immunity: [NEET (2022)] Use-Accelerates the transport of dopamin
(a) Primary response is produced when our body
encounters a pathogen for the first time. 144. Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding
(b) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of
encounters with the same pathogen these –
(c) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first (a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient
encounter may need to take immunosuppresants for a long time
es
(d) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense (b) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible
present at the time of birth for the graft rejection
u t ur
140. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
F
(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of
g
immunity. [NEET (2020)]
(a) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
the graft
a p in
(b) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is ,S h
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant
s
depends on specific interferons
m
ea
an example for passive immunity. The two correct statements are – [NEET (2010)]
(c) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
D r
(a) (b) and (c) (b) (c) and (d)
antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called
d i ng(c) (a) and (c) (d) (a) and (b)
“Active immunity”.
(d) When readymade antibodies are directly given, it isG ui BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND
called “Passive immunity”. PROCESSES
141. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother
145. Main steps in the formation of recombinant DNA are
during the initial days of lactation is very essential to
given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
impart immunity to the newborn infants because it
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.
contains: [NEET (2019)]
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction
(a) Monocytes
enzyme.
(b) Macrophages
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
(c) Immunoglobulin A
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
(d) Natural killer cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given
142. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by [NEET (2019)]
below: [NEET (2023)]
(a) Acetylation of morphine
(a) C, A, B, D (b) C, B, D, A
(b) Glycosylation of morphine
(c) B, D, A, C (d) B, C, D, A
(c) Nitration of morphine
(d) Methylation of morphine
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146. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 150. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)? [NEET (2021)]
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in (a) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
DNA amplification. (b) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a (c) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
selectable marker to check transformation. (d) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct 151. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide
answer from the options given below: [NEET (2022)] when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct [NEET (2021)]
explanation of (A) (a) Dark red bands
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (b) Bright blue bands
correct explanation of (A) (c) Yellow bands
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (d) Bright orange bands
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 152. Plasmid pBR322 has a PstI restriction enzyme site
147. Which one of the following statements is not true within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If
regarding gel electrophoresis technique? this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-
[NEET (2022)] galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is
(a) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands inserted in an E.coli strain [NEET (2021)]
from gel is called elution (a) It will lead to lysis of the host cell
(b) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using (b) It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual
ethidium bromide ability
es
(c) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue (c) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to
coloured DNA bands on the gel the host cell
u t ur
(d) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be
F
(d) The transformed cells will have the ability to resist
g
observed in the gel when exposed to UV light
148. In the following palindromic base sequence of DNA, a p in
ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside
153. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can
which one can be cut easily by a particular restriction ,S h
be achieved by treatment with: [NEET (2019)]
m s
ea
enzyme? [NEET (2022)] (a) Chilled ethanol
(a) 5’ GATACT 3’ ; 3’ CTATGA 5’ r
(b) Methanol at room temperature
D
(b) 5’ GAATTC 3’ ; 3’ CTTAAG 5’
ing (c) Chilled chloroform
(c) 5’ CTCAGT 3’ ; 3’ GAGTCA 5’
u i d (d) Isopropanol
(d) 5’ GTATTC 3’ ; 3’ CATAAG 5’ G BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS
149. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise APPLICATION
specific sequences to cut DNA known as palindromic 154. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
nucleotide sequences. deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of
Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA genetically engineered lymphocytes because:
strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic [NEET (2022)]
site. (a) Retroviral vector is introduced into these
In the light of the above statements, choose the most lymphocytes
appropriate answer from the options given below: (b) Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA
[NEET (2022)] is introduced into cells at embryonic stages
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (c) Lymphocytes from patient’s blood are grown in
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect culture, outside the body
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is immortal cells.
correct
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155. Statements related to human insulin are given below: 157. Match the following columns and select the correct
Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically option.
engineered Insulin? Column I Column II
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C- (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
peptide (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
(b) A peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were deaminase deficiency
produced separately in E. coli, extracted and combined (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
infection
by creating a disulphide bond between them.
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from thuringiensis
Cattles and Pigs. [NEET (2020)]
(d) Pro-hormone insulin needs to be processed for (a) a – ii; b - iii; c – iv; d - i
(b) a – i; b – ii; c – iii; d – iv
converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(c) a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d - iii
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the (d) a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d - iv
foreign insulin. 158. In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the
safety of introducing genetically modified organisms
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
for public use is [NEET (2018)]
given below: [NEET (2022)] (a) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
(a) (a), (b) and (d) only (RCGM)
(b) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research
(b) (b) only
(c) (c) and (d) only
(CSIR)
ur es
(d) (c), (d) and (e) only F t
(c) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
u
(d) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC) in g
156. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis
h a p
159. Read the following four statements (A-D):
and understanding its pathophysiology is very
s ,S
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born
important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic
ea m
because it is rich in antigen
techniques is very useful for early detection? D r
(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative
ing bacterium
[NEET (2021)]
u i d (C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-
(a) ELISA Technique G free plants
(b) Hybridization Technique (D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented
grape juice [NEET (2012)]
(c) Western Blotting Technique
How many of the above statements are wrong?
(d) Southern Blotting Technique (a) Three (b) Four
(c) One (d) Two
160. What is true about Bt toxin ? [NEET (2009)]
(a) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
(b) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active
form in the insect gut
(c) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
(d) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to
sterillise it and thus prevent its multiplication.
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ANSWER KEY
PHYSICS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (d)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (a) 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (c)
121. (d) 122. (d) 123. (c) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (d) 127. (c) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (b)
131. (a) 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (d) 137. (c) 138. (d) 139. (a) 140. (b)
141. (d) 142. (d)
ur es
CHEMISTRY in g F u t
h a p
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b)
s , S 18. (b)
8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c)
ea m
17. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b)
D r 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b)
in g
36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d)
i
45. (a)
u d 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (a)
61. (d)
52. (c)
62. (b)
53. (b)
63. (c)
54. (a)
64. (d)
G
55. (c)
65. (b)
56. (c)
66. (c)
57. (d)
67. (b)
58. (a)
68. (a)
59. (b)
69. (d)
60. (a)
70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (a)
81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (b) 110. (a)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (b) 124. (d) 125. (b)
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BOTANY
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19 (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (e) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (a)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (a) 104. (d) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (a)
111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (d) 115. (d) 116. (b) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (a)
121. (b) 122. (c) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (b)
ZOOLOGY
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c)
ures 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (c) u
49. (b)
F t 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (a)
in g59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (c)
h p
68. (b)
a 69. (c) 70. (b)
,S
71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (d) s
87. (c)
m
88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (a)
r ea
97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (c)
101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (d)
g D 107. (b) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (c)
111. (b)
121. (b)
112. (b)
122. (b)
113. (a)
123. (c)
114. (a)
124. (c)
115. (a)
125. (c) i d in
116. (d)
126. (c)
117. (d)
127. (a)
118. (a)
128. (a)
119. (d)
129. (d)
120. (a)
130. (c)
131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (c) G u
135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (d) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (c) 144. (d) 145. (d) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (d) 152. (c) 153. (a) 154. (d) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (c) 158. (d) 159. (a) 160. (b)
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