A.

General Science
1. Which of the following processes is directly responsible for the formation of the ozone layer?
a. Photosynthesis
b. Nitrogen fixation
c. Ultraviolet radiation breaking down oxygen molecules
d. Cellular respiration
2. What is the primary function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) in eukaryotic cells?
a. Lipid synthesis
b. Protein synthesis
c. Detoxification of toxins
d. Storage of calcium ions
3. In the context of Mendelian genetics, if a pea plant is heterozygous for both seed shape and seed
color (YyRr), what proportion of the offspring from a dihybrid cross will exhibit the dominant traits for
both characteristics (round, yellow)?
a. 1/16
b. 1/4
c. 3/16
d. 9/16
4. What would be the expected change in a chemical equilibrium if the temperature is increased in an
exothermic reaction?
a. The position of equilibrium would shift to favor the products.
b. The position of equilibrium would shift to favor the reactants.
c. The rate of reaction would decrease.
d. The reaction would stop.

5. Which of the following is an example of a second-order reaction?

a. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
b. The reaction between nitrogen dioxide and carbon monoxide
c. The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen
d. The reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid
6. Which property of water is responsible for its ability to moderate Earth’s climate?
a. Its high heat capacity
b. Its low density in the solid phase
c. Its high surface tension
d. Its ability to form hydrogen bonds
7. What is the primary mechanism by which tectonic plates are driven?
a. Ocean currents
b. Mantle convection
c. Magnetic reversal
d. Gravitational pull of the moon
8. The primary reason for the phase changes of water (solid, liquid, gas) is:
a. Changes in pressure
b. Changes in the density of water
c. Changes in temperature
d. Changes in chemical composition
9. Which of the following best explains the apparent retrograde motion of planets like Mars as seen
from Earth?
a. The gravitational influence of the Sun.
b. The different orbital speeds of Earth and Mars.
c. The motion of the Moon around Earth.
d. The alignment of stars in the background.
10. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the law of conservation of mass?
a. The total mass of the products equals the total mass of the reactants in a chemical reaction.
b. Mass can be created or destroyed during chemical reactions.
c. Chemical reactions do not alter the amount of mass in a closed system.
d. The amount of matter remains constant in any physical or chemical change.
11. Which of the following structures in the human digestive system primarily absorbs nutrients?
a. Stomach
b. Large intestine
c. Small intestine
d. Esophagus
12. Which of the following is true about the structure of the atom?
a. Protons and neutrons have nearly the same mass.
b. Electrons are found in the nucleus of the atom.
c. Neutrons have a negative charge.
d. Protons and electrons have the same charge.
13. Which law explains the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas at constant
temperature?
a. Charles’ Law
b. Boyle’s Law
c. Avogadro’s Law
d. Dalton’s Law
14. In which part of the electromagnetic spectrum do ultraviolet rays fall?
a. Between visible light and X-rays
b. Between X-rays and gamma rays
c. Between infrared and visible light
d. Between microwaves and radio waves
15. Which element has the highest electronegativity?
a. Fluorine
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. Chlorine
16. Which biome is characterized by low precipitation, extreme temperatures, and sparse vegetation?
a. Tropical rainforest
b. Desert
c. Tundra
d. Temperate forest
17. What is the main function of ribosomes in a cell?
a. Synthesize proteins
b. Synthesize lipids
c. Replicate DNA
d. Package and transport proteins

18. What happens to the atomic radius as you move across a period in the periodic table?
a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It stays the same.
d. It fluctuates.

19. In an ecosystem, what is the role of decomposers?

a. Produce food for consumers
b. Break down dead organic matter
c. Regulate the population of predators
d. Use sunlight to produce food

20. In the context of food science, which nutrient is primarily responsible for providing the body with
energy?
a. Proteins
b. Fats
c. Vitamins
d. Minerals
21. Which statement is true about the electromagnetic waves?
a. All electromagnetic waves have the same wavelength.
b. Electromagnetic waves do not require a medium to propagate.
c. Gamma rays have the longest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum.
d. X-rays are slower than visible light.
22. What is the primary cause of plate tectonic movement?
a. Magnetic forces from the Sun
b. Heat from the Earth’s core
c. Atmospheric pressure changes
d. Ocean currents
23. What type of radiation is primarily emitted by the Sun?
a. Infrared radiation
b. X-rays
c. Ultraviolet radiation
d. Gamma rays
24. Which of the following factors contributes most to the greenhouse effect?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Nitrogen
c. Water vapor
d. Oxygen
25. Which of the following planets has the longest day (rotation period)?
a. Mercury
b. Venus
c. Earth
d. Mars

B. Arithmetic reasoning

1. Sarah bought 3 shirts for $15 each and 2 pairs of jeans for $25 each. How much did she spend in
total?
A) $100
B) $95
C) $90
D) $85
2. A box contains 12 chocolates. If each chocolate weighs 30 grams, what is the total weight of the
box?
A) 360 grams
B) 400 grams
C) 340 grams
D) 420 grams
3. A car’s fuel tank holds 50 liters. If the car consumes 5 liters every 100 kilometers, how far can the
car travel on a full tank?
A) 900 kilometers
B) 800 kilometers
C) 1,000 kilometers
D) 1,200 kilometers
4. A recipe requires 3 cups of sugar for every 5 cups of flour. How many cups of sugar are needed for
15 cups of flour?
A) 7 cups
B) 9 cups
C) 10 cups
D) 12 cups
5. The length of a rectangle is 8 meters, and its width is 3 meters. What is its perimeter?
A) 22 meters
B) 24 meters
C) 26 meters
D) 28 meters
6. If a train travels at 45 miles per hour, how long will it take to travel 360 miles?
A) 6 hours
B) 7 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 9 hours
7. A shop offers a 20% discount on a $120 item. What is the discounted price?
A) $100
B) $96
C) $104
D) $110
8. A person buys 6 pens for $3 each. If they sell them for $5 each, how much profit do they make?
A) $5
B) $6
C) $7
D) $8
9. If the price of an item increases by 15%, and its original price was $50, what is the new price?
A) $57.50
B) $60.50
C) $65
D) $62.50
10. If 3 pencils cost $1.50, how much will 10 pencils cost?
A) $5.00
B) $4.50
C) $4.00
D) $3.50
11. Solve for x: 4x - 3 = 17.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
12. A number plus 8 is equal to 21. What is the number?
A) 12
B) 13
C) 15
D) 14
13. If 3x + 7 = 22, what is x?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
14. If x - 4 = 9, what is the value of x?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 13
D) 14
15. The difference between a number and 5 is 12. What is the number?
A) 7
B) 17
C) 15
D) 12
16. Solve for x: 6x + 9 = 51.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
17. The sum of a number and 3 is 18. What is the number?
A) 13
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16
18. If 5x = 35, what is x?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
19. If x + 3 = 10, what is x?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
20. The product of a number and 5 is 40. What is the number?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 7
21. What is the area of a rectangle with a length of 15 cm and a width of 6 cm?
A) 80 cm²
B) 90 cm²
C) 100 cm²
D) 120 cm²
22. The diameter of a circle is 10 meters. What is the radius?
A) 5 meters
B) 10 meters
C) 15 meters
D) 20 meters
23. What is the area of a triangle with a base of 12 cm and a height of 8 cm?
A) 48 cm²
B) 60 cm²
C) 72 cm²
D) 96 cm²
24. The perimeter of a square is 36 cm. What is the length of one side?
A) 8 cm
B) 9 cm
C) 10 cm
D) 11 cm
25. The area of a square is 64 cm². What is the length of one side?
A) 6 cm
B) 7 cm
C) 8 cm
D) 9 cm
26. What is the volume of a cube with a side length of 4 cm?
A) 16 cm³
B) 32 cm³
C) 64 cm³
D) 128 cm³
27. A circle has a radius of 7 cm. What is its area? (Use π = 3.14)
A) 149.8 cm²
B) 153.9 cm²
C) 154 cm²
D) 150 cm²
28. What is the perimeter of a rectangle with a length of 10 cm and a width of 5 cm?
A) 25 cm
B) 30 cm
C) 35 cm
D) 40 cm
29. What is the area of a circle with a radius of 3 cm? (Use π = 3.14)
A) 25.12 cm²
B) 28.26 cm²
C) 30.34 cm²
D) 33.50 cm²
30. What is the volume of a rectangular prism with length 3 cm, width 4 cm, and height 5 cm?
A) 60 cm³
B) 50 cm³
C) 40 cm³
D) 30 cm³

C. Mathematic knowledge
1. What is the value of 33?
A) 6
B) 27
C) 9
D) 81
2. What is 40% of 150?
A) 60
B) 50
C) 100
D) 80
3. What is the result of 10×(6−3)10?
A) 15
B) 30
C) 25
D) 60
49
4. What is the value of ?
7
A) 5
B) 7
C) 6
D) 3
24
5. Simplify .
36
2
A)
3
1
B)
2
2
C)
4
4
D)
6
6. Solve for x: 5x−2=18.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 5
D) 3
7. What is the solution to the equation 4(x−2)=16?
A) 10
B) 8
C) 6
D) 4
8. Which of the following is the quadratic equation that represents the factored form (x−3)(x+5)?
A) x2 +8x−15
B) x2 −2x−15
C) x2 +15x−15
D) x2 −2x+15
9. Solve for x: 3(x+7) = 30.
A) 3
B) 6
C) 5
D) 7
10. What is the value of xx in the equation 2x+3=3x−4?
A) 7
B) 1
C) -7
D) -1
11. The area of a circle is given by A=πr2 . If the radius is 5 cm, what is the area?
A) 25π cm²
B) 50π cm²
C) 15π cm²
D) 25 cm²
12. What is the surface area of a cube with a side length of 4 cm?
A) 24 cm²
B) 48 cm²
C) 96 cm²
D) 16 cm²
13. What is the volume of a cylinder with a radius of 3 cm and a height of 10 cm?
A) 90π cm³
B) 270π cm³
C) 30π cm³
D) 10π cm³
14. What is the area of a trapezoid with bases of 8 cm and 12 cm and a height of 6 cm?
A) 60 cm²
B) 45 cm²
C) 36 cm²
D) 48 cm²
15. The angle between two adjacent sides of a square is:
A) 90°
B) 180°
C) 60°
D) 45°
16. What is the probability of rolling a number greater than 4 on a standard six-sided die?
1
A)
6
 2
B)
3
1
C)
3
1
D)
2
17. A coin is flipped three times. What is the probability of getting exactly two heads?
3
A)
8
1
B)
2
1
C)
8
1
D)
4
18. What is the mode of the data set: 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 5, 6?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 2
19. In a bag of 20 marbles, 4 are red, 6 are green, and 10 are blue. What is the probability of selecting
a green marble?
1
A)
5
3
B)
10
6
C)
20
1
D)
4
20. What is the median of the data set: 1, 4, 7, 8, 12?
A) 8
B) 7
C) 4
D) 12
21. The sum of the probabilities of all possible outcomes in an experiment is always:
A) 1
B) 0
C) 50%
D) None of the above
22. A student guesses on a multiple-choice question with 4 options. What is the probability of
guessing correctly?
1
A)
4
1
B)
2
1
C)
3
1
D)
5
23. If the mean of a data set is 20 and the data set consists of 5 numbers, what is the sum of all the
numbers?
A) 100
B) 120
C) 80
D) 60
24. What is the probability of drawing a heart from a deck of 52 cards?
13
A)
52
1
B)
4
1
C)
2
1
D)
13
25. If the range of a data set is 10 and the smallest number is 5, what is the largest number?
A) 15
B) 10
C) 5
D) 20

D. Word knowledge
1. Procrastinate most nearly means:
a. Delay
b. Complete
c. Avoid
d. Begin
2. The singer’s voice was melodious, soothing the entire audience.
a. Loud
b. Sweet-sounding
c. Harsh
d. Dissonant
3. The manager’s diligent work ethic earned her respect from the team.
a. Careless
b. Hardworking
c. Lazy
d. Unfocused
4. Ample space was provided for all the guests to sit comfortably.
a. Limited
b. Sufficient
c. Insufficient
d. Tight
5. The study on climate change presented conclusive evidence.
a. Inconclusive
b. Tentative
c. Clear
d. Vague
6. Plausible means:
a. Unbelievable
b. Reasonable
c. Illogical
d. Complicated
7. The patient's recovery was gradual over the course of several months.
a. Sudden
b. Slow
c. Fast
d. Immediate
8. The author’s writing style is lucid, making complex topics easy to understand.
a. Confused
b. Clear
c. Pretentious
d. Hard-to-understand
9. Tedious tasks can often be exhausting.
a. Exciting
b. Boring
c. Simple
d. Pleasing
10. He showed unwavering support for the project.
a. Shifting
b. Stable
c. Uncertain
d. Hesitant
11. The professor’s lecture was engaging and kept the students interested.
a. Dull
b. Boring
c. Interesting
d. Disconnected
12. Abundant resources were available to the team for the project.
a. Scarce
b. Limited
c. Plentiful
d. Insufficient
13. The superficial details were not as important as the overall goal.
a. Deep
b. Shallow
c. Hidden
d. Significant
14. His volatile temper often got him into trouble.
a. Stable
b. Unpredictable
c. Calm
d. Controlled
15. Voracious readers often finish books quickly.
a. Occasional
b. Hungry
c. Enthusiastic
d. Uninterested
16. Tangible assets are those that have a physical form.
a. Intangible
b. Abstract
c. Physical
d. Conceptual
17. Exquisite craftsmanship was evident in the furniture.
a. Poor
b. Beautiful
c. Rough
d. Inconsistent
18. The doctor gave tentative instructions until the test results were available.
a. Final
b. Uncertain
c. Confirmed
d. Clear
19. Reluctant means:
a. Hesitant
b. Enthusiastic
c. Eager
d. Willing
20. The research paper was thorough, covering all aspects of the topic.
a. Incomplete
b. Detailed
c. Limited
d. Inaccurate

21. Subtle changes in behavior can sometimes be the most significant.

a. Obvious
b. Noticeable
c. Slight
d. Overwhelming
22. The enigmatic message left everyone puzzled.
a. Clear
b. Mysterious
c. Unimportant
d. Easy-to-understand
23. Ambivalent feelings led to indecision about the future.
a. Conflicted
b. Clear
c. Certain
d. Indifferent
24. The research findings were invaluable to the project’s success.
a. Unimportant
b. Worthless
c. Useful
d. Confusing
25. He gave a concise summary of the meeting’s outcomes.
a. Lengthy
b. Brief
c. Vague
d. Detailed
26. The data was ambiguous, making it difficult to draw conclusions.
a. Clear
b. Confusing
c. Simple
d. Precise
27. The decision was irrevocable and could not be changed.
a. Temporary
b. Reversible
c. Final
d. Flexible
28. Coherent arguments are essential for persuasive writing.
a. Disjointed
b. Logical
c. Confused
d. Illogical
29. The report was elaborate, covering every detail with precision.
a. Simple
b. Detailed
c. Incomplete
d. Confused
30. The futile effort ended in failure, as expected.
a. Effective
b. Fruitless
c. Successful
d. Beneficial
31. Candid feedback helps improve performance in the workplace.
a. False
b. Honest
c. Biased
d. Silent
32. The detective's methodical approach to solving the case was praised.
a. Hasty
b. Disorganized
c. Thorough
d. Random
33. The technology was obsolete, replaced by more advanced systems.
a. New
b. Outdated
c. Current
d. Innovative
34. The sporadic rainfall caused occasional delays.
a. Continuous
b. Rare
c. Steady
d. Frequent
35. The frivolous lawsuit was dismissed due to lack of evidence.
a. Serious
b. Meaningless
c. Important
d. Expensive

E. Paragraph compression

Question 1:
The vast majority of people in the world still live in rural areas, yet urbanization continues to accelerate
at an unprecedented rate. This shift from rural to urban living brings both challenges and opportunities.
On one hand, it can lead to overcrowded cities, increased pollution, and strain on infrastructure; on the
other hand, it fosters economic growth and access to modern amenities.
What is the main challenge of urbanization mentioned in the passage?
A) Economic growth
B) Increased pollution and overcrowded cities
C) Better access to technology
D) Reduced strain on infrastructure
Question 2:
While many believe that higher education is a key to success, there are others who argue that vocational
training can be just as effective. Vocational education focuses on teaching specific skills that can lead to
immediate employment in specialized fields, whereas traditional education often prepares students for a
broader range of career paths.
Which of the following is true based on the passage?
A) Higher education is less effective than vocational training.
B) Vocational training focuses on teaching general knowledge.
C) Vocational education prepares students for specialized careers.
D) Traditional education focuses only on specific skills.
Question 3:
The rapid development of artificial intelligence has sparked both excitement and fear. While AI can
improve efficiency in many fields, there are concerns about its impact on employment. Many fear that as
AI becomes more capable, it will replace human workers in jobs that require routine tasks, leaving many
unemployed.
What is the primary concern regarding AI, as mentioned in the passage?
A) AI will improve efficiency in all industries.
B) AI will lead to job displacement in routine tasks.
C) AI will replace all human workers.
D) AI will make workers more efficient.
Question 4:
The Arctic region has been experiencing rapid warming, which is affecting its ecosystems. Melting ice is
disrupting habitats for native species, and the thawing of permafrost is releasing greenhouse gases into
the atmosphere, exacerbating global warming. Scientists are concerned that these changes could have
far-reaching consequences for the planet.
What is one potential consequence of the Arctic warming mentioned in the passage?
A) The improvement of native species' habitats
B) The release of greenhouse gases from thawing permafrost
C) The reduction of global warming
D) The stabilization of the Arctic ecosystem
Question 5:
The rise of e-commerce has revolutionized the retail industry, allowing consumers to shop online for
almost anything. While this has led to increased convenience and access to goods, traditional brick-and-
mortar stores are facing a decline in foot traffic, which has led to challenges for small businesses that
cannot compete with the large e-commerce giants.
What challenge do small businesses face due to the rise of e-commerce?
A) Increased convenience for consumers
B) Decline in foot traffic to physical stores
C) Greater competition with large e-commerce companies
D) An increase in customer loyalty
Question 6:
Throughout history, humans have created art to express emotions, ideas, and experiences. Whether
through painting, sculpture, music, or literature, art reflects the values and struggles of a particular time
and place. In modern society, art remains an important tool for communication and self-expression.
What is the purpose of art, as stated in the passage?
A) To entertain people exclusively
B) To reflect emotions, ideas, and experiences
C) To educate people about history
D) To represent only the struggles of society
Question 7:
Climate change poses a threat to food security by affecting crop production. Shifting weather patterns,
including more frequent droughts and floods, can damage crops and reduce yields. In some regions, this
has already led to food shortages and price increases, creating challenges for global food supply chains.
What is one consequence of climate change on food security mentioned in the passage?
A) Improved crop production
B) Increased food availability
C) Damage to crops and reduced yields
D) Stabilized food prices
Question 8:
The concept of sustainability has become central to environmental discussions in recent years.
Sustainable practices aim to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs. This includes using resources efficiently, reducing waste, and
conserving biodiversity.
What is the main goal of sustainability, according to the passage?
A) To increase resource consumption for economic growth
B) To meet present needs while ensuring future generations' ability to meet theirs
C) To prioritize technological development over environmental concerns
D) To decrease the efficiency of resource use
Question 9:
In many countries, access to clean water is a growing concern. Pollution, overuse, and climate change
have put pressure on water supplies, particularly in developing regions. As the global population
continues to grow, the demand for clean water will only increase, making it crucial to find sustainable
solutions.
What is a growing concern regarding water supply?
A) Decreasing global population
B) Increased availability of clean water
C) Pollution and overuse of water resources
D) Reduced demand for clean water
Question 10:
The process of globalization has interconnected economies around the world, enabling the free flow of
goods, services, and information. However, globalization has also contributed to greater income
inequality, as the benefits of economic growth are not evenly distributed. While some countries have
prospered, others have been left behind.
What is one negative effect of globalization mentioned in the passage?
A) Greater distribution of wealth
B) Free flow of information
C) Increased income inequality
D) Decreased global economic interdependence
Question 11:
Advances in medical technology have drastically improved the quality of healthcare over the last century.
New treatments and diagnostic tools have helped doctors detect diseases earlier and treat patients more
effectively. However, the rising cost of healthcare remains a significant barrier for many people,
particularly in developing countries.
What is a major challenge in healthcare despite advances in medical technology?
A) Decrease in the quality of healthcare
B) Rising healthcare costs, especially in developing countries
C) Limited access to modern treatments
D) Improved access to healthcare worldwide
Question 12:
The study of human history is vital for understanding our present and shaping our future. By examining
past events, societies, and cultures, historians can identify patterns and lessons that help prevent
mistakes from being repeated. Furthermore, history provides insight into the cultural foundations of
modern societies.
Why is studying history important, according to the passage?
A) To predict the future with certainty
B) To avoid repeating past mistakes and understand societal foundations
C) To dismiss cultural influences on modern societies
D) To focus only on current events
Question 13:
Space exploration has provided humans with invaluable knowledge about the universe. Telescopes and
space probes have helped scientists gather data about distant planets and stars. However, the high cost
of space missions and the risks involved in human space travel have led to debates about whether the
benefits outweigh the costs.
What is one concern related to space exploration mentioned in the passage?
A) The lack of scientific data from space missions
B) The high cost and risks of space missions
C) The lack of interest in space exploration
D) The absence of space probes
Question 14:
In the world of politics, power often shifts between opposing ideologies. Democratic governments
typically operate under a system of checks and balances, ensuring that no single branch of government
becomes too powerful. However, the effectiveness of this system is sometimes questioned, particularly
during times of political polarization.
What is a challenge in democratic systems, according to the passage?
A) The concentration of power in one branch of government
B) The balance of power between political parties
C) The effectiveness of checks and balances during political polarization
D) The absence of political ideologies
Question 15:
The rise of digital communication has changed the way people interact with each other. While digital
platforms allow for faster communication, they also come with drawbacks, such as the potential for
miscommunication and the erosion of face-to-face interactions. It’s essential to find a balance between
digital and personal communication.
What is one drawback of digital communication mentioned in the passage?
A) Increased face-to-face interactions
B) The speed of communication
C) The potential for miscommunication and loss of personal interaction
D) The decline of digital platforms
F. Electronic information

1. What does an electric field represent?

A) A force between two charged objects
B) A form of electrical energy storage
C) A measurement of voltage
D) A type of electrical current
2. What will happen if you connect a light bulb in parallel with a resistor?
A) The light bulb will not work
B) The total current will increase
C) The total resistance will increase
D) The power consumption will decrease
3. Which of the following materials is an insulator?
A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Rubber
D) Copper
4. How does an electric generator work?
A) By converting mechanical energy into electrical energy
B) By converting electrical energy into mechanical energy
C) By storing electrical energy for later use
D) By increasing the voltage of electrical signals
5. In a DC circuit, how does increasing the voltage affect the power output if the resistance remains
constant?
A) The power output decreases
B) The power output remains constant
C) The power output increases
D) The resistance decreases
6. What does the term “impedance” refer to in an AC circuit?
A) The opposition to current flow
B) The total energy used by the circuit
C) The rate at which current changes direction
D) The resistance of the components
7. What does the "voltage" of a battery indicate?
A) The total charge stored in the battery
B) The total resistance of the circuit
C) The potential energy per unit charge
D) The amount of current available
8. Which of the following is an example of an active component in an electronic circuit?
A) Resistor
B) Inductor
C) Transistor
D) Capacitor
9. What is the effect of temperature on the resistance of most conductors?
A) Resistance decreases as temperature increases
B) Resistance increases as temperature increases
C) Resistance remains constant regardless of temperature
D) Resistance fluctuates based on voltage
10. Which of the following is the primary function of a capacitor in an AC circuit?
A) To increase voltage
B) To store energy in an electric field
C) To limit current
D) To transform AC into DC
11. In an electrical circuit, what does a switch control?
A) Voltage
B) Current flow
C) Frequency
D) Inductance
12. What happens when a resistor is added in series with a circuit?
A) The total resistance increases
B) The total current increases
C) The voltage is divided equally
D) The power factor increases
13. Which of the following describes the function of a transformer?
A) It steps up or steps down voltage in an AC circuit
B) It stores electrical energy
C) It converts DC to AC
D) It regulates current flow
14. Which of the following best describes the concept of inductive reactance in an AC circuit?
A) It opposes the flow of direct current
B) It increases as the frequency of the AC signal increases
C) It is only present in DC circuits
D) It decreases as the frequency of the AC signal decreases
15. In a parallel circuit, what happens to the current if the voltage is increased while resistance stays
the same?
A) The current increases
B) The current decreases
C) The current stays the same
D) The total resistance decreases
16. Which of the following is an example of a passive component in a circuit?
A) Diode
B) Transistor
C) Capacitor
D) Integrated circuit
17. Which electrical quantity is measured in amperes?
A) Voltage
B) Current
C) Power
D) Resistance
18. In which type of circuit would you typically find a fuse or circuit breaker?
A) Parallel circuit
B) Series circuit
C) Both series and parallel circuits
D) Neither series nor parallel circuits
19. What is the unit of capacitance?
A) Ohm
B) Volt
C) Farad
D) Watt
20. What is the primary purpose of a rectifier in an electronic circuit?
A) To store energy
B) To change AC to DC
C) To amplify a signal
D) To control current flow

G. Auto Information

1. Which component in a vehicle’s cooling system is responsible for circulating coolant through the
engine?
A) Thermostat
B) Water pump
C) Radiator
D) Oil filter
2. What is the purpose of the mass air flow (MAF) sensor in a vehicle's fuel system?
A) To regulate engine temperature
B) To measure the amount of fuel injected into the engine
C) To measure the amount of air entering the engine
D) To monitor the exhaust gas levels
3. Which system uses brake fluid to transmit force and assist in the stopping of a vehicle?
A) Hydraulic braking system
B) Mechanical braking system
C) Pneumatic braking system
D) Electronic braking system
4. What is the main function of the fuel filter in an automotive fuel system?
A) To increase fuel efficiency
B) To filter impurities from the fuel before it enters the engine
C) To regulate the fuel pressure
D) To measure the fuel flow rate
5. Which of the following is responsible for reducing the amount of vibrations transferred from the
engine to the vehicle frame?
A) Exhaust manifold
B) Shock absorbers
C) Engine mounts
D) Timing belt
6. What is the purpose of the timing chain in an engine?
A) To control the exhaust valve timing
B) To synchronize the camshaft and crankshaft rotation
C) To monitor fuel pressure
D) To generate electrical power
7. Which part of the exhaust system helps reduce harmful emissions by converting carbon monoxide
into less harmful gases?
A) Muffler
B) Oxygen sensor
C) Exhaust manifold
D) Catalytic converter
8. Which vehicle system is responsible for providing the driver with feedback on the road surface
conditions and steering efforts?
A) Steering system
B) Suspension system
C) Electrical system
D) Brake system
9. What does a vehicle's transmission primarily control?
A) Engine cooling
B) Gear shifting to manage engine power to the wheels
C) Fuel efficiency
D) Exhaust emission levels
10. Which of the following is the most common cause of engine overheating?
A) Low fuel level
B) Faulty thermostat
C) Low tire pressure
D) Dirty air filter
11. Which of the following describes the purpose of a differential in a vehicle?
A) To control the vehicle's braking force
B) To allow the wheels to rotate at different speeds while turning
C) To maintain constant tire pressure
D) To regulate exhaust gas flow
12. Which automotive system is responsible for providing power to the vehicle's lights, radio, and
other electrical components?
A) Exhaust system
B) Fuel system
C) Electrical system
D) Suspension system
13. Which component is used in a vehicle's suspension system to reduce the impact from road
irregularities?
A) Brake rotor
B) Coil spring
C) Timing chain
D) Alternator
14. What is the purpose of the air filter in a vehicle?
A) To remove dirt and debris from the air entering the engine
B) To monitor engine temperature
C) To regulate fuel consumption
D) To cool the exhaust gases
15. What is the function of a car's radiator?
A) To cool the exhaust gases
B) To circulate oil through the engine
C) To remove heat from the coolant before it is returned to the engine
D) To monitor the fuel level

H. Shop Information
1. Which tool is used to measure the depth of holes?
A) Caliper
B) Depth gauge
C) Micrometer
D) Tape measure
2. Which of the following tools is used to remove rust or paint from metal surfaces?
A) Belt sander
B) Sandblaster
C) Chisel
D) Tapping hammer
3. What type of wrench is most commonly used to tighten or loosen nuts and bolts?
A) Pipe wrench
B) Open-end wrench
C) Torque wrench
D) Crescent wrench
4. Which of the following tools is designed to help with aligning holes for bolts in two
separate pieces of material?
A) Center punch
B) Tapping tool
C) Drill
D) Reamer
5. Which tool would you use to cut metal pipes?
A) Hacksaw
B) Pipe cutter
C) Band saw
D) Jigsaw
6. What is the primary purpose of a ball-peen hammer?
A) Driving nails
B) Shaping metal
C) Tightening bolts
D) Cutting metal
7. Which of the following is a cutting tool used to make very fine and detailed cuts in wood?
A) Jigsaw
B) Table saw
C) Coping saw
D) Circular saw
8. Which of these tools is used to prevent fasteners from loosening over time?
A) Lock washer
B) Torque wrench
C) Thread cutter
D) Screwdriver
9. Which tool is commonly used to measure angles in construction or carpentry?
A) Tape measure
B) Square
C) Vernier caliper
D) Protractor
10. Which of the following tools would be used to secure a workpiece to a bench?
A) Clamp
B) Saw
C) Pliers
D) Chisel

I. Mechanical comprehension
1. What is the function of a brake in a mechanical system?
a) To increase the speed of the system
b) To convert kinetic energy into heat energy
c) To reduce friction between components
d) To store energy for later use
2. Which of the following is an example of a first-class lever?
a) Nutcracker
b) Seesaw
c) Scissors
d) Wheelbarrow
3. What is the energy conversion when a windmill generates electricity?
a) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
b) Chemical energy to mechanical energy
c) Heat energy to mechanical energy
d) Electrical energy to chemical energy
4. What type of energy is associated with a stretched rubber band?
a) Gravitational potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Elastic potential energy
d) Thermal energy
5. What is the primary purpose of a lever?
a) To increase the speed of motion
b) To increase or decrease force
c) To convert energy into heat
d) To change the direction of motion
6. In a simple pulley system, if the number of pulleys increases, what happens to the
mechanical advantage?
a) It decreases
b) It increases
c) It remains the same
d) It becomes zero
7. Which of the following is a source of mechanical energy?
a) Sunlight
b) Wind
c) Food
d) Chemical reactions
8. Which of the following machines converts linear motion into rotary motion?
a) Pulley
b) Gear
c) Camshaft
d) Lever
9. What effect does reducing the friction in a system have on the work done?
a) It increases the work done
b) It decreases the work done
c) It makes no difference to the work done
d) It reduces the efficiency of the system
10. In a simple machine, what is the relationship between the force applied and the force
exerted by the machine?
a) The force applied is greater than the force exerted
b) The force applied is equal to the force exerted
c) The force applied is less than the force exerted
d) The force applied is unrelated to the force exerted
11. Which of the following best describes mechanical work?
a) Force applied over a distance
b) the change in energy
c) Energy transferred due to temperature difference
d) Force applied to an object at rest
12. What is the term for the amount of force required to keep an object moving at a
constant speed in a frictionless environment?
a) Inertia
b) Acceleration
c) Net force
d) Zero force
13. Which of the following is an example of a simple machine?
a) Motor
b) Pulley
c) Gearbox
d) Hydraulic press
14. What is the mechanical advantage of a block and tackle system?
a) Equal to the number of pulleys used
b) The ratio of output force to input force
c) The ratio of input work to output work
d) The amount of force needed to lift a load
15. What happens to the mechanical advantage if you increase the length of an inclined
plane?
a) It decreases
b) It increases
c) It remains the same
d) It becomes infinite
16. What is the formula for calculating power in a mechanical system?
a) Power = Force × Distance
b) Power = Work × Time
c) Power = Force × Velocity
d) Power = Work × Force
17. Which of the following would increase the efficiency of a mechanical system?
a) Increasing friction
b) Reducing the effort applied
c) Decreasing energy loss to heat
d) Increasing the weight of the load
18. What happens to the velocity of an object when the force applied is increased, but the
mass of the object stays the same?
a) The velocity decreases
b) The velocity increases
c) The velocity remains constant
d) The object comes to rest
19. What is the formula to calculate the work done on an object?
a) Work = Force × Time
b) Work = Mass × Velocity
c) Work = Force × Distance
d) Work = Power × Time
20. Which of the following describes a situation where potential energy is converted into
kinetic energy?
a) A ball at the top of a hill rolling down
b) A stretched bowstring releasing an arrow
c) A car accelerating from rest
d) All of the above
21. What is the purpose of a flywheel in mechanical systems?
a) To increase the efficiency of the system
b) To store rotational energy and smooth out fluctuations
c) To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
d) To reduce friction
22. Which of the following best describes a second-class lever?
a) The load is between the effort and the fulcrum
b) The fulcrum is between the load and the effort
c) The effort is between the load and the fulcrum
d) The load and effort are at the ends, and the fulcrum is in the middle
23. Which of the following best describes a pulley system with a mechanical advantage
greater than one?
a) The load force is greater than the effort force
b) The load force is less than the effort force
c) The effort force is equal to the load force
d) The system is in equilibrium
24. What is the primary advantage of using a compound machine?
a) It is simpler than a simple machine
b) It multiplies the force applied
c) It reduces the amount of work required
d) It converts energy into heat
25. Which of the following is an example of a hydraulic system?
a) A car brake system
b) A simple lever
c) A spring-loaded door
d) A wind turbine

J. Assembling Object
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.
6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.
12.

13.

14.

15.

16.
17.

18.

19.

20.

21.
22.

23.

24.

25.

Answers
General Science
1. Answer: c.
Rationale: The ozone layer forms as ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun breaks apart oxygen
molecules (O₂), and the resulting oxygen atoms combine with other oxygen molecules to form ozone
(O₃).
2. Answer: b
Rationale: The rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes, which are responsible for the
synthesis of proteins that are either secreted from the cell or incorporated into cellular membranes.
3. Answer: d
Rationale: A dihybrid cross between two heterozygous (YyRr) plants follows the 9:3:3:1 ratio, where
9/16 of the offspring will show the dominant traits for both seed shape (round) and seed color (yellow).
4. Answer: b
Rationale: According to Le Chatelier’s Principle, increasing the temperature of an exothermic reaction
shifts the equilibrium toward the reactants to absorb the added heat.
5. Answer: b
Rationale: In a second-order reaction, the rate of reaction depends on the concentration of two
reactants. The reaction between nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO) is second-order in
nature.
6. Answer: a
Rationale: Water has a high specific heat capacity, meaning it can absorb and release large amounts of
heat without significantly changing its temperature, which helps moderate Earth’s climate.
7. Answer: b.
Rationale: Tectonic plates are moved by convection currents in the mantle. Hot material rises towards
the surface, while cooler material sinks, driving the movement of the lithospheric plates above.
8. Answer: c
Rationale: Water undergoes phase changes (solid, liquid, gas) primarily due to changes in temperature,
which alter the energy of the water molecules, allowing them to transition between different states.
9. Answer: b.
Rationale: Retrograde motion occurs when Earth, which moves faster in its orbit, overtakes and passes a
slower-moving planet like Mars, causing the planet to appear to move backward temporarily in the sky.
10. Answer: b
Rationale: The law of conservation of mass states that mass cannot be created or destroyed in a
chemical reaction. The total mass remains constant in any closed system.
11. Answer: c.
Rationale: The small intestine is where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs, with
villi and microvilli increasing the surface area for absorption.
12. Answer: a.
Rationale: Protons and neutrons have similar masses, but protons have a positive charge and neutrons
are electrically neutral. Electrons have a much smaller mass and are found outside the nucleus.
13. Answer: b.
Rationale: Boyle’s Law states that, at a constant temperature, the volume of a gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
14. Answer: a
Rationale: Ultraviolet (UV) rays have shorter wavelengths than visible light but longer wavelengths than
X-rays in the electromagnetic spectrum.
15. Answer: a
Rationale: Fluorine has the highest electronegativity, meaning it has a strong tendency to attract
electrons in a chemical bond.
16. Answer: b
Rationale: Deserts are characterized by low rainfall, wide temperature fluctuations between day and
night, and minimal vegetation.
17. Answer: a.
Rationale: Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, translating messenger RNA (mRNA) into
amino acid sequences to form proteins.
18. Answer: b.
Rationale: As you move across a period, more protons are added to the nucleus, increasing the effective
nuclear charge, which pulls the electrons closer, causing the atomic radius to decrease.
19. Answer: b.
Rationale: Decomposers, like fungi and bacteria, break down dead organisms and waste products,
recycling nutrients back into the ecosystem.
20. Answer: b.
Rationale: Fats provide the highest energy content per gram (9 calories per gram) compared to
carbohydrates and proteins.
21. Answer: b.
Rationale: Electromagnetic waves can travel through a vacuum, unlike mechanical waves that require a
medium.
22. Answer: b.
Rationale: Heat from the Earth’s core causes convection currents in the mantle, which in turn drive the
movement of tectonic plates.
23. Answer: c.
Rationale: The Sun emits primarily ultraviolet radiation, along with visible light and infrared radiation.
24. Answer: a.
Rationale: Carbon dioxide is one of the main greenhouse gases responsible for trapping heat in the
atmosphere and contributing to global warming.
25. Answer: b
Rationale: Venus has the longest day of any planet in the solar system, taking about 243 Earth days to
complete one full rotation on its axis.
Arithmetic reasoning
1. Answer: B
Rationale: Multiply the price of each shirt and pair of jeans by the quantity, then add.
3 × $15 + 2 × $25 = $45 + $50 = $95
2. Answer: A
Rationale: Multiply the weight of one chocolate by the number of chocolates.
12 × 30 = 360 grams.
3. Answer: B
Rationale: Divide the tank capacity by the fuel consumption rate, then multiply by 100.
50 ÷ 5 × 100 = 1,000 kilometers.
4. Answer: B
Rationale: Set up a proportion:
(3/5) = (x/15), solve for x.
x = 3 × 15 ÷ 5 = 9 cups.
5. Answer: B
Rationale: Use the perimeter formula for a rectangle:
Perimeter = 2(length + width).
2 × (8 + 3) = 2 × 11 = 22 meters.
6. Answer: A
Rationale: Time = Distance ÷ Speed.
360 ÷ 45 = 8 hours.
7. Answer: B
Rationale: 20% of $120 is $24.
$120 − $24 = $96.
8. Answer: B
Rationale: The cost is 6 × $3 = $18, and the sale price is 6 × $5 = $30.
Profit = $30 − $18 = $12.
9. Answer: A
Rationale: 15% of $50 is $7.50.
$50 + $7.50 = $57.50.
10. Answer: A
Rationale: Find the price per pencil: $1.50 ÷ 3 = $0.50.
10 × $0.50 = $5.00.
11. Answer: B
Rationale: Add 3 to both sides:
4x = 17 + 3 → 4x = 20.
Divide by 4:
x = 20 ÷ 4 → x = 5.
12. Answer: B
Rationale: Subtract 8 from both sides:
x = 21 − 8 → x = 13.
13. Answer: B
Rationale: Subtract 7 from both sides:
3x = 22 − 7 → 3x = 15.
Divide by 3:
x = 15 ÷ 3 → x = 5.
14. Answer: C
Rationale: Add 4 to both sides:
x = 9 + 4 → x = 13.
15. Answer: B
Rationale: Add 5 to both sides:
x = 12 + 5 → x = 17.
16. Answer: C
Rationale: Subtract 9 from both sides:
6x = 51 − 9 → 6x = 42.
Divide by 6:
x = 42 ÷ 6 → x = 7.
17. Answer: C
Rationale: Subtract 3 from both sides:
x = 18 − 3 → x = 15.
18. Answer: B
Rationale: Divide both sides by 5:
x = 35 ÷ 5 → x = 7.
19. Answer: B
Rationale: Subtract 3 from both sides:
x = 10 − 3 → x = 7.
20. Answer: C
Rationale: Divide both sides by 5:
x = 40 ÷ 5 → x = 8.
21. Answer: B
Rationale: Use the area formula for a rectangle:
Area = length × width.
15 × 6 = 90 cm².
22. Answer: A
Rationale: The radius is half the diameter.
Radius = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 meters.
23. Answer: A
Rationale: Use the area formula for a triangle:
1
Area = × base × height.
2
1
× 12 × 8 = 48 cm².
2
24. Answer: B
Rationale: Divide the perimeter by 4:
Side = 36 ÷ 4 = 9 cm.
25. Answer: C
Rationale: The area of a square is side².
√64 = 8 cm.
26. Answer: C
Rationale: Use the volume formula for a cube:
Volume = side³.
4³ = 64 cm³.
27. Answer: B
Rationale: Use the area formula for a circle:
Area = π × radius².
3.14 × 7² = 3.14 × 49 = 153.9 cm².
28. Answer: B
Rationale: Use the perimeter formula for a rectangle:
Perimeter = 2(length + width).
2 × (10 + 5) = 2 × 15 = 30 cm.
29. Answer: B
Rationale: Use the area formula for a circle:
Area = π × radius².
3.14 × 3² = 3.14 × 9 = 28.26 cm².
30. Answer: A
Rationale: Use the volume formula for a rectangular prism:
Volume = length × width × height.
3 × 4 × 5 = 60 cm³.
Mathematic knowledge
1. Answer: B
Rationale: 33 = 3 x 3 x 3 = 27.
2. Answer: A
Rationale: 40% of 150 is 0.40×150=60.
3. Answer: B
Rationale: First, subtract 3 from 6, then multiply by 10: 10×3=30.
4. Answer: B
49
Rationale: = 7.
7
5. Answer: A
24 2
Rationale: Simplifying by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 12 gives .
36 3
6. Answer: A
Rationale: Add 2 to both sides: 5x=20. Then divide by 5: x=4
7. Answer: B
Rationale: Divide both sides by 4: x−2=4, then add 2 to both sides: x=8.
8. Answer: B
Rationale:
X² + 2x − 15
(x - 3)(x + 5) = x(x + 5) - 3(x + 5) = x² + 5x - 3x - 15 = x² + 2x - 15
9. Answer: A
Rationale:
3(x + 7) = 30
x + 7 = 10
x=3
10. Answer: A
Rationale: Subtract 2x from both sides: 3=x−4, then add 4 to both sides:
2x + 3 = 3x - 4
3 + 4 = 3x - 2x
7=x
11. Answer: A
Rationale: The area is A=π× (52) = 25π cm².
12. Answer: C
Rationale: The surface area of a cube is 6× side 2, so 6×42 =6×16=96cm².
13. Answer: A
Rationale: The volume of a cylinder is πr2h, so π×32 ×10=90cm³.
14. Answer: A
1 1
Rationale: The area of a trapezoid is ×(base1 +base2 )×height= ×(8+12)×6
2 2
(1/2) × 20 × 6 = 10 × 6 = 60 cm²
15. Answer: A
Rationale: All angles in a square are 90°.
16. Answer: B
2 1
Rationale: The numbers greater than 4 are 5 and 6, so the probability is =
6 3
17. Answer: A
Rationale: Possible outcomes: HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT (8 total). Exactly two heads:
HHT, HTH, THH (3 outcomes). Probability = 3/8.
18. Answer: C
Rationale: The number 5 appears most frequently (three times).
19. Answer: B
6 3
Rationale: The probability is =
20 10
20. Answer: B
Rationale: The median is the middle value in the ordered set, which is 7.
21. Answer: A
Rationale: The sum of the probabilities of all possible outcomes must always equal 1.
22. Answer: A
1
Rationale: There are 4 options, and only one correct answer, so the probability is .
4
23. Answer: A
Rationale: The sum of the numbers is the mean times the number of values, 20×5=10020 \times 5 =
100.
24. Answer: A
13 1
Rationale: There are 13 hearts in a deck of 52 cards, so the probability is =
52 4
25. Answer: A
Rationale: The range is the difference between the largest and smallest numbers. If the range is 10 and
the smallest number is 5, the largest number is 5+10=15.
Word knowledge
1. Answer: a
Rationale: "Procrastinate" means to delay taking action or completing tasks.
2. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Melodious" means having a pleasant sound.
3. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Diligent" means showing steady and persistent effort.
4. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Ample" means enough or more than enough.
5.Answer: c
Rationale: "Conclusive" means providing a final answer, leaving no doubt.
6. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Plausible" means seeming reasonable or probable.
7. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Gradual" means happening slowly or in small stages.
8. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Lucid" means expressed clearly and easy to understand.
9. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Tedious" means something that is long, boring, and repetitive.
10. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Unwavering" means not changing or faltering.
11. Answer: c.
Rationale: "Engaging" means attracting attention and keeping interest.
12. Answer: c.
Rationale: "Abundant" means more than enough; plentiful.
13. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Superficial" means concerned with or understanding only the surface, not deep.
14. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Volatile" means liable to change rapidly and unpredictably.
15. Answer: c.
Rationale: "Voracious" means having a strong desire or appetite for something.
16. Answer: c.
Rationale: "Tangible" means perceptible by touch or having a physical presence.
17. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Exquisite" means very beautiful or delicate.
18. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Tentative" means uncertain or not finalized.
19. Answer: a.
Rationale: "Reluctant" means unwilling or hesitant to do something.
20. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Thorough" means exhaustive and covering every detail.
21. Answer: C
Rationale: "Subtle" means delicately complex and not obvious.
22. Answer: b
Rationale: "Enigmatic" means difficult to understand or mysterious.
23. Answer: a.
Rationale: "Ambivalent" means having mixed or conflicting feelings.
24. Answer: c.
Rationale: "Invaluable" means extremely valuable or useful.
25. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Concise" means giving much information in few words.
26. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Ambiguous" means unclear or having multiple possible interpretations.
27. Answer: c.
Rationale: "Irrevocable" means unable to be undone or changed.
28. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Coherent" means logical, consistent, and clear.
29. Answer: b.
Rationale: "Elaborate" means involving many careful details.
30. Answer: b. Fruitless
Rationale: "Futile" means pointless or unable to achieve a result.
31. Answer: b. Honest
Rationale: "Candid" means honest and straightforward.
32. Answer: c. Thorough
Rationale: "Methodical" means done according to a systematic plan.
33. Answer: b. Outdated
Rationale: "Obsolete" means no longer in use due to being outdated.
34. Answer: b
Rationale: "Sporadic" means occurring irregularly or infrequently.
35. Answer: b
Rationale: "Frivolous" means lacking seriousness or value.
Paragraph compression
1. Answer: B
2. Answer: C
3. Answer: B
4. Answer: B
5. Answer: B
6. Answer: B
7. Answer: C
8. Answer: B
9. Answer: C
10. Answer: C
11. Answer: B
12. Answer: B)
13. Answer: B
14. Answer: C
15. Answer: C
Electronic information
1. Answer: A
Rationale: An electric field represents the force exerted by a charge on other charges in the surrounding
area.
2. Answer: B
Rationale: In a parallel circuit, adding more components lowers the total resistance, which causes the
total current to increase.
3. Answer: C
Rationale: Rubber is a good insulator, meaning it does not allow electricity to flow through it easily.
4. Answer: A
Rationale: An electric generator converts mechanical energy (such as from a spinning turbine) into
electrical energy using electromagnetic induction.
5. Answer: C
2
V
Rationale: According to the power formula P= , increasing voltage while keeping resistance constant
R
increases power output.
6. Answer: A
Rationale: Impedance is the total opposition to current flow in an AC circuit, which includes both
resistance and reactance.
7. Answer: C
Rationale: Voltage is the difference in electric potential energy per unit charge between two points in a
circuit, driving current through the circuit.
8. Answer: C
Rationale: A transistor is an active component that can amplify signals or act as a switch in a circuit.
9. Answer: B
Rationale: For most conductors, increasing temperature causes the atoms to vibrate more, impeding
the flow of electrons and thus increasing resistance.
10. Answer: B
Rationale: A capacitor stores electrical energy in the form of an electric field, which can then be
released back into the circuit.
11. Answer: B
Rationale: A switch controls the flow of current by either opening or closing the circuit.
12. Answer: A
Rationale: Adding a resistor in series with a circuit increases the total resistance, which decreases the
overall current.
13. Answer: A
Rationale: A transformer is used to change the voltage level in an alternating current (AC) circuit, either
increasing or decreasing the voltage.
14. Answer: B
Rationale: Inductive reactance increases with frequency because an inductor resists changes in current.
15. Answer: A
Rationale: According to Ohm’s Law, increasing voltage while keeping resistance constant increases the
current.
16. Answer: C
Rationale: A capacitor is a passive component that stores energy in an electric field but does not actively
amplify or control signals.
17. Answer: B
Rationale: Electric current is measured in amperes (A), which represent the flow of charge through a
conductor.
18. Answer: C
Rationale: Fuses and circuit breakers are used in both types of circuits to prevent damage from
overloads by interrupting the current flow.
19. Answer: C
Rationale: Capacitance is measured in farads (F), which represent the ability of a capacitor to store
charge per volt.
20. Answer: B
Rationale: A rectifier converts alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC) by allowing current to
flow in only one direction.
Auto Information
1. Answer: B
Rationale: The water pump circulates coolant through the engine, radiator, and other parts of the
cooling system to prevent the engine from overheating.
2. Answer: C
Rationale: The MAF sensor measures the volume of air entering the engine, allowing the engine control
unit (ECU) to adjust the fuel-air mixture for optimal combustion.
3. Answer: A
Rationale: The hydraulic braking system uses brake fluid to transmit force from the brake pedal to the
brake components, applying pressure to slow down or stop the vehicle.
4. Answer: B
Rationale: The fuel filter removes dirt, rust, and other contaminants from the fuel before it reaches the
engine to prevent damage to the fuel injectors and engine components.
5. Answer: C
Rationale: Engine mounts secure the engine to the vehicle's frame while absorbing vibrations and
minimizing engine movement to improve ride comfort and prevent damage.
6. Answer: B
Rationale: The timing chain ensures that the camshaft and crankshaft rotate in sync, allowing the
engine's valves to open and close at the right time for efficient combustion.
7. Answer: D
Rationale: The catalytic converter reduces harmful gases, including carbon monoxide, by converting
them into less harmful substances like carbon dioxide and water vapor.
8. Answer: B
Rationale: The suspension system absorbs shocks and vibrations, ensuring that the driver receives
feedback from the road surface while maintaining vehicle stability and comfort.
9. Answer: B
Rationale: The transmission adjusts the engine’s power output to the wheels by shifting gears, ensuring
proper speed and torque for various driving conditions.
10. Answer: B
Rationale: A faulty thermostat can prevent the proper flow of coolant, causing the engine to overheat
by failing to regulate its temperature.
11. Answer: B
Rationale: The differential allows for the difference in speed between the inner and outer wheels when
the vehicle turns, ensuring smooth cornering without tire wear.
12. Answer: C
Rationale: The electrical system powers various components of the vehicle, including lights, radio, and
dashboard electronics, and includes the alternator and battery.
13. Answer: B
Rationale: Coil springs are used in the suspension system to absorb shocks and impacts from the road,
maintaining ride comfort and vehicle control.
14. Answer: A
Rationale: The air filter ensures that only clean air enters the engine, preventing dust and debris from
damaging the engine components and reducing performance.
15. Answer: C
Rationale: The radiator cools the hot coolant coming from the engine before it is recirculated,
preventing the engine from overheating.
Shop Information
1. Answer: B
Rationale: A depth gauge is specifically designed to measure the depth of holes or cavities. Calipers and
micrometers are more suited for measuring thickness or diameter, and a tape measure is typically used
for larger distances.
2. Answer: B
Rationale: A sandblaster uses high-velocity sand to clean or strip surfaces, including removing rust or
paint. A belt sander can also smooth surfaces, but sandblasting is better for heavy-duty cleaning.
3. Answer: D
Rationale: A crescent wrench (also known as an adjustable spanner) is the most commonly used tool to
tighten or loosen various nuts and bolts because its jaw width can be adjusted.
4. Answer: A
Rationale: A center punch is used to mark the location of holes before drilling, ensuring the holes are
aligned properly. Tapping tools are for threading holes, while reamers smooth out existing holes.
5. Answer: B
Rationale: A pipe cutter is designed specifically for cutting metal pipes. While a hacksaw or band saw
can also cut metal, a pipe cutter is the most accurate and efficient for pipes.
6. Answer: B
Rationale: A ball-peen hammer is commonly used in metalworking to shape, bend, or flatten metal. The
rounded "ball" end is used for shaping, while the flat end is for striking.
7. Answer: C
Rationale: A coping saw is ideal for making fine, intricate cuts in wood. The narrow blade allows for
detailed cuts and curved lines, unlike other saws designed for straight or rough cuts.
8. Answer: A
Rationale: Lock washers are used to prevent fasteners, like nuts and bolts, from loosening due to
vibrations or other forces. A torque wrench ensures proper tension, but it doesn't prevent loosening on
its own.
9. Answer: B
Rationale: A square, particularly a framing square, is commonly used in construction and carpentry to
measure and check right angles. While a protractor also measures angles, a square is more practical in
construction settings.
10. Answer: A
Rationale: A clamp is used to secure a workpiece to a surface like a workbench, ensuring that it remains
steady during work. Pliers and chisels are used for gripping and shaping, respectively, and a saw is used
for cutting.
Mechanical comprehension
1. Answer: b
Rationale: Brakes work by converting the kinetic energy of a moving object into heat energy, thereby
slowing it down.
2. Answer: b
Rationale: A seesaw is an example of a first-class lever, where the fulcrum is located between the effort
and the load.
3. Answer: a
Rationale: A windmill converts the mechanical energy of the wind into electrical energy through a
generator.
4. Answer: c
Rationale: A stretched rubber band stores elastic potential energy, which is released when it returns to
its original shape.
5. Answer: b
Rationale: Levers are used to amplify force or distance, making it easier to lift or move heavy objects.
6. Answer: b
Rationale: Adding more pulleys increases the mechanical advantage, making it easier to lift heavy loads
by reducing the amount of force needed.
7. Answer: b
Rationale: Wind is a source of mechanical energy that can be converted into other forms, like electrical
energy via wind turbines.
8. Answer: c
Rationale: A camshaft is used in engines to convert linear motion into rotary motion as it drives the
opening and closing of valves.
9. Answer: b
Rationale: Reducing friction in a system means less energy is lost as heat, and more energy is available
for useful work.
10. Answer: c
Rationale: A simple machine like a lever or pulley can amplify the force applied, exerting a greater force
than the one applied.
11. Answer: a
Rationale: Mechanical work is defined as the amount of force applied to an object times the distance it
moves in the direction of the force.
12. Answer: d
Rationale: In a frictionless environment, no force is needed to maintain constant velocity, as per
Newton's First Law of Motion (inertia).
13. Answer: b
Rationale: A pulley is a simple machine that can be used to lift heavy objects by changing the direction
of the applied force.
14. Answer: b
Rationale: The mechanical advantage of a block and tackle system is the ratio of the load force to the
effort force, determined by the number of pulleys used.
15. Answer: b
Rationale: Increasing the length of the inclined plane reduces the amount of force needed to move a
load, effectively increasing mechanical advantage.
16. Answer: c
Rationale: Power is the rate at which work is done, and it can be calculated by multiplying force by
velocity.
17. Answer: c
Rationale: Reducing friction and energy loss as heat increases the overall efficiency of a mechanical
system.
18. Answer: b
Rationale: According to Newton's second law, an increase in force leads to an increase in acceleration,
which increases the velocity of an object.
19. Answer: c
Rationale: Work is done when a force moves an object over a distance in the direction of the applied
force.
20. Answer: d
Rationale: In all these cases, potential energy is converted into kinetic energy as the object moves or
changes form.
21. Answer: b
Rationale: A flywheel stores energy as rotational kinetic energy and helps smooth out irregularities in
mechanical systems.
22. Answer: a
Rationale: A second-class lever has the load between the effort and the fulcrum (e.g., a wheelbarrow).
23. Answer: a
Rationale: A pulley system with a mechanical advantage greater than one allows a smaller effort force
to lift a larger load force.
24. Answer: b
Rationale: A compound machine combines several simple machines to provide greater mechanical
advantage.
25. Answer: a
Rationale: Car brakes use hydraulic pressure to amplify the force applied to the brake pads and stop the
vehicle.

Assembling Object
1. Answer: B
Rationale:
The original figure has four objects, while choices A and C have five. Look for the object shaped like a
large comma. Choice D does not have this object. Choice B is the correct answer.
2. Answer : A
Rationale: The original figure has three objects, while choice C has four and choice D has only two. Look
for the long thin rectangle. It is not present in choice B (there is a longer parallelogram there). Choice A
is the correct answer.
3. Answer : A
Rationale: The original figure has five objects, while choices B and D have six. Look for the small square.
There is no square in choice C. Choice A is the correct answer.
4. Answer: C
Rationale: The original figure has four objects, while choice A has five. Look for the largest piece. Choice
B has a mirror image of this piece, so eliminate B. Look for the piece that looks like a right triangle with
the right angle rounded off. Choice D has an actual right triangle instead. Choice C is the correct answer.
5. Answer:
Rationale: C
The original figure has three objects, while choice A has only two. Look for the pair of identical triangles.
Choice B has only one triangle. Choice D has a rectangle rather than a parallelogram. Choice C is the
correct answer.
6. Answer: B
Rationale: The original figure has five objects, while choice A has six. Look for the wedge shape at the
top middle of the original box. Choices C and D have wedges that are much too large. Choice B is the
correct answer.
7. Answer: B
Rationale: The original figure has three objects, while choice C has only two. Look for the moon shape.
Choice A does not have it. Look for the triangle. Choice D does not have it. Choice B is the correct
answer.
8. Answer: A
Rationale: The original figure has four objects, while choice B has five. Look for the object shaped like a
segment of a circle. Choice C does not have it. Look at the large shape on the left in the original. It is too
small in choice D. Choice A is the correct answer.
9. Answer: C
Rationale: The original figure has three objects, and choice D has four, so eliminate D. Look for the
distinctive object at the left. Choice A does not have it. Look for the circle. Choice B has an oval instead.
Choice C is the correct answer.
10. Answer: D
Rationale: The original figure contains four objects. Choice B has five, so eliminate it. Look for the
distinctive shape on the left of the original figure. Choices A and C do not have that shape. Choice D is
the correct answer.
11. Answer: C
Rationale: The original figure has three objects, while choice A has four and choice D has two. Choice B
has a square that is much larger than the original. Choice C is the correct answer.
12. Answer: A
Rationale: The original figure has four objects, while choice B has only three. Look for the most
distinctive object: the top left object looks like a parallelogram but with a curved right side. Choice D has
a similar object, but it does not have this curved side. That leaves choices A and C. Look for the triangle.
The one in choice C may be too large, but if you can’t tell, look at the two quadrilaterals. In choice C,
they are not the same shapes. Choice A is the correct answer.
13. Answer: D
Rationale: The original figure contains three objects. Choice A has two and choice C has four, so
eliminate them. Look for the parallelogram. Choice B does not have a parallelogram. Choice D is the
correct answer.
14. Answer: A
Rationale:
The original figure has three objects, while choice D has four. None of the objects are really distinctive,
but choose one to look for first. The isosceles triangle at the top left might be a good choice. Choice B
does not have it. Look for the pair of quadrilaterals. Choice C has only triangles. Choice A is the correct
answer.
15. Answer: A
Rationale: The original figure has four objects, while choice B has five. Look for the most distinctive
object: the one that looks like the base of a column. Choice C does not have it, and in choice D, it is
much too tall. Choice A is the correct answer.
16. Answer: D
Rationale: The original figure has three objects, and choice B only has two, so eliminate B. Look for the
most distinctive object—perhaps the one that looks like a banana. Choices A and C do not have that
object. Choice D is the correct answer.
17. Answer: B
Rationale:
The original figure has four objects, and choice D has three, so eliminate D. Look for the most distinctive
object—perhaps the one at the lower left that looks like a pointed boot. Choice C does not have an
object like that. There is a vaguely similar object in choice A, but it is not the same pointed-boot shape.
Choice B is the correct answer.
18. Answer: D
Rationale: Point A is in the center of the bottom left base of the first object in its original orientation.
Choices A, B, and C do not connect the first object at that point. Choice D is the correct answer
19. Answer: C
Rationale: Point A is at the top right corner in the original orientation. In choice A, this point is at the
bottom right corner. Point B is at the bottom left corner in the original orientation. In choice B, it is at
the pointed corner. In choice D, it is not at a corner at all. Choice C is the correct answer.
20. Answer: D
Rationale: In this set of objects, the larger object with point B is more distinctive, so start with that one.
The object looks like the head of a duck (upside down) with point B as the eye. Choices A and C do not
have point B at this spot. Choice B has point B in the correct spot, but the object is a mirror image of the
original, so eliminate it. Choice D is the correct answer.
21. Answer: C
Rationale: The first object looks like a mitten with point A at the thumb. Choices A and B do not have
point A at the correct spot. Point B is at the top left of the second object in its original orientation. In
choice D, point B is at the bottom right of the object. Choice C is the correct answer.
22. Answer: D
Rationale: In this set of objects, the object on the bottom with point B is more distinctive, so start with
that one. Point B is at the sharp tip of this object. Choice A does not connect at that point. The object on
top has point A at the sharpest point as well. Choices B and C do not connect at that point. Choice D is
the correct answer.
23. Answer: B
Rationale: Point A is at the middle of the base of the first object (in its original orientation). Choice D
places point A on the top side of the object. Picture the second object sitting on the flat base. In this
orientation, point B is located in the center of the bottom right corner, not on the edge, but within the
object. Choice A has point B located in the center of the bottom left corner. Choice C has point B located
in the center of the object (plus the object with point A is shown in mirror image). Choice B is the correct
answer.
24. Answer: C
Rationale: M Point A is at the pointed tip of the first object. Choice A does not connect at that point.
Point B is at the pointed outside corner of the second object. Choice B has point B at the inside corner.
Choice D has point B on one leg of the object. Choice C is the correct answer.
25. Answer: D
Rationale: Point A is at the sharpest of the three corners. Choices A and C do not connect at that point.
If you orient the second object with the flat base on the bottom, then point B is at the left bottom
corner. Choice B has point B at the bottom right corner. Choice D is the correct answer.