I.

Marketing Fundamentals (1–15)

​ 1.​ What is the primary goal of marketing?

A. To increase sales only
B. To create value for customers
C. To reduce costs
D. To improve the supply chain
​ 2.​ The 4 Ps of marketing are:
A. Product, Price, Promotion, Place
B. Product, People, Price, Process
C. Price, Product, Promotion, Performance
D. Place, People, Process, Performance
​ 3.​ Market segmentation involves:
A. Dividing a market into distinct groups of consumers with different needs or behaviors
B. Determining the price point for a product
C. Promoting products in multiple channels
D. Creating new products for a target market
​ 4.​ The marketing mix includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Product
B. Price
C. People
D. Place
​ 5.​ A target market is:
A. A broad market that includes all consumers
B. The largest possible audience for a product
C. A specific group of potential customers for a product or service
D. A group of competitors within the industry
​ 6.​ Marketing research is used to:
A. Analyze competitors
B. Understand consumer behavior and preferences
C. Create new products
D. Advertise products to the target market
​ 7.​ The difference between needs and wants is that:
A. Needs are essential, and wants are non-essential
B. Needs are often influenced by culture
C. Wants are universal across all cultures
D. Needs are luxury items, and wants are basic
​ 8.​ Customer value is defined as:
A. The ratio of benefits to costs
B. The quality of a product
C. The size of the market
D. The total sales from a customer
​ 9.​ A SWOT analysis evaluates a company’s:
A. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
B. Sales, Workers, Operations, and Targets
C. Strategy, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
D. Strengths, Workers, Objectives, and Targets
​ 10.​ Which of the following is part of demographic segmentation?
A. Personality traits
B. Lifestyle
C. Age
D. Buying habits
​ 11.​ Psychographic segmentation considers:
A. Income levels
B. Age
C. Personality and values
D. Education level
​ 12.​ A product’s life cycle does NOT include:
A. Introduction
B. Growth
C. Development
D. Decline
​ 13.​ Relationship marketing focuses on:
A. Acquiring new customers
B. Retaining and enhancing relationships with current customers
C. Product innovation
D. Price reductions
​ 14.​ Branding helps:
A. Create product differentiation
B. Increase production costs
C. Decrease competition
D. Increase the number of competitors
​ 15.​ A niche market is:
A. A broad market with generalized products
B. A small, specialized segment of the market
C. The largest segment of the target market
D. A market with little to no competition

II. Consumer Behavior (16–30)

​ 16.​ Consumer behavior is influenced by:

A. Social, psychological, and cultural factors
B. Product size and color
C. The price of competitors’ products
D. Only psychological factors
​ 17.​ Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs includes all EXCEPT:
A. Physiological needs
B. Safety needs
C. Social needs
D. Financial needs
​ 18.​ Which is a psychological factor influencing consumer behavior?
A. Reference groups
B. Motivation
C. Social class
D. Culture
​ 19.​ The decision-making process begins when a consumer:
A. Makes a purchase
B. Recognizes a need
C. Evaluates alternatives
D. Contacts a salesperson
​ 20.​ A reference group influences a consumer’s buying behavior through:
A. Mass media
B. Peer pressure and recommendations
C. Price reduction
D. Social class
​ 21.​ In the buying decision process, the “evaluation of alternatives” step involves:
A. Determining the best price
B. Identifying various product options and comparing them
C. Making the final purchase
D. Engaging in post-purchase evaluation
​ 22.​ The “buying power” of consumers is often determined by:
A. Income and wealth
B. Age and gender
C. Education level
D. Cultural background
​ 23.​ Cognitive dissonance occurs when a consumer:
A. Is not satisfied with their purchase
B. Experiences stress before making a purchase
C. Considers a product as a need rather than a want
D. Recognizes that they may have made a poor decision after the purchase
​ 24.​ A “brand personality” is:
A. The emotional connection that a brand has with customers
B. The physical characteristics of a product
C. The visual representation of a product
D. The personality of the brand’s CEO
​ 25.​ Which of the following is NOT a social factor influencing consumer behavior?
A. Reference groups
B. Family
C. Education
D. Income
​ 26.​ Perception in consumer behavior refers to:
A. The ability to evaluate a product
B. How consumers view and interpret marketing messages
C. The frequency of purchase
D. The decision to buy a product
​ 27.​ A consumer’s attitude is:
A. Fixed and unchangeable
B. An opinion formed based on prior experience or feelings
C. Only influenced by advertising
D. Not affected by emotions
​ 28.​ Consumer involvement is highest during:
A. Routine purchases
B. Impulse purchases
C. Complex decision-making
D. Brand loyalty
​ 29.​ “Loyalty programs” aim to:
A. Attract new customers
B. Encourage repeat purchases
C. Decrease product prices
D. Distribute coupons
​ 30.​ A “need” is:
A. A product that satisfies a basic requirement
B. A product that fulfills a luxury desire
C. Something that can be substituted with any product
D. A limited version of a product

III. Marketing Strategy and Management (31–45)

​ 31.​ The marketing strategy process begins with:

A. Setting marketing goals
B. Analyzing the external environment
C. Defining the target market
D. Developing product designs
​ 32.​ The first step in market research is to:
A. Collect data
B. Define the research problem
C. Develop a hypothesis
D. Analyze data
​ 33.​ A SWOT analysis helps identify:
A. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
B. Sales, Workers, Objectives, and Targets
C. Strategy, Weaknesses, Operations, and Threats
D. Systems, Workflows, Outcomes, and Threats
​ 34.​ The Ansoff Matrix is used to analyze:
A. Marketing budgets
B. Product portfolio and growth strategies
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Social media strategies
​ 35.​ A market penetration strategy is:
A. Selling existing products in new markets
B. Introducing new products into existing markets
C. Increasing market share with existing products in existing markets
D. Developing new products for new markets
​ 36.​ The BCG Matrix evaluates products based on:
A. Price and features
B. Market share and market growth rate
C. Brand awareness and customer loyalty
D. Profitability and market size
​ 37.​ A company’s value proposition is:
A. The price point of its product
B. The unique value that it offers to customers
C. Its mission statement
D. The number of products in its portfolio
​ 38.​ The marketing plan should be:
A. Developed annually and not updated
B. A general overview of activities without specific details
C. A dynamic, actionable plan that guides marketing activities
D. Focused only on digital marketing strategies
​ 39.​ A competitive advantage arises from:
A. Better pricing only
B. Differentiation or cost leadership
C. The size of the company
D. A lack of competition
​ 40.​ Positioning in marketing refers to:
A. The company’s production cost
B. The way a product is perceived in the market
C. The price set for the product
D. The location of the business
​ 41.​ The marketing mix is composed of:
A. Price, Product, Place, and Performance
B. Product, Price, Promotion, and Place
C. Process, People, Price, and Promotion
D. People, Product, Place, and Profit
​ 42.​ The “4 Cs” of marketing include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Customer
B. Cost
C. Communication
D. Consumer
​ 43.​ Market targeting involves:
A. Choosing the best product mix
B. Selecting which market segments to serve
C. Setting the product’s price
D. Advertising to the entire market
​ 44.​ A “brand extension” refers to:
A. Creating a new brand in a different category
B. Introducing new products under an existing brand name
C. Redesigning the product packaging
D. Entering new geographic markets
​ 45.​ A differentiation strategy is used to:
A. Offer products at the lowest price
B. Create a unique product that stands out from competitors
C. Reduce marketing costs
D. Focus only on niche markets

IV. Digital Marketing and Social Media (46–60)

​ 46.​ Which of the following is an example of a pull marketing strategy?

A. Direct mail
B. Television advertising
C. Content marketing
D. Cold calling
​ 47.​ Search Engine Optimization (SEO) helps websites by:
A. Increasing sales directly
B. Improving the website’s visibility on search engines
C. Reducing the website’s bounce rate
D. Building a social media presence
​ 48.​ A key benefit of email marketing is:
A. Targeting a broad audience
B. Offering personalized communication
C. Reducing the cost of production
D. Generating organic social media traffic
​ 49.​ Which social media platform is best known for its visual-based content?
A. Twitter
B. LinkedIn
C. Instagram
D. Facebook
​ 50.​ Which of the following is a characteristic of “influencer marketing”?
A. Using television advertisements to reach a broad audience
B. Collaborating with individuals who have a large social media following
C. Broadcasting messages to a non-target audience
D. Relying solely on SEO to drive traffic
​ 51.​ Paid search advertising is also known as:
A. Organic search
B. Google AdWords
C. Influencer marketing
D. Banner ads
​ 52.​ Content marketing aims to:
A. Create awareness about a new product
B. Provide valuable information to engage the target audience
C. Drive immediate sales
D. Increase the number of competitors in the market
​ 53.​ Which of the following is an example of an owned media channel?
A. Television ads
B. Social media mentions by influencers
C. A company’s blog
D. Third-party reviews
​ 54.​ What does PPC stand for in digital marketing?
A. Paid Per Click
B. Public Paid Content
C. Personal Page Content
D. Pay Per Click
​ 55.​ A major advantage of social media marketing is:
A. Instant customer service
B. Direct and personal engagement with customers
C. Expensive ad placements
D. Limited target audience
​ 56.​ The primary purpose of remarketing is:
A. To attract new customers
B. To remind potential customers who previously interacted with your brand
C. To reduce advertising costs
D. To launch new products to the market
​ 57.​ The goal of a viral marketing campaign is to:
A. Create a quick sale
B. Generate word-of-mouth publicity
C. Build long-term customer loyalty
D. Develop brand ambassadors
​ 58.​ Which of the following is NOT a type of social media advertisement?
A. Display ads
B. Paid search results
C. Sponsored posts
D. Organic content
​ 59.​ Which platform is considered the best for B2B marketing?
A. Instagram
B. Twitter
C. LinkedIn
D. Snapchat
​ 60.​ Which of the following metrics is used to measure engagement in digital
marketing?
A. Click-through rate (CTR)
B. Conversion rate
C. Bounce rate
D. All of the above

V. Pricing Strategies (61–75)

​ 61.​ A “penetration pricing” strategy involves:

A. Setting a high price to create the perception of premium quality
B. Setting a low price to gain market share quickly
C. Offering seasonal discounts
D. Increasing the price as the product gains popularity
​ 62.​ Price skimming is most effective when:
A. The product is in a mature market
B. The product is a commodity
C. The product is new and unique
D. The competition is high
​ 63.​ A “cost-plus pricing” strategy involves:
A. Setting the price based on competitors’ prices
B. Adding a fixed markup to the cost of production
C. Setting the price according to demand
D. Offering discounts to increase sales
​ 64.​ A pricing strategy that is designed to discourage competitors from entering
the market is:
A. Penetration pricing
B. Predatory pricing
C. Price skimming
D. Psychological pricing
​ 65.​ “Value-based pricing” is determined by:
A. The cost of production
B. The perceived value to the customer
C. Competitors’ prices
D. Price sensitivity analysis
​ 66.​ Dynamic pricing refers to:
A. Setting the same price for all customers
B. Changing prices based on real-time demand
C. Offering bulk discounts
D. Using pricing strategies in international markets
​ 67.​ A psychological pricing strategy often includes:
A. Pricing a product at $9.99 instead of $10.00
B. Charging premium prices for all products
C. Offering a “buy one, get one free” deal
D. Pricing a product higher than competitors’
​ 68.​ When a company uses “price bundling,” it:
A. Sets a high price to increase the perceived value
B. Sells several products together at a reduced price
C. Offers discounts based on demand
D. Discounts one product heavily while keeping others full price
​ 69.​ The “penetration pricing” strategy is most likely to be used by:
A. Luxury brands
B. New businesses entering a competitive market
C. Niche markets
D. Established businesses with a loyal customer base
​ 70.​ In price discrimination, a company charges different prices based on:
A. The cost of production
B. The customer’s income
C. Consumer behavior and market segment
D. Competitors’ pricing
​ 71.​ The term “elasticity of demand” refers to:
A. The responsiveness of quantity demanded to price changes
B. The availability of substitutes
C. The product’s cost of production
D. How well a product can be differentiated from competitors
​ 72.​ A “penetration pricing” strategy is most effective for:
A. New products that aim to attract customers quickly
B. Products with high differentiation
C. Products sold in luxury markets
D. Products that are in the decline stage of the product life cycle
​ 73.​ “Freemium pricing” refers to:
A. Offering a premium product at a reduced price
B. Providing a basic service for free, while charging for additional features
C. Charging for bundled services at a discounted rate
D. Pricing based on competitor prices
​ 74.​ When a company uses “price leadership,” it:
A. Sets the industry standard price
B. Allows competitors to dictate prices
C. Prices its products at a premium
D. Sets the lowest price in the market
​ 75.​ The term “penetration pricing” refers to:
A. Setting a high price to create a premium perception
B. Selling a product at a low price to attract customers and increase market share
C. Pricing products based on cost of production
D. Offering frequent discounts and promotions

VI. Marketing Communications (76–90)

​ 76.​ The primary goal of advertising is to:

A. Educate consumers
B. Persuade customers to purchase a product
C. Create a social media following
D. Generate content for blogs
​ 77.​ A “call to action” in an advertisement encourages:
A. Awareness
B. Customer loyalty
C. Immediate action from the consumer
D. Brand recognition
​ 78.​ The AIDA model stands for:
A. Attention, Interest, Desire, Action
B. Advertising, Interest, Demand, Analysis
C. Awareness, Interest, Desire, Analysis
D. Action, Interest, Desire, Advertising
​ 79.​ The “push” strategy in promotion is focused on:
A. Encouraging consumers to find and buy products
B. Pushing products to retailers or wholesalers
C. Advertising through online channels
D. Using social media to promote products
​ 80.​ Public Relations (PR) primarily aims to:
A. Advertise products
B. Build and maintain a positive brand image
C. Increase sales
D. Develop new marketing campaigns
​ 81.​ The main difference between B2B and B2C marketing is:
A. B2B is focused on individual consumers, while B2C is for businesses
B. B2B marketing requires fewer channels
C. B2C marketing emphasizes emotional appeal, while B2B focuses on rational
decision-making
D. B2B relies more on digital marketing
​ 82.​ Sponsorship marketing involves:
A. Using celebrity endorsements to promote a product
B. Sponsoring events or organizations in exchange for brand exposure
C. Offering free products to influencers
D. Creating viral marketing campaigns
​ 83.​ Which of the following is NOT a type of advertising media?
A. Television
B. Email
C. Print
D. Social media
​ 84.​ The most common goal of sales promotions is to:
A. Build long-term customer relationships
B. Increase short-term sales and stimulate demand
C. Improve customer service
D. Develop brand awareness
​ 85.​ A “cooperative advertising” strategy involves:
A. Sharing advertising costs between manufacturers and retailers
B. Posting ads on social media accounts
C. Paying for television commercials
D. Offering customers coupons for products
​ 86.​ A unique selling proposition (USP) highlights:
A. The unique aspects of a product that differentiate it from competitors
B. The market size
C. The advertising budget
D. The target audience
​ 87.​ The “Sales Funnel” describes:
A. The purchasing process from awareness to purchase
B. The process of attracting employees
C. The stages of market segmentation
D. A pricing strategy
​ 88.​ In marketing communication, “encoding” refers to:
A. The creation of the message
B. The delivery method of the message
C. The medium used to communicate the message
D. The process of receiving and interpreting the message
​ 89.​ What is the most significant advantage of using direct marketing?
A. Broader audience reach
B. Direct and personalized communication with the customer
C. Low costs compared to traditional advertising
D. Brand recognition
​ 90.​ Which of the following is an example of “word-of-mouth” marketing?
A. Social media ads
B. Customer reviews and recommendations
C. TV commercials
D. Search engine ads

VII. Market Research (91–105)

​ 91.​ Which of the following is a primary research method?

A. Online surveys
B. Reviewing industry reports
C. Analyzing social media trends
D. Reviewing past sales data
​ 92.​ The primary purpose of market segmentation is to:
A. Identify the total market size
B. Create targeted marketing strategies
C. Increase brand awareness
D. Reduce the cost of advertising
​ 93.​ Which of the following is an example of quantitative research?
A. Focus groups
B. Observational studies
C. Online surveys with rating scales
D. In-depth interviews
​ 94.​ A major advantage of secondary research is:
A. It is usually less expensive than primary research
B. It provides the most accurate results
C. It directly measures customer behavior
D. It involves direct interaction with the target market
​ 95.​ What is the first step in the market research process?
A. Analyzing the data
B. Defining the research problem
C. Developing the survey questions
D. Implementing the research plan
​ 96.​ When conducting a survey, which type of question would provide the best
data for statistical analysis?
A. Open-ended questions
B. Likert scale questions
C. Rhetorical questions
D. Demographic questions
​ 97.​ In market research, “sampling” refers to:
A. Collecting data from every member of the population
B. Selecting a subset of individuals to represent the target population
C. Analyzing the purchasing history of customers
D. Conducting interviews with the industry experts
​ 98.​ What does “confidence level” in statistical analysis refer to?
A. The probability that the sample data will reflect the population’s data
B. The number of samples used in the study
C. The accuracy of the answers provided by respondents
D. The validity of the research methodology
​ 99.​ “Market forecasting” involves:
A. Estimating future trends and demand based on current data
B. Analyzing competitor’s performance
C. Determining the best price for a product
D. Tracking the effectiveness of marketing strategies
​ 100.​ A “focus group” is an example of:
A. Quantitative research
B. Secondary research
C. Qualitative research
D. Data mining
​ 101.​ Which of the following is a disadvantage of using focus groups for market
research?
A. They provide deep insights into customer behavior
B. The results may not be representative of the larger population
C. They are generally more cost-effective than surveys
D. They allow for quick responses from participants
​ 102.​ What is “data triangulation”?
A. Using different research methods to increase the credibility of the findings
B. The process of collecting data from three sources simultaneously
C. Validating research findings with competitor data
D. Comparing data from different regions for global market trends
​ 103.​ The key difference between a “cross-sectional” and “longitudinal” study is:
A. The number of subjects studied
B. The length of time the study is conducted
C. The level of statistical analysis used
D. The geographical location of the study
​ 104.​ In market research, “validity” refers to:
A. The reliability of the data
B. The ability to generalize the results to the target population
C. The ease of collecting the data
D. The degree of accuracy in the research process
​ 105.​ The main objective of a “conjoint analysis” is to:
A. Understand consumer preferences for product features
B. Analyze the competitive landscape
C. Calculate the market share of a product
D. Measure customer satisfaction with a product

VIII. Product Management and Development (106–120)

​ 106.​ The product life cycle includes which of the following stages?
A. Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline
B. Development, Expansion, Saturation, Decline
C. Innovation, Growth, Peak, Fall
D. Launch, Adoption, Growth, Retention
​ 107.​ The “Introduction” stage of the product life cycle is characterized by:
A. High competition and price wars
B. High costs and low sales volume
C. Decreasing demand for the product
D. A saturated market
​ 108.​ During the “Growth” stage, a product typically experiences:
A. Declining sales and profit
B. Increased market awareness and growing sales
C. Product improvement and redesign
D. Increased product diversification
​ 109.​ The “Maturity” stage of the product life cycle usually involves:
A. Rapid market expansion
B. Slow growth in sales and potential market saturation
C. Decreased competition
D. A major decline in product sales
​ 110.​ The main challenge during the “Decline” stage is:
A. Maximizing profits before the product is discontinued
B. Growing market share in a competitive market
C. Innovating new features for the product
D. Reaching new target markets
​ 111.​ “Product diversification” refers to:
A. Creating multiple variations of a single product
B. Developing entirely new products to expand the brand portfolio
C. Launching seasonal versions of an existing product
D. Pricing a product based on its features and benefits
​ 112.​ A “product mix” refers to:
A. The variety of products offered by a company
B. The packaging design of a product
C. The pricing strategy used for products
D. The promotional plan for each product
​ 113.​ A “brand extension” occurs when:
A. A company develops a completely new brand
B. A company uses an existing brand name to introduce new products
C. A product is offered for a limited time only
D. A company modifies its existing product to appeal to new customers
​ 114.​ “Co-branding” is the practice of:
A. Merging two brands to create a new company
B. Partnering with another brand to create a product that benefits both
C. Changing the branding strategy of a product
D. Creating a new logo for an existing product
​ 115.​ “Product positioning” is the process of:
A. Determining the price of a product
B. Communicating a product’s unique benefits to the target market
C. Designing the product’s packaging
D. Conducting market research to understand the target audience
​ 116.​ The concept of “value proposition” refers to:
A. The price of a product relative to its competitors
B. The combination of features and benefits that make a product attractive to customers
C. The design and aesthetics of the product
D. The geographical target market of a product
​ 117.​ Which of the following is the most critical factor when developing a new
product?
A. The brand name
B. The product’s price
C. Consumer needs and preferences
D. The distribution channels
​ 118.​ “Test marketing” is an important step in the product development process
because it:
A. Helps assess consumer reactions to the product before a full launch
B. Determines the production cost of the product
C. Sets the final retail price for the product
D. Identifies potential competitors
​ 119.​ “Product cannibalization” occurs when:
A. A new product negatively impacts the sales of an existing product within the same brand
B. The product is discontinued in one market to enter a new one
C. A product is introduced to an entirely new market
D. Multiple products are offered together as a bundle
​ 120.​ A “minimum viable product” (MVP) is:
A. The first version of a product launched with the fewest features to meet customer needs
B. The most expensive version of a product
C. The final version of a product that includes all planned features
D. The product that costs the least to produce

Answer Key

1.​ B
​ 2.​ A
​ 3.​ A
​ 4.​ C
​ 5.​ C
​ 6.​ B
​ 7.​ A
​ 8.​ B
​ 9.​ B
​ 10.​ C
​ 11.​ C
​ 12.​ D
​ 13.​ B
​ 14.​ A
​ 15.​ B
​ 16.​ A
​ 17.​ D
​ 18.​ B
​ 19.​ B
​ 20.​ A
​ 21.​ D
​ 22.​ B
​ 23.​ B
​ 24.​ B
​ 25.​ C
​ 26.​ B
​ 27.​ C
​ 28.​ B
​ 29.​ A
​ 30.​ B
​ 31.​ C
​ 32.​ B
​ 33.​ A
​ 34.​ B
​ 35.​ C
​ 36.​ B
​ 37.​ B
​ 38.​ C
​ 39.​ B
​ 40.​ B
​ 41.​ B
​ 42.​ D
​ 43.​ B
​ 44.​ B
​ 45.​ B
46.​ C
​ 47.​ B
​ 48.​ B
​ 49.​ C
​ 50.​ B
​ 51.​ B
​ 52.​ B
​ 53.​ C
​ 54.​ D
​ 55.​ B
​ 56.​ B
​ 57.​ B
​ 58.​ B
​ 59.​ C
​ 60.​ D
​ 61.​ B
​ 62.​ C
​ 63.​ B
​ 64.​ B
​ 65.​ B
​ 66.​ B
​ 67.​ A
​ 68.​ B
​ 69.​ B
​ 70.​ C
​ 71.​ A
​ 72.​ A
​ 73.​ B
​ 74.​ A
​ 75.​ B
​ 76.​ B
​ 77.​ C
​ 78.​ A
​ 79.​ B
​ 80.​ B
​ 81.​ C
​ 82.​ B
​ 83.​ D
​ 84.​ B
​ 85.​ A
​ 86.​ A
​ 87.​ A
​ 88.​ A
​ 89.​ B
​ 90.​ B

​ 91.​ A
​ 92.​ B
​ 93.​ C
​ 94.​ A
​ 95.​ B
​ 96.​ B
​ 97.​ B
​ 98.​ A
​ 99.​ A
​ 100.​ C
​ 101.​ B
​ 102.​ A
​ 103.​ B
​ 104.​ B
​ 105.​ A
​ 106.​ A
​ 107.​ B
​ 108.​ B
​ 109.​ B
​ 110.​ A
​ 111.​ B
​ 112.​ A
​ 113.​ B
​ 114.​ B
​ 115.​ B
​ 116.​ B
​ 117.​ C
​ 118.​ A
​ 119.​ A
​ 120.​ A