B777 Questions

AIRPLANE GENERAL

1) What lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?

a) All flight deck lights
b) All lights in the airplane
c) Aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and indicator lights

2) Which lights are turned to full bright by the STORM light switch?
a) All panel and flood lights
b) Floor lights, all panel lights, and CDU displays
c) Dome lights, all flood lights, and illuminated indicator lights

3) What happens if you adjust an individual panel light brightness or display brightness control when
the master bright system is on?
a) The master bright system turns off
b) The brightness of ALL panel lights and ALL displays change by a small amount
c) The brightness of the individual panel light or display changes by a small amount

4) What is the required position of individual panel light or display brightness controls for the master
bright system to have full range of control?
a) 12 o’clock
b) 6 o’clock
c) 10 o’clock

5) What position should the UPR DSPL brightness control be selected to for full range of control with
the master bright system?
a) 2 o’clock
b) 6 o’clock
c) 12 o’clock

6) When does the FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign automatically illuminate

a) When the landing gear is up
b) When the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet
c) When the passenger oxygen system is ON

7) When does the NO SMOKING sign automatically illuminate?

a) On the ground
b) With the flaps extended
c) When the passenger oxygen system is ON

8) What is the status of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but
the nose landing gear is NOT down and locked?
a) Illuminated
b) Extinguished
c) Illuminated if both main landing gear are down and locked

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 OPERATING LIMITATION
9) What is the maximum taxi weight?
a) 287,804.
b) 286,897.
c) 208,652.

10) What is the maximum takeoff weight?

a) 287,804.
b) 286,897.
c) 208,652.

11) What is the maximum landing weight?

a) 287,804.
b) 286,897.
c) 208,652.

12) What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

a) 287,804.
b) 286,897.
c) 195,044

13) what is the maximum operating altitude?

a) 43,100 feet
b) 43,000 feet
c) 40,000 feet

14) What is the runway slope limit?

a) ± 1%
b) ± 2%
c) ± 3%

15) What is the maximum take off and landing altitude?

a) 8800 feet
b) 8000 feet
c) 8400 feet

16) What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff or manual landing?
a) 10 kts.
b) 15 kts
c) 25 kts

17) What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff on slippery runway?
a) 38 kts.
b) 15 kts
c) 25 kts

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18) What is the maximum limit for slush or standing water during takeoff?
a) ¼ inch
b) ½ inch
c) ¾ inch

19) The autopilot must not be engaged below a minimum engage altitude of:
a) 200 feet.
b) 100 feet.
c) 250 feet.

20) without LAND2 or LAND3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengage before the aircraft
descends below:
a) 250 feet AGL.
b) 200 feet AGL.
c) 500 feet AGL.

21) What is the maximum glide slope angle?

a) 3.25 degrees.
b) 3.00 degrees.
c) 2.5 degrees.

22) What is the minimum glide slope angle?

a) 3.25 degrees.
b) 3.00 degrees.
c) 2.5 degrees.

23) The automatic landing cannot be made if the EICAS massage:

a) SLATS DRIVE is displayed.
b) SLATS PRIMARY FAIL is displayed.
c) SPOILERS are displayed.
PNEUMATICS

24) Under normal conditions, what is the source of bleed air to start the second engine?
a) Engine
b) APU
c) Ground carts

25) Bleed air is used for:

a) Air conditioning, pressurization, Wing & engine anti-ice.
b) APU & engines starts also powers air driven hydraulic pumps.
c) All of the above

26) What will happen in case of duct overheat or leak?

a) The system is fully automatic, it will look for the leak and isolate and open the affected valves.
b) The system is manually, it will look for the leak and isolate and close the affected valves.
c) The system is fully automatic, it will look for the leak and isolate and close the affected
valves.

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27) Following a pack shut down, how is the pack reset?
a) Automatically resets itself.
b) No action is required on the flight crew’s part.
c) Push the AIR CONDITIONING RESET switch.

28) What pack supplies 100% fresh conditioned air to the flight deck?
a) The right pack.
b) The left pack.
c) Both left and right packs.

29) What is the function of the air cleaner? When does it work?
a) Removes contamination from the air before it enters the pack; it works in “AUTO” when
below 7000 ft.
b) Removes contamination from the air before it enters the pack, it works in “AUTO” when below
5000 ft.
c) Removes contamination from the air after it enters the pack, it works in “AUTO” when below
7000 ft.

30) The gasper fan:

a) Supplies conditioned air to the cockpit.
b) Supplies conditioned air to gasper outlets located above each PAX seat.
c) Removes conditioned air from gasper outlets located above each PAX seat.

31) What are the temperatures ranges for cockpit/cabin in AUTO mode?
a) From 19 to 29º C.
b) From 17 to 29º C.
c) From 18 to 29º C.

32) Why does the cockpit receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the cabin?
a) To prevent smoke from entering the cockpit.
b) To prevent smoke from entering the cabin.
c) To prevent air from entering the cockpit.

33) Which are bleed air sources?

a) APU and ground cart
b) Trim air
c) Demand pump

34) What determines the pack outlet temperature?

a) The average demand of all zones
b) The master cabin temperature control
c) The zone requesting the coldest temperature

35) Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid position’
a) To set the maximum temperature in any zone
b) To allow full temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel
c) To prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight

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36) What happens if both packs are in standby mode, or one pack is inoperative and the other pack is
in standby mode?
a) The packs operate temporary regardless of altitude or outside temperature to maintain cabin
pressurization.
b) The packs operate continuously with altitude restriction to maintain cabin pressurization.
c) The packs operate continuously regardless of altitude or outside temperature to
maintain cabin pressurization.

37) What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?
a) It removes power from the trim air system
b) It causes the packs to provide air at an average mid temperature range
c) It allows the trim air valve to operate manually

38) What happens if the FLT DECK TEMP control is moved to the “C” position?
a) The pack temperature decreases
b) It opens the flight deck trim air valve
c) It closes the trim air valve and lowers the flight deck temperature

39) When is the pack OFF light illuminated amber?

a) During engine start
b) When there is a pack compressor outlet high temperature condition
c) All of the above

40) What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH?
a) The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 7°C
b) The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21°C
c) The aft cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously

41) Which system(s) supply trim air to the flight deck?

a) Right trim air system
b) Left trim air system
c) Both right and left trim air systems

42) How do the lavatory and galley ventilation fans operate?

a) They operate automatically; if the primary fan fails the backup fan will operate
automatically.
b) They operate automatically; both primary fan and backup fan operate at the same time.
c) Manual switch has to be pressed to operate both fans.

43) When does the AFT CARGO heat fail?

a) When the AFT CARGO heating system operate in manual mode.
b) When both lavatory/galley vent fans (primary & backup) fail.
c) Both answers are wrong.

44) How does the trim air system meet zone temperature requirements?
a) It controls pack air temperature
b) It heats conditioned air
c) It cools conditioned air

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45) When does the equipment cooling OVRD activate automatically?
a) Both equipment cooling supply fans fail, Low airflow and System fault.
b) Smoke in the duct and arming FWD cargo fire switch.
c) All of the above

46) When does the EICAS message EQUIP COOLING display?

a) When one of the two supply fans is inoperative
b) In the air when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative
c) On the ground when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative

47) Which statement(s) are correct about the equipment cooling override mode?
a) The mode is selected automatically
b) The EICAS message EQUIP COOLING OVRD is displayed
c) All of the above

48) During climb, what parameter(s) schedule cabin altitude?

a) A constant pressure differential
b) Airplane climb rate and flight plan cruise altitude
c) Takeoff and landing field elevation

49) What is the cabin altitude at maximum certified airplane operating altitude?
a) 9,000 feet
b) 10,000 feet
c) 8,000 feet

50) What is the source of supplemental heat for the aft cargo compartment?
a) Left recirculation fan
b) An electric heater
c) An independent bleed air heating system

51) What is bleed air used for?

a) Pressurizing the hydraulic reservoirs
b) Aspirating the TAT probe
c) All of the above

52) When does the ground crew call horn sound?

a) Incase of an APU fire
b) Before starting engines
c) When cooling of forward electronic/electrical equipment is inoperative

53) Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is
displayed?
a) AFT and BULK cargo compartments may overheat
b) Equipment and displays could fail
c) Recirculation fans may not cool equipment adequately

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54) What actions should you take if EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?
a) Monitor equipment temperature on EICAS
b) Turn off FWD and AFT recycling fans
c) Plan descent for minimum time at low altitude

55) What does the PACK MODE R EICAS message indicate?

a) The right pack is inoperative
b) The right pack is operating in the standby cooling mode
c) The standby cooling mode is inoperative

56) What does a visible orange lip indicate on a pressure relief valve?
a) The valve is in its normally closed position
b) The valve opened during the previous flight because of cabin overpressure
c) The status of the valve can not be determined by a visual inspection

57) What action is required if a visible orange lip on a pressure relief valve is displayed?
a) Advise maintenance of the open valve
b) Position the landing altitude switch to AUTO
c) Set cabin altitude to less than 8000 feet

58) What is the function of the negative pressure relief vents?

a) They prevent negative pressure differentials
b) They minimize cabin overpressure conditions
c) They improve smoke removal ventilation

59) What is the normal position of the forward outflow valve after landing?
a) Full open
b) Full closed
c) 30° open

60) What is the normal position of the aft outflow valve after landing?
a) Full closed
b) 30° open
c) Full open

61) During preflight, what position should be the APU BLEED AIR switch?
a) OFF
b) AUTO
c) ON

62) During preflight, what position should the L ENG and R ENG BLEED AIR switches?
a) OFF
b) AUTO
c) ON

63) After engine start, what is the correct position for the L ENG and R ENG BLEED AIR switches?
a) OUT
b) ON
c) AUTO
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64) During normal bleed air operation, what position should the L, C, and R ISLN BLEED AIR
switches be in?
a) L, ISLN AUTO, R ISLN AUTO, C ISLN OFF
b) AUTO
c) ON

65) What is the function of the AIR COND RESET switch?

a) To reset any closed pack, or trim valve, due to overheat or valve failure.
b) To reset a failed recirculation fan and to reset fault protection.
c) All of the above

66) Where is the target temperature for the air conditioning zones displayed?
a) On the lower EICAS display when pressurization is selected to MAN
b) On the AIR synoptic
c) On the HYD synoptic

67) In the standby cooling mode, what will the pack automatically do if the airplane is not in an area of
sufficient cooling?
a) Decrease airflow to half rate
b) Shutoff the pack
c) Fail the pack standby cooling controller

68) What does a PACK MODE R EICAS message indicate?

a) The pack is operating in the standby cooling mode
b) The pack will NOT operate in the standby cooling mode
c) The standby cooling mode has failed

69) What landing altitude is displayed on the EICAS pressurization system indications when the
airplane has traveled more than 400 miles or has passed the halfway point?
a) The departure airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet
b) The destination airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet
c) The alternate airport altitude to the nearest 50 feet

70) What landing altitude is displayed on the EICAS pressurization system indications when the
airplane has traveled less than 400 miles or less than the halfway point?
a) The departure airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet
b) The destination airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet
c) The alternate airport altitude to the nearest 50 feet

71) During preflight, what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG
ALT selector?
a) OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pulled OUT
b) OUTFLOW VALVE switches in OFF and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
c) OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

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72) What action is required during preflight if the LANDING ALTITUDE EICAS message is displayed
with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?
a) Push the LDG ALT selector IN
b) Pull the LDG ALT selector OUT
c) Select the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches to MAN

73) What is the cabin altitude if T.O field is higher than 8000 ft?
a) If T.O field > 8000 ft, the cabin will descend to 8000 ft while the airplane is climbing.
b) If T.O field > 8000 ft, the cabin will climb to 8000 ft while the airplane is climbing.
c) If T.O field > 8000 ft, the cabin will descend to 8000 ft while the airplane is descending.

74) Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger
cabin?
a) The pilots demand it.
b) To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.
c) To defog the forward windows.

75) What system provides the heat for the forward cargo compartment?
a) Aft cargo heat system.
b) Bleed air from the engines.
c) Exhaust from the equipment cooling system.

76) 19-In AUTO mode what is the reference for the cabin pressurization?
a) ADIRU and FMC (provides flight plan, T.O elevation, LDG elevation, and cruise altitude).
b) b. SAARU and FMC (provides flight plan, T.O elevation, LDG elevation, and cruise altitude).
c) c. ADIRU and SAARU.

77) Why does the pressurization system schedule the cabin altitude slightly below airport field
elevation for landing?
a) For structural reasons.
b) So the airplane will land somewhat pressurized.
c) All are correct.
ANTI-ICE & RAIN

78) When can engine anti-ice be operated manually

a) Only on the ground
b) Only in the air
c) On the ground or in the air

79) What do the EAI symbols on EICAS indicate?

a) Engine anti-ice is armed
b) Engine anti-ice is operating
c) Engine anti-ice has failed

80) Is automatic ice detection available on the ground?

a) Yes
b) No.

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81) When is power applied to the pitot and angle of attack probes?
a) Any time bleed air is selected.
b) If the APU is in operation.
c) Anytime an engine is running.

82) What is the position of an engine anti-ice valve when the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selector is in AUTO
and EAI is displayed?
a) Open
b) Closed
c) Inoperative

83) When can wing anti-ice be operated manually?

a) Only on the ground
b) On the ground or in the air
c) Only in flight

84) When will wing anti-ice operate automatically?

a) Only on the ground
b) Only in flight
c) Both on the ground and in flight

85) Which windows are heated for both anti-ice and anti-fog protection?
a) Both pilot’s forward windows
b) Left pilot’s forward window and right pilot’s side window
c) All windows

86) Which windows are provided with backup anti-fog heat?

a) All windows
b) Both pilots’ forward windows
c) Left pilot’s forward window and right pilot’s side window

87) Why the wipers are never operated on a dry windshield?

a) The wiper blades will be ruined
b) The wiper motor may burn out
c) The hydrophobic coating may be scratched

88) Why are the WIPER selectors set to OFF during preflight?
a) To avoid wiper operation on dry windshields
b) To avoid damage to the wiper blades
c) To allow the hydrophobic coating to warm up

89) What does the WINDOW HEAT R FWD EICAS message mean?
a) The WINDOW HEAT R FWD switch is off
b) An overheat or fault has occurred
c) All of the above

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90) What does the WINDOW HEAT EICAS message mean?
a) The backup window heat system is inoperative
b) The windows are using back up heat
c) Two or more window heat faults have occurred

91) When will the ANTI-ICE ON EICAS message be displayed?

a) TAT above 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF and NO ice is detected
b) TAT below 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors ON and ice is detected
c) TAT above 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and NO ice is detected

92) What position of the ANTI-ICE selectors will remove the ANTI ICE ON EICAS message?
a) AUTO
b) OFF
c) ALL are correct

93) What position should the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors be in for taxiing in icing conditions?
a) AUTO
b) ON
c) OFF

94) What position should the WING ANTI-ICE selector be in for taxiing in icing conditions?
a) AUTO
b) ON
c) OFF

95) What action should you take if the ICE DETECTORS EICAS message displays?
a) Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors to ON then back to AUTO to reset the system
b) Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF for remainder of flight and avoid icing
c) Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON when icing conditions are encountered

96) What occurs when engine anti-ice is operating?

a) Probe heat switches from reduced to full power
b) Approach idle is selected
c) The ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON memo message displays

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
97) Is your bank angle limited to 20 degrees when LNAV is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is
set to the 20 degree position?
a) Yes
b) No

98) Is the CLB/CON switch operates on ground?

a) Yes.
b) No.

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99) Which pitch and roll modes engage when the A/P engages and both Flight Director switches are
OFF?
a) V/S / HDG HOLD or .ATT if Bank angle is more than 5 degrees.
b) SPD / LNAV / VNAV PTH.
c) SPD / ATT / V/S.

100) Which A/T mode will be engaged when a TO/GA switch is pushed on the ground?

a) SPD
b) THR REF
c) VNAV PITH.

101) When is altitude deviation alerting inhibited?

a) At gear up.
b) At G/S capture or land flap selected with Gear Up.
c) At G/S capture or land flap selected with Gear Down.

102) When does HOLD mode engage during take-off?

a) 40 knots..
b) 60 knots
c) 80 knots.

103) When are changes in Autoland Status, other than to NO AUTOLAND inhibited?
a) BELOW 200’ RA.
b) BELOW 400’ RA
c) BELOW 600’ RA.

104) How can the TO/GA mode be terminated after T/OFF?

a) By engaging A/P.
b) By disengaging throttles.
c) By selecting any other pitch or roll mode.

105) Which A/T mode will be engaged when a TO/GA switch is pushed on the ground?
a) SPD.
b) THR REF.
c) VNAV PITH.

106) What do the F/D command bars at lift-off?

a) 8 degrees pitch up.
b) V2 + 10 Knots and ground track.
c) V2 + 15 knots and ground track.

107) What is the range of the vertical speed window?

a) -6000 to +6000
b) -7000 to +7000
c) -8000 to +6000

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108) When is altitude deviation alerting inhibited?
a) At gear up.
b) Flaps out of up position.
c) At G/S capture or land flap selected with Gear Down.

109) When does HOLD mode engage during take-off?

a) 40 knots.
b) 60 knots.
c) 80 knots.

110) When are changes in Autoland Status, other than to NO AUTOLAND inhibited?
a) BELOW 200’ RA.
b) BELOW 400’ RA.
c) BELOW 600’ RA.

111) What is the maximum Localizer intercept angle?

a) 60 degree.
b) 90 degree.
c) 120 degree.

112) During approach, when will the TO/GA be armed?

a) LOC capture.
b) G/S capture.
c) G/S capture or flaps out of up.

113) How can TO/GA mode be terminated below 400 feet RA?
a) Disengage A/P and turn OFF both F/D’s.
b) Disengage A/P only.
c) Disengage A/T only.

114) How can TO/GA mode be terminated above 400 feet RA?
a) Selecting APP second time if below 1000 feet RA.
b) Selecting any other pitch or roll mode.
c) Selecting any other pitch and roll mode.

115) When are FLARE and ROLLOUT armed?

a) Below 1500 feet RA.
b) When LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated on PFD.
c) When LOC and G/S capture.

116) When are FLARE and ROLLOUT engaged?

a) FLARE 100 feet, ROLLOUT 50 feet RA.
b) FLARE 50 feet, ROLLOUT 10 feet RA.
c) FLARE 50 feet, ROLLOUT 2 feet RA.

117) What is the A/T mode annunciation at 25 feet RA during landing?

a) HOLD
b) IDLE
c) SPD
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118) Is your bank angle limited to 15 degrees when TRK SEL mode is engaged and the BANK
LIMIT selector is set to the 15 degree position?
a) Yes
b) No

119) When is TOGA armed?

a) When flaps are not up
b) When below 1500 feet RA.
c) When GS is armed

120) What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the
pitch mode on the FMA?
a) The engaged autopilot has failed
b) The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate
c) The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is disconnected

121) What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the
pitch mode on the FMA?
a) The autopilot is operating in a degraded mode.
b) The autopilot has entered envelope protection.
c) All of the above

122) What does the NO LAND 3 EICAS message mean when FLARE and ROLLOUT armed are
displayed on the FMA?
a) The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed
b) The autopilot is inoperative. Manual landing is required
c) The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland

123) Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight?

a) Turn off left and right flight directors. Set initial heading
b) Arm left and right autothrottle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude
c) Disarm right autothrottle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude

124) What position should the A/P DISENGAGE bar be in during the MCP preflight?
a) Up to the engaged position
b) DOWN to the disengaged position
c) Down to the engaged position

125) What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to climb to FL250 at28O kts?
a) Set 280 kts in the lAS/MACH window, push FLCH switch, then set FL250 in the ALTITUDE
window
b) Set FL280 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 250 kts in the lAS/MACH
window
c) Set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 280 kts in the
lAS/MACH window

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126) What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to descend to 5000 feet at 24Okts?
a) Set 240 kts in the lAS/MACH window, push FLCH switch, then set 5000 feet in the ALTITUDE
window
b) Set 280 feet in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 500 kts in the lAS/MACH
window
c) Set 5000 feet in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 240 kts in the
lAS/MACH window

127) What is the sequence of steps to change airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed
intervention?
a) Change the lAS/MACH window to the new airspeed, then push the lAS/MACH selector
b) Push the lAS/MACH selector, and then change the lAS/MACH window to the new
airspeed
c) Change the lAS/MACH window to the new airspeed, then push FLCH

128) What is the sequence of steps to reduce airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed
intervention?
a) Change the lAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed, then push the lAS/MACH selector
b) Push the lAS/MACH selector, then change the lAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed
c) Push FLCH, then change the lAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed

129) With TRK SEL engaged, what is the CORRECT sequence of steps to turn right to heading 150
degrees using the HDG SEL mode?
a) Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the
HDG/TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window
b) Push the lAS/MACH selector, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK selector
to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window
c) Push the lAS/MACH selector, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK reference
switch to the left to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window

130) With HDG SEL engaged, what is the CORRECT sequence of steps to turn right to track 150
degrees using the TRK SEL mode?
a) Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the
HDG/TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG’TRK window
b) Push the lAS/MACH selector, verify TRK SEL on the FMA. then rotate the HDG/TRK selector
to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window
c) Push the lAS/MACH selector, verify HDG SEL on the FMA. then rotate the HDG/TRK
reference switch to the left to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window

131) Which switch engages the autothrottle with the A/T ARM switches in ARM?
a) CLB/CON switch
b) A/T engage switch
c) APP switch

132) When V/S shows in the V/S-FPA window, what are the correct steps to make
a) 2. 6 degree FPA descent?
b) Push V/S reference switch, set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6° flight path
angle
c) Push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6° flight path angle, set new altitude
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133) What action resets the autopilot system and warning system, and cancels the AUTOPILOT
DISC message?
a) Pushing the autopilot disconnect switch a second time
b) Pushing the CANCEL/RECALL switch a second time
c) Pushing the master warning switch when the light is illuminated

134) What switch resets the autothrottle system and cancels the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC message?
a) Autopilot disconnect switch
b) Autothrottle disconnect switch
c) All of the above

135) Which A/T ARM switch configuration causes the AUTOTHROTTLE R message to display?
a) Left switch OFF, right switch ON
b) Left switch ON, right switch OFF
c) Left switch ON, right switch ON

136) What will a second push of the TO/GA switch do during the takeoff above 80 knots, with LNAV
and VNAV armed?
a) Engages LNAV and VNAV
b) Engages LNAV and disarms VNAV
c) Disarms LNAV and VNAV

137) What will the autopilot do if you override the control column?
a) Engage in HDG HOLD and V/S
b) Engage in TRK HOLD and FPA
c) Disengage

138) With the autopilot engaged, and LNAV engaged, what will happen if the last active waypoint is
passed?
a) LNAV will disengage
b) The autopilot will turn the airplane toward the destination airport
c) LNAV will maintain current heading

139) What happens to bank angle protection if the A/P DISENGAGE bar is selected down?
a) Bank angle protection is disengaged
b) Bank angle protection remains engaged
c) Bank angle protection is reduced by half

140) Above what altitude can you disengage the approach mode by pushing the APP switch a
second time?
a) l000feetRA
b) 1500 feet RA
c) 2500 feet RA
COMMUNICATIONS
141) What is necessary to converse with the mechanic servicing the engine at the engine nacelle?
a) Position the SERV INTPH switch to ON
b) Position the OBS AUDIO selector to CAPT
c) Use the CDU and line select SERVICE INTERPHONE
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142) Which of these statements may be true if the offside tuning light is illuminated on the left radio
tuning panel?
a) The selected frequency is not in the normal frequency range
b) The left radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by one of the other tuning
panels
c) The frequency is being transferred from the STANDBY to the ACTIVE window

143) A SELCAL message appears on the EICAS when a SATCOM CALL is received. What other
indication are also given?
a) Bell sounds and a light comes on.
b) Chime and ACP SAT/MIC button “CALL” light.
c) Call station panel light goes out and then comes back on.

144) During flight the “RADIO TRANSMIT” EICAS advisory message appears. What has
happened?
a) A HF radio has transmitted for more than 30 seconds..
b) A VHF radio has transmitted.
c) A VHF or HF radio has transmitted for more than 30 seconds.

145) What does illumination of the offside tuning light mean?

a) You have a call from company
b) One of the other radio tuning panels is tuning a radio normally tuned by this panel
c) The microphone is keyed and transmitting on the selected frequency

146) What is indicated by a flight deck printer PAPER light?

a) The flight deck printer has failed
b) The flight deck printer is turned off
c) The flight deck printer door is open or the printer paper is jammed

147) What does the .SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?
a) The selective calling system has failed
b) A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered
c) A cabin attendant is calling the flight deck

148) What does the •COMM communication EICAS alert message indicate when accompanied by a
high-low chime?
a) A medium priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on the
communications display
b) A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered
c) A low priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on the communications display

149) A high-low chime sounds and a •COMM communications alert message appears on EICAS.
What action should you take”
a) Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message in the CDU
scratchpad
b) Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on
the MFD
c) Push the transmitter select switch with the illuminated CALL light and respond to the call
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150) What does an illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicate?
a) A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck
b) Someone is calling the flight deck on VHF radio
c) The FLT transmitter select switch is switch in the ON position

151) What happens if you push the CAB transmitter select switch twice within one second?
a) Nothing, the second push cancels the selection
b) A priority call is placed to a pre-selected cabin station
c) A conference call is initiated with all cabin stations

152) Which statement about the VHF radios is true?

a) Only VHF C can be configured for data communication
b) VHF L is configured for voice communication only
c) The DATA mode can only be selected or deselected on the MFD COMM display

153) Which statement about radio tuning is correct?

a) Any VHF radio can be controlled by any radio tuning panel
b) HF L can only be tuned by the left radio tuning panel
c) The offside tuning light will only appear on the active radio tuning panel

154) How can the flight crew make a PA announcement to all areas of the cabin?
a) Using the flight deck handset, enter the appropriate dial code from the handset directory, then
push the handset PA Push To Talk switch
b) Push the CAB transmitter select switch on the audio control panel, then enter the appropriate
dial code using the CDU keypad, then key any MIC switch
c) All of the above

155) What can the First Officer do to regain audio control if his audio control panel fails?
a) Position the OBS AUDIO selector to CAPT, then use the Captain’s audio control panel
b) Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O, then use the Observer’s audio control panel
c) Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O, then use the First Officer’s audio control panel

156) Which of the following can be done using the CDU cabin interphone pages?
a) Alert the ground crew that you want to speak to them
b) Make a PA announcement to a specific cabin area
c) All of the above

157) What is true about ATC data link operation?

a) Logon occurs automatically with FMC CDU route activation
b) The crew must manually log on to a participating ATC facility
c) Logon occurs automatically any time AC power is established on the airplane

158) Which of the following data values does NOT provide crew feedback, by turning green, when
you comply with an ATC uplink message?
a) MCP heading
b) VOR frequency
c) Barometer setting

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159) How can the crew cancel a displayed company or ATC uplink message?
a) Push the STATS switch on the display select panel
b) Select the CANCEL command key on the MFD COMM page
c) Push the CANC/RCL switch on the display select panel

160) Which of the following is NOT an example of an ATC REQUESTED REPORT that can be
armed for automatic downlink to ATC?
a) LEAVING FL330
b) MAINTAINING FL330
c) PASSING SEA

ELECTRICAL
161) You have a cold airplane (no power connected). Which items will be powered if you push the
BATTERY switch ON?
a) The APU controller and the DC fuel pump will be powered
b) Only the main battery bus will be powered
c) The hot battery bus will be powered

162) If AC power is removed or lost which items are powered when the BATTERY switch is ON?
a) Standby busses, emergency lights, Critical AC and DC power.
b) Standby busses, emergency lights only.
c) Main busses, normal lights, Critical AC and DC power.

163) In the generator control switch what does the amber OFF light indicate?
a) The generator is working correctly.
b) The generator main AC Bus has failed.
c) The generator breaker is in the open position.

164) What two conditions cause the BUS TIE ISLN to illuminate?
a) Switch to OFF or a fault has occurred.
b) Switch to ON or no fault has occurred.
c) APU started, switch in the ON.

165) What conditions might isolate the utility electrical buses in flight or on the ground?
a) Operating with high electrical load.
b) Operating with low electrical load.
c) No electrical load on any utility bus.

166) What condition illuminates the generator drive lights?

a) High oil pressure.
b) Low IDG oil pressure.
c) Minimum oil pressure indication.

167) When does the right transfer bus separate from the right main AC bus to provide three
independent autopilot power sources for approach?
a) When TAKEOFF is selected on the TOGA.
b) When APPROACH is selected for AUTOLAND.
c) When VNAV is selected on the MCP panel
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168) Can both backup generators work at the same time?
a) No, only one backup generator works at a time.
b) Yes, both backup generators can work at the same time.
c) Yes, both backup generators can work at the same time but only in-flight.

169) When will the backup generator work?

a) If only one generator is available (including APU) or if power is lost to one or both main AC
buses.
b) When APP mode is selected for auto land, or automatically tested after engine start.
c) All the above.

170) What causes the BACKUP GEN “OFF” light to illuminate?

a) Backup generator has failed or backup generator is selected to OFF.
b) Fault is detected in the system, or converter has failed
c) All of the above.

171) How is power distributed to the autopilots during autoland?

a) Normally 3 A/Ps powered from two power sources during autoland.
b) Normally 2 A/Ps powered from two power sources during autoland.
c) Normally 3 A/Ps powered from three power sources during autoland.

172) Can you do an autoland if both generators (L & R) are unpowered and one backup
a) Generator is inoperative?
b) Yes If APU is available, auto land is available with one backup generator and one APU
generator.
c) No, autoland can't be done.

173) What does “ELMS” stand for?

a) Electric load management system.
b) Electric light management system.
c) Essential load management system.

174) What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with external power on the BUS TIE
system?
a) The APU connects to the BUS TIE switches but does not power either main bus
b) The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus
c) The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces primary external power

175) How are the busses powered if the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus
system and external power powering the right bus system?
a) External power continues to supply the right main bus
b) The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus
c) The right engine generator automatically powers both main busses

176) What powers the left main bus if the left engine is shut down, the right engine is running and
the APU is not running?
a) Secondary external power supplies the left main bus
b) The APU generator powers the left main bus
c) The right engine generator powers the left main bus
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177) Which items below are de-powered if you position the BATTERY switch to OFF during power
down?
a) The APU battery and hot battery bus
b) The engine fire extinguisher bottles and APU fire extinguisher bottle
c) The standby bus, Captain’s displays, and left AIMS

178) How can you power the ground handling bus before shutdown if no external power is
available?
a) Select the ground handling bus ON
b) The bus is powered as long as the right main bus is powered
c) Start the APU

179) Which bus operates only on the ground?

a) The ground service bus
b) The ground handling bus
c) The left main AC bus

180) What bus, operates only on the ground?

a) AC busses.
b) There is no bus operates only on the ground.
c) GRD handling bus.

181) What is required to connect primary or secondary external power if no AC power is available?
a) Battery switch must be OFF.
b) Battery switch must be ON.
c) APU must be off.

182) What is the primary source of DC power during normal flight?

a) APU battery
b) Main battery
c) Transformer rectifier units

183) What provides DC power on this airplane?

a) Standby inverters
b) Transfer busses
c) Transformer rectifier units

184) When does the right transfer bus isolate from the right main bus?
a) During descent
b) When system configures to autoland
c) When main AC busses are powered

185) What is the electrical configuration during autoland?

a) There is no change from normal
b) The left transfer bus isolates from the right main bus
c) The right transfer bus isolates from the right main AC bus

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186) What is the primary power source for “fly-by-wire?
a) Main AC busses
b) Permanent magnet generators
c) APU

187) What is the secondary source of power for “fly-by-wire” if one or more PMGs are unpowered?
a) Left transfer bus
b) DC busses
c) Main AC busses

188) What is the primary source of standby power if all normal AC and DC power sources fail?
a) Main battery
b) Backup generators
c) RAT generator

189) What will happen if the airplane in the standby electrical power and the RAT sheds electrical
power because of low hydraulic pressure?
a) APU
b) Backup generators
c) Main battery

190) Which condition(s) cause the ELEC GEN DRIVE L EICAS message to display?
a) Engine oil temperature is high
b) Generator drive oil pressure is low
c) GENERATOR CONTROL switch selected to OFF

191) What is the primary source of power for the transfer busses?
a) Backup generators
b) Engine generators
c) Main DC busses

192) What is the correct electrical panel configuration for normal flight?
a) BUS TIE switches in ISLN, BATTERY switch ON, GENERATOR CONTROL switches ON
b) BUS TIE switches in AUTO, BATTERY switch ON, GENERATOR CONTROL switches ON
c) BUS TIE switches in AUTO, BATTERY switch ON, GENERATOR CONTROL switches OFF

193) What does the green EXTERNAL POWER AVAIL light indicate?
a) External power is connected to all the airplane’s electrical busses
b) Electrical power is available to the electrical busses but may not be correct
c) External power is connected to the airplane, correct and ready to power the electrical
busses

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

194) How many quick donning oxygen masks are installed on the flight deck?
a) One for each pilot
b) One for each pilot, one for each observer
c) One for each pilot and only one observer mask

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195) What is the status of the crew oxygen system if the oxygen status display is blank?
a) Crew oxygen pressure is within acceptable limits
b) Crew oxygen pressure signal is not present or is invalid
c) Crew oxygen pressure is low

196) The Emergency Equipment EICAS Message: CREW OXYGEN LOW, is an advisory level
condition that?
a) Crew oxygen pressure is less than 350 PSI.
b) Crew oxygen pressure is less than 450 PSI. .
c) Crew oxygen pressure is less than 550 PSI.

197) What does the CREW OXYGEN LOW EICAS message indicate?
a) Crew oxygen system pressure is low
b) Crew oxygen system has been turned off
c) Crew oxygen system has failed

198) How many oxygen systems are fitted to the aircraft?

a) One master system.
b) Two, Flight Crew and Passenger.
c) Three, Flight Crew, Passenger and Cabin.

199) Flight crew oxygen mask system check would be confirmed by a burst of air and a?
a) White cross indication.
b) Yellow cross indication.
c) Green cross indication.

200) What does the PASS OXYGEN ON EICAS message indicate?

a) Passenger oxygen has been manually or automatically activated
b) Passenger oxygen has been manually or automatically deactivated
c) Passenger oxygen has been manually deactivated

201) What automatically activates the airplane emergency lighting system?

a) Selecting the EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel to the OFF position
b) Loss of left and right main DC electrical power
c) Loss of left and right backup generators

202) What manually activates the airplane emergency lighting system?

a) Selecting the APU GEN switch to the ON position
b) Turning on the left and right backup generators
c) Selecting the EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel to ON

203) If all electrical power is available, what causes the EMER LIGHTS EICAS advisory message to
be displayed?
a) The emergency lighting system has failed
b) The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is not in the ARMED position
c) The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position

23 2011/09/03
204) If all electrical power is available, what causes the EMER LIGHTS EICAS advisory message to
be displayed?
a) The emergency lighting system has failed
b) The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position
c) The EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel is in the ARMED position and the
emergency lights have been turned on by a Flight Attendant

205) Can the flight deck side windows be operated in flight?

a) Yes, but only at airspeeds below 200 kts
b) Yes, but only at airspeeds below Vref + 80 kts
c) Yes, but only if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref 80 + kts

206) Under what conditions may the flight deck side windows be operated in flight?
a) The side windows may not be operated in flight
b) The side windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and
airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts
c) The side windows may be operated in flight only if the airplane is unpressurized

207) What indicates a properly closed and locked side window?

a) A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full aft position
b) A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full forward
position
c) A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard in view and lock lever in full forward position

208) What would indicate that a flight deck side window is NOT properly locked?
a) WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard not in view and the lock lever is fully forward and in the
locked position
b) Side window hand crank is not in the locked position
c) WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is visible or the lock lever is not fully forward and in the
locked position

209) What hazards are associated with the use of portable halon fire extinguishers in a confined
area?
a) Halon is not hazardous in any area
b) Halon is toxic in confined areas
c) Halon depletes oxygen and must be used while wearing protective breathing equipment

210) What precaution must be exercised when using a halon fire extinguisher?
a) Always wear protective breathing equipment
b) Always wear smoke goggles
c) Always open the flight deck side windows

211) What does the WINDOW FLT DECK R EICAS advisory message indicate?
a) Operation of the flight deck right side window is inhibited
b) The left side window is NOT closed or is unlocked
c) The right side window is NOT closed or is unlocked

24 2011/09/03
212) What does the WINDOWS EICAS advisory message indicate?’
a) The left and right side windows are open or unlocked
b) The left side window is open or unlocked
c) The right side window is open or unlocked

213) What does the EICAS message CONFIG DOORS indicate?

a) At least 2 passenger ENTRY door flight locks are not in the commanded position and both
engines are at takeoff thrust
b) The mode select lever of all passenger ENTRY doors is in the manual position and both
engines are at takeoff thrust
c) A passenger ENTRY door, FWD CARGO door or AFT CARGO door is not closed, latched
and locked, and the engines are at takeoff thrust

214) What does the EICAS message CONFIG DOORS indicate?

a) Both engines are at takeoff thrust and a passenger ENTRY door, FWD CARGO door or
AFT CARGO door is not closed, latched and locked
b) Both engines are at takeoff thrust and the mode select levers of t least 2 passenger entry
doors are in the manual position
c) Both engines are at takeoff thrust and at least 2 passenger entry doors are in the manual
position

215) What action is required if the DOOR FWD CARGO EICAS caution message displays in flight?
a) No action is required if pressurization is normal
b) Cabin altitude should be increased
c) The airplane must be depressurized to minimize the risk of door separation

216) What action is required if the DOOR AFT CARGO EICAS message displays in flight?
a) Cabin altitude should be increased
b) The airplane must be depressurized to minimize the risk of door separation
c) No action is required if pressurization is normal

ENGINES, APU

217) What does the APU SHUTDOWN EICAS message mean?

a) The APU is out of fuel
b) The APU in cool down mode.
c) The APU has automatically shut down

218) What does the. APU LIMIT EICAS message mean?

a) The APU is out of fuel
b) An APU limit has been exceeded
c) The MW has automatically shut down

219) To what altitude (height) can the APU bleed air be used?
a) 15,000 ft.
b) 22,000 ft.
c) 28,000 ft.

25 2011/09/03
220) Which of the APU outputs has priority?
a) Electrical.
b) Bleed Air.

221) With no AC power available what will provide fuel pressure for the APU?
a) DC pump.
b) AC pump.
c) Both DC and AC pumps.

222) What indication is given if the APU automatically shuts down?

a) APU off light.
b) APU indicators switch goes to “OFF” position.
c) APU fault light and EICAS “APU SHUTDOWN”.

223) What puts the APU into “ATTEDED MODE”?

a) In flight operations.
b) An engine running or in flight.
c) Ground operation only

224) What thrust reference mode provides maximum rated takeoff thrust?
a) TO1
b) D-TO I
c) TO

225) What thrust reference mode provides an assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust?
a) D-TO
b) TO
c) T02

226) During climb with normal engine EEC modes configured, you manually position the thrust
levers to the full forward position. What will happen?
a) The engines will exceed the maximum thrust limit
b) The engines will produce maximum climb thrust
c) The engines will produce maximum rated thrust

227) During cruise with normal engine EEC modes configured, you manually position the thrust
levers to the full forward position. What will happen?
a) The engines will produce maximum cruise thrust
b) The engines will produce maximum rated thrust
c) The EEC alternate mode will automatically engage

228) Which statement is true concerning the alternate EEC mode?

a) If a fault occurs in the normal mode, control is automatically transferred to the soft
alternate mode
b) In the hard alternate mode, the EEC uses N2 as the controlling parameter
c) Engine thrust limit protection is provided in both the normal and hard alternate modes

26 2011/09/03
229) With the engine EECs manually selected to the alternate mode, which statement is true?
a) The autothrottle automatically disengages
b) Positioning the thrust levers to the full forward position will cause an engine limit to be
exceeded
c) Both engine EECs are now in the soft alternate mode

230) What does the ENG OIL PRESS R EICAS message mean?
a) Engine oil pressure is low
b) Engine oil pressure is high
c) Engine oil temperature is low

231) What does the ENG OIL TEMP L EICAS message mean?
a) Engine oil pressure is high
b) Engine oil temperature is low
c) Engine oil temperature is high

232) What does the ENG FUEL VALVE L EICAS message mean?
a) The engine fuel valve on the left engine is closed
b) The spar or engine fuel valve on the left engine has not reached its commanded
position
c) Both the spar and the engine fuel valves on the left engine are commanded to the same
position

233) What does the ENG FUEL VALVE R EICAS message mean?
a) The engine fuel valve on the right engine is open
b) Both the spar and the engine fuel valves in the right engine are commanded to the same
position
c) The spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded
position

234) With autostart ON, when do you move the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN?
a) After START has been selected on the START/IGNITION selector
b) After reaching maximum motoring speed
c) After 18% N2 has been reached

235) What condition would select the engine approach idle thrust?
a) Engine anti-ice OFF.
b) Flaps out of UP position & an Air driven hydraulic demand pump Inoperative.
c) Opposite engine Bleed Air valve is open.

236) When does automatic continuous ignition activate?

a) When flaps are out of the UP position or engine anti-ice is on
b) When thunderstorms are detected on the weather radar
c) When the thrust levers reach idle or the landing gear is down

237) What powers the left engine thrust reverser?

a) Left hydraulic system
b) Center hydraulic system
c) Left engine bleed air
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238) What powers the right engine thrust reverser?
a) Left engine bleed air
b) Center hydraulic system
c) Right hydraulic system

239) What does the ENG REV LIMITED R EICAS message mean?
a) The right engine reverser will provide maximum reverse thrust for a limited time
b) The right engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle
c) The right engine reverse thrust is limited to rejected takeoffs only

240) What does the ENG REV LIMITED L EICAS message mean?
a) The left engine reverser is limited to I hydraulic source
b) The left engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle
c) The left engine reverse thrust is limited to ground operation only

241) Where is engine oil quantity displayed?

a) The status display
b) The primary engine indications
c) The secondary engine indications

242) What action opens the air starter valve?

a) N1 RPM operating limits exceeded.
b) START / IGNITION selector to OFF.
c) START / IGNITION selector to START.

243) What does the N1 instrument red line indicate?

a) N1 RPM OPERATING LIMITS.
b) N2 RPM IDLE FLIGHT LIMITS.
c) MAX N1.

244) What indications are given if an N1, N2, or EGT operating limits is exceeded
a) Display changed to Blue.
b) Display changes to Amber.
c) Display changes to Red.

245) What parameters use an amber line or band as a limit?

a) N1 RPM, FUEL FLOW.
b) N2, CUTOFF, OIL PRESS.
c) EGT max Continuous, max N1.

246) What does the vibration indication display on the MFD (secondary) engine display
a) Lowest Vibration levels. N1 and N2.
b) The highest vibration level, N1 and N2.
c) The highest vibration level on N1 only.

28 2011/09/03
247) When does the EEC select approach idle?
a) When the flaps are out of the UP position
b) When the flaps are commanded to 25 or greater
c) When the engine bleed air valve is open

248) What malfunction, during ground start, will cause the auto start system to abort the start?
a) Low oil pressure
b) High oil temperature
c) Hot start

249) What is auto-relight?

a) Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating the auto start system
b) Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating both igniters
c) Auto-relight opens the start valve automatically if the engine fails to start

250) If the APU is in the attended mode, what fault causes an immediate automatic shutdown?
a) APU controller failure
b) High EGT
c) Low oil pressure
FIRE PROTECTION

251) During preflight, you notice the BOTTLE DISCH APU message displayed on EICAS. What
does this mean?
a) This is a normal indication prior to APU start
b) The APU fire bottle has discharged
c) The APU fire bottle squibs are inoperative

252) How many detectors must normally sense an engine fire or overheat to produce an alert?
a) One.
b) Two.
c) Three.

253) What does an EICAS message “DET FIRE ENG” (L or R) indicate?

a) Fire detection system is working correctly.
b) Fire detection system has one detector working.
c) Fire detection system failure in both detector loops.

254) How many engine fire extinguisher bottles does each engine have?
a) One.
b) Two.
c) Three.

255) Which aircraft area has fire detection systems?

a) Engines, APU, Cargo Compartment, Main Gear Wheel wells and Lavatories.
b) Passenger cabin and Cockpit areas and all Lavatories.
c) All landing Wheel well areas, Lavatories and cabin crew areas and engines.

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256) How many Cargo Compartment fire extinguisher bottles are there?
a) Two.
b) Four.
c) Five.

257) Where is the flight deck APU panel located?

a) On the overhead panel.
b) On the pedestal center panel.
c) Pilots left forward PFD panel.

258) During preflight, you notice the BOTTLE 1 DISCH ENG message displayed on EICAS. What
does this mean?
a) The fire bottle squibs are inoperative
b) This is a normal indication prior to APU start
c) Fire bottle I has discharged or pressure is low.

259) During cruise, you notice the OVERHEAT ENG R message displayed on EICAS. What has
occurred?
a) An overheat condition exists in the right engine
b) A fire condition exists in the right engine
c) Overheat detection in the right engine has failed

260) What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are running?
a) The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually
b) The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically
c) The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually

261) What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down?
a) The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically
b) The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually
c) The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically

262) There are fire detection and extinguishing systems for the
a) APU, cargo compartment, engines, lavatories, and main gear wheel wells
b) Main gear wheel wells, crew rest compartment, engine, and cargo compartment
c) Lavatories, engine, APU, and cargo compartment

263) What action should you take if the fire switch remains locked after a fire is detected?
a) Wait until the fire light extinguishes
b) Pull the fire switch Lo override the lock
c) Push the fire override switch, then pull the fire switch

264) What does the DET FIRE ENG R EICAS message indicate?
a) Fire detection for this engine is no longer available
b) The right engine fire bottle squibs are inoperative
c) A fire has been detected in the right engine.

30 2011/09/03
265) What does the DET FIRE APU EICAS message indicate?
a) APU fire detection is no longer available
b) The APU fire bottle squibs are inoperative
c) A fire has been detected in the APU

266) After the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch has been armed, what happens when the CARGO
FIRE DISCH switch is pushed?
a) Two rapid dump bottles discharge into the forward cargo compartment
b) All 5 fire bottles arm and airflow around the cargo compartment is reduced
c) One of the metered bottles discharges into the forward cargo compartment

267) After a forward cargo fire has been extinguished, what happens when the AFT CARGO FIRE
ARM switch is now pushed?
a) The arming functions for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate and the metered bottles
discharge into the aft compartment
b) The arming functions for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch do NOT activate
c) The arming functions for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, but discharge into
the aft compartment does NOT occur

268) Which statement is true concerning a wheel well fire?

a) Fire detection loops alert the crew to excessive brake temperatures
b) Fires are detected by two smoke detection units in the wheel well
c) There is no built-in fire extinguishing system for the wheel well

269) Which statement is true concerning a lavatory fire?

a) An automatic sprinkler system activates if a fire is detected
b) An aural warning activates and a light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is
detected
c) There is no built-in fire extinguishing system for the lavatories

270) What does the DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicate?
a) A fire has been detected in the aft cargo compartment
b) There is a detection zone fault in the smoke detector for the aft cargo compartment
c) Fire detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available

271) What does the DET FIRE CARGO FWD EICAS message indicate?
a) A fire has been detected in the forward cargo compartment
b) Fire detection for the forward cargo compartment is not available
c) The forward cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative

FLIGHT CONTROLS

272) Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?
a) Actuator control electronics (ACES) are NOT available
b) The primary flight computers (PFCs) are NOT available
c) Autopilot and envelope protection are NOT available

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273) What are the three primary flight control system modes?
a) Normal, Abnormal and Computer.
b) Normal, secondary and direct.
c) Abnormal, Primary and indirect.

274) Where is the primary trim control located?

a) On each pilots control wheel.
b) On the pilots left center consul.
c) Between the pilot and Copilot on the center consul.

275) What does the EICAS warning message “STABILIZER” mean? 13.10.06
a) Both stabilizer control modules are working correctly.
b) Both stabilizers control modules have automatically shut down or failed.
c) One of the stabilizer control modules is working correctly, and the other is in standby mode.

276) What is the effect of operating a single aileron trim switch?

a) Trim tab will only move 5 degrees from center.
b) Trim tab will only move to the first stop position.
c) Nothing, both switches must be operated together.

277) What trim rates are available for the rudder trim control?
a) Two, Low speed and High speed beyond the detent.
b) One rate is available on the ground and in the air.
c) Three rates, Low, Normal and High.

278) With the speedbrake lever armed, what conditions must be satisfied to deploy the speedbrake
automatically on the ground?
a) Airplane in the air with both thrust levers in reverse.
b) Airplane on the ground with both thrust levers in takeoff.
c) Airplane on the ground with both thrust levers at idle position.

279) What are the three modes of flap / slat operations?

a) Normal, Alternate and Secondary.
b) Electrical primary, motor secondary and low range.
c) Primary, Secondary and Alternate modes of operation.

280) When the flap lever is moved from the UP to 1, what happens to the flaps and slats?
a) Flaps remain in there present position, slats deploy to the full position.
b) Flaps remain in UP and Slats move to the midrange (sealed) position. *
c) Flaps down, Slats full UP.

281) When is Flap and Slat extension from the UP position inhibited?
a) Speed is greater than 265 knots or above 20,000 feet.
b) Speed less than 200 knots or below 20,000 feet.
c) Speed below 150 knots or below 15,000 feet.

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282) When the flaps and slats are in transit to the commanded position, what will the flap selection
number (and line) color display?
a) Magenta.
b) Green.
c) Amber.

283) What is the purpose of the PFC disconnect switch?

a) It is for ground maintenance to do system tests on the PFCs.
b) It permits the pilot to select the direct mode of PFCs operation.
c) It resets the flight controls and the PFCs to neutral.

284) The PFCs switches from normal mode of operation to secondary mode when:
a) The pilots move the PFCs disconnect switch to disc position.
b) The autopilots disengage.
c) It loses important air data and attitude data from the ADIRU and SAARU.

285) Spoiler panels 4 and 11:

a) Operate electrically for roll and speedbrake control.
b) Operate mechanically for roll and electrically for speedbrake control.
c) Operate mechanically for roll and speed brake control.

286) The speedbrake lever is in the down detent when the airplane lands, the auto speedbrake can
still operate by the:
a) Speedbrake lever auto up.
b) Aircraft touch down logic.
c) Thrust reverse lever in reverse

287) In what PFCs mode is the autopilots available.

a) Normal mode
b) Secondary mode.
c) Direct mode.

288) The purpose of the gust suppression system is to:

a) Decrease structural loads on the vertical stabilizer.
b) Increase the aerodynamic effectiveness of the rudder.
c) Improve lateral ride quality.

289) When do the PFCs go into the direct mode?

a) All PFCs have failed
b) By disconnect switch in the disc position.
c) Both answers are correct

290) The purpose of the rudder tab is to:

a) Increase the aerodynamic effect of the rudder.
b) Aerodynamically assist in the movement of the rudder panel.
c) Trim the rudder.

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291) The manual trim cancel switch:
a) Operates only in direct mode.
b) Is used to remove manual rudder trim commands.
c) Is a two speed operation used to center the rudder?

292) When you move the flap lever from "up" to "1 "in the primary and secondary modes:
a) The slats extend.
b) Both the flaps and slats extend.
c) The Krueger flap stays at the up position.

293) The ailerons are drooped down when flaps are extended between 5 to 20 in.
a) Normal mode.
b) Secondary mode.
c) Direct mode.

294) The alternate pitch trims levers:

a) Move cable pairs, rods and levers to mechanically control the stabilizer trim control
modules (STCM).
b) Are the primary controls the pilots use to command pitch trim.
c) Are electric switches that interface with the primary flight computers (PFCs) to control stabilizer
trim.

295) When you use the pitch trim switches while the airplane on the ground:
a) The PFCs command only the elevator to move.
b) The PFCs command only the stabilizer to move.
c) The stabilizer trim control modules (STCMS) receive electrical command signals directly from
the pitch trim switches.

296) What source of power moves the flaps and slats?

a) Electrical power in the primary and secondary modes.
b) Hydraulic power in the primary mode.
c) Hydraulic power in the primary and secondary modes.

297) In which PFCs mode the ailerons lockout as function of flaps and slats retraction?
a) Normal mode only.
b) Secondary mode only.
c) Direct mode only.

298) In what mode is slat load relief available?

a) The primary mode only.
b) The secondary mode only.
c) The primary and secondary modes.

299) The Krueger flap:

a) Have three positions: "up", "midrange", and "fully extended".
b) Moves to the extended position when the flap lever at"1".
c) Is driven by an electric actuator.

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300) Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?
a) Envelope protection features are NOT available
b) Actuator control electronics (ACES) are NOT available
c) The primary flight computers (PFCs) are NOT available

301) Which of these flight control surfaces droop when the trailing edge flaps extend?
a) Flaperons
b) Slats only
c) Krueger flaps and slats

302) Which of these flight control surfaces aid in roll control?

a) Ailerons, Flaperons and spoilers
b) Slats and spoilers only
c) Krueger flaps, slats and spoilers

303) Which of these flight control surfaces assist in roll control?

a) Slats and spoilers
b) Ailerons and Flaperons
c) Flaperons and slats

304) In direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are NOT operating?
a) Actuator control electronics (ACEs)
b) Primary flight computers (PFCs)
c) Electro hydraulic servos

305) In direct mode, which of the following components of fly-by- wire are NOT operating?
a) Primary flight computers (PFCs)
b) Actuator control electronics (ACEs)
c) Power control units (PCUs)

306) What does stall warning consist of’

a) Stick shaker followed by stall warning
b) Stick shaker but NO stall warning
c) EICAS message “STALL”

307) Which of the following are NOT stall protection features?

a) The autothrottle advances to maintain minimum airspeed
b) The autothrottle disconnects
c) In landing configuration, leading edge slats move to gapped position

308) What is false about stabilizer trim?

a) You c use the pitch trim switches on the yoke to set the trim
b) As airspeed increases, trim rate decreases
c) As airspeed increases, trim rate increases

309) Which trim control is inhibited when the autopilot is engaged?

a) Control wheel pitch trim switches
b) Alternate pitch trim levers
c) All of the above
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310) What is true about turn compensation?
a) It is NOT available if the bank angle is above 30 degrees
b) Elevator input is NOT required if the airplane is in a 30 degree bank
c) The turn compensation switch is on the overhead panel

311) What could cause the STAB GREEN BAND EICAS message to be displayed?
a) Power to the stabilizer position indicator is lost
b) The stabilizer position indicator is unreliable
c) The FMC weight entry and CO may be incorrect

312) Which control surfaces are used for roll control on the 777?
a) Ailerons, flaperons and spoilers
b) Ailerons, flaperons and slats
c) Ailerons, flaperons and flaps

313) Auto speedbrake protection is provided for which phases of flight?

a) Takeoff, rejected takeoff, and approach
b) Takeoff, rejected takeoff, and landing
c) Takeoff, rejected takeoff, approach, and landing

314) Which one of the following statements is false?

a) At cruise speed, spoilers 5 and 10 are locked out
b) Spoilers 4 and 11 are mechanically operated
c) There are 12 spoilers

315) Under what conditions does the SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED EICAS message display?
a) Speed brakes are extended and the airplane is above 800 feet RA
b) Speed brakes are extended, and landing flaps are selected or RA is between 15 and 800
feet
c) Any time speed brakes are extended

316) Which statement is NOT true regarding the flap position indicator?
a) The flap position indicator is on the PFD
b) The flap position indicator is magenta when slats and flaps are in transit
c) The flap position indicator appears on EICAS when flaps begin to extend

317) What can you say about the FLAPS DRIVE EICAS message?
a) The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has been shut down due to
an asymmetry
b) The EICAS flap indicator display turns magenta
c) The flaps will operate in secondary mode

318) Which trim control(s) are inhibited when the autopilot is engaged?
a) Alternate pitch trim levers
b) Control wheel pitch trim switches
c) All of the above

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319) Which statement(s) are true when the primary flight computer disconnect switch is positioned
to DISC?
a) Protection features are NOT available
b) The system operates in direct mode
c) All of the above

320) What is wheel to rudder cross-tie?

a) Ability to dampen dutch roll with control wheel only.
b) Ability to control initial effects of an engine failure with control wheel only.
c) Ability to control rudder trim with control wheel inputs.

321) When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly?
a) All the time.
b) Only during approaches
c) Only on the ground

322) When are pitch trim changes required with the 777 “fly-by wire” system?
a) During airspeed changes only
b) When the landing gear is extended
c) When thrust is changed

323) What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?
a) The EICAS message STAB GREEN BAND displays
b) The green band and the pointer are not displayed
c) The CDU displays the VERIFY TRIM message in the scratchpad

324) When do the alternate pitch trim levers move the stabilizer?
a) When the autopilot is disengaged
b) During flight control secondary and direct modes
c) The levers move the stabilizer directly at all times

325) The PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS EICAS message indicates?

a) The system is in the primary mode
b) The system is in the direct mode
c) The system is in the secondary mode

326) What are the initial steps to extend the flaps using the alternate flap system?
a) Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS selector to EXT
b) Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS selector to OFF
c) Push ALT FLAPS ARM switch to OFF Select ALT FLAPS selector to EXT

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

327) How are display select panel operations affected when EICAS is displayed on an inboard
display unit?
a) All display select panel operations are normal
b) Inboard display unit can only display EICAS or the secondary engine display
c) All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR

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328) What does the pitch limit indicator indicate?
a) Pitch at which underspeed will sound
b) Pitch limit at which stick shaker will occur
c) Proper pitch angle for takeoff

329) If the left EFIS (Electrical Flight Instrument System) control panel fails, which CDU(s) (Central
Display Unit) can be used as a back-up control of the Captions EFIS?
a) Only the Right CDU.
b) Only the Left CDU.
c) Both Left and Right CDUs.

330) If the DSP (Display Select Panel) fails, which CDU(s) can be used?

a) Any of the three CDUs.

b) The right and left.
c) The left only.

331) What happens to the AIRSPEED INDICATION if the ADIRS input is lost?
a) All indications remain the same.
b) No effect on the indicator except the speed flag disappears.
c) The entire indication disappears and the SPD (speed) flag appears.

332) What symbol indicates the current HEADING on the PFD?

a) Amber line with an arrow.
b) Long straight line with no arc.
c) Triangle pointer against a compass arc.

333) Where is the EFIS control panels located?

a) Glareshield.
b) Center panel.
c) Pilots center panel.

334) When is the pitch limit indication displayed?

a) When flaps are up and airspeed is near stick shaker speed
b) Only when the flaps are NOT in the up position
c) If airspeed is close to maximum

335) When is the landing altitude flag removed?

a) After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel
b) After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page
c) After correct local altimeter is set

336) When does a “localizer not captured” alert occur?

a) At greater than 2 dots deviation
b) Above 1000 feet radio altitude
c) Localizer not captured and below 1000 feet RA

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337) When does a glideslope deviation alert occur?
a) After glideslope capture and below 500 feet RA
b) Only after localizer capture
c) Any time deviation exceeds 1 dot

338) When are range arcs displayed in the expanded VOR mode?
a) All the time
b) Only at 10, 20, and 40 mile ranges
c) If weather radar or TCAS data display is active

339) What does the POS map switch display?

a) ADIRU, GPS and raw VOR position data
b) Latitude/Longitude data for all waypoints
c) Waypoint ETA and altitude

340) What does the nose of the airplane symbol represent in ND Plan mode?
a) Present heading
b) Present position
c) Active waypoint

341) When will the TRUE light illuminate in the heading reference (HDG REF) switch?
a) Any time true heading is in use
b) Whenever the HDG REF switch is in the TRUE position
c) Above 82 degrees N/S latitude or in the vicinities of the magnetic poles

342) What causes the TRUE light to illuminate in the heading reference (HDG REF) switch?
a) True heading has been automatically selected
b) The HDG REF switch is in the TRUE position
c) The airplane is in the vicinity of a magnetic pole

343) When are the annunciations CDU L, C, or R displayed on the ND?

a) Respective navigation source switch in CDU
b) After dual FMC failures
c) All of the above

344) Which statement about the standby attitude indicator is true?

a) It displays pitch, bank and slip
b) It displays pitch and bank only
c) It displays pitch, bank and heading

345) What does a square icon next to an EICAS message indicate?

a) There is no electronic checklist associated with this message
b) There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is complete
c) There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is NOT complete

346) What does cyan color indicate on the electronic checklist?

a) The step must be repeated
b) Do not perform the step
c) The step was performed wrong
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347) Which statement about the electronic checklist NORMAL and NON-NORMAL keys is true?
a) The NON-NORMAL key displays a list of the normal checklists
b) The NON-NORMAL key displays the last checklist completed
c) The NORMAL key displays the next normal checklist in the sequence

348) Which statement about the non-normal checklist queue is true?

a) Each checklist in the queue must be completed in the order listed
b) The checklist queue allows you to select which checklist to perform next
c) The queue displays checklists for messages that do not have an icon

349) How do you display an unannunciated non-normal checklist?

a) High light and select the NON-NORMAL MENU key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED
CHECKLISTS key
b) Highlight and select the NORMAL MENU key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED
CHECKLISTS key
c) Highlight and select the CHKL RESETS key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED
CHECKLISTS key

350) What does the NOTES key do?

a) The NOTES key resets the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight
b) The NOTES key displays the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists
during flight
c) The NOTES key add; the displayed checklist to the notes queue

351) Which statement about resets is true?

a) The CHKL RESET key resets all of the non-normal checklists
b) All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET
ALL key
c) All checklists can be reset at once by using the NON- NORMAL MENU key followed by the
CHKL RESET key

352) Which statement about overrides is true?

a) To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD
key
b) Closed loop steps cannot be overridden
c) Steps that are overridden remain white

353) What does the CHKL OVRD key do when selected?

a) Overrides the highlighted item on the checklist
b) Overrides the displayed checklist
c) Displays the next checklist to be overridden

354) What are the steps to select the status display on the left inboard display unit?
a) Select R INDB switch, then select STAT switch
b) Select LWR CTR switch, then select STAT switch
c) Select L INDB switch, then select STAT switch

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355) What are the steps to select the flight control synoptic on the right inboard display unit?
a) Select R INDB switch, then select FCTL switch
b) Select LWR CTR switch, then select FCTL switch
c) Select L INDB switch, then select FCTL switch

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

356) Which statement about the ADIRU is true?

a) The inertial reference position is updated using information from the air data modules
b) The ADIRU sends magnetic variation data to the FMCs to convert true heading to magnetic
heading
c) The ADIRU receives the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the
data independently

357) On which CDU page are the speed and altitude restrictions entered and displayed?
a) LEGS.
b) RTE.
c) DEP / ARR.

358) Which of the main Pre Flight pages has a data link facility?
a) LEGS.
b) RTE.
c) DEP / ARR.

359) Where is the position of both GPS shown on the FMS?

a) IDENT page.
b) RTE DATA page.
c) POSITION REF page 2 of 3

360) Which CDU page should be displayed to view fuel remaining estimates for next two
waypoints?
a) LEGS page.
b) Rte DATA PAGE.
c) Progress page 1 / 3.

361) What CDU page allows you to change the method of FMC position updating?
a) POSITION REF pages 2 /3.
b) PROGRESS Page 3 / 3.
c) NAV / RAD page.

362) With the lags page displayed, you wish to insert wind information for a waypoint near the top of
climb, which CDU page do you select?
a) RTE page.
b) CLIMB page.
c) ROUTE DATA page.

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363) You have some updated wind data for the descent. On which CDU page would you enter this
information?
a) DECENT FORCAST page.DEP / ARR page.
b) RTE / DATA page.

364) During VNAV descent, what target speed is normally commanded by FMC?
a) MAX RANGE speed above 10,000 ft. & 240 Kts. below 10,000 ft.
b) ECON speed above 10,000 ft. & 250 Kts below 10,000 ft.
c) ECON speed above 10,000 ft & 240 below Kts below 10,000 ft.

365) After entry of an Arrival, which CDU page displays the transition level?
a) DEP / ARR page.
b) DECENT FORCAST page.
c) RTE DATA page.

366) Under VNAV control, what crew action is necessary for an automatic descent to commence at
the T/D (Top of Descent) point?
a) Set the MCP Altitude to below that of the aircraft.
b) Enter a lower altitude in the CDU DESCENT page.
c) No crew action is required.

367) If a Hold is entered at a waypoint that has a constraint of 7,000 ft. will the Hold target altitude
automatically display 7,000 ft.?
a) Yes.
b) No.

368) How is the required entry of data, which is mandatory for the FMS operation, indicated on the
appropriate CDU page?
a) Dashes.
b) Boxes.
c) Triangles.

369) The Navigation data base is regularly updated every?

a) 28 days.
b) 48 days.
c) 68 days.

370) What color are “NOT YET” executed flight plan modifications?
a) Shaded white.
b) Shaded gray.
c) Shaded cyan.

371) On which page is the maximum altitude displayed?

a) CLB page.
b) CRZ page.
c) DECENT page.

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372) Which page is automatically displayed on the FMS-CDU when electrical power is initially
applied to the aircraft?
a) MENU page.
b) INIT REF INDEX page.
c) IDENT page.

373) Which FMS CDU mode key must be pressed to display the available SIDs?
a) VNAV.
b) NAV / RAD.
c) DEP / ARR.

374) How many sets of navigation data are contained in the FMC?
a) One.
b) Two.
c) Three.

375) On which CDU page would you enter the assumed temperature to derate takeoff power?
a) TAKEOFF REF page.
b) PERF INIT page.
c) THRUST LIM. Page.

376) What entry is required on TAKEOFF REF page before the FMC calculated stabilizer trim
setting appears?
a) Center of Gravity (CG) within valid range.
b) Wind and Slope.
c) Zero Fuel Weight.

377) For a particular waypoint how many lines / altitudes of wind can be inserted?
a) Two.
b) Three.
c) Four.

378) On which CDU page would you check the Transition altitude associated with the origin airport?
a) The CLB page.
b) CRZ page.
c) DESCENT page.

379) What CDU entry could you make to fly a course of 150 from your present position?
a) P / P 150 on LEGS page, active line.
b) 150 P / P on LEGS page, active line.
c) P / P 150 on RTE page, active line.

380) In flight, on which CDU page would you find the OFF-SET prompt?
a) a. ROUTE page.
b) b. LEGS page.
c) c. VNAV page.

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381) What would be the entry to fly 10 miles left (OFFSET)?
a) 10 L.
b) L /10.
c) L10

382) What happens if the ADIRU switch is left on and then primary power is removed from the
airplane and the BATTERY switch is turned off?
a) The ON BAT light illuminates and the EICAS memo message ADIRU ON BAT displays
b) The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds
c) The ON BAT light extinguishes when the BATTERY switch is turned off

383) What is the data source for the standby attitude indicator?
a) ADIRU
b) SAARU
c) FMC

384) Which message is displayed when the ADIRU is in the alignment mode?
a) EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE
b) EICAS alert message NAV ADIRU INERTIAL
c) CDU scratchpad message ADIRU ALIGN

385) How often is a complete ADIRU alignment recommended?

a) Every 24 hours
b) Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 15 hours
c) Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours

386) How long should the ADIRU switch remain off when manually realigning the ADIRU?
a) 24 seconds
b) 30 seconds
c) 45 seconds

387) Which of the following are data sources for the ADIRU?
a) Air data modules only
b) Air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe
c) AOA sensors and TAT probe only

388) Which of the following are data sources for the SAARU?
a) Static ports only
b) Air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe
c) AOA sensors and TAT probe only

389) What is the altitude source for transponder altitude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector
is in the NORM position?
a) ADIRU
b) SAARU
c) Air data modules

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390) What is the altitude source for transponder altitude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector
is in the ALTN position?
a) ADIRU
b) SAARU
c) Air data modules

391) Which one of the following is inoperative with dual FMC failure?
a) LNAV
b) VNAV
c) MAP display

392) Which one of the following pages is available following dual FMC failure?
a) ALTNPERFINIT
b) ALTN POS REF
c) ALTN NAV LEGS

393) What color is the VOR data on the NAV RADIO page?
a) Magenta
b) Cyan
c) Green

394) What color is the ADF frequency data on the NAV RADIO page?
a) Magenta
b) Cyan
c) Green

395) Which of the following statements is true about FMC CDU pages?
a) Dashes indicate data entry is optional
b) ERASE is used to delete data in a single line
c) Page titles are magenta when active

396) Which of the following ND modes can not display weather radar returns?
a) APP centered
b) APP expanded
c) VOR expanded

397) What is the maximum range at which turbulence returns can be displayed?
a) 2O nm
b) 4O nm
c) 80 nm

398) What is represented by the color magenta in-weather radar returns?

a) Moderate precipitation
b) Turbulence within precipitation
c) Clear air turbulence

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399) What does the WXR FAIL ANT fault message indicate?
a) Weather returns will not display
b) There is a problem with the radar antenna
c) All of the above

400) What does the WXR FAIL R/T fault message indicate?
a) Weather returns will not display
b) The selected R/T has failed
c) All of the above

FUEL

401) Which of the items listed below is NOT determined by the fuel quantity indicating system?
a) Fuel temperature
b) Fuel height
c) Fuel type

402) Where are fuel quantities displayed?

a) On EICAS, and on fuel synoptic.
b) On the Fuel Gages overhead panel.
c) On the FMC / CDU display indication.

403) Where do you enter the fuel freeze temperature?

a) EICAS and FUEL Synoptic page.
b) On the FMC CDU PREF INIT page.
c) On the fuel dump rate overhead control panel.

404) Is the jettison selection always displayed on the Fuel Synoptic?

a) Yes.
b) No, only when jettison is not ARMED.
c) No, only when jettison is ARMED.

405) Where is fuel quantities displayed?

a) On EICAS, and on fuel synoptic page.
b) Only on EICAS.
c) On the FMC / CDU display indication.

406) Where can you enter the fuel freeze temperature?

a) EICAS and FUEL Synoptic page.
b) Only on fuel synoptic page.
c) On the FMC CDU PREF INIT page.

407) Is the jettison selection always displayed on the Fuel Synoptic?

a) Yes.
b) No, only when jettison is ARMED.
c) No, only when jettison is not ARMED.

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408) During Normal operation where can you display the individual fuel tank quantity?
a) EICAS.
b) FMS Page.
c) On the Fuel synoptic.

409) What will cause the expanded fuel indication to appear on EICAS?
a) Fuel in center and center fuel pumps OFF before start.
b) Fuel in center and all fuel pumps ON.
c) Both cross-feed valves closed.

410) What is indicated by fuel imbalance pointer flashing?

a) Normal fuel imbalance in progress.
b) Fuel balancing is going the wrong way.
c) Immediately when the fuel is balanced.

411) Which system provides the fuel TOTALISER value?

a) FMC.
b) Flight Plan.
c) Fuel quantity system.

412) In which tank is the DC fuel pump?

a) Left main tank.
b) Left and Right main tank.
c) All fuel tanks.

413) Do the center fuel pumps produce same pressure as the main tank?
a) Yes.
b) No, it produces more pressure.

414) From which tank fuel be jettisoned?

a) Left and Right tanks only.
b) All tanks.
c) Center tank only.

415) Where can fuel jettisoned time be observed during fuel jettisoned?
a) On EICAS below fuel quantity indication.
b) FMS VNAV page.
c) Fuel synoptic.

416) Can the fuel jettisoned nozzles be opened on the ground?

a) No.
b) Yes in case of over weight.

417) Can the fuel be jettisoned from center tanks with canter tank pumps OFF?
a) Yes.
b) No.

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418) Which statement is true about supplying fuel to operate the APU prior to establishing AC
power?
a) The APU cannot operate because there is no fuel pressure
b) The left main tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU
c) The center tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU

419) With no AC power available, what supplies fuel to operate the APU?
a) The APU is fed by a DC pump in the left main tank
b) The APU operates by suction feed
c) The APU is fed by a DC pump in the center tank

420) During preflight, you note that all main and center tank fuel pump switches are OFF but the left
forward pump PRESS light is not displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating
a) Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the APU is on and
automatically using that pump
b) Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the DC pump is on
c) No. All of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are commanded off

421) Which statement is NOT true when the EICAS caution message FUEL PRESS ENG L is
displayed?
a) The left engine will flame out from fuel starvation
b) Crossfeed may be necessary to prevent thrust decay
c) The left engine suction feeds from the left main fuel tank

422) Select the best statement from the following:

a) Fuel may be jettisoned to any minimum quantity at or above MLW
b) Fuel may be jettisoned to any quantity at or below MLW
c) Fuel may be jettisoned to a minimum quantity of 11 ,500 pounds or 5,200 kilograms in
each main tank

423) Balancing fuel requires the use of:

a) Either crossfeed valve and both pumps in the low main tank
b) Either crossfeed valve and both pumps in the high main tank
c) Both crossfeed valves and both pumps in the low main tank

424) The sequence of fuel burn is:

a) Left and right main tank to the respective engine and the center tank resupplies the main tank
fuel
b) Left and right main tank to the respective engine until reaching 11,500 pounds or 5,200
kilograms, then the center tank feeds the engines until empty, then the remaining main tank
fuel feeds
c) Center tank fuel feeds both engines until empty then the main tanks feed their
respective engines

425) When is the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER L displayed?

a) When the center tank contains fuel and the fuel pump switch is OFF
b) When the center tank is empty and the pump switch is ON
c) When the center tank fuel pump is ON and the pump output pressure is low

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426) Select the best statement from the following:
a) The left and right main tanks each contain two AC driven fuel pumps
b) The center tank contains two override pumps and two separate jettison pumps
c) The APU receives fuel from only the left main tank using a DC or AC driven pump.

427) The EICAS message FUEL IN CENTER is displayed when:

a) The center tank contains fuel
b) The center tank pump switches are OFF
c) All of the above

HYDRAULICS

428) What does the PRIMARY L ENG hydraulic pump FAULT light indicate?
a) Engine EGT is high or engine speed is low
b) The left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative
c) Hydraulic pump pressure is low or temperature is high

429) What does the DEMAND L ELEC hydraulic pump FAULT light indicate?
a) Hydraulic pump pressure is low or hydraulic pump temperature is high
b) The left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative
c) Automatic systems using the left system are faulty

430) How many hydraulic systems are needed to power enough of the flight controls for safe flight?
a) One system
b) Two systems
c) Three systems

431) How many hydraulic systems are needed to power enough of the flight controls for safe flight?
a) One system.
b) Two systems.
c) Three systems.

432) Before engine start, all primary hydraulic pumps should be “ON” and all demand pumps should
be – “ON”.
a) True.
b) False.

433) With both engines running, if the “FAULT” light of the left hydraulic demand pump illuminated
when the respective switch is in “AUTO” it means?
a) Hydraulic pump pressure of respective pumps high.
b) The left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative.
c) Hydraulic pump pressure is low or the respective pump fluid temperature is high.*

434) After engine shut down which pump should be turned off last?
a) C 1 “Demand” pump.
b) C 2 “Demand” pump.
c) Right “Demand” pump.

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435) Without the left hydraulic system, the left thrust reviser is inoperative, but “Auto land” is
available.
a) True.
b) False.

436) Before electrical power is turned on in the cockpit, what position should the hydraulic primary
and demand pumps pre-positioned too?
a) C1 & C2 primary and Demand pumps in the “OFF” position.
b) C1 & C 2 primary and Demand pumps in the “ON” position.
c) C1 & C 2 primary “ON”, all Demand pumps “OFF” position.

437) In the loss of all three hydraulic systems in flight will the “RAT” deploy automatically?
a) Yes.
b) No.

438) With the “RAT” deployed which system will receive hydraulic pressure?
a) Left hydraulic system for the flight controls.
b) Center hydraulic system for the flight controls.
c) Right hydraulic system for the thrust reversers.

439) The primary source of power that drives the left and right hydraulic system is ?
a) Electrical driven pumps.
b) Bleed air driven pumps.
c) Engine driven pumps.

440) What is the primary source of backup power for the Center hydraulic system?

a) Two engine driven pumps.

b) Two electrical and two engine driven Pumps.
c) Two electrical and two pneumatic (Bleed Air) driven pumps.

441) What hydraulic system or systems normally power the normal brakes?
a) Right.
b) Left.
c) Center.

442) When would the shut-off valves supplying fluid from the left & right reservoirs to the engine
driven pumps be closed and the engine driven pumps depressurized?
a) When the switch is ON.
b) When the Fire handle light illuminates.
c) When the appropriate Fire Handle is pulled.

443) What hydraulic system or systems normally powers the alternate brakes?
a) Left.
b) Right.
c) Center.

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444) Where can you monitor hydraulic quantity and pressure?

a) MFD STATUS page only.

b) MFD STATUS page or hydraulic synoptic display.
c) MFD STATUS page or PFD pages on the pilots panel.

445) If the left and right hydraulic systems are lost, can the center hydraulic system sufficiently
power enough of the flight controls for safe flight?
a) Yes
b) No

446) Where are hydraulic system quantities displayed?

a) Status display
b) Hydraulic synoptic display
c) All of the above

447) Which of the following causes the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?
a) Left engine is failed and center hydraulic sys pressure is low
b) Left AC transfer bus and right main AC bus are unpowered
c) Both AC transfer busses are unpowered

448) When the RAT deploys automatically due to system failures, what does it hydraulically power?
a) Alternate gear extension system
b) Normal brakes (after landing and airspeed below 60 kts)
c) Primary flight control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system

449) Autoland is inoperative for which of the following conditions?

a) Left hydraulic system pressure is low
b) Center hydraulic system pressure is low
c) Right hydraulic system pressure is low

450) What happens if both C1 and C2 DEMAND pump selectors are positioned to ON?
a) Only the C1 DEMAND pump will operate
b) Only the C2 DEMAND pump will operate
c) Both the C1 and C2 DEMAND pumps will operate

LANDING GEAR

451) Select the true statement about alternate gear extension?

a) The landing gear lever must be in the down position when using the alternate gear extension
system
b) The normal landing gear indications are displayed on EICAS
c) Landing gear may be retracted after alternate extension, if the normal system is
operating

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452) Which hydraulic system supplies pressure for landing gears retraction, extension and steering?
a) Left
b) Right
c) Center

453) Normal brake system is powered by?

a) Left
b) Right
c) Center

454) Alternate/Reserve brake system is powered by?

a) Left
b) Right
c) Center

455) What is the greatest angle that the Tiller will turn the nose wheel?
a) Up to 7 degrees.
b) Up to 70 degrees.
c) Up to 90 degrees.

456) With RTO selected, when would the brakes be applied?

a) On the ground, both thrust levers retarded to IDLE, above 100 Kts.
b) In the air, both thrust levers extended to MAX, above takeoff V2.
c) On the ground, both thrust levers retarded to IDLE, above 85 Kts.

457) For a normal landing when will the AUTOBRAKE system apply the brakes?
a) Both thrust levers to IDLE, and the wheels have spun up.
b) Both thrust levers above IDLE, and the wheels are spun up.
c) Thrust levers to IDLE, Revisers deployed to the full-extended position.

458) On Takeoff, if the main gear aft axles are not centered and locked when takeoff thrust is
applied, what would the EICAS warning message read?
a) CONFIG LAND GEAR.
b) CONFIG GEAR DOWN LOCK.
c) CDONFIG GEAR STEERING.

459) What hydraulic system powers the Landing Gear?

a) Left.
b) Right.
c) Center.

460) Antiskid protection is provided with?

a) Normal brake system only.
b) Alternate brake system only.
c) Both Normal and Alternate brake systems.

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461) Auto-brake system is available through?
a) Normal brake system only.
b) Alternate/Reserve brake system only.
c) Both Normal and Alternate brake systems.

462) With landing gears retracted and all gear doors closed, the hydraulic pressure is?
a) Automatically depressurized.
b) Never depressurized.
c) Manually depressurized by Pilot.

463) Landing gear lever position has NO effect on landing gear Alternate Extension.
a) Yes
b) No

464) Alternate landing gear extension system uses?

a) Trapped hydraulic pressure in the lines.
b) Dedicated DC powered electrical hydraulic pump and center system fluid for extension.
c) C1 & C2 hydraulic pumps.

465) Following Alternate extension, landing gears can be retracted by the?

a) Center hydraulic system.
b) Can not be retracted in any case.
c) Normal system, if it is operating.

466) Nose gear steering is powered by?

a) Right system only.
b) Center/Reserve system.
c) Center but not reserved system.

467) Main gear Aft Axle steering is powered by?

a) Left
b) Right
c) Center

468) Main gear Aft Axle steering operates?

a) Automatically when nose gear steering exceeds 13 degree.
b) Automatically when nose gear steering starts.
c) Manually by Pilots.

469) Tillers can turn the nose wheel up to?

a) 70 degree total deflection.
b) 70 degree on either side.
c) 13 degree nose wheel and 70 degree main gear aft axle.

470) Rudder pedals can be used to turn the nose wheels up to?
a) 7 degree either sides.
b) 13 degree either sides.
c) Between 7 and 13 degree depending on the rudder deflection.

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471) Brake accumulator is located in?
a) Normal brake hydraulic system.
b) Alternate/Reserve brake hydraulic system.
c) Center hydraulic system.

472) During normal system operation, RTO works if?

a) Rejected Takeoff is initiated at any speed.
b) Rejected Takeoff is initiated above 85 knots.
c) Rejected Takeoff is initiated at V1.

473) On the gear synoptic page, Pilot can view?

a) Brake temperature only.
b) Brake pressure only.
c) Both Brake temperature and pressure.

474) Select the true statement about alternate gear extension?

a) After the landing gear is extended, the main gear doors close
b) The landing gear free falls to the down and locked position
c) Landing gear cannot be retracted after alternate extension

475) Which statement is true about the rudder pedals?

a) The rudder pedals are best used for sharp turns
b) They are locked to center at high speeds
c) They control only nose wheel steering and the rudder

476) Which statement is true? Main gear steering is commanded:

a) Whenever rudder pedals must be used for sharp turns
b) When rudder pedals reach maximum deflection
c) When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 13°

477) What causes the BRAKE SOURCE light to illuminate?

a) The EICAS advisory message BRAKE SOURCE is inoperative
b) Normal and alternate brake system pressures are low
c) The alternate brake system is on battery power only

478) How do you know that the parking brake is set?

a) The EICAS memo message PARKING BRAKE SET is displayed
b) Normal and alternate brake pressures are available
c) The parking brake lever is in the up position

479) What can you say about the parking brake if the PARKING BRAKE SET message is not displayed?
a) It is not set
b) It cannot be set because the brake accumulator pressure is 15 00psi
c) The APU RUNNING message will hide the PARKING BRAKE SET message

480) Which AUTOBRAKE selector setting would you see immediately after takeoff?
a) DISARM
b) OFF
c) RTO
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481) Which autobrake mode provides the highest deceleration rate for landing?
a) AUTOBRAKE I
b) AUTOBRAKE MAX
c) AUTOBRAKE 4

WARNINGS

482) What does the CONFIG WARNING SYS advisory message indicate if it displays prior to
departure?
a) The takeoff configuration warning system and the master caution lights are inoperative
b) The takeoff configuration warning system is inoperative, or 1 or both master warning
lights, or I or both warning loudspeakers are inoperative
c) The takeoff and landing configuration warning systems, master warning lights, master caution
lights, and warning loudspeakers are all inoperative

483) Under what circumstances will information, normally displayed on the Secondary Engine
Display, appear on the Primary?
a) If the right MFD has failed.
b) If the lower MFD has failed or is occupied.
c) If the left MFD has failed.

484) What are the type(s) of messages available on EICAS?

a) Alerts, Communication, Selected Multifunction displays.
b) Warning, Cautions, Advisory, Communication Alerts and messages.
c) Selected Malfunctions, Warning and Status Messages, Alerts displays.

485) What type of EICAS message will the CANCEL/RCL switch remove?
a) Cautions and Advisories.
b) Communication and Cautions.
c) Warning and Cautions only.

486) What does it mean if an EICAS message has a white icon next to it?
a) A crew actionable normal checklist will automatically appear when the
b) CHKL switch on the DSP is pressed.
c) A crew actionable non-normal checklist will automatically appear when the CHKL
switch on the DSP is pressed.

487) What caption(s) appears on the ND if TCAS has not been selected?

a) TCAS ON in green.
b) TCAS OFF in cyan.
c) TCAS INOP in red.

488) How is the STATUS cue removed?

a) By selecting a new status condition.
b) By selecting STATUS.
c) By pressing CANCEL/RCL.

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489) The GPWS provides various warning, caution and advisory level alerts when operating below
what altitude?
a) 2450 feet radio altitude
b) 1500 feet radio altitude
c) 2450 feet barometric altitude

490) What precaution should be taken if a tail strike occurs during takeoff?
a) No special precautions are necessary
b) The airplane should not be pressurized
c) Pressurize the airplane to a lower cabin altitude

491) How is a WIND SHEAR time critical warning alert cancelled?

a) By resetting the master warning system
b) By flying out of the wind shear conditions
c) By pushing the GND PROX switch

492) What are the types of TCAS traffic alerts?

a) None, approximate, traffic resolution, other advisory
b) Other, proximate, traffic advisory, resolution advisory
c) TA/RA, TA ONLY, proximate, other

493) A filled white diamond TCAS alert indicates?

a) Other traffic
b) Proximate traffic
c) Traffic advisory (TA)

494) A filled red square TCAS alert indicates?

a) Proximate traffic
b) Traffic advisory (TA)
c) Resolution advisory (RA)

495) What does the TCAS RA F/O EICAS advisory message indicate?
a) TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the Captain’s PFD
b) TCAS is incapable of displaying RA traffic symbols on the First Officer’s ND
c) TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the First Officer’s PFD

496) What does the TCAS RA CAPTAIN EICAS advisory message indicate?
a) TCAS is incapable of displaying RA vertical guidance on the Captain’s PFD
b) TCAS is incapable of displaying RA traffic symbols on the First Officer’s ND
c) TCAS is incapable of displaying RA traffic symbols on the Captain’s ND

497) What is the purpose of airplane system status messages?

a) To alert the crew of impending system malfunctions
b) To provide crew awareness of system faults that may affect airplane dispatch
c) Status messages are for use by maintenance personnel only

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498) What is the level of urgency for a time critical warning?
a) A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and may require that crew action
be performed in a timely manner
b) A time critical warning is a crew reminder of the current state of manually or automatically
configured airplane systems
c) A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and an immediate response,
and is usually associated with flight path control

499) How long will a WIND SHEAR time critical warning remain active?
a) Until wind shear conditions are no longer detected
b) Until the master warning light reset switch is pushed
c) Until the GND PROX 0/S caution light is pushed

500) What is indicated if an amber OFF SCALE message displays on a navigation display (ND)?
a) The ATC transponder is off
b) TCAS has detected a potential traffic threat that is beyond the current selected display
range of the ND
c) TCAS cannot display vertical guidance symbols on the ND

501) All, TCAS alerts are inhibited by:

a) Wind shear alerts
b) EICAS ca messages
c) System status messages

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