23-04-2025

1016CMD303031240092 MD

CHEMISTRY

1) Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of basic strength

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)

2) Which one is an elimination reaction –

(1) CH3CH3 + Cl2 CH3CH2Cl + HCl

(2) CH3Cl + KOH(aq) → CH3OH + KCl

(3) CH2 = CH2 + Br2 CH2BrCH2Br

(4) C2H5Br + KOH(alc.) → C2H4 + KBr

3)
What is C ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4) Incorrect statement about following reaction is:

(1) Carbon free radical is involved

(2) CO2 gas is released at cathode
(3) pH of solution is increases
(4) Butane is formed as major product

5)

To make this ether, which of the following reactions will be most suitable:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

Product of following reaction will not contain –CHO group?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following carbocation is most stable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with I2 + NaOH ?

(1) Propanamide
(2) Butan-2-ol
(3) Acetophenone
(4) Both (2) and (3)

9) Assertion :- Alkyl iodide can be prepared by treating alkyl chloride/bromide with NaI in acetone.
Reason :- NaCl/NaBr are soluble in acetone while NaI is not.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Which one of the following reactions would produce secondary alcohol-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
11) Which one of the following is a free radical substitution :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)
Find the product B :

(1) CH3–CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CHO

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) CH3–CH=O and C6H5–CH=O can be distinguished by :-

(1) Tollen reagent

(2) Fehling reagent
(3) Grignard reagent
(4) LiAlH4

14) Suppose following reaction

The major product 'C' will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)
What is C ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Correct order of boiling point of given aqueous solution is –

(A) 10% glucose

(B) 10% urea

(C) 10% Na2SO4

(D) 10% sucrose

(1) C < B < A < D

(2) D < A < B < C
(3) D < A < C < B
(4) A < D < B < C

17) Consider the given figure and choose the correct answer -

(1) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1 and product is more stable than reactant
(2) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2 and product is less stable than reactant.
(3) Activation energy of backward reaction is E1 and product is more stable than reactant.
(4) Activation energy of backward reaction is E1 + E2 and product is less stable than reactant

18) Species which does not undergo disproportionation reaction is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Density of 2M NaOH (aq.) solution is 1.25 g/ml, then molality (m) of solution is -

(1) 2 m
(2) 2.25 m
(3) 1.7 m
(4) 3 m

20) Molar solubility of zirconium phosphate with molecular formula is given by

relation -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) 200 mL of 2M NaOH solution is added to 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution, then molarity (M) of
resulting solution is -

(1) 2.5
(2) 1.5
(3) 1
(4) 2

22) Consider the following cases of standard enthalpy of reaction

C2H6(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O (ℓ) ;

= –z kJ mol–1
C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ;
= –x kJ mol–1.

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(ℓ) ;

= –y kJ mol–1.
On the basis of above data, calculate ΔfHo of C2H6(g) (in kJ mol–1) :-

(1) z – 2x – 3y
(2) z – x – y
(3) 2x + 3y – z
(4) 2x + 3y + z

23) Given below are two statements

Statement-I :- for a given shell, total number of allowed orbitals is given by n.
Statement-II :- For any subshell, maximum number of electrons which can be filled is given by 2ℓ
+ 1.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false

24)
In the above diagram, the standard electrode potential are given in volts, then value of is -

(1) 0.3 V
(2) 1.3 V
(3) –0.066 V
(4) –0.3 V

25) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

Isothermal process
A. I. w = ΔU
for an ideal gas

Adiabatic process
B. II.
for an ideal gas ΔS = nRln

Spontaneous
ΔS = +ve
C. process at all III.
ΔG = 0
temperature

Melting of ice at
D. IV. ΔH = –ve, ΔS = +ve
1 atm and 0°C

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

26) 10–3 M aqueous solution of ethylamine has pH = 9 then its ionisation constant is -

(1) 10–15
(2) 10–7
(3) 10–10
(4) 10–5

27) Which of the following is a lyophobic sol ?

(1) Gold Sol

(2) Gum Sol
(3) Gelatin Sol
(4) Starch Sol

28) 2 × 10–3 moles of CO2 is left after removing 1020 molecules from x × 10–3 moles of CO2 sample,
then x is –

(1)

(2) 6

(3)
(4)

29) Given at 25°C

→ H2O(ℓ) ;
Δneut. H = –57 kJ mol–1
HA(aq.) + NaOH(aq.) → NaA(aq.) + H2O(ℓ)
Δneut. H = –53 kJ mol–1
HB(aq.) + NaOH (aq.) → NaB(aq.) + H2O(ℓ)
Δneut. H = –51 kJ mol–1
Correct statement is -

(1) ΔHionisation (HA) = 53 kJ mol

–1

(2) ΔHionisation (HB) = 51 kJ mol

–1

(3) pKa (HA) < pKa (HB)

(4) pKa (HA) < pKa (HB)

30) How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce 20 g of Ca from molten CaCl2 -

(1) 2F
(2) 1F
(3) 0.5 F
(4) 4F

31) Two elements X and Y having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 and 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 respectively,
then correct property of expected compound formed by combination of X and Y.

(1) It is ionic in nature

(2) It is covalent in nature
(3) It is neutral
(4) Can't predicted

32) Which of the following species isostructural, planner and non polar :-

(1) ClF3, BrF3, XeO3

(2)
(3)
(4)

33) The correct order of bond energy is :-

(1) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2

(2) I2 < Cl2 < Br2 < F2
(3) I2 < F2 < Br2 < Cl2
(4) Cl2 < Br2 < F2 < I2
34) Which ligand is used for removing excess of copper and iron ?

(1) EDTA and DMG

(2) Cyanoamine and Naphthol
(3) D-pencillamine and desferrioxime B
(4) Ph3P and NH3

35) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II
(Property) (Metal)

An element which can show

i a Mn
+8 oxidation state

3d series element that can show

ii b Cr
upto +7 oxidation state

3d series element with highest

iii c Os
melting point

d Fe
(1) i–c, ii–a, iii–b
(2) i–a, ii–b, iii–c
(3) i–a, ii–d, iii–d
(4) i–c, ii–b, iii–a

36) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

Optical
I. [Co(en)3]3+ a.
isomerism

Geometrical
II. [CoCl2(en)2]+ b.
isomerism

Ionisation
III. [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br. c.
isomerism

co-ordination
IV. [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] d.
isomerism
(1) I – a; II – b; III – d; IV – c
(2) I – a; II – b; III – c; IV – d
(3) I – a; II – c; III – b; IV – d
(4) I – a; II – b; III – d; IV – c

37) Which element has least ΔHeg in group 16th.

(1) Se
(2) O
(3) Te
(4) Po

38) The acid having O–O bond is :-

(1) H2S2O3
(2) H2S2O6
(3) H2S2O8
(4) H2S2O7

39)

Electronegativity scale of Pauling is based upon :-

(1) Bond energy

(2) Bond length
(3) Atomic radius
(4) Covalent radius

40)

Among the following least and most polar bonds are respectively :-
(a) C-I (b) N-O (c) C-F (d) P-F

(1) d and c
(2) a and d
(3) b and d
(4) b and c

41)

Reagent used for identifying nickel ion is :-

(1) Dimethyl glyoxime

(2) Potassium Ferrocyanide
(3) EDTA
(4) Phenolphthalein

42)

Zero group basic radical is :-

(1)
(2) Fe+3
(3) Co+2
(4) Ca+2
43) Which carbide of lanthanoid is not form when lanthanoid react with carbon at high temperature
?

(1) Ln4C3
(2) Ln2C3
(3) LnC2
(4) Ln3C

44)

Hybridisation of [PtCl4]–2 is :-

(1) sp3
(2) dsp2
(3) sp3d2
(4) d2sp3

45) Which of the following electronic arrangement is/are possible for inner orbital complex?
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
Select the correct code:

(1) I, IV
(2) II, III
(3) III only
(4) III, IV

BIOLOGY

1) When the incisions of the lamina reach upto the mid rib breaking it into number of leaflets are
called.

(1) Petiole
(2) Phyllotaxy
(3) Simple leaf
(4) Compound leaf

2) is the floral formula of :-

(1) Soyabean
(2) Pea
(3) Mustard
(4) Gram

3) Match the following column :

 Column-I Column-II

(A) Edible mesocarp (i) Coconut

(B) Endospermous seed (ii) Mango

(C) Fibrous mesocarp (iii) Bean

(D) Non-endospermous seed (iv) Castor

(E) Ovules (v) Future fruit

(F) Ovary (vi) Future seed

A B C D E F

(1) vi ii iii iv v i

(2) iv v iv iii ii i

(3) ii iv i iii vi v

(4) v vi iii i iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Subsidiary cells are the specialised cell in the

(1) Vicinity of guard cell

(2) Vicinity of root hair
(3) Vicinity of trichomes
(4) Vicinity of phloem

5) When xylem and phloem within vascular bundle are arranged in alternate manner along the
different radii, the arrangement is called?

(1) Conjoint closed

(2) Radial
(3) Conjoint open
(4) 1 & 3 both

6) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Guard cells are dumble-shaped in grasses.

(2) Outer wall of guard cells is thin and inner wall is thick.
(3) Guard cells possess chloroplast.
(4) Xylem, guard cells and the surrounding subsidiary cells are together called egg apparatus.

7) What is common among Spirogyra, Laminaria and Polysiphonia?

(1) All have immotile gametes.
(2) All have glycogen as stored food.
(3) All have chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
(4) All are autotrophic organisms.

8) Which of the following basis used by Carolus Linnaeus for two kingdom system?

(1) Cell structure

(2) Presence or absence of cell wall
(3) Phylogenetic relationship
(4) Stored food

9) Pteridophytes do not have :-

(1) Vascular tissues

(2) Stem
(3) Leaf
(4) Flower

10) Which of the following shows isogamy ?

(1) Pinus
(2) Cycas
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Cedrus

11) Which of the class of kingdom-fungi belongs to aquatic members and obligate parasites like
Albugo?

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Asomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

12) Statement-I : Dominant stage of pteridophytes consists of protonema and leafy stage.
Statement-II : Most pteridophytes produce two kind of spores-microspores and megaspores.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

13) Select the correct statement :

(1) Biological names are separately underlined when they printed.

(2) Artifical system of classification is based on all observable characters
(3) Numerical taxonomy gives equal weightage to each character
(4) Always a genus have only one specific epithet

14) Enzyme that catalyse removal of group from substrate by mechanism other than hydrolysis and
leaving double bonds are :

(1) Transferases
(2) Lyases
(3) Oxidoreductases
(4) Isomerases

15) Which of the following statement is incorrect :-

(1) Auxin inhibit flowering in pineapple

(2) Gibberellin promote bolting in beet.
(3) Zeatin is a naturally occurring cytokinin
(4) ABA stimulates the closing of stomata

16) The current availability of CO2 level is limiting to the :

(1) C4 plants
(2) C3 plants
(3) C4 & C3 plants both
(4) C2 plants

17) The primary acceptor of CO2 in maize plant is :-

(1) MA
(2) PEP
(3) OAA
(4) PGAL

18) The TCA cycle start with the condensation of acetyl CoA with ______ .

(1) PEP
(2) PGAL
(3) Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
(4) Starch

19) Breakdown of glucose in pyruvic acid is called :-

(1) C-3 Cycle

(2) Kreb's cycle
(3) Glycolysis
(4) ETS
20) Assertion : Glycerol would enter in the respiratory pathway after being converted to starch.
Reason : Glycogen is the most favoured substrate for respiration in plants.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion and reason both are incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

21) (A) They tolerate high temperature. (B) They lack photorespiration.
(C) They have great productivity of biomass.
The above characteristics are shown by.

(1) C3 plants
(2) C4 plants
(3) Dicots only
(4) Monocots only

22) Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on ability of _A_ to
regulate _B_ population ?

(1) A - Parasite; B - Predator

(2) A - Prey; B - Predator
(3) A - Predator; B - Parasite
(4) A - Predator; B-Prey

23) Which among the given age pyramids of human population represents stable population -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Choose the correct statement -

(1) Morphology and anatomy of endoparasites are greatly simplified.

(2) Parasites act as conduits of energy transfer across trophic levels.
(3) Brood parasitism is a true parasitism.
(4) Parasitic mode of life ensures catch, kill and eat by parasites.

25) Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances, this process is
called -

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Leaching
(3) Catabolism
(4) Humification

26) Select the correct statement -

(1) Small standing crop of phytoplankton can support large standing crop of zooplankton.
(2) In grassland ecosystem pyramid of energy is always upright.
(3) In grassland ecosystem pyramid of biomass is upright
(4) All of the above

27) India has more than 50000 different strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mango, this can be
explained by -

(1) Genetic diversity

(2) Species diversity
(3) Ecological diversity
(4) Community diversity

28) The IUCN Red list (2004) documents the extinction of how many species in last 500 years ?

(1) 15,500 species

(2) 784 species
(3) 359 species
(4) 338 species

29) Match column-I with column-II.

Species % of species facing threat of extinction

a. Mammal species i. 12%

b. Bird species ii. 31%

c. Gymnosperm species iii. 23%

d. Amphibian species iv. 32%

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
30) Assuming that fur colour of an animal is dark, range of colour shade and white. A cross is made
between a male (AABBCC) with dark fur colour and female (aabbcc) with white fur colour. What
would be the fur colour of F1 generation ?

(1) All intermediate colour

(2) All dark colour
(3) All white colour
(4) Range of colour shade

31) When modified allele produces a non functional enzyme then the phenotype or trait will only be
dependent on the functioning of :

(1) Modified allele

(2) Unmodified allele
(3) Both modified allele and unmodified allele
(4) Not dependent on any type of allele

32) It was found that in few cases the F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either of two parents
and was in between the two. This is a case of -

(1) Dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Co-dominance
(4) Pleiotropism

33) Which of the following statements are correct about Down's syndrome ? (a) The cause of this
genetic disorder is the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome no. 18. (Trisomy of 18)
(b) This disorder was first described by Langdon Down.
(c) The affected individual is short statured with large round head.
(d) Furrowed tongue and partially open month.

(1) All a, b, c, d are correct

(2) only a and b are correct
(3) only b and c are correct
(4) only b and d are correct

34) Match list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II
(Type of cross) (Phenotypic ratio)

(a) Monohybrid cross (i) 1:1:1:1

(b) Dihybrid cross (ii) 1:1

(c) Incomplete Dominance (iii) 1:2:1

(d) Monohybrid test cross (iv) 9:3:3:1

(e) Dihybrid test cross (v) 3:1

(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v

35) Baculoviruses are employed as :-

(1) Biogas production

(2) Biocontrol agents
(3) Sewage treatment agents
(4) Biofertilizer

36) Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column I Column II

Saccharomyces Production of product for removal

(A) (i)
cerevisiae of clot

Production of immunosuppressive
(B) Monascus purpureus (ii)
agents

Trichoderma Production of blood cholesterol

(C) (iii)
polysporum lowering agent

(D) Streptococcus (iv) Commercial production of ethanol

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

37) Nitrogen base of RNA are-

(1) TCGU
(2) AGCT
(3) AGCU
(4) CTAU

38) In the structure of DNA at each step of ascent, the strand turns-

(1) 20º
(2) 36º
(3) 40º
(4) 75º

39) Purines are-

(1) Single ring structures

(2) Double ring structures
(3) Linear structures
(4) Highly acidic compounds

40) Chargaff's equivalency rule is valid for-

(1) dsRNA and ssDNA

(2) dsDNA
(3) ssRNA and ssDNA
(4) ssRNA and dsDNA

41) Assertion : The repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during
density gradient centrifugation. Reason : The bulk DNA forms a minor peak.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

42) In prokaryote type of RNA polymerase is -

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 1

43) The body of ovule fuses with the funicle in the region called ___A__ .

(1) A-Placenta
(2) A-Micropyle
(3) A-Leaf base
(4) A-Hilum

44) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Embryo develops at chalazal end of the anther.

(2) The residual, persistant nucellus is known as embryosac.
The seed of Lupinus arcticus germinated and flowered after an estimated record of 10,000 years
(3)
of dormancy.
(4) In some cereals such as rice and wheat, seed lose viability with in 10 sec of their release.

45) Statement-I : Majority of plants use water for pollination.

Statement-II : Wind pollination is quite rare in grasses.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

46) Which of the following structure play a role in motility in bacteria?

(1) Pili
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Flagella
(4) Plasmid

47) How many cycles of nuclear division and cell division are completed respectively during meiosis
?

(1) One, One

(2) One, Two
(3) Two, Two
(4) Two, One

48) During different stages of cell division, cell shows structured chromosomes in place of _____.

(1) Cell wall

(2) Ribosome
(3) Nucleus
(4) Plasma membrane

49) Which of the following characters is/are common to both mitochondria and chloroplast?
(A) Semi-autonomous cell organelles
(B) Presence of DNA
(C) Role in photosynthesis
(D) Prokaryotic type of ribosome.

(1) A and C only

(2) A and B only
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, B and C

50) During maturation of insulin in human :-

(1) C peptide is removed

(2) A and B peptides are removed
(3) C peptide is added
(4) Only A peptide is removed

51) Why do non-recombinant transfarments bacteria grow on a medium containing both ampicillin
and tetra cyclin ?

(1) Because they don't contain any plasmid

(2) Because they carry both antibiotic resistance gene intact.
(3) Because they have "Ori site".
(4) Because they do not have "Ori site".

52) Select the group of aromatic amino acids :

(1) Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, tryptophan

(2) Glutamic acid, Phenylalanine, tryptophan
(3) Valine, Glutamic acid, glycine
(4) Lysin, Valine, glycine

53) Statement-I : Only primary structure of protein is necessary for the many biological activities of
proteins.
Statement-II : Adult human haemoglobin is an example of quaternary structure of protein.

(1) Statement I and Statement II both true

(2) Statement I and Statement II both false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

54) Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in -

(1) wall of blood vessels

(2) PCT
(3) Stomach
(4) Bowmans capsule

55) First true coelom is found in which phylum ?

(1) Annelids
(2) Arthropods
(3) Mollusca
(4) Aschelminthes

56) Animals of which phylum shows metagenesis ?

(1) Porifera
(2) Annelida
(3) Coelenterata
(4) Enhinodermeta

57) In which of the following vertebrates, digestive tract has additional chambers the crop and
gizzard ?

(1) Periplenata
(2) Columba
(3) Chelone
(4) Camelus

58) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct statements ?
(A) All living members of the class cyclostomata are ectoparasites on some fishes.
(B) Closed type of circulation is present in cyclostomata.
(C) In chondrichthyes notochord persists throughout the life.
(D) Chondrichthyes have circular and sucking mouth without jaw.

(1) A and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) Only A
(4) A, B and C

59) Excretory product of Tadpole larva of Frog.

(1) Ammonia
(2) Urea
(3) Uric acid
(4) (1) and (2) both

60) The fluid present in the space between the cells can be described as -

(1) Blood – Lymph

(2) Lymph – Protein content
(3) Blood – (RBCs + Platelets + Larger proteins)
(4) Lymph + Plasma Protein

61) Which of the following situation is responsible for the closure of cuspid valve (Bicuspid and
tricuspid) ?

(1) Increasing the atrial pressure than ventricular pressure.

(2) Decreasing of atrial pressure than vena cava
(3) Increasing the ventricular pressure than Atrial Pressure.
(4) Increasing the ventricular Pressure than Aortic Pressure

62) Match the Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct option -

Column - I Column - II

(a) AB+ Blood (i) Universal Donor

(b) Basophils (ii) Most abundant Blood cell

(c) Erythrocytes (iii) Least in Blood

(d) O– ve blood (iv) Universal receipient

(1) a-(i); b-(ii); c-(iii); d-(iv)
(2) a-(iv); b-(ii); c-(iii); d-(i)
(3) a-(iv); b-(iii); c-(ii); d-(i)
(4) a-(iv); b-(i); c-(ii); d-(iii)

63) How many given parts of respiratory tract are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings ?
Trachea, Tertiary bronchi, Terminal bronchioles, Secondary bronchi, Alveoli, initial bronchioles.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

64) The volume of air that will remain in the lungs after normal expiration is known as -

(1) EC
(2) FRC
(3) TLC
(4) ERV

65) Identified the correct and incorrect statements and select the correct option.
(a) Emphysema is a chronic disorder leading to fibrosis and causing serious lungs damage.
(b) Carbonic anhydrase enzyme also present in plasma.
(c) The binding of O2 with Hb is primarily related to PO2.
(d) Nearly 3 ml O2 and 7ml CO2 transported as in dissolved state per 100 ml blood.

(1) a and b is correct and c and d is incorrect.

(2) a and d is correct while b and c is incorrect.
(3) b and c is correct while a and d is incorrect.
(4) a, b and d is correct c is incorrect.

66) Glomerular filtrate formed by the glomerulus can be described as -

(1) Blood - formed elements

(2) Plasma + WBC
(3) Blood - (formed elements + Plasma Protein)
(4) Plasma + Platelets

67) Excess secretion of growth hormone in adults especially in middle age can result in severe
disfigurement (especially of the face) called:

(1) Acromegaly
(2) Cretinism
(3) Dwarfism
(4) Addison’s disease

68) The condition associated with diminished ability of the kidney to conserve water leading to water
loss and dehydration is known as:
(1) Diabetes Insipidus
(2) Renal failure
(3) Cretinism
(4) Addison’s disease

69) Grave’s disease is associated with abnormal secretion of hormones of :

(1) Thyroid Gland

(2) Parathyroid Gland
(3) Pineal Gland
(4) Pancreas

70) Match the following columns and choose the correct option :

Hormone Function

A. Adrenaline (i) BMR Regulation

B. Thyroxine (ii) Emergency response

C. Melatonin (iii) Immunosuppressive

D. Cortisol (iv) Sleep-wake cycle

Options:
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

71) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : When blood pressure is increased, ANF is secreted which causes dilation of the blood
vessels.
Statement-II : Progesterone supports pregnancy.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

72) Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of neural system ?

(1) Nephron
(2) Sarcolemma
(3) Neuron
(4) Synapse

73) Which part of the brain controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes ?
(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

74) Assertion : Electrical synapses are faster than chemical synapses.

Reason : In electrical synapse, impulse transmission occurs through neurotransmitter.

(1) Assertion and Reason both false.

(2) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Assertion and Reason both true.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

75) Which part of the muscle stores Ca+2 ions ?

(1) Sarcolemma
(2) Myofibrils
(3) Z-line
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

76) Which of the following is the disorder related to skeletal system ?

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Osteoporosis
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Tetany

77) Which gene is responsible to stop further division in a normal cell?

(1) Proto oncogene

(2) Tumor suppressor gene
(3) Gene related with programme cell death
(4) Oncogene

78) Identify the incorrect statement about common cold?

(1) It usually last for 3-7 days

(2) It spreads through air
(3) It is caused by Rhino virus
(4) It affects alveoli & accumulate fluid in lungs

79) In which of the following types of natural selection more individuals acquire peripheral character
value at both ends of the distribution curve?

(1) Stabilizing selection

(2) Disruptive selection
(3) Directional selection
(4) All of the above

80) Which of the following man was with a brain size of 1400 cc, used hide to protect their body and
burried their dead?

(1) Homo habilis

(2) Homo erectus
(3) Cromagnon man
(4) Neanderthal man

81) Select the correct answer about the figure given below.

(1) Cu-T
(2) Cu-7
(3) Implants
(4) Lippes loop

82) Which of the following set of sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable if detected
early and treated properly?

(1) Geninal warts and Genital herpes

(2) Genital herpes and Hepatitis-B
(3) Gonorrhoea and Syphilles
(4) Hepatitis-B and HIV injection

83) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct answer about them.

Column-I Column-II

A cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin

(a) Fimbriae (i)
and pubic hairs

a tiny finger like structure which lies at

(b) Bulbourethral gland (ii) the upper junction of both the labia
minora

Help in the collection of ovum after

(c) Clitoris (iii)
ovulation
 Help in the lubrication of penis during
(d) Mons pubis (iv)
coitus
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)

84) Which of the following scientists proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-
existing non-living organic molecules like RNA, protein etc?

(1) Lamarck and S.L. Miller

(2) Darwin and Hugo-De varies
(3) Darwin and A.R. Wallace
(4) Oparin and Haldane

85) When the same structures developed along different directions due to adaptation to different
needs. This is called-

(1) Analogy
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Panspermia
(4) Divergent evolution

86) The excessive use of drugs or antibiotics in microbes has only resulted in the selection of drug or
antibiotic resistant varieties in a much lesser time scale. This is an example of evolution by :-

(1) Industrial melanism

(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Anthropogenic action
(4) Convergent evolution

87) In the male reproductive system which of the following cells provide nutrition to germ cells and
secrete androgen bonding protein also?

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Immunologically competent cells
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Follicular cells

88) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option about them.

Column-I Column-II

Lactational Male withdraws his penis from vagina

(a) (i)
Amenorrhea just before ejaculation

(b) Coitus interruptus (ii) Suppress the sperm motility

 Absence of menstrual cycle during
(c) Diaphragms (iii)
the period of intense lactation

(d) Cu-T (iv) Cover the cervix during coitus

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)

89) Which of the following hormones are produced by placenta in a women only during pregnancy ?

(1) Progesterone, Estrogen, Relexin, FSH

(2) Progesterone, HPL, Relexin, LH
(3) HCG, HPL, Estrogen, FSH
(4) HCG, HPL, Relexin

90) According to Hardy-Weinberg principle the allelic frequencies in a sexually reproducing and
randomly mating population are-

(1) Stable but not constant from generation to generation

(2) Not stable but is constant from generation to generation
(3) Stable and is constant from generation to generation
(4) Represented by 2p2 + pq + q2 = 0

PHYSICS

1) A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed u. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed u/4, the closest

distance of approach would be :

(1) 4r
(2) 16r
(3) r/2
(4) r/4

2) An electric dipole of dipole moment P is kept perpendicular to the plane of two large charged

conducting plates as shown. The potential energy of the dipole is given as -

(1) zero
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The capacity and the energy stored in a charged parallel plate condenser with air between its
plates are respectively C0 and W0. If the air is replaced by glass (dielectric constant = 4) between the
plates, the capacity of the plates and the energy stored in it will respectively be :-

(1) 4C0, 4W0

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) In the network of resistances as shown in figure, the effective resistance between points A and B

is :-

(1) 8 R
(2) 5R
(3) (5/3) R
(4) (8/3) R

5) If the power dissipated in the 12 Ω resistance is 12 W, then the power dissipated in 6 Ω will be:-

(1) 96 W
(2) 3 W
(3) 8 W
(4) 48 W

6) Consider the following statements –

(A) Biot savart's law gives magnetic field due to a current element which is a vector quantity.
(B) A point charge moving with uniform velocity produces magnetic field only.

(1) Both A & B are correct.

(2) A is correct, B is wrong
(3) A is wrong, B is correct
(4) Both are wrong

7) A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 10 × 104 JT–1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A
horizontal magnetic field B = 5 × 10–4 T exist in the space. The work done in taking the magnet
slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° from the field is

(1) 0.5 J
(2) 25 J
(3) 8 J
(4) 10 J

8) In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.5 ×
1010 Hz and amplitude 1260 V/m. The amplitude of oscillating magnetic field will be :

(1) 2.1 × 10–6 Wb/m2

(2) 2.1 × 10–7 Wb/m2
(3) 4.2 × 10–6 Wb/m2
(4) 4.2 × 10–7 Wb/m2

9) A convex lens of focal length 20 cm, a concave lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens of
focal length 30 cm are placed in contact. The power of the combination in dioptre is :

(1) +3.33
(2) –3.33
(3) +6.67
(4) –6.67

10) Two beams of light having Intensities I and 9I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen.
The phase difference between the beam is "π" at point A and "2π" at point B. Then find out the
difference between the resultant intensities at A and B.

(1) 4I
(2) 8I
(3) 12I
(4) 9I

11) Find the polarization angle of a light ray going from air in a medium in which the speed of light
is 2 × 108 m/s :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) 100X244 YP, then P & Q will be :-

Q

(1) 232, 96
(2) 230 ,98
(3) 228, 92
(4) 232, 98

13) Let T2 and T1 be the energy of an electron in the first and third excited states of hydrogen atom,
respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio T 1 : T2 is :

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 1 : 4

14) When a certain metal surface is illuminated with light of frequency ν, the stopping potential for
photo electric current is V0. When the same surface is illuminated by light of frequency ν/3, the

stopping potential is . The threshold frequency for photoelectric emission is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The innermost orbit of the hydrogen atom has a diameter of 1.06 Å. What is the diameter of the
fifth orbit ?

(1) 2.65 Å
(2) 10.6 Å
(3) 26.5 Å
(4) 106 Å

16) How many photons of wavelength λ = 3300 nm must strike a totally reflecting screen per second
at normal incidence so as to exert a force of 1µN ?

(1) 5 × 1021 photon/sec

(2) 2.5 × 1021 photon/sec
(3) 10 × 1021 photon/sec
(4) 5 × 1019 photon/sec
17) A 9V stabilised voltage supply is required to run a car stereo system from the car's 15V battery.
A zener diode with Vz = 9V and Pmax = 0.27 W is to be used as the voltage regulator. The load

resistance is 450Ω. The value of series resistor is :

(1) 120Ω
(2) 150Ω
(3) 100Ω
(4) 90Ω

18) A waveform shown when applied to the following circuit will produce which of the following
output waveform. Assuming ideal diode configuration and R1 = R2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A gas is filled in a vessel of volume 20 m3 at pressure 30 kPa. If it is connected with an evacuated
container of volume 10 m3 then find change in pressure of gas (At constant temperature) :-

(1)

(2) 20 kPa

(3)

(4) 10 kPa

20) Which of the substances P, Q or R of same mass has the highest specific heat if heat supply rate
is same? The temperature v/s time graph is shown

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) All have equal specific heat

21) The equation of a plane progressive wave is

y = 0.01 sin 10π

When it is reflected at a rarer medium, its amplitude becomes 90% of its pervious value. The
equation of reflected wave is :

(1)
y = 0.009 sin 10π
y = 0.9 sin 10π
(2)

(3)
y = –0.009 sin 10π

(4)
y = 0.009 sin 10π

22) Two sound sources produce progressive waves given by :-

y1 = 5 sin (250 πt)
and y2 = 3 sin (260 πt)
A person situated nearby will hear :-

(1) five beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 4 : 3
(2) five beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 16 : 1
(3) ten beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 7 : 2
(4) ten beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 4 : 3

23) The variation of potential energy of harmonic oscillator is as shown in figure. The spring

constant is

(1) 1 × 102 N/m

(2) 150N/m
(3) 8 × 102 N/m
(4) 3 × 102 N/m

24) Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio 16 : 9. Then, the
ratio of their volume is :-

(1) 27 : 64
(2) 9 : 16
(3) 16 : 9
(4) 64 : 27

25) From an inclined plane a solid sphere, a disc, a ring and a spherical shell of same radius are
rolled without slipping from the same height simultaneously. The decreasing order of their velocity
when reaching at the base will be :-

(1) Ring, shell, disc, sphere

(2) Shell, sphere, disc, ring
(3) Sphere, disc, shell, ring
(4) Ring, sphere, disc, shell

26) Two point masses A & B of masses m and 2m are attached at the ends of the rod and both are
revolving together about their centre of mass. Then the ratio of linear speeds of A and B will be

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

27) A bullet of mass m moving vertically upwards instantaneously with a velocity 'u' hits the hanging
block of mass '3m' and gets embedded in it, as shown in the figure. The height through which the

block rises after the collision (assume sufficient space above block) is :

(1) u2/2g
(2) u2/32g
(3) u2/8g
(4) u2/4g

28) Figure shows a plot of the conservative force F in a unidimensional field. The plot representing

the function corresponding to the potential energy (U) in the field is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Given where F is force, x is distance and t is time. The dimensions of is :-

(1) M–1L–1T
(2) M–1L–2T
(3) ML–1T–1
(4) M–1L1T1

30) A body moves in a straight line for which graph of vx vs x is shown in the figure. Find the

magnitude of acceleration of the body (in m/s2) at x = 2m.

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 4
(4) 3

31) A particle starts from rest and undergoes an acceleration which varies with time as shown in

figure. The velocity-time graph from figure will have shape.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The value of R in the circuit should be :-

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 1.5 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) 5 Ω
33) In a circuit a coil of resistance 4Ω, then magnetic flux changes from 4.0 Wb to 16.0 Wb in 0.2
sec. The induced charge in the coil during this time is :–

(1) 5.0 C
(2) 3.0 C
(3) 1.0 C
(4) 0.8 C

34) Refractive index of equiconvex lens is 1.7 & its radius of curvature is 21 cm. Its focal length will
be :-

(1) 15 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 1 cm

35) If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 37°, the velocity of
light in the medium is

(1) 3 × 108 m/s

(2) 1.8 × 108 m/s
(3) 6 × 108 m/s
(4) × 108 m/s

36) Which represents AND gate?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If the length of a cylinder on heating increases by 4%, the area of its base will increase by:

(1) 5%
(2) 8%
(3) 6%
(4) 4%

38) A black body has wavelength λm corresponding to maximum radiant energy at temperature
2000K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 6000K will be.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A wire has strain of 10–3 when a stress of 1 × 109 N/m2 is applied to it. Young's modulus of
material of wire is

(1) 1011 N/m2

(2) 1012 N/m2
(3) 108 N/m2
(4) 106 N/m2

40) The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th of its weight on the surface of earth
(radius of earth is R)

(1) h = 3R
(2) h = R

(3)
h=
(4) h = 2R

41) A ring of radius 1 m and mass 20 kg is rotating about its diameter with angular velocity of 40
rad/s. Its kinetic energy is

(1) 10 J
(2) 1000 J
(3) 2000 J
(4) 8000 J

42) A string breaks if its tension exceeds 10 newton. A stone of mass 100 gm tied to this string of
length 50 cm is rotated in a horizontal circle. The maximum angular velocity of rotation can be

(1) 10 rad/s
(2) rad/s
(3) 100 rad/s
(4) 200 rad/s

43) Distance moved by a screw in 2 rotation is 1 mm and total number of circular divisions is 100.
The leastcount of the screwguage is :-

(1) 0.005 mm
(2) 0.001 cm
(3) 0.0001 cm
(4) 0.001 mm
44) Two forces of 9N and 3N are acting on the two blocks of 2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor.

What is the force exerted on 2kg block by 1kg block ?

(1) 1N
(2) 2N
(3) 4N
(4) 5N

45) A particle projected from origin follows the trajectory , where x-axis is along horizontal
direction and y-axis is along vertical direction. Find the horizontal range of projectile :-

(1) 27 m
(2) 9 m
(3)
(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

CHEMISTRY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 2 2 4 3 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 4 3 2 2 1 1 4 2 2 4 3 3 1 2 2 3 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 3 1 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 1 3 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 2 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
A. 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 3 3 1 2 1 3 2 1 3 2 4 1 3
Q. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125
A. 3 3 2 2 3 3 1 1 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 2 4
Q. 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 4 4 4 3 3 2 4 3

PHYSICS

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 2 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 2 1 3 4 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 2 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 1 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

CHEMISTRY

1)

Basic strength

2)

Hybridization of carbon atom is changed from therefore the above reaction is an

elimination reaction.

5)

E2 will be favoured in option 1 whereas will be favoured in option 2.

10)

15)

31) Due to polarisation as compound is BeCl2

45)

Inner orbital complex means in presence of strong field ligand.

BIOLOGY

46) NCERT Pg. No. # 59

48) NCERT Pg. No. # 64, 65, 66

49) NCERT Pg. No. # 71

51) NCERT Pg. No. # 71

52) NCERT XI Page No. 26, 27, 28

53) NCERT XI, Page No. 10

54) NCERT XI, Page No. 30, 32

55) NCERT XI, Page No. 24

56) NCERT XI, Page No. 17

57) NCERT XI, Page No. 30, 32

58) NCERT XI, Page No. 4, 7, 23, 24

59) NCERT Pg # 117

60) NCERT Pg # 175-177

61) NCERT Pg # 150

62) NCERT Pg # 146

63) NCERT Pg # 158

64) NCERT Pg # 156

65) NCERT Pg # 162

66) NCERT Pg # 146

67) NCERT Page No. 197

68) NCERT Page No. 192

69) NCERT Page No. 200

70) NCERT Page No. 207

71) NCERT Page No. 212

72) NCERT Page No. 217

73) NCERT Page No. 221

74) NCERT Page No. 222

75) NCERT-XII, Pg#69

76) NCERT-XII, Pg#61

77) NCERT-XII, Pg#60

78) NCERT-XII, Pg#76

79) NCERT-XII, Pg#55,56,57,59

80) NCERT XII Pg # 157

81) NCERT XII Pg # 152, 153

82) NCERT Pg # 81

83) NCERT Pg # 81

84) NCERT Pg # 81

85) NCERT Pg # 81

86) NCERT Pg # 105

87) NCERTG Pg # 94

88) NCERT Pg # 9
89) NCERT Pg # 8, 19, 20, 22

90) NCERT Pg # 12, 13

91) NCERT-XI, Page No.: 91

92) NCERT-XI, Page No.: 125

93) NCERT-XI, Page No.: 101

94) NCERT-XI, Page No.: 97, 98

95) NCERT-XII Pg#182(E), 199(H)

96) NCERT-XII Pg#170(E), 219(H)

97) NCERT-XII Pg#106(E), 106(H)

98) NCERT-XII Pg#111,112 (E), 111,112(H)

99) NCERT-XII Pg#209

100) NCERT-XII Pg#39

101) NCERT-XII Pg#41

102) NCERT-XII Pg#49

103) NCERT-XII Pg#47

104) NCERT-XII Pg # 82

105) NCERT Pg. No. 203

106) NCERT Page No. # 199/200

107) NCERT Pg. No. 194/195

108) NCERT Pg. No. 184

109) NCERT Pg. No. 187

110) NCERT Pg. No. 189/190

111) NCERT Pg. No. # 208

112) NCERT Page No. #241

113) NCERT Page No. #242

114) NCERT Page No. #244

115) NCERT Page No. #242, 243, 244

116) NCERT Page No. #247

117) NCERT Pg. No. # 232

118) NCERT Pg. No. # 236

119) NCERT Pg. No. # 234

120) NCERT Pg. No. # 219

121) NCERT Pg. No. # 227

122)

NCERT Page No.: 141(E), 154(H)

123) NCERT Page No.: 131(E)

124) NCERT Page No.: 121

125) NCERT Page No.: 125

126) NCERT Page No.: 44

 127) NCERT Page No.: 47, Para.: 3.4

128) NCERT Page No.: 28-30

129) NCERT Page No.: 111

130) NCERT Page No.: 114

131) NCERT Page No.: 116

132) NCERT Page No.: 27

133) NCERT Page No.: 44

134) NCERT Page No.: 37

135) NCERT Page No.: 120, 121

PHYSICS

136)

Applying law of energy conservation

T.KE = T. PE

...(i)

...(ii)
(i) ÷ (ii)

137) Udipole =

= –P =

138) When a dielectric K is introduced in a parallel plate condenser its capacity becomes K
times.
Hence C' = 4C0.

Energy stored
139) Balanced W.S.B.

140)

P12 = 12W

i2 =
∵

i = 16
2

i = 4A
so P3 = i2 × 6 = (4)2 × 6 = 96 W

142)

W = MB (1 – cos 60°) = 25 J

143) =C

B= = 4.2 × 10–6 Wb/m2

144)

For equivalent focal length,

 ⇒
Since, power i.e., P (in D)

= –3.33 D

145)

At point A,
IA = I + 9I + 2 cos π
= 4I
At point B,
IB = I + 9I + 2 cos 2π
= 16I
∴ IB – IA = 16I – 4I = 12I

146) ∵ μ =
From Brewstar's law

∴ iP = tan–1 (μ) = tan–1

147)

148) First excited state ⇒ n = 2

Third excited state ⇒ n = 4

0
149) Using, V = ........(1)

........(2)

On solving,

150)

Diameter or radius ∝ n2
⇒ D = 25 × 1.06 Å
= 26.50 Å

151) Momentum of the incident photon p = ,

Momentum after reflection = –

Change in momentum = Δp =
If n is the number of photons falling per second on the screen then force

F=

⇒n=
= 2.5 × 1021 photons s–1

152)

RS = 120Ω

153) The P-N junction will conduct only when it is forward biased i.e. when + 5V is fed to it, so
it will conduct for 2nd and 4th quarter part of signal shown and when it conducts potential drop
5 volt will be across both the resistors, so output voltage across R2 is 2.5V.
∴ V0 = + 2.5V

154) P1V1 = P2V2

30 × 20 = P2 × 30
Change in pressure = 30 – 20 = 10kPa

155)

For constant heat flow rate (Q)

msdT = Qdt

For high specific heat, slope is lower that is for P.

156)
No phase change at rarer medium.

So y = 0.009 sin 10π

157) Δn = n1 – n2
= 130 – 125 = 5b/s

158)

⇒
⇒ k = 8 × 102 N/m

159)

160) Velocity of the rolling body when it reach the bottom

161)
mArA = mBrB ⇒ =2
∵ ωA = ωB

162)

inelastic collision
mu = 4mV

COME = 4 mgh

163)

or
Here F(x) = –kx, where k is a positive constant.

U(x) =
i.e. parabola

164)

= M–1L–2T

165) Here and v = 3 at x = 2

so a = v = 3(–1) = –3
∴ Magnitude of acceleration = 3 m/s2

166)
a = constant ⇒

167) Apply KVL from A to B

–20 + 2 × 1 + 2 × R + 2 × 4 = 0
R=5Ω
Hence option (4)
168) induced charge q = =
= 3.0 C

169)

f = 15 cm

170)

171) NAND + NOT = AND

172) = 8%

173)

174)

175)

176)

R = 1 m ; m = 20 kg ; ω = 40 rad s–1

K.E. = Iω2 =
= = 8000 J

177)

rad/sec

178)

Pitch =

LC =
= 0.005 mm

179)

N–3=1×a
N = 3 + 2 = 5N

180)
compare with

y = xtanθ