NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 / NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Nov 8527521718 Nov 8527521718

Physics - Section A 4 Consider a thin circular ring (A), a circular disc (B), a 6 The load versus elongation graph for four wires, all of 10 A cube is floating in a liquid as shown in the figure.
hollow Cylinder (C) and a solid cylinder (D) of the same the same length and made from the same material, is shown in Match the items in Column I with those in Column II:
Consider two satellites, S1 and S2 , with periods of radii R and of the same masses. the figure. One of the lines corresponds to the thinnest wire.
1
revolution 1 hr and 8 hr, respectively revolving around a
planet in circular orbits. The ratio of the angular velocity of
the satellite S1 to the angular velocity of the satellite S2 is:
1. 8 : 1
2. 1 : 4 (A) (B)
3. 2 : 1
4. 1 : 8 Column-I Column-II
If the density of the liquid decreases,
2 (A) (P) increase
2 A steel plate of face area 1 cm and thickness 4 cm is x will
(C) (D)
rigidly fixed at the lower surface. The tangential force If the size of the cube is increased, x
If IA , IB , IC and ID are their moments of inertia about the axis (B) (Q) decrease
F = 10 kN is applied on the upper surface, as shown in the Which line represents the thinnest wire? will
shown, then choose the correct answer from the options given
figure. The lateral displacement x of the upper surface with below: 1. OC If the whole system is accelerated remain the
(C) (R)
respect to the lower surface is: 2. OD upwards, x will same
1. IA = IC and 2IB = ID
(given, the modulus of rigidly for steel is 8 × 1011 N/m2 ) 2. IA = 2IB and 2IC = ID
3. OA Codes:
4. OB
3. 2IA = IC and IB = 2ID 1. A-P, B-P, C-R
4. IA = IB = IC = 2ID 7 An apple drops from a tree. Which of the following
2. A-P, B-Q, C-R
statements is true during its fall? 3. A-R, B-P, C-Q
5 An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform cross-sectional
1. The momentum of the apple is conserved. 4. A-Q, B-P, C-R
tube XY (as shown in the figure) from end X to end Y . If K1 2. The momentum of the apple and the Earth is conserved.
and K2 are the kinetic energies per unit volume of the fluid at Momentum is not conserved unless another force balances Two balls are thrown simultaneously in the air. The
X and Y respectively, the correct relationship between K1 ​and 3. 11
1. 5.0 × 10−5 m gravity.
acceleration of the centre of mass of the two balls while in the
K2 ​is:
2. 5.0 × 10−6 m 4. The impulse received by the apple is zero. air:
3. 2.5 × 10−3 m 1. depends on the direction of the motion of the balls
4. 2.5 × 10−4 m 8 Given below are two statements:
2. depends on the masses of the two balls
The orbit of a satellite lies within Earth's 3. depends on the speeds of the two balls
3 A constant external torque, τ acts for a very brief period,
Assertion (A): gravitational field, while escaping occurs 4. is equal to g
Δt on a rotating system having a moment of inertia, I. beyond the Earth's gravitational field.
Consider the following statements: The orbital velocity of a satellite is greater For a planet moving in an elliptical orbit around the Sun,
The angular momentum of the system will change by Reason (R): 12
(A) than its escape velocity.
τΔt. which of the following quantities remain constant?
τΔt 1. K1 =K2 (A) The total energy of the planet-Sun system
(B) The angular velocity of the system will change by . Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
I 2. 2K 1 =K2 1. (B) The angular momentum of the planet about the Sun
explanation of (A).
If the system was initially at rest, it will acquire rotational 3. K1 > K2 (C) The force of attraction between the planet and the Sun
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
(C) (τΔt)2 4. K1 < K2 2.
kinetic energy . explanation of (A). (D) The linear momentum of the planet
2I
(τΔt)2
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
(D) The kinetic energy of the system will change by . 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. Choose the correct option from the options given below:
I
1. (A), (B) and (C) only
Choose the correct option from the options given below: 9 Work done by the restoring force in a wire within its 2. (A) and (B) only
1. (A), (B) and (C) only elastic limit is −10 J. The maximum amount of heat produced 3. (B) and (D) only
2. (A) and (B) only in the wire is: 4. (B), (C) and (D) only
3. (B) and (D) only 1. 10 J
4. (B), (C) and (D) only 2. 20 J
3. 5 J
4. 15 J

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 NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 / NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Nov 8527521718 Nov 8527521718

13 Elastic forces are: 17 The law of gravitation states that the gravitational force 22 The three vessels shown in the figure have the same base 26 The viscous drag acting on a metal sphere of diameter 1
1. always conservative between two bodies of mass m1 and m2 is given by: areas. Equal volumes of water are poured into each vessel. mm, falling through a fluid of viscosity 0.8 Pa-s with a
2. not always conservative F=
Gm1 m2 The force on the base will be: velocity of 2 m s–1 is nearly equal to:
3. never conservative r2 1. 15 × 10−3 N
2 −2
G (gravitational constant) = 7 × 10−11 N-m kg . 2. 30 × 10−3 N
4. none of the above
r (distance between the two bodies) in the case of the Earth 3. 1.5 × 10−3 N
A flywheel, rotating about its axis, has a moment of and Moon = 4 × 108 m 4. 20 × 10−3 N
14 m1 (Earth) = 6 × 1024 kg
inertia 0.16 kg-m2. Its angular momentum decreases from 3.2 m2 (Moon) = 7 × 1022 kg 27 Given below are two statements:
kg-m2/s to 0.8 kg-m2/s in 1.2 s. The magnitude of average What is the gravitational force between the Earth and the
A person standing on a rotating platform
torque acting on the flywheel is: Moon?
1. maximum in A Assertion (A): suddenly stretches their arms, causing the
1. 2 N-m 1. 1.8375 × 1019 N
2. maximum in B platform to slow down.
2. 3.2 N-m 2. 1.8375 × 1020 N
3. 1.6 N-m 3. maximum in C Reason (R): Angular momentum is conserved.
3. 1.8375 × 1025 N 4. equal in all vessels
4. 0.5 N-m 4. 1.8375 × 1026 N
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
23 A particle of mass m is kept at rest at a height 3R from 1.
15 The lengths and radii of four wires made up of the same explanation of (A).
18 A steel wire of length 3.2 m (YS = 2.0 × 1011 N m–2 )
material are given below. Which of these will have the largest the surface of the Earth, where R is the radius of Earth and M Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
and a copper wire of length 4.4 m (YC = 1.1 × 1011 N m–2 ), is the mass of the Earth. The minimum speed with which it 2.
extension when the same tension is applied? explanation of (A).
1. L = 50 cm, r = 0.25 mm both having a radius 1.4 mm, are connected end to end. When should be projected, so that it does not return, is: 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. L = 100 cm, r = 0.5 mm a load is applied, the net stretch of the combined wires is (where g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
found to be 1.4 mm. The magnitude of the load applied, in the Earth)
3. L = 200 cm, r = 2 mm
22
Newtons, will be: (use, π = )
1 1
4. L = 250 cm, r = 2.5 mm GM 2 gR A body weighing 100 N on the surface of Earth weights
( ) ( ) 28
2
7 1. 2.
2R 4 1
A wooden sphere is at rest at the bottom of a lake. The 1. 360 −2
16 2. 180
1 1 x kg-ms at a height
9
RE above the surface of Earth. The
2g 2 GM 2
plot of the velocity-time ((v-t) graph, when the wooden 3. 1080
3. ( ) 4. ( ) value of x is:
R R −2
sphere comes up, will be best represented by: 4. 154 (take g = 10 m s at the surface of Earth and RE is the
The time dependence of the position of a particle with radius of Earth)
19 The magnitude of the gravitational potential energy of a 24 1. 72
mass m = 2 kg is given by: 2. 54
body at a distance r (where r > RE , radius of the Earth) from
1. 2. the centre of the Earth is U . The weight of the body at that r→(t) = (2t^i − 3t2 ^j) m. 3. 81
point is: Its angular momentum, with respect to the origin, at time 4. 62
U t = 2 s is:
1. Ur 2. ^ kg-m2/s 29 Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the
r 1. 36 k
3. Ur2 4. Ur3 2. −48 k ^ kg-m2/s streamline flow of a liquid out of a tank?
3. −34(k ^ − ^i) kg-m2/s
20 A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of
4. 48( i + ^j) kg-m2/s
^
3. 4. 3.0 N when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the
gravitational field intensity at that point is: 25 The wheel of a motor, accelerated uniformly from rest,
1. 2.
1. 180 N/kg 2. 0.05 N/kg rotates through 2.5 rad in the first second. The angle rotated
3. 50 N/kg 4. 20 N/kg during the next second will be:
1. 2.5 rad
21 The elongation of a wire on the surface of the Earth is 2. 5 rad
3. 7.5 rad
10−4 m. The same wire, of the same dimensions, elongates by
4. 10 rad
6 × 10−5 m on another planet. The acceleration due to gravity
on the planet will be:
(take acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth as 3. 4.
10 m s-2)
1. 5 ms-2
2. 6 ms-2
3. 7 ms-2
4. 8 ms-2

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 NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 / NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Nov 8527521718 Nov 8527521718

30 A beam positioned on a fulcrum is 6 m long. It has a 33 A particle is moving along a circular path with a radius of 37 A uniform ladder of length l stays balanced on the rough 38 Water is flowing through a tube of radius r with a speed
weight of 300 N attached to one end and a weight of 250 N 50 cm and a linear velocity of 4 m/s. The angular velocity of ground (coefficient of friction = μ) at an angle of 45∘ , while r
v. If this tube is joined to another tube of radius , what is the
attached to the other end. the particle is: leaning against a smooth vertical wall. The weight of the rod 2
is W . Different physical quantities associated with this system speed of water in the second tube?
1. 4 rad/s 2. 5 rad/s v v
3. 8 rad/s 4. 10 rad/s are mentioned in column I & their values in column II, but in 1. 2.
a different order. 4 2
3. 2v 4. 4v
34 Water on the surface of a river 10 m deep is observed to
be flowing at 5 m/s. The shearing stress between horizontal 39 The breaking stress in two wires of different materials
layers of the river is: SA 1
(η = 10−3 SI units) A, B are in the ratio: = , while their radii are in the
SB 2
To establish mechanical equilibrium, the fulcrum must be 1. 10−3 N/m2 rA 1
ratio: = . The tensions under which they break are TA
placed: 2. 0.8 × 10−3 N/m2 rB 2
1. 2.87 m from the 250-N weight 3. 0.5 × 10−3 N/m2 TA
and TB . Then =?
2. 3.00 m from the 250-N weight 4. 1 N/m2 TB
3. 3.27 m from the 250-N weight 1
1. 2 2.
4. 5.67 m from the 250-N weight 35 The normal density of a material is ρ and its bulk 4
Column I Column II 1
1
modulus of elasticity is K . The magnitude of the increase in Force exerted by the wall (as a multiple of W 1 3. 4.
31 A particle is moving along a straight line with increasing the density of material when a pressure P is applied uniformly (A) (I) 8 2√2
) 2√2
speed. What happens to its angular momentum about a fixed on all sides, will be:
Torque due to the force from the wall about √5 40 The angles of contact between the capillary tubes and
point on this line? ρK ρP (B) (II)
1. 2. the bottom of the ladder (in units of W ⋅ l) 2
1. It continuously increases. P K three liquids in three containers A, B, and C are 30∘ , 90∘ and
K PK Force of reaction from the ground (in units of 1 120∘ respectively. The level of liquid inside the capillary tubes
2. It continuously decreases. (C) (III)
3. 4. W) 2 in containers:
It may either increase or decrease depending on the Pρ ρ
3. The minimum value of μ for which the 1 1. falls in B and rises in C
direction of motion. (D) (IV)
system will be in equilibrium
4. It remains zero. Physics - Section B √2 2. rises in A and neither rises nor falls in B
3. falls in C and rises in B
The variation of gravitational potential V due to a 1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-II
32 36 Three identical uniform rings, each of mass m & radius 4. falls in A and neither rises nor falls in B
uniform thin spherical shell as a function of the distance r 2. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-III
r, are joined together so that their centres lie in an equilateral
from the centre of the shell is accurately represented by: 3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I Based on the information provided below, answer the
triangle, and the rings touch each other at their edges. The
(where R is the radius of the shell) ​ 4. A-II, B-I, C-I, D-II questions (41-43).
moment of inertia of this system, about an axis perpendicular
A uniform rod AB, of mass 0.5 kg is connected radially to a
to the plane of the rings & passing through the centre of any
uniform solid sphere of equal mass and radius 0.5 m.
ring, is:

(a) (b)

41 The centre-of-mass of the system is located at distance,

1. 3mr2 2. 7mr2
from A, of:
3. 11mr2 4. 5.5mr2 1. 1 m
2. 3 m
3. 2.5 m
(c) (d) 4. 3.25 m

1. (a) 2. (b) 42 The moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing
3. (c) 4. (d) through B, perpendicular to the rod, equals:
3 2 3 2
1. kg-m 2. kg-m
8 4
2 3 2
3. 3 kg-m 4. 2
kg-m

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 NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 / NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Nov 8527521718 Nov 8527521718

43 The moment of inertia of the sphere about an axis 46 n drops of a liquid, each with surface energy E, join to 49 The 2 kg block is connected by a light rope which wraps 52 The following equilibrium is established when hydrogen
passing through B, perpendicular to the rod, equals: form a single drop. around the pulley. The pulley has a radius of 50 cm and a chloride is dissolved in acetic acid:
1 5 2 +
2 2 (A) Some energy will be released in the process. moment of inertia of 0.5 kg-m . Assuming that the rope does HCl + CH3 COOH ⇌ Cl− + CH3 COOH2
1. 12
kg-m 2. 24
kg-m
(B) Some energy will be absorbed in the process. not slip on the pulley, the acceleration of the 2 kg block is: The set that characterizes the conjugate acid-base pair is:
1 2 7 2
3.
20
kg-m 4.
40
kg-m (C) The energy released or absorbed will be E(n − n2/3 ). 1. (HCl, CH3 COOH) and (CH3 COOH2+ , Cl− )
(D) The energy released or absorbed will be nE(22/3 − 1). 2. (HCl, CH3 COOH2+ ) and (CH3 COOH, Cl− )
44 A liquid of density ρ flows through a bent tube of cross- 3. (CH3 COOH2+ , HCl) and (Cl− , CH3 COOH)
Choose the correct option from the options given below:
section A, with a speed v. The liquid enters at point A and 1. (A) and (C) only 4. (HCl, Cl− )and (CH3 COOH2+ , CH3 COOH)
exits at B in the opposite direction. The radius of the bend is
2. (A) and (B) only
R. The tube lies on a horizontal table. The force required to Which of the following substances has a non-zero
hold the tube equals: 3. (B) and (D) only 53
4. (B), (C) and (D) only standard enthalpy of formation?
1. C (graphite)
g 2g
A liquid column of height 0.02 cm balances the excess 1. 2. 2. O2(g)
47 2 5 3. P4(white)
pressure inside a soap bubble with a radius of 7.5 mm. The g 4g
3. 4. 4. Br2(g)
density of the liquid is: 3 5
−1
(surface tension of the soap solution is 0.03 N m and
−2 54 The Ksp of Ag2 CrO4 is 1.1 × 10−12 at 298 K. The
acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s ) 50 Given below are two statements:
solubility (in mol/L) of Ag2 CrO4 in a 0.1MAgNO3 solution
1. 8 × 102 kg m−3 2. 8 × 103 kg m−3 The instantaneous angular velocities of all the
Statement I: is:
3. 4 × 10 kg m2 −3 3
4. 4 × 10 kg m −3 particles of a rotating rigid body are the same. 1. 1.1 × 10−11
The centre-of-mass of a rigid body or a system 2. 1.1 × 10−10
1. ρAv2 2. 2ρAv2 Statement II: of bodies does not change if it is initially at
48 Two blocks are joined by a light spring of spring 3. 1.1 × 10−12
3. √2ρAv2 4. ρv2 πR2 rest. 4. 1.1 × 10−9
constant, k = 1000 N/m, and are placed at rest on a horizontal
frictionless table. A horizontal force of 6 N acts on the 2 kg
45 The rate of flow of a viscous fluid through a pipe varies 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. For maximum work in a closed system, the process must
block. The acceleration of the centre-of-mass of the system is: 55
with the pressure difference (P1 − P2 ) across the pipe, and its 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. be:
length L. Consider the following statements, and choose the 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 1. Irreversible
correct option. 4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. 2. Reversible
3. Adiabatic
4. None of the above
Chemistry - Section A
56 In the following reaction, X, Y and Z are respectively:
1. 3 m/s2 Which of the following best describes the behavior of an
51 XZn + NO− + Y H + → XZn2+ + NH4+ + ZH2 O
2. 2 m/s2 3
ideal gas during isothermal expansion? 1. 4, 10, 3
3. 1.5 m/s2 (ΔE & ΔH represent the change in internal energy and 2. 3, 8, 3
Statement I: Flow increases when (P1 − P2 ) increases. 4. 4.5 m/s2 enthalpy respectively) 3. 3, 10, 3
1. ΔE and ΔH increases 4. 4, 3, 10
Flow decreases when length of pipe L
Statement II: 2. ΔE increases but ΔH decreases
increases.
3. ΔE increases but ΔH decreases
4. ΔE = 0 and ΔH = 0
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

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 NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 / NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Nov 8527521718 Nov 8527521718

57 The increase of pressure in ice ⇌ water system at 62 Consider the reaction: 65 In a closed container of 1 dm³, 8 moles of AB3 ​gas reach 69 One mole of ice is converted to water at 273 K. The
4+
constant temperature will lead to: H2 SO3 (aq) + Sn (aq) + H2 O(l) → equilibrium following the reaction: entropies of H₂O(s) and H₂O(l) are 38.20 J mol⁻¹K⁻¹ and 60.01
1. A decrease in the entropy of the system. Sn2+ (aq) + HSO− +
4 (aq) + 3H (aq) 2AB3 (g) ⇌ A2 (g) + 3 B2 (g) J mol⁻¹K⁻¹, respectively. What is the enthalpy change for this
2. An increase in the Gibb’s energy of the system. Which of the following statements is correct? What is the equilibrium constant when 2 moles of A2 are conversion?
3. No effect on the equilibrium. 1. Sn4+ is the oxidizing agent because it undergoes oxidation. observed at equilibrium? 1. 59.54 J mol-1
4. A shift of the equilibrium in the forward direction. 1. 72 mol2L-2
2. Sn4+ is the reducing agent because it undergoes oxidation. 2. 5954 J mol-1
Which, among the following, is the strongest acid? H SO is the reducing agent because it undergoes 2. 36 mol2L-2 3. 595.4 J mol-1
58 3. 2 3 3. 3 mol2L-2
oxidation. 4. 320.6 J mol-1
1. ClO3 (OH)
H SO is the reducing agent because it undergoes 4. 27 mol2L-2
2. ClO2 (OH) 4. 2 3 At 25∘ C, equilibrium is established for the following
3. SO(OH)2
reduction. 70
66 Given below are two statements:
4. SO2 (OH)2 reaction in a closed container:
63 The thermal dissociation equilibrium of CaCO3 ( s) is When copper(II) ions mix with sulphide ions, they SO2 Cl2 (g) ⇌ SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)
Assertion If an inert gas, helium, is introduced into the system, which of
59 Which of the following statements is correct for a studied under different conditions quickly form a precipitate. (Equation being
(A): the following statements about the behavior of the reaction is
CaCO3 ( s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 ( g). Cu2+ (aq) + S2− (aq) ⇌ CuS (s))
spontaneous process? accurate?
1. The entropy of the system always increases. For this equilibrium, the correct statement(s) is (are): The equilibrium constant for the precipitate
(ΔH ,K and T represent the change in enthalpy, equilibrium Reason The concentrations of SO2 , Cl2 and SO2 Cl2 do not
2. The free energy of the system always increases. formation is high due to its low solubility product 1.
constant, and temperature respectively) (R): change.
3. The total entropy change is always negative. (Ksp)
4. The total entropy change is always positive. (a) ΔH is dependent of T . 2. More chlorine is formed.
(b) K is independent of the initial amount of CaCO3 . Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 3. The concentration of SO2 is reduced.
Which of the following combinations can be used to (c) K is dependent on the pressure of CO2 at a given T . 1.
60 (d) ΔH is independent of the catalyst, if any.
explanation of (A). 4. More SO2 Cl2 is formed.
prepare a buffer solution? Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
1. (a), (b), (d) 2. What is the ionization percentage for a weak acid with a
I. Sodium acetate and acetic acid in water 2. (b), (a), (c)
explanation of (A). 71
II. Sodium acetate and hydrochloric acid in water 3. (d), (a) 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. dissociation constant of 4.9 × 10−8 at 0.1 M concentration?
III. Ammonia and ammonium chloride in water 4. None of the above 4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 1. 0.07%
IV. Ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water. 2. 0.007%
1. I, III, IV Which of the following is the maximum energy available Given that the ionization constant (Ka ) of acetic acid 3. 0.7%
64 67
2. III, IV 4. 0.0007%
3. I, II, IV for useful work from a spontaneous reaction? (CH3 COOH) is 1.7 × 10−5 and the concentration of hydrogen
4. I, III 1. Gibb's Free energy +
ions (H ) is 3.4 × 10−4 , what is the initial concentration of
2. Lattice energy acetic acid (CH3 COOH)?
According to the second law of thermodynamics, what 3. Kinetic energy
61 4. Ionization energy
1. 3. 4 × (10)−4
−3
statement is true regarding a cyclic process? 2. 3. 4 × (10)
1. Work cannot be converted into heat. 3. 6. 8 × (10)−4
2. Heat cannot be converted into work. −3
4. 6. 8 × (10)
3. Work cannot be completely converted into heat.
4. Heat cannot be completely converted into work.
68 Given that pKa of acetic acid (CH3 COOH) is 4.76 and
pKb of ammonium hydroxide (NH4 OH) is 4.75, what is the
pH of the ammonium acetate (CH3 COONH4 ) solution?
1. 8.002
2. 9.712
3. 7.005
4. 6.005

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 NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 / NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Nov 8527521718 Nov 8527521718

72 The reversible expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic 74 Which of the following reactions is an example of a 78 Given the following bond energies: 83 Which of the following statements/relationships
and isothermal conditions is shown in the figure. redox reaction? H-H bond energy 431.37 kJ mol-1 regarding thermodynamic changes is incorrect?
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. XeF4 + O2 F2 → XeF6 + O2 1. ΔU = 0 (isothermal reversible expansion of a gas)
2. XeF2 + PF5 → [XeF]+ PF−
C=C bond energy 606.10 kJ mol-1 V2
6 w = −nRT ln (isothermal reversible expansion of an
3. XeF6 + H2 O → XeOF4 + 2HF C-C bond energy 336.49 kJ mol-1 2. V1

4. XeF6 + 2H2 O → XeO2 F2 + 4HF ideal gas)

C-H bond energy 410.50 kJ mol-1 V2
Based on the data given above, enthalpy change for the w = nRT ln (isothermal reversible expansion of an
Which of the following salts does not hydrolyze in 3. V1
75 following reaction will be: ideal gas)
water?
For a system of constant volume, the heat involved directly
1. NH4 Cl 4.
changes to internal energy.
2. KCl
3. CH3 COONH4
84 Given a reaction at equilibrium N2O4⇌2NO2 with an
4. CH3 COOK
equilibrium constant K=4. Which of the following statements
76 What is the stoichiometric coefficient of sulfur (S ) in the (I, II, and III) are correct based on graph given below, of time
a. T1 = T2 vs concentration for this reaction?
b. T3 > T1 balanced equation for the following reaction in acidic 1. 1523.6 kJ mol-1
c. wisothermal > wadiabatic medium? 2. -243.6 kJ mol-1
d. ΔUisothermal > ΔUadiabatic H2 S(aq) + HNO3 (aq) → NO(g) + S(s) + H2 O(l) 3. -120.0 kJ mol-1
1. 1
1. a, c, d 2. b, c 4. 553.0 kJ mol-1
2. 2
3. d, a 4. None of the above 3. 3
79 Given that heat capacity (Cp ) is an extensive property
4. 4
73 Match the type of reactions given in List I with their and specific heat (c) is an intensive property, what is the
respective examples given in List II. 77 Which of the following species is classified as a Lewis correct value of Cp for 1 mole of water?
List I List II acid but is not a Bronsted acid? (For water c = 4. 18Jg −1 K −1 )
(Reactions) (Examples) 1. BF3 1. Cp = 75. 3 JK−1 mol−1 The reaction quotient (Q) has a maximum value at point
2. Cp = 45. 3 JK−1 mol−1 I.
Combination
Δ 2. H3 O+ A
Cr2 O3 (s) + 2Al(s) −−−→
A. I. 3. NH3 3. Cp = 25. 8 JK−1 mol−1 The reaction proceeds left to right at a point when
reaction Al2 O3 (s) + 2Cr(s) II.
4. HCl 4. Cp = 65. 5 JK−1 mol−1 [N2 O4 ] = [NO2 ] = 0.1M
Δ
Decomposition
B. II. 2KClO3 (s) −−−→ III. Kc=Q when point E or G is reached
reaction 2KCl(s) + 3O2 (g) 80 One mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed
1. I,II
Δ
Non-metal container under one atmospheric pressure. It is heated to 600 2. II,III
C. III. CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) −−−→
displacement CO2 (g) + 2H2 O(l) K when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to NO2(g). 3. I,III
Δ The resultant pressure will be: 4. I,II,III
Metal
D. IV. 2F e(s) + 3H2 O(l) −−−→ 1. 1.0 atm
displacement What is a necessary condition for an adiabatic process to
F e2 O3 (s) + 3H2 (g) 2. 2.4 atm 85
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 3. 2.0 atm occur?
4. 1.2 atm 1. ∆T = 0
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 2. ∆P = 0
1. II III IV I 81 What is the oxidation number of phosphorus (P ) in the 3. q = 0
2. III II I IV compound Ca(H2 PO2 )2 ? 4. w = 0
3. III II IV I 1. –1 2. 0
4. II III I IV 3. +1 4. +3

82 What is the pH of a solution obtained by mixing equal

volumes of two solutions, one with a pH of 3 and the other
with a pH of 4?
[log 5.5=0.7404]
1. 3.26
2. 3.5
3. 4.0
4. 3.42

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Chemistry - Section B 90 Match List I with List II: 93 Match the items given in Column I with those given in 97 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl is taken in a beaker and to it 100
List I List II Column II. mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added in steps of 2 mL and the pH is
Column I Column II continuously measured. Which of the following graphs
86 A. ΔH = q I. Pext = 0
A. Temperature i. Path function correctly depicts the change in pH?
In the reaction, H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI (g) Free
Assertion (A): B. II. Heat
, equilibrium constants Kp and Kc ​are equal. expansion B. Free energy ii. State function
Kp of all gaseous reactions is equal to Kc . C. Path function III. At constant pressure C. Heat
Reason (R):
Reversible An infinitely slow process that proceeds D. Work 1. 2.
D. IV.
In light of the above statements choose answer from the process through a series of equilibrium states Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
options given below: Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Options (A) (B) (C) (D)
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 1. i ii ii i
1.
explanation of (A). 1. I III II IV 2. ii ii i i
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. I II III IV 3. i i ii i
2.
explanation of (A). 3. III I IV II 4. ii ii ii i 3. 4.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 4. III I II IV
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 94
91 Decrease in free energy causes a spontaneous
87 Which of the following reactions has/have a positive ΔS Assertion (A):
A catalyst affects the final state of the reaction.
Assertion (A): 98 Given the following redox reaction :
(entropy change)? equilibrium. Spontaneous reactions are invariably
Reason (R): 2−
(i) Ag+ (aq) + Cl-(aq) →AgCl(s) A catalyst enables the system to attain a new exothermic reactions. Cr2 O7 + H+ + Ni ⟶ Cr3+ + Ni2+ + H2 O
(ii) NH4Cl(g) →NH3(g) + HCl(g) Reason (R): equilibrium state by complexing with the The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced
(iii) 2NH3(g)→N2(g) + 3H2(g) reagents. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct reaction are:
In light of the above statements choose answer from the 1.
1. (i) & (ii) explanation of (A). Cr2 O2−
7 Ni H+
2. (iii) options given below: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. 1. 1 3 14
3. (ii) & (iii) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
1. 2. 2 3 14
4. (ii) explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 3. 1 1 16
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
What will be the standard enthalpy of reaction for the 2.
88 explanation of (A). 4. 3 3 12
following reaction using the listed enthalpies of reaction? 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed to undergo
3Co(s) + 2O2(g)→Co3O4(s); ΔH=?
95 99 The oxidation number of sulfur in H2 SO4 ​ is +6, and in
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
2Co(s) + O2(g) →2CoO(s) ΔH1 = -475.8 KJ reversible compression till its temperature becomes H2 S2 O8 ​, it is also +6. When H2 SO4 ​ is converted into
−1
6CoO(s) + O2(g) →2Co3O4(s) ΔH2 = -355.0 KJ 1 mole of gas undergoes an adiabatic process, given that: 200 K. If CV = 28 J K , calculate ΔU and Δ(pV)for this H2 S2 O8 ​, what type of process occurs during this conversion?
92
process. (R = 8.0 J K mol )
−1 −1
1. -891.2 KJ ∘ 1. Oxidation
Cv = 20 JKmol−1 , W = 3 kJ, T1 = 27 C 2. Reduction
2. -120.8 KJ 1. ΔU = 14 kJ; Δ(pV) = 18 kJ
3. 891.2 KJ What is the value of T2 ​in oC? 3. Neither oxidation nor reduction
1. 169 2. ΔU = 14 kJ; Δ(pV) = 0.8 kJ
4. -830.8 KJ 4. Oxidation as well as reduction
2. 184 3. ​ΔU = 14 kJ; Δ(pV) = 4 kJ
3. 177 4. ​ΔU = 14 kJ; Δ(pV) = 8.0 kJ​ Among the following, how many metal ions act as
89 If a certain reaction has Δr H = 30 kJ mol
−1
at 450 K , 100
4. 191
−1
what value of Δr S (in JK−1 mol ) is required for the Which of the following compounds can act as both an oxidising agents?
96 Sn2+ , Sn4+ , Pb4+ , Pb2+ , Tl+ , Tl3+
reaction to be spontaneous at the same temperature? oxidizing and a reducing agent?
1. +70 1. 2
1. H2 O 2 2. KMnO4 2. 4
2. –33
3. +33 3. H2 SO4 4. H2 S 3. 1
4. –70 4. 0

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Biology I - Section A 106 Consider the following statements regarding leaf 111 In plants such as sugarcane, stilt roots arise from: 117 In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short-
modifications: Upper nodes, allowing mechanical support in dry lived and replaced by roots originating from the stem forming:
1.
101 Which of the following options includes plants that all In insectivorous plants like the pitcher plant, the leaves are conditions 1. Taproot system arising from the radicle
1.
modified to capture insects. Lower nodes, providing anchorage in waterlogged or loose 2. Adventitious root system arising from the shoot
belong to the Solanaceae family? 2.
Spines in cacti are modified leaves that help in water soil 3. Fibrous root system arising from the stem base
Solanum tuberosum, Petunia hybrida, Atropa belladonna, 2.
1. conservation. 3. Adventitious roots, absorbing water in dry environments
Solanum melongena 4. Pneumatophores arising from the ground
Tendrils in pea plants are modified stems that help in Secondary roots, aiding in nutrient uptake in nutrient-poor
Solanum tuberosum, Lathyrus odoratus, Atropa 3. 4.
2. climbing. soil Which evolutionary advantage do bisexual flowers, if
belladonna, Capsicum annuum 118
4. In onion, the leaves are fleshy and modified to store food.
Solanum melongena, Petunia hybrida, Pisum sativum, present, provide to angiosperms in terms of reproduction?
3. Which of the above statements are correct? 112 In insectivorous plants like the Venus flytrap and pitcher
Datura stramonium 1. Greater genetic diversity through self-pollination
1. 1, 2, and 3 plant, which leaf modification is adapted to capture and
Capsicum annuum, Nicotiana tabacum, Atropa belladonna, 2. Decreased likelihood of cross-pollination
4. 2. 2, 3, and 4 digest insects?
Lathyrus odoratus 3. Ensured reproduction in the absence of external pollinators
3. 1, 2, and 4 1. Modified stipules
4. 1 and 4 only 2. Modified tendrils 4. Enhanced dependence on insect pollinators
102 Which of the following floral characteristics is typical
3. Modified leaf blades
of the family Solanaceae? 107 The androecium in the Brassicaceae family is: 4. Modified pulvinus 119 In arid region plants like Opuntia and Euphorbia, the
1. Epigynous Flowers 1. Polyandrous with a variable number of stamens stem is modified to perform photosynthesis. Identify the
2. Zygomorphic flowers with imbricate aestivation 113 Which of the following types of placentation occurs statement that states the most significant advantage of this
2. Tetradynamous, with 4 long stamens and 2 short stamens
3. Flowers with basal placentation 3. Diadelphous when ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary, and the modification:
4. Actinomorphic flowers with five petals and five sepals 4. Monadelphous ovary becomes two-chambered due to a false septum? The stems reduce transpiration and store water,
1.
1. Free central compensating for the loss of leaves
103 Which of the following statements correctly Match each item in Column I with one item in Column 2. Marginal They increase surface area for gas exchange, aiding in
108 3. Axile 2.
respiration
distinguishes between roots and stems? II and select the best match from the codes given: 4. Parietal They develop thorns that deter herbivores, preventing
1. Roots bear nodes and internodes, while stems do not. Column I Column II 3.
water loss
Roots develop from the radicle of the embryo, while stems
2. A. Radicle P. Embryonic root 114 A flower that can be divided into two equal radial halves 4. The modified stems absorb more nutrients from the soil
develop from the plumule.
B. Plumule Q. Scar on seed coat in any plane passing through the center is termed as:
Stems are typically positively geotropic, while roots are
3. C. Hilum R. Embryonic shoot 1. Zygomorphic 2. Actinomorphic 120 Consider the given two statements:
negatively geotropic.
D. Cotyledon S. Seed leaf 3. Asymmetric 4. Bilateral
4. Stems have root hairs for absorption, while roots do not. Assertion
Codes: Perigynous flowers have a half-inferior ovary.
(A):
Options A B C D 115 In which type of phyllotaxy do more than two leaves
104 Consider the given two statements: The floral parts in perigynous flowers are
1. S P Q R arise from the same node, forming a circular arrangement Reason
attached to the rim of the thalamus at the same
The region of elongation in a root is (R):
2. P R Q S around the stem, as seen in Alstonia? level as the ovary.
Assertion (A): responsible for the increase in the length of
3. S R P Q 1. Alternate
the root.
2. Opposite Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Cells in the region of elongation divide 4. P R Q S 1.
Reason (R): 3. Whorled explanation of (A).
repeatedly to form new cells. 4. Spiral
109 In plants like Citrus and Bougainvillea, axillary buds Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
In a racemose inflorescence, the flowers are arranged in explanation of (A).
1.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct develop into: 116
explanation of (A). 1. Tendrils 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
an acropetal succession. It allows:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. Thorns 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. 1. Older flowers to receive more nutrients than younger ones.
explanation of (A). 3. Rhizomes
4. Tubers 2. All flowers to mature simultaneously.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Continuous growth of the axis and that allows more
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 3.
110 Which of the following modifications of roots is flowers to be produced over time.
specifically adapted to function in gaseous exchange in plants Younger flowers are located at the base for better
105 The underground modification of stems of certain plants 4.
growing in waterlogged conditions? protection.
like ginger, turmeric, and Colocasia:
1. Prop roots in banyan tree
1. Helps in sexual reproduction
2. Stilt roots in maize
2. Provides support for climbing
3. Pneumatophores in Avicennia
3. Serves as organs of perennation
4. Taproots in turnip
4. Absorbs water and minerals

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121 In a compound leaf, how can one differentiate between 125 Which of the following statements about fruit formation 128 Match each item in Column I with one item in Column 133 Consider the given two statements:
a pinnately compound and palmately compound leaf based on are correct? II and select the best match from the codes given: The capitulum inflorescence in the Asteraceae
the attachment of the leaflets? Assertion (A):
A fruit is the mature or ripened ovary developed after Column I Column II family contributes to its evolutionary success.
1.
Pinnately compound leaves have leaflets attached at the fertilization. A. Monocarpellary ovary P. Pea The capitulum consists of a dense cluster of
1. petiole tip, while palmately compound leaves have leaflets Fruits formed without fertilization of the ovary are called B. Bicarpellary ovary Q. Mustard small florets, which mimics a single large
arranged along the midrib. 2. Reason (R):
parthenocarpic fruits. C. Syncarpous ovary R. Tomato flower, increasing the efficiency of pollination
Pinnately compound leaves have leaflets attached along the In a drupe, the pericarp is differentiated into the epicarp, and protection.
3. D. Apocarpous ovary S. Rose
2. midrib, while palmately compound leaves have leaflets the mesocarp, and the endocarp.
attached at a common point at the petiole tip. Codes:
4. Fruits of banana are examples of aggregate fruits. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Options A B C D 1.
Pinnately compound leaves have opposite leaflets, while Choose the correct option: explanation of (A).
3. 1. P Q R S
palmately compound leaves have alternate leaflets. 1. 1, 2 and 3 Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. S R Q P 2.
Pinnately compound leaves have leaflets arranged in a 2. 2, 3 and 4 explanation of (A).
4. circular manner, while palmately compound leaves have 3. 1, 2 and 4 3. P R S Q 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
leaflets arranged in whorls. 4. 1 and 3 only 4. Q S P R 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

122 In legumes, the pulvinus: 126 Match each item in Column I with one item in Column Which of the following statements about seed structure
129 134 What is the position of the gynoecium in a hypogynous
enables rapid leaf movement in response to touch II and select the best match from the codes given: are correct?
1. flower?
(thigmonasty) Column I Column II In dicotyledonous seeds, the embryo consists of an
1. 1. Below the other floral parts
assists in water conservation by folding the leaves during A. Racemose inflorescence P. Bilateral symmetry embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
2. 2. At the same level as the other parts
drought B. Cymose inflorescence Q. Acropetal succession Monocotyledonous seeds have a large shield-shaped
2. 3. Occupies the highest position
3. helps protect the plant by producing toxic compounds C. Actinomorphic flower R. Basipetal order cotyledon called the scutellum.
4. Completely fused with other parts
promotes gas exchange by moving the leaves away from D. Zygomorphic flower S. Radial symmetry The plumule in monocot seeds is protected by the
4. 3.
each other coleorhiza.
135 In plants like Pistia and Eichhornia, lateral branches
Options A B C D 4. The radicle in monocot seeds is protected by the coleoptile.
123 In monocotyledonous seeds, what is the role of the Select the correct option: with short internodes bear a rosette of leaves and roots. This
1. Q R S P stem modification is an example of:
aleurone layer, and how does it influence seed germination? 1. 1, 2 and 3
2. P Q S R 1. Rhizome
1. It stores water for the embryo during germination. 2. 1, 2 and 4
3. Q R P S 3. Only 3 and 4 2. Stolon
It releases enzymes that help in digesting stored food 4. R S P Q 3. Runner
2. 4. Only 1 and 2
during germination. 4. Offset
3. It protects the embryo from mechanical damage. Which part of the root tip is directly involved in the
127 130 What is the sterile stamen in a flower called?
4. It prevents premature germination of the seed.
rapid division of cells, contributing to root growth, and what 1. Epipetalous Biology I - Section B
would happen if this region is damaged? 2. Staminate
124 Match each item in Column I with one item in Column Consider the following statements about dicotyledonous
1. Region of maturation, leading to stunted lateral growth 3. Staminode 136
II and select the best match from the codes given: 2. Region of elongation, halting root extension 4. Carpellate roots:
Column I Column II Region of meristematic activity, impairing root growth in The endodermis in dicot roots contains Casparian strips
3. 131 Which of the following is NOT a typical floral feature 1.
Valvate length made of suberin.
A. P. Sepals touch but do not overlap
aestivation 4. Root hairs, affecting water absorption of the family Fabaceae? The pericycle is responsible for the initiation of lateral
1. Zygomorphic corolla with vexillary aestivation 2.
Twisted roots and vascular cambium during secondary growth.
B. Q. One margin overlaps the next petal 2. Diadelphous stamens
aestivation The xylem is arranged in a polyarch condition, with more
3. Marginal placentation 3.
Imbricate than six xylem bundles.
C. R. Sepals overlap irregularly 4. Epigynous flower
aestivation 4. The pith in dicot roots is small or inconspicuous.
Vexillary Standard overlaps wings, wings The fleshy leaves of plants like onion and garlic are Which of the above statements are correct?
D.
aestivation
S.
overlap keel 132 1. 1, 2, and 4
Codes: modified to perform: 2. 2, 3, and 4
Options A B C D 1. Food storage 3. 1, 2, and 3
2. Respiration 4. 1 and 4 only
1. S Q R P
3. Climbing
2. R P Q S 4. Protection from herbivores
3. P Q R S
4. S R Q P

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137 Which of the following statements correctly explains 141 Sieve tube elements lack a nucleus at maturity, but their 145 In closed vascular bundles, secondary growth is absent 149 The given figure represents the Transverse Section of a:
the role of guard cells in the epidermal tissue system? functions are controlled by which associated cell type? because:
Guard cells regulate gaseous exchange but do not contain 1. Phloem parenchyma cells The xylem and phloem are arranged in a radial pattern,
1. 2. Sieve plates 1.
chloroplasts, so they are unable to photosynthesize. preventing cambial activity.
Guard cells have thickened outer walls and thin inner 3. Companion cells The ground tissue restricts the formation of secondary
2. 4. Albuminous cells 2.
walls, allowing for efficient stomatal closure. xylem and phloem.
Guard cells possess chloroplasts and control the opening Identify the plant tissue shows in the given figure: Phloem surrounds the xylem, preventing the initiation of
3.
and closing of stomata by regulating turgor pressure. 142 3.
cambial activity.
Guard cells are specialized epidermal cells that only assist The bundles are devoid of cambium, which is essential for
4. 4.
in preventing excessive water loss. secondary tissue formation.

138 Consider the following statements: 146 In isobilateral (monocotyledonous) leaves, the presence
Trichomes in the shoot system are usually multicellular and of bulliform cells is crucial for: 1. Monocot root
1. 2. Dicot root
can be branched or unbranched. Enhancing photosynthetic activity by increasing leaf
1. 3. Dicot stem
Root hairs are unicellular elongations of epidermal cells surface area.
2. 4. Monocot stem
that help absorb water and minerals from the soil. Increasing water retention by regulating the opening and
2.
Which of the above statements are correct? 1. Parenchyma closing of stomata. In an isobilateral (monocotyledonous) leaf, the
1. Only 1 Helping the leaf roll up under water stress to reduce water
150
2. Collenchyma 3.
2. Only 2 loss through transpiration. mesophyll is:
3. Sclereids
3. Both 1 and 2 4. Sclerenchyma fibers Facilitating gaseous exchange by creating air cavities in the 1. Differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
4. Neither 1 nor 2 4. 2. Composed only of collenchymatous cells
leaf surface.
Identify the correct statement regarding the comparison
143 The given figure shows the T.S. of a: 3. Not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
139 147 The endarch condition of primary xylem, where the 4. Composed of sclerenchyma cells only
of the hypodermis of a dicot stem and a monocot stem: protoxylem lies towards the center, is typically observed in
In dicot stems, the hypodermis consists of
sclerenchymatous cells, while in monocot stems, it is made
which part of a dicot plant?
1. Roots
Biology II - Section A
1.
up of parenchymatous cells, providing mechanical strength 2. Stems
in both. 3. Leaves 151 The atrio-ventricular (AV) node plays a crucial role in:
In dicot stems, the hypodermis is collenchymatous, 4. Flowers 1. Generating the fastest action potentials in the heart.
providing mechanical support, whereas in monocot stems, Preventing the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated
2. 2.
it is sclerenchymatous, offering additional protection and 148 Consider the following statements regarding plant blood.
strength. Directly initiating ventricular contraction without input
tissues:
The hypodermis in monocot stems serves a storage 3.
Collenchyma cells provide mechanical support and have from the SAN.
3. function, while in dicot stems it aids in water conduction 1. thickened corners due to the deposition of cellulose, Ensuring there is a delay between atrial and ventricular
and nutrient transport. 4.
hemicellulose, and pectin. contraction.
In both dicot and monocot stems, the hypodermis is always Sclerenchyma cells are living at maturity and have
4. made up of parenchymatous cells, playing a role in 1. Monocot root 2. The respiratory rhythm centre responsible for regulating
photosynthesis.
thickened cell walls due to the deposition of lignin. 152
2. Dicot root Which of the above statements are correct? breathing is located in:
3. Dicot stem 1. Only 1
Consider the given two statements: 1. The hypothalamus
140 4. Monocot stem 2. Only 2 2. The medulla oblongata
The epidermis in leaves is covered by a waxy 3. Both 1 and 2 3. The cerebellum
Assertion (A): 144 In a dicotyledonous root, the innermost layer of the
layer called the cuticle. 4. Neither 1 nor 2 4. The cerebral cortex
The cuticle prevents excessive water loss cortex, which is composed of barrel-shaped cells without
Reason (R): intercellular spaces, is called:
through transpiration.
1. Epiblema
2. Endodermis
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3. Pericycle
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 4. Pith
2.
explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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153 Lymphatic vessels help maintain fluid homeostasis in 158 Asthma is caused by: 163 Which of the following is a key reason for impaired 168 Consider the given two statements:
tissues by: Inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles, causing oxygen exchange in patients with emphysema? The sino-atrial node (SAN) is also known as
1. Assertion (A):
1. Transporting tissue fluid directly into the arterial system. difficulty in breathing Excess mucus production in the bronchi reduces airflow to the pacemaker of the heart.
1.
Draining interstitial fluid into lymphatic vessels that return 2. Damage to alveolar walls due to smoking the alveoli. The SAN can generate action potentials at the
2. Reason (R):
it to the venous system. 3. Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity Loss of alveolar elasticity causes enlargement of alveoli, highest frequency and initiate the heartbeat.
2.
Absorbing nutrients and gases from tissues and returning 4. Swelling of the nasal cavity reducing the total surface area available for gas exchange. Options:
3.
them to plasma. The residual volume of the lungs decreases significantly, Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
3. 1.
Increasing the osmotic pressure in the blood to reabsorb In the human respiratory system, the expiration process leading to reduced oxygen intake during inspiration. explanation of (A).
4. 159
water. Carbonic anhydrase enzyme activity in the alveoli is Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
involves which of the following mechanisms? 4. 2.
inhibited, reducing CO2 clearance. explanation of (A).
Which plasma component helps maintain osmotic Contraction of both the diaphragm and external intercostal
154 1.
muscles 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
164 Which of the following is an important reason for
balance in the blood? Increase in intra-pulmonary volume leading to a drop in 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
1. Albumin 2. increased oxygen release by hemoglobin in tissues?
pressure
2. Globulin 1. Increased partial pressure of oxygen in tissues 169 Match the following components of an ECG with their
3. Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of intercostals
3. Fibrinogen 2. Decrease in temperature in exercising muscles
Decrease in pulmonary volume leading to an increase in corresponding descriptions:
4. Calcium ions 4.
intra-pulmonary pressure Increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen under low Column A (ECG
3. Column B (Descriptions)
The solubility of CO2 in water is how many times pCO2 Components)
155 Under normal physiological conditions, 100 ml of 4. Decrease in pH due to accumulation of CO2 and lactic acid
160 A. P-wave P. Depolarization of ventricles
higher than that of O2 ?
oxygenated blood delivers approximately how many Return of ventricles to resting
1. 10-15 times In the regulation of cardiac activity, the parasympathetic B. QRS complex Q.
2. 5-10 times milliliters of O2 to the tissues? 165 state
3. 20-25 times 1. 2 ml nervous system: Depolarization of atria leading to
C. T-wave R.
4. 2-5 times 2. 4 ml Increases heart rate and the strength of ventricular atrial contraction
3. 5 ml 1.
contraction. Time taken for electrical impulse
4. 10 ml D. PR interval S.
156 Which statement best describes the comparison between 2. Releases norepinephrine to increase cardiac output. to travel from atria to ventricles
blood plasma and tissue fluid? Causes dilation of coronary arteries to increase oxygen Options:
161 In the alveoli, which of the following conditions favors 3.
Plasma and tissue fluid are identical in composition except delivery. Codes A B C D
1. the formation of oxyhaemoglobin? 1. R P Q S
for proteins. Decreases heart rate and slows down conduction of action
1. High pCO2, high temperature, low pO2 4.
+ - potentials. 2. P Q R S
2. Plasma contains higher concentrations of Na and Cl than
tissue fluid. 2. Low pO2, high H+ concentration, low temperature 3. S P Q R
3. Tissue fluid contains more fibrinogen than blood plasma. 3. Low temperature, high pCO2, and high pO2 166 The "lub" sound of the heartbeat is primarily caused by: 4. Q R S P
Tissue fluid lacks RBCs and has less plasma proteins that 1. The contraction of the ventricles during systole.
4. High pO2, low pCO2, low H+ concentration, lower Match each item in Column I with one item in Column
are present in blood plasma. 4.
temperature 2. The opening of the semilunar valves during systole. 170
3. The relaxation of the atria. II and select the best match from the codes given:
157 Consider the given two statements: Column I Column II
162 Arrange the following events of the cardiac cycle in the 4. The closing of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves.
The semilunar valves prevent the backflow of A. Neutrophils P. Defense against parasitic infections
correct sequence:
Statement I: blood from the aorta and pulmonary artery into 167 Consider the given two statements: B. Basophils Q. Release of histamine in inflammation
1. Ventricular systole
the ventricles during ventricular diastole. 2. Joint diastole (relaxation of atria and ventricles) C. Eosinophils R. Phagocytosis of foreign organisms
Fishes possess a two-chambered heart with an
The tricuspid and bicuspid valves open during 3. Atrial systole Statement I: atrium and a ventricle, where deoxygenated D. Lymphocytes S. Production of antibodies
Statement II: ventricular systole to allow the flow of blood 4. Closure of semilunar valves blood is pumped to the gills for oxygenation.
from the atria into the ventricles. Options: Birds and mammals possess a four-chambered Options A B C D
Options: 1. 3 → 1 → 4 → 2 Statement II: heart, which ensures complete separation of 1. P R Q S
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 2. 2 → 3 → 1 → 4 oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
3. 1 → 3 → 4 → 2 2. R Q P S
2. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. Options:
4. 4 → 2 → 1 → 3 3. R P Q S
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Q R S P
4. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect 2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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171 In erythroblastosis foetalis, why is the first pregnancy 176 Which of the following correctly describes the cardiac 181 Identify the most common WBC shown in the figure: 185 The main advantage of a closed circulatory system, as
generally unaffected by Rh incompatibility? output? seen in annelids and chordates, is:
The foetal and maternal blood remain separated by the The amount of blood pumped by both ventricles combined Blood is circulated more quickly, more precisely and at
1. 1. 1.
placenta, preventing immune response. in one heartbeat. higher pressure to the organs.
The foetus produces Rh antibodies that prevent maternal 2. The volume of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute. Blood directly bathes the tissues, facilitating faster
2. 2.
antibody production. 3. The amount of blood ejected by each atrium per minute. diffusion of gases.
The mother produces antibodies against Rh antigens only The sum of the volumes of oxygenated and deoxygenated Nutrients and waste are exchanged more efficiently in open
3. 4. 3.
after exposure to foetal blood during delivery. blood in the body. spaces.
The mother's immune system is suppressed during the first The heart does not require chambers for efficient
4. 4.
pregnancy. 177 Consider the given two statements: circulation.
The partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) in the
172 Long-term exposure to dust particles in occupational
Statement I: alveoli is higher than the partial pressure of 1. Basophil
2. Eosinophil
Biology II - Section B
environments, such as stone-breaking or mining, leads to oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries.
occupational lung disorders like silicosis and asbestosis 3. Monocyte Match each excretory organ with the corresponding
Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the
4. Neutrophil 186
because: Statement II: blood because the partial pressure of oxygen is example of an animal or group of animals:
Dust particles trigger bronchial smooth muscle contraction, higher in the blood than in the alveolar air.
1. 182 In the respiratory system of humans, the diffusion of Column A (Excretory Column B (Example of
causing severe airway constriction.
Organ) Animal)
Chronic exposure to dust leads to inflammation, causing Which of the following is correct? gases between alveoli and blood is facilitated by:
2. fibrosis of lung tissue, which reduces the elasticity of the 1. High pressure in the pleural cavity Protonephridia (Flame Earthworms and other
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct A. P.
lungs. cells) annelids
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 2. High surface tension in the alveolar fluid
Dust particles inhibit the activity of pulmonary surfactant, Cockroaches and most
3. 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 3. High solubility of oxygen in plasma B. Nephridia Q.
leading to alveolar collapse. insects
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Large surface area and minimal thickness of the diffusion
Inhaled particles destroy the cilia of the trachea, leading to 4. Planaria and some
4. membrane C. Malpighian tubules R.
chronic infections that scar the lung tissue. flatworms
178 In humans, the total lung capacity (TLC) is determined Green glands (Antennal
183 During the blood clotting process, what is the correct D. S. Prawns and crustaceans
by the sum of: glands)
173 The diffusion membrane in the alveoli is composed of: sequence of events involving thrombin and fibrin?
1. Vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume
Thin squamous epithelium, endothelium, and basement 2. Residual volume and functional residual capacity Thrombin activates fibrinogen to form fibrin, which traps
1. 1. Options A B C D
membrane 3. Vital capacity and residual volume blood cells.
1. R P Q S
2. Columnar epithelium and connective tissue 4. Inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume Thrombin forms from prothrombin and breaks down fibrin
2. 2. P Q R S
3. Smooth muscle cells and endothelial cells into fibrinogen.
Chemosensitive areas that detect changes in CO2 and 3. S R Q P
4. Alveolar macrophages and capillary walls 179 3. Fibrinogen activates thrombin, which stabilizes the clot.
4. Q S P R
H + concentration are located: Thrombin combines with fibrinogen to form inactive
At the alveolar site, the reaction catalyzed by carbonic 4.
174 1. In the lungs and diaphragm fibrin, preventing further clotting.
2. Adjacent to the respiratory rhythm centre in the medulla
187 The micturition reflex is initiated when:
anhydrase moves in the direction of:
1. Formation of HCO− + 184 Which of the following statements best explains why The central nervous system detects changes in blood
3 and H 3. In the hypothalamus 1.
2. Formation of CO2 and H2 O osmolarity.
4. In the nasal cavity CO2 transport in blood occurs primarily in the form of
3. Binding of O2 to CO2 bicarbonate ions? The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases renin in response to
2.
4. Dissociation of CO2 into carbon and oxygen What is the main function of the semilunar valves in the CO2 has higher solubility in plasma, allowing efficient low blood pressure.
180 1. 3. ADH is released from the hypothalamus to retain water.
dissolution and transport.
The most important advantage of the absence of a heart?
175 Carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells rapidly converts 4. The urinary bladder becomes stretched as it fills with urine.
1. To regulate blood flow between atria and ventricles 2.
nucleus in mature erythrocytes in most mammals will be: CO2 to bicarbonate ions.
To prevent the backflow of blood from arteries into the The filtration barrier in the glomerulus includes all of
1.
To enhance the cell’s flexibility and enable it to squeeze 2.
ventricles
Hemoglobin has a higher affinity for bicarbonate ion than 188
3.
through capillaries. for CO2 . the following, except:
To prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated
To maximize space for hemoglobin and improve oxygen 3. Plasma proteins facilitate CO2 transport as bicarbonate 1. Endothelium of the glomerular blood vessels
2. blood 4.
transport. ions. 2. Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule (podocytes)
4. To pump blood from ventricles to the veins
To prevent interaction between hemoglobin and nuclear 3. Basement membrane between the capillary and the capsule
3.
material.
4. Macula densa
4. To reduce the overall size of the red blood cells.

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 NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 / NEET Level Test - 10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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189 Renal calculi are: 193 Terrestrial organisms, like mammals, adapted to excrete 196 Consider the given statements: 200 The release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) by the
Masses of crystallized salts, like oxalates, formed within urea instead of ammonia primarily because: Each human kidney is approximately 10-12 heart acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism by:
1.
the kidney. Ammonia can be stored for long periods in the body Statement I: cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, and weighs 1. Promoting vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure.
1.
2. A condition in which glucose is present in urine. without toxicity. around 120-170 grams. 2. Increasing sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule.
3. An inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. Urea requires less water for excretion compared to The kidney is located between the last 3. Increasing ADH release to promote water retention.
2.
4. A condition characterized by high blood urea levels. ammonia, conserving water. Statement II: thoracic and third lumbar vertebra, close to 4. Promoting vasodilation and decreasing blood pressure.
Urea can be excreted directly from the skin without using the dorsal inner wall of the abdominal cavity.
3.
Consider the given two statements: the kidneys. The kidneys filter about 500 mL of blood per
190
Uricotelic animals, such as birds and reptiles, 4.
Urea is more toxic than ammonia and requires less energy Statement III:
minute, which constitutes 1/10th of the blood
pumped by each ventricle of the heart per
Fill OMR Sheet*
to produce.
Statement I: excrete nitrogenous waste primarily in the minute.
form of uric acid, which conserves water. Options:
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
194 Consider the given two statements:
Uric acid is highly soluble in water and is where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
Statement II: 1. Only Statement I is correct.
excreted through the skin in these animals. Glycosuria is a condition where glucose is filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
2. Only Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Options: Statement I:
excreted in the urine, often indicating an issue for the questions in the test.
with glucose reabsorption in the distal 3. Only Statement II and Statement III are correct.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
convoluted tubule and the collecting duct. 4. All three Statements are correct.
2. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
The presence of glucose in urine is a common
3. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. Heart failure is different from cardiac arrest because:
feature of diabetes mellitus, as excess glucose 197
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Statement II:
in the blood exceeds the reabsorption capacity
of the nephron.
Heart failure refers to the heart’s inability to pump CLICK HERE to get
191 Which of the following is not a function of the proximal Options:
1. sufficient blood, while cardiac arrest is when the heart
stops beating entirely. FREE ACCESS for 2
convoluted tubule (PCT) in the nephron? 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
1. Reabsorption of glucose and amino acids 2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 2.
Heart failure only affects the ventricles, whereas cardiac
arrest affects the atria. days of ANY
2. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes 3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
3. Active secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Heart failure is reversible, while cardiac arrest is not.

4.
Cardiac arrest is caused by hypertension, while heart
NEETprep course
4. Regulation of glomerular filtration rate failure is caused by valve malfunction.
195 Angina pectoris, characterized by acute chest pain,
192 Consider the given two statements: typically occurs when: 198 The osmolarity gradient in the medullary interstitium
The Renin-Angiotensin mechanism is 1. The aorta becomes partially blocked due to a blood clot. ranges from:
Statement I: triggered by a decrease in glomerular blood The coronary arteries fail to supply adequate oxygen to the 100 mOsmol/L in the cortex to 800 mOsmol/L in the
2. 1.
pressure or blood flow. heart muscles. medulla
Angiotensin II acts as a vasoconstrictor and The pulmonary artery is constricted, reducing blood flow 300 mOsmol/L in the cortex to 1200 mOsmol/L in the
3. 2.
stimulates aldosterone release, increasing to the lungs. inner medulla
Statement II:
sodium and water reabsorption, thus raising The valves of the heart malfunction, leading to improper 500 mOsmol/L in the cortex to 1500 mOsmol/L in the
blood pressure. 4. 3.
blood flow. medulla
Options: 200 mOsmol/L in the cortex to 1000 mOsmol/L in the
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 4.
inner medulla
2. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. 199 The kidney's ability to concentrate urine depends
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. primarily on:
1. The presence of urea in the collecting duct.
2. The activity of the juxta-glomerular apparatus (JGA).
3. The length of the loop of Henle and the vasa recta.
4. The filtration efficiency of the glomerulus.

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