DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP)

for
NEET - 2025

Set - 19

PHYSICS , CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

[ Time : 3 Hrs. ] TEST CODE : GOAL/DPP - 19 [NEET] 2025 [ Max. Marks : 720 ]

INSTRUCTIONS
(i) This Paper has 180 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The maximum marks for each question is 4.

(iii) 1 mark will be deducted against each negative response from the total marks.

(iv) Use of calculator, slide rule, graph paper and trigonometric tables is NOT
PERMITTED.

Name of the Candidate : .........................................................................

Roll No. : .........................................................................

Centre Code : .........................................................................

Centre Town : .........................................................................

B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA

B-58, - 800
BUDDHA 001, Tel.
COLONY, PATNA: 0612-3508700,
- 800 001, Website: DPP
www.goalinstitute.org
- 19 [NEET] 2025 - 01
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 DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) FOR NEET - 2025 [SET - 19]
[Time : 3 Hrs.] Full Marks : 720

PHYSICS d
01. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with
its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The K
ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed
by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to
state B, is d/4
V
(1) 16 : 15 (2) 5 : 3
B
A (3) 9 : 8 (4) 5 : 4
0 T 06. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are
connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and
1 2 2 2 internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I.
(1) (2) (3) (4) Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to
3 3 5 7
the same battery. Then the current drawn from
02. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is
is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ
(1) 20 (2) 11 (3) 10 (4) 9
pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20
cm, the length of the open organ pipe is 07. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of
identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ each)
(1) 19.67 cm (2) 8 cm
which are connected in series. The terminals of
(3) 13.33 cm (4) 16 cm the battery are short-circuited and the current I
03. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen is measured. Which of the graphs shows the
molecules becomes just sufficient for escaping correct relationship between I and n ?
from the Earth’s atmosphere ?
I I
(Given : Mass of oxygen molecules
(m) = 2.76 × 10 –26 kg Botzmann’s constant (1) (2)
kB = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1) 0 0
n n
(1) 5.016 × 104 K (2) 8.360 × 104 K
(3) 2.508 × 104 K (4) 1.254 × 104 K I I
04. A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the
action of a ti me depen dent force (3) (4)
0 n 0 n
   
F  (6t 2 i  8t 3 j )N , where i and j are unit 08. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane
vectors along X and Y axes. What power will be surface of a material of refractive index ‘µ’. At a
developed by the force at the time (t) ? particular angle of incidence ‘I’, it is found that
(1) (18t5 + 24t7)W the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular
to each other. Which of the following options is
(2) (12t5 + 16t7)W correct for this situation ?
(3) (12t4 + 16t6)W
(4) (6t5 + 8t7)W 1
(1) i  sin –1  
05. A parallel plate capacitor having cross-sectional µ
area A and separation d has air in between the (2) Reflected light is polarised with its electric
plates. Now, an insulating slab of same area but vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence
d (3) Reflected light is polarised with its electric
thickness is inserted between the plates as vector parallel to the plane of incidence
4
shown in figure having dielectric constant K(=5).
1
The ratio of new capacitance to its original (4) i  tan –1  
capacitance will be : 

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09. Statement I: In Young’s experiment, the fringe (1) Rotational kinetic energy
width for dark fringes is different from that for (2) Moment of inertia
bright fringes.
(3) Angular velocity
Statement II: In Young’s double slit experiment
the fringes are performed with a source of white (4) Angular momentum
light, then only black and bright fringes are 16. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
observed. due to heating
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (1) does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) affects only forward resistance
incorrect. (3) affects only reverse resistance
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) affects the overall V-I characteristics of
incorrect. p-n junction
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is 17. In the combination of the following gates the output
incorrect. Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as
10. A solenoid of length 1 metre has self inductance
L henry. If only the number of turns are doubled, (1) A • B  A • B
its self inductance : A
(2) A • B  A • B B Y
(1) remains same (2) becomes 3L henry

L (3) A • B
(3) becomes 4 L henry (4) becomes henry
2 (4) A  B
11. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an
electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is : 18. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
 
(1) 2 : –1 (2) 1 : –1 velocity V  V i . The intantaneous oscillating
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : – 2
electric field of this em wave, is along +y axis.
    Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field
12. The moment of the force, F  4 i  5 j 6 k at
of the em wave will be along
(2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by (1) – y direction (2) +z direction
      (3) –z direction (4) –xdirection
(1) –7 i – 8 j 4 k (2) –4 i – j 8 k
19. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
     
(3) –8 i – 4 j 7 k (4) –7 i – 4 j 8 k motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy
13. A steel rod 78 cm long is clamped at its middle. (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the
The fundamental frequency of longitudinal sphere is
vibrations of the rod are given to be 3.5 kHz. What
(1) 10 : 7 (2) 5 : 7
is the speed of sound in steel ?
(3) 7 : 10 (4) 2 : 5
(1) 4820 m/s (2) 5460 m/s
(3) 5680 m/s (4) 5210 m/s 20. An object is placed at a distance of 40cm from a
concave mirror of focal length 15cm. If the object
14. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is is displaced through a distance of 20cm towards
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the mirror, the displacement of the image will be
the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1.
When the frequency of the incident radiation is (1) 30cm towards the mirror
increased to 5 0 , the maximum velocity of (2) 36 cm away from the mirror
electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The (3) 30 cm away from the mirror
ratio of v1 to v2 is :
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
21. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain
15. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
inductor is 25mJ, when the current in the
symmetry axis in free apace. The radius of the
inductor is 60mA. This inductor is of inductance
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
Which of the following physical quantities would (1) 1.389 H (2) 138.88 H
remain constant for the sphere ? (3) 0.138 H (4) 13.89 H

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22. Match the Column-I and Column-II. the temperature of the black body is now changed
so that it radi ates max imum ene rgy at
Column-I Column-II
3
Linear charge wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
A. (1). Charge /Volume 4
de nsity becomes nP. The value of n is
Surface charge (1) 256/81 (2) 4/3 (3) 3/4 (4) 81/256
B. (2). Charge /Length
de nsity
28. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 µF and a
Volume charge resistor 50 are connected in series across a
C. (3). Charge /Are a
de nsity source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
the circuit is
Discre te charge System consisting of
D. (4). (1) 2.74 W (2) 0.43 W (3) 0.79 W (4) 1.13 W
distribution individual charge s
29. Currren t se nsitivity of a movin g co il
(1) (A)  (2) ; (B)  (3); (C)  (1); (D)  (4) galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
(2) (A)  (1) ; (B)  (3); (C)  (1); (D)  (4) applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
(3) (A)  (3) ; (B)  (1); (C)  (2); (D)  (4) galvanometer is
(4) (A)  (3) ; (B)  (2); (C)  (1); (D)  (4) (1) 250  (2) 25  (3) 40  (4) 500 
23. The electrostatic force between the metal plates 30. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
charge Q and area A, is the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(1) Proportional to the square root of the distance diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
between the plates
(2) linearly proportional to the distance between
the plates h
(3) independent of the distance between the B
plates
A
(4) inversely proportional to the distance between
7 3 5
the plates (1) D (2) D (3) D (4) D
5 2 4
24. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a
glass tube. The length of the air column in this 31. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have
temperature of 27°C two successive resonances the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with
are produced at 20cm and 73cm of column length. the same angular speed  about their own
If the frequency of the the tuning fork is 320 Hz, symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required
the velocity of sound in air at 27°C is to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation
(1) 350 m/s (2) 339 m/s (1) WB > WA > WC (2) WA > WB > WC
(3) 330 m/s (4) 300 m/s (3) WC > WB > WA (4) WA > WC > WB
25. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently 32. A moving block having mass m, collides with
high building and is moving freely to and fro like another stationary block having mass 4m. The
a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration lighter block comes to rest after collision, When
of the bob of the pendulum is 20m/s2 at a distance the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then
of 5m from the mean position. The time period of the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be
oscillation is (1) 0.8 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.4
(1) 2s (2) s (3) 2s (4) 1s 33. Which one of the following statements is
26. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a incorrect ?
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due (1) Frictional force opposes the relative motion.
to viscous force. The rate of production of heat (2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to normal reaction.
proportional to
(3) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.
(1) r5 (2) r2 (3) r3 (4) r4
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions
27. The power radiated by a black body is P and it of length.
radiates maximum energy at wavelength. 0. If
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34. Two wires are made of the same material and mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of
have the same volume. The first wire has cross- monochromatic light entering the prism from the
sectional area A and the second wire has cross- other face will retrace its path (after reflection
sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence
increased by l on applying a force F, how much on the prism is
force is needed to stretch the second wire by the (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) zero
same amount ?
39. Assertion: A proton and an electron, with same
(1) 4 F (2) 6 F momenta, enter in a magnetic field in a direction
(3) 9 F (4) F at right angles to the lines of the force. The radius
35. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined of the paths followed by them will be same.
wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the figure. Reason: Electron has less mass than the proton.
The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
the right. The relation between a and  for the Reason is a correct explanation of the
block to remain stationary on the wedge is Assertion.
(1) a = g cos  (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
A Reason is not a correct explanation of the
g m
(2) a  Assertion.
sin 
a (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorreect.
g 
(3) a  C B (4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
cos ec 40. The inputs A, B and C to be given in order to get
(4) a = g tan  at output Y = 1 from the following circuit are
36. In a series LCR circuit, the e.m.f. leads current.
A
Now the driving frequency is decreased slightly. B
Match columns I and II. Y
C
(1) 0, 1, 0 (2) 1, 0, 0 (3) 1, 0, 1 (4) 0, 0, 1
Column-I Column-II
41. An electron of mass m when accelerated through
Current a potential difference V has de-Broglie wavelength
A. (1). Incre ase s
amplitude . The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a
proton of mass M accelerated through the same
B. Phase constant (2). De cre ase s potential difference will be :
Powe r de ve lope d m m M M
C. (3). Re mains same
in re sistor (1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
M M m m
May increase or
D. Impe dance (4). 42. In given circuit, ratio of charge of 2µF capacitor
dcrease
to the charge on 3µF capacitor will be

(1) (A)  (1,2) ; (B)  (2); (C)  (3,4); (D)  (1)

1µF 2µF
(2) (A)  (1) ; (B)  (2); (C)  (1); (D)  (2)
3µF
(3) (A)  (1) ; (B)  (3); (C)  (1); (D)  (1,2)
(4) (A)  (2) ; (B)  (3); (C)  (4); (D)  (1)
37. A sample of 0.4 g of water at 100°C and normal (1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 1 : 9 (4) 2 : 9
pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires 216 cal of 43. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical
heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are
volume of the steam produced is 668.4 cc, the KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis
change in internal energy of the sample, is : and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of
(1) 665.4 J (2) 482.6 J the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then
(3) 835.2 J (4) 1106.3 J (1) KB < KA < KC B
38. The refractive index of the material of a prism is (2) KA > KB > KC
(3) KA < KB < KC A C
2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the S
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a (4) KB > KA > KC

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44. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller (1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
and the universal gravitational constant were ten (2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
times larger in magnitude, which of the following
is not correct ? (3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(1) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth (4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
would decrease. 52. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
(2) Walking on the ground would become more following sequence of reactions :
difficult. Anhydrous
(3) Raindrops will fall faster. AlCl3 (i) O2
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl P Q+R
(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change. (ii) H3O+/
45. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100ºC and normal
pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires 54 cal of P Q R
heat energy to convert to steam at 100ºC. If the CH(CH3)2 OH
volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
change in internal energy of the sample, is. (1)
(1) 42.2 J (2) 208.7 J (3) 104.3 J (4) 84.5 J
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
(2)
CHEMISTRY , ,
46. Th e co rrect order of N-co mpou nds in i ts
decreasing order of oxidation states is
(1) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 CH2CH2CH3 CHO
(3) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl (4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
47. Which one of the following elements is unable to (3)
, , CH3CH2–OH
form MF63 ion ?
(1) B (2) Al (3) Ga (4) In
48. The correct order of bond angles in BF3, NH3, NF3 OH
and PH3 CH(CH3 )2
(1) BF3 > NH3 > NF3 > PH3 (4) , CH3CO–CH3
,
(2) PH3 > BF3 > NF3 > NH3
(3) BF3 > PH3 > NH3 > NF3
53. Which of the following compounds can form a
(4) NH3 > NF3 > BF3 > PH3 zwitterion ?
49. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Acetanilide
elements is
(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (3) Aniline (4) Glycine
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl 54. Strongest base is
50. Which of the following statements is not true for H H
halogens ? N N N O
(1) All shows the +ve oxidation state. (1) (2) (3) (4)
(2) All are oxidizing agents.
(3) All form monobasic oxyacids. 55. Which one of the following conditions will favour
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain maximum formation of the product in the
enthalpy. reaction,
51. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II 
A 2  g   B2  g   X 2  g   r H   X kJ ?
(A) Orbital angular momentum (i) n – l – 1 (1) High temperature and high pressure
(B) Total no. of nodes (ii) n – 1 (2) Low temperature and low pressure
(C) Total no. of radial nodes (iii) n(n  2) (3) Low temperature and high pressure
(4) High temperature and low pressure
(D) Magnetic moment (iv) h
l (l  1)
2
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56. Correct statement about amylose and amylopectin 63. Which of the following molecules represents the
is order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from left to
(1) Amylopectin have 1 4 -linkage and 1  6 right atoms?
-linkage (1) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(2) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6 (2) CH2 = CH – C  CH
-linkage (3) HC = C – C = CH
(3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and 1 6 (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
-linkage
64. Which of the following carbocations is expected
(4) Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose to be most stable?
57. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid
is treated with conc. H2SO4. the evolved gaseous NO2
NO2
mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in
g) of the remaining product at STP will be 
(1) 2.8 (2) 3.0 (1) H (2)
(3) 1.4 (4) 4.4
Y  Y H
58. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature ?
NO2
(1) BaO (2) BeO NO2
(3) MgO (4) CaO H
59. Calculate the boiling point of one molar aqueous 
(3)  (4)
solution. Density of KBr solution is 1.06 g ml–1 (Kb Y
for H2O = 0.52 K kg mol–1, atomic mass of K = 39
Br = 80) Y H
(1) 373 K (2) 374.105 K 65. Which of the following is correct with respect to
– I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)
(3) 378.105 K (4) 371.27 K
(1) –NH2 > – OR > –F (2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
60. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B,
and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to (3) –F > – NH2 > – OR (4) – OR > –NH2 > – F
give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order 66. In the reaction
(1) C2H5 Cl,C2H6 ,C2H5 OH
OH O–Na+
(2) C2H5 OH, C2H5 Cl, C2H5 ONa
(3) C2H5 OH,C2H6 ,C2H5 Cl CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH
(4) C2H5 OH, C2H5 ONa,C2H5 Cl
61. The compound C7H 8 undergoes the following
the electrophile involved is
reactions :
3Cl2 / 
C 7H8 
 A 
Br2 /Fe
 B 
C
Zn/HCl (1) dichloromethyl anion C HCl2  Θ

The product ‘C’ is (2) formyl cation C HO 

(1) 3-bromo-2, 4, 6-trichlorotoluene (3) dichloromethyl cation C HCl2  

(2) o-bromotoluene
(3) m-bromotoluene (4) dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
(4) p-bromotoluene 67. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than
62. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bro mine by al dehy des, ketones an d even alcoh ols of
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
Wurtz reaction is conve rted to gase ous (1) more extensive association of carboxylic acid
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon via van der Waals force of attraction
atoms. (A) is (2) formation of carboxylate ion
(1) CH3 – CH3 (2) CH2 = CH2 (3) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(3) CH  CH (4) CH4 (4) formation of intermolecular H-bonding
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68. Given below are two statements :
M M
Statement-I : If a liquid solute is more volatile c. 75mL HCl  25mL NaOH
5 5
than the solvent is added to the solvent, the
vapour pressure of the solution may increase, M M
i.e... Ps>Po d. 100mL HCl  100mL NaOH
10 10
Statement-II : In the presence of a more volatile pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?
liquid solute, only the solute will form the vapours (1) d (2) a (3) b (4) c
and solvent will not.
75. Which of the following is not the product of acid
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are catalysed dehydration of OH ?
correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(1) (2)
69. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY
are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the formation
fo XY is – 200 kJ mol–1 . The bond dissociation
energy of X2 will be
(1) 800 kJ mol–1 (2) 100 kJ mol–1 (3) (4)
(3) 200 kJ mol–1 (4) 400 kJ mol–1
70. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d 76. Which one of the following has maximum
transition and paramagnetism as well? number of molecules ?
(1) MnO4 (2) Cr2O72 (1) 16 g of O2 (2) 16 g of NO2
(3) CrO24 (4) MnO24 (3) 4 g of N2 (4) 32 g of N2
71. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is 77. The sol ubili ty o f BaSO 4 i n water is
2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 at 298 K. The value of its
(1) trinuclear (2) mononuclear
solubility product (Ksp) will be
(3) tetranuclear (4) dinuclear
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 gmol–1)
72. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
[CoCl2 (en)2]is (1) 1.08  1014 mol2L2 (2) 1.08  1012 mol 2L2
(1) Ionization isomerism (3) 1.08  1010 mol2L2 (4) 1.08  108 mol2L2
(2) Coordination isomerism
78. In which case is the number of molecules of
(3) Geometrical isomerism water maximum?
(4) Linkage isomerism (1) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
73. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the (2) 0.18g of water
complex  Ni  CO4  are (3) 18mL of water
(1) square planar geometry and paramagnetic (4) 10–3mol of water
(2) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic 79. The value of H – U when 2 moles of solid
benzoic acid undergoes combustion at 300 K is
(3) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
given by:
(4) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
(1) –1.247 kJ (2) –2.494 kJ
74. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
(3) + 2.494 kJ (4) +1.247 kJ
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations : 80. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2 the order of ionic
character is
M M (1) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
a. 60 mL HCl  40mL NaOH
10 10 (2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
M M (3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
b. 55mL HCl  45mL NaOH
10 10 (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
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81. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also (1) The electronic configuration of N atom is
gives m-nitroaniline because 1
1s
2
2s
2
2p1x 2py 2p1z
(1) In absence of substituents nitro group always
goes to m-position
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions amino
numbers while an electron in an atom is
group is meta directive
designated by four quantum numbers
(3) In spite of substituents nitro group always goes
(3) Total orbital angular momentum of electron
to only m-position
in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present
as anilinium ion (4) The value of m for d2z is zero
82. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI 87. The structure of iso-butyl group in an organic
(produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a compound is
yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. CH3
A and Y are respectively (1) CH – CH2 –
CH3
(2) CH3  CH2  CH2  CH3
CH – CH3 and I2
(1) (3) CH3  CH2  CH2  CH2 –
OH
CH3

(4) CH3 – C –
(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
CH3
88. Which of the following has maximum unpaired
(3) H3C CH2 – OH and I2 d-electrons ?
(1) Zn2+ (2) Fe2+ (3) Ni 2+ (4) Cu+
CH3 89. Calculate emf of the following cell at 298 K.
(4) CH3 OH and I2 Mg(s)|Mg 2 (0.1M)||Cu2 (0.01)|Cu(s)
Given, E0cell  2.71 V
83. For the redox reaction
(1) 1.60 V (2) 1.68 V (3) 2.68 V (4) 3.68 V
MnO4  C2O24  H  Mn2  CO2  H2O 90. A drop of a solution (volume = 0.05 mL) contains
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the 6×10–7 mol of H+. If the rate of disappearence of
balanced equation are H+ is 6.0×105 mol/L × s, how long will it take for
MnO4 C2O24 H H+ to disappear from the drop :
(1) 2 16 5 (1) 8.0 × 10–8 s (2) 2.0 × 10–8 s
(2) 2 5 16 (3) 6.0 × 10–6 s (4) 2.0 × 10–2 s
(3) 16 5 2
(4) 5 16 2 BIOLOGY
84. Consider the following species : 91. Which type of plant tissue is being described by
the given statements?
CN ,CN , NO and CN (i) It consists of long, narrow cells with thick and
Which one of these will have the highest bond lignified cell walls having a few or numerous
order? pits.
(1) CN+ (2) CN– (3) NO (4) CN (ii) They are dead and without protoplasts.
85. Among the following iodine oxides, which one is (iii) On the basis of variation in form, structure,
very good oxidising agent and is used in the origin and development, it may be either fibres
estimation of carbon monoxide:– or sclereids.
(iv)It provides mechanical support to organs.
(1) I2O7 (2) I2O5 (3) I2O4 (4) I2O
(1) Parenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma
86. Which one is a wrong statement?
(3) Collenchyma (4) Chlorenchyma
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92. Double fertilization is a b c d a b c d
(1) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg (1) i iv ii iii (2) i i i i iv i i
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar (3) i i i ii i iv (4) iv iii ii i
nuclei
98. Cardiac output is blood :
(3) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube
(1) Received by heart per minute
with two different eggs
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion (2) Pumped by ventricles per sec
93. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in (3) Pumped by each ventricle per minute
liquids nitrogen having a temperature of (4) Pumped by left ventricle per hour
(1) – 196°C (2) – 80°C (3) – 120°C (4) –160°C 99. Fungi and bacteria degrade detritus into simpler
94. Statement I : In Eastern countries a large number inorganic substances through different enzymes.
of pollen product in the form of tablet and syrup is This phenomena is known as :
available in market. (1) Anabolism (2) Catabolism
Statement II : Pollen consumption has been
(3) Leaching (4) Fragmentation
claimed to increase the performance of athlete
and race horses. 100. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR) is
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct. (1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
incorrect. (3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
incorrect.
101. Select the correct statement:
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct. (1) Spliceosomes take part in translation
95. Which of the following is true for nucleolus (2) Punnett square was developed by a British
(1) It takes part in spindle formation scientist
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure (3) Franklin Stahl coined the term “linkage”
(3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells (4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis 102. The experimental proof for semiconservative
96. Match the items given in Column I with those in replication of DNA was first shown in a
Column II and select the correct option given (1) Plant (2) Bacterium
below : (3) Fungus (4) Virus
Column I Column II
103. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium hormone?
and left ventricle
(1) Estradiol (2) Ecdysone
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Aorta and pulmonary
artery (3) Epinephrine (4) Estriol
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium 104. Which of the following hormones can play a
and right ventricle significant role in osteoporosis?
a b c a b c (1) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(1) i ii iii (2) i iii ii (2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(3) i i i i ii (4) i i i iii (3) Aldosterone and Prolactin
97. Match the items given in Column I with those in (4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
Column II and select the correct option given
105. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
below:
pregnancy are :
Column I Column II
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 - 3000 mL
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
b. Inspiratory Reserve volume ii. 1100 - 1200 mL
c. Expiratory Reserve volume iii. 500 - 550 mL (3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 - 1100 mL (4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

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106. The difference between spermiogenesis and 112. Which of the following features is used to identify
spermiation is : a male cockroach from a female cockroach ?
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli (1) Forewings with darker tegmina
cel ls are released into the cavity of (2) Presence of caudal styles
seminiferous tubules, while the spermiation
(3) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th
spermatozoa are formed.
abdominal segment
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
(4) Presence of anal cerci
while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
113. Natality refers to
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed (1) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, (2) Birth rate
wh ile in spermiati on spermatozoa are (3) Death rate
released from sertoli cells into the cavity of (4) Number of individual entering a habitat
seminiferous tubules. 114. Last electron acceptor during ETS :
107. Choose the odd one out with respect to location: (1) H2O (2) Cyt-a (3) O2 (4) Cyt-a3
(1) Forest (2) Grassland 115. The correct sequence of cell organelles during
(3) Wetland (4) Desert photorespiration is
108. LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecule (1) chloroplast, Peroxisome, mitochondria
bound to proteins. In LHC, reaction centre is (2) chloroplast, rough endoplasmic reticulum,
formed by : dictyosomes
(1) Carotenoids and Xanthophylls (3) chloroplast, mitochondria, peroxisome
(2) A single chlorophyll a molecule (4) chloroplast, vacuole, peroxisome
(3) All the pigment except one molecule of 116. Which of the following animals does not undergo
chlorophyll b. metamorphosis ?
(4) None of the above. (1) Moth (2) Tunicate
109. Which of the following has proved helpful in (3) Earthworm (4) Starfish
preserving pollen as fossils? 117. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
drug “Smack” ?
(1) Oil content (2) Cellulosic intine
(1) Roots (2) Latex (3) Flowers (4) Leaves
(3) Pollenkitt (4) Sporopollenin
118. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
110. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
evolution is :
(1) is an IUD
(1) Phenotypic variations
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen and
(2) Saltation
prevents ovulation in females.
(3) Multiple step mutations
(3) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted. (4) Minor mutations
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive. 119. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
111. Assertion : Myelin sheath insulates the nerve (1) Some mosses provide food for herbaceous
fibre and prevents its depolarisation. mammals, birds and other animals.
(2) Le aves in pteridophyte s are small in
Reason : Nerve impulses are conducted more
selaginella or large as in fern.
rapidly in non-myelinated nerve
fibres than in myelinated ones. (3) In fern, spores are formed in archegonium.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the (4) Pinus is a monoecious plant having male and
Reason is the correct explanation of the female cones on the same tree.
Assertion. 120. The two functional groups characteristic of sugars
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the are
Reason is not the correct explanation of the (1) carbonyl and phosphate
Assertion. (2) carbonyl and methyl
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3) hydroxyl and methyl
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. (4) carbonyl and hydroxyl

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121. Statement I : Chromosomal abberrations are II. Chromosome 1 has maximum genes i.e. 2968
commonly observed in cancer and Y has the fewest gene 123.
cells.
III. The human genome contain 8164.7 million
Statement II : The alteration in chromosome base pair.
results due to loss of a segment
of DNA and gain of a segment of IV. The total number of genes is estimated at
DNA. 30,000.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are V. Repeated sequence make up very large portion
incorrect of the human genome.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is How many statements are correct ?
incorrect
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Three (4) Five
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct 127. Read the following statements and choose the set
of correct statements :
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
122. Match the items given in Column I with those in (i) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
Column II and select the correct option given (ii) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
below : (iii) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively
Column I Column II charged DNA in nucleosome
(Function) (Part of Excretory (iv)Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
System) (v) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA
(a) Ultrafiltration (i) Henle’s loop helix
(b) Concentration (ii) Ureter Choose the correct answer from the options given
of urine below :
(c) Transport of urine (iii) Urinary bladder
(1) (i), (iii), (iv) only (2) (ii), (v) only
(d) Storage of urine (iv)Malpighian corpuscle
(3) (i), (iii), (v) only (4) (ii), (iv), (v) only
(v) Proximal convoluted
tubule 128. Calciu m is important in skele tal muscle
contraction because it :
a b c d a b c d
(1) detaches the myosin head from the actin
(1) v iv i i i (2) iv i ii iii
filament.
(3) iv v ii i i i (4) v iv i iii
(2) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
123. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II and select the correct option given (3) binds to troponin to remove the masking of
active sites on actin for myosin
below :
Column I Column II (4) prevents the formation of bonds between the
myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
(a) Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
129. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of :
(b) Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
(1) Nucleic acids and SER
(c) Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism
(2) DNA and RNA
a b c
(3) Proteins and lipids
(1) i iii ii
(2) i ii iii (4) Free ribosomes and RER
(3) i i i ii i 130. Assertion : The female exte rnal gen ital ia
includes mons pubis, labia majora
(4) i i iii i and labia minora.
124. Which of the following is an occupational Reason : The glandular tissue of each breast
respiratory disorder ? is divided into 5-10 mammary lobes.
(1) Botulism (2) Silicosis (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(3) Anthracis (4) Emphysema Reason is the correct explanation of the
125. Which of the following is not a product of light, Assertion.
reaction of photosynthesis ? (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(1) NADPH (2) NADH (3) ATP (4) Oxygen Reason is not the correct explanation of the
126. Read the salient feature of human genome Assertion.
I. Largest human gene is dystrophin with 2.4 (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
billion bases. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
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131. The characters which appear in the first filial
Other animal
generation are called groups Mammals Mosses
Ferms and
Fishes allies
(1) recessive characters Crustaceans Birds
I Insects III
IV
(2) dominant characters
II Reptiles
Lichens
(3) holandric characters Algae
A B C
(4) lethal characters Invertebrates Vertebrates Plant

132. Armyworm is :
(1) I- Molluscs, II - Amphibians, III- Fungi,
(1) Dipterans (2) Coleopterans IV - Angiosperms
(3) Lepidopterans (4) Molluscan (2) I - Molluscs, II- Amphibians, III - Angiosperms,
133. Assertion (A) : Release of e– from reaction centre IV - Fungi
is called photo-oxidation (3) I - Hexapoda, II - Amphibians, III - Fungi,
IV - Angiosperms
Reason (R) : Radiolabelled oxygen in CO2 makes
evolved oxygen radioactive (4) I - Turtles, II - Amphibians, III - Fungi,
IV - Angiosperms
(1) If both A and R is correct and R is correct
explanation of A. 138. The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac
(2) If both A and R is correct but R is not correct (1) through one of the synergids
explanation of A. (2) by directly penetrating the egg
(3) If A is correct but R is incorrect (3) between one synergid and central cell
(4) If both A and R is incorrect (4) by knocking off the antipodal cells
134. In which disease does mosquito transmitted 139. Select the wrong statement :
pathoge n cause chro nic infl ammation of (1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
lymphatic vessels ? structures in Sporozoans.
(1) Ringworm disease (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(2) Ascariasis (3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and
(3) Elephantiasis Plantae.
(4) Amoebiasis (4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell
135. Which of the following options correctly represents in all kingdoms except Monera.
the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, 140. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional
respectively? value by increasing the amount of :
(1) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation (1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin A
of bronchioles (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased 141. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs
respiratory surface of many vertebrates is an example of :
(3) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased (1) Convergent evolution
respiratory surface
(2) Analogy
(4) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation
of bronchioles (3) Homology

136. Among the following sets of examples for divergent (4) Adaptive radiation
evolution, select the incorrect option : 142. Which of the following is an exclusive character
of class mammalia?
(1) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(1) Internal fertilization
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(2) Presence of a completely 4-chambered heart
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(3) Homoiothermy
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(4) Presence of a muscular diaphragm
137. Given below are pie diagrams A, B and C related
143. After karyogamy followed by meiosis,spores are
to proportionate number of species of major taxa
produced exogenously in
of inverte brates, vertebrates and plan ts
respectively. Critically study and fill in the blanks (1) Agaricus (2) Alternaria
I, II, III and IV. (3) Neurospora (4) Saccharomyces
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144. Which amino acid is represented by ‘A’ in the given (2) Muscle is a specialised tissues of endodermal
figure ? in origin
(3) Th ere are abou t 639 muscl es w hi ch
contribute about 40-50 % of adult body wall
A
(4) Muscles show contractibility, excitability and
conductivity
152. Which type of bacteria produces acid that
coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins?
(1) Streptococcus (2) Lactobacillus
(3) Enterococcus (4) Saccharomyces
153. Which of the following has the ability to transform
(1) Serine (2) Threonine normal cells into cancerous cells in animals ?
(3) Tyrosine (4) Methionine (1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
145. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a (2) Retroviruses
body part and the kind of muscle tissue that (3) DNA-viruses
moves it?
(4) Plasmids
(1) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
154. Find out the animal which is detritivores in
(2) Abdominal wall – Voluntary smooth muscle nature, they breakdown small particles in their
(3) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle simplest form by process of fragmentation:
(4) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle (1) Earthworm (2) Cockroach
146. The similarity between bacterial and eukaryotic (3) Echinoderm (4) Pila globosa
DNA is that both are :
155. How many episodes of mass extinction of species
(1) Circular (2) Single stranded have occurred since the origin and diversification
(3) Double stranded (4) All of the above of life on earth?
147. Which one is wrongly matched? (1) Six (2) Four (3) Seven (4) Five
(1) Gemma cups - Marchantia 156. In making foods such as dosa and idli, the puffed
(2) Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae up appearance of dough is due to the production
of which gas?
(3) Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (3) O2 (4) O3
(4) Unicellular organism - Chlorella
157. Match the items given in Column I with those in
148. Which of the following statements is correct ? Column II and select the correct option given
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming helps in pseudopodia below :
formation or amoeboid movement Column I Column II
(2) Cy to pl asmi c streami ng is cau se d by (a) Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of
contracting microfilament uric acid in joints
(3) Both 1 and 2
(b) Gout (ii) Mass of crystallised salts
(4) Locomotion is not a voluntary movement within the kidney
149. Which of the following organisms are known as (c) Renal calculi (iii) Inflammation in
chief producers in the oceans ? glomeruli
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Diatoms (d) Glomerular (iv) Presence of glucose
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids nephritis in urine
150. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ a b c d a b c d
conservation’ except : (1) i i iii i iv (2) i ii iii iv
(1) Botanical gardens (3) i i i ii iv i (4) iv i ii iii
(2) Sacred groves 158. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(3) Wildlife safari parks (1) XO type sex determination : Grasshopper
(4) Seed banks (2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
151. Which of the following statements is false ? (3) Starch synthesis in Pea : Multiple alleles
(1) Locomotion and many other movements (4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
required coordinated muscular activities
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159. Allelic sequence variations, where more than one 169. Assertion (A)
variant (allele) at a locus occurs in a human Forming face of golgi bodies are distant from ER.
population with a frequency greater than 0.01 are
referred to as : Reason (R)
(1) Single nucleotide polymorphism RER helps in lipid synthesis
(2) DNA polymorphism (1) If both A and R is correct and R is not correct
explanation of A.
(3) Expressed sequence Tags
(2) If both A and R is correct but R is not correct
(4) RNA polymorphism
explanation of A.
160. The Golgi complex participates in
(3) If A is correct but R is incorrect
(1) Respiration in bacteria
(4) If both A and R is incorrect
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles
170. E.coli, completes the process of replication within
(3) Fatty acid breakdown
(1) 18 minutes (2) 28 minutes
(4) Activation of amino acid
(3) 38 minutes (4) 48 minutes
161. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
171. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in :
(1) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis
(1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2) It functions as an electron carrier
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing
(3) It functions as an enzyme.
excess water
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic
(3) using flagella for locomotion
respiration.
162. Which of the following is commonly used as a (4) having two types of nuclei
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human 172. Wh ich one of these an imal s is not a
lymphocytes? homeotherm ?
(1)  phage (2) Ti plasmid (1) Camelus (2) Chelone
(3) Retrovirus (4) pBR 322 (3) Mocropus (4) Psittacula
163. Use of bioresources by multinational companies 173. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her
and organisations without authorisation from the X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
concerned country and its people is called inherited by :
(1) Biodegradation (2) Biopiracy (1) Only grandchildren
(3) Bio-infringement (4) Bioexploitation (2) Only sons
164. Select the correct match: (3) Only daughters
(1) T.H. Morgan - Transduction (4) Both sons and daughters
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross 174. Which of the following statement is the first step
(3) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid in photosynthesis ?
(4) G.Mendel - Transformation (1) Ionization of water
165. The stage during which separation of the paired (2) Formation of ADP
homologous chromosomes begins is (3) Formation of ATP
(1) Diakinesis (2) Diplotene
(4) Excitation of chlorophyll by photon of light
(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
175. “They are found in aquatic habitats and on
166. After ovulation Graafian follicle regreses into decaying wood in moist and damp places or as
(1) Corpus atresia (2) Corpus callosum obligate parasites on plants”.
(3) Corpus luteum (4) Corpus albicans Above statements is related to :
167. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive (1) Albugo (2) Aspergillus
method is (3) Ustilago (4) Alternaria
(1) Ovariectomy (2) Castration 176. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
(3) Vasectomy (4) All the above strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
168. What is the % of PAR in the incident-solar sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?
radiation ? (1) ACCUAUGCGAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(1) 100% (2) <50% (3) 2-10% (4) 1-5% (3) AGGUAUCGCAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
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177. Match the items given in Column I with those in 179. Which of these statements is incorrect ?
Column II and select the correct option given (1) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied
below : with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
Column I Column II (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(a) Proliferative Phase (i) Breakdown of (3) En zyme s of TCA cycle are present in
endometrial lining mitochondrial matrix.
(b) Secretory Phase (ii) Follicular Phase (4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer
(c) Menstruation (iii)Luteal Phase mitochondrial membrane.

a b c a b c 180. Gobar gas is produced by :

(1) i i iii i (2) i iii ii (1) Eubacteria (2) Archaebacteria

(3) i i i ii i (4) i i i i ii (3) Fungi (4) Lichens

178. Assertion : Hardy-Weinberg principle states that

in the absence of disturbing influences, gene
frequencies of large populations of sexually
reproducing organisms do not change, provided
that matings, occur at random.
Reason : The disturbing influences include
mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, genetic
recombination and natural selection.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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Answer Key
01. (3) 41. (2) 81. (4) 121. (4) 161. (2)
02. (3) 42. (4) 82. (1) 122. (2) 162. (3)
03. (2) 43. (2) 83. (2) 123. (4) 163. (2)
04. (4) 44. (4) 84. (2) 124. (2) 164. (3)
05. (4) 45. (2) 85. (2) 125. (2) 165. (2)
06. (3) 46. (3) 86. (1) 126. (1) 166. (3)
07. (3) 47. (1) 87. (1) 127. (1) 167. (3)
08. (2) 48. (1) 88. (2) 128. (3) 168. (2)
09. (2) 49. (4) 89. (3) 129. (4) 169. (4)
10. (3) 50. (1) 90. (2) 130. (3) 170. (1)
11. (2) 51. (3) 91. (2) 131. (2) 171. (4)
12. (4) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (3) 172. (2)
13. (2) 53. (4) 93. (1) 133. (4) 173. (4)
14. (3) 54. (1) 94. (4) 134. (3) 174. (4)
15. (4) 55. (3) 95. (4) 135. (3) 175. (1)
16. (4) 56. (3) 96. (3) 136. (4) 176. (3)
17. (2) 57. (1) 97. (2) 137. (1) 177. (1)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (3) 138. (1) 178. (2)
19. (2) 59. (2) 99. (2) 139. (1) 179. (4)
20. (2) 60. (4) 100. (4) 140. (1) 180. (2)
21. (4) 61. (3) 101. (2) 141. (3)
22. (1) 62. (4) 102. (2) 142. (4)
23. (3) 63. (2) 103. (3) 143. (1)
24. (2) 64. (1) 104. (1) 144. (3)
25. (2) 65. (2) 105. (1) 145. (3)
26. (1) 66. (4) 106. (4) 146. (3)
27. (1) 67. (4) 107. (3) 147. (3)
28. (3) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (3)
29. (1) 69. (1) 109. (4) 149. (2)
30. (4) 70. (4) 110. (3) 150. (2)
31. (3) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (2)
32. (2) 72. (3) 112. (2) 152. (2)
33. (4) 73. (2) 113. (2) 153. (2)
34. (3) 74. (4) 114. (3) 154. (1)
35. (4) 75. (4) 115. (1) 155. (4)
36. (2) 76. (4) 116. (3) 156. (1)
37. (3) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (4)
38. (2) 78. (3) 118. (2) 158. (3)
39. (2) 79. (2) 119. (3) 159. (2)
40. (4) 80. (3) 120. (4) 160. (2)