NEET Sample paper 6

BOTANY Choose the correct answer from the options

1. Identify the incorrect regarding transcription given below :
in prokaryotes (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
catalyse the synthesis of mRNA (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) RNA polymerase facilitates the opening
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
of the helix of DNA
(3) RNA polymerase associates transiently 5. Identify A and B respectively in the
with rho factor to initiate the following diagram
transcription
(4) RNA polymerase on its own is only
capable ofcatalyzing the process of
elongation
2. Following are the correct sequence of stages
of meiotic cell divisions
A) Terminalization B) Crossing over
C) Bivalent formation D) Synapsis
E) Segregation of chromosomes
(1) A D B C E (2) B D C E A
(3) B D C A E (4) D C B A E
3. Match the following : (1) Hind II, Pst II (2) Hind III, Pst II
Column-I Column-II (3) Hind III, Pvu II (4) Hind I, Pvu I
A. Ester Bond I. Protein 6. Match the following :

B. Peptide bond II. Nitrogen base pair List-I List-II

N-glycosidic A. Axoneme I. Kinetochore

C. III. Triglyceride
bond Primary
B. II. Fats
Hydrogen constriction
D. IV. Nucleoside
bonds C. Elaioplast III. Fission
D. Mitochondria IV. Cilium
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below : Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II given below :
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4. Match the following : (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Column-I Column-II 7. Net production through glycolysis per
A. Explant I. Somatic hybridization glucose molecule.
Pyruvate ATP NADH
B. Cry I AC II. Corn borer
(1) 2 2 2
C. Pomato III. Cotton boll worms
(2) 2 4 2
D. Cry I Ab IV. Totipotency (3) 1 2 4
(4) 2 4 4
2
 B A B B A A
8. Match the following : A) I i/I i/ii B) I I /I I /ii
A B A B A B A
List-I List-II C) I I /iI /I i D) I i/I i/I i

A. Synapsis I. Pachytene E) iIB/iIA/IAIB

Choose the mostappropriate answer from the
B. Recombinase II. Diakinesis
options given below :
C. Terminalisation III. Anaphase I (1) C & B only (2) D &E only
D. Disjunction IV. Zygotene (3) A only (4) B only
Choose the correct answer from the options 12. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
given below :
R:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II Assertion (A) : The reaction ultimately
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II reaches a maximum velocity (Vmax) which is
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III not exceeded by any further rise in
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III concentration of substrate.
9. Identify the incorrect statement Reason (R) : The enzyme molecules are
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens is a fewer than substrate molecules and all active
pathogen of several dicot plants sites are saturated.
(2) Retroviruses in animals have the ability In the light of the above statements, choose
to transform normal cells into cancerous cells the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(3) In micro injection method, recombinant
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is
DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of
the correct explanation of A
plant cell
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is
(4) DNA is a hydrophilic molecule
NOT the correct explanation of A
10. Match the following :
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
List-I List-II
(4) Both A and R are false
A. Splicing of Exons I. hn RNA 13. Given below are two statements :
B. TATA BOX II. Sn RNPs Statement-I : Mitochondria and chloroplasts
RNA polymerase are semiautonomous cell organelles.
C. III. Sigma factor
II Statement-II : Mitochondria and chloroplasts
Initiation of contain circular single stranded
D. IV. Promotor DNAmolecules.
transcription
Choose the correct answer from the options In the light of the above statements, choose
given below : the correct answer from the options given
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
are true
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
true
11. As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
group of father is B+, mother is A+and child is
false
O+. Genotype of father, mother and child is
respectively (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false
3
14. Identify set of correct statements : 17. Study the following statements :
A) Geitonogamy brings genetically different A) Present on abaxial epidermis
types of pollen grains to the stigma.
B) Large, empty, colourless cells
B) Wind pollinated flowers often have a
single ovule in each ovary and numerous C) With water, the leaf surface is exposed
flowers are packed into inflorescence. D) Present on adaxial epidermis
C) Often flowers of animal pollinated plants How many of the above characters are shown
are not specifically adapted for a particular by bulliform cells
species of animal.
(1) A, B, C only (2) B, C, D only
D) In most of the water pollinated species,
pollen grains are protected from wetting by a (3) C and D only (4) B and D only
mucilaginous covering 18. Which of the following are required for the
E) Pollen grains of Vallisneria are long, light reaction of photosynthesis
ribbon like A. Light B. Chlorophyll
(1) A, B, D only (2) B, C, only
C. CO2 D. ATP
(3) B, D, only (4) A, B, C, D only
E. NADPH
15. In competitive inhibition, the competition
between substrate and competitive inhibitor Choose the correct answer from the options
to bind with active site of enzyme is due to given below:
(1) Structural similarity between (1) C, D and E only (2) D and E only
competitive inhibitor and substrate (3) A and B only (4) B, C and D only
(2) Structural dissimilarity between 19. Formation of cork from phellogen is an
competitive inhibitor and substrate example for
(3) Functional similarity between (1) Dedifferentiation
competitive inhibitor and substrate (2) Maturation
(4) Functional dissimilarity between (3) Differentiation
competitive inhibitor and substrate (4) Redifferentiation
16. Study the following diagram and identify A 20. One of the following has perispermic seeds
and B.
(1) Bean (2) Pea
(3) Black pepper (4) Citrus
21. Which of the following is not true regarding
phycomycetes fungi?
(1) Some members of this group are present
A B in aquatic habitats
Heart shaped (2) Sexual reproduction occurs by isogamy,
(1) Suspensor anisogamy and oogamy
embryo
(2) Zygote Suspensor (3) Aplanospore is a thick walled motile
(3) Globular embryo Suspensor spore
Heart shaped (4) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(4) Suspensor
embryo
4
22. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH + Choose the correct answer from the options
H+ are required in reduction phase for every given below :
molecule of CO2 fixed in the Calvin cycle?
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(1) 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of
NADPH (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
NADPH
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of
NADPH 27 A violet flower colour pea plant when
(4) 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of crossed with the following genotype
NADPH produces both white and violet flower colour
23. Any part of the plant that is used to plants in 1 : 1 ratio
regenerate the complete plant is called
(1) Explant (1) VV (2) Vv
(2) Somatic hybridization (3) vv (4) VV/Vv
(3) Totipotency 28. Choose appropriate options for the given
(4) Micropropagation
24. Homologus chromosomes separate during or statements
two sister chromatids of a homologous A) Heterosporous plant with male and
chromosome move to the same pole in female cone on same plant
(1) Anaphase (2) Anaphase II
(3) Prophase (4) Anaphase I B) Heterosporous pteridophyte plant with
25. Identify the type of flowers based on the microphyllous leaves
position of calyx, corolla androecium with C) Alga that shows complex
respect to the ovary from the given figures postfertilization changes
(a) and (b)
D) Homosporous plant with dioecious
gametophytes
A B C D
(1) Cycas Selaginella Gelidium Marchantia

(a) (b) (2) Pinus Sphagnum Gelidium Marchantia

(1) (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous (3) Pinus Selaginella Spirogyra Marchantia
(2) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
(4) Pinus Selaginella Gelidium Marchantia
(3) (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
(4) (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous 29. Select the odd one out with respect to
26. Match List-I with List-II : 1 : 2 : 1 ratio for F2 generation.
List-I List-II (1) Phenotypic ratio of incomplete
Low molecular dominance
A. TMV I.
weight RNA (2) Genotypic ratio of incomplete
T even Abnormally dominance
B. II.
bacteriophage folded protein (3) Phenotypic ratio of Mendelian
dsDNA with monohybrid cross
C. Viroid III.
capsid
(4) Genotypic ratio of Mendelian
ssRNA with
D. Prion IV. monohybrid cross
capsid
5
30. Given below are two statements : (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Statement-I : Disc florets of Helianthus are (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
bisexual. 33. Identify A and B respectively in the
Statement-II : In basal placentation, the following diagram
placenta develops at base of ovary and single
ovule is attached to it, as in sunflower and
marigold.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II A B
is true (1) Sieve pore Companion cell
(3) Statement I is true but Statement
Phloem Sieve tube
II is false (2)
parenchyma element
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Sieve tube element Companion cell
false
31. Identify the following biomolecule Phloem
(4) Sieve pore
parenchyma
34. Which of the following is an example of
asymmetric flower?
(1) Pisum (2) Sesbania
(3) Canna (4) Cassia
35. Identify the mis-match :
7 methyl guanosine
(1) Capping
triphosphate
(1) Lecithin (2) Palmitic acid (2) Tailing Poly.A
(3) Stearic acid (4) Adenylic acid (3) Splicing Removal of introns
32. Match List-I with List-II : (4) Termination factor
Sigma factor
List-I List-II in transcription
A. Aspergillus niger I. Swiss cheese 36. Ampicillin resistant gene ampR in a
Monascus Acetic transformed host cell is called as ‘selectable
B. II. marker’ because
purpureus acid/vinegar
C. Acetobacter aceti III. Statins (1) Transformants alone grows in ampicillin
agar medium
Propionibacterium
D. IV. Citric acid (2) Non-transformants alone grows in
shermanii
ampicillin agar medium
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below : (3) Transformants were killed in ampicillin
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I agar medium
(4) Both transformants and untransformants
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
survive in the ampicillin medium
6
37. What is true regarding the first artificial (2) Beta-galactoside
recombinant DNA molecule? (3) Beta-galactosidase
(i) Constructed by Watson and Crick (4) Transacetylase
(ii) Vector / plasmid was obtained from 41. The type of fruit in Fabaceae is
Salmonella typhimurium (1) Drupe (2) Berry
(iii) Nucleoid DNA was used as vector (3) Pod or legume (4) Hesperidium
(iv) Genes responsible for antibiotic 42. Statement I : Genetic engineering
resistance was transferred ApprovalCommittee (GEAC) make
(v) Linking of antibiotic resistance gene with decisionsregarding the validity of GM
the vector become possible with the enzyme research and thesafety of introducing GM-
DNA polymerase organisms forpublic services in India.
(vi) Host cell in which the recombinant DNA Statement II : Use of bio-resources by
was inserted is Escherichia coli. multinational companies and other
(1) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct organizations without proper authorization
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct from the countries and people concerned
(3) (ii), (iv),(vi) are correct without compensatory payments is called
(4) (i), (iv), (v), (vi) are correct Biopiracy.
38. The following is not a physiological effect of (1) Both statements are correct
ethylene (2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(1) Thinning of flowers in walnut, cherry (3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
and cotton (4) Both statements are incorrect
(2) It promotes rapid internode/petiole 43. Which of the following statements about
elongation in deep water rice plants collenchyma is incorrect?
(3) It promotes female flowers in cucumber (1) Collenchyma is not produced during
(4) It induces parthenocarpy in tomato secondary growth.
39. Given below are two statements : (2) Collenchyma is a living mechanical
Statement-I: Protein part of conjugated tissue.
enzyme or holoenzyme is called apoenzyme. (3) Collenchyma is a non-living mechanical
Statement-II : Coenzyme is transiently tissue.
attached to apoenzyme. (4) Collenchyma has additional thickening of
In the light of the above statements, choose cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin.
the correct answer from the options given
44. Which of the following accept hydrogen
below : 
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are from NADH  H or what is final electron
true acceptors in alcoholic and lactic acid
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is fermentation respectively
true (1) Ethanol, lactic acid
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is (2) Pyruvic acid, pyruvic acid
false (3) Pyruvic acid, acetaldehyde
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) Acetaldehyde, pyruvic acid
false 45. Which of the following is a intramembrane
40. The lactose is hydrolysed into glucose and H 2 carrier in thylakoid membrane?
galactose by the following enzyme (1) UQ (2) PQ
(1) Permease (3) Cytochrome ‘C’ (4) PC
7
 ZOOLOGY Choose the correct answer from the options
46. There are certain limitations of ecological given below:
pyramids such as (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A. it cannot explain biomass in marine (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
habitats (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II. –D-I
B. it does not take into account the same (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
species belonging to two or more trophic 50. All are cannabinoids except
levels (1) marijuana (2) cocaine
C. it assumes a simple food chain, something (3) hashish (4) charas
that almost never exists in nature 51. The type of joint found between metacarpal
D. it does not accommodate a food chain and carpal of thumb in human is
E. saprophytes are not given any place in (1) saddle joint (2) pivot joint
ecological pyramids (3) hinge joint (4) condyloid joint
Choose the correct answer from the options 52. Given below are two statements:
given below: Statement-I: If there is a substantial risk that
(1) A, B and E only (2) B, C and E only of the child were born, it would suffer from
(3) B, C, D and E only (4) A and B only such physical or mental abnormalities as to
47. These are the factors known to affect Hardy- be seriously handicapped, the termination of
Weinberg equilibrium pregnancy is done during second trimester.
A. Gene flow B. Genetic drift Statement-II: The termination of pregnancy
C. Gene therapy D. Natural Selection can be done during second trimester with
single medical practitioner opinion.
E. Inheritance of acquired characters
In the light of the above statements, choose
Choose the correct option:
the correct answer from the options given
(1) A, B, and E only
below:
(2) A, B and D only
(1) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(3) A, B and D only
(2) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
(4) A, B, C and D only
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
48. The equation population growth is
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
Nt+1 = Nt + [(B+I) – (D+E)]
53. A pair of short, thread like structures found
In the above, E is
in male cockroach only are
(1) the base of natural logarithm
(1) anal cerci
(2) intrinsic rate of natural increase
(2) pineal setae
(3) number of individuals who left the habitat
(3) caudal styles
(4) number of deaths in a population in a
(4) copulatory claspers
given time
54. Zimbabwe had gifted the elephant to Ex-
49. Match List-I with List II:
President of India Sri Shankar Dayal Sharma
List – I List – II
in 1996. It is named as Shankar and has been
A) Connell I) Co-existence
housed at the National Zoological Park,
B) Mac Arthur II) Survival of the
Delhi. Such a conservation method is termed
fittest
(1) Semiconservative method
C) Gause III) Competitive
(2) In vitro culture method
release
(3) Ex situ conservation method
D) Darwin IV) Competitive
(4) On site conservation method
exclusion
8
55. Which of the following type of cells are not Choose the most appropriate answer from the
found in testis of human? options given below:
(1) Sertoli cells (1) A, B and D only
(2) Granulosa cells (2) B and E only
(3) Leydig cells (3) B, C and E only
(4) Immunological competent cells (4) A, C, D and E only
56. Given below are some periods of geological
61. Match List-I with List-II with respect to
time scale: modes of infection:
Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to
List-I List-II
Recent)
A. Amoebiasis I. Food and water
A. Silurian B. Permian
B. Chikungunya II. Inhalation of
C. Carboniferous D. Devonian
aerosols
Choose the correct sequence from the options
C. Pneumonia III. Insect bite
given below
D. Tetanus IV. Spores in the soil
(1) D-A-C-B (2) B-A-D-C Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) C-B-D-A (4) A-D-C-B given below:
57. Which of the following is neither protein nor (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
peptide hormone? (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(1) Corticotrophin (2) Prolactin (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) Relaxin (4) Androgen (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
58. All are the features of angiotensin-II except 62. Which of the following is not an event of
(1) a powerful vasoconstrictor inspiration?
(2) increases the glomerular blood (1) Contraction of internal intercostal
(3) decreases the GFR muscles
(4) activates the adrenal cortex to release (2) Elevation of ribcage upward and forward
aldosterone (3) Flattening of diaphragm
59. The wing of pigeon shows homology with (a) (4) Decrease in intrapulmonary pressure
and analogy with (b). (a) and (b) are 63. Match List-I with List-II
(1) (a) – leg of cockroach; (b) – pelvic fin of List-I List-II
shark A. Down’s syndrome I. Inborn error of
(2) (a) – forelimb of penguin; (b) – wing of metabolism
locust B. Phenylketonuria II. Blood related
(3) (a) – forelimb of rabbit; (b) – flipper of disorder
whale C. Thalassemia III. Allosomal
(4) (a) – Foot of snail; (b) – Wing of butterfly monosomy
60. Which of the following are Physiological D. Turner’s syndrome IV. Autosomal
Barriers? trisomy
A. Mucus coat of respiratory tract
Choose the correct answer from the options
B. Acid in the stomach given below:
C. Saliva in the mouth
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. Phagocytosis by neutrophil
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
E. Tears from eyes
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
9
64. Given below are two statements: one is Choose the correct answer from the options
labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled given below:
as Reason R: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Assertion (A): Progesterone plays a major
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
role in the maintenance of pregnancy as well
as mammary gland development and milk (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
secretion. (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Reason (R) : Progesterone is secreted by 68. In haplo-diplody of honeybee,
both corpus luteum and placenta. (1) drones are diploid
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) females are haploid
the correct answer from the options given
(3) females are formed by parthenogenesis
below:
(4) drones have no father
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A 69. Which of the following is incorrect with
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the respect to cerebellum in human’s brain?
correct explanation of A (1) Has very convoluted surface in order to
(3) A is true but R is false provide more space to more neurons
(4) A is false but R is true (2) Integrates information received from
65. Identify the mismatched combination from semi-circular canals of the ear and auditory
the following system
(1) Smooth muscle – Fusiform muscle fibres
(3) It’s a pivotal part in the brainstem that
(2) Myelinated neurons – Saltatory
forms connection between brain and spinal
transmission
cord
(3) Cardiac muscle – Intercalated discs
(4) Bipolar neurons – Two dendrites (4) It constitutes a part of hind brain and
66. In SNPs, P stands for commonly termed little brain
(1) polymerization (2) polymorphism 70. Three types of connective tissues given as A,
(3) polyploidy (4) palindrome B and C. Identify the correct matching pair
67. Match List-I with List-II along the feature/location in human body
List-I List-II
A. Metastasis I. Tendency of the
body to manifest
unpleasant
withdrawal syndrome
B. Dependence II. Feared property of (1) A-Dense regular: Tendon; B-Dense
malignant tumour irregular: Skin; C-Bone-Non-pliable
C. Vaccination III. Based on the (2) A-Dense irregular-Skin; B-Dense regular-
property of memory Tendon; C-Bone-Pliable
of immune system (3) A-Dense regular: Tendon; B-Dense
D. Antibiosis IV. Interaction irregular-Skin: C-Cartilage-Non-pliable
between organisms (4) A-Dense irregular-Skin; B-Dense regular-
where one is Tendon; C-Cartilage-Pliable
negatively affected.
10
71. Given below are two statements: One is 74. Match List-I with List-II
labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled List-I List-II
as Reason R: A. Condom I. Cervix
Assertion (A): Cardiac output of an athlete B. Vault II. Fallopian tube
will be much higher than that of an ordinary C. IUD III. Vagina
man. D. Tubectomy IV. Uterus
Reason (R) : The body has the ability to Choose the correct answer from the option
alter the stroke volume but not the heart rate given below:
to enhance the cardiac output. (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
the most appropriate answer from the options (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
given below: (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the 75. Given below are two statements:
correct explanation of A Statement-I: Conditional reabsorption of Na+
and water takes place in distal convoluted
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
tubule.
the correct explanation of A
Statement-II: Large amounts of water could
(3) A is correct but R is not correct be reabsorbed from the distal convoluted
(4) A is not correct but R is correct tubule to produce a concentrated urine by
72. pO2 is 95 mm Hg, 40 mmHg and 104 mmHg obligate reabsorption of water.
respectively in In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) systemic vein, pulmonary vein and the correct answer from the option given
below:
alveoli
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(2) systemic artery, pulmonary artery and
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are
alveoli false
(3) systemic vein, pulmonary artery and (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
alveoli false
(4) systemic artery, pulmonary vein and (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is
alveoli true
73. Consider the following statements: 76. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
A. Larva of echinoderm is radially
A. Pteropus I. Platypus
symmetrical
B. Ornithorhynchus II. Kangaroo
B. Tapeworms are metmerically segmented
C. Macropus III. Flying fox
C. Statocysts are found in aquatic arthropods D. Balaenoptera IV. Blue whale
D. Roundworms are exclusive parasites of Choose the correct answer from the options
animals given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) A-II, B-I, C-IIII, D-IV
given below: (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(1) B only (2) A only (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) C only (4) D only
11
 - - -
77. Match List-I with List-II: 80. Match List-I with List-II related to frog
List-I List-II List-I List-II
A. Conus arteriosus I. Heart
A. Pectoral girdle I. Tibia-fibula
B. Corpora bigemina II. Brain
B. Pelvic girdle II. Coxal bone C. Foramen magnum III. Skull
C. Forelimb III. Radius-ulna D. Bidder’s canal IV. Kidney
D. Hind limb IV. Scapula Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
given below:
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 81. The following are the statements about
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II reptiles:
A. Thick shelled eggs are produced
78. Given below are two statements:
B. Vestigial gill slits seen in their embryos
Statement-I: Oxytocin acts on the uterine C. Mesodermal scales form exoskeleton
muscle and causes stronger contractions, D. Fertilization is internal
which inturn stimulates further secretion of E. All have three-chambered heart
oxytocin during parturition. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Statement-II: Oxytocin is synthesized, stored options given below:
and released by neurohypophysis. (1) A and C only (2) A, B and D only
(3) B, D and E only (4) B, C and D only
In the light of the above statements, choose
82. Part of nephron that is not seen in cortical
the correct answer from the options given region is
below: (1) loop of Henle
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) distal convoluted tubule
false (4) collecting duct
83. Given below are two statements:
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
Statement I: A canal called cerebral aqueduct
false
passes through the midbrain.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is Statement II: The dorsal portion of midbrain
true has mainly four round swellings called
79. Identify the mismatched combination from corpora striata.
the following In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Competitive interference: Flamingoes and the most appropriate answer from the options
resident fishes for zooplankton given below:
(2) Competitive exclusion: Goat and (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
Abingdon tortoise
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Competitive release: Balanus and
incorrect
Chathamalus
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) Interspecific competition: Extinction of incorrect
warblers due to severe competition between (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
them correct
12
84. Observe the following flow chart 88. A woman with blood type ‘O’ has a child
with blood type ‘O’. If her husband has ‘B’,
then the
genotype of him is
(1) IAIB (2) IBIB
(3) IBIO (4) IAIO
89. Most abundant protein secreted by fibroblasts
in connective tissue are
(1) elastin fibres (2) reticular fibres
(3) collagen fibres (4) gelatin fibres
Identify the correct with respect to the above 90. Match List-I with List-II:
chart List-I List – II
(1) (a) and (b) are haploid A. Addison’s disease I. Hyposecretion of
(2) (e) and (f) are formed in fallopian tube insulin
(3) No need of the sperm entry for the B. Cretinism II. Hyposecretion of
formation of (d) and (f) vasopressin
(4) (c) is formed by mitotic division C. Diabetes mellitus III. Hyposecretion of
85. An elastic fibre that bisects isotrophic band corticoid hormones
in a sarcomere is D. Diabetes insipidus IV. Hyposecretion of
(1) Z-line (2) H-zone thyroxine
(3) M-line (4) Y-intercept Choose the correct answer from the options
86. Given below are two statements: given below
Statement-I: The primary and secondary (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
responses are carried out with the help of two (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
special types of lymphocytes namely B- (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes. (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Statement-II: Humoral response is antibody PHYSICS
mediated and cell mediated immunity is 91. The work function of a material is 4.0 eV.
mediated by T-lymphocytes. The wavelength of light for which the
In the light of above statements, choose the stopping potential is 2.2 V is
most appropriate answer from the options (1) 620 nm (2) 310 nm
given below: (3) 200 nm (4) 400 nm
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are 92. Assertion (A) : A diamagnetic substance is
correct placed in an external magnetic field B0 in
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
free space. The field B inside the material is
incorrect
less that in free space.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Reason (R) : Relative permeability of
incorrect
diamagnetic material is less than one (unity)
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct
correct explanation of A.
87. Moist surface of buccal cavity is lined by
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(1) simple squamous epithelium
correct explanation of A.
(2) compound epithelium
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(3) columnar epithelium with microvilli
(4) A is false, but R is true.
(4) pseudostratified epithelium
13
93. A thermodynamic system is taken through 97. 1 cm of main scale of a vernier caliper is
the cycle abacda. The total heat rejected by divided into 10 equal parts. If 10 divisions
the gas during the process is of vernier coincide with 8 small division of
main scale, the least count of the caliper is
(1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.02 cm
(3) 0.05 cm (4) 0.005 cm
98. The elastic limit of steel is 8 108 Nm2 and
its young’s modulus is 2 1011 Nm2 . The
maximum elongation of a 3 m length steel
(1) 60 J (2) Zero wire that can be given without exceeding the
elastic limit is
(3) 40 J (4) 20 J
(1) 4 mm (2) 12 mm
94. In a step – down transformer having primary
(3) 9 mm (4) 2 mm
to secondary turn ratio 20 : 1, the input
99. A hemispherical smooth bowl of radius R is
voltage applied is 250 V and output current is
set rotating about its vertical axis symmetry
8A. Assuming ideal transformer, the current
with an angular velocity  . A small block of
in primary coil is
mass m kept in the bowl rotates with the
(1) 12.5 A (2) 8 A
bowl without slipping. If the angle made by
(3) 0.4 A (4) 2 A
radius through the block, with vertical is  ,
95. Natural light is made to incident on a the normal reaction between block and bowl
polaroid. The resulting light from it is viewed is
through a second polaroid by giving it one (1) mg (2) mg cos 
complete rotation about the direction of the
light. The intensity of transmitted light from (3) mR 2 (4) mR 2 sin 
it 100. Two waves from coherent sources meet at a
point in a path difference of x . Both the
(1) gradually decreases to zero and remain
sources have same intensity I.
at zero
Match the following two columns
(2) gradually increases to a maximum and
remains at maximum Column – I Column – II
(3) is twice maximum and twice zero  x  (Resultant intensity)

(4) is twice maximum and twice minimum A.  I. 3I

but not zero. 3
96. A logic circuit provides the output Y as per B.  II. I
the following truth table. 6
A B Y C.  III. 2I
0 0 0 4
0 1 0 D.  IV. Zero
1 0 1 2
1 1 1 A B C D
The expression for the output y is (1) II III I IV
(2) I II IV III
(1) B (2) A
(3) II I III IV
(3) A + B (4) AB
(4) IV III II I
14
101. If P is the momentum of a particle and  its 104. Consider the following statements A and B
de-Broglie wavelength, which of the and identify the correct answer.
following graphs gives planck’s constant? A. In forward bias of p – n junction diode,
P P
the depletion region is widened and barrier
height is reduced.
B. The electrical conductivity of Si
1 increases when doped with pentavalent
(1)  (2) 
impurity and decreases when doped with
P P trivalent impurity
(1) A, B are true
(2) A, B are false
(3)  (4)  (3) A is true, B is false
102. If a capacitor of 2 F is connected in (4) A is false, B is true
105. The refracted ray passes symmetrically
between A and B, the charge that appears on
through an equilateral prism made of material
it is
4 F
of refractive index 3 . The angle of
8 F
A incidence is
(1) 45º (2) 30º
(3) 90º (4) 60º
106. A square plate of mass m and edge l roates
B
3 F 6 F about one of its diagonals with an uniform
angular acceleration  . The torque that acts
60 V on the plate is
(1) 10C (2) 80C ml 2 ml 2
(1)  (2) 
(3) 40C (4) Zero 6 12
ml 2
103. At a certain moment, a square loop of side L (3)  (4) ml 2
is moving out of a uniform magnetic field B 3
with a constant speed V as shown. If each 107. Assertion (A) : A charge placed at an axial
side of the loop has resistance R, then the point at a distance ‘r’ from the centre of a
induced current is short electric dipole experiences a force F. If
the distance is doubled the force acting on the
B F
charge would be .
4
V Reason (R) : On the axial line of short dipole
1 2P
the field is E  . where ‘r’ is the
4 0 r 3
BVL distance of axial point from centre of dipole
(1) clockwise
4R and P is dipole moment.
BVL (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(2) anti clockwise
4R correct explanation of A
BVL (2) Both A and R are correct but R is
(3) clockwise
2R NOT the correct explanation of A
BVL (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) anti clockwise
2R (4) A is correct but R is not correct
15
108. A wire has a length of 4 m and a resistance of 113. The binding energy per nucleon for deuteron
40  . The electric field inside the wire if it and  particle are x1 and x2 respectively.
carries a current of 3 A is The Q – value of the given reaction
(1) 30Vm 1
(2) 40Vm 1
1 H 2 1 H 2 2 He4  Q is

(3) 12Vm1 (4) 120Vm1 (1) 4  x2  x1  (2)  x2  x1 

109. Compared to the first orbit in hydrogen atom, (3) 4  x1  x2  (4) 2  x2  x1 
the period of revolution of electron in the 114. The mass of a planet is double that of earth
third orbit is and radius is half that of earth. The escape
(1) Same velocity from the surface of that planet is
(2) Thrice (1) 11.2 kms1 (2) 22.4 kms1
(3) Nine times (3) 5.6 kms1 (4) 44.8 kms1
(4) Twenty seven times 115. A 44 mH inductor is connected to a
110. If C is the velocity of light in free space, the 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The net power
correct statements about photon among the absorbed by the circuit over a complete cycle
following are is
A. The energy of photon is E  h (1) 3498 W (2) zero

B. The velocity of photon is C (3) 3.14 W (4) 69.96 W

116. The centre of a uniform disc rolling without
h
C. The momentum of photon is slipping on a level ground moves with a
C speed V. The speed of a particle on the rim of
D. In photon – electron collision, both total the disc at the level as centre will be
energy and total momentum are conserved. (1) V (2) 2V
E. Photon possesses positive charge. V
(3) (4) 2V
(1) A, C, D only (2) A, B, D, E only 2
(3) A, B only (4) A, B, C, D only 117. A particle moving with uniform speed in a
circular path maintains
111. The number of  and  particles emitted
(1) Constant velocity
during the radioactive decay chain starting
(2) Constant acceleration
from 88 Ra226 and ending at 82 Pb206 is
(3) Constant velocity and varying
(1) 3 , 6 (2) 4 ,5 acceleration
(3) 5 , 4 (4) 6 ,5 (4) Varying velocity and varying
acceleration
112. At any instant of time t, the displacement of a
particle is given by  2t 2
 1 m under the
118. A drop of mercury of radius R splits into 8
identical droplets. If surface tension of
action of a force of 5 N. The value of mercury is T, the increase in surface energy
instantaneous power at t = 2s is is
(1) 10 W (2) 20 W (1) 4 R 2T (2) 8 R 2T
(3) 5 W (4) 40 W
(3) 2 R 2T (4) 16 R 2T

16
  124. A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by
119. A bar magnet takes second to complete
10 means of a string. Its angular momentum is L
one oscillation in a magnetic field of 30 T . about the centre of rotation. If the angular
speed of rotation is doubled while keeping
If the moment of inertia of magnet about the
the same radius, the angular momentum
axis of rotation is 1.2 104 kg  m2 , the
becomes
magnetic moment of magnet is
L
2 2 (1) (2) 4L
(1) 2000 Am (2) 800 Am 2

(3) 1600 Am2 (4) 1000 Am2 (3) 2L (4) 2L

120. A ball of mass m moving at a speed u 125. A voltmeter consists of a 50 coil
collides with another ball of mass 2 m. After connected in series with a 750 resistor.
the collision the balls stick together and The coil takes 10 mA for full scale
remain motionless. The velocity of mass 2 m deflection. The maximum potential
difference can be measured on this voltmeter
before the collision is
is
u
(1) u (2) (1) 6 V (2) 0.5 V
2
(3) 7.5 V (4) 8V
3u
(3) (4) Zero 126. The pressure of an ideal gas kept in an
2
isothermal container is P. If half of the gas is
121. If x  Asin t  B cos t represents the removed from it, the pressure will be
motion of a particle executing SHM, the
P
amplitude and time period of oscillation are (1) P (2)
2
2 2
(1) A2  B2 , (2) A  B, P
  (3) 2 P (4)
4
  127. The sunlight reaching the earth has maximum
(3) A2  B2 , (4) A  B,
  electric field of 810Vm1 . The maximum
122. The physical quantity which has the same magnetic field in this light is
dimensions as that of spring constant is (1) 405 T (2) 5.4 T
(1) Specific heat (2) Impulse (3) 2.7 T (4) 810 T
(3) Surface tension (4) Torque
128. A satellite of a mass m is moving around the
123. The kinetic energy of a charged particle earth in a circular orbit with a constant speed
decreases by 20 J as it moves from a point at v. The minimum additional energy to be
potential 10 V to a point at potential at 20 V. given to satellite to shift it to infinity is
The charge on particle is 1 2
(1) mv (2) mv2
(1) 4 C (2) 2C 2

(3) 10 C (4) 1C 1 2
(3) mv (4) 2mv 2
4
17
129. A solenoid of 400 turn and radius 1 cm is of 133. A small telescope has an objective of focal
length 0.2 m. The resistance of solenoid is length 150 cm and an eye piece of focal
80 milli ohm. The emf of a cell that will length 5 cm. The magnifying power of
cause a magnetic field of 20 mTat the centre telescope for viewing a distant object is
of solenoid is (1) 30 (2) 34
(1) 10 V (2) 2V (3) 28 (4) 14
(3) 1 V (4) 4V 134. An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment
130. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a cell M. It is bent at the middle of its length such
and is isolated from cell after charging. If the that the two arms make an angle 90º with
plates of capacitor are now moved close to each other. The magnetic moment of this new
each other, then magnet is

A. The charge stored in it, decreases M

(1) 2M (2)
2
B. The energy stored in it, increases
M
C. Its capacitance increases (3) M (4)
2
D. The potential of capacitor decreases
135. Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1
Choose the most appropriate answer from the KW and 2 KW, respectively. They are first
options given below connected in series and then in parallel to a
(1) A & B are true source. The ratio of power outputs is
(2) A,B & C are true (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2:3
(3) C & D are true (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2:9
(4) B & D are true CHEMISTRY
136. Which amongst the following is incorrect
131. A force defined by F  t   t 2 acts on a statement?
particle at a given time t. If  and  are
(1) B2 molecule has one electron in each of
constants, the factors which is dimensionless
the two  molecular orbitals
is
(2) He22 ion has two electrons

(1)  t (2)
t (3) N2 ion is diamagnetic
t t (4) The bond orders of O2 , O2 and O2 are
(3) (4)
  2.5, 2 and 1.5 respectively
132. A metallic bar of young’s modulus 137. Which amongst the following options is the
5 1010 Nm2 and coefficient of linear correct relation between change in enthalpy
expansion 105 ºC1 , length 1 m and area of and change in internal energy for the
reaction, C s  O2 g   CO2 g  ?
cross – section 103 m2 is heated from 0ºC to
100ºC without expansion or bending. The (1) H  U  RT
compressive force developed in it is
(2) H  U
(1) 100 103 N (2) 2 103 N
(3) H  U  RT
(3) 5 10 N3
(4) 50 10 N
3
(4) H  U  3RT
18
138. Given below are two statements. (2) Zero order (y – rate and x –
Statement – I : A unit formed by the concentration of reactant), first order (y – t1/2
attachment of a base to 11 – position of sugar and x – initial concentration of reactant)
is known as nucleoside.
(3) Zero order (y – rate constant and x –
Statement – II : When nucleoside is linked to concentration of reactant), first order (y – rate
phosphoric acid at 51 – position of sugar constant and x – concentration of reactant)
moiety, we get nucleotide.
(4) Zero order (y – concentration of
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are reactant and x - time) and first oder (y –
true
concentration of reactant and x – time)
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
141. Which among the following compounds has
true
least number of lone pairs on central atom?
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false (1) ClF3 (2) XeF2
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) SF4 (4) XeF4
false
142. If energy of third Bohr orbit of the H-atom is
139. The correct statements regarding enzymes
are 2.42 1019 J / atom , the energy of second
Bohr orbit of Li 2  ion will be
I) Almost all the enzymes are globular
proteins (1) 1.2 1020 J / atom
II) Enzymes are polysaccharides (2) 4.9 1018 J / atom
III) Enzymes which catalyse the oxidation
(3) 2.18 1018 J / atom
of one substrate with simultaneous reduction
of another substrate are called oxidoreductase (4) 2.4 1019 J / atom
enzymes.
143. Mass of H3 PO4 present in 100 ml of deci
IV) Enzymes are biocatalysts
normal solution of it is
(1) I, II, III only (2) I, III, IV only
(1) 9.8 g (2) 4.9 g
(3) II, III, IV only (4) III, IV only
(3) 0.33 g (4) 0.98 g
140. The given graph is a representation of
kinetics of a reaction. 144. In acidic medium, K2Cr2O7 oxidises iodide
to iodine. The change in oxidation state of
chromium in this reaction is from
y
(1) +6 to +4 (2) +7 to +3
(3) +6 to +3 (4) +7 to +4
x

The y and x axes for zero and first order 145. Solubility of MX 3 type of electrolyte is
reactions respectively are: 0.2 105 . Then ksp of electrolyte is
(1) Zero order (y - t1/2 and x – initial
(1) 4.32 1026 (2) 4.32 1024
concentration of reactant), first order (y – rate
and x – concentration of reactant) (3) 4.32 1022 (4) 4.32 1020
19
146. Match list – I with list – II 148. Given below are two statements. One is
List – I List – II labeled as assertion and other is labeled as
reason.
(Electrolyte) (Product of
electrolysis at Assertion (A) : A mixture of chloroform and
cathode with inert acetone forms a solution with negative
electrodes) deviation from Raoult’s law.
A. aq.KOH I. Na Reason (R) : Chlorofom molecule is able to
B. aq. CuSO4 II. Ca form hydrogen bond with acetone molecule.

C. Fused NaCl III. (1) Both A and R are correct, and R is the
H2
correct explanation of A.
D Fused IV. Cu
(2) Both A and R are correct, and R is not
CaH2
the correct explanation of A.
V. K
(3) A is not correct, but R is correct
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(4) A is correct, but R is not correct
(2) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II
149. What mass of 80% pure NaOH will be
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III required to neutralise 100 mL of 0.1 M
(4) A – V, B – III, C – I, D – II H2 SO4 solution according to the following
147. Given below are two statements. reaction?
Statement – I : All measurable properties of 2NaOH s  H2 SO4 aq Na2 SO4aq  2H2Ol 
the system remain constant at equilibrium in
a physical process. (1) 0.64 g (2) 0.8 g
Statement – II : Expression for equilibrium (3) 1 g (4) 1.6 g
constant is applicable only when
150. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas
concentrations of the reactants and products
under isothermal condition, the correct option
have attained constant value at equilibrium
state is

In the light of the above statements, choose (1) U  0, Stotal  0

the correct answer from the options given
(2) U  0, Stotal  0
below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) U  0, Stotal  0
true
(4) U  0, Stotal  0
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true 151. Which of the following salts will give least
pH in water?
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false (1) Na2 SO4 (2)  NH4 2 SO4
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Na2CO3 (4) KNO3
false
20
152. Which of the following statements are 156. Correct order of dipolemoment of
correct? compounds given below is
I. Electromagnetic theory can not explain (1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
the nature of emission of radiation from hot
bodies. (2) HF > HCl > HBr > HI

II. Number of electrons ejected in (3) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
photoelectric effect experiment is (4) HF > HCl  HBr > HI
proportional to the intensity of light.
157. Phenolpthalein is a suitable indicator for
III. The principal quantum number
which of the following titrations?
determines the shape of orbitals.
I. HCl vs KOH
IV. Magnetic quantum number, ml refers to
the orientation of the spin of electron. II. H2CO3 vsNaOH
(1) I, II, III only (2) I, II only III. NaHCO3 vs HCl
(3) I, III, IV only (4) II, III only
IV. CH3COOH vs KOH
153. Given below are two statements. One is
labeled as assertion and other is labeled as (1) I, II, III and IV (2) I, II only
reason.
(3) I, II, III only (4) I, II, IV only
Assertion (A) : If copper is added to nitric
158. Incorrect match of IUPAC symbol of
acid, copper is oxidized by hydrogen and H 2
elements with its respective atomic number is
gas is liberated.
(1) Sg : 106 (2) Mt : 109
Reason (R) : Standard electrode potential of
Cu 2 is positive. (3) Bh : 105 (4) Hs : 108
(1) Both A and R are correct, and R is the 159. Among the following identify the correct
correct explanation of A. statements ?
(2) Both A and R are correct, and R is not a) B < Al < ln < Tl, (Atomic radius)
the correct explanation of A.
b) Al<Ga<Tl<B, (first Ionization
(3) A is not correct, but R is correct
enthalpy)
(4) A is correct, but R is not correct
c) Al<Ga<ln<Tl<B, (Electronegativity)
154. Specific reaction rate of a first order reaction
is 2 103 s 1 . The time taken for 200 g of (1) only a (2) only a and b
reactant to reduce to 100 g is (3) only b and c (4) a,b and c
(1) 138.6 sec (2) 346.5 sec 160. In which pair, both the species are acidic in
(3) 693.0 sec (4) 238.6 sec nature?
155. Which one of the following has maximum (1) SnO2 and PbO2
number of atoms? (Atomic mass of Ag =
(2) GeO2 and PbO
108)
(3) SnO2 and GeO
(1) 10 g CH 4 (2) 10 g Ag
(4) GeO2 and SiO2
(3) 10 g N2 (4) 10 g Ne
21
161. Correct statements among the following are 166. The facial and meridional isomers are
(A) Oxygen does not form dichlorides and possible in
dibromides 
(1) CoCl2  en2 
(B) Dimeric chloride of selenium undergoes
disproportionation into selenium and (2) Co  NH3 3  NO2 3 
selenium tetrachloride

(C) SF6 is exceptionally stable due to steric (3) Co  NH3 4 Cl2 
reasons
3
(D) The stability of halides of 16th group (4) Co  en3 
decreases as : F- > Br- > Cl- > I-
167. The correct order of increasing field strength
(1) A, B & C only (2) A, C & D only
is
(3) B,C & D only (4) A,B,C & D
162. Identify the correct statement (1) H2O  F   Cl   Br 
(1) Correct order of stability of oxides
(2) Cl   S 2  H2O  C2O42
formed by halogens is Cl > Br > I
(2) Cl2O7 is used as a bleaching agent for (3) H2O  NH3  CO  en
paper pulp and in water treatment
(4) F   en  CN   CO
(3) I2O5 is used in the estimation of carbon
monoxide 168. The compound which will react fastest by
(4) I2O4 and I2O7 are soluble solids SN1 mechanism is
163. Incorrect statement about halides of xenon Br
is? CH
Br CH 3
(1) Complete hydrolysis of XeF6 forms one CH
of the same products as it forms on complete CH 3

hydrolysis of XeF4
(2) XeOF4 and XeO3 both are colourless
OCH 3
compound (1) (2)
(3) XeF6 has square pyramidal structure Br
while XeF4 has distorted tetrahedral structure Br
CH
CH 3 CH
(4) XeF4 form cationic xenon species when CH 3
it will react with SbF5
164. The nature of Cr2+ and Mn3+ respectively are
(1) Oxidising and reducing
(2) Oxidising and oxidising NO2 Cl
(3) (4)
(3) Reducing and reducing
169. The alcohol which will react fastest with
(4) Reducing and oxidizing
ZnCl2 / HCl is
165. The metals which are present in Ziegler natta
(1) Pentan-2-ol
Catalyst are
(2) Pentan-1-ol
(1) V and Ti (2) Ti and Al
(3) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol
(3) Ti and Mg (4) Zr and Zn
(4) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
22
170. Most acidic compound among the following A and B respectively are
OH OH (1)
OH
CHO

and
(1) (2)
OH
(2)
OH CH 3
COOH

and

(3)
CH 3 NO2
(3) (4) CH 3
CHO
171. Consider the following reaction sequence
CH 
 B  Major 
C Cl
C2 H5OH 
Na
 A 
3 3

and
Major product B is
(1) CH3 3 C  OC2 H5 (4)
CH 3
(2) OH

CH 3  C  CH 2
and
CH 3

(3) 174. In the given reaction sequence product B is

CH 3  CH  CH 2  O  C2 H 5 CH 2 CH 3

CH 3
 3
C2 H5  C CH3 3
( i ) KMnO4  KOH / 
     A  ii   B
i NH
(4) ( ii ) H O 
3

172. Correct order of boiling point of the given

compounds is O NH 2
O
(a) Methoxymethane
NH 2
(b) Ethanol
(c) Propane
(1) b > c > a (2) a>c>b
(1) (2)
(3) b > a > c (4) b>c>a
NH 2
173. Consider the following reaction sequence CN

CH 3

Zn  Hg
(   A Con
i ) CrO 2 Cl 2
( ii ) H 3 O
 
. HCl
B
(3) (4)
23
175. Match the column I with column II and mark (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the appropriate choice incorrect
Column I Column II (3) Statement-I is incorrect while Statement-

N 2 Cl 
II is correct
 HCl (4) Statement-I is correct while Statement-II
 CuCl
 
 (i) Coupling
( A)
is incorrect
reaction 178. Given below are two statements: One is
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is

labeled as Reason (R)
N 2 Cl  Assertion (A): Toulene is more reactive than
u  HCl
 C 
  (ii) benzene towards electrophilic substitution
(B) Balzschiemann reaction
reaction Reason (R): Presence of –CH3 group
increases the electron density at o/p positions
 in toulence.
N 2 Cl  In the light of above statements, choose the
 H 
B F4

 (iii) Gatterman most appropriate answer from the options
(C ) given below
reaction
(1) Both A & R are true and the R is the
correct explanation of the A

(2) Both A & R are true and the R is the not
N 2 Cl 
the correct explanation of the A
     (iv) Sandmeyer
C 6 H 5 OH

( D)
Mild alkaline medium (3) A is true but R is false
reaction (4) Both A & R are false
179. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (1) Paper chromatography is a type of
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii partition chromatography
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (2) In paper chromatography chromatography
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv paper contains water trapped in it, which acts
176. Consider the given set of reactions as stationary phase
i  LiAlH 4
CH 3CONH 2 
ii  H 2O  A 
NaNO2 / HCl
H 2O
B (3) Thin layer chromatography is a type of
adsorption chromatography
Major product B is
(4) In column chromatography, the least
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3CH2OH
adsorbed substances are retained near the top
(3) CH3CH2Cl (4) CH3CH2NO2
and other substances come down to various
177. Given below are two statements
distances in the column
Statement-I: Reaction of propanamide with
Br2/KOH (aq) produces ethanamide. 180. Incorrect statement about nitration of
Statement-II: During Hoffmann’s bromamide benzene using nitration mixture is
reaction amides produce amines with one (1) The electrophile is nitrosonium ion
carbon atom less (2) Nitric acid acts as a base
In the light of above statements, choose the (3) Sigma complex is formed as intermediate
correct option from the options given below (4) In sigma complex one of the carbon is
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are sp3 hybridised
correct
24
 NEET Sample paper 6
BOTANY

1) 3 2) 4 3) 1 4) 3 5) 3 6) 3 7) 1 8) 3 9) 3 10) 2
11) 3 12) 1 13) 3 14) 3 15) 1 16) 1 17) 2 18) 3 19) 4 20) 3
21) 3 22) 4 23) 1 24) 4 25) 4 26) 4 27) 3 28) 4 29) 3 30) 1
31) 1 32) 1 33) 3 34) 3 35) 4 36) 1 37) 3 38) 4 39) 1 40) 3
41) 3 42) 1 43) 3 44) 4 45) 2

ZOOLOGY

46) 2 47) 3 48) 3 49) 4 50) 2 51) 1 52) 1 53) 3 54) 3 55) 2
56) 4 57) 4 58) 3 59) 2 60) 3 61) 1 62) 1 63) 4 64) 2 65) 4
66) 2 67) 3 68) 4 69) 3 70) 1 71) 3 72) 2 73) 3 74) 4 75) 3
76) 2 77) 1 78) 3 79) 4 80) 2 81) 2 82) 1 83) 3 84) 2 85) 1
86) 1 87) 2 88) 3 89) 3 90) 4
PHYSICS

91) 3 92) 1 93) 4 94) 3 95) 3 96) 2 97) 2 98) 2 99) 3 100) 3
101) 1 102) 4 103) 1 104) 2 105) 4 106) 2 107) 3 108) 1 109) 4 110) 4
111) 3 112) 4 113) 1 114) 2 115) 2 116) 4 117) 4 118) 1 119) 3 120) 2
121) 1 122) 3 123) 2 124) 3 125) 4 126) 2 127) 3 128) 1 129) 2 130) 3
131) 3 132) 4 133) 1 134) 2 135) 4
CHEMISTRY

136) 3 137) 2 138) 1 139) 2 140) 1 141) 3 142) 2 143) 3 144) 3 145) 3
146) 1 147) 1 148) 1 149) 3 150) 4 151) 2 152) 2 153) 3 154) 2 155) 1
156) 2 157) 4 158) 1 159) 4 160) 4 161) 1 162) 3 163) 3 164) 4 165) 2
166) 2 167) 4 168) 4 169) 4 170) 4 171) 2 172) 3 173) 3 174) 2 175) 1
176) 2 177) 3 178) 1 179) 2 180) 1
 SOLUTIONS
BOTANY 40. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 100
1. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 94 41. The type of fruit in Brassicaceae is Siliqua
2. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 126 42. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 184
3. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 110,111,112 43. Collenchyma is a non-living mechanical
4. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 180 tissue.
5. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 169 44. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 157
6. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 97,98,99 45. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 141
7. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 156 ZOOLOGY
8. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 126 46. In ecological pyramids biomass can be
9. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 170 explained; It does not accommodate food
10. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 95 web.
11. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 61 47. Gene therapy and Inheritance of acquired
12. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 116 characters do not affect the Hardy-Weinberg
13. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 96,97 equilibrium.
14. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 12,13 48. E is emigration, is the number of individuals
15. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 117 of the population who left the habitat and
16. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 18 gone elsewhere during the time period under
17. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 77 consideration.
18. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 136 49. Connell: Competitive release; Mac Arthur:
19. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 172 Co-existence; Gause: Competitive exclusion;
20. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 20 Darwin: Survival of the fittest.
21. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 17 50. All are cannabinoids except cocaine. Cocaine
22. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 145 is extracted from coca plant.
23. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 178 51. The type of joint found between metacarpal
24. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 123,124 and carpal of thumb in human is saddle joint.
25. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 62 52. In the termination of pregnancy lasted more
26. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 20,21 than 12 weeks can be done with two medical
27. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 58,59 practitioner opinion.
28. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 31,32,33 53. A pair of short, threadlike structures are
29. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 58,59,60 found in male cockroach are caudal styles.
30. Disc florets of Helianthus are bisexual, In 54. Zimbabwe had gifted the elephant to Ex-
Helianthus ovary bicarpellary unilocular with President of India Shankar Dayal Sharma in
single ovule in basal placentation. 1996. It is named as Shankar and has been
31. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 107 housed at the National Zoological Park,
32. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 151,153 Delhi. Such a conservation method is termed
33. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 71,72 ex situ conservation method.
34. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 62 55. Granulosa cells are found in the ovaries of
35. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 95 human.
36. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 169 56. Silurian – Devonian – Carboniferous –
37. NCERT-XII : Pg.No. 164,165 Permian.
38. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 177 57. Androgen is a steroid hormone.
39. NCERT-XI : Pg.No. 117

2
 - - -
58. Angiotensin II, being a powerful 70. A-Dense regular: Tendon; B-Dense irregular-
vasoconstrictor, increases the glomerular Skin: C-Bone-Non-pliable.
blood pressure and thereby GFR. 71. The body has the ability to alter the stroke
Angiotensin II also activates the adrenal volume as well as the heart rate and thereby
cortex to release Aldosterone. the cardiac output, the cardiac output of an
59. The wings of pigeon show homology with athlete will be much higher than that of an
forelimb of penguin and analogy with wing ordinary man.
of locust (an insect). 72. pO2 is 95 mm Hg, 40 mmHg and 104 mmHg
60. Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth and respectively in systemic artery, pulmonary
tears from eyes com under physiological artery and alveoli.
barriers of innate immunity. 73. Larva of echinoderm is bilaterally
61. Amoebiasis – Food and water; Chikungunya symmetrical; Tapeworms show
– Insect bite; Pneumonia – Inhalation of pseudometamerism; Roundworms show
aerosols; Tetanus – Wound with the spores. parasitism on both plants and animals.
62. Contraction of internal intercostal muscles 74. Condom-Vagina; Vault-Cervix; IUD-Uterus;
and abdominal muscles help in forceful Tubectomy-Fallopian tube.
expiration 75. Large amounts of water could be reabsorbed
63. Down’s syndrome: Autosomal trisomy; from the collecting duct to produce a
Phenylketonuria: Inborn error of metabolism; concentrated urine. It is the conditional
Thalassemia: Blood related disorder; reabsorption of water.
Turner’s syndrome: Allosomal monosomy. 76. Pteropus: Flying fox; Ornithorhynchus:
64. Progesterone plays a major role in the Platypus; Macropus: Kangaroo;
maintenance of pregnancy as well as Balaenoptera: Blue whale.
mammary gland development and milk 77. Pectoral girdle: Scapula; Pelvic girdle: Coxal
secretion; Progesterone is secreted by both bone; Forelimb: Radius-ulna; Hind limb:
corpus luteum and placenta. Tibia-fibula.
65. Bipolar neurons have one dendrite and one 78. Oxytocin is synthesized by hypothalamus,
axon. stored and released by neurohypophysis.
66. SNP means single nucleotide polymorphism. 79. Warbler birds do not extinct due to
67. Metastasis: Feared property of malignant interspecific competition and they prefer
tumour; Dependence: Tendency of the body resource partitioning for their survival.
to manifest unpleasant withdrawal syndrome; 80. Conus arteriosus: Heart; Corpora
Vaccination: Based on the property of quadrigemina: Brain; Foramen magnum:
memory of immune system; Antibiosis: Skull; Bidder’s canal: Kidney.
Interaction between organisms where one or 81. Epidermal scales are the exoskeleton;
more are negatively affected. Crocodiles have four-chambered heart.
68. In haplo-diploidy, the drones are haploid and 82. Loop of Henle is seen in medullary region of
formed by parthenogenesis; Female kidney.
population is diploid; Drones have no father 83. The dorsal portion of midbrain has mainly
but have grandfather four round swellings, corpora quadrigemina
69. It is not a part in the formation of brainstem 84. (a) and (b) are diploid; (d) is formed in every
that forms connection between brain and menstrual cycle but (f) is formed only if male
spinal cord. mates; (c) is formed by reduction division.

3
 - - -
85. An elastic fibre that bisects isotrophic band L.S = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
in a sarcomere is Z-line.  Stress
86. The primary and secondary responses are 98. 
Y
carried out with the help of two special types
lymphocytes namely B-lymphocytes and T- mV 2 V m2 2
99. FC   1 
lymphocytes; Humoral response is antibody R V2 m1 3
mediated and cell mediated immunity is
 
mediated by T-lymphocytes. 100. I  4I 0 cos2  
87. Moist surface of buccal cavity is lined by 2
compound epithelium. 2
 .x
88. 
1. 2. IB 3.
IO h
4. O B O O O 101.  
I 5. I I 6. I I p
7.
IO 8. IBIO 9. IOIO 102. It is a balanced wheatstone’s bridge. Hence
B O
So the answer is I I . P.D between points A and B is zero.
89. Most of the fibres secreted by fibroblasts in
103. Motional emf = BVL
connective tissue are collagen fibres.
90. Addison’s disease: Hyposecretion of I
BVL
corticoid hormones; Creetinsim: 4R
Hyposecretion of thyroxine; Diabetes 104. A. In F.B, width and height of barrier both
mellitus: Hyposecretion of insulin; Diabetes
decreases.
insipidus: Hyposecretion of vasopressin.
PHYSICS B. Doping always increases the conductivity
1240
91. E    K   4  2.2 eV    nm of system.
6.2
 A D 
sin  
92. R  1   and  is negative. sin i  2 
105.   
Hence permeability is less than one. sin r sin  A / 2

B  0 r H  B  B0 ml 2
106. I  and   I
3
93. The area of reactangle is equal to the energy
1
released. 107. F  qE and E 
r3
Area  100 KPa  200cm3
v
I p Ns 108. V = IR and field E 
94.  l
Is N p
109. r  n 2
I0
95. Ie  cos2  , when   90º or 270º, the 110. Photon is a packet of light energy. Hence it is
2
chargeless.
intensity of emergent light is zero.
111. In  decay atomic number increases
96. The output y matches input A.
97. 1 MSD = 0.1 cm
4
 In  decay both atomic and mass number 400 1
129. B  0nI  4 107  
decreases. 0.2 2
112. Power P = F.V where V = 10t 130. As cell is removed, the charge is constant,

113. Binding fraction is more for helium than for but energy stored in capacitor increases.
F F
deuteron. 131.   and   2
t t
2GM
114. V  132. F  Y  At
R
133. M  f0 / fe
115. Average powered consumed by a pure
inductor in a full cycle is zero. M
134. Each arm is of moment .
2
116. V  Vc2  Vr2  2V
M 
Hence M 1  2  
117. Both velocity and acceleration vary in  2
direction.
V 2 2202
135. P   
R R 1.1
118. R 
2 CHEMISTRY
 R 2
 136. N2 has one unpaired electron in  2 pz
W  T  8  4   4 R2 
 4 
orbital. So it is paramagnetic
I 137. ng  0 for the given reaction.
119. T  2
MB
H  U
1 1  m2u2  0
120. mu
138. Both the statemens are true
121. Amplitude A and B are at right angles to
139. Enzymes are not polysaccharides. They are
each other. The angular frequency does not
proteins.
change in superposition.
140. For a zero order reaction, t1/2 
 R0
F F
122. K  and T  2K
e l
For a first order reaction, Rate = K  R
123. U  q.V
124. L  I and L   141. ClF3  2LP, XeF2  3LP, SF4 1LP, XeF4  2LP

125. V  I g G  R
2 2
En1 , Z1  Z1   n2 
142.    
En2 , Z2  Z2   n1 
126. PV=mrt and P  m
127. E0  B0  C 2.42 1019  1   2 
2 2

   
128. If mechanical energy is made zero, it just
E  3  3

healthes to infinity E
81
4
 2.42 1019  J
ME = - kinetic energy
 4.9 1018 J
5
 1000 2.303 200
143. N= No.of eq. of solute  t log  346.5sec
Vsol n  mL  2 103
100
m
0.1 
x 1000
  x  0.33g 155. No.of atoms(N)   N A  atomicity
98 100 M
3 10
CH4 ; N   N A  5  max 
 x  98 g 16

144. Cr2O72 14H   6I   2Cr 3  3I2  7H2O 10

N2 ; N   NA  2
28
Oxidation state of Cr changes from +6 to +3.
10
Ag; N   NA
145. Ksp  27S  27  2 10
4
 6 4
  4.32 10 22
108
10
146. Aqueous KOH releases gas at cathode Ne; N   NA
20
Aquesous CuSO4 forms Cu metal at cathode.
156. Dipole moment of hydrogen halides decrease
147. Both statements are true.
down the group.
148. Negative deviation from Raoult’s law for
157. Phenolpthalein is suitable indicator for
given mixture is due to H bond. titration of strong acid and string base and
149. nH2SO4  M V L  0.1 0.1mol  102 mol weak acid and strong base only.
158. 1) F  O  N  Cl  Br
nNaOH  2nH2SO4  2 102 2) Be  Al  1.5
Mass of pure NaOH required 159. All orders given are correct
160. SiO2 & GeO2 , GeO acidic and SnO2 , PbO2
 2 102  40  0.8g
,PbO are amphoteric
Mass of 80% pure NaOH required 161. A,B & C are correct while stability of halides
0.8 100 is F- > Cl- > Br- > I-
  1g 162. I2O5 is used in estimation of CO
80
163. XeF6 – distorted octahedral XeF4 – Square
150. Process is isothermal. So U  0
planner
Process is irreversible. So Stotal  0 164. Cr+2 is reducing in nature to get d3 (t2g3) and
Mn+3 is oxidizing and get d5 E.c.
151. Salt of strong acid and weak base is acidic.
165. Zigler-Natta catalyst is TiCl3 + Al(CH3)3
152. Azimuthal quantum number determines 166. Ma3b3 shows fac-mer isomerism
shape of orbital spin quantum number refers 167. Field strength of ligands is CO > CN- > en >
to the orientation of the spin. H2O > X-
168. C6 H5 3 CCl forms more stable carbocation
153. Copper can not displace hydrogen from
due to more resonance
acids.

2.303  R0
169. Teritiary alcohols gives turbidity
154. K  log immediately with Lucas reagent
t  R 170. EWG increase the acidic strength

6
171. Teritiary alcohol with RO- produce alkene by
elimination
172. Bp of C2H5OH > CH3OCH3 > CH3CH2 CH3
173. A is benzaldehyde by Etard reaction & B is
Toulene by Clemenson’s reduction
174. A is benzoic acid & B is benzamide
175. Conceptual
176. A is CH3-CH2-NH2 & B is CH3-CH2-OH
177. During Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction
amides produce amines with one carbon
atom less
178. Presence of ERG (CH3) group on benzene
ring increases the electron density at Ortho &
Para position
179.

180. During nitration of benzene electrophile is

nitronium ion (NO2+)