Mixed Questions LEA

SET ONE

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the
same on all three (3) shifts. It is therefore necessary to make available
maximum manpower at the time the police service is of greatest demand.
This is organization by:
A. Clientele
B. Purpose
C. Time
D. Process

2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in

busy and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program

3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the

rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector

4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria,

police patrol is very necessary. Since there are several types of patrol,
which of the following will you recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and
interpretation of all available information which concerns one or more
aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially
significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence

6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and
extent of the workload and the availability of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan

7. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)

8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of

___________________.
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor

9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. It

must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers

10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board
(PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from
among the respected members of the community.
 B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by
the association of the Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)

11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a

particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing

12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary considerations
in the ______________.
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system

13. Registration of a security agency must be done at the

_______________________.
A. Securities and Exchange Commission
B. National Police Commission
C. Department of National Defense
D. PNP Criminal Investigation Group

14. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since

they can be operated very quietly and without attracting attention.
A. reduced speed and greater area covered.
B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter travel time and faster response
D. Mobility and stealth

15. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure

requirements.
A. tactical plan
 B. financial plan
C. work plan
D. control plan

16. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the
investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A. rabbit
B. surveillant
C. traffic enforcement
D. patrol

17. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police service.
In all types of police stations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake
this function in view of its importance.
A. vice control
B. criminal investigation
C. traffic management
D. patrol

18. It is the weakest link in security chain.

A. managers
B. Barriers
C. Personnel
D. inspections

19. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor I

formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. adequacy of resources of the police station
C. rank of the patrol commander
 D. salary rates of police personnel

20. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant
police members?
A. District Director
B. Provincial Director
C. Chief of Police
D. Chief, PNP

21. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have
enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the following will you
implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for
police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a
roving mobile patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot
patrol

22. The father of organized military espionage was:

A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great

23. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer can give
information to the police?
A. wants to be known to the policeman
B. monetary reward
C. as a good citizen
D. revenge
24. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility

25. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of

physical evidences related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical,
chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Logistics Service
 B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center

26. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission
are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
C. management
D. line

27. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigation is
conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out

28. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best
penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol

29. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps

30. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media
31. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and
graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as officers
through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition

32. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality.
He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to the people in the different
barangays. He should adopt which of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago

33. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a

comprehensive security program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education

34. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than
upon high-visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol

35. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists
and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Command
D. Aviation Security Command

36. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses

his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
 D. interrogation

37. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT

A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject

38. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes
is standing a few meters from Maria. The thief’s desire to steal is not
diminished by the presence of the police officer but the _______________
for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity

39. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are

automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent

40. 48.PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
 D. PNP Directorate for Comptroller ship

41. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information
from persons within the vicinity. In the police work, this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview

42. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in

tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking

43. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic

information because law enforcement officials must know exact locations
to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources

44. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-
and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle

45. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or

follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance
46. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission,
other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial guards, PNP or any law
enforcement agency of the government.
A. Secret Agent
B. “Tiktik”
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
E. All of these

47. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and

freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
E. all of these

48. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of
your beat and turning right after reaching the other end of the road and
again turning right until you completed the cycle by reaching back to your
origin of patrolling. What patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
E. criss-cross

49. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity
to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that
their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing

50. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas,
grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
 C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol

51. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?

A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
D. short

52. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year around
needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs

53. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?

A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police

54. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:

A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down

55. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?

A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintendent
E. all of the above

56. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
 D. vulnerability
E. all of these

57. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?

A. observation
B. crime prevention
C. called for service
D. criminal apprehension

58. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic

59. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so element of
surprise is lost which is one of the ______________ of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. importance
E. errors

68. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large
buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog

69. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the
DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
70. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?
A. general
B. investigator
C. patrol officer
D. traffic officer
E. The Chief of Police

71. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?

A. trumpet
B. horn
C. radio
D. siren

72. What type of cover uses actual or true background?

A. artificial
B. multiple cover
C. natural
D. cover within a cover

73. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication

should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in
the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority

74. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police
service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
E. 35 years
75. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as
such, are automatically deputized as representatives of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these

76. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the

Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA

77. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the
members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
E. Ombudsman

78. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or
omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their official
duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
E. responsible parenthood

79. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community
in the maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System(COPS)

80. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for

accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all the
authority for making decisions. This refers to
A. chain of command
 B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
E. span of control

81. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to

how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary for every five years of
service, to be reckoned from the date of his original appointment in the
police, fire, jail or other allied services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
E. 20 percent

82. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in
the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
E. on the way

83. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his
police duties in consequence of an offense and violation of rules and
regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
E. incarceration
84. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police
Commission for the purpose of conferring status for permanent
appointment in the police service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility

85. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the
Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento

86. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource
development and continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP
and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC

87. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent

88. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.

A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General

89. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.

A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
 D. Provincial Government

90. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General

91. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government

92. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP
recruitment is __.
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

93. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes
against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk
D. Homicide Division

94. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to

exercise supervision and control over PNP units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
 95. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the
transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors

96. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. Judge
B. Chief of police
C. Mayor
D. Governor

97. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws and maintenance
of peace and order.
A. Employment
B. Deployment
C. Assignment
D. Designation

98. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the
PNP.
A. Employment
B. Deployment
C. Assignment
D. Designation

99. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units
during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombudsman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG

100. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend
for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
LEA Set 2
MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your enemy and know
yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles”.
A. Confucius
B. Chiang Kai Shek
C. Sun Tzu
D. Wong Mhan Fei Hong

2. Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting information

concerning an actual and potential situation and condition relating to
foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
A. Interrogation
B. Information
C. Intelligence
D. Investigation

3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning

organized crime and other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence
B. Military Information
C. Police Intelligence
D. Police Investigation

4. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of

establishing terror or corruption in the city/community or section of, either
a monopoly, of virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field that provides
a continuing financial profit.
A. Organized Crime
B. Criminal Syndicate
C. Criminal World
D. Mafia

5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes from the
hobo to the moneyed gangsters or racketeers.
A. Criminal World
 B. Mafia
C. Organized Crime
D. Criminal Syndicate

6. It is the stable business with violence applied and directed at unwelcome

competitors.
A. Mafia
B. Criminal World
C. Criminal Syndicate
D. Organized Crime

7. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types of confidential

information that filter into the possession of the police, and the techniques
employed in developing these lines of information.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Departmental Intellignce
C. Undercover Intelligence
D. Strategic Intelligence

8. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most indispensable

tools of management; it is derived from organized information available in
the police records division which concerned with the nature, size and
distribution of the police problems of crime, vice and traffic?
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence

9. Intelligence which primarily long-range in nature with little or no immediate

practical value.
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence

10. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the defending of the
organization against its criminal enemies.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. None of these
11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or
possible enemy or theatre of operations, including weather and terrain,
together with the conclusions drawn there from.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Covert Operation

12. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary for
more effective police planning.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Overt Operation

13. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to

whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the
purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation
B. Evaluation
C. Covert Operation
D. Interpretation

14. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent

interpretation, which includes determining the pertinence of information,
the reliability of the source and agency through which the information was
derived and its accuracy.
A. Interpretation
B. Tasks
C. Evaluation
D. Operations
15. Is the proper, economical and most productive use of personnel,
resources and equipment employed and/or utilized in planning the
collection of information, processing of information and disseminations of
intelligence.
A. Cardinal Principle of Intelligence
B. Assets and Liability Intelligence
C. Economic Intelligence
D. Income and expenditure Intelligence

16. Refer to the uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,

honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies.
A. Integrity
B. Loyalty
C. Discretion
D. Moral

17. Principles or standards of conduct of an individual, his ethical judgment in

human relations and his respect to superiors.
A. Character
B. Reputation
C. Moral
D. Integrity

18. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of
issuance.
A. 1 yr
B. 3 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 4 yrs

19. Maximum security measures applied to prevent possible decryption of

encrypted data on radio communication.
A. Transmission
B. Cryptographic security
C. Operation security
D. Computer security
20. Final security measures undertaken prior to the entry into a
communication area.
A. control of operations area
B. control of communications area
C. area access control
D. perimeter control

21. An encrypted message complete with heading of a message written in an

intelligence text or language which conveys hidden meaning.
A. Cryptogram
B. Cryptography
C. Codes
D. Ciphers

22. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
A. Classify
B. Reclassify
C. Upgrading
D. Declassify

23. Security of the command is the responsibility of:

A. Headquarters commandant
B. Members of the Base Platoon
C. Regional Director
D. Everybody

24. The authority and responsibility for the classification of classified matter
rest exclusively with the:
A. head of office
B. receiving unit
C. Regional Director
D. originating unit

25. Information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would

cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically, economically
or militarily.
A. Restricted
B. Confidential
C. Top Secret
D. Secret
26. Among the following, who has authority to classify Top Secret matters?
A. Chief of Police
B. Regional Director
C. Sec of DND
D. Provincial Director

27. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and residence
of the individual being investigated.
A. CBI
B. PBI
C. LAC
D. NAC

28. Applied methods of security for the purpose of super-imposing camouflage

radio transmission on communication network.
A. transmission security
B. physical security
C. cryptographic security
D. operation security

29. Final measures undertaken prior to the entry into an operating room.
A. Control of operations area
B. Area access control
C. perimeter control
D. control of communications area

30. It is a system in which individual letters of a message are represented.

A. Ciphers
B. Cryptogram
C. Codes
D. Cryptography

31. This motivation regarding agent control applies to those whose main
desire is for power.
A. ideological belief
B. material gain
C. revenge
D. personal prestige
32. Consist of LAC supplemented by investigation of the records and files of
national agencies.
A. LAC
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. NAC

33. The following are operational security methods except for:

A. cut-out device
B. communication
C. cover
D. proper operational planning

34. Maximum security measures undertaken to preserve secrecy of classified

operations.
A. transmission security
B. computer security
C. cryptographic security
D. operations security

35. Control measures undertaken to prevent entry of unauthorized persons

inside the premises of communication facility.
A. perimeter control
B. control of operations area
C. control of communications area
D. area access control

36. Among the following, who is not authorized to classify Top Secret matter?
A. Secretary of National Defense
B. Chief, PNP
C. Chief of Staff, AFP
D. Chief of Police Station

37. Top Secret matter shall not be transmitted through:

A. direct contact to officers concerned
 B. thru DFA Diplomatic Pouch
C. official courier
D. mail

38. The barrier established to protect the surrounding of an installation.

A. Animal
B. Human
C. Energy
D. Structural

39. In the security industry and in large areas, the standard height of a fence
is
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 9 meters
D. 8 meters

40. The barrier that requires the employment of the guard and guard system is
___ barrier.
A. Energy
B. Animal
C. Structural
D. Human

41. Which of the following composed the PNP under its creation on R.A 6975?
A. member of the INP
B. members of the PC
C. jail guards
D. all of them

42. The largest organic unit with in large department is a __.

A. Bureau
B. Division
C. Section
D. Unit

43. What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?

A. Deputy Dir General
B. Police Director
C. Police Chief Superintendent
D. Police Senior Superintendent
44. Which is known as the Police Act of 1966 and created the office of the
NAPOLCOM?
A. R.A. 6975
B. R.A. 8551
C. P.D. 765
D. R.A. 4864

45. What is the kind of promotion granted to candidates who meet all the
basic qualification for promotion?
A. Special
B. Meritorious
C. Regular
D. Ordinary

46. The mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to
the rank of Police Inspector is the __.
A. Officers Basic Course
B. Officer’s Advance Course
C. Officers Candidate Course
D. Senior Leadership Course

47. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty is
called
A. on duty
B. special duty
C. leave of absence
D. off duty

48. PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:

A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Commission on Appointment
D. President of the Philippines

49. How many deputies do the PNP has?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
 D. Four

50. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned such as designated

desk or office or spot is called
A. Post
B. Route
C. Beat
D. Sector

51. MNSA or Master’s in National Security in Administration is offered and

administered by this institution.
A. PPSC
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Defense College

52. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to
specific post or position.
A. Department rule
B. Code of Ethical Standard
C. Duty Manual
D. Code of Conduct

53. The staff directorate in charge of providing the necessary supplies and
materials to all PNP units is the
A. Research Development Office
B. Logistics Office
C. Plans
D. Comptrollership

54. In the history of our police force, who was the first Chief of the Philippine
Constabulary?
A. Capt. Henry T. Allen
B. Col. Lamberto Javallera
C. Gen. Rafael Crame
D. Capt. Nicholas Piatt
55. Among the following. he is known as the father of Modern Policing System.
A. William Norman
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. King Henry III
D. John Westminster

56. Japanese Military Police during the Japanese occupation in the

Philippines were known as
A. Kamikaze
B. Kempetai
C. Konichiwa
D. Okinana
E. Hara Kiri

57. How many years of satisfactory service must a PNP member renders
before he can apply for optional retirement?
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 15 years
D. 25 years

58. Decision of the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is
dismissal, demotion and forced resignation may be appealed before the
A. Regional Appellate Body
B. Office of the President
C. National Appellate Board
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
59. In the physical environment of the patrol division, the shift that receives
most of the call of the public which are directly related to police function
are made on the;
A. Afternoon shift
B. midnight shift
C. day shift
D. A and C only

60. The statistical reports of patrol officers regarding the rate of crime, types of
crime an d places of crimes in each beat is very important in the
implementation of the;
A. preventive enforcement
B. selective enforcement
C. traffic enforcement
 D. emergency call for service

61. A patrol activity that is directed towards the elimination of hazards in each
respective beat is called
A. patrol and observation
B. called for service
C. attending to complaints
D. none of the above

62. According to the father of modern policing system, the soundest of all
criminological philosophies is
A. prevention of crime
B. elimination of crime
C. control of crime
D. suppression of crime

63. Patrol hazard would include the following except

A. Stress
B. Open manhole
C. suspicious persons
D. ordinances

64. In the history of patrol, the first recorded organized police that utilized dog
patrol was the so called _.
A. Medjays
B. Vigiles
C. Ancient police
D. Jacobians

65. The Chief magistrate at bow street in London that organized the Bow
Street Runners is
A. King Charles II of London
B. Henry Fielding of London
C. King Richard of London
D. none of the above

66. The responsibility of police that involves peacekeeping on community

service role or social services is referred to as
A. crime prevention
 B. prevention of crime
C. order maintenance
D. crime investigation

67. The effort of reduction of elimination of desire and opportunity to commit

crime is known as
A. order maintenance
B. law enforcement
C. prevention of crime
D. arrest of criminals

68. In the history of patrol US, the first daytime and paid police service was
organized in
A. New York
B. Boston
C. San Francisco
D. Philadelphia

69. The government agency that issue license for private and government
security guard is __
A. the PNP SAGSD
B. Mayor’s Office
C. Security and Exchange Commission (SEC)
D. the Local Police Office

70. Which of the following is not a function of a Private Detective?

A. background investigation
B. locating missing persons
C. controlling traffic flow
D. surveillance work

71. It is a document issued by the chief PNP or his duly authorize

representative recognizing a person to be qualified to perform his duties
as security guard or detective?
A. Certificate of incorporation
B. License to Operate
C. Warrant
D. None of these

72. Perimeter fence is what type of perimeter defense?

A. first line
 B. second line
C. third line
D. None of these

73. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on vertical perimeter fences

is commonly called __
A. Hangover
B. guard control
C. tower guard
D. none of these

74. The attempt to determine whether there are parties with in the police
candidate’s family who might negatively influence performance of official
duties can be best verified by conducting:
A. Performance Evaluation
B. Character Investigation
C. Written Examination
D. Oral Interview

75. In cases of altered marital status in the police selection procedure, careful
investigation on matters upon which such alteration should be conducted
for purpose of
A. Promotion
B. Appointment
C. Disqualification
D. Dismissal from Service

76. The aspect of police selection can not be accurately assessed by other
steps in the selection process can be measured through the conduct of:
A. Polygraph Examination
B. Neigborhood Check
C. Oral Interview
D. Psychological Screening
77. To prevent hiatus (break in continuity) in the discharge of official police
function by authorizing a person to discharge the same pending the
selection of another appointee, is the main reason of:
A. Dismissal
B. Permanent Appointee
C. Temporary Appointment
D. Suspension

78. Verification of academic accomplishment, standardized exam and

affiliation with organization of police applicants are information required in
the:
A. Written Examination Procedure
B. Character investigation procedures
C. Appointment Procedures
D. Eligibility Requirements

79. The following are information desired in verifying educational history of a

police applicant, except:
A. Courses Taken
B. Demonstrated Leadership
C. Debt, loans and savings
D. Anti – Social behaviors or Juvenile records.

80. The method by which testing procedures can be best insure job
performance predictability is through a process known as:
A. Test Validation
B. Job Performance
C. Job Analysis
D. Retesting

81. Physical and mental excellence is an essential quality for individuals who
are to be employed as police officers and this can only be determined by
administering rigid
A. Oral examination
B. Character Investigation
C. Vicinity Check
D. Medical Examination
82. Physical Test is designed to furnish data, which will indicate the extent to
which an applicant maybe able to perform required responsibilities.
Applicants maybe required climbing over a fence of 5 feet and 6 inches
high without the aid of another person. This physical test is called:
A. Body Drag
B. Obstacle Clearance
C. Foot Pursuit
D. Body Pull Ups

83. Planning is a management function concerned with the following, except:

A. visualizing future situations
B. making estimates concerning them
C. making money
D. identifying issues

84. Police administrators sometimes do not appreciate the importance of

planning because
A. of their pattern of career development
B. people do not admire them
C. influential politicians involved in planning
D. of positive view about planning

85. Police Planning is an integral element of good management and

A. Business administration
B. good police decision-making
C. prediction
D. performance

86. According to Hudzik and Cordner, planning is

A. Visioning
B. All of these
C. thinking what is right and doing what is best
D. thinking about the future and what we need to do now to achieve it
87. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Threats
C. Intelligence
D. Win
88. What is the principle which states that subordinate should be under the
control of only one superior?
A. Principle of Chain of Command
B. Principle of unity of command
C. Span of Control Principle
D. Principle of Objectivity

89. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position
is called
A. Command and Control
B. Authority
C. Order
D. All of these

90. Which among the following is not included in the 6 Master Plans of the
PNP
A. Sandigang-Milenyo
B. Sandugo
C. Banat
D. Pagpapala

91. It refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of

special activity and addresses immediate need which are specific.
A. Operational Plan
B. Strategic Plan
C. Synoptic Plan
D. Guideline

92. To properly achieve the administrative planning responsibility within in the

unit, the commander shall develop unit plans relating to, except
A. Policies or procedure
B. Tactics and operations
C. Extra-office activities
D. Interpersonal problems

93. SOP in police parlance means

A. Standard Operation Procedure
 B. Special Operating Procedure
C. Standard Operating procedure
D. Special Operation procedure

94. These are procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds
shall be outlined as a guide to officers and men in the field.
A. SOPs
B. HQ Procedures
C. Field Procedures
D. None of these

95. Strictly speaking, one of the following is not a police field operation
A. Patrol
B. Investigation
C. Intelligence
D. Traffic Operations

96. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to

A. Neutralization of wanted persons
B. Anti-illegal gambling
C. Anti-carnapping plan
D. None of the above

97. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What will
be his first action?
A. Arrest the pickpocket
B. Call for a criminal investigation
C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department
D. Just continue his beat

98. The police must endeavor to establish and impress upon the law abiding
citizens and would be criminals alike that the police are always available
to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around
the corner at all times. What does this situation indicate?
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Discretion
C. Police Control
D. Police Interaction
99. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for criminal
attack or for creating a clamor for police service is considered as
A. Patrol Hazards
B. Patrol Effort
C. Police discretion
D. None of these

100. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and
community interests into a working relationship so as to produce the
desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team policing
D. Directed Patrol

Law Enforcement Administration

Set One
1. C 26. C 51. B 76. C
2. C 27. C 52. C 77. B
3. B 28. A 53. B 78. C
4. C 29. B 54. A 79. D
5. D 30. B 55. C 80. D
6. B 31. B 56. C 81. C
7. D 32. A 57. BONUS 82. D
8. C 33. C 58. B 83. C
9. B 34. A 59. C 84. E
10. D 35. C 60. N/A 85. A
11. D 36. A 61. N/A 86. D
12. C 37. C 62. N/A 87. C
13. A 38. D 63. N/A 88. C
14. D 39. C 64. N/A 89. D
15. B 40. B 65. N/A 90. C
16. B 41. A 66. N/A 91. A
17. D 42. A 67. N/A 92. D
18. C 43. C 68. D 93. C
19. B 44. B 69. D 94. C
20. D 45. D 70. E 95. D
21. D 46. C 71. B 96. C
22. D 47. A 72. C 97. A
23. B 48. A 73. A 98. B
24. D 49. C 74. D 99. D
25. B 50. B 75. C 100. B

Law Enforcement Administration

Set Two
1. C 44. D 87. A
2. C 45. C 88. B
3. C 46. D 89. B
4. B 47. D 90. D
5. B 48. C 91. A
6. B 49. B 92. D
7. C 50. A 93. C
8. C 51. D 94. C
9. A 52. C 95. C
10. A 53. B 96. A
11. A 54. A 97. A
12. A 55. B 98. A
13. A 56. B 99. A
14. C 57. B 100. C
15. A 58. C
16. A 59. A
17. C 60. B
18. A 61. A
19. B 62. A
20. C 63. D
21. A 64. A
22. D 65. B
23. D 66. C
24. A 67. C
25. C 68. D
26. C 69. A
27. C 70. C
28. A 71. D
29. A 72. A
30. D 73. D
31. D 74. B
32. D 75. C
33. A 76. C
34. D 77. C
35. C 78. D
36. D 79. A
37. D 80. C
38. D 81. D
39. B 82. A
40. D 83. C
41. D 84. C
42. A 85. B
43. B 86. B
 Industrial Security Management

1.The best time to conduct a security survey is:

A. When there is a request to do so
B. After an incident of loss has occurred
C. As an annual activity of the company
D. As part of the security program

2. As a general rule, between the perimeter and structures within the protected area,
except when a building is a part of the perimeter barrier, there should be a clear zone of
at least:
A. 20 feet B. 30 feet C. 40 feet D.50 feet

3. Combinations to safe locks and padlocks security containers for classified information
should be changed at least?
A. Once a week B. Once during 12 months period
C. Once during each 60-day period D. Once during each 30-day period

4. The security survey is a valuable tool in determining the security requirement of an

establishment. The check list should be its:
A. Basis for the report B. Relevant measurement
C.. Backbone D. Parameters

5.As a rule, facilities where visitors are to be escorted by:

A.Guard on duty B. Escort services assigned
C.The person being visited D. The supervisor of the unit

6. The first line of defense in Physical Security is:

A. The perimeter barrier b. The exterior of the building
C. The internal controls D. The dogs for security

7. A sentry dog can normally not operate at full effectiveness at:

A. Ammunition storage area b. Gasoline storage area
c. Radar sites d. Big warehouses

8. An alarm which is a direct extension of the police station is called the?

A. Local alarm b. Auxilliary Alarm c. Proprietary alarm D.Central station alarm

9. The alarm system which activates in the immediate vicinity of the protected area is
known as:
A. Local alarm B.Auxiliary alarm C. Central station system D. Proprietary alarm
10. A top guard is appropriately defined as:
A. fence on top of the fence B.A material that increases the height of the fence
C.A topping on top of the fence with 1’ height with 45 degree angle
d. An addition to the fence height

11. A he mesh opening in a chain link fence should be:

A. 2 inches b. 4 inches c. 6 inches d. 8 inches

12. How does a security vault differ from a safe?

A. They are tested by Underwriter Laboratories
b. They do not have fire and burglar and fire resisting properties
c. Steel is used d. They permanently affixed to the building

13. In a barbed wire fence, the distance between posts is how many feet?
A.6 B.8 C. 13 d. 12

14. The first line of defense in a physical security plan is the:

A. Perimeter barrier B. Exterior of the building
C.Internal controls d. Protective lighting

15. As a general rule, between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected
area, except when a building is a part of the perimeter barrier, there should be a clear
zone of at least:
A. 50 feet b. 40 feet c. 30 feet d. 20 feet

16. One of the purposes of the protective alarm system is to:

A. To improve the building design B. To supplement by providing additional
control
C.To make the design simple D.To exercise budget allocation

17. The term “Security” is best defined as:

a. Freedom from intruders b. Freedom from terrorists
c. Freedom from fear or danger d. Freedom from threats o

18. When conducting security patrols, it should be:

a. Systematic b. Pre-Planned c. Routes identified d. Systematically
Unsystematic

19. Which of the following lighting units is Incorrect?

A. Continuous b. Intermittent C.Standby d. Moveable
20. The most common protective lighting system consist of a series of fixed luminaries
arrange to flood a given area all the time during the hours of darkness with overlapping
cones of light is called: A. Continuous B. Standby C. Movable D.
Emergency

21. The height of the standard vault according to NFPA must be:
A.8 feet B. 10 feet C.12 feet D.14 feet

22. Top guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence
post to increase the overall height of the fence by at least:
A. 1 foot B.2 feet c. 3 feet d. 4 feet

23. Which of the following principles of protective lighting is not correct:

A. A large amount of lighting should be focused on the security patrol routes.
B.Glaring lights on the intruder C. Lighting should not be used alone
D.Adequate light should be upon bordering areas.

Leadership, Decision making management and administration

1. Is, in essence, a collaboration between the police and the community that
identifies and solves community problems.
a. Community policing
b. Community oriented poling
c. Police community relations
d. Policing method

2. Corporal Marbhen Alberca, a PNP member who disregarded the memorandum

issued by the Mayor of Cagayan dela Valencia City to provide services in
securing the area during Mayor`s public speech due to the fact that Corporal is
not affiliated with said administration for he was loyal to the previous governance.
What was police professional conduct is violated by Corporal Marbhen Alberca?
a. Commitment to democracy c. Non-partisanship
b. Commitment to public interest d. Social awareness

3. This theory encompasses the notion of social pathology, which sees society as a
kind of organism and crime and deviance as a kind of disease or social pathology.
a. Culture conflict theory c. strain Theory
b. Social structure theory d. Social disorganization theory

4. Theory that points to a lack of fit between socially approved success goals and
the availability of socially approved means to achieve those goals.
a. Culture conflict theory c. strain Theory
b. Social structure theory d. Social disorganization theory
c.
5. Suggests that the root cause of criminality can be found in a clash of values
between differently socialized groups over what is acceptable or proper behavior.
What theory is referring here?
a. Culture conflict theory c. strain Theory
b. Social structure theory d. Social disorganization theory

6. Theory states that visible signs of disorder and misbehavior in an environment

encourage further disorder and misbehavior, leading to serious crimes.
a. Social structural theory c. broken windows theory
b. Zero tolerance theory d. structural theory

7. Enemy Wafri woke up on the first day of a new month and realize that his vehicle
registration expired last month. Driving to the department of motor vehicle to
purchase a new registration, he was stopped by police. He explained to the
police officer that he is in the process of obtaining his new registration, and the
police issued him a citation saying that he doesn't have any discretion because
Enemy is in violation of the law. What was the best theory that explains Enemy`s
encounter?
a. Social structural theory c. broken windows theory
b. Zero tolerance theory d. structural theory

8. It is a strategic communication process that builds mutually beneficial

relationships between organizations and publics.
a. Public relations c. policing system
b. Community policing d. communication system

9. This model of public relations uses communication to negotiate with the public,
resolve conflict and promote mutual understanding and respect between the
organization and its stakeholders.
a. Two-way asymmetrical c. two-way symmetrical
b. Public Information d. press agentry

10. This uses press releases and other one-way communication techniques to
distribute organizational information.
a. Two-way asymmetrical c. two-way symmetrical
b. Public Information d. press agentry

11. This theory suggests a primarily non-political approach towards the rejuvenation
of a democratic political culture. This approach regards the rebuilding of
community as a social and moral project - strengthening relationships and
enhancing processes of participation.
a. Public relation theory c. organizational culture theory
b. Communitarian Theory d. cultural theory

12. This term was coined in the 1840s by the British Utopian Socialist Goodwyn
Barmby to refer to advocates of a communalist society.
 a. Communitarian b. sectarian c. non-sectarian d.
community

13. Emphasizes that culture is a set of values that an organization or group of

people have in common.
a. Public relation theory c. organizational culture theory
b. Communitarian Theory d. Public Administration theory

14. This culture is based on energy and creativity. Employees are encouraged to
take risks, and leaders are seen as innovators or entrepreneurs.
a. The Clan Culture c. The Market Culture
b. The Adhocracy Culture d. The Culture

15. This culture is rooted in collaboration. Members share commonalities and see
themselves are part of one big family who are active and involved.
a. The Clan Culture c. The Market Culture
b. The Adhocracy Culture d. The Culture

16. Is a planned approach to solve all kinds of problems in almost every individual or
group activity, both public and private.
a. Management c. administration
b. Organization d. regulation

17. Is the amalgamation of history, organizational theory, social theory, political

theory and related studies focused on the meanings, structures and functions of
public service in all its forms.
a. Public relation theory c. organizational culture theory
b. Communitarian Theory d. Public Administration theory

18. This theory of public administration emphasizes more on behavioral and

quantitative schools of thought.
a. Classical public administration theory c. Modern public
administration theory
b. Post-modern public administration theory d. Neo-classical Public
administration theory

19. This theory is broad and somewhat ambiguous belief system tied to the
philosophical and cultural reaction to the convictions of Modernism.
a. Classical public administration theory c. Modern public administration
theory
b. Post-modern public administration theory d. Neo-classical Public
administration theory

20. The organizational process concerned with the implementation or objectives and
plans and internal operating efficiency of the police department.
a. Police organization c. police administration
 b. Police personnel and planning d. police directives

21. This police function carries out the major purposes of the organization, delivering
the services and dealing directly with the public.
a. Line function c. auxiliary function
b. Administrative function d. miscellaneous function

22. Is a branch of science that aids in the investigation, solution and prevention of
crime and it is a broad field that refers to a variety of sciences and technologies
used to enforce the law.
a. Forensic Toxicology c. Forensic Chemistry
b. Forensic Investigation d. Forensic Science

23. Police station 4 of Cagayan de Oro City conducted an investigation about rape.
Where a woman was found naked on a vacant lot by a Patrolwoman who cried
due to what happened to her. With the investigation conducted, the woman
cannot remember any faces of the three men who raped her but there was this
BITE MARKS found on her left neck and on her right shoulder which the two bite
marks concluded with different marks. With this evidence found in the body of the
victim, which of the following branch of Forensic Science has a jurisdiction to
examine?
A. Forensic Entomology c. Forensic Botany
B. Forensic Odontology d. Forensic Anthropology

24. It is simply a process of systematic inquiry, generally aimed at either increasing

knowledge (basic research) or solving problems and improving practices (applied
research).
a. Police research c. research
b. Criminological research d. applied research

25. A police agency might enter into a contract with an individual or firm to provide a
specific research service or product. What model of agency-based police
research is shown here?
A. Contract research c. Embedded researcher
B. Research partner d. Research unit

26. A police agency might have a unit staffed with sworn officers or civilian personnel,
or both, that is assigned the task of conducting research.
a. Contract research c. Embedded researcher
b. Research partner d. Research unit
27. This PNP Directorate was activated on 1 November 1993 and became
operational on 16 January 1994 imbibing a conspicuous role in PNP
organizational which is to conduct research studies pertaining to criminalistics
equipment and investigative equipment / materials, communication-electronics
and transportation, weapons and clothing for effective and efficient maintenance
of law and order.
a. Directorate for Research and Development
b. Directorate for Human Resource and Personnel Development
c. Directorate for Intelligence and Investigation
d. Directorate for Logistics

28. Uniformed PNP members shall commit themselves to the democratic way of life
and values and maintain the principle of public accountability. It refers to what
police professional conduct?
a. Commitment to democracy c. Non-partisanship
b. Commitment to public interest d. Social awareness

29. PNP members shall always uphold public interest over and above personal
interest. This statement refers to what police professional conduct?
a. Commitment to democracy c. Non-partisanship
b. Commitment to public interest d. Social awareness
30. Is the agency that administers and controls the Philippine National Police. It was
mandated by the Constitution and the major police reform laws, Republic Act Nos.
6975 and 8551.
a. Department of Interior and Local Government
b. Department of Justice
c. National Police Commission
d. Department of Foreign Affairs

31. According to Keith Davis, the ability to persuade others to seek defined
objectives enthusiastically and It is the human factor which binds a group
together and motivates it towards goals.
a. Leader b. management c. manager d.
leadership

32. The following are the roles of leader, except;

a. Required at all levels
b. Representative of the organization
c. He solicits unfriendly competition
d. Integrates and reconciles the personal goals with organizational goals

33. Leader is a person who starts the work by communicating the policies and plans.
This passage refers to what importance of leadership?
a. Initiates action, since he is the one that must be mimic with his
subordinate
 b. Motivation, since the leader knows the sentiments of his or her colleagues
c. Providing guidance, as a leader he must guide his subordinates to what they
need to do
d. Creating confidence, so that this or her subordinates be inspired to do their
jobs

34. A leader can be a morale booster by achieving full co-operation so that they
perform with best of their abilities as they work to achieve goals.
a. Initiates action, since he is the one that must be mimic with his subordinate
b. Building morale, so that his/her subordinates could function in
accordance with their specialized job and ability
c. Providing guidance, as a leader he must guide his subordinates to what they
need to do
d. Creating confidence, so that this or her subordinates be inspired to do their
jobs

35. This was exercised as a kind of legitimate power and people follow figures
exercising it, because their positions demand so irrespective of the person
holding the position.
a. Power b. authority c. leadership d. position

36. This leadership deals with both human psychology as well as expert tactics in
which it emphasizes on developing leadership skills and abilities that are relevant
across the organizations.
a. Organizational leadership c. group leadership
b. Personal leadership d. authoritative leadership

37. This notion refers to the desirable and appropriate values and morals according
to an individual or the society at large.
a. Morality b. characteristics c. ethics d. attitude

38. Which do you think does not best described an ethical leader?
a. Honest leaders can be always relied upon and depended upon. They always
earn respect of their followers.
b. Should use his followers as a medium to achieve his personal goals. He
should respect their feelings, decision and values
c. considers his own purpose as well as his followers’ purpose, while making
efforts to achieve the goals suitable to both of them.
d. He is fair and just. Wherever some followers are treated differently, the
ground for differential treatment should be fair, clear, and built on morality.

39. Uses a simple chain of command structure, where authority flows from the top to
the bottom in a distinct line. This organizational type is the oldest structure. This
refer to what organizational type?
a. Line and staff organization
 b. Line organization
c. Matrix organization
d. Functional organization

40. “A managerial role is the set of specific tasks that a manager is expected to
perform because of the position he or she holds in an organization.” This is
according to who?
a. Jones and George c. Henry Minztberg
b. Jones Davis d. Keith Davis

41. In this style of leadership, a leader has complete command and hold over their
employees/team.
a. Autocratic leadership style c. participative leadership style
b. Laissez faire leadership style d. bureaucratic leadership style

42. The leaders invite and encourage the team members to play an important role in
decision-making process, though the ultimate decision-making power rests with
the leader. What leadership style it refers to?
a. Autocratic leadership style c. participative leadership style
b. Laissez faire leadership style d. bureaucratic leadership style

43. Here, the leader totally trusts their employees/team to perform the job
themselves.
a. Autocratic leadership style c. participative leadership style
b. Laissez faire leadership style d. bureaucratic leadership
style

44. Mr. Brown Burdox is an HR head, who make sure that the employees/team also
strictly follows the rules and procedures. What leadership style Mr. Braun
manifested?
a. Autocratic leadership style c. participative leadership style
b. Laissez faire leadership style d. bureaucratic leadership
style

45. According to Freda Adler, it refers to a statement that explains the relationship
between abstract concepts in a meaningful way.
a. Principle b. theory c. beliefs d. customs

46. This theory was developed by Robert House and has its roots in the expectancy
theory of motivation.
a. Path-Goal Leadership Theory c. House` Path Goal Theory
 b. Great Man Theory d. Home Rule Theory

47. According to the Path-Goal Leadership Theory, in this leadership style the leader
provides guidelines, lets subordinates know what is expected of them and sets
performance standards for them.
a. Directive b. supportive c. participative
d. achievement-oriented

48. Jabz Culanag is a leader who believes in group decision-making and he even
shares information with his subordinates. What type of leadership did Jabz
manifest?
a. Directive b. supportive c. participative d.
achievement-oriented

49. The leader sets challenging goals and encourages employees to reach their
peak performance.
a. Directive b. supportive c. participative d.
achievement-oriented

50. In this theory, Leaders distinguish between the in-group and out-group members
on the basis of the perceived similarity with respect to personal characteristics,
such as age, gender, or personality.
a. Trait Theory b. Leadership Theory c. LMX Theory d.
Great Man Theory
51. According to him, decision-making is the actual selection from among
alternatives of a course of action. Who was the person quoted this?
a. Louis A. Allen b. Koontz and O’Donnel c. George R. Terry d. Keith
Davis

52. It is the process of making choices by identifying a decision, gathering

information, and assessing alternative resolutions.
a. Planning b. decision-making c. management d.
action-taken

53. What technique of decision-making is trying to illustrate here wherein

characterized by inner feeling of the person where he takes a decision as per the
dictates of his conscious.
a. Facts b. experience c. intuition d.
considered options
54. The traditional methods of taking decision on the basis of intuition, experience,
etc. are replaced by this systematic technique based on analysis of data.
a. Linear Programming c. experience
b. operation research d. considered options

55. under the roles of manager, his model points out that there are three main types
of roles all managers play; they are decisional, interpersonal, and
informational.
a. Jones and George c. Henry Minztberg
b. Jones Davis d. Keith Davis

56. roles are important because information is the lifeblood of organizations and the
manager is the nerve center of his unit.
a. Interpersonal roles c. decisional roles
b. Informational roles d. intrapersonal roles

57. Manager interacts with many people outside the immediate chain of command,
those who are neither subordinates nor superiors. This refer to whose role?
a. Disseminator role c. Entrepreneurial role
b. Leader role d. Liaison role

58. In this form of roles of manage, the manager gives direction to people working
under him in which, the direction includes instructions.
a. Motivator b. Human being c. director d. guide

59. This involves allocating employee resources and delegating responsibilities, as

well as setting realistic timelines and standards for completion.
a. Organizing b. leading c. planning d. controlling

60. In management it entails about making sure the ultimate goals of the business
are being adequately met, as well as making any necessary changes when they
aren't.
a. Organizing b. leading c. planning d.
controlling

61. The leader is friendly towards subordinates and displays personal concern for
their needs, welfare, and well-being. This style is the same as people-oriented
leadership.
a. Directive b. supportive c. participative d.
achievement-oriented
62. Along with planning, a manager's organizational skills can help to ensure a
company or departmental unit runs smoothly.
a. Organizing b. leading c. planning d. controlling

63. Managers should be comfortable and confident commanding their team

members’ daily tasks as well as during periods of significant change or challenge.
a. Organizing b. leading c. planning d. controlling

64. The rational comprehensive approach and tradition in planning. This is the most
appropriate for police agencies because it is based on a problem-oriented
approach to planning. What planning approach it refers to?
a. Synoptic planning c. advocacy planning
b. Transactive planning d. racial planning

65. What planning approach if it involves collective actions to achieve concrete

results in the immediate future.
a. Synoptic planning c. advocacy planning
b. Transactive planning d. racial planning

66. The beneficial aspect of this approach includes greater sensitivity to the
unintended and negative side effects of the plan.
a. Synoptic planning c. advocacy planning
b. Transactive planning d. racial planning

67. In this planning approach, the problems are seen as too difficult when they are
grouped together and easier to solve when they are taken one at a time and
broken down into gradual adjustment over time.
a. Incremental planning c. racial planning
b. Transactive planning d. advocacy planning

68. The approach involves the interaction with the people who are to be affected by
the plan hence; surveys and interpersonal dialogues are conducted
a. Incremental planning c. racial planning
b. Transactive planning d. advocacy planning

69. Discipline can be enforced if:

a. There are good superiors at all levels
b. There are Claire and fair agreements with workers
c. Sanctions are judiciously applied
d. All of the above

70. Refers to the process by which information is exchanged between two or more
people.
a. Perception b. orientation c. seminar d.
 communication

71. Communication is the lubricant for the wheels of progress; people must talk to
each other if there is to be coordination and a minimum of duplication is scattered
over numerous disciplines and fields and is often contradictory.
a. Richard Holdin b. Keith Davis c. Louise Allen
d. George Terry

72. Determined the basic policies organizations and are taken at top level
management. The policies are decided at the top become the basis for operative
decisions can go beyond the policy framework of the organization.
a. Policy decisions c. administrative decisions
b. Operative decisions d. organizational decisions

73. Middle and lower management take these decisions since these involve actual
execution and supervision.
a. Policy decisions c. personal decisions
b. Operative decisions d. organizational decisions

74. Are those decisions which managers undertake under certain conditions relating
to organization. Sometimes taken independently and sometimes delegated to
other colleagues.
a. Policy decisions c. personal decisions
b. Operative decisions d. organizational decisions

75. are those decisions to be taken by the managers on their own. Others need not
be consulted.
a. Policy decisions c. personal decisions
b. Operative decisions d. organizational decisions

76. It is regarded as the cognitive process resulting in the selection of a belief or a

course of action among several possible alternative options
a. Decision-making b. planning c. management d.
organizing

77. These are the activities that “plan, organize, and control the operations of the
basic elements of people, materials, machines, methods, money and markets,
providing direction and coordination, and giving leadership to human efforts, so
as to achieve the sought objectives of the enterprise.
A. Principles of leadership c. principles of communication
B. Principles of management d. principles of operation

78. the course of tasks assigned to, and completed by, a group of workers in order to
increase efficiency.
a. Staffing b. assignment of duties c. specialization d. division
of work
79. It is the supreme source of government for any particular organization. The right
to exercise, to decide, and to command by virtue of rank and position.
a. Responsibility b. authority c. power d. jurisdiction

80. It comprises behavioral regulations and imposed by command or self-restraint to

ensure supportive behavior.
a. Discipline b. morale c. respect d.
characteristics

81. Provides that an employee is responsible to only one supervisor, who in turn is
responsible to only one supervisor, and so on up the organizational hierarchy.
a. Command responsibility
b. Unity of command
c. Chain of command
d. Scalar chain

82. “Organizational behavior is a subset of management activities concerned with

understanding, predicting and influencing individual behavior in organizational
setting.” Who said this?
a. Callahan, Fleenor and Kudson
b. Raman J. Aldag
c. Newstrom and Davis
d. Stephens P. Robbins

83. According to him “Organizational behavior is a branch of the Social Sciences that
seeks to build theories that can be applied” to predicting, understanding and
controlling behavior in work organizations.”
a. Callahan, Fleenor and Kudson
b. Raman J. Aldag
c. Newstrom and Davis
d. Stephens P. Robbins

84. is defined as individuals in an organization having a common perception and

sharing core values.
a. Culture b. organizational culture c. individual culture d. peer culture

85. Human needs fall into five groups: physiological, safety, social and love, esteem
and ego, and self-actualization. It refers to what theory of motivation?
a. Maslow`s needs of hierarchy
b. Alderfer`s ERG Model
c. Herzberg's motivation— hygiene theory
d. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y

86. This theory of motivation divides job factors into satisfiers and dissatisfiers. The
satisfiers are the motivators, and the dissatisfiers are the maintenance or hygiene
 factors.
a. Maslow`s needs of hierarchy
b. Alderfer`s ERG Model
c. Herzberg's motivation— hygiene theory
d. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y

87. A motivation theory which Looks at motivation from the manager's perspective
that manager perspective`s believes people are inherently lazy and will try to
avoid work and on the other side manager`s perspective believes people enjoy
work as much as play and will seek responsibility.
a. Maslow`s needs of hierarchy
b. Alderfer`s ERG Model
c. Herzberg's motivation— hygiene theory
d. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y

88. This group behavior is defined by the organizational structure and can be either
command groups based on the organizational chart or task groups formed to
complete a project.
a. Informal groups b. formal groups c. excellent groups d. exceptional
groups

89. Is the process of influencing people by providing them with purpose, direction,
and motivation while you are operating to accomplish a mission and improve the
organization.
a. Management b. persuasion c. command d.
leadership

90. Possession and exercise of the authority to command, a specific and legal
position unique to the military— the legal and moral responsibilities of
commanders exceed those of any other leader of similar position or authority.
a. Command b. control c. authority d. power

91. Subordinates of direct leaders see them all the time at the team, squad, section,
platoon, company, battery, squadron, and battalion levels. It refers to what
military leadership?
a. Direct leadership c. strategic leadership
b. Organizational leadership d. personal leadership

92. In this military leadership, leaders include military and Department of the Army
(DA) civilian leaders from the major command level through the Department of
Defense leadership.
a. Direct leadership c. strategic leadership
b. Organizational leadership d. personal leadership

93. Which of the following best describe the leadership principle of Know yourself
and seek self-improvement?
 a. Honest self-evaluation to determine his own strengths and weaknesses
is a paramount importance to a leader.
b. A leader must demonstrate to his men that he is qualified to lead his unit. He
must be competent in combat operations and training as well as in the
technical and administrative aspect of his duty
c. Armed with knowledge gained from the honest self-evaluation and with the
sound technical and tactical foundation required to perform his duty, the
leader must take initiative to accomplish his unit’s mission.
d. The leader must be able to make a rapid estimate of the situation and arrive
at a sound decision.

94. In military leadership, personnel must be make sound and timely decision.
What does it mean?
a. Honest self-evaluation to determine his own strengths and weaknesses is a
paramount importance to a leader.
b. A leader must demonstrate to his men that he is qualified to lead his unit. He
must be competent in combat operations and training as well as in the
technical and administrative aspect of his duty
c. Armed with knowledge gained from the honest self-evaluation and with the
sound technical and tactical foundation required to perform his duty, the
leader must take initiative to accomplish his unit’s mission.
d. The leader must be able to make a rapid estimate of the situation and
arrive at a sound decision. He should be able to reason under the most
trying conditions and decide quickly what action is necessary to take
advantage of opportunity as it occurs.

95. PNP members shall adhere to high standards of morality and decency and shall
set good examples for others to follow. This refer to what ethical standards of
police officer?
A. Integrity b. justice c. Morality d. humility

96. PNP members shall exercise proper and legitimate use of authority in the
performance of duty
a. Morality b. justice c. integrity d. humility

97. PNP members shall recognize the fact that they are public servants and not the
masters of the people and towards this end, they shall perform their duties
without arrogance.
a. Morality b. justice c. integrity d. humility

98. This power states that individuals will acquire this through their ability to, or
perceived ability to, distribute intrinsic and extrinsic rewards to others in the
organization.
a. Coercive power b. legitimate power c. reward power d. referent power

99. It is based on one party’s identification with the other, “the desire of followers to
 identify with their leaders and to be accepted by them.”
a. Coercive power b. reward power c. legitimate power d. referent power

100. includes the administrative activities of coordinating, controlling and

directing police resources, activities and personnel. Simply put, it's the everyday
act of running the police department.
a. Military management
b. Management
c. Organizational management
d. Police management