COLLEGE OF NURSING SCIENCES,

OUR LADY OF LOURDES HOSPITAL, IHIALA

HOSPITAL FINALS EXAMINATION (RESIT), SEPTEMBER, 2023
PAPER 2

Covering every aspect of nursing care

Instruction: Read the instruction carefully before attempting the questions.

Answer all questions from 1-250

1. Which of these diagnoses would you not make on a patient with

testicular tension;
(a) Anxiety related to fear of sexual impairment
(b) Disturbed body image related to removal of tests
(c) Sexual dysfunction related to testicular torsion
(d) Excess fluid volume related top inability to void
2. If urethra trauma is suspected, which of these interventions is not ideal?
(a) Prepare the patient for an emergency retrograde urethrogram as
ordered
(b) Assist in insertion of an emergency retrograde urethrogram as
ordered
(c) Assist in aspiration of urine with a supra pubic needle
(d) Catheterize the patient through the urethra
3. A sexually abused child will manifest all of the following except
(a) Difficulty in walking or sitting
(b) Social withdrawal
(c) Wearing clothing that hide injuries
(d) Like being touched in a casual manner
4. Metabolic acidosis can be caused by all of the following except:
(a) Overproduction of acid
(b) Under elimination of base components
(c) Under elimination of acid
(d) Under production of base components
5. Which of these nursing interventions is not a priority care in a patient
with status epilepticus
(a) Maintain oxygen
(b) Administer diazepam injection in slow I.V. push as ordered
 (c) Promote fluid intake
(d) Insert an NG tube the patient is intubated to prevent vomiting and
aspiration
6. Which of the following nursing intervention is of utmost importance in
managing child with respiratory distress:
(a) Give daily bed bath and oral toilet
(b) Encourage patient to eat high caloric diet
(c) Provide fluid intake
(d) Maintain in patient airway and adequate oxygenation
7. The filtration membranes are not
(a) The capillary endothelium
(b) The basement membrane
(c) The podocytes of the bowman capsule
(d) None of the above
8. Insulin is secreted by one of the cells of islet of Langerhans
(a) A cells
(b) B cells
(c) F cells
(d) S cells
9. Insulin increases in one of the pathways
(a) Glycogenesis
(b) Glycolysis
(c) Glyconeogenesis
(d) Blood glucose

10.Source of acid in human being include the following EXCEPT

(a) Metabolism of amino acids
(b) Incomplete metabolism of carbohydrate foods
(c) Foods
(d) None of the above
11.The normal PH of blood is approximately
(a) 7.2
(b) 7.6
(c) 7.4
(d) 7.8
12.Which class of drug is commonly used in treatment of thyroid storm
(a) Thrombolytes
 (b) Neuroleptics
(c) Methrimazole
(d) Azathroprine
13.Contra-indications to intravenous therapy in Accident and Emergency
are
(a) Failing heart
(b) Pulmonary congestion
(c) Myocardial insufficiency
(d) All of the above
14.A patient in the emergency room has severe nausea and has been
vomiting every 30 to 45 minutes for the past past 8 hours. This patient is
at risk of developing which condition?
(a) Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia
(b) Metabolic acidosis and hypokalemai
(c) Metabolic alkalosis and hyperkalemia
(d) Metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia
15.Acute abdominal pain in the geriatric client is related to ?
(a) Inflammatory bowel disease
(b) Divertculitis
(c) Bowel obstruction with intussusception
(d) Ulcerative colitis
16.A patient complains of abdominal pain, distention, fever, tachycardia
and diaphoresis. Abdominal x-ray shows free air under the diaphram.
The possible diagnosis is
(a) Intestinal obstruction
(b) Acute appendicitis
(c) Intestinal perforation
(d) Acute chollithiasis
17.The major adverse effect(s) of thyroid replacement is/are
(a) Nervousness and tremours
(b) Muscle and joint discomfort
(c) Obesity
(d) Adversity to cold
18.Glucagon secretion increases
(a) After carbohydrate rich meal
(b) After a fat rich meal
(c) When glucose is high
 (d) When blood glucose is low

19.Epinephrine is increased in one of the following

(a) Glycogenolysis in the muscle
(b) Lipolysis in adipose tissue
(c) Gluconeogenesis in the muscle
(d) Glucagon secretion
20.In low level of blood glucose, epinephrine and glucagon increase the
process of------------
(a) Glucogenesis
(b) Glucogenelysis
(c) Gluconeogenesis
(d) Glucagenosis
21.The following are the complications of hyperosmolar non-ketotic
Acidosis EXCEPT
(a) Hypophosphatemia
(b) Rhabdomyolysis
(c) Cerebral oedema
(d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
22.The following are the investigations to be carried out in the
management of DKA EXCEPT
(a) ABG measurement
(b) CBC count
(c) Bun creatine levels
(d) Serum creatinin test
23.A buildup of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the body will result in?
(a) Increase oxygen (O2) supply
(b) Decrease in PH or acidosis
(c) Increase in PH or alkalosis
(d) Decrease in oxygen (O2) supply
24.An appropriate intervention for client with renalcalculi includes
(a) IV fluid to keep vein open
(b) Opiod analgesics, preferably IV
(c) Indwelling urinary catheter
(d) Nasogastric tube, low suction
25.The following are signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism EXCEPT
(a) Parasthesis
 (b) Tetany
(c) Crampy abdominal pain
(d) Osteoporosis
26.The following are the complications of myxedema crisis EXCEPT
(a) Arrhythmias
(b) Heart failure
(c) Pulmonary edema
(d) Myastenia gravis
27.The following laboratory finding support a diagnosis of pyelonephritis
(a) Myloglobinuria
(b) Ketouria
(c) Pyouria
(d) Low white blood cell

28.Which of the following is most important for the nurse to report to the
doctor after a patient has developed a paralytic ileus:
(a) Passed flatus
(b) Become nauseated
(c) Experienced abdominal pain
(d) Vomited bile stained fluid
29.Insulin is secreted by
(a) Delta cells & pancreas
(b) Beta cells of pancreas
(c) Alfa cells of pancreas
(d) Celfa cells of pancreas
30.Which of the following is indicative of a stomach injury?
(a) Blood in the Nagogastric(NG) aspirate
(b) Increased bowel sounds
(c) Epigastric pain and tenderness
(d) Decreased or absent bowel sound
31.At the beginning of the larynx is a structure that can prevent liquids and
objects from entering the respiratory tract. This is known as the
(a) Epiglottis
(b) Stoma
(c) Trachea
(d) Oesophagus
32.Immediate post thyroidectomy compliocation includes:
(a) Secondary haemorrhage
(b) Laryngeal
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Keliod scaring
33.The specific gravity of total blood is -------------
(a) 1.052 to 1.061
(b) 1.052 to 1.060
(c) 1.053 to 1.060
(d) 1.052 to 1.062
34.Daily fluid output for an adult is----------------------
(a) 2000mls
(b) 2500mls
(c) 2600mls
(d) 2700mls
35.Respiratory acidosis is a pH imbalance that results from------------
(a) Alveolar hypoventilation and accumulation of carbondioxide.
(b) Accumulation of oxygen and reduction in carbondioxide.
(c) A pH imbalance of 7.65 and alkalosis of 7.35.
(d) Alveolar hyperventilation and accumulation of carbodioxide
36.Daily fluid intake for an adult is -----------------
(a) 2,500mls
(b) 2,600mls
(c) 3,000mls
(d) 2700mls

37.Regulation of fluid intake is by -------------

(a) Thirst
(b) Antidurectic hormone (ADH)
(c) Diuretic hormone.
(d) Loop of Henle
38.Which of these diagnosis would you not make for a patient with
testicular torsion?
(a) Anxiety related to fear of sexual impairment.
(b) Disturbed body image related tp removal of testes.
(c) Sexual dysfunction related to testicular torsion.
(d) Excess fluid volume related to inability to void
39.Micturition can be described as:
(a) The act of producing urine.
(b) The act of secreting urine.
(c) The relaxation of the bladder wall.
(d) The reflex action voluntarily controlled.
40.The skin our first line of defense and it’s ------------- damaged
(a) Hardly
(b) Easily
(c) Rarely
(d) Ocultly
41.Deep incisions can be life threatening especially if the injury is around
the ---------------
(a) Chest or abdomen
(b) Head or thigh
(c) Back or pelvis
(d) Face or shoulder
42.------------- wounds may be very dirty and are often seen in car accidents.
(a) Pucture
(b) Bruise
(c) Laceration
(d) Abrasion
43.Fractures and widespread tissue damage can occur in ----------------
wounds
(a) Amputation
(b) Puncture
(c) Laceration
(d) Gunshot
44.In management of violent patient the following is involved EXCEPT
(a) Approach the patient calmly
(b) Do not stare at the patient
(c) Maintain eye contact
(d) Approach the patient also violently and in a harsh tone
45.Accreditation refers to one of the following
(a) Making assignment
(b) Meeting predetermined standard
(c) Making care cost effective
(d) Ensuring quality
46.An acquired resistance to the effects of a drug as either needing to
increase drug dosage to achieve a desired effect is?
(a) Dependence
(b) Tolerance
(c) Drug abuse
(d) Drug withdrawal
47.The act of harming oneself to death is--------------
(a) Homicide
(b) Suicide
(c) Aggression
(d) Mistake
48.The killing of one human being by another is?
(a) Manslaughter
(b) Murder
(c) Suicide
(d) Homicide
49.The amount of blood flood to the kidneys per minute is
(a) 20 - 25% of cardiac output
(b) 30 - 40% of cardiac output
(c) 35 - 40% of cardiac output
(d) 20 - 50% of cardiac output
50.After a head injury, a patient has lost his recent memory, which lobe of
the brain is affected?
(a) Frontal
(b) Occipital
(c) Parietal
(d) Temporary
51.Heart failure means-----------
(a) Distended heart
(b) Inability of the heart to compensate
(c) Inability of the heart to contract
(d) Ischaemia
52.Which of these may not result in hypertension
(a) Arteriosclerosis
(b) Kidney disease
 (c) Anaemia
(d) Pregnancy
53.The main purpose of giving Atropine as a pre-medication is to
(a) Hasten the action of pethidine
(b) Minimize the side effects of pethidine
(c) Reduce bronchial secretions
(d) Stimulate the respiratory centre
54.Activated charcoal is--------------
(a) Anti-histamine
(b) Specific anttidote
(c) Non-specific antidote
(d) Histamine

55.Which of the following structure is responsible for the excretory function

of the skin?
(a) Blood vessels
(b) Lymph nodes
(c) Sebaceous glands
(d) Sweat glands
56.The life wire of the cell is
(a) The cell itself
(b) The cytoplsm
(c) The mitochondria
(d) The nucleus
57.Which nerve controls the dilation of the pupil?
(a) Optic
(b) Occulomotor
(c) Sympathetic
(d) Parasympathetic
58.Which of the following conditins complicates heart disease and results
into cardiac failure
(a) Endocardiatis
(b) Pre-eclampsia
(c) Anaemia
(d) Pulmonary
59.Ruptured uterus is very rare in which of the following group of women
 (a) Multiparous
(b) Grand multiparous
(c) Primigravida
(d) Previous caesarem section
60.The right and left cerebral hemispheres are joined by the
(a) Corpus callosum
(b) Corpus luteum
(c) Ponsvarolli
(d) Cerebellum
61.In which part of the brain is the visual centre situated?
(a) The temporal lobe
(b) The parietal lobe
(c) The frontal lobe
(d) The occipital lobe
62.The fatty covering of an axon is called___________
(a) Grew matter
(b) Myelin shealt
(c) Neurilemma
(d) Neuroglia
63.The Iris is a part of the following coat of the eye.
(a) Choroid
(b) Cornea
(c) Retina
(d) Sclera

64.One of the following is not part of the brain steam

(a) Mild brain
(b) Pons Varolli
(c) Hind brain
(d) Medulla oblangata
65.Which of the following cells will not regenerate if damaged?
(a) Liver cells
(b) Muscle cells
(c) Glandular cells
(d) Nerve cells
66.The blind spot in the eye is the ?
(a) Optic Disc
(b) Marcula Lutea
(c) Ciliary Body
(d) Iris
67.The auditory ossicles is made up of the following three bones from
lateral to medial_______
(a) Incus, stapes, malleus
(b) Staples, malleus, Incus
(c) Malleus, Incus, Staple
(d) Staples, Incus, Malleus
68.The cell’s ability to generate an electrical impulse is referred to as
________________
(a) Automacity
(b) Depolarization
(c) Repolarization
(d) Contraction
69.The normal pH of blood is aproximately_________
(a) 7.2
(b) 7.4.
(c) 7.6
(d) 7.8
70.Initial emergency treatment for a minor partial thickness burn to the left
forearm is _______
(a) Cover the affected area with water moistened sterile dressing
(b) Wash the affected area with sterile saline solution
(c) Immerse the affected area in warm water
(d) Immerse the affected area in cool water
71.What should a first aider do if a boy has been stabbed in the abdomen?
(a) Remove the knife
(b) Encourage quiet breathing
(c) Immobilize the knife and transfer patient to hospital
(d) Clean the knife with sterile water after removal
72.The initial management of a child who swallows kerosene is to_______
(a) Induce vomiting rapidly
(b) Give a purgative or laxative
(c) Do nothing
 (d) Arrange for child to be taken for medical treatment

73.The normal amount of urine produced each day by a 70kg man is

_________
(a) 200mls
(b) 500mls
(c) 1500mls
(d) 3500mls
74.The limb is elevated for a patient with a newly applied Plaster Of Paris to
________
(a) Aid venous return
(b) Allow the plaster to dry quickly
(c) Encourage wound drainage
(d) Take pressure off the plaster
75.Bright red frothy blood from the mouth indicates:
(a) Fractured Ribs
(b) Flail Chest
(c) Punctured Pleura
(d) Punctured lungs
76.One of the following is not a cause of dysuria?
(a) Urethritis
(b) Glomerulonephritis
(c) Prostatitis
(d) Vaginitis
77.All of the following are appropriate treatment for sub-dural
haemorrhage EXCEPT
(a) Bed rest
(b) Removal through a bore hole
(c) Intravenous cannulation
(d) Hypotensive drugs
78.Sprain is an injury where __________
(a) Tendons are torn
(b) Ligaments are torn
(c) Cartilage is crushed
(d) Muscles are torn
79.The most important observation for a boy admitted to E.R with fracture
of the lower end of the humerus is;
(a) Oedema of the lower arm
(b) Cyanosis of the finger nails
(c) Absence of the radial pulse
(d) Loss of sensation of the fingers.
80.Which of the following is an example of substance use disorder?
(a) Alcohol related disorders
(b) Caffaine related dis orders
(c) Inhalant related disorders
(d) All of the above
81.The killing of one human being by another is?
(a) Manslaughter
(b) Murder
(c) Suicide
(d) Homicide

82.The foloowing persons experience anxiety EXCEPT

(a) The mentally ill person
(b) Civil servants
(c) Politicians
(d) None of the above
83.Commonly abuse drugs are__________
(a) Alcohol
(b) Cannabis
(c) Serotinines
(d) All of the above
84.In bipolar, major depressive episodes alternate with periods of
_________
(a) Hyperventilation
(b) Hypomania
(c) Hypothermia
(d) Hypoxia
85.Which of the following is a significant neurotransmitter in depression
(a) Serotinine
(b) Dopamine
 (c) Betacarotine
(d) Acetyliholine
86.The best practiced intervention practice in mental illness is?
(a) Advocacy
(b) Psychotherapy
(c) Coordination of care
(d) Community based care
87.The resources used to figure out symptoms present in specific
psychiatric disorder would be?
(a) Nursing intervention classification
(b) Nursing outcome classification
(c) NANDAI nursing diagnosis
(d) DSM-5
88.An anxiety disorder is _____________
(a) An emotional state state identified by panic attacks
(b) An emotional condition classified by excessive thinking
(c) Disordered thinking
(d) An excessive or aroused state characterized by feelings of
apprehension, uncertainty and fear
89.Which of the following physical symptoms are associated with panic
attacks?
(a) Heart palpitation
(b) Perspiring
(c) Hyperventilating
(d) All of the above
90.Which of the following level of anxiety require hospitalization?
(a) Mild level of anxiety
(b) Moderate level of anxiety
(c) Severe level of anxiety
(d) Severe and panic attack levels of anxiety

91.Suicide is commonly found in which of the following psychiatric

illnesses?
(a) Situational crisis
(b) Hysterical fit
(c) Major depression
 (d) Obessive compulsive neurosis
92.Major form of psychiatric illness is __________
(a) Neurosis
(b) Artheriosclerosis
(c) Psychosis
(d) Brain tumor
93.A neurotic disorder involves ______________
(a) Hallucination
(b) Illusion
(c) Delusion
(d) None of the above
94.Nursing diagnosis for suicidal patient may include the following:
(a) Risk for self directed violence related to feelings of hopelessness
(b) Hopelessness related to absence of support systems and perceptions
of worthlessness
(c) Fluid imbalance related inability to take in fluid
(d) Sleep pattern disturbance related to noise in the environment
95.Success of long term psychotherapy with a psychiatric patient could be
measured by the following behaviours?
(a) The patient has a new friend
(b) The patient has an increaded sense of self worth
(c) The patient does not take antidepressants anymore
(d) The patient told her old friends how angry she has been with him for
breaking up with her.
96.Akathesia denotes __________
(a) Motor restlessness
(b) Pacing rocking and foot tapping
(c) Tremor
(d) All of the above
97.The best word to describe drug abuse is ___________________
(a) Drug dependence
(b) Drug tolerance
(c) Drug withjdrawal
(d) Substance abuse
98.Drug abuse individual can be recognised by the following?
(a) Dressing well
(b) Using strong perfume
 (c) Licking of tomtom
(d) None of the above
99.Ataxia is ___________
(a) Loss of coordination of voluntary movement
(b) Difficulty in walking
(c) Paralysis of the limbs
(d) Difficulty in sleeping

100 killing by the army is ___________

(a) Homicide
(b) Suicide
(c) Normal homicide
(d) Complete suicide
101 A psychiatric condition is said to be psychotic with ___________
(a) Hallucination/delusion
(b) Talking irrationally
(c) Illusion/hopelessness
(d) Aggressiveness
102 A group of relatively mild mental illness which is usually kept
momentarily out of balance psychologically is called
_________________
(a) Depression
(b) Bipolar effective disorder
(c) Neurosis
(d) None of the above
103 Person who are depressed often have the following EXCEPT
(a) Extreme sadness
(b) Loss of weight
(c) Deep sleep
(d) Loss of interest
104 Depressive disorder
(a) Runs in families
(b) Affects only women
(c) Children are exempted
(d) None of the Above
105 Different ways in which a patient seek psychological treatment are all
EXCEPT
(a) Individual psychotherapy
(b) Family psychotherapy
(c) Psychoanalysis
(d) Group psychotherapy
106 Suicide can be committed in different ways EXCEPT
(a) Drowning
(b) Locking up oneself in a room
(c) Depression
(d) Gunshot wound
107 Successful or completed suicide is__________________
(a) Psychiatric emergency
(b) General hospital care
(c) Should be left untouched
(d) Shouold be buried immediately
108 The leading cause of death among suicide victims is ____________
(a) Drug over dosage
(b) Gunshot wounds
(c) Stabbing
(d) Drowning

109 Anxiety disorder is a pervasive condition in which the sufferer

experiences________
(a) Fear of unknown
(b) Continual apprehension and anxiety above future events
(c) Continual flashback of past events
(d) A desire to check that the environment is safe
110 A long term use of cocaine may well develop symptoms of other
psychological disorders such as_____________
(a) Major depression
(b) Social phobia
(c) Eating disorder
(d) All of the above
111 Which of the following physical symptoms are associated with panic
attack?
 (a) Perspering
(b) Heart palpitation
(c) Hyper ventilation
(d) All of the above
112 Only one of the following is an example of effect of anxiety disorder?
(a) Alcohol intoxication
(b) Phobic disorder
(c) Caffaine related disorder
(d) All of the above
113 Suicide is more prone in the following persons?
(a) Unemployed youth
(b) Adolescent girls
(c) Married women
(d) Old men
114 The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a family that just lost a loved
one is ________
(a) Interrupted family process
(b) Grieving
(c) Powerlessness
(d) Ineffective coping
115 All of the following are correct about intentional injuries EXCEPT
(a) They are caused by some form of energy
(b) Intentional energies cannot be prevented through anticpatory
guidance
(c) Occour among adolescents and adults
(d) Occur through falls, suicides etc
116 The following are through about the golden hour EXCEPT
(a) Is the initial 12 hours after accident
(b) It’s also known as golden time
(c) Makes the difference between life and death
(d) It’s the period when treatment is likely to be given
117 The lag time following an injury should not be more than____________
(a) 6 minutes
(b) 60 minutes
(c) 50 minutes
(d) 5 minutse
118 The hall mar of first aid is that it can be performed by ___________
(a) Only nurses
(b) All medically inclined persons
(c) Anybody irrespsective of profession
(d) EMT’s only
119 Intervention during fisrt aid treatment includes the following EXCEPT
________
(a) Ensure patient airway
(b) Stop bleeding
(c) Give oral fluid tp prevent dehydration
(d) Protecy from harm
120 The major source of energy force in trauma is derived from
______________
(a) Chemical
(b) Mechanical/kinetic
(c) Electrical
(d) Radiant
121 In the epidemiology of trauma, all these demographic elements are
important EXCEPT:
(a) Age
(b) Gender
(c) Race
(d) Title
122 In trauma, the extent of injury is determined by all the following EXCEPT:
(a) The type of force applied
(b) The accumulated event
(c) Part of the body applied
(d) How quickly it is applied
123 The amount of force an object or body produces depends on:
(a) Velocity and speed
(b) Mass and volume
(c) Velocity and mass
(d) Density and mass
124 Only one of the following is correct, deceleration __________
(a) Is the force that increases in speed
(b) Increses the velocity of a moving victim
 (c) Increases the velocity of the mass of the object
(d) Is the force that stops or decreases the velocity of a moving object
125 When a moving object suddenly decreases its velocity to zero, the
energy is _____ around the victim’s body.
(a) Dissolved
(b) Dissipated
(c) Disappears
(d) Disembarked
126 An occupant of a slow-moving car hit from the rear will sustain injury
because he will suddenling _________
(a) Decelerate
(b) Accelerate and decelerate
(c) Disembark and dissipate
(d) Dissipate and decelerate

127 In hospital care, ATLS approach is a well-defined order such as

(a) Evaluation
(b) Airway establishment
(c) Critical intervention
(d) Primary secondary survey
128 The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for an open chest injury is
(a) Altered skin integrity
(b) Impaired skin integrity
(c) Destroyed skin integrity
(d) Impaired alteration in tissue integrity
129 In chest trauma where there is left lower ribfracture, the most likely
damaged organ is _____
(a) The liver
(b) The heart
(c) The spleen
(d) The kidney
130 Penetrating chest injury with lung laceration affects the patient’s ability
to maintain
(a) Positive intra-pleural pressure
(b) Negative intra pleural pressure
(c) Negative baro-metric pressure
(d) Positive intra thoracic pressure
131 In chest injury, one specifics nursing problem is the patiernts inability to
balance the perfusion-ventilation ratio.
(a) Impaired breathing pattern
(b) Impaired airway clearance
(c) Impaired ventilation perfusion rate
(d) Imbalance airway clearance
132 In chest trauma, one problem

133. In chest trauma trauma, one of the problems specific to all patients
include;
a) pain
b) Bony crepitus
c) Atelectasis
d) Hemoptysis
134. Choose the most correct answer
a) In flail chest, the flail segment moves outward during expiration
b) The flail segment outward during inspiration
c) the flail segment moves inward during expiration
d) The flail segment does not disrupt the mechanism of respiration
135. The following are correct about chest trauma EXCEPT_________
a) They are life threatening
b) Mechanical energy is involved
c) Acceleration forces are responsible
d) The integrity of the respiratory system is intact
136. Only one statement is incorrect
a) The visceral pleura contains sensory nerve fibre
b) The parietal pleura contains sensory nerve endings
c) The intra pleural space provide lubrication for the lungs
d) The visceral pleura lines the lungs

137. In crush injuries to the chest, one of the statements is incorrect

a) The elasticity of the chest has been exceeded due to trauma
b) Maintenance of the crushing force for a longer period may not be
responsible for the crushing effect
c) It may result in flail chest injury
d) This mode of injury causes high mortality
138. The following are true about chest injury EXCEPT______
a) The skin is broken
b) The object may be impaled
c) There may be massive blood loss
d) The injury may be misleading
139. All the following are correct about rib fracture EXCEPT_______
a) Injury to the bone is more significant than the underlying tissues
b) Lung laceration is likely to occur
c) patient cannot maintain negative intra-pleural pressure when there is
leakage of air
d) There may be deformity of the chest wall
140. Management of simple rib fracture include all EXCEPT______
a) Deep breathing exercise
b) Pain relief
c) Use of incentive spirometry
d) Chest tube insertion

141. The following are true about flail chest EXCEPT_______

a) There is segregation rib fracture
b) Lung expansion cannot be achieved
c) There is disruption of normal pulmonary mechanism
142. In pathophysiological process of flail chest, the following are correct
EXCEPT
a) There is a free-floating segment of the rib
b) the segment moves independently during inspiration
c) Pressure inside the thorax increases above atmospheric air pressure
d) Ventilation perfusion ratio is altered
143. Immediate problems of the patient with chest injury include all of the
following EXCEPT_______
a) Impaired skin integrity
b) Anxiety
c) Pain
d) Imbalanced ventilation perfusion rate
144. management of complicated chest injury requires all EXCEPT____
a) Oxygen therapy
b) Chest physiotherapy
c) Blood transfusion
d) Non pharmaceutical therapy

145. In pneumothorax, there is accumulation of _______

a) Blood in the pleura space
b) Air in the visceral space
c) Air in the pleural space
d) Fluid in the pleural space
146. The following are correct about open pneumothorax EXCEPT_____
a) A suckling chest wound occurs
b) Air moves into the lungs through the chest wall
c) The injury is the result of penetrating chest wall injury
d) Breath sounds are increased on affected side
147. In haemothorax______
a) There is free blood in the pleural space
b) There is free blood in the parietal space
c) The lung parenchyma is intact
d) Breath sound is altered
148. On assessment of the patient with haemothorax, the following findings
are made EXCEPT______
a) Chest pain
b) Shortness of breath
c) Increased breath sound
d) Decreased breath sound

149. Abdominal injury is classified as all EXCEPT?

a) Open chest trauma
b) Blunt trauma
c) Penetrating trauma
d) Iatrogenic trauma
150. In treatment priorities of severe abdominal bleeding___ takes priority
a) start resuscitative measures for shock/ bleeding
b) Recognize presence of shock or intra-abdominal bleeding
c) Determine if abdomen is source of shock
d) determine if emergency laparotomy is needed
151. Multi-disciplinary trauma team consist of the following EXCEPT
a) Trauma surgeon
b) Trauma nurse practitioner
c) Radiologist
d) None of the above
152. Solid organs found in the abdominal cavity include
a) Liver, gall bladder, kidney and spleen
b) Liver, Kidney, stomach and spleen
c) Spleen, bladder, kidney, liver
d) Spleen, Kidney, liver, pancreas

153. Hollow organs in the abdominal cavity include only one of the following
a) Kidney, liver, gall bladder, pancreas
b) Pancreas, omentum, appendix, Kidney
c) Bladder, stomach, small bowel and large bowel
d) Small bowel, stomach, liver, pancreas
154. Visceral peritoneum is derived from______
a) Splanchnic mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Somatic mesoderm
155. Which of the following structure is retroperitoneal?
a) Ascending colon
b) Duodenum
c) Descending colon
d) All of the above
156. The following are signs and symptoms of a thyroid storm EXCEPT
a) Tachycardia
b) Hypotension
c) Hyperthermia
d) Diaphoresis

157. When inserting an oropharyngeal, air point the tip towards the____
a) Roof of the patient’s mouth
b) Patient’s tongue
c) Patient’s chin
d) Patient’s uvula
158. The major adverse effect(s) of the thyroid replacement is/are
a) Nervousness and tremors
b) Muscle and joint discomfort
c) Obesity
d) Adversity to cold
159. A patient in the emergency room has severe nausea and has been
vomiting every 30 to 40 minutes for the past 8hours. This patient ia at the risk
of developing which condition?
a) Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia
b) Metabolic acidosis and hypokalemia
c) Metabolic alkalosis and hyperkalemia
d) Metabolic alkalosis and hyperkalemia
160. Which class of drug is commonly used in the treatment of thyroid storm
a) Thrombocytes
b) Neuroleptics
c) Methrimazole
d) Azathioprine
161. The normal PH of blood is approximately
a) 7.2
b) 7.6
c) 7.4
d) 7.8
162. When an unconscious person’s head is flexed, the airway will be
obstructed by the
a) Tongue
b) Epiglottis
c) Carotid artery
d) Pharynx

163. The following method is used when a patient is to ensure patency of

airways EXCEPT
a) Head tilt
b) Cervical collar
c) Jaw thrust
d) Chin lift
164. The very first step taken to aid a patient who is not breathing is to
a) Clear the mouth
b) Administer oxygen
c) Apply positive ventilation
d) Tilt the head back
165. Once respiratory arrest begins, brain cells will start to die in
a) 10 to 20 minutes
b) 4 to 6 minutes
c) 30 minutes to 1 hour
d) 3 to 5 seconds
166. Source of acid in human being include the following EXCEPT
a) Metabolism of amino acids
b) Incomplete metabolism of carbohydrate
c) Foods
d) None of the above

167. The first step in caring for the drowning victim is to

a) Establish an open airway
b) Expel water from the airway
c) Resuscitate with positive pressure
d) Start CPR
168. Triage means
a) Rescue patient
b) Bringing together all emergency conditions
c) Attending to severe cases of emergency
d) Sorting out into at least 3 categories
169. Nursing ethics deals with
a) Issues of professional status
b) who is who in the nursing profession
c) Ideals, morals, justice, fairness and duty
d) Issues of competence of the early nursing theories

170. The mission statement of NMCN is :-

a) Promoting excellence in nursing and midwifery education in Nigeria
b) Excellence in health education and practice of nursing and midwifery in
Nigeria
c) Promoting and maintaining excellence in nursing education and practice in
Nigeria
d) Promotion of professional ethics and excellent practice of nursing in Nigeria
171. A duty of care means
a) The authority that the patient exhibits at all times
b) The legal responsibility that the nurse owe his/her client
c) The authority to command the patient
d) All of the above
172. The correct term for a weak bulge in an artery wall is known as
a) An aneurysm
b) An embolism
c) a varicose
d) an atheroma

173. A healthy adult at rest has a tidal volume of approximately

a) 500mls
b) 1000mls
c) 0.55 litres
d) 5 litres
174. The following are the complications of hyperosmolar non-kenotic acidosis
EXCEPT
a) Hypophosphatemia
b) Rhabdomyolysis
c) cerebral oedema
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
175. In emergency, which of the following would be the safest blood group to
give if the patient’s own blood group was not available
a) O rhesus negative
b) O rhesus positive
c) AB rhesus positive
d) AB rhesus negative
176. In which of the following do you relate the findings of a topic to those of
similar studies
a) Introduction
b) Literature review
c)
d)
177. Which of the following fluid is a colloid volume expander?
a) Normal saline
b) Mannitol
c) Blood
d) Ringer lactate
178. In low level of blood glucose, epinephrine and glucagon increase the
process of________
a) Glycogenesis
b) Glycogenelysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Glucagonosis
179. Glucagon secretion increases
a) After carbohydrate rich meal
b) After a fat rich meal
c) When glucose is high
d) When blood glucose is low
180. Insulin increases in which of the pathway
a) Glycogenesis
b) Glycolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Blood glucose
181. Insulin is secreted by one of the cells of islet of Langerhans
a) A cell
b) B cell
c) F cell
d) S cell
182. The entire group of people under study by the researcher is known as
a) Sample
b) Population
c) Control group
d) Experimental group
183. The type of research that focuses on finding a solution to an immediate
practical problem is termed
a) Descriptive research
b) Explanatory research
c) Basic research
d) Applied research

184. The term used in describing the consistency of the test in measuring what
it is supposed to measure is called
a) Validity
b) Specificity
c) Reliability
d) Sensitivity
185. Data recorded in whole number (1,2,3) is an example of :
a) Continuous data
b) Discrete data
c) Measurable data
d) Uncountable data
186. When a client has a transfusion reaction because of incompatible blood,
the nurse should assess the client for:
a) Dyspnea
b) Cyanosis
c) Bioleaches
d) Bradycardia
187. Indication for defibrillation are all EXCEPT
a) In ventricular fibrillation
b) In cardiac arrest
c) “a” and “b” above
d) Neither “a” nor “b”

188. Because the cells are deprived of oxygen during cardiac arrest, metabolic
acidosis may develop. The nurse should be prepared to administer
a) Regular insulin
b) Calcium gluconate
c) Potassium chloride
d) Sodium bicarbonate
189. Routes of administration of epinephrine are all EXCEPT
a) Intramuscular
b) Intracardiac
c) Through the endo tracheal tube
d) intravenously
190. With reference to shock, which one does not give appropriate
description?
a) Hypowleanic shock which results from blood loss
b) cardiogenic shock which results from pump failure
c) Septic shock which results from abnormalities in the vascular system.
d) Anaphylactic shock results from an allergic response that causes the release
of inflammatory substances that increase vasodilation and capillary/
permeability

191. Level of consciousness can be determined by Glasglow coma scale or the

AVPU method
a) Alertness, responds to vocal stimuli, responds to painful stimuli and
unresponsiveness
b) Allergy, vital signs monitoring palpitation and unlimited oxygenation
c) Eye opening, verbal response
d) verbal and psychomotor response
192. The Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) test measures the following in the blood
EXCEPT
a) The acidity Ph of the blood
b) The carbon dioxide in the blood
c) Level of oxygen in the blood
d) Level of calcium in the blood
193. Principles of accident and emergency nursing include the following
EXCEPT
a) Survey of the scenes
b) Triage
c) Primary and secondary assessment/intervention
d) invite the Doctors

194. The important PS that must be observed during emergency response

include the following EXCEPT
a) Preserve life
b) prevent deterioration/further injury
c) Promote recovery
d) prepare the patient for transfer
195. The reward/award given to Florence Nightingale by Queen of Britain is
called ______
a) Nightingale plaque
b) Nightingale jewel
c) Nightingale souvenir
d) Nightingale medal
196. The Nightingale engraved brooch was worth______
a) 250,000 dollars
b) 260,000 dollars
c) 240,000 dollars
d) 270,000 dollars
197. A period of disequilibrium overpowering individual homeostatic
mechanism is called:
a) Distress
b) Stress
c) Eustress
d) Crisis
198. A systematic injury designed to develop knowledge about issues of
importance to nurses including nursing practice, nursing education and nursing
administration is known as
a) Nursing care study
b) Nursing research
c) Nursing post basic programs
d) Accident and emergency programmes
199. Some of the first aid myths (non-practicable) for snake bite include the
following EXCEPT
a) Do not attempt to suck the venom out by mouth
b) Do not raise the area of the bite above the heart
c) Do not cut across the snake bite
d) Go after the snake to know the specie
200. The mid-life crisis that is known as the decade cross road of foot bridge
occurs at what age?
a) 35 – 45years
b) 25 – 35years
c) 45 – 50years
d) 40 – 50years
201. The determining factor in crisis resolution include the following EXCEPT
a) Perception of an event
b) Presence of adequate coping mechanism
c) Availability of situational support
d) Cognitive and effective dysfunction
202. In problem solving technique-trial and error means:
a) Solving with experience
b) solving by practice
c) Solving by putting one in one’s shoe
d) Solving by initial observation
203. Stages of resolution of crisis include the following EXCEPT
a) Stage of disorganization
b) Stage of re-organization
c) Stage of resolution
d) Stage of disequilibrium

204. MCPDP in nursing means:

a) Mandatory continuing professional development programme
b) Mandatory compulsory professional development programme
c) Mandatory continuity professional development programme
d) Mandatory compulsory proficiency development programme
205. Types of crisis include the following EXCEPT
a) Situational crisis
b) Maturation crisis
c) Developmental crisis
d) Adolescent crisis
206. The categories of stress including the following EXCEPT
a) Physical
b) Psychological
c) Psychosocial
d) Moral
207. In the year______, Mrs. Florence Nightingale left her home town to
receive a letter from Sidney Herbert, the secretary of the Crimean war in order
for her to organize oversea to attend the wounded soldiers
a) 1854
b) 1866
c) 1864
d) 1845

208. School of post basic nursing studies accident and emergency programme
stated in the year_________
a) 2013
b) 2014
c) 2012
d) 2011
209. In the era of COVID 19 pandemic, the following practice are advocated
EXCEPT
a) Face masking under duress
b) Social distancing
c) Alcohol based sanitizer
d) Regular hand washing
2010. In the era of Florence Nightingale, she worked with her corps of nurses
performing their caring roles and nursing activities based on
a) Intuition
b) Scientific reasoning
c) Temperament
d) Expertise

211. Modern nursing care is built upon a unique body of knowledge that has
only the medical model, but also the image of Physicians, assistant and focuses
on the following EXCEPT
a) Health promotion
b) Health prevention
c) Health hazards
d) Resoration of health
212. In order to define nursing education and the boundaries of nursing
practice, the nursing and midwifery council of Nigeria has been established
under decree
a) 89 of 1979
b) 79 of 1989
c) 89 of 1977
d) 79 of 1978
213. The name of nursing diagnosis is linked to etiology with the phrase
a) “as manifested by”
b) “Related to”
c) “evidence by”
d) “according to”

214. The theorist who advanced the self-care theory, assists clients with self-
care and educate clients in those things necessary for self-care was_______
a) Ida Oriando
b) Dorothea
c) Hildegard peplau
d) Virginia Henderson
215. Ethical issues concerning care of patients include all EXCEPT
a) Informed consent
b) Providing privacy when caring out nursing proceedings
c) Confidentiality
d) Empathy
216. For an A & E Nurse to function as a triage nurse in the A & E department,
her main role includes the following EXCEPT
a) Perform primary and secondary assessment
b) Manage and communicate with the victims
c) Sort patients according to priority and resources
d) Teaching and learning by the subordinate of the cases on ground

217. Which of the following is considered as the most important aspects of

hand washing:
a) Soap
b) Water
c) Friction(technique)
d) Time
218. The prophylaxis management used in the management of the corona
virus victims include the following EXCEPT
a) Chlorpodogril
b) Azithomycin
c) Alluvia
d) chlorpromazine
219. Which is the main reason for admitting patients to coronary care unit
following myocardial infarction? _______ To
a) Rest the patient
b) Discourage visitors
c) Detect dysrhythmia
d) Monitor drug therapy
220. The null hypothesis is a ________
a) A trial hypothesis of no difference
b) A trial hypothesis of the existence of difference
c) It is otherwise known as affirmative or alternative hypothesis
d) All of the above
221. The appropriate level of significance for testing the nursing research
is_______
a) .1
b) .05
c) .5
d) .75
222. Research questions flow indirectly from the problem statements, they
have the following attributes/qualities except one
a) They do not indicate a relationship between two or more variables
b) They indicate a relationship between two or more variable
c) They help to determine the method to be adapted for the research
d) They are usually open ended questions, detailed and specific

223. The goal of Nursing research is

a) For academic purposes
b) To improve the practice of the profession in the clinical settings, education
and administration
c) to earn authority in nursing profession
d) to improve oneself in the nursing field
224. Intensive care nursing therapy are all EXCEPT_______
a) Team nursing
b) Independent nursing only
c) Fluid therapy and monitoring
d) resuscitation, oxygen therapy and administration of emergency drugs
225. Emergency drugs/ fluid in intensive care unit are all EXCEPT
a) Cholamines, example- adrenaline, noradrenaline, isoprenaline and
dopamine
b) Bronchodilator
c) Manitol 5% dextrose
d) Oral vitamins

226. Monitoring devices frequently used in the intensive care units to measure
physiological variables include all EXCEPT
a) Pulse oximeter and sphygmomanometer
b) Electrocardiography
c) central nervous pressure and ventilators
d) crash cart or code
227. During cardiac arrest, the pupils will usually;
a) Constrict
b) Not be visible
c) Dilate
d) Appear normal
228. When the heel of the hand is placed over the CPR pressure point, the
fingers should be;
a) Curved between the rib
b) Curved into a fist
c) Interlocked
d) held together
229. When bandaging extremities, the fingers and toes should be;
a) covered loosely
b) Covered lightly
c) Left exposed
d) Dressed before bandaging

230. _____ sound indicates spasm of the larynx

a) snoring
b) Crowing
c) Gurgling
d) Cracking
231. when providing mouth to mouth ventilation to an infant, deliver;
a) Puffs from the cheeks
b) 500cc
c) Half breath
d) 1000cc
232. Nasal bleeding can usually be controlled by
a) Pinching the nostrils together
b) Facial pressure points
c) Tilting the head forward
d) Tilting the head to one side
233. _____ is the thin membrane covering the sclera
a) Renal capsule
b) Conjunctiva
c) Glisson’s capsule
d) Cornea

234. Which of the following best describes the eye movements

a) Paradoxical
b) Antagonistic
c) Dorsolateral
d) Sympathetic
235. ____ is the best method to care for the eyes of an unconscious patient
a) Cover with multi-trauma dressings
b) Cover with loose dressings
c) Wash before transport
d) Tape lids shut
236. When a section of a failed chest moves in the opposite direction of
breathing movements, it is called
a) traumatic pneumothorax
b) Subcutaneous emphysema
c) Traumatic asphyxia
d) Paradoxical respiration
237. The condition of the heart bleeding into its own protective sac is;
a) Cardiac emphysema
b) Pericardial tamponade
c) Pericardio pneumothorax
d) Cardiac asphyxia

238. In open chest wounds, the crack sensation produced by air flowing into
surrounding tissues is called
a) Subcutaneous emphysema
b) Traumatic asphyxia
c) Flail chest
d) Cardiac asphyxia
239. Irritation of the peritoneum would be indicated by;
a) Profuse rectal bleeding
b) Vomiting blood
c) Complete loss of sensation of abdominal muscles
d) Abdominal muscle spasm and stiffening
240. A person jumps from a burning, lands on his feet and sustains fracture of
the pelvis, the injury resulted from
a) Direct violence
b) Twisting forces
c) Indirect violence
d) Untwisting forces
241. Ventricular depolarization is represented by;
a) P wave
b) ST segment
c) QRS complex
d) T wave

242. P wave represents

a) Ventricular repolarization
b) Ventricular depolarization
c) Atrial repolarization
d) Atrial depolarization
243. Myocardium receives its blood supply directly from the
a) Aorta
b) Pulmonary arteries
c) Coronary arteries
244. A lumber puncture should not be carried out to relieve raised intra cranial
pressure because of risk of
a) Convulsion
b) Coning
c) Severe headache
d) Meningitis
245. The cardiac electrical impulse begins in the
a) AV node
b) Bundle of HIS
c) Purknife fibres

246. Which of the following investigation if available would be most useful aid
in the diagnosis of head injury
a) DIR encephalogram
b) Carotid angiogram
c) Computerized axial tomography CT scan
d) Electro-encephalogram
247. The following is essential in diagnosis of rectal bleeding
a) ECG
b) Proctoscopy
c) Barium meal
d) EEG
248. In the 1st 6hours following myocardial infarction, the ECG often shows?
a) Elevated segment
b) Flattered T wave
c) Invented P wave
d) Tall peaked T wave
249. Potential complication following phlebotomy include all EXCEPT
a) Bleeding
b) Hematoma
c) Infection
d) Compensatory shock

250. Before an arterial puncture is carried out, the following test should be
performed to ensure collateral circulation
a) Alleys test
b) Allays test
c) Alien test
d) Allen test