POST-TEST EVIDENCE- PROF-EN

1. What is also known as “but for” or taint doctrine?

Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree
2. Is more than a mere scintilla. It means such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind
might accept as adequate to support a conclusion.
Substantial evidence
3. Is the proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the existence of the particular fact in
dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.
Circumstantial evidence
4. Are admissions, made out of court, or in a judicial proceeding other than the one under
consideration.
Extra-Judicial Admission
5. Is a voluntary acknowledgment in express terms or by implication, by a party interest or
by another by whose statement he is legally bound, against his interest, of the existence or truth
of a fact in dispute material to issue.
Admission
6. Is the declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of
any offense necessarily included therein, may be given in evidence against him.
Confession
7. Is the document whose contents are to be proved.
Best Evidence
8. That which consists of writings or any material containing letters, words, numbers,
figures, symbols or other modes of written expressions offered as proof of their contents.
Documentary evidence
9. Rule which requires the highest grade of evidence obtainable to prove a disputed fact is
the original of a document.
Original Document Rule
10. Is that which shows that better, or primary evidence exists as to the proof of a fact in
question.
Secondary evidence
11. Is a rule which forbids any addition to or contradiction of the terms of a written
instrument by testimony purporting to show that, at or before the signing, of the document,
other or different terms were orally agreed upon by the parties.
Parol Evidence Rule
12. Is meant the legal fitness or ability of a witness to be heard on the trial of a cause.
Competency of witness
13. A rule which forbids husband and wife, during their marriage, from testifying for or
against the other without the consent of the affected spouses except in some circumstances.
Marital Disqualification
14. Parties or assignors of parties to a case, or persons in whose behalf a case is
prosecuted, against an executor or administrator or other representative of a deceased person,
or against a person of unsound mind, upon a claim or demand against the estate of such
deceased person or against such person of unsound mind.
Dead Man’s Statute Rule
15. Rule which provides that a communication made in good faith on any subject matter in
which the communicator has an interest, or concerning which he has a duty, is privileged if made
to a person having a corresponding interest or duty, although it contains incriminatory matter
which, without the privilege, would be libelous and actionable.
Privilege Communication Rule
16. Requisite before recall of a witness.
Leave of Court
17. The kind of evidence addressed to the senses of the court, which is also known as the
evidence of the highest probative value.
Object evidence
18. The following are exceptions to the rule that there must be a valid warrant before a
search may be made, except:
Extensive bodily search at a checkpoint
19. The amount of reasonable evidence, which a reasonable mind of a prudent person
requires so that he might accept as adequate to justify a conclusion is called.
Substantial evidence
20. It has reference to a person who testifies to a cause or gives before a judicial tribunal.
Witness
21. It is the mere acknowledgment of facts or circumstances from which guilt may be
inferred but not sufficient in itself to establish guilt made by him during the pendency of the trial
of his case.
Admission
22. Which is not a purpose of the offender in using fictitious names?
To cause damage to public interest
23. Mario was accused of raping Juana. During the course of trial, Mario offered to marry
the latter. How is the offer in this case treated?
It is an implied admission of guilt
24. An extra-judicial confession made by an accused shall not be sufficient and admissible
unless it is in –
All of these
25. Evidence adduced in support of the discharge of an accused shall automatically form
part of the trial. If the court denies the motion for discharge of the accused as state witness, his
sworn statement shall be inadmissible in evidence –
Yes
26. During cross-examination of a witness, the lawyer of the adverse party propounded this
question: “You said, you were present at the classroom where the act of stabbing was
committed. Is that Correct?”. Is this type of question allowed in such stage?
No, it is leading
27. The submission of evidence for the consideration of the court is called.
Presentation of evidence
 28. The kind of evidence addressed to the senses of the court, which is also known as the
evidence of the highest probative value.
Object evidence
29. An extra-judicial confession made by an accused shall not be sufficient and admissible
unless it is in.
All of these
30. Evidence adduced in support of the discharge of an accused shall automatically form
part of the trial. If the court denies the motion for discharge of the accused as state witness, his
sworn statement shall be inadmissible in evidence.
Yes
31. The knife used in the commission of a homicide case was presented during trial. What
kind of evidence is presented?
Physical corroborative
32. What is the evidence that cannot be contradicted by other evidence?
Conclusive evidence
33. The failure to object the evidence presented is considered –
Waived
34. It is the matter to prove facts in issue?
Evidence
35. It is the highest grade of evidence which is of same content but different kind.
Primary evidence
36. Quantum of proof required in criminal cases is –
Proof beyond reasonable doubt
37. What rule on evidence is required in documents?
Original Document Rule
38. It is a statement given by a person before, during, and after committing a crime.
Res gestae
39. Pedro was mortally wounded by Juan through stabbing. Chong, who responded heard
from Pedro in a very labored voice “Si Pogi, si Pogi ang sumaksak sa akin.” Fortunately, with
timely medical attention, Pedro survived. How is his statement treated as evidence?
Res gestae
40. The means sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth
respecting a matter of fact.
Evidence
41. Evidence is _______ when it has a tendency in reason to establish the probability or
improbability of a fact in issue.
Relevant
42. Evidence is ______ when it is not excluded by law.
Competent
43. That which is addressed to the senses, as when objects are presented for the
inspection of the court.
Real or object
44. “When the subject of inquiry is the content of a document, no evidence shall be
admissible other than the original document itself.” This is the ______________.
Best evidence rule
45. X and Y are married. They are friends with Z. Z accused X of a certain crime. Can Z
present Y as a witness in his (Z) favor?
No, Y is disqualified to testify against X because they are married.
46. “No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct ascendants,
children, or other direct descendants.” This is ____________.
Parental and filial privilege
47. A _________ is a declaration made at any time by a person, voluntarily and without
compulsion or inducement, stating or acknowledging that he had committed or participated in
the commission of a crime.
Confession
48. _________ is a statement of facts that do not directly involve an acknowledgment of
guilt.
Admission
49. Statements made by a person while a startling occurrence is taking place.
Res gestae
50. An ordinary witness is testifying on the handwriting of the accused claiming that the
questioned handwriting was of the accused because he was very much familiar with such. Is his
opinion admitted in evidence?
Yes
POST-TEST CRIMINAL PROCEDURE (PROF-EN)

1. In filing a complaint or information, the real nature of the crime charge can be
determined from:
facts recited in the complaint or information
2. When charges are founded on the same facts or that which form part of a series of
offenses of the same character, the court may decide to obviate delay:
consolidate trials
3. A criminal action which is filed in court signed by law enforcers:
information
4. A complaint which charged more than one (1) distinct and separate offense is called:
duplicitous
5. One that is arising in the civil case but which is so intimately connected with the issues
involved in the criminal case as determinative of the innocence or guilt of the accused:
prejudicial question
6. An area separating the bench and counsel tables is off-limits without the judge’s
permission:
the well
7. This is a remedy for the inclusion of evidence in the court proceedings/records after it
is timely objected by the adverse party:
curative admissibility
8. In a criminal case if one of the parties would like to elevate her or his case to the
appellate court he or she is called the:
Appellant
9. What is the remedy of the accused if the complaint or information is vague or
ambiguous as to enable him to prepare properly for the trial?
bill of particular
10. This is to test the sufficiency of the evidence presented in a criminal case after the
prosecution has rested his case:
demurrer
11. The place where the judge holds office or conduct hearing on cases where the general
public is excluded:
chamber
12. A mallet used by the presiding judge for commanding attention:
gavel
13. It is an appeal by a witness to God to witness that the truth what he declares:
oath
14. Calling of the witness back to the witness stand for further examination:
recall
15. The table where the judge sits:
bench
 16. It means offering of evidence showing that a witness who has been examined is
unworthy of belief:
impeachment
17. An order commanding a person to appear in court and to bring specified documents or
objects with him or her:
subpoena duces tecum
18. Are facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense is in the place to be searched:
Probable cause
19. Which of the following does NOT justify arrest without a warrant?
Arrest based on police suspension
20. An inquiry of the complaint and accompanying documents to determine whether or
not there is sufficient evidence to form a belief that a person charged with an offense appears to
be liable and should stand for trial:
preliminary investigation
21. There are three types of criminal procedure; the accusatorial, the inquisitorial, and
what is the other type?
Mixed
22. The system of criminal procedure which provides that the prosecution of the crime
rests exclusively in the hands of the officers and agents of the state who conduct investigation
under a cloak of secrecy:
inquisitorial system
23. In Metro Manila and other chartered cities, where shall the offended party file his
complaint?
Office of the Prosecutor
24. Who shall enter a plea of guilty?
Defendant himself in open court
25. An informal inquiry whether or not a person arrested and detained without a warrant
should remain under custody and correspondingly be charged in court:
inquest proceedings
26. A system wherein the prosecution of an offense is left in the hands of the prosecuting
arm of the government:
accusatorial system
27. What is the taking of a person into custody so he can answer the commission of the
offense?
Arrest
28. When is jurisdiction over the person of the accused acquired?
Upon his arrest
29. Can a private person have the right to break into a building?
Yes, only if such breaking is necessary in making any arrest for a felony or to prevent the
commission of the offense
30. Under the Rules of Court, the proper time within which the accused may move to
quash the complaint or information is:
before arraignment
31. Which of the following constitutes a waiver of any irregularity attending arrest?
All of these
32. This is done by reading an information or complaint to the accused as to apprise the
latter of the cause and nature of the accusation against him:
arraignment
33. Which of the following rights of the accused cannot be waived?
right to be informed of the charge
34. It is an obligation of record entered into before some court or magistrate duly
authorized to take it with the condition to do some particular act, the most usual condition in a
criminal case being the appearance of the accused for trial:
bail
35. What is the best remedy for a person who is accused under a wrong name?
File a motion to quash on the ground of lack of jurisdiction
36. What is the rule in criminal law about doubts?
All doubts should be resolved in favor of the accused
37. What is the system of criminal procedure where the detection and prosecution of
offenders are not left to the initiative of private parties but to the officials and agents of the law?
Resort is made to secret inquiry to discover the culprit, and violence and torture were often
employed to extract a confession. The judge is not limited to the evidence brought before him
but could proceed with his own inquiry, which is NOT confrontative:
Inquisitorial
38. Refers to the authority of the court to hear and decide cases:
Jurisdiction
39. Where may the application for bail be filed?
Court where the case is pending
40. Refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised:
Venue
41. Which among the following may not be filed before the judgment becomes final?
Motion to quash
42. In criminal cases, the People of the Philippines is the:
Plaintiff
43. Which of the following is not covered by the rules on summary procedures?
Where the penalty is more than six months imprisonment
44. Cases on appeal on judgment rendered by a Municipal Trial Court shall be elevated to
what court?
Regional Trial Court
45. In the conduct of searches and seizures, what is the proper time in making the search?
All of the above
46. What personal property CANNOT be seized?
None of the above
47. An arrest warrant expires in how many days from the date of issuance?
None of the above
48. An order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a
judge directing a law enforcement officer to locate personal property described therein and bring
it before the court:
Search warrant
49. The method prescribed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of a person who
might have committed a crime and for his punishment in case of conviction or acquittal in case he
is found innocent is:
criminal procedure
50. The pre-marking of evidence of the parties for identification purposes is supposed to be
made during this stage of the proceedings:
pre-trial conference

POST-TEST SC1-CDI (PROF-EN)

1. Which of the following poisons causes a “garlic odor” in the body?

b) Arsenic
2. In cases of hanging, what is the most common cause of death?
c) Cerebral hypoxia due to vascular compression
3. What is cadaveric spasm?
b) Sudden stiffening of specific muscles at the moment of death
4. What is the primary factor affecting the severity of a gunshot wound?
c) Velocity of the bullet
5. What is the classic sign of opium poisoning?
b) Constricted pupils
6. Mummification occurs in:
b) Warm and dry conditions
7. Which of the following is NOT a common type of strangulation?
d) Electrocution strangulation
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an entrance gunshot wound?
b) Stellate tears in the skin
9. The presence of gunpowder residue around a wound suggests:
b) Close-range shot
10. In forensic entomology, the first insects to arrive on a corpse are usually:
b) Blowflies
11. In estimating time of death, vitreous potassium levels are used because:
a) They increase in a predictable manner
12. Which factor does NOT affect the rate of body cooling after death?
c) Cause of death
13. Which post-mortem change is best for estimating time since death?
d) All of the above
14. What type of death refers to complete cessation of blood circulation and breathing?
a) Somatic Death
15. A skull fracture due to a fall from a height is called:
b) Ring fracture
 16. What condition is sometimes mistaken for death due to lack of movement and
respiration?
b) Suspended animation
17. Adipocere formation is most common in which environment?
c) Wet and anaerobic
18. What is the expected wound pattern of a shotgun fired at close range?
b) Large central hole with satellite pellet wounds
19. Which of the following conditions can lead to “Spalding’s sign” in a dead fetus?
b) Maceration
20. What determines time of death in forensic investigations?
b) Rigor mortis, livor mortis, and algor mortis
21. Cherry-red discoloration of post-mortem lividity suggests poisoning by:
a) Carbon monoxide
22. Which of the following is NOT a sign of manual strangulation?
c) Ligature marks
23. Which of the following is NOT a qualifying aggravating circumstance in murder?
c) Intentional negligence
24. The presence of maggots in a dead body indicates a post-mortem interval of at least:
c) 24-48 hours
25. Which of the following is NOT a stage of death investigation?
c) Body decomposition testing
26. What chemical process leads to adipocere formation?
b) Hydrogenation and hydrolysis of fat
27. Which of the following injuries results from high-velocity impact?
c) Gunshot wounds
28. Which of the following is NOT a manner of death?
d) Undetermined
29. Who has authority over a dead body in a medico-legal case?
c) The state or investigating agency
30. Rigor mortis usually disappears within:
c) 36 hours
31. What is the significance of stomach contents in estimating time of death?
b) The rate of digestion provides clues
32. The last organ to decompose in the body is:
d) Prostate
33. Which post-mortem change occurs first?
b) Algor mortis
34. What causes cadaveric lividity (Livor Mortis)?
a) Blood pooling in dependent areas due to gravity
35. Rigor mortis typically sets in within:
b) 3-6 hours
36. Which of the following drowning signs is considered most reliable?
b) Presence of foam in airways
37. What does a “hesitation wound” indicate in forensic analysis?
c) A self-inflicted wound
38. In manual strangulation, which structure is most commonly fractured?
b) Hyoid bone
39. Which type of hanging is more likely to cause complete cervical spine fracture?
c) Judicial hanging
40. A patterned abrasion results from:
b) Impact with an object that leaves an imprint
41. Which of the following is an early sign of death?
b) Cooling of the body (Algor Mortis)
42. Which factor does NOT affect rigor mortis development?
d) Sex of the deceased
43. Which of the following is required for an autopsy in legal cases?
c) Court order or police request
44. A deep “V-shaped” ligature mark is most indicative of:
c) Complete hanging
45. Molecular death occurs how long after somatic death?
c) 2-3 hours
PRE-TEST SC2-CDI (PROF-EN)

1. What is the primary purpose of an interview in criminal investigation?

• b) Gather information about a crime
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an interrogation?
• c) Investigator remains neutral and objective
3. The Golden Rule of Interviewing states that an interview should never be conducted:
• d) After an interrogation
4. The preliminary interview is typically conducted:
• a) At the crime scene or the subject’s home/workplace
5. Which stage of the interview involves reviewing crime scene facts before questioning?
• c) Preparation
6. Which rule in questioning suggests avoiding leading questions?
• c) Avoid implied answers
7. Which stage of the interview is focused on making the subject feel comfortable and
cooperative?
• a) Warming Up
8. Which type of interview focuses only on personal background information?
• c) Background Interview
9. Which type of witness is the most reliable and cooperative?
• b) Honest Witness
10. A deceitful witness is one who:

• c) Lies or gives false information

11. Which legal doctrine must be strictly observed during custodial investigations?
 • c) Miranda Doctrine

12. Which of the following is NOT a proper interrogation room setup?

• c) Large windows to provide a view outside

13. What is the purpose of the “Focusing Stage” in an interrogation?

• a) Establish the crime and suspect’s presence

14. Which technique involves pretending that the suspect’s companions have already
confessed?

• b) The Weakest Link

15. Which interrogation technique involves a fake commotion to scare the suspect?

• b) The Drama Technique

16. A confession must be:

• c) Voluntary, in writing, and under oath

17. What is a dying declaration?

• b) A statement made by a person conscious of their imminent death

18. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid dying declaration?

• b) It must be made in the presence of a lawyer

19. Which of the following is NOT an element of robbery?

• d) Property was freely given to the suspect

20. What distinguishes robbery from theft?

• b) Robbery involves violence or intimidation

21. Which type of thief steals from stores by hiding items in clothing or bags?

• c) Shoplifter

22. Which of the following best describes “carnapping”?

 • a) The unlawful taking of a motor vehicle

23. Which law specifically deals with carnapping in the Philippines?

• b) RA 6539

24. Which of the following crimes involves tricking someone into giving up their money or
property?

• a) Estafa

25. Which term refers to evidence that proves a crime was committed?

• b) Corpus delicti

26. A police lineup is primarily used to:

• b) Identify a suspect from a group

27. The “Mutt and Jeff” interrogation technique is also known as:

• b) Good Cop, Bad Cop

28. The interrogation method where the investigator acts as if they already have evidence
is called:

• b) Pretense of Physical Evidence

29. Which interrogation technique involves suddenly shouting a question to startle the
suspect?

• a) Jolting

30. Res Gestae refers to:

• c) Statements made under emotional stress

1.
2. The process of preparing for change and coping with uncertainty formulating future
courses of action is known as _____
Planning
3. What is the general statement of intention and typically with a time horizon, or it is an
achievable end state that can be measured and observed?
Goal
4. What refers to a plan to attain a stated goal or objective?
Strategy
5. Which of these is a long-range plan?
Strategic plan
6. A planning approach that is based on a problem-oriented method, especially
appropriate for police agencies, and relies heavily on problem identification and analysis of the
planning process is _____
Synoptic planning
7. What is a linear-progressive decision-making process that displays the array of police
reasonable responses commensurate to the level of suspect/law offender’s resistance to effect
compliance, arrest, and other law enforcement actions?
Force Continuum
8. Which of these is NOT a requirement in conducting police operations?
K9 unit
9. Which patrol method may be best used for crowd control?
Horse Patrol
10. Prior to conducting a planned police operation, what must be secured by the team
leader of the operating team?
Pre-operation clearance
11. When may a police officer perform a pat-down search on stopped persons due to
genuine suspicion?
All of the foregoing
12. The process of using a geographic information system in combination with crime
analysis techniques to focus on the spatial context of criminal and other law enforcement activity
is ______.
Crime Analysis Mapping
13. What type of crime map is used wherein a map is mounted on a wall and crime
incidents are indicated by pins?
Manual Mapping
14. What is a set of computer-based tools that allow a person to modify, visualize, query,
and analyze geographic and tabular data?
Geographic Information System
15. Which type of analysis is focused only on recent crimes reported to the police?
Tactical Crime Analysis
16. The most effective method of patrol for an officer to be familiar with his area is ______
patrol.
Foot