Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics 4. A boy throws two balls A, B from the

window of a tall multi-storeyed building. Ball A
1. A body is falling freely in a resistive medium. is dropped from rest, while ball B is given an
The motion of the body is described by initial horizontal speed of 30 m/s. The position
dv
= (4 − 2v), where v is the velocity of the of the boy is at a level of 80 m above the
dt
ground, and the balls are thrown
body at any instant (in ms–1 ). The initial
simultaneously. Ignore air resistance, and take
acceleration and terminal velocity of the body, 2

respectively, are: g = 10 m/s .

Ball A reaches the ground in:

2 1. 8 s
1. 4 m/s , 2 m/s
2. 4 s
2
2. 2 m/s , 4 m/s 3. 2 s
3.
2
​
6 m/s , 2 m/s
4. √8 s
2
4. ​
2 m/s , 6 m/s 5. In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents
the total acceleration of a particle moving in the
clockwise direction in a circle of radius
2. A ball is thrown at an angle θ0 above the R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed
horizontal, and follows the parabolic path of the particle is:
taken by a projectile. Let its speed be v when its
trajectory makes an angle θ with the horizontal.
Assuming A to be a constant,
1. v = A cos θ
2. v = A sin θ
3. v = A tan θ
4. v = A sec θ

3. A particle moving along a straight line

undergoes a displacement (x), which is shown 1. 4.5 m/s
in the adjacent figure, as a function of time (t). 2. 5.0 m/s
The distance travelled by the particle from 3. 5.7 m/s
t = 0 to t = 6 s is:
4. 6.2 m/s

6. A vehicle travels half the distance with speed

v and the remaining distance with speed 2v. Its

average speed is:

3v
1. 4
v
2. 3
2v
3. 3
4v
4. 3
1. 2 m

2. 3 m

3. 4 m

4. 0 m

Page: 1
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

7. Given below are two statements: 9. A particle (1), dropped from rest from the
The average velocity of the topmost point (A) of a vertical circle, reaches
object over an interval of time the bottom (B) in the same time as when a
Assertion (A): is either smaller than or equal second particle (2) moving with constant speed
to the average speed of the moves along the circumference from A to B.
object over the same interval. The ratio of the accelerations of the particles
Displacement is the shortest (a1 /a2 ) equals:
Reason (R):
distance between two points.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

8. Two trains each of length 100 m, are

running on parallel tracks. One train overtakes 1. 1 2.
2

the other in 20 s and they cross each other in π

10 s. What are the speeds of the two trains? 4 2
1. 10 m/s, 20 m/s 3. 4. √
2
π π
2. 20 m/s, 30 m/s,
3. 15 m/s, 5 m/s,
4. 25 m/s, 15 m/s,
10. Wind blows towards north with a speed of
20 m/s. A plane flies in air with a velocity

relative to ground of 100 m/s, towards east.

Then, the velocity of the plane relative to air is:
100 m/s towards east and 20 m/s towards
1.
north.
100 m/s towards east and 20 m/s towards
2.
south.
100 m/s towards west and 20 m/s towards
3.
north.
100 m/s towards west and 20 m/s towards
4.
south.

11. If a projectile is launched at an angle of 15∘

with the horizontal and achieves a range of
50 m, what will be the range when it is

launched at an angle of 45∘ with the

horizontal?
1. 50 m 2. 100 m
3. 80 m 4. 120 m

Page: 2
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
∘
12. The line AB makes a 45 angle with the x- 15. The friction of the air causes vertical
axis, but it moves along the negative y-axis with retardation equal to 10% of the acceleration
a speed of 1 m/s. The velocity, of the due to gravity. The maximum height will be
intersection (C) of AB with x-axis, is: decreased by:
(Take g = 10 ms-2)
1. 8% 2. 9%

3. 10% 4. 11%

16. A person travelling in a straight line moves

with a constant velocity v1 for a certain
distance x and with a constant velocity v2 for
1. 1 m/s along the positive x-axis the next equal distance. The average velocity v
2. 1 m/s along the negative x-axis is given by the relation:
1 1 1 1 2 1 1
3. m/s along the positive x-axis 1. = + 2. = +
v v1 v2 v v1 v2
√2
v v1 + v2
1 3. = 4. v = √v 1 v 2
4. m/s along the negative -axisx 2 2
√2

17. The figure given below shows the

13. The motion of a particle is given by displacement and time, (x-t) graph of a particle
S = 1 + 4t − 2t . The distance travelled by the
2
moving along a straight line:
particle during t = 0 to t = 2 seconds will be:
1. 0 unit 2. 2 unit
3. 4 unit 4. 3 unit

14. A block of mass m is placed over a rotating

platform at a distance of R from the centre. The
platform is rotating with constant angular
velocity ω about its main axis. If the coefficient The correct statement, about the motion of the
of friction between block and the platform is μ, particle, is:
then maximum value of R so that block will not the particle moves at a constant velocity up
1.
slip over the platform will be: to a time t0 and then stops.
2
μg μg the particle is accelerated throughout its
1. 2. 2.
ω
2
ω
motion.
the particle is accelerated continuously for
μg
2 μg
3.
3. √ 4. √
2
time t0 then moves with constant velocity.
ω ω
4. the particle is at rest.

Page: 3
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

18. Two projectiles are thrown at an angle of 21. The acceleration-time graph of a particle is
projection α and β with the horizontal. If shown in the figure. What is the velocity of the
∘
α + β = 90 , then the ratio of the range of two particle at t = 8 s if the initial velocity of the
projectiles on the horizontal plane is equal to: particle is 3 m/s?
1. 1 : 1
2. 2 : 1
3. 1 : 2
4. 1 : 3

19. The displacement of a particle is

represented by the equation
s = (3t
3
+ 7t
2
+ 5t + 8) where s is in metre

and t in seconds. The acceleration of the 1. 4 m/s

particle at t = 1 second is: 2. 5 m/s

1. zero 3. 6 m/s

2. 14 m/s
2
4. 7 m/s

2
3. 18 m/s
2
22. A particle has initial velocity ^ ^
(2 i + 3 j)
4. 32 m/s

and acceleration ^ ^
(0. 3 i + 0. 2 j) . The
20. Two girls are standing on the edge of a
building, tossing coins over the edge. Alice is magnitude of velocity after 10 s will be: 1.
dropping her coins, each of which weighs 10 g. 9√2 units

Barbara is tossing her coins horizontally at 0.3 2. 5√2 units

m/s, and her coins weigh 40 g each, as shown in 3. 5 units
the figure. (Ignore air resistance.) 4. 9 units

23. A particle is moving along a straight line

such that its position depends on time as
x = 1 − at + bt , where a = 2 m/s,
2

2
b = 1 m/s . The distance covered by the
particle during the first 3 seconds from start of
the motion will be:
1. 2 m 2. 5 m
3. 7 m 4. 4 m

How does the time to fall for one of Alice's coins

compare with that for Barbara's?
1. The time for Alice's coins is lesser.
2. The times are the same.
3. The time for Alice's coins is greater.
Time of fall depends on the height of the
4.
building.

Page: 4
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

24. A thin rod AB is moving in a vertical plane. 27. A vehicle travels east for 6 km, then south
At a certain instant, when the rod is inclined at for 8 km & without stopping. If the trip takes
∘
30 to the horizontal, point A is moving 15 min, what is the magnitude of the average
horizontally with 3 m/s while point B is velocity in km/h?
moving in the vertical direction. The velocity of 1. 40 2. 20
B is:
3. 56 4. 14

28. A ball is thrown horizontally with a speed u

from the top of a tall building and it impacts the
ground at a horizontal distance which is equal
to the height of the building. The height of the
building is:
1 2 2
u u
1. m/s 2. √3 m/s 1. 2.
√3 4g 2g

2 2
√3 2u √2u
3. 3√3 m/s 4. m/s 3. 4.
g g
2

25. The position of a particle with respect to 29. Buses ply between two towns, (A, B)
time t along the x-axis is given by x = 9t2 − t3 separated by 6 km: those going from A
where x is in metres and t in seconds. What towards B go at 20 km/h while those going
will be the position of this particle when it from B to A go at 30 km/h. If a passenger
achieves maximum speed along the were to make a round trip from A to B and
+x-direction?
back, without stopping, his average speed will
1. 32 m be:
2. 54 m
3. 81 m
4. 24 m
1. 25 km/h 2. 24 km/h

26. A ball is projected from point A with 3. 27 km/h 4. 28 km/h

velocity 20 ms–1 at an angle 60∘ to the

horizontal direction. At the highest point B of
the path (as shown in figure), the velocity v (in
ms–1) of the ball will be:

1. 20 2. 10√3

3. zero 4. 10

Page: 5
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

30. The velocity-time (v-t) graph of a body 33. A particle moves with a speed v in a circle
moving along the x-axis is shown in the figure. of radius R. The x-component of the average
The average speed during the first six seconds velocity of the particle in a half-revolution as
of motion is: shown in the figure, is:

−v
1. 10 m/s 1. ( )
2. 12 m/s π
3. 15 m/s −v
4. 20 m/s 2. ( )
2π

31. A particle moves so that its position vector −v

3. ( )
→ = cos ωt x
is given by, r ^, where ω is
^ + sin ωt y 4π
a constant. Which of the following is true? −2v
The velocity and acceleration both are 4. ( )
1. π
→.
parallel to r
The velocity is perpendicular to r→ and 34. A gun is fired horizontally with its shell
2.
acceleration is directed towards to origin.
travelling at a velocity of 100 m/s, initially. It
→ and acceleration
The velocity is parallel to r impacts the ground after 10 s. Assume that
3.
is directed away from the origin. there is no air resistance and take
The velocity and acceleration both are 2
g = 10 m/s . The velocity of impact is:
4.
perpendicular to r →.
1. 0 m/s 2. 200 m/s

3. 150 m/s 4. 100√2 m/s

32. Which of the following motions of an object

always results in zero acceleration?
1. Any motion in a straight line. 35. An object moves at a constant speed along a
2. Projectile motion. circular path in a horizontal XY plane with its
3. Any motion in a circle. centre at the origin. When the object is at
None of the motions above guarantees zero x = −2 m , its velocity is −(4 m/s)^ j . What is
4. the object's acceleration when it is at y = 2 m?
acceleration.
2 2
1. −(8 ^
m/s ) j 2. −(8 ^
m/s ) i

2 2
3. −(4 ^
m/s ) j 4. −(4 ^
m/s ) i

Page: 6
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

36. Which of the following statements is true 40. ^

i and j are unit vectors along the x, and y-
^

about the motion depicted in the diagram? axis respectively. What is the magnitude and
direction of the vector (^ ^
i − j)?

1. √2, 45
∘
with the x-axis.
2. √2, − 45
∘
with the x-axis.
1
3. , 60
∘
with the x-axis.
√2

1
4. , − 60
∘
with the x-axis.
1. The acceleration is constant and non-zero. √2

The velocity changes suddenly during the

2.
motion.
3. The velocity is positive throughout. 41. Two cars A and B, each 5 m long, are
4. All of the above are true. travelling along parallel lanes with speeds of
36 km/hr and 72 km/hr. The car B is just
behind the car A, but is beginning to overtake.
37. A particle moves along a straight line What will be the distance covered by the car B
starting from rest at the origin and accelerates by the time it is just ahead of the car A?
uniformly to reach a speed v in time T . The
distance covered by it in time T is:
1
1. vT
2
2. vT
3
3. vT
2
4. 2vT 1. 10 m 2. 15 m

3. 20 m 4. 25 m

38. A particle is executing uniform circular

motion with velocity v → and acceleration a
→.
Which of the following is true? 42. An insect trapped in a circular groove of
→ is a constant; a
1. v → is not a constant. radius 10 cm moves along the groove steadily
and completes 14 revolutions in 100 s. The
→ is not a constant; a
2. v → is not a constant. 22

→ is a constant; a
3. v → is a constant. angular speed of the insect is: (Take π =
7
)

→ is not a constant; a
4. v → is a constant. 1. 0.22 rad/s
2. 0.44 rad/s
3. 0.88 rad/s
39. Two particles move uniformly along the 4. 1.76 rad/s
periphery of a circle, one completing a
revolution in 1 s while the other does it in 3 s.
If they start from the same point and move in
opposite directions, they will meet, for the first
time, in:
1. less than 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 3 s
4. more than 3 s

Page: 7
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

43. The displacement-time (x-t) graph of the 45. A particle is projected with a speed u so that
particles A and B is shown in the figure. What it has the maximum horizontal range under
is the relative velocity of B with respect to A? gravity. The speed is increased to v (without
changing the direction of its projection), so that,
after projection, it passes above its previous
point of impact but at a height which is equal to
its previous maximum height. Then,
1. 2u = v
2. 3u = 2v
3. 2u = √3v
4. 3u = √2v

Chemistry
5 7
1. m/s 2. m/s
12 9

6 7 46. After 50 g of the solute precipitated from a

3. m/s 4. m/s 400 g solution containing 20% solute, what is
9 12
the new concentration (in percentage) of the
remaining solution?
1. 7.5%
44. The displacement-time (s-t) graphs of two
∘ 2. 8.57%
moving particles A and B make angles of 30 3. 10%
∘
and 45 with the x-axis as shown in the figure. 4. 12%
vA
The ratio of their respective velocity ( ) is:
vB 47. When 7.3 g of magnesium bicarbonate
(Mg(HCO3)2) is decomposed by heating, how
much carbon dioxide gas (in mL) is released at
STP?
1. 1000 mL
2. 1120 mL
3. 2230 mL
4. 3240 mL

48. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present

1. 1 : √3 in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of
2. √3 : 1
urea solution is:
3. 1 : 1 (Avogadro constant, NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol−1 )
4. 1 : 2 1. 0.001 M
2. 0.01 M
3. 0.02 M
4. 0.1 M

Page: 8
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

49. Which statement is true for the solution of 54. A closed container has a mixture of 48 g of
0.020 M H2SO4? sodium hydroxide, 52 g of water, and 132 g of
1. 2 litre of the solution contains 0.020 moles of ammonium sulphate. The number of moles of
SO
2− oxygen atoms present in the container is:
4
1. 5
2. 2 litre of the solution contains 0.080 moles of
2. 7
H3 O + 3. 8
3. 1 litre of the solution contains 0.020 moles 4. 10
H3 O +
4. None of the above three statements is true 55. The mass of a 2.5 mL solution (the density of
the solution is 2.15 g/mL) in the correct
50. 2.5 litre mixture of CO and CO2 is passed significant figures is:
through red hot charcoal in a tube. The new 1. 5375 × 10–3 g 2. 5.4 g
volume becomes 3.5 litre. All measurements are 3. 5.38 g 4. 53.75 g
made at same temperature and pressure.
Percentage composition of original mixture by
volume will be: 56. Select the correct statements from the
1. CO = 50%, CO2 = 50% following:
2. CO = 60%, CO2 = 40% Atoms of all elements are composed of two
A:
3.CO = 40%, CO2 = 60% fundamental particles.
4.CO = 20%, CO2 = 80% The mass of the electron is
B:
kg. .
−31
9.10939 × 10

51. The total number of electrons present in 1.4 All the isotopes of a given element show
g of dinitrogen gas are: C:
same chemical properties.
23
1. 6. 023 × 10 electrons Protons and electrons are collectively
2. 8. 416 × 1022 electrons D:
known as nucleons.
3. 4. 214 × 1023 electrons Dalton's atomic theory regarded the atom as
24 E:
4. 3. 927 × 10 electrons an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the correct answer from the option
52. What is the approximate number of atoms given below:
present in 4.25 grams of NH3? 1. B, C and E only 2. A, B and C only
1. 4 x 1023 3. C, D and E only 4. A and E only
2. 2 x 1023
3. 1 x 1023
4. 6 x 1023 57. Which of the following contains the highest
number of helium atoms?
53. How many grams of HCl are required to 1. 4 u of helium
react with 5.0 g of manganese dioxide in the 2. 4 g of helium
reaction provided? 3. 2.27 L of helium at STP
4HCl (aq)
+ MnO 2( s)
→ 2H2 O(l)
+ MnCl 2(aq)
+ 4.
Cl4 mol of helium
2( g)

58. Number of atoms present in 5 g

1. 4.8 g
monoatomic gas with vapour density 8 will be:
2. 6.4 g M olar mass

3. 2.8 g (Vapour density = 2

)
4. 8.4 g 1. 0.625NA
2. 0.25NA
3. 0.3125NA
4. NA

Page: 9
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

59. When 1 L of 0.1 M sulfuric acid solution is 65. The maximum number of atoms is present
allowed to react with 1 L of 0.1 M sodium in which of the following -
hydroxide solution, the amount of sodium 1. 1 g of Mg(s) 2. 1 g of O2 (g)
sulphate (anhydrous) that can be obtained from
3. 1 g of Li(s) 4. 1 g of Ag(s)
the solution formed is:
1. 4.55 g 2. 7.10 g
3. 3.55 g 4. 9.10 g
66. In compound A, 1.00g of nitrogen unites
with 0.57g of oxygen.
In compound B, 2.00g of nitrogen combines
60. Determine the percent yield of ammonia in with 2.24g of oxygen.
the following reaction, where 0.25 mol of NH3 is In compound C, 3.00g of nitrogen combines
produced from the reaction of 0.5 mol of N2 with 5.11g of oxygen.
with 0.5 mol of H2​. These results are in accordance with which of
N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) → 2NH3 ( g) the following law?
1. 75% 1. Law of constant proportion
2. 50% 2. Law of multiple proportions
3. 33% 3. Law of reciprocal proportion
4. 25% 4. Dalton’s law of partial pressure

61. To produce 20 moles of ammonia via 67. The number of atoms in 560 g of Fe (atomic
–1
Haber's process, how many moles of hydrogen mass 56 g mol ) is:
molecules are required? 1. Twice that of 70 g N
1. 40 mol 2. 10 mol 2. Half that of 20 g H
3. 20 mol 4. 30 mol 3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above

62. How much volume of 75% alcohol by weight

(d=0.80 g/cm³) is required to prepare 150 cm³ of
68. The total number of neutrons present in 7
30% alcohol by weight (density = 0.90 g/cm³)?
mg of 14C is:
1. 67.5 mL 2. 56.25 mL 1. 24.09×1022
3. 44.44 mL 4. None of the above
2. 24.09×1020
3. 2.409×1023
19
63. The number of significant figures in 4. 2.409×10
50000.020 × 10–3 is:
69. How much oxygen gas (O2) at standard
1. 11 2. 5
temperature (0°C) and pressure (1 atm) is
3. 8 4. 4 required to completely combust 1 liter of
propane gas (C3H8) under the same conditions?
1. 7L 2. 6L
64. Temperature-dependent term(s) among the
following is/are: 3. 5L 4. 10L
1. Molarity
2. Molality
3. Mole fraction
4. All of the above

Page: 10
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

70. A compound contains 17.28 % nitrogen, and 76. The following reaction is given for
its molecular mass is 162. The number of reference:
nitrogen atoms present in one molecule of the 2KI + HgI
2
→ K2 HgI
4

alkaloid are: The number of moles of KI required to produce

1. Five 0.4 moles of K2HgI4 is:
2. Four 1. 0.4
3. Three 2. 0.8
4. Two 3. 3.2
4. 1.6
71. The number of moles of carbon and oxygen
required to produce 6.023 × 10 molecules of 77. Ratio of the number of atoms in 4g CH and
23

4
CO2 are:
3g NH3 is:
1. 0.01 mol and 0.01 mol
68 85
2. 0.5 mol and 0.1 mol 1. 2.
3. 10.0 mol and 5.0 mol 48 48

4. 1.0 mol and 1.0 mol 48 48

3. 4.
68 65
72. Calculate the mole fraction of the solute in
a 1.00 m aqueous solution.
1. 0.177 2. 0.771 78. Calculate the mass of 95% pure CaCO3 that
3. 0.0534 4. 0.0177 will be required to neutralize 50 mL of 0.5 M
HCl solution according to the following
reaction.
73. Hydrogen and oxygen combine to form CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) +
H2 O2 and H2 O containing 5.93% and 11.2% 2H2O(l)
hydrogen, respectively. This data illustrates: [Calculate up to the second place of decimal
1. Law of conversation of mass point]
2. Law of constant proportion 1. 9.50 g 2. 1.25 g
3. Law of reciprocal proportion
3. 1.32 g 4. 3.65 g
4. Law of multiple proportions

74. What is the ratio of the number of

molecules of oxygen to nitrogen in a specific 79. When 50.0 kg of nitrogen gas (N2) and 10.0
gaseous mixture if their mass ratio is 1:4? kg of hydrogen gas (H2) are combined, what is
1. 7:32 2. 1:8 the quantity of ammonia gas (NH3) produced?
3. 3:16 4. 1:4 1. 33.0 ×103 mol
2. 56.1×103 g
3. 6.5 ×103 g
75. Mass of glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) required to be 4. None of the above
dissolved to prepare one litre of its solution
which is isotone with 15 g L−1 solution of urea
(NH2 CONH2 ) is:
−1
(Given : Molar mass in g mol C:12, H:1, O: 16,
N:14)
1. 55 g
2. 15 g
3. 30 g
4. 45 g

Page: 11
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

80. Which of the following solutions have the 86. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g
same concentration? O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in
(a) 20 g of NaOH in 200 mL of solution excess and by how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O =
(b) 0.5 mol of KCl in 200 mL of solution 16)
(c) 40 g of NaOH in 100 mL of solution 1. Mg, 0.16 g 2. O2 , 0.16 g
(d) 20 g of KOH in 200 mL of solution
3. Mg, 0.44 g 4. O2 , 0.28 g
Options:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a) and (d) 87. The density of dry air containing only N2
4. (b) and (c) and O2 is 1.15 g/L at 740 mm and 300 K. What
is the percentage
81. How much glucose is needed to prepare 250 composition of N2 by weight in the air?
mL of a 1/20 M (M/20) glucose solution? 1. 78.00% 2. 75.50%
(Molar mass of glucose: 180 g/mol) 3. 70.02% 4. 72.75%
1. 2.25 g
2. 4.5 g
3. 0.44 g 88. The mole ratio of H2 and O2 gas is 8:1. The
4. 1.125 g ratio of their weight will be:
1. 1 : 1
82. The mass ratio of ethylene glycol (62 g/mol) 2. 2 : 1
required to make (500 ml, 0.25 M) and (250 ml, 3. 4 : 1
0.25 M) solutions is: 4. 1 : 2
1. 1:1 2. 1:2
3. 2:1 4. 4:1 89. Match the prefixes present in column I with
their multiples in column II and mark the
appropriate choice:
83. The molarity of 40% N aOH (by mass) is: Column I Column II
(d = 1.2 g/ml) (Prefixes) (Multiples)
1. 10 M (A) pico (i) 109
2. 12 M
3. 5 M (B) femto (ii) 10−3
4. 6 M (C) milli (iii) 10−12
(D) giga (iv) 10−15
84. The percent composition by mass of each
element in sodium azide, NaN3 is: 1. (A) →(i), (B)→(ii), (C) →(iii), (D)→ (iv)
1. Sodium 25%; nitrogen 75% 2. (A) →(ii), (B)→(i), (C) →(iv), (D)→ (iii)
2. Sodium 35%; nitrogen 65% 3. (A) →(iv), (B)→(iii), (C) →(i), (D)→ (ii)
3. Sodium 55%; nitrogen 45% 4. (A) →(iii), (B)→(iv), (C) →(ii), (D)→ (i)
4. Sodium 65%; nitrogen 35%
90. 6.023 × 1022 molecules are present in 10 g of
85. The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of substance ‘x’. The molarity of a solution
sodium ferrocyanide are: containing 5 g of substance ‘x’ in 2L solution is:
1. 12×1023 2. 26×1023 1. 0.00025 2. 2.5
3. 34×10 23 4. 48×10 23
3. 0.025 4. 25

Page: 12
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology 94. Centrosome:

1.
is a non- membrane bound organelle found
91. Match each item in Column I with one in in all cells which helps in cell division
Column II and select the correct match from the is a non- membrane bound organelle found
codes given: 2.
in plant cells which helps in cell division
Column I Column II is a non- membrane bound organelle found
[Phylum] [Characteristic] 3. in animal cells which helps in DNA
Water vascular replication
A. Porifera P.
system is a non- membrane bound organelle found
4.
B. Aschelminthes Q. Canal system in animal cells which helps in cell division
C. Echinodermata R. Pseudocoelom
D. Hemichordata S. Stomochord
Codes: 95. Match the feature [Column I] with phylum
A B C D [Column II] and select the correct answer from
the codes given:
1. Q R P S
Column I Column II
2. S R Q P
Water transport canal
3. Q S R P A. a. Echinodermata
system
4. R S P Q B. Water vascular system b. Porifera
C. Metagenesis c. Annelida
92. Which of the following is not a D. Metamerism d. Cnidaria
characteristic of Amphibians?
Codes:
Most have two pairs of limbs and tail is
1.
present in some. A B C D
Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive 1. a b c d
2. tracts open into a common chamber called
2. b a d c
cloaca which opens to the exterior.
3. a b d c
Respiration is by gills, lungs and through
3. 4. b a c d
skin.
The heart is two chambered with one atrium
4.
and one ventricle.
96. Identify the incorrect statement:
Centrosome is an organelle usually
93. If Arthropoda is the largest phylum of 1. containing two cylindrical structures called
Animalia, which of the following is the second centrioles.
largest phylum of Animalia? Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie
1. Chordata 2. parallel to each other in which each
2. Echinodermata has an organisation like the cartwheel.
3. Mollusca Centrioles are made up of nine evenly
4. Platyhelminthes spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein
3.
where each of the peripheral fibril is a
triplet.
The central part of the proximal region of
4. the centriole is also proteinaceous and called
the hub.

Page: 13
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

97. Cells in the human body that secrete 102. Cilia and flagella in eukaryotic cells:
products like lipids and steroids are likely to I: are the outgrowths of the cell membrane.
have an abundance of: II: have a 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules in
1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum their axoneme.
2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum 1. Only I is correct
3. Lysosomes 2. Only II is correct
4. Mitochondria 3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
98. Ornithorhynchus is a/an:
1. egg-laying mammal 103. Lysosomes:
2. vertebrate osmoconformer are membrane bound vesicular
3. limbless amphibian Statement I: structures formed in the rough
4. pouched mammal endoplasmic reticulum.
are very rich in almost all types
99. Read the following statements and choose Statement II: of hydrolytic enzymes optimally
the correct option: active at the basic pH.
Polar molecules cannot pass
Statement
through lipid bilayer of plasma Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
I: 1.
membrane by self. incorrect
Polar molecules require carrier Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
Statement
proteins to facilitate their 2. correct
II:
transport across the membrane.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
1. Both Statements I and II are correct Statement I is correct; Statement II is
4.
2. Both Statements I and II are incorrect correct
3. Only Statement I is correct
4. Only Statement II is correct
104. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Taenia I. Nephridia
100. What would not be true regarding
B. Paramoecium II. Contractile vacuole
cartilaginous fishes?
1. In males, pelvic fins bear claspers C. Periplaneta III. Flame cells
2. Some of them have electric organs [Torpedo] D. Pheretima IV. Urecose gland
Choose the correct answer from the options
3. None of them is viviparous
given below:
4. Some possess poison sting [Trygon]
Options: A B C D
1. II I IV III
101. Chromatophores take part in? 2. I II III IV
1. Photosynthesis 3. I II IV III
2. Growth 4. III II IV I
3. Movement
4. Respiration

Page: 14
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

105. The character that gives the Phylum 110. Consider the given two statements:
Chordata its name is shown by: Frogs have a three-chambered
Assertion (A):
heart.
All vertebrates have a three
Reason (R):
chambered heart.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
1. A 2. B 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. C 4. D 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

106. Out of the four basic shapes: 111. A single human somatic cell has
Spherical bacteria are called as Coccus and approximately:
1.
Rod shaped bacteria are called as Bacillus two metre long thread of DNA distributed
Spherical bacteria are called as Bacillus and 1.
2. among its forty six chromosomes.
Rod shaped bacteria are called as Coccus two metre long thread of DNA distributed
Spherical bacteria are called as Spirillum 2.
among its twenty three chromosomes.
3. and Rod shaped bacteria are called as one metre long thread of DNA distributed
Vibrios 3.
among its forty six chromosomes.
Comma shaped bacteria are called as Vibrios one metre long thread of DNA distributed
4. and Spherical bacteria are called as 4.
among its twenty three chromosomes.
Spirillum

112. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts

107. Often described as infoldings of bacterial are the characteristics of
cell membrane, which of the following 1. Hydra and starfish
structures help in cell wall formation and DNA 2. Starfish and sea anemone
replication? 3. Ctenoplana and Beroe
1. Inclusion bodies 4. Aurelia and Paramoecium
2. Chromatophores
3. Fimbriae 113. Which of the following features is
4. Mesosomes primarily associated with the phylum
Echinodermata and not found in other animal
108. Animal cells contain a non-membrane phyla?
bound organelle which helps in cell division.
1. Radial symmetry in adults
This organelle is called:
2. Water vascular system for locomotion
1. Golgi apparatus 2. Mesosome
3. Presence of a closed circulatory system
3. Centrosome 4. Centromere
Development directly into adult form
4.
without a larval stage
109. Which structural feature is characteristic
of chloroplasts?
1. Presence of a double membrane system.
2. Absence of thylakoid stacks.
3. Presence of a single circular DNA molecule.
4. Lack of pigment molecules.

Page: 15
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

114. Which among these is the correct 117. Which statements are correct regarding
combination of aquatic mammals? centriole?
1. Dolphin, Seals, Trygon Centrioles are typically made up of nine
2. Whales, Dolphin, Seals I: sets of short microtubule triplets, arranged
3. Trygon, Whales, Seals in a cylinder.
4. Seals, Dolphin, Sharks The main function of centrioles is to
II: produce cilia during interphase and the
115. What will be common to all animals given aster and the spindle during cell division.
in the box?
Centrioles start duplicating when DNA
Ornithirhynchus, Struthio, Neophron, III:
replicates.
Pteropus, Macropus, Aptenodytes

1. Oviparity 1. Only I and II 2. Only I and III

2. Indirect development 3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III
3. Homeothermy
4. Skin with large number of glands
118. Which of the following statements about
animals belonging to the phylum Chordata is
true?
116. Consider the given two statements: All chordates possess a notochord at some
The content of nucleolus is 1.
stage of their life cycle.
continuous with the rest of the Chordates exclusively exhibit asexual
Statement I: 2.
nucleoplasm as it is not a reproduction.
membrane bound structure.
3. Chordates lack a dorsal hollow nerve cord.
The outer nuclear membrane
4. Chordates are exclusively aquatic organisms.
usually remains continuous with
Statement II:
the endoplasmic reticulum but
does not bear ribosomes on it.
119. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
acorn worm, a hemichordate:
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
The body is divided into an anterior
correct
1. proboscis, an intermediate collar, and a
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
posterior trunk.
incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is The proboscis is a muscular and ciliated
correct 2. organ used in locomotion and in the
4. Statement I is correct; Statement II is collection and transport of food particles.
incorrect The mouth is located between the collar and
3.
the trunk.
The trunk contains the pharynx, which is
perforated with gill slits (or pharyngeal slits),
4.
the oesophagus, a long intestine, and a
terminal anus.

Page: 16
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

120. Which number represents the site for 124. Consider the two statements:
Kreb’s cycle in the given figure? Procaryotic cells are usually
Statement I:
smaller than eucaryotic cells.
Procaryotic cells usually divide
Statement II:
faster than eucaryotic cells.
1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
1. 1 2. 2 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. 3 4. 4 incorrect.

125. Consider the given two statements:

121. Tonoplast is: The Golgi apparatus remains in
1. the internal membrane in chloroplast Assertion
close association with the
2. membrane of vacuole (A):
endoplasmic reticulum.
3. membrane of lysosomes The cis and the trans faces of the
4. membrane of glyoxysomes Reason
organelle are entirely different, but
(R):
interconnected.
122. In some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria,
there are membranous extensions into the
Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does
cytoplasm which contain pigments. These are 1.
not explain (A).
called as
1. Carboxysomes 2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Magnetosomes Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
3.
3. Chromatophores explains (A).
4. Mesosomes 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

123. Which one of the following organelles in

the figure correctly matches with its function? 126. All the following features will be
applicable to the animals belonging to Class
Reptilia except:
They are mostly terrestrial animals and their
1. body is covered by dry and cornified skin,
epidermal scales or scutes.
They do not have external ear openings and
2.
tympanum represents ear.
Heart is usually four-chambered, but three-
3.
chambered in crocodiles.
Fertilisation is internal and development is
4.
direct.
1. Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
2. Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
3. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein
127. When the centromere is located close to
synthesis
the end of a chromosome, the chromosome is
4. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of
known as:
glycoproteins
1. Sub-metacentric 2. Acrocentric
3. Metacentric 4. Telocentric

Page: 17
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

128. Consider the given two statements: 132. The body wall shown in the given figure
All chordates are not will be seen in the members of:
Assertion(A):
vertebrates.
All chordates do not have a
Reason (R): notochord at any stage of their
development.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly

1.
explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False 1. Platyhelminthes
4. Both (A) and (R) are False 2. Coelenterates
3. Aschelminthes
4. Annelids
129. Cellular organelles with membranes are:
1. Nucleus, ribosome and mitochondria 133. Identify the option where all the animals
2. Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic given in Column I share the characters given in
reticulum Column II:
3. Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosome and nuclei Column I Column II
4. Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and Ancylostoma, Pseudocoelom,
mitochondria 1.
Taenia Bilateral symmetry
2. Delphinus, Camelus Mammary glands, Hair
130. A basal body is a part of bacterial:
1. Inclusion bodies 2. Chromosomal DNA Closed circulation,
3. Octopus, Dentalium
segmented body
3. Flagellum 4. Plasmid
Metagenesis,
4. Obelia, Hydra
Diploblastic
131. Consider the given two statements:
Arthropods have a chitinous
Assertion(A): 134. Mammals are not characterized by:
exoskeleton.
1. Presence of hair
Chitin is a protein that provides 2. Presence of mammary glands
Reason(R): flexibility and strength to the 3. Homodont dentition
exoskeleton. 4. Endothermy

Both (A) and (R) are True, and (R) correctly

1.
explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) does not
2.
correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True, but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Page: 18
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

135. Consider the given two statements: 138. Select the mismatch:
Macrophages and leucocytes in Column I Column II
Statement
blood exhibit amoeboid movement 1. Gas vacuoles Green bacteria Cells
I:
in human body. 2. Large central vacuoles Animal cells
Cytoskeletal elements like 3. Protists Eukaryotes
Statement microfilaments are also involved
4. Methanogens Prokaryotes
II: in amoeboid movement apart from
pseudopodia.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
139. Animals can be categorised on the basis of
correct
their symmetry. Which of the following
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
statements are correct?
incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is I: Sponges are mostly asymmetrical.
correct Coelenterates, ctenophores and adult
II:
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is echinoderms have radial symmetry.
incorrect Annelids and arthropods exhibit bilateral
III:
symmetry.
136. Consider the given two statements:
All prokaryotes have a cell wall 1. Only I and II
Statement I: surrounding the cell membrane 2. Only I and III
except in mycoplasma. 3. Only II and III
No organelles, like the ones in 4. I, II and III
eukaryotes, are found in
Statement II: 140. Match the following phyla with their
prokaryotic cells except for
ribosomes. characteristic features:
Characteristic
Phylum
Statement I is correct; Statement II is Feature
1. (List I)
correct (List II)
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is A. Chordata 1. Spicules for support
2. Notochord present
correct B. Porifera 2.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is at some stage
3. C. Echinodermata 3. Segmented body
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is Radial symmetry
4. D. Annelida 4. and water vascular
incorrect
system

137. Identify the incorrect statements regarding 1. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
mammals: 2. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
I: External ears are absent 3. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
II: All teeth are of the same type 4. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
III: They are homoiothermous
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

Page: 19
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

141. Which statement correctly differentiates 144. In an animal cell, hydrolases active at
between Urochordates and Cephalochordates? acidic pH are richly found in:
Urochordates retain their notochord 1. Lysosomes 2. Centrosome
throughout their life, whereas 3. Peroxisomes 4. Glyoxysomes
1.
Cephalochordates lose their notochord
during the larval stage.
Cephalochordates, such as lancelets, retain a 145. Consider the two statements:
notochord extending the full length of their Plant cells possess cell walls,
2. body into adulthood, whereas Urochordates, plastids and a large central
like tunicates, only possess a notochord Statement I: vacuole which are absent in
during their larval stage. animal cells.
Both Urochordates and Cephalochordates Animal cells have centrioles
3. exhibit a complex nervous system Statement II: which are absent in almost all
comparable to that of higher vertebrates. plant cells.
Urochordates are primarily terrestrial,
4. whereas Cephalochordates are exclusively Statement I is correct; Statement II is
aquatic. 1.
incorrect
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
correct
142. Which of the following are not considered
Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is
as part of endomembrane system? 3.
correct
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
C. Chloroplasts incorrect
D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 146. Which of the following group of animals
options given below: have three chambered heart?
1. A, D and E only 2. B and D only 1. Bufo, Alligator, Struthio
2. Chameleon, Hyla, Calotes
3. A, C and E only 4. A and D only
3. Crocodilus, pavo, Clarias
4. Exocoetus, Hemidactylus, Rana
143. What would be true [T] or false [F] 147. The characteristics of class Reptilia are:
regarding amphibians?
I: Skin is moist and without scales. Body covered with moist skin which is
II: Eyes have eyelids. devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a
III: A tympanum represents the ear. 1. tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and
Respiration is by gills, lungs and through reproductive tracts open into a common
IV: cloaca
skin.
Freshwater animals with a bony
I II III IV 2. endoskeleton and air bladder to regulate
1. T T F F buoyancy
2. F F F T Marine animals with cartilaginous
3. endoskeletons, bodies covered with placoid
3. T F T T
scales
4. T T T T
Body covered with dry and cornified skin,
4. scales over the body are epidermal, they do
not have external ears

Page: 20
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

148. Sodium ions will be transported to the 152. Consider the given two statements:
outside of the cell and potassium ions to the Coelenterates, ctenophores and
inside of the cell by: Statement echinoderms have bilateral
1. simple diffusion 2. facilitated diffusion I: symmetry as larvae and radial
3. osmosis 4. active transport symmetry as adults.
Animals like annelids and
Statement
arthropods exhibit bilateral
II:
149. Which number represents the site of symmetry.
ribosome biogenesis in the given figure?
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
incorrect
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
correct
1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
153. What is incorrect regarding cyclostomes?
1. They are ectoparasites on some fishes
150. When the body is found divided into 2. They have a circular mouth without jaws
compartments with serial repetition of at least 3. Circulation is of open type
some organs, the type of segmentation found in They are marine but migrate to fresh water
certain animals is called as: 4.
for spawning
1. Metaboly 2. Metamerism
3. Metagenesis 4. Metamorphosis
154. Golgi apparatus:
is an important site of formation of
151. The cell shown in the figure is used in: I:
glycoproteins and glycolipids.
is not a part of the endomembrane system
II:
of a eukaryotic cell.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

1. capturing prey in Cnidarians

2. generating water current in sponges
3. osmoregulation in rotifers
4. movement in ctenophores

Page: 21
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

155. Match the following 159. Which of the following structures

List-I List-II performs the function of mitochondria in a
(a) Physalia i. Pearl oyster bacteria?
(b) Limulus ii. Portuguese Man of War 1. Nucleoid 2. Ribosomes
(c) Ancylostoma iii. Living fossil 3. Cell wall 4. Mesosomes
(d) Pinctada iv. Hookworm

Choose the correct answer from the options 160. The Golgi apparatus:
given below: principally performs the function of
packaging materials, to be delivered either
I:
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d) to the intra-cellular targets or secreted
1. ii iii iv i outside the cell.
2. i iv iii ii remains in close association with the
II:
endoplasmic reticulum.
3. ii iii i iv
is the important site of digestion and
4. iv i iii ii
III: degradation of glycoproteins and
glycolipids.
1. Only I and II are correct
156. In the case of Poriferans, the spongocoel is
2. Only I and III are correct
lined with flagellated cells called:
3. Only II and III are correct
1. Oscula
4. I, II and III are correct
2. Choanocytes
3. Mesenchymal cells
161. Select the correct match from the given
4. Ostia
options:
157. Tunicates are included in which sub- Animal Level of Organisation
phylum of Chordata? 1. Taenia - Tissue level
1. Urochordata 2. Cephalochordata 2. Pheretima - Organ system level
3. Cyclostomata 4. Hemichordata 3. Sycon - Acellular level
4. Obelia - Organ level

158. How many of the given statements

regarding members of Porifera are correct? 162. Like mitochondria, the chloroplasts:
I: They are exclusively marine. 1. are found only in plant cells
II: They have cellular level of organisation. 2. do not have 70 S ribosomes
They have a water vascular system with 3. are also double membrane bound
III: 4. are unable to carry out phosphorylation of
tube feet.
ADP
IV: Digestion is intracellular.
Fertilisation is external and development is 163. Unicellular organisms are capable of:
V:
direct. I: independent existence
II: performing the essential functions of life
1. 2
2. 3
1. Only I is correct
3. 4
2. Only II is correct
4. 5
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Page: 22
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

164. Which one of the following structures 167. According to the widely accepted "fluid
between two adjacent cells is an effective mosaic model", cell membranes are semi-fluid,
transport pathway? where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse
1. Plasmodesmata randomly. In recent years, this model has been
2. Plastoquinones modified in several respects. In this regard,
3. Endoplasmic reticulum which of the following statements is incorrect:
4. Plasmalemma Proteins can also undergo flip-flop
1.
movements in the lipid bilayer
165. Identify the correct statement regarding Many proteins remain completely embedded
the given figure? 2.
within the lipid bilayer
Proteins in cell membranes can travel within
3.
the lipid bilayer
Proteins can remain confined within certain
4.
domains of the membrane

168. Consider the given two statements:

Eukaryotic cells exhibit extensive
Statement compartmentalization of cytoplasm
I: due to the presence of membrane-
bound organelles.
This compartmentalization is
‘A’ links a pair of sister chromatids together Statement crucial for the regulation of
I:
during cell division. II: various metabolic activities within
‘B’ is a disc-shaped protein structure the cell.
associated with duplicated chromatids in
II: eukaryotic cells where the spindle fibers Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
attach during cell division to pull sister correct.
chromatids apart. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
1. Only I incorrect.
2. Only II Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3. Both I and II 3.
correct.
4. Neither I nor II Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect.
166. The sessile body form found in some
cnidarians is called:
1. Medusa
2. Polyp
3. Planula
4. Trochophore

Page: 23
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

169. How many of the given statements 173. Identify the correct statement regarding
regarding mammals are correct? classification of chordates:
The skin of mammals is unique in Vertebrata is a subphylum; Agnatha is a
I: 1.
possessing hair. division and Pisces is a super-class
II: They are homoiothermous. Vertebrata is a supraphylum; Agnatha is a
2.
Different types of teeth are present in the phylum and Pisces is a super-class
III:
jaw. Vertebrata is a subphylum; Agnatha is a
3.
IV: External ears or pinnae are absent. division and Pisces is a class
The most unique mammalian characteristic 4. Vertebrata is a subphylum; Agnatha is a
V: super-class and Pisces is a class
is the presence of mammary glands.
VI: Flight has never evolved in any mammal.

174. Which of the following feature of reptiles

1. 3 2. 4
sets them apart from amphibians?
3. 5 4. 6 1. Three-chambered heart
2. Epidermal Scales or scutes
3. Gills
170. Consider the given two statements: 4. Metamorphosis
The cell membrane is
Assertion (A): selectively permeable to ions 175. A chromosome where the centromere is
and organic molecules. situated close to the end forming one extremely
The permeability of the cell short and one very long arm is called as
Reason (R): membrane is due to its 1. Metacentric 2. Submetacentric
phospholipid bilayer structure. 3. Acrocentric 4. Telocentric.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A). 176. Which of the following will not be seen in
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the any Cnidarian?
2.
correct explanation of (A) 1. Metagenesis
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. Cnodicytes
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 3. Bilateral symmetry in larva
4. Tentacles

177. Which of the following statements are

171. Both the cilium and the flagellum emerge
correct in the context of Golgi apparatus?
from centriole-like structure called the:
1. basal body It is the important site for the formation of
A:
2. kinetoplastid glycoprotein and glycolipids
3. phragmoplast It produces cellular energy in the form of
B:
4. kinocilium ATP
It modifies the protein synthesized by
C:
172. Which of the following is not a feature of ribosomes on ER
animals belonging to Phylum Annelida? D: It facilitates the transport of ions
1. Metameric segmentation E: It provides mechanical support
2. An open circulatory system
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
3. Nephridia for osmoregulation and excretion
options given below:
4. Bilateral symmetry
1. (B) and (C) only 2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A) and (D) only 4. (D) and (E) only

Page: 24
 Custom Practice Test - 06-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

178. Consider the two statements:

Chondrichthyes lack the capacity Fill OMR Sheet*
Statement I: to regulate their body
temperature. *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
Osteichthyes have the capacity to from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
Statement II:
regulate their body temperature. there
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect CLICK HERE to get
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
incorrect FREE ACCESS for 2
179. Cyclostomes: days of ANY
I:
are marine but migrate for spawning to
fresh water.
NEETprep course
II: die within a few days of spawning.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

180. All bacterial cells are:

1. motile.
2. enclosed by peptidoglycan cell wall.
3. prokaryotic.
4. capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

Page: 25