Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of ________ The theory of changing heat into mechanical work

A. entropy A. Thermodynamics
B. internal energy B. Kinematics
C. temperature C. Inertia
D. pressure D. Kinetics

Which of the following is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle? Average pressure on a surface when a changing pressure condition
exist
A. Brayton
B. Otto A. Back pressure
C. Carnot B. Partial pressure
D. Diesel C. Pressure drop
D. Mean effective pressure
What is the first law of thermodynamics?
Which of the following cycles consists two isothermal and two
A. internal energy is due to molecular motions constant volume processes?
B. entropy of the universe is increased by irreversible processes
C. energy can neither be created nor destroyed A. Diesel cycle
D. heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work B. Ericsson cycle
C. Stirling cycle
An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. What is the enthalpy D. Otto cycle
change?
A control volume refers to what?
A. always negative
B. always positive A. A fixed region in space
C. zero B. A reversible process
D. undefined C. An isolated system
D. A specified mass
Name the process that has no heat transfer
In the polytropic process, PV^n = constant, if the value of n is infinitely
A. Isothermal large, the process is
B. Isobaric
C. Polytropic A. isobaric
D. Adiabatic B. isometric
C. isothermal
An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so well insulated that there is D. polytropic
essentially no heat transfer. The temperature of the gas
If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased
A. decreases beyond the saturation pressure, then the working medium must be
B. increases
C. remain constant A. compressed liquid
D. is zero B. subcooled liquid
C. saturated vapor
What is the SI unit of pressure? D. saturated liquid

A. kg / cm^2 Is one whose temperature is below the saturation temperature

B. dynes / cm^2 corresponding to its pressure
C. Pascal
D. Psi A. Superheated vapor
B. Wet vapor
The equation Cp = Cv + R applies to which of the following? C. Subcooled liquid
D. Saturated liquid
A. enthalpy
B. ideal gas Number of molecules in a mole of any substance is a constant called
C. two phase states _______
D. all pure substances
A. Rankine constant
In the flow process, neglecting kinetic and potential energies, the B. Avogadro’s number
integral of Vdp represents what? C. Otto constant
D. Thompson constant
A. heat transfer
B. flow energy If the pressure of a gas is constant the volume is directly proportional
C. enthalpy change to the absolute temperature
D. shaft work
A. Boyle’s law
Mechanical energy of pressure transformed into energy of heat B. Joule’s law
C. Charles’ law
A. Kinetic energy D. Kelvin’s law
B. Enthalpy
C. Heat exchanger
D. Heat of compression
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom or the number of Which of the following provides the basis for measuring
electrons in the orbit of an atom thermodynamic property of temperature?

A. Atomic volume A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. Atomic number B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Atomic weight C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Atomic mass D. Third law of thermodynamics

In a P-T diagram of a pure substance, the curve separating the solid Which of the following is commonly used as liquid absorbent?
phase from the liquid phase is:
A. Silica gel
A. vaporization curve B. Activated alumina
B. fusion curve C. Ethylene glycol
C. boiling point D. None of these
D. sublimation point
Mechanism designed to lower the temperature of air passing through
A water temperature of 18 °F in the water cooled condenser is it.
equivalent to °C to _________
A. Air cooler
A. 7.78 B. Air defense
B. 10 C. Air spill over
C. 263.56 D. Air cycle
D. -9.44
A device for measuring the velocity of wind
The latent heat of vaporization in Joules per kg is equal to ________
A. Aneroid barometer
A. 5.4 x 10^2 B. Anemometer
B. 4.13 x 10^3 C. Anemoscope
C. 22.6 x 10^5 D. Anemograph
D. 3.35 x 10^5
Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low
Form of energy associated with the kinetic energy of the random temperature body wherein it is impossible to convert heat without
motion of large number of molecules other effects

A. Internal energy A. first law of thermodynamics

B. Kinetic energy B. second law of thermodynamics
C. Heat of fusion C. third law of thermodynamics
D. Heat D. zeroth law of thermodynamics

If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased The temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the pressure
beyond the saturation pressure, then, the working medium must be: exerted on the liquid

A. saturated vapor A. Absolute humidity

B. compressed liquid B. Calorimetry
C. saturated liquid C. Boiling point
D. subcooled liquid D. Thermal point

Is the condition of pressure and temperature at which a liquid and its A nozzle is used to
vapor are indistinguishable.
A. increase velocity and decrease pressure
A. Critical point B. decrease velocity as well as pressure
B. Dew point C. increase velocity as well as pressure
C. Absolute humidity D. decrease velocity and increase pressure
D. Relative humidity
The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system where
When a substance in gaseous state is below the critical temperature, energies appear in several complex form
it is called ________
A. kinetic energy
A. vapor B. potential energy
B. cloud C. internal energy
C. moisture D. frictional energy
D. steam
The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing
Superheated vapor behaves across any section in a pipeline is a function of

A. just as gas A. Pressure and velocity

B. just as steam B. Pressure, density and velocity
C. just as ordinary vapor C. Pressure, density, velocity and viscosity
D. approximately as a gas D. Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and
internal energy
The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of some standard What is the process that has no heat transfer?
substance
A. Reversible isometric
A. Relative density B. Isothermal
B. Specific gravity C. Polytropic
C. Specific density D. Adiabatic
D. Relative gravity
Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers?
Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure
corresponding to its temperature A. Turbojet
B. Pulsejet
A. Compressed liquid C. Rockets
B. Saturated liquid D. Ramjet
C. Saturated vapor
D. Super heated vapor Exhaust gases from an engine possess:

The changing of solid directly to vapor without passing through the A. solar energy
liquid state is called B. kinetic energy
C. chemical energy
A. Evaporation D. stored energy
B. Vaporization
C. Sublimation At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is
D. Condensation
A. temperature dependent
Weight per unit volume is termed as B. zero
C. minimum
A. Specific gravity D. maximum
B. Density
C. Weight density What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about
D. Specific volume which it is rotating?

What is the S1 unit of force? A. Centrifugal force

B. Centrifugal in motion
A. Pound C. Centrifugal advance
B. Newton D. Centripetal force
C. Kilogram
D. Dyne When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every
instant of its state, it is undergoing
The volume of fluid passing a cross-section of steam in unit time
A. isobaric process
A. Steady flow B. quasi-static process
B. Uniform flow C. isometric process
C. Discharge D. cyclic process
D. Continuous flow
A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to
What equation applies in the first law of thermodynamics for an ideal
gas in a reversible open steady-state system? A. 1000 dynes/cm^2
B. 1000 cm of Hg
A. Q – W = U2 – U1 C. 1000 psi
B. Q + VdP = H2 – H1 D. 1000 kg/cm^2
C. Q – VdP = U2 – U1
D. Q – PdV = H2 – H1 Work done per unit charge when charged is moved from one point to
another
A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to
A. Equipotentiial surface
A. 1000 dynes/cm^2 B. Potential at a point
B. 1000 cm of Hg C. Electrostatic point
C. 1000 psi D. Potential difference
D. 1000 kg/cm^2
How many independent properties are required to completely fix the
When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?
instant of its state, it is undergoing:
A. 1
A. isobaric process B. 2
B. quasi-static process C. 3
C. isometric process D. 4
D. cyclic process
Which of the following relations defines enthalpy?
What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about
which it is rotating? A. h = u + p/T
B. h = u + pV
A. Centrifugal force C. h = u + p/V
B. Centrifugal in motion D. h = pV + T
C. Centrifugal advance
D. Centripetal force
Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature For an irreversible process, what is true about the change in entropy
where enthalpy is zero? of the system and surroundings?

A. Internal energy is negative A. ds = dq/dt

B. Entropy is non – zero B. ds = 0
C. Specific volume is zero C. ds > 0
D. Vapor pressure is zero D. ds < 0

On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted? For which type of process does the equation dQ = Tds hold?

A. p-V A. Irreversible
B. p-T B. Reversible
C. h-s C. Isobaric
D. h-u D. Isothermal

The compressibility factor z, is used for predicting the behavior of non Which of the following is true for any process?
– ideal gases. How is the compressibility factor defined to an ideal
gas? (subscript c refers to critical value) A. ΔS (Surrounding) + Δ (system) > 0
B. ΔS (Surrounding) + Δ (system) < 0
A. z = P/Pc C. ΔS (Surrounding) + Δ (system) ≤ 0
B. z = PV/RT D. ΔS (Surrounding) + Δ (system) ≥ 0
C. z = T/Tc
D. z = (T/Tc)(Pc/P) Which of the following thermodynamic cycle is the most efficient?

How is the quality x of a liquid – vapor mixture defined? A. Brayton

B. Rankine
A. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor C. Carnot
B. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid D. Otto
C. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor
D. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic processes. What
type of processes are they?
What is the expression for heat of vaporization?
A. All isothermal
A. hg B. All adiabatic
B. hf C. All isentropic
C. hg – hf D. Two isothermal and two isentropic
D. hf – hg
What is the temperature difference of the cycle if the entropy
What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric difference is ΔS, and the work done is W?
system?
A. W – ΔS
A. Zero B. W / ΔS
B. Positive C. ΔS / W
C. Negative D. ΔS – W
D. Indeterminate
Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated, closed
What is the equation for the work done by a constant temperature Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?
system?
A. Lower equipment cost
A. W = mRT ln (V2 – V1) B. Increased efficiency
B. W = mR (T2 – T1) ln (V2/V1) C. Increased turbine life
C. W = MRT ln (V2/V1) D. Increased boiler life
D. W = RT ln (V2/V1)
Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycle is not
What is true about the polytropic exponent n for a perfect gas true?
undergoing an isobaric process?
A. Use of a condensable vapor in the cycle increases the
A. n>0 efficiency of the cycle
B. n<0 B. The temperature at which the energy is transferred to and
C. n=∞ from the working liquid are less separated than in a Carnot
D. n=0 cycle
C. Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cyle
How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process? D. In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials
to corrosion is not a key limitation on the operating
A. Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0, Isentropic: Heat transfer = 0 efficiency
B. Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0, Isentropic: Heat transfer = 0
C. Adiabatic: Reversible, Isentropic: Not reversible Which one of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)
D. Both: Heat transfer = 0; Isentropic: Reversible
A. 0 K and 1 atm pressure
During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about B. 0 F and zero pressure
the change in entropy? C. 32 F and zero pressure
D. 0 °C and 1 atm pressure
A. It is always zero
B. It is always less than zero
C. It is always greater than zero
D. It is temperature-dependent
A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs? Energy changes are represented by all except which one of the
following:
A. It turns red
B. It loses electrons A. m Cp dt
C. It gives off heat B. - ∫ VdP
D. It absorbs energy C. Tds – PdV
D. dQ / T
Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?
U + pV is a quantity called:
A. Pa
B. kg / m-s A. shaft work
C. bars B. entropy
D. kg / m^2 C. enthalpy
D. internal energy
Which of the following is the definition of Joule?
In flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes, ∫vdP represents which
A. Newton meter item below?
B. kg m / s^2
C. unit of power A. Heat transfer
D. rate of change of energy B. Shaft work
C. Enthalpy change
Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow? D. Closed system work

A. The principle of conservation of mass Power may be expressed in units of

B. The principle of conservation of energy
C. The continuity equation A. ft – lb
D. Fourier’s law B. Kw – hr
C. Btu
Equation of state for a single component can be any of the following D. Btu / hr
except:
Equilibrium condition exist in all except which of the following?
A. the ideal gas law
B. any relationship interrelating 3 or more state functions A. In reversible processes
C. relationship mathematically interrelating thermodynamic B. In processes where driving forces are infitesimals
properties of the material C. In a steady state flow process
D. A mathematical expression defining a path between states D. Where nothing can occur without an effect on the system’s
surrounding
The state of a thermodynamic system is always defined by its:
In a closed system (with a moving boundary) which of the following
A. absolute temperature represents work done during an isothermal process?
B. process
C. properties A. W=0
D. temperature and pressure B. W = P (V2 – V1)
C. W = P1 V1 ln(V2/V1)
In any non quasi-static thermodynamic process, the overall entropy D. W = [ P2V2 – P1V1 ] / 1 - n
of an isolated system will
A substance that exists, or is regarded as existing, as a continuoum
A. increase and then decrease characterized by a low resistance to flow and the tendency to
B. decrease and then increase assume the shape of its container
C. increase only
D. decrease only A. Fluid
B. Atom
Entropy is the measure of C. Molecule
D. Vapor
A. the internal energy of a gas
B. the heat capacity of a substance A substance that is homogeneous in composition and homogeneous
C. randomness or disorder and invariable in chemical aggregation
D. the change of enthalpy of a system
A. Pure substance
Which of the following statements about entropy is false? B. Simple substance
C. Vapor
A. Entropy of a mixture is greater than that of its components D. Water
under the same condition
B. An irreversible process increases entropy of the universe A substance whose state is defined by variable intensive
C. Net entropy change in any closed cycle is zero thermodynamic properties
D. Entropy of a crystal at 0 °F is zero
A. Pure substance
Work or energy can be a function of all of the following except: B. Simple substance
C. Vapor
A. force and distance D. Water
B. power and time
C. force and time
D. temperature and entropy
A system in which there is no exchange of matter with the surrounding The force of gravity on unit volume is
or mass does not cross its boundaries
A. density
A. Open system B. specific volume
B. Closed system C. specific weight
C. Isolated system D. specific gravity
D. Nonflow system
The reciprocal of density is
A system in which there is a flow of mass across its boundaries
A. specific volume
A. Open system B. specific weight
B. Closed system C. specific gravity
C. Isolated system D. heat
D. Steady flow system
Avogadro’s number, a fundamental constant of nature, is the number
A system in which there is a flow of mass across its boundaries of molecules in a gram-mole. This constant is

A. Open system A. 6.05222 x 10^23

B. Closed system B. 6.02252 x 10^23
C. Isolated system C. 6.20522 x 10^23
D. Steady flow system D. 6.50222 x 10^23

The properties that are dependent upon the mass of the system and The ratio of the gas constant to Avogadro’s number is:
are total values such as total volume and total internal energy
A. Maxwell’s constant
A. Intensive properties B. Boltzmann’z constant
B. Extensive properties C. Napier’s constant
C. Specific properties D. Joule’s constant
D. State properties
The absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale is at
The properties that are independent of the mass of the system such as
temperature, pressure, density and voltage A. -459.7 °F
B. 459.7 °F
A. Intensive properties C. -273.15 °C
B. Extensive properties D. 273.15 °C
C. Specific properties
D. State properties Absolute temperatures on the Fahrenheit scale are called:

The properties for a unit mass and are intensive by definition such as A. degrees Rankine
specific volume B. degrees Kelvin
C. absolute Fahrenheit
A. Intensive properties D. absolute Celsius
B. Extensive properties
C. Specific properties The absolute zero on the Celsius scale is at
D. Thermodynamic properties
A. -459.75 °F
The condition as identified through the properties of the substance, B. 459.7 °F
generally defined by particular values of any two independent C. -273.15 °C
properties D. 273.15 °C

A. State What is the absolute temperature in celsius scale?

B. Point
C. Process A. degrees Rankine
D. flow B. degrees Kelvin
C. absolute Fahrenheit
The only base unit with a prefix kilo is D. absolute Celsius

A. kilogram The Fahrenheit scale was introduced by Gabriel Fahrenheit of

B. kilometer Amsterdam, Holland in what year?
C. kiloJoule
D. kilopascal A. 1592
B. 1742
The force of gravity on the body C. 1730
D. 1720
A. Weight
B. Specific gravity The Centrigrade scale was introduced by Anders Celsius in what
C. Attraction year?
D. Mass
A. 1542
The mass per unit volume of any substance B. 1740
C. 1730
A. Density D. 1720
B. Specific volume
C. Specific weight
D. Specific gravity
The National Bureau of Standards uses, among others, the liquid – The solid – liquid equilibrium of Platinum is at what temperature?
vapor equilibrium of hydrogen at
A. 630.5 °C
A. -196 °C B. 960.8 °C
B. 196 °C C. 1063 °C
C. 253 °C D. 1774 °C
D. -253 °C
The solid – liquid equilibrium of Tungsten is at what temperature?
The National Bureau of Standards uses, among others, the liquid –
vapor equilibrium of Nitrogen at A. 3730 °C
B. 3370 °C
A. -196 °C C. 3073 °C
B. 196 °C D. 3037 °C
C. 253 °C
D. -253 °C The device that measures temperature by the electromotive force

The liquid – vapor equilibrium of Oxygen is at what temperature? A. thermometer

B. thermocouple
A. 197.82 °C C. electro-thermometer
B. -197.82 °C D. thermoseebeck
C. 182.97 °C
D. -182.97 °C The emf is a function of the temperature difference between the
junction, a phenomenon called:
The solid – liquid equilibrium of Mercury is at what temperature?
A. Seebeck effect
A. 38.87 °C B. Stagnation effect
B. -38.87 °C C. Primming
C. 37.88 °C D. Electromotive force
D. -37.88 °C
The device that measure temperature by the electromotive force
The solid – liquid equilibrium of Tin is at what temperature? called thermocouple was discovered by:

A. -38.87 °C A. Galileo
B. 38.87 °C B. Fahrenheit
C. 231.9 °C C. Celsius
D. -231.9 °C D. Seebeck

The solid – liquid equilibrium of Zinc is at what temperature? When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal
equilibrium with a third body, the two are in thermal equilibrium with
A. 231.9 °C each other
B. 419.505 °C
C. 444.60 °C A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
D. 630.5 °C B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
The liquid – vapor equilibrium of Sulfur is at what temperature? D. Third law of thermodynamics

A. 231.9 °C The total entropy of pure substances approaches zero as the absolute
B. 419.505 °C thermodynamic temperature approaches zero
C. 444.60 °C
D. 630.5 °C A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
The solid – liquid equilibrium of Antimony is at what temperature? C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
A. 630.5 °C
B. 419.505 °C If any one or more properties of a system change, the system is said
C. 444.60 °C to have undergone a _______
D. 231.9 °C
A. cycle
The solid – liquid equilibrium of silver is at what temperature? B. process
C. flow
A. 630.5 °C D. control
B. 960.8 °C
C. 1063 °C When a certain mass of fluid in a particular state passes through a
D. 1774 °C series of processes and returns to its initial state, it undergoes a:

The solid – liquid equilibrium of Gold is at what temperature? A. revolution

B. rotation
A. 630.5 °C C. process
B. 960.8 °C D. cycle
C. 1063 °C
D. 1774 °C
The term given to the collection of matter under consideration The heat energy transferred to a substance at a constant pressure
enclosed within a boundary process is : _________

A. System A. enthalpy
B. Matter B. heat
C. Environment C. internal energy
D. Atoms D. entropy

The region outside the boundary or the space and matter external to It is the energy stored within the body
a system:
A. Enthalpy
A. Ex – system B. Heat
B. Surrounding C. Internal energy
C. Matter D. Entropy
D. Extension
A theoretically ideal gas which strictly follow Boyle’s law and Charle’s
The true pressure measured above a perfect vacuum law of gases

A. Absolute pressure A. Universal gas

B. Gage pressure B. Perfect gas
C. Atmospheric pressure C. Combined gas
D. Vacuum pressure D. Imperfect gas

The pressure measured from the level of atmospheric pressure by In a confined gas, if the absolute temperature is held constant, the
most pressure recording instrument like pressure gage and open- volume is inversely proportional to the absolute pressure
ended manometer
A. Boyle’s law
A. Gage pressure B. Charles law
B. Atmospheric pressure C. Dalton’s law
C. Barometric pressure D. Avogadro’s law
D. Absolute pressure
In a confined gas if the absolute pressure is held constant the volume
The pressure obtained from barometric reading is directly proportional to the absolute temperature

A. Absolute pressure A. Boyle’s law

B. Gage pressure B. Charles law
C. Atmospheric pressure C. Dalton’s law
D. Vacuum pressure D. Avogadro’s law

It is a form of energy associated with the kinetic random motion of The pressure exerted in a vessel by a mixture of gases is equal to the
large number of molecules sum of the pressures that each separate gas would exert if it alone
occupied the whole volume of the vessel
A. Internal energy
B. Kinetic energy A. Boyle’s law
C. Heat B. Charles law
D. Enthalpy C. Dalton’s law
D. Avogadro’s law
The heat needed to change is temperature of the body without
changing its phase At equal volume, at the same temperature and pressure conditions,
the gases contain the same number of molecules
A. Latent heat
B. Sensible heat A. Boyle’s law
C. Specific heat B. Charle’s law
D. Heat transfer C. Dalton’s law
D. Avogadro’s law
The heat needed by the body to change its phase without changing
its temperature A process in which the system departs from equilibrium state only
infinitesimally at every instant
A. Latent heat
B. Sensible heat A. Reversible process
C. Specific heat B. Irreversible process
D. Heat transfer C. Cyclic process
D. Quasi-static process
The measure of the randomness of the molecules of a susbtance
A process which gives the same states/conditions after the system
A. Enthalpy undergoes a series of processes:
B. Internal energy
C. Entropy A. Reversible process
D. Heat B. Irreversible process
C. Cyclic process
D. Quasi-static process
A thermodynamic system that generally serves as a heat source o 1 watt…
heat sink for another system
A. 1 Nm/s
A. Combustion chamber B. 1 Nm/min
B. Heat reservoir C. 1 Nm/hr
C. Heat engine D. 1 kNm/hr
D. Stirling engine
Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic
A thermodynamic system that operates continuously with only energy processes are:
(heat and work) crossing its boundaries; its boundaries are impervious
to the flow of mass A. dynamic processes
B. stable processes
A. Heat engine C. quasi-static processes
B. Steady flow of work D. static processes
C. Stirling engine
D. Ericsson engine Isentropic flow is

A surface that is impervious to heat is A. perfect gas flow

B. irreversible adiabatic flow
A. isothermal surface C. ideal fluid flow
B. adiabatic surface D. reversible adiabatic flow
C. isochoric surface Exhaust gases from an engine possess
D. isobaric surface
A. solar energy
One of the consequences of Einstein’s theory of relativity is that mass B. kinetic energy
may be converted into energy and energy into mass, the relation C. chemical energy
being given by the famous equation, E = mc^2. What is the value of D. stored energy
the speed of light c?
The extension and compression of a helical spring is an example of
A. 2.7797 x 10^10 cm/s what process?
B. 2.9979 x 10^10 cm/s
C. 1.7797 x 10^10 cm/s A. isothermal cycle
D. 2.9979 x 10^10 cm/s B. thermodynamic process
C. adiabatic process
In the polytropic process we have pv^n = constant, if the value of n is D. reversible process
infinitely large, the process is called:
At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is _________
A. constant volume process
B. constant pressure process A. dependent on temperature
C. constant temperature process B. zero
D. adiabatic process C. minimum
D. maximum
The thermodynamic cycle used in a thermal power plant is:
Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free expansion
A. Ericsson process?
B. Brayton
C. Joule A. Heat supplied is zero
D. Rankine B. Heat rejected is zero
C. Work done is zero
For the same heat input and same compression ratio: D. Change in temperature is zero

A. Both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at
B. Otto cycle is less efficient than diesel cycle which:
C. efficiency depends mainly on working substance
D. none of the above is correct A. the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
B. the liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium
A heat exchange process where in the product of pressure and C. the solid, liquid and other gaseous phases are in equilibrium
volume remains constant called: D. the solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil and the gas
does not condense
A. heat exchange process
B. isentropic process According to Clausius statement
C. throttling process
D. hyperbolic process A. Heat flows from hot substance to cold substance, unaided
B. Heat cannot flow from cold substance to hot substance
Which of the following provides the basis for measuring C. Heat can flow from cold substance to hot substance with the
thermodynamic property of temperature? aid of external work
D. A and C
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics A heat engine is supplied heat at rate of 30,000 J/s gives an output of
C. Second law of thermodynamics 9 kW. The thermal efficiency of the engine is _______
D. Third law of thermodynamics
A. 30%
B. 43%
C. 50%
D. 55%
The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at N.T.P. is approximately ______ In actual gases the molecular collisions are:

A. 3838 m/s A. plastic

B. 1839 m/s B. elastic
C. 4839 m/s C. inelastic
D. 839 m/s D. inplastic

Which of the following cycles has two isothermal and two constant The Beattie-Bridgeman equation of state is quite accurate in cases of:
volume processes?
A. all pressures above atmospheric pressure
A. Joule cycle B. densities less than about 0.8 times the critical density
B. Diesel cycle C. near critical temperature
C. Ericsson cycle D. none of the above
D. Stirling cycle
Which of the following statement about Van der Waals equation is
“It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle correct?
and receives a given quantity of heat from a high temperature body
and does an equal amount of work.” The above statement is known A. It is valid for all pressures and temperatures
as: B. It represents a straight line one PV versus V plot
C. It has three roots of identical value at the critical point
A. Gay Lussac’s law D. The equation is valid for diatomic gases only
B. Kinetic Theory
C. Kelvin – Planck’s law The Clapeyron’s equation is applicable to:
D. Joule – Thomson’s law
A. 1 system in equilibrium
For steam nozzle, which of the following ratios will have the value less B. a change of state
than unity? C. a change of state when two phases are in equilibrium
D. a change of state when water and water vapor are involved
A. (Pressure at inlet)/(Pressure at outlet)
B. Specific volume at inlet / (Specific volume at outlet) The vapor pressure is related to the enthalpy of vaporization by the:
C. Temperature of steam at inlet / (Temperature of steam at
outlet) A. Clausius – Claypeyron’s equation
D. None of the above B. Dalton’s law
C. Raoult’s law
A Bell-Coleman cycle is reversed D. Maxwell’s equation

A. Stirling cycle Solubility of a gas in a liquid at small concentration can be

B. Brayton cycle represented by which law?
C. Joule cycle
D. Carnot cycle A. Henry’s law
B. Clausius – Clapeyron’s equation
Ericsson cycle consists of the following four processes: C. Dalton’s law
D. Roult’s law
A. two isothermal and two constant volume
B. two isothermal and two constant isentropic A compound pressure gauge is used to measure:
C. two isothermal and two constant pressure
D. two adiabatic and two constant pressure A. complex pressures
B. variable pressures
A steam nozzle changes C. average pressures
D. positive and negative pressures
A. kinetic energy into heat energy
B. heat energy into potential energy Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers?
C. potential energy into heat energy
D. heat energy into kinetic energy A. Turboprop
B. Turbojet
Which is not correct for calculating air standard efficiency? C. Ramjet
D. Pulsejet
A. All processes are reversible
B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all temperatures The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle as compared to steam
C. No account of the mechanism of heat transfer is considered turbine or gas turbine
D. Gases dissociate at higher temperatures
A. greater than
According to Pettlier Thomson effect: B. less than
C. not compatible
A. It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a D. equal
cycle and receives a given quantity of heat from a high
temperature body and does an equal amount of work The process in which heat energy is transferred to a thermal energy
B. It is impossible to construct a device that operates in a cycle storage device is known as
and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a
cooler body to hotter body A. adiabatic
C. When two dissimilar metals are heated at one end and B. regeneration
cooled at the other, e.m.f. that is developed is proportional C. intercooling
to difference of temperatures at two ends D. heat transfer
D. Work can’t be converted into heat
The absolute zero in Celsius scale is: The reaction of inertia in an accelerated body is called

A. 100 A. Kinetic reaction

B. 0 B. Endothermic reaction
C. -273 C. Kinematic reaction
D. 273 D. Dynamic reaction

What is the temperature when water and vapor are in equilibrium with A Mollier chart of thermodynamic properties is shown in which of the
the atmospheric pressure? following diagrams?

A. Ice point A. T – S diagram

B. Steam point B. P – V diagram
C. Critical point C. h – S diagram
D. Freezing point D. p – h diagram

The temperature of a pure substance at a temperature of absolute The following are included in the first law of thermodynamics for
zero is: closed system EXCEPT:

A. unity A. heat transferred in and of the system

B. zero B. work done by or on the system
C. infinity C. internal energy
D. 100 D. kinetic energy

When the number of reheat stages in a reheat cycle is increased, the All processes below are irreversible except one. Which one?
average temperature:
A. Magnetization with hysteresis
A. increases B. Elastic tension and release of a steel bar
B. decreases C. Inelastic deformation
C. is constant D. Heat conduction
D. is zero
The combination of conditions that best describes a thermodynamic
A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer which has process is given by which of the following?
constant specific humidity
I. Has successive states through which the system passes
A. Critical temperature II. When reversed leaves no change in the system
B. Dew point temperature III. When reversed leaves no change in the system or the
C. Dry bulb temperature surroundings
D. Wet bulb temperature IV. States are passes through so quickly that the surroundings
do not change
In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes place, the temperature
rises. Due to the rising temperature, the pressure increases until an A. I and II
equilibrium is established between the temperature and pressure. The B. I and III
temperature of equilibrium is called: C. I and IV
D. I only
A. dew point
B. ice point The sum of the energies of all molecules in a system where energies
C. superheated temperature appear in several complex forms is the:
D. boiling point
A. kinetic energy
When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner an engineer was so B. potential energy
eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he added cubes of ice to cool the C. internal energy
soup and stirred it. He noticed that the dew starts to form on the D. frictional energy
outermost surface of the cup. What is the temperature equal to?
The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all of the following process
A. superheated temperature except:
B. equal to zero
C. standard temperature A. isentropic expansion
D. equal to air’s dew point temperature B. isothermal heating
C. isenthalpic expansion
Is a measure of the energy that is no longer available to perform D. isentropic compression
useful work within the current environment
The maximum possible work that can be obtained a cycle operating
A. Absolute entropy between two reservoirs is found from:
B. Absolute enthalpy
C. Fugacity A. process irreversibility
D. Molar value B. availability
C. Carnot efficiency
A graph of enthalpy versus entropy for steam D. Reversible work

A. Mollier diagram The following factors are necessary to define a thermodynamic cycle
B. Moody diagram except
C. Steam table
D. Maxwell diagram A. the working substance
B. high and low temperature reservoirs
C. the time it takes to complete the cycle
D. the means of doing work on the system
All of the following terms included in the second law for open system Which of the following is not the universal gas constant?
except
A. 1545 ft-lb/lbmol-°R
A. shaft work B. 8.314 J/mol.K
B. flow work C. 8314 kJ/mol.K
C. internal energy D. 8.314 kJ/kmol.K
D. average work
The following are all commonly quoted values of standard
The following terms are included in the first law of thermodynamics for temperatures and pressure except:
open systems except
A. 32°F and 14.696 psia
A. heat transferred in and out of the system B. 273.15 K and 101.325 kPa
B. work done by or in the system C. 0°C and 760 mm Hg
C. magnetic system D. 0°F and 29.92 in Hg
D. internal system
The variation of pressure in an isobaric process is:
The following terms are included in the first law of thermodynamics for
closed systems except: A. linear with temperature
B. described by the perfect gas law
A. heat transferred in and out of the system C. inversely proportional to temperature
B. work done by or on the system D. zero
C. internal energy
D. kinetic energy For fluid flow, the enthalpy is the sum of internal energy and _______

Which of the following statements about a path function is not true? A. entropy
B. work flow
A. On a p – v diagram, it can represent work done C. pressure
B. On a t – s diagram, it can represent heat transferred D. temperature
C. It is dependent on the path between states of
thermodynamic equilibrium A thermodynamic process whose deviation from equilibrium is
D. It represents value of p, v, t, and s between states that are infinitesimal at all times is ______
path functions
A. reversible
A constant pressure thermodynamic process obeys: B. isentropic
C. in quasi – equilibrium
A. Boyle’s law D. isenthalpic
B. Charles law
C. Amagat’s law Which thermodynamic property best describes the molecular activity
D. Dalton’s law of a substance?

The first and second laws of thermodynamics are: A. Enthalpy

B. Entropy
A. continuity equations C. Internal energy
B. momentum equations D. External energy
C. energy equations
D. equations of state Stagnation enthalpy represents the enthalpy of a fluid when it is
brought to rest _______
Represents the temperature an ideal gas will attain when it is brought
to rest adiabatically A. isometrically
B. adiabatically
A. Absolute zero temperature C. isothermally
B. Stagnation temperature D. disobarically
C. Boiling temperature
D. Critical temperature During stagnation process, the kinetic energy of a fluid is converted to
enthalpy which results in an:
Gauge pressure and absolute pressure differ from each other by:
A. increase in the fluid specific volume
A. the system units B. increase in the fluid pressure
B. atmospheric pressure C. increase in the fluid temperature and pressure
C. the size of the gauge D. increase in the fluid temperature
D. nothing they mean the same thing
The properties of fluid at the stagnation in state are called ______
Each of the following are correct values of standard atmospheric
pressure except: A. stagnation property
B. stagnation phase
A. 1,000 atm C. stagnation state
B. 14.962 psia D. stagnation vapor
C. 760 torr
D. 1013 mm Hg All of the following are thermodynamic properties except _____

All of the following are properties of an ideal gas except: A. temperature

B. pressure
A. density C. density
B. pressure D. modulus of elasticity
C. viscosity
D. temperature
A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals Critical properties refer to

A. the gage pressure A. extremely important properties, such as temperature and

B. the critical pressure pressure
C. the ambient pressure B. heat required for phase change and important for energy
D. one standard atmosphere production
C. property values where liquid and gas phase are
A system composed of ice and water at 0°C is said to be ______ indistinguishable
D. properties having to do with equilibrium conditions, such as
A. a multiphase material the Gibbs and Helmholtz functions
B. in thermodynamic equilibrium
C. in thermal equilibrium For a saturated vapor, the relationship between temperature and
D. all of the above pressure is given by:

The heat of fusion of a pure substance is: A. the perfect gas law
B. Van der Waal’s equation
A. the change in phase from solid to gas C. the steam table
B. the change in phase from liquid to gas D. a Viral equation of state
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction
D. the energy required to melt the substance Properties of a superheated vapor are given by

The heat of vaporization involves the change in enthalpy due to: A. the perfect gas law
B. a superheated table
A. the change in phase from solid to gas C. a one to one relationship, such as the properties of saturated
B. the change in phase from liquid to gas steam
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction D. a Viral equation of state
D. the change in phase from solid to liquid
Properties of non – reacting gas mixtures are given by:
The heat of sublimation involves the change in enthalpy due to ______
A. geometric weighting
A. the change in phase from solid to gas B. volumetric weighting
B. the change in phase from liquid to gas C. volumetric weighting for molecular weight and density, and
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction geometric weighting for all other properties except entropy
D. the change in phase from solid to liquid D. arithmetic average

A specific property The relationship between the total volume of a mixture of non –
reacting gases and their partial volume is given by:
A. defines a specific variable (e.g., temperature)
B. is independent of mass A. gravimetric fractions
C. is an extensive property multiplied by mass B. Amagat’s law
D. is dependent of the phase of the substance C. Dalton’s law
D. mole fractions
A material’s specific heat can be defines as:
The relationship between the total pressure of a mixture of non –
A. the ratio of heat required to change the temperature of reacting gases and the partial pressures of constituents is given by:
mass by a change in temperature
B. being different for constant pressure and constant A. gravimetric fractions
temperature processes B. volumetric fractions
C. a function of temperature C. Dalton’s law
D. all of the above D. mole fractions

If a substance temperature is less than its saturation temperature, the Which of the following is the best definition of enthalpy?
substance is:
A. The ratio of heat added to the temperature increases in a
A. subcooled liquid system
B. wet vapor B. The amount of useful energy in a system
C. saturated vapor C. The amount of energy no longer available to the system
D. superheated vapor D. The heat required to cause a complete conversion between
two phases at a constant temperature
If a substance temperature is equal to its saturation temperature, the
substance is a _________ Which of the following statements is not true for real gases?

A. subcooled liquid A. Molecules occupy a volume not negligible in comparison to

B. wet vapor the total volume of gas
C. saturated liquid and vapor B. Real gases are subjected to attractive forces between
D. superheated vapor molecules (e.g., Van der Waal’s forces)
C. The law of corresponding states may be used for real gases
If a substance’s temperature is greater than its saturation D. Real gases are found only rarely in nature
temperature, the substance is a _________
The stagnation state is called the isentropic stagnation state when the
A. subcooled liquid stagnation process is:
B. wet vapor
C. saturated vapor A. reversible as well dynamic
D. superheated vapor B. isotropic
C. adiabatic
D. reversible as well as adiabatic
The entropy of a fluid remains constant during what process? Assuming real process, the net entropy change in the universe:

A. polytropic stagnation process A. must be calculated

B. unsteady stagnation process B. equals zero
C. combustion process C. is negative
D. isentropic stagnation process D. is positive

All of the following processes are irreversible except Which of the following types of flowmeters is most accurate?

A. stirring of viscous fluid A. Venturi tube

B. an isentropic deceleration of a moving perfect fluid B. Pitot tube
C. an unrestrained expansion of a gas C. Flow nozzle
D. phase changes D. Foam type

All of the following processes are irreversible except: What is referred by control volume?

A. chemical reactions A. An isolated system

B. diffusion B. Closed system
C. current flow through an electrical resistance C. Fixed region in space
D. an isentropic compression of a perfect gas D. Reversible process only

All of the following processes are irreversible except: What is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle?

A. magnetization with hysteresis A. Carnot

B. elastic tension and release of a steel bar B. Diesel
C. inelastic deformation C. Rankine
D. heat conduction D. Brayton

Which of the following state(s) is/are necessary for a system to be in How do you treat a statement that is considered a scientific law?
thermodynamic equilibrium?
A. We postulate to be true
A. Chemical equilibrium B. Accept as a summary of experimental observation
B. Thermal equilibrium C. We generally observed to be true
C. Mechanical equilibrium D. Believe to be derived from mathematical theorem
D. Chemical, mechanical, and thermal equilibrium
An instrument commonly used in most research and engineering
Adiabatic heat transfer within a vapor cycle refers to: laboratories because it is small and fast among the other
thermometers
A. heat transfer that is atmospheric but not reversible
B. the transfer of energy from one stream to another in a heat A. Mercury thermometer
exchanger so that the energy of the input streams equals B. Liquid-in-glass thermometer
the energy of the output streams C. Gas thermometer
C. heat transfer that is reversible but not isentropic D. Thermocouple
D. there is no such thing as adiabatic heat transfer
In actual gases, the molecular collisions are
Which of the following gives polytropic under n?
A. plastic
A. (log P2/P1) / (log V1/V2) B. elastic
B. (log P1/P2) / (log V1/V2) C. inelastic
C. (log V1/V2) / (log P2/P1) D. inplastic
D. (log V1/V2) / (log P1/P2)
Which of the following is used in thermal power plant?
The work done in an adiabatic process in a system:
A. Brayton
A. is equal to the change in total energy in a closed system B. Reversed Carnot
B. is equal to the total net heat transfer plus the entropy C. Rankine
change D. Otto
C. is equal to the change in total energy of closed system plus
the entropy change The elongation and compression of a helical spring is an example of
D. is equal to the change in total energy of closed system plus
net heat transfer A. irreversible process
B. reversible process
Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which of the following is C. isothermal process
wrong? D. adiabatic process

A. The heat transfer equals the work plus energy change Otto cycle consists of
B. The heat transfer cannot exceed the work done
C. The net transfer equal the net work of the cycle A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes
D. The net heat transfer equals the energy change if no work is B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
done C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
Brayton cycle has What keeps the moisture from passing through the system?

A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes A. Dehydrator

B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes B. Aerator
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume and two C. Trap
adiabatic processes D. Humidifier
D. Two isothermal, one constant volume and one constant
pressure processes What condition exists in an adiabatic throttling process?

A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed A. Enthalpy is variable

B. Enthalpy is constant
A. Stirling cycle C. Entropy is constant
B. Joule cycle D. Specific volume is constant
C. Carnot cycle
D. Otto cycle The specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of its density to the
density of:
A steam nozzle changes
A. mercury
A. kinetic energy into heat energy B. gas
B. heat energy into potential energy C. air
C. heat energy into kinetic energy D. water
D. potential energy into heat energy
A compound pressure gauge is used to measure:
The pitot tube is a device used for measurement of
A. complex pressures
A. pressure B. variable pressures
B. flow C. compound pressures
C. velocity D. positive and negative pressures
D. discharge
Isentropic flow is
The continuity equation is applicable to
A. perfect gas flow
A. Viscous, unviscous fluids B. ideal fluid flow
B. Compressibility of fluids C. frictionless reversible flow
C. Conservation of mass D. reversible adiabatic flow
D. Steady, unsteady flow
Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic
The work done by a force of R Newtons moving in a distance of L processes are:
meters is converted entirely into kinetic energy and expressed by the
equation: A. dynamic processes
B. stable processes
A. RL = 2 M V^2 C. quasi-static processes
B. RL = 2 M V D. static processes
C. RL = 1/2 M V^2
D. RL = 1/2 M V One Watt is:

Gas being heated at constant volume is undergoing the process of: A. 1 N.m/s
B. 1 N.m/min
A. isentropic C. 1 N.m/hr
B. adiabatic D. 1 kN.m/s
C. isometric
D. isobaric A temperature above which a given gas cannot be liquefied:

Dew point is defined as A. Cryogenic temperature

B. Vaporization temperature
A. The temperature to which the air must be cooled at constant C. Absolute temperature
pressure to produce saturation D. Critical temperature
B. The point where the pressure and temperature lines meet
C. The temperature which dew is formed in the air The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given
D. The pressure which dew is formed in the air temperature

What do you call the changing of an atom of element into an atom of A. Absorptivity
a different element with a different atomic mass? B. Emissivity
C. Conductivity
A. Atomization D. Reflectivity
B. Atomic transmutation
C. Atomic pile Which of the following occurs in a reversible polytropic process?
D. Atomic energy
A. Enthalpy remains constant
What do you call the weight of column of air above the earth’s B. Internal energy does not change
surface? C. Some heat transfer occurs
D. Entropy remains constant
A. Air pressure
B. Aerostatic pressure
C. Wind pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is: When the expansion or compression of gas takes place “without
transfer of heat” to or from the gas, the process is called:
A. Rotameter
B. Manometer A. reversible
C. Venturi B. adiabatic
D. Barometer C. polytropic
D. isothermal
A pneumatic tool is generally powered by
Another name for the liquid valve is:
A. water
B. electricity A. Freon valve
C. steam B. Shut-off valve
D. air C. King valve
D. Master vale
Which of the following gases can be used to measure the lowest
temperature? A liquid whose temperature is lower than the saturation temperature
corresponding to the existing pressure
A. Nitrogen
B. Helium A. Subcooled liquid
C. Oxygen B. Saturated liquid
D. Hydrogen C. Pure liquid
D. Compressed liquid
The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at
which: The law that states “Entropy of all perfect crystalline solids is zero at
absolute zero temperature:
A. The solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
B. The solid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
C. The solid, liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium B. First law of thermodynamics
D. The solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil and the gas C. Second law of thermodynamics
does not condense D. Third law of thermodynamics

Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free expansion What should be the temperature of both water and steam whenever
process? they are present together?

A. Heat rejected is zero A. Saturation temperature for the existing pressure

B. Work done is zero B. Boiling point of water at 101.325 kPa
C. Change in temperature is zero C. Superheated temperature
D. Heat supplied is zero D. One hundred degrees centigrade

Ericsson cycle has A manometer is an instrument that is used to measure:

A. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes A. air pressure

B. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes B. heat radiation
C. Two isothermal and two constant entropy process C. condensate water level
D. Two adiabatic, one constant volume and constant pressure D. air volume
processes
What is the area under the curve of a temperature-entropy diagram?
A Stirling cycle has
A. Volume
A. Two adiabatic and two constant volume processes B. Heat
B. Two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes C. Work
C. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes D. Entropy
D. Two isothermal and twoconstant volume processes
What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero emit?
The temperature of the fluid flowing under pressure through a piper is
usually measured by: A. Energy
B. Heat of convection
A. a glass thermometer C. Thermal radiation
B. an electric resistance thermometer D. Heat of compression
C. a thermocouple
D. all of the above In the absence of any irreversibilities, a thermoelectric generator, a
device that incorporates both thermal and electric effects, will have
Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit described as the efficiency of a/an

A. J / kg A. Carnot cycle
B. W/mK B. Otto cycle
C. kJ / kg K C. Diesel cycle
D. J/m D. Rankine cycle

Which of the following is mathematically a thermodynamic property? Both Stirling and Ericson engines are

A. A point function A. internal combustion engines

B. Discontinuous B. external combustion engines
C. A path function C. Carnot engines
D. Exact differential D. Brayton engines
Nozzle does not involve any work interaction. The fluid through this What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a turbine?
device experiences:
A. Below atmospheric
A. no change in potential energy B. Above atmospheric
B. no change in kinetic energy C. Atmospheric
C. no change in enthalpy D. Vacuum
D. vacuum
When changes in kinetic energy of a compressed gas are negligible
If the actual kinetic energy of a nozzle is Ka and Ki is the maximum or insignificant, the work input to an adiabatic compressor is
value that can be attained by an isentropic expansion from an initial __________
to final state, then the efficiency of the nozzle is:
A. negligible
A. Ki / Ka B. zero
B. (Ka - Ki) / Ka C. infinity
C. (Ka - Ki) / Ki D. equal to change in enthalpy
D. Ka / Ki
What is the area under the curve of a pressure-volume diagram?
The convergent section of a nozzle increases the velocity of the flow
of gas. What does it to do on its pressure? A. Nonflow work
B. Steadyflow work
A. Pressure becomes constant C. Heat
B. Pressure equals the velocity D. Power
C. It increases the pressure
D. It decreases the pressure In Stirling and Ericson cycle, regeneration can

In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes place, the temperature A. increase efficiency
rises. Due to the rising temperature, the pressure inreases until an B. decrease efficiency
equilibrium is established between the temperature and pressure. The C. control efficiency
temperature of equilibrium is called _______ D. limit efficiency

A. dew point The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following
B. ice point principles?
C. boiling point
D. superheated temperature A. Conservation of mass
B. Enthalpy-entropy relationship
At steam point, the temperatures of water and its vapor at standard C. Entropy-temperature relationship
pressure are: D. Conservation of energy

A. extremes or maximum In a two-phase system, 30% moisture means

B. unity
C. in equilibrium A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor
D. undefined B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid
C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor
When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an engineer was so D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid
eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he added cubes of ice to cool the
soup and stirred it. He noticed that dew starts to form on the outermost At 101.325 kPa, the boiling point of water is 100°C. If the pressure is
surface of the cup. He wanted to check the temperature of the decreased, the boiling temperature will:
outermost surface of the cup. What is this temperature equal to?
A. increase
A. Superheated temperature B. decrease
B. Equal to zero C. remain the same
C. Standard temperature D. drop to zero
D. Equal to air's dew point temperature
Which of the following is equivalent to 1 hp in Btu/hr?
What do you call a conversion technology that yields electricity
straight from sunlight without the aid of a working substance like gas A. 778
or steam without the use of mechanical cycle? B. 2545
C. 746
A. Power conversion D. 3.41
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion What is the pressure above zero?
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
A. Gage pressure
Which of the following property of liquid extend resistance to angular B. Absolute pressure
or shear deformation: C. Vacuum pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
A. Specific gravity
B. Specific weight One Newton - meter is equal to:
C. Viscosity
D. Density A. 1 Joule
B. 1 Btu
C. 1 Calorie
D. 1 Ergs
Which of the following is the instrument used to measure fluid For bodies in thermal equilibrium with their environment, the ratio of
velocity? total emissive power to the absorptivity is constant at any
temperature
A. Pitot tube
B. Orsat apparatus A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
C. Anemometer B. Planck's law
D. Viscosimeter C. Kirchhoff's law
D. Maxwell's law
Cryogenic temperature ranges from:

A. -150 °F to -359 °F
B. -250 °F to -459 °F
C. -100 °F to -300 °F
D. -200 °F to -400°F

Steam at 2 kPa is saturated at 17.5 °C. In what state will the state be at
40 °C if the pressure is 2.0 kPa?

A. Superheated
B. Saturated
C. Subcooled
D. Supersaturated

Acceleration is proportional to force.

A. Newtons law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Law of gravitation
D. Theory of relativity

Which of the following could be defined as simply push and pull?

A. Power
B. Inertia
C. Work
D. Force

The true pressure measured above a perfect vacuum is:

A. absolute pressure
B. atmospheric pressure
C. gauge pressure
D. vacuum pressure

If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half its

original volume and to twice its original temperature, the pressure:

A. doubles
B. halves
C. quadruples
D. triples

When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without

transfer of heat to or from the gas, the process is called?

A. isometric process
B. isothermal process
C. isobaric process
D. adiabatic process

A body radiates heat proportional to the fourth power of its absolute

temperature:

A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Planck's law
C. Kirchhoff's law
D. Maxwell's law

All substances emit radiation, the quantity and quality of which

depends upon the absolute temperature and the properties of the
material, composing the radiating body

A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Planck's law
C. Kirchhoff's law
D. Maxwell's law
Which is not a viscosity rating? A theorem that states that the total property of a mixture of ideal
gases is the sum of the properties that the individual gases would
A. Redwood have if each occupied the total mixture volume alone as the same
B. SSU temperature
C. Centipoise
D. Entropy Degrees API A. Gibbs theorem
B. Dalton's theorem
Percent excess air is the difference between the air actually supplied C. Boltzmann's theorem
and the theoretically required divided by D. Maxwell's theorem

A. the theoretically air supplied A small enough particles suspended in a fluid will exhibit small
B. the actually air supplied random movements due to the statistical collision of fluid molecules
C. the deficiency of air supplied on the particle's surface. This motion is called ________
D. the sufficient air supplied
A. Boltzmann motion
What is the apparatus used in the analysis of combustible gases? B. rectillinear motion
C. kinetic gas motion
A. Calorimeter differential D. Brownian motion
B. Calorimeter gas
C. Calorimetry When two or more light atoms have sufficient energy (available only
D. Calorimeter at high temperatures and velocities) to fuse together to form a
heavier nucleus the process is called _______
Percent excess air is the difference between the air actually supplied
and the theoretical air divided by A. fusion
B. fission
A. the suffficient air supplied C. the photoelectric effect
B. the deficiency air supplied D. the Compton effect
C. the actually air supplied
D. the theoretically air supplied What is the residue left after combustion of a fossil fuel?

The viscosity of most commercially available petroleum lubricating oil A. Charcoal

changes rapidly above B. Ash
C. Scraper
A. 120 °F D. All of the choices
B. 180 °F
C. 150 °F What is formed during incomplete combustion of carbon in fuels?
D. 130 °F
A. Carbon dioxide
When 1 mol carbon combines with 1 mol oxygen B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen oxide
A. 2 mols carbon dioxide D. Oxygenated fuel
B. 1 mol carbon dioxide
C. 1 mol carbon and 1 mol carbon dioxide A gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil and cannot be found in
D. 1 mol carbon dioxide the flue gases is:

What are the immediate undersirable products from the petroleum A. oxygen
based lubricating oil when subjected to high pressure and B. nitrogen
temperature? C. hydrogen
D. carbon dioxide
A. Gums, resins and acids
B. Sulfur Which of the following chemical reactions in which heat is absorbed?
C. Soots and ashes
D. Carbon residue A. Heat reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
What kind of bonding do common gases that exist in free state as C. Exothermic reaction
diatomic molecules experiences? D. Combustion reaction

A. Ionic bonds A chemical reaction in which heat is given off

B. Covalent bonds
C. Metallic bonds A. Heat reaction
D. Nuclear bonds B. Endothermic reaction
C. Exothermic reaction
An Orsat's apparatus is used for D. Combustion reaction

A. volumetric analysis of the flue gas A colorless, odorless mixture of nitrogen and oxygen, with traces of
B. gravimetric analysis of the flue gas other gases water vapor and same impurities
C. smoke density analysis of the flue gas
D. all of the above A. Air
B. Helium
C. Water gas
D. Nitrite
The transfer of air and air characteristics by horizontal motion is called The residual oil left after the distillation of gasoline and kerosene from
_________ crude petroleum; yellow to brown oil, used as a diesel fuel and for
enriching water gas
A. convection
B. air transfer A. Diesel oil
C. advection B. Gasoline oil
D. adhesion C. LPG
D. Gas oil
Properties of non-reacting gas mixtures are given by:
A fuel gas obtained by the destructive distillation of soft coal is called
A. geometric weighting ______
B. volumetric weighting
C. volumetric weighting for molecular weight and density, and A. Gas scrub
geometric weighting for all other properties except entropy B. Coal gas
D. arithmetic average C. Alcogas
D. Water gas
The process of separating two or more liquids by means of the
difference in their boiling point Removing of impurities from a gas by bubbling it through a liquid
purifying agent is called ________
A. Engler distillation
B. Fractional distillation A. Gas scrubbing
C. Gas scrubbing B. Gas purifying
D. Fractional crystallization C. Gas liquefying
D. Gas bubbling
The gaseous products of combustion of a boiler which contains
carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor During the fusion proces, mass is lost and converted to energy
is called ________ according to:

A. Flue gas A. the Heisenburg uncertainty principle

B. Producer gas B. the Compton's law
C. Product gas C. Einstein's law
D. Universal gas D. The second law of thermodynamics

A substance whose burning with oxygen yields heat energy such as A finely divided carbon deposit by the smoke or flame is called
coal, petroleum and natural gas ________

A. Air A. Fly ash

B. Fluid B. Soot
C. Fuel C. Residue
D. Gas D. All of the choices

Stoichiometric ratio is Rare gases such as helium, argon, krypton, xenon and radon that are
non-reactive are called _______
A. chemically correct air - fuel ratio by volume
B. chemically correct air - fuel ratio by weight A. Non - reactants
C. theoretical mixture of air to complete combustion B. Stop gases
D. actual ratio of air to fuel for maximum efficiency C. Inert gases
D. Residual gases
A type of radiation consisting of singly charged particles that
generate to intermediate distances Kinematics and dynamic viscosity vary from each other only by a
factor equal to the:
A. Nuclear radiation
B. Alpha radiation A. fluid density
C. Beta radiation B. temperature
D. Gamma radiation C. pressure
D. specific gas constant
The increase in velocity past the throat is due to the rapid decrease in
the: The following properties are different for isomers of the same
chemical compound except:
A. fluid density
B. fluid specific volume A. density
C. fluid temperature B. melting point
D. fluid pressure C. number of atoms in a mole of each isomers
D. specific heat
In an oxidation - reduction chemical reaction, all of the following
occur except: Atomic weights of the elements in the periodic table are not whole
numbers because of:
A. the exchange of electrons betwen elements
B. elements becoming more positive A. the existence of isotopes
C. elements becoming more negative B. imprecise measurements during the development of the
D. nuclear fusion periodic table
C. round - off error in calculating atomic weights
D. the exchange of reference of the atomic mass unit from
oxygen - 16 to carbon - 12 in 1961
The tendency of a pure compound to be composed of the same It is the ratio of the volume at the end of heat addituon to the volume
elements combined in a definite proportion by mass at the start of heat addition

A. Avogadro's law A. compression ratio

B. Boyle's law B. air-fuel ratio
C. The law of definite proportions C. volumetric ratio
D. Le Chatelier's principle D. cut-off ratio

How do you call the process of removing of impurities from a gas by Piston rings are made of:
bubbling it through a liquid purifying agent?
A. alloy steel
A. Gas scrubbing B. carbon steel
B. Gas purifying C. copper
C. Gas liquefying D. cast iron
D. Gas bubbling
Loss power is due to:
What is the effect of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
A. poor compression
A. absorb the exothermic heat of reaction B. restricted exhaust
B. provide the exothermic heat of reaction C. clogging of air cleaner
C. lower the activation energy D. low injection pressure
D. provide the heat of sublimation
A branch system of pipes to carry waste emissions away from the
The relationship between the concentration of products and reactants piston chambers of an internal combustion engine is called
in a reversible chemical reaction given by
A. exhaust nozzle
A. the ionization constant B. exhaust deflection pipe
B. the equilibrium constant C. exhaust pipe
C. the solibulity product D. exhaust manifold
D. Le Chatelier's principle
The type of filter where the filtering elements is replaceable
What fuel gas obtained by the destructive distillation of soft coal?
A. Paper edge filter
A. Gas crub B. Metal edge filter
B. Coal gas C. Pressure filter
C. Alcogas D. Filter with element
D. Water gas
When four events takes place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an
The process of splitting the nucleus into smaller fragments engine, the engine is called:

A. fusion A. rotary engine

B. fission B. steam engine
C. the photoelectric effect C. two stroke engine
D. the Compton effect D. four stroke engine

The ash that is removed from the combustor after the fuel is burn is Which of the following does not belong to the group?
the:
A. Air injection system
A. fly ash B. Mechanical injection system
B. bottom ash C. Time injection system
C. scraper ash D. Gas admission system
D. top ash
Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit described as:
A mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide made by passing
steam over hot coke A. J/kg
B. W/m°K
A. Water gas C. J/m^3
B. Water vapor D. J/kg°K
C. hydrocarbon
D. Air A device whose primary function is to meter the flow of refrigerant to
thr evaporator
All of the following are true of non-stoichiometric reactions except
A. Sniffer valve
A. there is an excess of one or more reactants B. Equalizer
B. the percentage yield measures the efficiency of the C. Thermostatic expansion valve
reaction D. Crossover valve
C. non - stoichiometric reactions are rare in the combustion
process The internal combustion engines never work in
D. In combustion, air is often the excess reactant to assure
complete combustion of fuel A. Rankine cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Dual combustion cycle
D. Otto cycle
The general chemical formula for all hydrocarbons is CnHm. In Hydrocarbons with 16 to 26 carbon atoms are referred to as:
different combinations of interest, as internal combustion engine fuel,
n varies from: A. light oils
B. heavy oils
A. 1 to 26 C. commercial fuels
B. 2 to 54 D. lubricating oils
C. 2 to 26
D. 1 to 54 In a four stroke engine if a valve opens 25° before B.D.C. and close
10° after T.D.C. the valve should be:
The general chemical formula for all hydrocarbons is CnHm. In
different combinations of interest, as internal combustion engine fuel A. puppet valve
m varies from :\ B. exhaust vale
C. inlet valve
A. 1 to 26 D. spring valve
B. 2 to 54
C. 2 to 26 In a hot wire anemometer the rate of heat loss from sensing element is
D. 1 to 54 a function of:

The general chemical formula of a paraffin fuel is A. mass rate of flow

B. pressure
A. CnH2n C. velocity of flow
B. CnH2n-6 D. all of the above
C. CnH2n+2
D. CnH2n-2 Sticking valves

Napthenes and olefins are types of hydrocarbons with chemical A. valve tappet clearance incorrect
formula of: B. valve springs of defective material
C. valve guides gummed
A. CnH2n D. lubricating oil of poor quality
B. CnH2n-6
C. CnH2n+2 Detonation of pinging noise is due to:
D. CnH2n-2
A. early timing of fuel injection
Which of the following types of hydrocarbons have chemical formula B. late timing of fuel injection
of CnH2n-2 ? C. head of piston carbonized
D. valve springs weak or broken
A. Diolefins
B. Aromatics The thermal efficiency of a dual cycle engine with fixed compression
C. Asphaltics ratio and fixed quantity of heat and with increase in pressure ratio, will
D. Paraffins
A. increase
Which of the following types of hydrocarbons have chemical formula B. remain the same
CnH2n-4? C. decrease
D. depends on other factors
A. Diolefins
B. Aromatics Scavenging efficiency of a four stroke diesel engine is
C. Asphaltics
D. Paraffins A. in the range 80 – 95 percent
B. in the range 60 – 80 percent
What is the chemical formula of an Aromatic type of hydrocarbon C. below 60 percent
fuels? D. between 95% and 100%

A. CnH2n-6 Volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be in the range

B. CnH2n-6 of:
C. CnH2n
D. CnH2n+2 A. 75 to 90 per cent
B. 60 to 75 per cent
At atmospheric condition, hydrocarbon molecules with a low number C. 30 to 50 per cent
of carbon atoms, 1 to 4 are D. below 30 per cent

A. Liquids During idling in a compression ignition engine that air fuel ratio may
B. Atomic be of the order of:
C. Gases
D. Light oils A. 30
B. 200
Hydrocarbons with 5 to 15 carbon atoms are: C. 150
D. 100
A. more or less volatile light oils
B. referred to as heavy oils Vapor lock is
C. mixtures of many kinds of hydrocarbons
D. commercial fuels A. lock of vaporization of fuel to atmospheric pressure
B. excess fuel supply to engine because of faster evaporation
C. complete or partial stoppage of fuel supply because of
vaporization of fuel in supply steam
D. locking carburetor jets because of water pressure
Flash point of liquids is the temperature at which: Which is not correct for calculating air standard efficiency?

A. the fuel emits vapors at a rate which produces an A. All processes are reversible
inflammable mixture with air B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all temperatures
B. the fuel spontaneously ignites C. No account of the mechanism of heat transfer is considered
C. the fuel ignite with clearly visible flash D. Gases dissociate at higher temperatures
D. the fuel ignites without a spark
The king pin inclination is generally:
The mean effective pressure of a diesel cycle having fixed
compression ratio will increase if cut off ratio is: A. less than 0.5°
B. between 1° and 2°
A. increased C. between 2° and 5°
B. decreased D. more than 9°
C. independent of compression ratio
D. depends on other factor For balancing single cylinder engine a counter weight is added to:

Hot spots A. piston

B. piston pin
A. do not exist in engines C. cam
B. are the hottest spots in engines D. crank
C. are the spots where heavier functions of fuel are vaporized
D. are the defects in S.I. in engines To measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of an
automobile engine we use as a __________
Flash point for diesel fuel oil should be:
A. vernier scale
A. maximum 49 °C B. feeler gauge
B. maximum 490 °C C. pneumatic gauge
C. maximum 200 °C D. slip gage
D. maximum 300 °C
By supercharging:
Morse test is conducted on:
A. power stroke becomes stronger
A. single – cylinder engines B. loss in exhaust gets reduced
B. multi – cylinder engines C. engine can be made to run smoother
C. horizontal engines D. thermal efficiency of the engine can be improved
D. vertical engines
Speedometer drive is generally taken from:
Prony brake is used for testing of:
A. dynamo
A. small engines B. flywheel
B. large engines C. fan belt
C. engines having small flywheel D. front wheel
D. high speed engines
Odometer is:
Clog point of an oil refer to:
A. an instrument that indicates the condition of the battery
A. the point of maximum contamination of oil B. an instrument used for measurement of fuel consumption
B. the level of impurities beyond which oil ceases to flow C. an instrument used for BHP measurement
C. the temperature at which oil solidifies D. an instrument used for distance measurement
D. the temperature at which paraffin and waxes in oil start
precipitating Automobile radiator is filled with:

Otto cycle consists of: A. acidic water

B. alkaline water
A. two isentropic and two constant volumes processes C. hard water
B. two isentropic and two constant pressure processes D. soft water
C. two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. two isothermal and two constant volume processes The ignition of coil acts as:

Diesel cycle consists of: A. a capacitor

B. an inductor
A. isentropic, isothermal, constant volume, constant pressure C. an RC circuit
process D. a step up transformer
B. two constant volume, one constant pressure, and one
isothermal process The self starting motor for automobiles is a:
C. two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant
pressure processes A. universal motor
D. two constant pressure, one constant volume, and one B. DC shunt motor
isentropic processes C. DC series motor
D. Synchronous motor
Starting motor current may be about Latex is:

A. 0.15 A A. a plastic
B. 0.5 A B. a cover on writes carrying current to spark plugs
C. 5.1 A C. a variety of lubricant
D. 25 A D. a milky juice of rubber

As a rule before the piston are removed, it is essential to remove the: Cross wire grooves on tires

A. grudgeon pin A. decrease the danger of skidding

B. circlip B. absorbs shocks because of road unevenness
C. piston rings C. provide good traction
D. crankshaft D. provide better load carrying capacity

Common causes for excessive oil consumption include: The Diesel fuel pump is designed to supply fuel

A. heavy oil and light bearings A. just sufficient against the demand of the injection pump
B. high speed and worn engine B. in excess quantity than needed by the injection pump
C. short trips and cold weather C. a constant quantity at all engine speeds
D. frequent oil changes D. insufficient quantity in accordance with the engine speed

The device that is used for reducing the exhaust noise is called The fuel is injected into the cylinder in Diesel engine when the piston
_________ is:

A. exhaust manifold A. exactly at B.D.C after compression stroke

B. exhaust pipe B. exactly at T.D.C before compression stroke
C. muffler C. approaching T.D.C. during compression stroke
D. none of the above D. approaching B.D.C during exhaust stoke

The device that is used to measure the clearance between the valve In the cam, the distance between the base circle and the nose is
and tappet of an internal combustion engine is measured by using: known as _______

A. snap gauge A. flank

B. slip gauge B. nose
C. feeler gauge C. lobe
D. micrometer D. lift

Which of the following instrument is used in measuring specific Dirt or gum in fuel nozzle or jets can produce:
gravity?
A. excessive fuel consumption
A. Thermometer B. lack of engine power
B. Hygrometer C. smoky black exhaust
C. Anemometer D. white exhaust
D. Hydrometer
Oil pan is attached:
Exhaust gas leakage into the cooling system is most likely to occur
because of defective: A. to the bottom of the cylinder block
B. in a separate unit away from the crankcase
A. cylinder head gasket C. at the top of the cylinder block
B. manifold gasket D. at the outside wall of the crank case
C. water pump
D. any of the above Excess oil consumption in engine may be because of

Clutch slippage while clutch is engaged is specially noticeable A. leakage of oil through oil pan gasket
___________ B. poor quality or improper viscosity of engine oil
C. excessive oil pressure
A. during idling D. any of the above
B. at low speed
C. during acceleration Wheel base of a vehicle is the:
D. during braking
A. distance between front and rear axles
To engage securely and prevent dragging the clearance between B. distance between the front tires
release bearing and release collar in a clutch is generally: C. extreme length of the vehicle
D. width of tires
A. 2 – 3 mm
B. 10 – 12 mm The percentage of heat released from fuel – air mixture, in an internal
C. 20 – 22 mm combustion engine which is converted into useful work is roughly:
D. 30 – 32 mm
A. 10 per cent
Grudgeon pins are made of: B. 10 – 20 per cent
C. 20 – 25 per cent
A. same material as that of piston D. 40 – 45 per cent
B. cast iron
C. hardened and ground steel
D. none of these
The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is: In a vehicle the most probably cause for hard steering may be:

A. about 90 per cent A. low tire pressure

B. 60 – 80 per cent B. bent wheel spindle
C. 50 – 60 per cent C. tie rod ends tight
D. 40 – 50 per cent D. any of the above

The instrument that is used to check the state of charge of a battery is Poor compression in a two stroke engine cannot be because of:
called a ____________
A. leaky valves
A. hydrometer B. broken piston rings
B. battery charger C. leaking cylinder head gasket
C. battery eliminator D. poor fits between pistons, rings and cylinder
D. anemometer
The number of exhaust manifolds in a V – 8 engine is:
When not in use, the self discharge of an automobile battery in dry
weather is generally: A. one
B. four
A. 0.5 to 1% C. there is no exhaust manifold
B. 3 to 5% D. two
C. 5 to 7.5%
D. not more than 10% The device for smoothing out the power impulses from the engine is
known as:
A laminated glass on cracking:
A. clutch
A. bursts into sharp edged fragments B. fly wheel
B. bursts into granular pieces C. gear box
C. sandwitched layer taps the fragments D. differential
D. breaks into the farm of crystals
The firing order in case of four cylinder in – line engines is generally
Wax is applied on car body as: ________

A. it is water repellent A. 1–2–4–3

B. it seals off the pores B. 1–3–4–2
C. the surface shines C. 1–4–3–2
D. any of the above D. either B or C

A spark voltage requires a voltage of: In case of four cylinder opposed cylinder engines, the firing order is:

A. 112 V A. 1–4–3–2
B. 124 V B. 1–3–4–2
C. 220 V C. 1–2–3–4
D. 440 V D. 1–2–4–3

The minimum cranking speed in petrol engine is: In a four stroke engine, for the combustion of one liter of fuel, the
volume of air needed would be approximately
A. same as the normal operating speed
B. half of operating speed A. 1 cu.m
C. one fourth of operating speed B. 2 cu.m
D. 60 – 80 rpm C. 5 – 7 cu.m
D. 9 – 10 cu.m
Which oil is more viscous?
Theoretically air needed for the combustion of one kg of fuel is:
A. SAE 30
B. SAE 50 A. 100 kg
C. SAE 80 B. 14.5 kg
D. SAE 40 C. 16.7 kg
D. 27.4 kg
Engine oil is generally changed after:
Which of the following is the cause of loss power?
A. 100 km
B. 1500 km A. Poor compression
C. 1100 km B. Restricted exhaust
D. 2500 – 6000 km C. Clogging of air pressure
D. Low injection pressure
The most probable cause for uneven wear of tires for a truck is:
A valve in the carburetor of an internal combustion engines which
A. low tire pressure regulates the proportion of air gasoline vapors entering the cylinder
B. excessive camber
C. tires over loaded A. Gate valve
D. any of the above B. Choke valve
C. Check valve
D. Globe valve
What device combines air and fuel for burning in cylinder? All of the following are characteristics of metals except:

A. Intercooler A. high electrical conductivities

B. Regenerator B. tendency to form positive ions
C. Fuel injection C. tendency to form brittle solids
D. Carburetor D. high melting points

A passive restraint device consisting of bags in front of the driver and The following are all characteristics of nonmetals except
passenger
A. having little or no luster
A. Air buoy B. appearing on the right end of the periods table
B. Air bag C. having low ductility
C. Air balloon D. being reducing agents
D. Air duct
Graduations in the properties of elements from one elements to the
The heat exchanger used in an Ericsson cycle is: next are less pronounced in:

A. regenerator A. the lanthanide series

B. combustion chamber B. periods
C. intercooler C. groups
D. recuperator D. active metals

In Stirling engine, the heat is added during All of the following are components of a chemical elements except:

A. isothermal process A. protons

B. isometric process B. neutrons
C. isobaric process C. electrons
D. isentropic process D. ions

In an Otto engine, the heat is added during Which of the following is not a prefix used in naming isomers?

A. isothermal process A. Para

B. isometric process B. Meta
C. isobaric process C. Cis
D. isentropic process D. Bi

Exhaust stroke of gasoline engine is also known as All of the following are types of chemical bonds except:

A. supercharging A. ionic bonds

B. choking B. covalent bonds
C. scavenging C. metallic bonds
D. knocking D. nuclear bonds

The mechanical efficiency of a device is the ratio of the The equilibrium distance between elements in an ionic bond is
function of all the following except:
A. mechanical energy input to the mechanical energy output
of the device A. ionic charge
B. ideal energy input to the actual energy input B. coordination number
C. actual energy extracted to the ideal energy extracted C. atomic weight
D. actual to the ideal energy input D. temperature

The smallest subdivision of an element that can take place in a Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of ionic
chemical reaction is a/an compounds?

A. atom A. They are usually hard, brittle, crystalline solids

B. molecule B. They have high melting points
C. electron C. They are nonvolatile and have low vapor pressures
D. proton D. They are good electrical conductors in the solid phase

The smallest subdivision of a compound that can exist in a natural What kind of bonding do common gases that exist in a free state as
state is a/an diatomic molecules experience?

A. atom A. Ionic bonds

B. molecule B. Covalent bonds
C. electron C. Metallic bonds
D. proton D. Nuclear bonds

Elements with different atomic weights but the same atomic number Measure the diffuser’s ability to increase the pressure of the fluid is:
are:
A. speed recovery factor
A. isomers B. pressure recovery factor
B. isotropes C. volume recovery factor
C. isotopes D. diffuser recovery factor
D. isobars
A decrease in stagnation pressure will decrease the mass flux through The color of lubricating oil:
the:
A. does not indicate contamination
A. diverging nozzle B. does not indicate qualities
B. converging nozzle C. indicates qualities
C. converging – diverging nozzle D. indicates viscosity
D. none of these
There are two broad types in the classification of lubricating oils, these
What is the main power generating plant, that produces the most are straight and
electricity per unit thermal energy in the fuel input and has the
greatest surplus of electricity for most cogeneration system? A. active
B. inactive
A. Steam engine C. crooked
B. Steam turbine D. additives
C. Gas turbine
D. Diesel engine Most commercially available petroleum lubricating oil deteriorates
starting from operating temperature of:
Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on:
A. 150 °F
A. speed B. 200 °F
B. compression ratio C. 300 °F
C. fuel D. 250 °F
D. torque
An Orsat apparatus is used for:
What is meant by brake horsepower?
A. volumetric analysis of the flue gases
A. Power developed in the engine cylinder B. gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
B. Final horsepower delivered to the equipment C. smoke density analysis of the gases
C. Actual horsepower delivered to the engine drive shaft D. all of the above
D. Work required to raise a weight of 33,000 lbs at a height of
one foot in one minute of time The indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of
gasoline
Average pressure on a surface when a changing pressure condition
exist A. Aniline point
B. Cetane number
A. back pressure C. Octane number
B. partial pressure D. Diesel index
C. pressure drop
D. mean effective pressure Amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit
weight or volume of fuel is:
What air pressure is needed for air starting a diesel engine?
A. heating value
A. 350 psi B. latent heat
B. 250 psi C. sensible heat
C. 450 psi D. work of compression
D. 150 psi
Air that controls the rate of combustion in the combustion chamber is
Mechanical energy of pressure transformed into energy of heat: known as:

A. Kinetic energy A. secondary air

B. Enthalpy B. excess air
C. Heat exchanger C. control air
D. Heat of compression D. primary air

Ignition of the air – fuel mixture in the intake of the exhaust manifold Percentage of excess air is the difference between the air actually
supplied and the theoretically required divided by:
A. Backlash
B. Backfire A. actual air supplied
C. Exhaust pressure B. theoretical air supplied
D. Back pressure C. theoretical less actual supplied
D. deficient air supplied
The total sulfur content in a diesel fuel must not exceed
When fuel oil has a high viscosity then the fuel oil
A. 0.3 %
B. 0.5 % A. will evaporate easily
C. 0.8 % B. will have a low specific gravity
D. 0.11 % C. will burn without smoke
D. will flow slowly though pipes
Total sulfur content in a diesel fuel oil must not exceed
Engines using heavy fuels require heating of the fuel so that the
A. 0.2 % viscosity at the injector is:
B. 0.5 %
C. 0.15 % A. around 200 SSU
D. 0.1 % B. 100 SSU or less
C. 200 SSU + 50
D. 150 SSU or slightly higher
 The property of liquid in which they extend resistance to angular or
A gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil and cannot be found in shear deformation is:
the flue gases is:
A. specific gravity
A. carbon dioxide B. specific weight
B. hydrogen C. viscosity
C. oxygen D. density
D. nitrogen
A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and
Amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit will help determine how long oil will flow at a given temperature is
weight or volume of fuel is: known as:

A. heating value A. viscosity

B. latent heat B. flash point
C. sensible heat C. cloud point
D. work of compression D. cloud point

The products of complete combustion of gaseous hydrocarbons The minimum amount of air required for a complete combustion of
fuel is called ______
A. Carbon dioxide and water
B. Carbon monoxide A. dry air
C. Carbon monoxide, water and ammonia B. excess air
D. Water, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide C. theoretical air
D. flue gas
When the water in the products of combustion is in the vapor state,
the heating value is: The temperature at which lubricating will form a cloud

A. lower heating value A. Cloud point

B. higher heating value B. Pour point
C. gross calorific value C. Critical point
D. average heating value D. Boiling point

At what temperature wherein an oil of any grade becomes cloudy The ideal cycle based on the concept that the combustion process is
and it freezes, thus its application is limited. both diesel and gasoline in the combination of heat transfer
processes that is constant pressure and constant volume
A. Cold point
B. Flash point A. Ericsson cycle
C. Pour point B. Dual cycle
D. Freezing point C. Brayton cycle
D. Rankine cycle
Dry air can be approximated as ___ % oxygen and ___ % nitrogen by
mole numbers. The unit used for expressing API gravity is:

A. 30 % and 70 % A. gm/cc
B. 70 % and 30 % B. dimensionless number
C. 21 % and 79 % C. degrees
D. 79 % and 21 % D. none of the above

When H2O in the products of combustion is in liquid form, the heating ASTM coal classification is based on
value is known as
A. proximate analysis
A. higher heating value B. orsat analysis
B. lower heating value C. ultimate analysis
C. low and medium heating value D. none of the above
D. average heating value
API gravity of water is:
Flow of fluids wherein its particles do not have definite paths and the
paths of the individual and distinct particles cross one another is: A. zero
B. 10
A. non-uniform flow C. 1.0
B. unsteady flow D. 100
C. laminar flow
D. turbulent flow Which of the following variety of coal has highest ash content?

If the composition of hydrocarbon fuel is known, the ratio between the A. Lignite
nitrogen and oxygen that is supplied in air is: B. Bituminous coal
C. Grade I steam coal
A. equal D. Coking coal
B. constant
C. intensity Which of the following is a petroleum fuel?
D. fixed
A. Benzol
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Methyl alcohol
D. Naphta
Diesel engine fuels are rated by:

A. specific gravity
B. calorific value
C. cetane number
D. octane number

Which of the following needs to be filtered in a diesel engine?

A. Air only
B. Lubricating oil only
C. Air and diesel oil only
D. Air, diesel oil and lubricating oil
An engine in which the fuel is burned directly within the working Increasing the total amount of charging air in the working cylinder of
cylinder the engine

A. internal combustion engine A. scavenging

B. external combustion engine B. supercharging
C. compression ignition engine C. choking
D. spark ignition engine D. knocking

An engine in which the fuel is burned outside of the power cylinder The portion of the piston which extends below the piston pin and
serves as a guide for the piston and connecting rod
A. internal combustion engine
B. external combustion engine A. piston skirt
C. compression ignition engine B. piston ring
D. spark ignition engine C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure
An engine where the ignition is cause by heat of compression
Rings located in the grooves of the piston usually near the top and
A. internal combustion engine near the bottom
B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine A. piston skirt
D. spark ignition engine B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
What temperature is required to ignite the fuel oil? D. piston seizure

A. 800 to 1000 F Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall as a result of the lubrication
B. 700 to 900 F having been destroyed by excessive temperature and friction
C. 900 to 1100 F
D. 1000 to 1200 F A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
What air pressure is required to produce the required ignition C. piston scoring
temperature? D. piston seizure

A. 350 to 500 psi Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or in both. It is caused by the
B. 250 to 400 psi piton scraping the cylinder wall in its movement without proper
C. 450 to 600 psi lubrication
D. 150 to 300 psi
A. piston skirt
In a four stroke Diesel engine, drawing air into the cylinder is what B. piston ring
stroke? C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure
A. first stroke
B. second stroke A device which automatically governs or controls the speed of an
C. third stroke engine
D. fourth stroke
A. servomotor
Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is B. governor
C. indicator
A. first stroke D. speedometer
B. second stroke
C. third stroke A combination of liquids which do not mix – or combine chemically
D. fourth stroke
A. emulsion
Which of the following strokes is produced by the burning gases B. deposition
C. evaporation
A. first stroke D. separation
B. second stroke
C. third stroke What temperature should be the maximum to which lubricating oil is
D. fourth stroke permitted to rise?

Which of the following strokes expels the burned gases? A. not more than 100 F
B. not more than 200 F
A. first stroke C. not more than 300 F
B. second stroke D. not more than 400 F
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke What air pressure is needed for air starting a Diesel engine?

Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into it a current of air A. 250 psi
which provides clean air for the next compression stroke B. 150 psi
C. 350 psi
A. scavenging D. 450 psi
B. supercharging
C. choking
D. knocking
At what temperature will self igniting cartridges ignite? How are high speed Diesel engines started?

A. About 200 F A. by an electric motor

B. About 190 F B. by compressed air
C. About 210 F C. by a diesel fuel
D. About 250 F D. by an electric spark

The fuel is supplied by one pump and switched to each cylinder by a What speeds are considered high speed diesel engine?
multi outlet rotating valve or distributor
A. 100 to 2000 rpm or 3000 rpm
A. distributor system B. 100 to 1000 rpm
B. injector system C. 100 to 1500 rpm
C. non injector system D. 100 to 1750 rpm
D. non distributor system
It is a device used for atomizing or cracking fuel oil and through
This is virtually a distributor two stage pumping system, that is, which the fuel oil is injected into the working cylinders of Diesel
modified distributor system engines

A. distributor system A. atomizer

B. injector system B. fuel spray nozzle
C. non injector system C. injector
D. non distributor system D. cracker

A chamber so proportioned with respect to the clearance volume What is the proper seat width of a spray valve?
proper of the cylinder that only about 30 % of the combustion takes
place with in the chamber itself A. 1/16 in.
B. 1/8 in.
A. pre combustion chamber C. 1/32 in.
B. separate combustion chamber D. 1/4 in.
C. ante combustion chamber
D. mixed combustion chamber A cylindrical vessel connected in the fuel system to absorb the shock
of the injection pumps and to provide a reservoir at high pressure for
The entire charge is ignited in the separate combustion chamber supplying an even flow of fuel oil to the cylinders
before the initial expansion takes place, forcing the burning gases
through the connecting passages and against the moving piston A. absorber
B. accumulator
A. pre combustion chamber C. governor
B. separate combustion chamber D. injector
C. ante combustion chamber
D. mixed combustion chamber How hot are the exhaust gases?

A chamber so designed that injection takes place directly opposite A. 400 to 700 F
its outlet, the chamber extending backward from the outlet B. 300 to 600 F
C. 200 to 500 F
A. pre combustion chamber D. 500 to 800 F
B. separate combustion chamber
C. ante combustion chamber Which of the following is an automatic device used for keeping
D. air cell chamber constant air pressure?

Fuel is injected only into the main cylinder, during expansion of the A. relief valve
burning gases in the main chamber, when the pressure therein drops B. unloader
below that of the air in the cell C. strainer
D. barometer
A. pre combustion chamber
B. separate combustion chamber What is the other term of the diameter of the circular cylinder?
C. ante combustion chamber
D. air cell chamber A. bore
B. stroke
What is the temperature of the air in the cylinder when the Diesel C. swept volume
engine is operating at full load? D. clearance

A. between 800 and 1100 F What do you call the maximum distance traveled by the piston?
B. between 800 and 1000 F
C. between 900 and 1200 F A. bore
D. between 900 and 1100 F B. stroke
C. swept volume
What are the exhaust gas temperatures at normal operating D. clearance
conditions?
Which of the following is the product of the cylinder area and stroke
A. between 400 and 700 F
B. between 500 and 800 F A. bore
C. between 300 and 600 F B. stroke
D. between 200 and 500 F C. swept volume
D. clearance
The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept volume What is the peak power rating that can be produced on an
occasional basis?
A. fractional clearance
B. compression ratio A. brakepower
C. expansion ratio B. continuous duty rating
D. cut off ratio C. intermittent rating
D. power rating
The piston at maximum reach from the crankshaft to which of the
following? Which of the following is the value of a property that includes the
effect of friction?
A. top dead center
B. bottom dead center A. brake value
C. ¾ from top center B. friction value
D. ¾ from bottom center C. indicated value
D. actual value
The piston is closest to the crankshaft to which of the following?

A. top dead center

B. bottom dead center
C. ¾ from top center
D. ¾ from bottom center

Which of the following engines where the expanding combustion

gases act on one end of the piston?

A. single acting engine

B. double acting engine
C. single expansion engine
D. double expansion engine

Which of the following types of engine where the expanding

combustion gases act on both ends of the piston?

A. single acting engine

B. double acting engine
C. single expansion engine
D. double expansion engine

The compression ratio of a Diesel engine varies from about:

A. 13.5 to 17.5
B. 8 to 10
C. 14 to 19
D. 10.5 to 14.5

In standard Diesel, thermal efficiency was not much higher than

about what percent?

A. 35 %
B. 30 %
C. 40 %
D. 50 %

A closed heat exchanger that transfers heat from compressed air to

cooler air

A. regenerator
B. intercooler
C. aftercooler
D. reheater

Which of the following is used to improve cold weather starting?

A. poppet valve
B. glow plug
C. check valve
D. spark plug

The rated power that the manufacturer claims the engine is able to
provide on a continuous basis without incurring damage

A. brakepower
B. continuous duty rating
C. intermittent rating
D. power rating
Brayton cycle has: Which of the following turbine has least weight per bhp developed?

A. two isentropic and two constant volume processes A. Simple open cycle gas turbine
B. two isentropic and two constant pressure processes B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling and reheating
C. one constant pressure, one constant volume, and two C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter – cooling, reheating and
adiabatic processes regenerating
D. two isothermals, one constant volume and a constant D. Closed cycle gas turbine
pressure process
Which of the following is/are advantage of closed cycle gas turbine
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for over open cycle gas turbine?
same adiabatic compression ratio and work output because:
A. no containing of working substance with combustion gases
A. Otto cycle is highly efficient B. inferior quality fuel can be used
B. Brayton cycle is less efficient C. low maintenance costs
C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only D. all of the above
D. large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficiently
handled in reciprocating engines The range of compression ratio in a gas turbine is:

Which cycle is generally used for gas turbine? A. 3 to 5

B. 5 to 8
A. Otto cycle C. 8 to 12
B. Dual cycle D. 12 to 20
C. Carnot cycle
D. Brayton cycle A constant volume combustion gas turbine operates on:

When r is the compression ratio, the efficiency of Brayton cycle is A. Ericsson cycle
given by: B. Joule cycle
C. Brayton cycle
A. 1 – 1/r^[(k-1)/k] D. Atkinson cycle
B. 1 – 1/r^(k-1)
C. 1 – 1/r^k Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer between the exhaust
D. 1 – 1/r gases and the air prior to its entrance to the combustor

A regenerator in a gas turbine: A. Evaporator

B. Combustion chamber
A. reduces heat loss during exhaust C. Regenerator
B. allows use of higher compression ratio D. Heater
C. improves thermal efficiency
D. allows use of fuels of inferior quality How does the value of work per unit mass flow of air in the
compressor and turbine influenced by the addition of a regenerator?
Which of the following compressors is generally used for gas turbines?
A. Slightly increased
A. lobe type B. Unchanged
B. centrifugal type C. Greatly decreased
C. axial flow type D. Greatly increased
D. reciprocating type
What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work?
The constant pressure gas turbine works on the principle of:
A. Brayton cycle
A. Carnot cycle B. Stag combined cycle
B. Bell – Coleman cycle C. Bottom cycle
C. Rankine cycle D. Ericsson cycle
D. Brayton cycle
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for
What type of gas turbine is used in air craft? same adiabatic compression ratio and work output because:

A. Open cycle type A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient

B. Closed cycle type with reheating B. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only
C. Closed type with reheating and regeneration C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio
D. Open cycle type with reheating, regeneration and D. large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficient handled
intercooling in reciprocating engines

In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste heat boiler is used to: In order to increase the gas velocity gas turbines generally have fixed
nozzles. This is to allow the:
A. heat air from intercooler
B. gases from regenerator A. compression of gases
C. recover heat from exhaust gases B. condensation of gases
D. none of the above C. expansion of gases
D. evaporation of gases
Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is:

A. equal to Carnot cycle efficiency

B. equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C. less than Diesel cycle efficiency
D. more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
Combustion turbines or gas turbines are the preferred combustion The temperature of the gas entering the expander section is typically:
engines in application much above ___________
A. 1200 C to 1290 C
A. 8 MW B. 1000 C to 1200 C
B. 9 MW C. 1500 C to 1490 C
C. 10 MW D. 1300 C to 1390 C
D. 7 MW
The exhaust temperature which makes the exhaust ideal heat source
Large units gas turbine regularly operate: for combined cycles is typically:

A. in 100 to 200 MW range A. 540 C to 590 C

B. in 50 t0 100 MW range B. 600 C to 650 C
C. over 150 MW C. 300 C to 350 C
D. below 150 MW D. 440 C to 490 C

Small units gas turbine operate below Most combustion turbines have:

A. 20 MW A. 2 to 3 expander stages
B. 12 MW B. 3 to 4 expander stages
C. 30 MW C. 4 to 5 expander stages
D. 24 MW D. 1 to 2 expander stages

Heavy duty gas turbines typically have: The exhaust flow rate in modern heavy duty turbines per 100 MW is
approximately:
A. double shafts
B. single shaft A. 240 to 250 kg/s
C. triple shafts B. 140 to 150 kg/s
D. quadruple shafts C. 340 to 350 kg/s
D. 440 to 450 kg/s
Which of the following is basically a jet engine that exhausts into a
turbine generator? The Brayton gas turbine cycle is also known as:

A. aeroderivative gas turbine A. Joule cycle

B. industrial gas turbine B. Stirling cycle
C. Brayton engine C. Ericsson cycle
D. Joule turbine D. Atkinson cycle

Most aeroderivative combustion turbine produce less than: Approximately how many percent of the turbine power is used to
drive the high efficiency compressor?
A. 20 MW
B. 30 MW A. 50 to 75 %
C. 40 MW B. 60 to 85 %
D. 50 MW C. 45 to 70 %
D. 30 to 55 %
The compression ratio based on pressures in the compression stage in
a gas turbine is typically: Depending on the turbine construction details, the temperature of the
air entering the turbine will be between:
A. 11 to 16
B. 5 to 8 A. 650 C to 1000 C
C. 12 to 18 B. 750 C to 1100 C
D. 8 to 14 C. 550 C to 950 C
D. 850 C to 1200 C
The compression ratio based on pressures of heavy duty gas turbine is
in the range of _________ Which of the following engines are typically used by Turbojet and
turboprop?
A. 14 to 15
B. 19 to 21 A. open combustors
C. 11 to 16 B. closed combustors
D. 16 to 18 C. turbo combustors
D. high combustors
Aeroderivative combustion turbine have higher compression ratios
typically: The full load thermal efficiency of existing heavy duty combustion
turbines in simple cycles is approximately:
A. 14 to 15
B. 19 to 21 A. 34 to 36 %
C. 11 to 16 B. 30 to 32 %
D. 16 to 18 C. 40 to 42 %
D. 26 to 28 %
Most heavy duty combustion turbines have how many compression
stages? New combustion turbines on the cutting edge of technology (
Advanced turbine systems) are able to achieve
A. 14 to 16
B. 18 to 20 A. 38 to 38.5 %
C. 10 to 12 B. 36 to 36.5 %
D. 16 to 18 C. 40 to 40.5 %
D. 34 to 34.5 %
Aeroderivative turbines commonly achieve efficiencies up to: If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the compressor power then the
network is:
A. 42 %
B. 38 % A. Wt x Wc
C. 45 % B. Wc / Wt
D. 35 % C. Wt – Wc
D. Wt + Wc
Which of the following is the typical backwork ratio of gas turbines?
Physical limitations usually preclude more than how many stages of
A. 50 to 75 % intercooling and reheating?
B. 40 to 65 %
C. 30 to 55% A. 2
D. 35 to 60 % B. 3
C. 4
Which of the following is an example of a regenerator? D. 5

A. a counterflow heat exchanger

B. a cross flow heat exchanger
C. a mixed flow heat exchanger
D. a parallel flow heat exchanger

Which of the following is an effect of having a regenerator?

A. less heat is added

B. compressor work is reduced
C. turbine work is increased
D. compressor work is increased

A regenerator in a gas turbine has no effect in:

A. compressor and turbine work

B. heat work
C. thermal efficiency
D. combustor

In a Brayton cycle multiple stages of compression and expansion will

_________

A. increase thermal efficiency

B. decrease thermal efficiency
C. limit thermal efficiency
D. control efficiency

In a Brayton cycle, reheating and intercooling will _________

A. increase thermal efficiency

B. decrease thermal efficiency
C. limit thermal efficiency
D. control efficiency

In a Brayton cycle, reheating has no effect in:

A. heat added
B. thermal efficiency
C. backwork ratio
D. Network

In a Brayton cycle, intercooling has no effect in:

A. turbine work
B. thermal efficiency
C. backwork ratio
D. network

If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the compressor power, then the

backwork ratio is

A. Wt/Wc
B. Wc/Wt
C. (Wt – Wc)/Wt
D. (Wt – Wc)/Wc
Which of the following factors does bursting pressure of boiler does’nt In case of steam engine the cut off ratio is the ratio of:
depend?
A. pressure at cut off to supply pressure
A. Tensile strength of the shell B. pressure at cut off to exhaust pressure
B. Thickness of the shell C. pressure at cut off to mean effective pressure
C. Diameter of the shell D. fraction of piston stroke which the piston has traveled when
D. Shear strength of shell material cut of occurs

Which of the following factors does working pressure of boiler does’nt In a condensing steam engine
depend?
A. condensed steam engine
A. Tensile strength of shell B. steam condenses inside cylinder
B. Thickness of shell C. steam condenses as soon as it leaves the cylinder
C. Factor of safety D. exhaust steam is condensed in a condenser
D. Type of fuel being fired
Flows through the nozzles and diffusers with increasing fluid velocity
Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depend upon will create an equivalent

A. boiler pressure A. decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid

B. quantity of steam to be generated B. increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
C. type of fuel available C. decrease in the internal energy of fluid
D. quantity of steam D. decrease in the dynamic enthalpy of fluid

A high pressure chamber or a device in which the paths of rapidly The term V^2/2Cp responds to the temperature rise during such a
moving particles can be observed and photographed process and is called the

A. Cloud chamber A. kinetic temperature

B. Combustion chamber B. high temperature
C. Fission chamber C. dynamic temperature
D. Air chamber D. elevation temperature

The formation of gas bubbles in a liquid is called All of the following mechanism can supply heat to a thermodynamic
system except
A. bubbling
B. foaming A. conduction
C. priming B. natural convection
D. carryover C. adiabatic expansion
D. radiation
How many check valves should be provided between any feed
pump and boiler? The flow through the nozzle is

A. 1 A. isentropic
B. 2 B. polytropic
C. 3 C. isobaric
D. 4 D. isovolumic

The water level inside the boiler is indicated by the If the reservoir is sufficiently large, the nozzle inlet velocity is

A. baffles A. maximum
B. fusible plug B. negative
C. water walls C. positive
D. water column D. zero

What is the highest pressure under which distinguishable liquid and Which of the following is the pressure applied at the nozzle discharge
vapor phases can exist in equilibrium? section?

A. Maximum pressure A. Stagnant pressure

B. Atmosphere B. Critical pressure
C. Critical pressure C. Back pressure
D. Peak pressure D. Atmospheric pressure

What is the average fuel – oil temperature range of the oil in the When the back pressure is reduced to lowest exit pressure, the mass
discharge line to the boiler? flow reaches a maximum value and the flow is said to be:

A. 180 – 200 °F A. stacked

B. 240 – 260 °F B. choked
C. 160 – 180 °F C. stuck-up
D. 140 – 160 °F D. clog-up

The lowest permissible water level of a boiler without internal surface An increase in stagnation pressure will increase the mass flux through
is _____ the height of the shell the:

A. 1/2 A. diverging nozzle

B. 1/3 B. converging nozzle
C. 1/4 C. converging – diverging nozzle
D. 1/5 D. none of these
A converging – diverging nozzle is the standard equipment in: Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer the heat given by the furnace
to the water and steam is:
A. subsonic aircraft
B. supersonic aircraft A. grate efficiency
C. hypersonic aircraft B. stroke efficiency
D. trisonic aircraft C. furnace efficiency
D. boiler efficiency
For back pressure valves, abrupt changes in fluid properties occur in
a very thin section of converging – diverging nozzle under supersonic A goose neck is installed in the line connecting a steam gauge to a
flow conditions, creating boiler to:

A. sound wave A. maintain constant steam flow

B. tidal wave B. protect the gauge element
C. shock wave C. prevent steam knocking
D. none of these D. maintain steam pressure

Is the locus of states which have the same value of stagnation Which of the following is a great advantage of a fire tube boiler?
enthalpy and mass flux are called:
A. Steam pressure is not ready
A. Fanno Line B. Contains a large volume of water and requires long interval
B. Straight Line of time to raise steam and not so flexible as to changes in
C. Willan’s Line steam demand
D. Cross Cut Line C. Cannot use impure water
D. Radiation losses are higher because fire is inside the boiler
Combination of mass and momentum equations into a single and surrounded by water
equation and plotted in h-s plane yield a curve called:
One of the following tasks which is an example of preventive
A. Fair Line maintenance is
B. Freh Line
C. Cutting Line A. cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner
D. Rayleigh Line B. cleaning a completely clog oil strainer
C. replacing a leaking valve
Generally steam turbines in power station operate at D. replacing a blown fuse

A. 3000 rpm The carbon dioxide (CO2) percentage in the flue gas of an efficiency
B. 1000 rpm fired boiler should be approximately
C. 4000 rpm
D. 575 rpm A. 1%
B. 12 %
Which of the following shows the relationship of the steam C. 18 %
consumption and the load of steam turbine – generator? D. 20 %

A. Dalton’s line When droplets of water are carried by steam in the boiler
B. Willan’s line
C. Jonval’s line A. Priming
D. Rankine line B. Foaming
C. Carryover
An inventor proposes to develop electrical power by withdrawing D. Embrittlement
heat from the geyser fields of northern California and converting it all
to work in power turbines. This scheme will not work because: The process in which heat energy is transferred to a thermal energy
storage device is known as:
A. the geyser fields have only a limited lifetime
B. the salinity of the steam is too great A. adiabatic
C. it violates the first law of thermodynamics B. regeneration
D. it violates the second law of thermodynamics C. intercooling
D. isentropic
The isentropic efficiency of a turbine is given by
When the boiler pressure increases or when the exhaust pressure
A. the ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted decreases, the amount of moisture
B. the ratio of actual of ideal energy inputted
C. the ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted A. Increases
D. none of the above B. decreases
C. constant
Which of the following is not a main part of a typical coal burner? D. zero

A. Air registers When the number of reheat stages in a reheat cycle is increased, the
B. Nozzle average temperature
C. Atomizer
D. Ignitor A. increases
B. decreases
C. is constant
D. is zero
A heat transfer device that reduces a thermodynamic fluid from its In a water tube boiler, heat and gases of combustion passed:
vapor phase to its liquid phase such as in vapor compression
refrigeration plant or in a condensing steam power plant A. through the combustion chamber only
B. through the tubes
A. Flash vessel C. away from tubes
B. Cooling tower D. around the tubes
C. Condenser
D. Steam separator A chemical method of feedwater treatment which uses calcium
hydroxide and sodium bicarbonate as reagents
A simultaneous generation of electricity and steam (or heat) in a
single power plant A. Thermal treatment
B. Lime soda treatment
A. Gas turbine C. Demineralization process
B. Steam turbine D. Ion exchange treatment
C. Waste heat recovery
D. Cogeneration The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle as compared to steam
turbine or gas turbine is
Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure
corresponding to its temperature A. greater than
B. less than
A. Compressed liquid C. lower than
B. Saturated liquid D. equal to
C. Saturated vapor
D. Superheated vapor A rapid increase in boiler pressure occurs when there is:

In a steam generator with good combustion control, what occurs if A. moderate drop in steam load
the load is increased? B. constant drop in steam load
C. abrupt drop in steam load
A. Air temperature leaving air heater decreases D. gradual drop in steam load
B. Air temperature entering air heater increases
C. Furnace pressure is approximately constant The most economical and low maintenance cost condenser
D. Economizer gas outlet temperature decreases
A. Water – cooled
Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depend upon B. Air – cooled
C. Evaporative
A. boiler pressure D. Sub – cooled
B. type of fuel available
C. quantity of steam to be generated What is commonly used done to system when the turbine has
D. quantity of steam excessive moisture?

The gaseous state of water A. Frosting

B. Diffusing
A. Water gas C. Reheating
B. Blue gas D. Dehumidifying
C. Water vapor
D. Yellow gas What is the result when the fluid’s kinetic energy during a stagnation
process is transformed to enthalpy?
A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals
A. decrease in fluids volume
A. the gage pressure B. rise in the temp. and pressure the fluid
B. the critical pressure C. rise in fluid’s volume
C. the ambient pressure D. decrease in the temp. and pressure of fluid
D. one standard atmosphere
How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a
What are the main components in a combined cycle power plant? Rankine cycle be decreased?

A. Diesel engine and air compressor A. increase boiler pressure

B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler B. increase turbine pressure
C. Steam boiler and turbine C. increase condenser pressure
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler D. reduce turbine exit pressure

A change in the efficiency of combustion in a boiler can usually be Which of the following ascertains the effectiveness and the size of a
determined by comparing the previously recorded readings with the condenser?
current readings of the ________
A. Number of passes
A. stack temperature and CO B. Thickness of the shell
B. over the fire draft and CO C. Tube sizes
C. ringleman chart and CO2 D. Heat transfer
D. stack temperature and CO2

A boiler steam gauge should have a range of at least

A. one half the working steam pressure

B. 1 and ½ times the maximum allowable working pressure
C. the working steam pressure
D. twice the maximum allowable working pressure
A boiler has bursing pressure, BP, of 600 kPa and a factor of safety, FS,
of 8 is employed in design. As an engineer, would you advice to have
a working pressure, WP, of 500 kPa?

A. No, WP must be higher than 500 kPa

B. No, WP is only 75 kPa at a FS of 8
C. Yes, since BP is 600 Pa
D. Yes, to attain better efficiency

What cycle is used in vapor cycle of steam power plant?

A. Brayton cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Rankine cycle

Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to determine:

A. level of steam
B. specific heat
C. level of water
D. pressure
Refers to the internal heat from the earth All of the following terms are synonymous with quanta of
electromagnetic theory except:
A. Geothermal
B. Thermal energy A. packets
C. Molten heat B. corpuscles
D. Tectonic heat C. x-rays
D. photons
A rock – forming crystalline mixed silicate which constitute about 60%
of the earth’s surface In geothermal power plants waste water is:

A. Soil A. recirculated after cooling in cooling towers

B. Feldspar B. discharged into sea
C. Flux C. evaporated in ponds
D. Flint D. discharged back to earth

A compound rock, a crypto – crystalline form of silica, which is dens, In a liquid-dominated geothermal power plant, what process occurs
tough, breaking with a conchoidal fracture when the saturated steam passes through the turbine?

A. Gravel A. Isobaric
B. Stalactite B. Polytropic
C. Flint C. Isometric
D. Flux D. Isentropic

Is the process of using injection wells to bubble air through What do you call a conversion technology that yields electricity
groundwater straight from sunlight without the aid of a working substance like gas
or stream without the use of any mechanical cycle?
A. Air stripping
B. Staged combustion A. Power conversion
C. Sparging B. Stirling cycle conversion
D. Soil washing C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
A popular term used by utilities to mean upgrading existing plant
Tidal power plant is attractive because it has:
A. Replanting
B. Repowering A. low head and intermittent power
C. Recharging B. high head
D. Reorganizing C. cheap energy source
D. expensive energy source
A dense, fine grained, light colored igneous rock which is rich in silica
What do you call a conversion technology that yields electricity
A. Felsite straight from sunlight without the use of any mechanical cycle?
B. Feldspar
C. Flint A. Power conversion
D. Flux B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
An opening in lava or in volcanic area through which steam and D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
other hot gases are escaping into the air is called:
Tidal power plant is attractive because it has:
A. Fumarole
B. Volcanic leaks A. low head and intermittent power
C. Seismic outlets B. high head
D. Seismic leaks C. cheap energy source
D. expensive energy source
Tidal power is the power generated from:
Tidal power is the power generated from:
A. waves of the ocean
B. rise and fall tides A. waves of the ocean
C. thermal energy of ocean water B. rise and fall tides
D. raw sea water C. thermal energy of ocean water
D. raw sea water
Converts chemical energy directly into electrical energy
Converts chemical energy directly into electrical energy
A. Fuel cell
B. Magnetohydrodynamic generator A. Fuel cell
C. Battery B. Magnetohydrodynamic generator
D. Thermoelectric generator C. Battery
D. Thermoelectric generator
Generates a voltage from incident light, usually light in the visible
region Generates a voltage from incident light, usually light in the visible
region
A. Photovoltaic cell
B. Solar cell A. Photovoltaic cell
C. Dry cell B. Solar cell
D. A or B C. Dry cell
D. A or B
The statement that the product of the error in the measured Which of the following collectors are more complex, but their
determination of a particle’s position and its momentum is of the order efficiencies are higher?
of Planck’s constant h is known as:
A. flat plate collectors
A. Bohr’s theory B. concentrating collectors
B. D’Alembert’s paradox C. focusing collectors
C. The Heisenburg uncertainty principle D. evacuated tube collectors
D. Planck’s law
Which of the following collectors are useful when extremely hot
The flow process through shock wave is highly irreversible and cannot transfer fluid is needed and are generally limited to commercial
be approximated as being: projects?

A. polytropic A. flat plate collectors

B. isometric B. concentrating collectors
C. hyperbolic C. focusing collectors
D. isentropic D. evacuated tube collectors

Beaufort scale is used for measuring what? The shading factor in calculating the heat absorbed by the solar
collector has a value of approximately:
A. beta and gamma radiations
B. wind speed A. 0.95 to 0.97
C. insolation B. 0.85 to 0.87
D. depth of sea C. 0.75 to 0.77
D. 0.65 to 0.67
Betz law is widely used in:
The ratio of energy absorbed by the transfer fluid to the original
A. MHD systems incident energy striking the collector
B. solar cells
C. geothermal power plants A. collector efficiency
D. wind mills B. sun efficiency
C. shading factor
Rocks having excessive internal stresses may produces spalling. “This D. absorptance
rocks are called a ________
As the difference between the ambient air and average plate (or
A. stratified rocks inlet) temperature increases, what happens to the collector
B. popping rocks efficiency?
C. crushed rocks
D. swelling rocks A. increases
B. decreases
Solar energy arrives at the outside of the earth’s atmosphere at an C. constant
average rate of ________ D. no effect

A. 1.354 kW/m^2 Distributed collector system is also known as:

B. 1.543 kW/m^2
C. 2.354 kW/m^2 A. trough electric system
D. 2.543 kW/m^2 B. central receiver system
C. power tower system
How many percent of solar energy survives absorption and reflection? D. dish/Stirling system

A. 40 to 70 % Central receiver system is also known as:

B. 30 to 60 %
C. 50 to 80 % A. trough electric system
D. 20 to 50 % B. distributed collector system
C. power tower system
Solar energy is captured in: D. dish/Stirling system

A. sun capturer Which of the following main approaches to solar energy generating
B. solar collector systems describes that parabolic tracking trough concentrators focus
C. sun collector sunlight on evacuated glass tubes that run along the collectors focal
D. greenhouse capturer lines

Which of the following solar collectors are essentially wide, flat boxes A. trough electric system
with clear plastic or glass coverings known as the glazing B. central receiver system
C. power tower system
A. flat plate collectors D. dish/Stirling system
B. concentrating collectors
C. focusing collectors Trough electric technology is relatively mature but due to the low
D. evacuated tube collectors temperatures, average annual thermal efficiencies are only:

Which of the following collectors use mirrors and/or lenses to focus A. 10 to 15 %

the suns energy on a small absorber area B. 5 to 10 %
C. 15 to 20 %
A. flat plate collectors D. 25 to 30 %
B. concentrating collectors
C. non focusing collectors
D. evacuated tube collectors
A field of heliostats or tracking mirrors concentrates solar energy onto In a hot rock systems, water is injected through injection wells into
a receiver on a central tower artificially made fractured rock beds of how many kilometers below
the surface?
A. trough electric system
B. distributed collector system A. 1 to 6 km
C. power tower system B. 3 to 9 km
D. dish/Stirling system C. 4 to 10 km
D. 6 to 11 km
In a power tower system typical thermal efficiencies is in the range:

A. 10 to 15 %
B. 5 to 10 %
C. 15 to 20 %
D. 25 to 30 %

A dish engine system has an efficiency of

A. 10 to 15 %
B. 5 to 10 %
C. 14 to 19 %
D. 24 to 28 %

Practical and economic issues limit trough electric systems to about:

A. 200 MW
B. 100 MW
C. 300 MW
D. 400 MW

Practical and economic issue limit tower electric systems to

approximately:

A. 100 to 200 MW
B. 150 to 250 MW
C. 100 to 300 MW
D. 150 to 400 MW

Thermal efficiency of a geothermal power plant is approximately:

A. 30 %
B. 22 %
C. 35 %
D. 15 %

A flash steam cycle can be used if the hot water temperature is

approximately:

A. 165 C or higher
B. 150 C or higher
C. 145 C to 200 C
D. below 200 C

A binary cycle using a separate heat transfer fluid if the temperature

of the hot water is between approximately _________

A. 165 C to 120 C
B. 200 C and 150 C
C. 225 C and 175 C
D. 300 C and higher

For every kilometer of depth, the temperature of the earth’s crust

increase by:

A. 30 F
B. 40 F
C. 50 F
D. 20 F

Multiple wells produce steam at 690 to 820 kPa and temperature of

__________

A. 205 C
B. 155 C
C. 250 C
D. 175 C
What is the suggested maximum permissible dose (MPD) of gamma An eletrically charged atom or radical which carries electricity
ray exposure for general individuals not working in a nuclear setting, through an electrolye is called:
by choice, in rem/year?
A. ion
A. 1 B. isotope
B. 5 C. molecule
C. 1/2 D. hole
D. 3
What is the smallest particle of an element that can enter into a
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of the number of chemical reaction?
electrons in the orbit of an atom
A. Molecule
A. Atomic volume B. Ion
B. Atomic number C. Atom
C. Atomic weight D. Isotope
D. Atomic mass
Berylium, magnesium, and calcium all belong to which elemental
The process in which a nucleus splits into smaller fragments grouping?

A. Fusion A. Noble elements

B. Fission B. Halogens
C. Photoelectric effect C. Lanthanons
D. Compton’s effect D. Alkaline earth metals

The ability of a substance to absorb neurons is dependent upon which The thickness of material required to attenuate radiation to a
parameter? particular level depends on

A. Absorption cross section A. the particle

B. Scattering cross section B. the particle energy
C. Total cross section C. the shielding material
D. Atomic number D. the particle, its energy, and the shielding material

What kind of bonding do common gases that exist in free as diatomic Particles that are easily stopped within a few millimeter because their
molecules experiences? double chargers generate a bath ionization and because they are
susceptible to electrostatic interaction are:
A. Ionic bonds
B. Convalent bonds A. alpha neurons
C. Metallic bonds B. alpha radiations
D. Nuclear bonds C. beta radiations
D. gamma radiation
Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy?
Radiation consisting of singly charged particles that generate to
A. Atomic unit intermediate distances are called:
B. MeV
C. Dynes A. fast neurons
D. ergs B. alpha radiations
C. beta radiations
The process in which a nucleus splits into smaller fragments D. gamma radiations

A. Fusion Radiation with no charge, which produces no ionization, and which is

B. Fission difficult to attenuate thus posing a major health threat is
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Compton's effect A. slow neurons
B. alpha radiations
Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy? C. beta radiations
D. gamma radiations
A. Calories
B. Joules The property of fluid at a location where the Mach number is unity (at
C. Pascals the throat) are called:
D. MeV
A. critical properties
The ability of a substance to absorb neurons is dependent upon which B. sonic properties
parameter? C. dynamic properties
D. stagnation properties
A. Absorption cross section
B. Scattering cross section Gamma attenuation is affected by:
C. Total cross section
D. Atomic number A. their photoelectric effect
B. pair conduction
Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy? C. Compton scattering
D. The photoelectric effect, pair production, and Compton
A. atomic unit scattering
B. MeV
C. dynes
D. ergs
The amount of radiation shield’s dimensional geometry that reduces The electron’s spin angular momentum vector is defined by the
radiation to half of its original value is called the __________
A. azimuthal quantum number
A. half-value mass B. magnetic quantum number
B. half-value thickness C. electron spin quantum number
C. semi-cross section D. Hund rule
D. logarithmic decrement
The magnitude of an electron’s angular momentum vector is defined
The amount of a radiation shield’s density that reduces radiation to by the
half of its original value is called the __________
A. principal quantum number
A. half – value mass B. azimuthal quantum number
B. half – value thickness C. magnetic quantum number
C. semi – cross section D. Hund rule
D. logarithmic decrement
The fact that each orbital of a set of equal-energy orbitals must be
Radiation exposure, the measure of gamma radiation at the surface occupied with an electron before any orbitals has two electrons is
of an object, is measured in: specified by which of the following?

A. rems A. principal quantum number

B. rads B. azimuthal quantum number
C. roentegens C. magnetic quantum number
D. roentegens per second D. Hund rule

Radiation exposure rate, the rate of gamma radiation at the surface The statement that no two electrons can have the same set of four
of an object, is measured in quantum numbers is known as the

A. rems. A. Hund rule

B. Rads. B. Heisenburg uncertainty principle
C. Roentegens. C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Roentegens per second. D. Schrodinger equation

Exposure is a measure of ionization surrounding a person, but All of the following terms describe the radiation lines from transitions
biological damage is dependent on the amount of energy of electrons in an atom except

A. striking the surface A. sharp

B. passing through the body B. principal
C. absorbed C. obtuse
D. reflected by the surface D. fundamental

All of the following are practical applications of Einstein’s principle of When electrons are not shared equally between two elements, and
special relativity except _______ electrons spend more time with one element than with the other, the
bonding is called:
A. mass increase
B. length contraction A. ionic bonding
C. time dilation B. polar covalent bonding
D. space warping C. non – polar covalent bonding
D. metallic bonding
The postulate that no signal or energy can be transmitted with a
speed greater than the speed of light is consistent with _______ When electrons are shared equally (e.g., when the atoms are the
same as in diatomic gases), the bonding is called:
A. the Heisenburg uncertainty principle
B. the Compton effect A. ionic bonding
C. Einstein’s law B. polar covalent bonding
D. Newton’s second law C. non – polar covalent bonding
D. resonance bonding
The total energy of an electron in the same shell is defined by the
________ All of the following are units of energy except:

A. principal quantum number A. atomic units

B. azimuthal quantum number B. MeV
C. magnetic quantum number C. Dynes
D. Hund rule D. Ergs

The direction of an electron’s angular momentum vector is defined by Einstein reasoned there was a discrete amount of energy needed to
the remove an electron from a surface, with the rest of the incident
photon’s energy contributing to the kinetic energy of the photon., the
A. principal quantum number amount of energy is called:
B. azimuthal quantum number
C. magnetic quantum number A. binding energy
D. electron spin quantum number B. work function
C. Coulomb energy
D. Fermi energy
Which of the following is not a postulate of Bohr’s theory of the
hydrogen atom?

A. Electron orbits discrete and non-radiating and an electron

may not remain between these orbits
B. The energy change experienced by an electron changing
from one orbit to another is quantized
C. Light waves exist simultaneously as high frequency electrical
and magnetic waves
D. Angular momentum is quantized
Which of the following is necessary to generate steam in a boiler? Excess fuel oil in the fuel oil system returns to the:

A. A container A. combustion chamber

B. Heat B. fuel oil tank
C. Water C. burner
D. all of the above D. suction line

It is the part of the boiler with water on one side and heat on the other It is the system that provides the air necessary for combustion
side
A. feedwater
A. furnace volume B. steam
B. fire side C. draft
C. heating surface D. fuel
D. water side
The gases of combustion leave the boiler through the
A ________ boiler has heat and gases of combustion that pass through
tubes surrounded by water A. chimney
B. blower
A. fire tube C. air vent
B. cast iron sectional D. breeching
C. water tube
D. straight-tube Which of the following boiler does not use tubes?

A ________ boiler has water in the tubes and heat gases of combustion A. cast iron sectional
passing around the tubes B. water tube
C. scotch marine
A. fire tube D. firebox
B. cast iron sectional
C. water tube Which of the following will make a boiler work more efficiently?
D. straight-tube
A. more fuel is added
Which of the following are used in boilers to direct the gases of B. fire tubes are decrease in size
combustion over the boiler heating surface? C. the heating surface is increased
D. all of the above
A. Combustion control
B. Baffles What are the four systems necessary to operate a boiler?
C. Fire tubes
D. Zone controls A. combustion; draft; steam; boiler water
B. water; steam; combustion; stoker
The three-basic type of low pressure heating boilers are _______, C. boiler water; fuel; draft; condense
_______, and _______ D. feedwater; fuel; draft; steam

A. firebox; vertical; locomotive The ______ forms a vacuum that draws out of the condensate return
B. scotch marine; wet-top; dry-top line and into the vacuum tank
C. straight-tube; bent tube; multiple pass
D. fire-tube; water tube; cast iron sectional A. suction line
B. main header
In a low pressure gas system, the gas regulator reduces that city gas C. vacuum pump
pressure to ____ psi D. heating equipment

A. 0 Which of the following can be a function of the container in a boiler?

B. 2
C. 1 A. holds the water
D. 3 B. collects the steam that is produced
C. transfers heat to the water to produce steam
In the _____ air mixes with the fuel and burns D. all of the above

A. fire tubes At what temperature will water normally turns to steam?

B. combustion chamber
C. water tubes A. 100°F
D. breeching B. 200°F
C. 150°F
The function of the steam boiler is to _______ D. 212°F

A. product condensate Which of the following statements is true for cast iron sectional
B. create heat boilers?
C. product steam
D. burn fuel A. cast iron sectional boilers have fire tubes
B. these boilers do not require water
Which of the following is the most common type of water tube boiler? C. can be expanded in size
D. none of the above
A. firebox
B. scotch marine
C. vertical
D. straight-tube multiple pass
Which of the following is the most important valve on a boiler? Live steam is prevented from entering the Bourdon tube of the
pressure gauge by which of the following?
A. main steam stop valve
B. automatic nonreturn valve A. automatic nonreturn valve
C. safety valve B. os&y valve
D. feedwater stop valve C. inspector’s test clock
D. siphon
The MAWP on a low pressure steam boiler is ______ psi
What pressure gauge that can read whether vacuum pressure or not
A. 10
B. 20 A. compound
C. 15 B. suction
D. 30 C. duplex
D. vacuum
Which of the following best defines a total force acting on a boiler?
Which of the following best defines a vacuum?
A. area times diameter
B. area times pressure A. a pressure above gauge
C. area times distance B. a pressure below atmospheric
D. the MAWP times pressure C. a pressure below gauge
D. a pressure equal to gauge
The ASME code states that boilers with over _____ square feet heating
surface must have two or more safety valve Safety valves are designed to pop open and stay until there is a
______ psi drop in pressure
A. 200
B. 400 A. 0 to 1
C. 400 B. 5 to 15
D. 500 C. 2 to 4
D. over 15
The area of a safety valve 4” in diameter is how many square inches
What type of boiler that uses safety valves?
A. 2.3562
B. 6.2832 A. fire tube
C. 3.1416 B. cast iron sectional
D. 12.5664 C. water tube
D. all of the above
Which of the following is the only valve permitted between the safety
valve and the boiler? The water column is located at the NOWL so the lowest visible part of
the gauge glass is ______ above the highest surface
A. os&y gate
B. os&y globe A. 2” to 3”
C. automatic nonreturn B. just
D. no valves are permitted between the boiler and the safety C. 4” to 5”
valve D. never

The range of the pressure gauge should be _______ times the MAWP of Blowback of a safety valve is to prevent:
the boiler
A. burner cycling
A. 1 to 2 B. premature popping
B. 2 to 3 C. chattering
C. 1 ½ to 2 D. feathering
D. 2 ½ to 3
The boiler bottom blowdown line should discharge a(n) ________
The ASME code only allows ______ safety valve on boiler
A. sewer
A. deadweight B. atmospheric tank
B. spring-loaded pop-type C. blowdown tank
C. lever D. return tank or open sump
D. none of the above
If the desired cut-in pressure of the boiler is 6 psi and the desired cut-
How much is the total force on a safety valve 2 ½ in diameter and out pressure is 10 psi, the differential pressure setting must be _____ psi
with a steam pressure of 15 psi?
A. 2
A. 19.5413 B. 6
B. 73.63125 C. 4
C. 29.4525 D. 8
D. 93.7512
Impurities that build up on the surface of the water in the boiler
The steam pressure gauge on the boiler is calibrated to read in: prevent _______ from breaking through the surface of the water

A. inches of vacuum A. air

B. absolute pressure B. CO2
C. pounds per square inch C. oxygen
D. pressure below atmospheric pressure D. steam
To prevent air pressure from building up in the boiler when filling the What pressure gauge that reads more pressure than is actually in the
boiler with water, the _____ must be open boiler

A. safety valve A. broken

B. boiler vent B. uncalibrated
C. main steam stop valve C. slow
D. manhole cover D. fast

To prevent a vacuum from forming when taking the boiler off-line, According to the ASME code, safety valves on low pressure boilers
which of the following must be opened when pressure is still on the should be tested by hand at least:
boiler?
A. once a month
A. safety valve B. once a year
B. boiler vent C. once a shift
C. main steam stop valve D. twice a year
D. man hole cover
The purpose of the safety valve is prevent the pressure in the boiler
The operating range of the boiler is controlled by from:

A. squastat A. exceeding its MAWP

B. pressure control B. causing a boiler explosion
C. vaporstat C. dropping below its MAWP
D. modulating pressure control D. relieving water pressure

The _______ regulates the high and low fire of the burner The term applied when a safety valve opens and closes rapidly

A. aquastat A. Feathering
B. pressure control B. Chattering
C. vaporstat C. Pressuring
D. modulating pressure control D. Huddling

The best time to blow down the boiler to remove sludge and sediment The safety valve on a low pressure boiler opens when pressure in the
is when the boiler is at: boiler exceeds how many psi?

A. its highest load A. 5

B. half its load B. 15
C. its lightest load C. 10
D. anytime D. 30

The level of the water in the _______ indicates the water level in the After the total force of the steam has lifted the safety valve off its seat,
boiler the steam enters the ________

A. condensate return tank A. huddling chamber

B. gauge glass B. steam holding tank
C. try cocks C. combustion chamber
D. blowdown tank D. main steam line

When blowing down a boiler, the quick-opening valve should always What causes false water level readings in the gauge glass?
be opened _______ and closed _________
A. Priming
A. first; first B. Foaming
B. last; first C. Carryover
C. first; last D. Blowing down
D. last; last
Fusible plugs are required on ______ boilers by the ASME code
Which of the following is added to boiler so that water changes scale-
forming salts into a non-adhering sludge? A. coal-fired
B. gas-fired
A. Oxygen C. fuel oil-fired
B. Slag D. all of the above
C. Minerals
D. Chemicals On a pressure control, ________ pressure plus _______ pressure equals
________ pressure
A _______ valve is installed before the ______ to allow the steam
pressure gauge to be changed if a malfunction occurs A. differential; cut-out; cut-in
B. cut-in; cut-out; differential
A. globe; safety valve C. cut-in; differential; cut-in
B. globe; U-tube siphon D. cut-in pressures equals cut-out pressure
C. gate; siphon
D. globe; pigtail siphon A burner should always start up in _____ fire and shut down in _______
fire

A. low; low
B. high; low
C. low; high
D. high; high
The water in the boiler is heated, turns to steam, and leaves the boiler Top test the vacuum pump, the operator puts the selector switch in
through the: the ______ position

A. feedwater line A. float

B. main steam line B. float or vacuum
C. main header C. vacuum
D. main branch line D. continuous

When steams gives up its heat in a heat exchanger it turns to: Water added to the boiler to replace water lost due to leaks and
blowing down is known as ______ water
A. low pressure steam
B. makeup water A. extra
C. condensate B. boiler
D. exhaust steam C. makeup
D. feed
A _______ pump discharges the return water back to the boiler
Excessive use of cold city water makeup reduces overall efficiency
A. feed because the water must be ________ before use in the boiler
B. gear
C. return A. vented
D. vacuum B. filtered
C. heated
How do you call a valve that controls the flow of water in one D. recirculated
direction only?
The vacuum pump selector switch is normally in the position during
A. gate the heating season
B. os&y
C. globe A. float or vacuum
D. check B. vacuum only
C. float only
The feedwater ______ valve should be located as close to the shell of D. continuous
the boiler as practical
The ______ shuts off the burner in the event of low water
A. check
B. nonreturn A. low water alarm
C. stop B. low water fuel cut-off
D. regulating C. feedwater regulator
D. automatic low water feeder
A ______ after each radiator allows _____ to pass through to the return
line Water is supplied to the condensate return tank by the _____ pump

A. steam tarp; steam A. vacuum

B. water trap; steam B. feedwater
C. steam trap; condensate C. condensate
D. water trap; condensate D. return

A _______ valve should be located between the boiler and the valve The feedwater regulator is located at the ________ and is connected
on the feedwater line to the boiler in the same manner as the _______

A. stop; check A. right side; gauge glass

B. stop; regulator B. NOWL; water column
C. check; stop C. bottom blowdown
D. check; regulator D. NOWL; safety valve

The feedwater _______ valve opens and closes automatically What maintains a constant water level in the boiler?

A. return A. gauge glass

B. check B. automatic city water makeup feeder
C. bypass C. water column
D. equalizing D. feedwater regulator

The vacuum pump pumps water and discharges air to the: The low water fuel cut-off should be tested

A. expansion tank A. daily

B. return tank B. semiannually
C. compression tank C. monthly
D. atmosphere D. annually

The range of pressure on the vacuum switch is usually: The burner should be ______ when the low water fuel cut-off is blown
down
A. 2 to 6 psi
B. 2” to 8” A. off
C. 6 to 12 psi B. tagged out
D. 8” to 12” C. firing
D. tested
Which of the following valves must be used as boiler main steam stop Condensate from the nonreturn steam trap is pumped from the
valve? condensate return tank of the:

A. globe A. return tank

B. check B. feedwater heater
C. gate C. vacuum tank
D. os&y gate D. boiler

Gate valves should always be _____ or _____ closed Steam returning to the vacuum tank could cause the condensate
pump to become:
A. partially open; completely
B. completely open; completely A. waterbound
C. wide open; partly B. waterlogged
D. throttled; completely C. steambound
D. steamlogged
Steam header valves should be ______ valves
Steam containers should be located on the line ______ the steam trap
A. globe
B. check A. in front of
C. gate B. above
D. os&y gate C. after
D. along sides of
When open the os&y valve offers _____ to the flow of steam
As the steam pressure increases the steam temperature:
A. no resistance
B. velocity A. decreased
C. throttling action B. remains the tame
D. full resistance C. increases
D. fluctuates
Steam traps are _____ devices
When the os&y valve is open the stem is in the _____ position
A. manual
B. automatic A. floating
C. electrical B. up
D. semiautomatic C. locked
D. down
What valve should be used for throttling flow of material?
The thermostatic steam trap opens and closes by a(n):
A. Gate
B. Check A. float
C. Globe B. electric sensor
D. Non-return C. inverted bucket
D. flexible bellows
Steam traps removed _______ and ______ from the steam lines
In the float the thermostatic trap the float rises to the discharge:
A. air; water
B. water; oil A. condensate
C. air; oil B. feedwater chemicals
D. air; steam C. steam
D. water and steam
Condensate in the steam lines can result in:
A steam trap that failed to open would cause the heating unit to
A. carryover become:
B. foaming
C. priming A. steambound
D. water hammer B. very hot
C. waterlogged
Two types of steam traps are the ______ steam trap and the ______ D. all of the above
steam trap
Which of the following whose main function is to remove dirt and
A. return; float impurities that may cause the steam trap to malfunction?
B. nonreturn; thermostatic
C. return; nonreturn A. Vacuum pumps
D. nonreturn; float B. Steam strainers
C. Globe valves
The _______ steam trap is the most common steam trap used D. Steam separators

A. thermostatic When a steam trap is functioning properly there is a ______ difference

B. inverted bucket in temperature between the trap inlet and discharge
C. return
D. nonreturn; float A. 5°F to 10°F
B. 20°F to 30°F
C. 10°F to 20°F
D. no
When burning No. 6 fuel oil strainers should be cleaned at least once On the low pressure gas system the manual reset cannot be opened
every ______ ours until the:

A. 8 A. vaporstat proves pressure

B. 12 B. pitot is lighted
C. 10 C. boiler is vented
D. 24 D. all of the above

When cleaning the fuel oil strainers the _____ must be carefully Before any repair work is attempted on any gas-fired boiler the:
replaced to prevent ______ from getting into the system
A. insurance inspector must be notified
A. gaskets; fuel oil B. main gas cock must be secured
B. cover; water C. state inspector must be notified
C. gaskets; air D. main solenoid valve should be secured
D. cover; fuel oil
In a low pressure gas system when the vaporstat proves gas pressure
The ______ pump draws fuel oil form the fuel oil tank up to the zero- reducing governor the _____ starts up

A. transfer A. induced draft fan

B. condensate B. pressure
C. fuel oil C. forced draft blower
D. circulating D. gas pump

The ______ valve protects the fuel lines and pump from excessive The butterfly on the low pressure gas system is a _______ valve
pressure
A. slow-opening
A. safety B. screw
B. relief C. quick-opening
C. bypass D. globe
D. stop
The amount of gas supplied to the burner in the low pressure gas
A high vacuum on the fuel oil suction gauge normally indicates either system is controlled by:
______ or _______
A. gas pressure
A. low viscosity; a clogged vent B. steam pressure
B. a closed discharged valve; hot fuel oil C. the boiler operator
C. cold fuel oil; a dirty suction strainer D. the amount of air passing through the butterfly valve
D. water in the fuel oil; a warm pump
If low water develops in the boiler having a low pressure gas system
Fuel oil burners deliver the fuel oil to the furnace in a the _____ will secure the gas to the burner

A. steady stream A. whistle valve

B. half spray, half steam B. manual reset valve
C. fine spray C. vaporstat
D. none of the above D. main gas solenoid

The rotary cup burner uses _______ and _______ to atomize the fuel oil Combination gas/fuel oil burners permit the operator to switch from
one fuel to another _______
A. hight temperature; pressure
B. high temperature; air A. for economy
C. high pressure; steam B. because of a shortage of fuel being used
D. a spinning cup; high velocity air C. because of a failure in the fuel system being used
D. all of the above
In a low pressure gas burner gas is mixed with air in the ________
Had coal, known as ______, has a ______ content
A. burner register
B. combustion chamber A. bituminous; high carbon
C. mixing chamber before the burner register B. anthracite; high volatile
D. boiler furnace C. bituminous; high volatile
D. anthracite; high carbon
In a high pressure gas mixes with the air on the inside of the:
Soft coal, known as _____, has a ______ content
A. burner register
B. combustion chamber A. bituminous; high carbon
C. mixing chamber B. anthracite; high volatile
D. boiler furnace C. bituminous; high volatile
D. anthracite; high carbon
Regardless of the type of fuel oil used the fuel oil must be ________
before it enters the boilers furnace Boilers using soft coal must have ______ furnace volume to reduce the
danger of _______
A. pressurized
B. treated A. small; overfiring
C. atomized B. large; smoking
D. measured C. small; smoking
D. large; overfiring
When burning soft coal, if the volatile gases reach the heating surface In order to bank the stoker it is necessary to secure the _______ while
before they have burned completely ______ and ______ develop the ________ continues to operate

A. smoke; soot A. combination fan; coal feeder

B. clinkers; ash B. coal feeder; forced draft fan
C. uneven heat; ash C. feedwater; induced draft fan
D. high temperature; smoke D. boiler stop valve; coal feeder

The _______ of fuels oil is the lowest temperature at which it will flow as In a screw-feed stoker, what draft fan supplies air for combustion?
a liquid
A. induced
A. fire point B. forced
B. pour point C. combination
C. flash point D. natural
D. viscosity
To prevent smoke and to aid in complete combustion in the screw-
The ________ is the temperature at which fuel oil gives off vapor that feed stoker, _______ is provided using a separate damper control
flashes when exposed to an open flame
A. underfire air
A. fire point B. retort air
B. pour point C. overfire air
C. flash point D. grate zone air
D. viscosity
The ram-feed stoker is a(n) _______ stoker
The ________ is the temperature at which fuel oil will burn continuously
when exposed to an open flame A. overfeed
B. side feed
A. fire point C. travelling grate
B. pour point D. underfeed
C. flash point
D. viscosity The ram-feed stoker provides:

It is defined as the internal resistance of fuel oil flow? A. uniform feed

B. quick ash discharge
A. fire point C. even coal distribution
B. pour point D. all of the above
C. flash point
D. viscosity Combustion is the rapid burning of fuel and oxygen resulting in:

What must be done in order to lower the viscosity of the fuel oil? A. release of heat
B. oxidation
A. lower its temperature C. release of steam
B. increase its temperature D. nitrogen and oxygen
C. lower its pour point
D. increase its pour point What combustion occurs when all the fuel is burned using the
theoretical amount of air?
A leak on the fuel oil suction line between the tank and the suction
side of the fuel oil pump would result in: A. incomplete
B. Perfect
A. the suction gauge pulsating C. Complete
B. air entering the suction line D. Imperfect
C. pulsating of the fire in the boiler
D. all of the above It is the burning of all the fuel using the minimum amount of excess air

Stokers were developed to: A. Incomplete combustion

B. Complete combustion
A. increase efficiency of burning coal C. Perfect combustion
B. keep furnace temperature constant to protect brickwork D. Imperfect combustion
C. allow for development of larger coal-fired boiler
D. all of the above _______ combustion occurs when all the fuel is not burned resulting in
formation of soot and smoke
Any foreign matter in the coal feed mechanism of the screw-feed
stoker is best removed by: A. Incomplete
B. Perfect
A. emptying the coal hopper C. Complete
B. reversing the stoker D. Imperfect
C. forcing it through with a heavy shear pin
D. using the cutoff gate at the bottom of the hopper Which of the following is required to achieve complete combustion?

In the event of an obstruction clogging the feed screw a ________ is A. proper atomization
used to prevent damage to transmission B. proper temperature of fuel
C. time of complete combustion
A. slip clutch D. all of the above
B. shear pin or key
C. fuse
D. none of the above
The combustion process must be complete before the gases Heat absorbed by water when it changes from liquid to steam at the
combustion come in contact with the: boiling point is called:

A. atmosphere A. sensible heat

B. superheater B. specific heat
C. heating surface C. latent heat
D. main steam outlet D. superheat

Soot buildup on heating surface: Heat may be transferred in how many ways?

A. acts as an insulation A. One

B. prevents heat transfer B. Three
C. increases the temperature of gases of combustion C. Two
D. all of the above D. Four

The purpose of automatic combustion controls is to control _________

and _________

A. high fire; low fire

B. stoker firing; fuel rate
C. overfire air; fuel mixture
D. proper air to fuel mixture; firing rate

At 0 psig, how many BTU are necessary to change 1 lb of water at

212°F of steam?

A. 144
B. 970
C. 180
D. 1190

Radiation is:

A. the movement of liquids or gases created by a temperature

difference
B. the transfer of heat by direct molecular contact
C. the weight of the substance compared to unity
D. a form of heat transfer

Steam at 100 psi and 400 °F is:

A. saturated
B. superheated
C. wet
D. none of the above

Which of the following most closely defines sensible heat?

A. an established relationship comparing nay substance to the

heat content of water
B. heat quantity that can be felt or measured by a
thermometer
C. heat quantity above the point of saturation
D. measure of heat intensity

What is required to raise the temperature of 1 lb of water from 32° to

212°F?

A. 144 Btu
B. 970.3 Btu
C. 180 Btu
D. Saturated heat

Increasing the pressure has what effect of the boiling point of water?

A. No change
B. Temperature will be raised
C. Temperature will be lowered
D. Temperature will increase 2 °F for every psi
In turbine installation, the air is removed from the condenser by ______ The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the cross sectional area of
the pipe through which it flow decreases is due to:
A. air pump
B. air injector A. Bernoulli’s equation
C. air ejector B. the continuity equation
D. air jet C. the momentum equation
D. the perfect gas law
The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to:
In the absence of any heat and work interactions and any changes in
A. add energy to the flow potential energy, the stagnation enthalpy of a fluid remains constant
B. add mass to the flow during _______
C. extract energy from the flow
D. none of the above A. unsteady flow
B. steady flow
A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a hole in a plate is C. turbulent flow
located approximately: D. variable flow

A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole When a falling object reaches a speed at which the drag force
B. at jet’s minimum diameter equals its weight, it has achieved:
C. at the orifice minimum diameter
D. at the orifice maximum diameter A. Mach one
B. a laminar boundary layer
The following are all examples of indirect (secondary) miscellaneous C. a turbulent boundary layer
methods to measure flow except: D. terminal velocity

A. turbine and propeller meters The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the:
B. magnetic flow meters
C. positive displacement meters A. area of vena contracta to the orifice are
D. hot – wire anemometers B. actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds number similarity in all of D. effective head to the actual head
the following cases except:
The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the:
A. pumps
B. fans A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area
C. turbines B. actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
D. weirs C. actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. effective head to the actual head
One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of
the following cases except: The coefficient of velocity is equal to the:

A. surface ships A. product of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of

B. surface wave motion contraction
C. flow over weirs B. actual velocity divided by the theoretical velocity
D. closed – pipe turbulent pipe flow C. sum of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of
contraction
One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of D. difference of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient
the following cases except: of contraction

A. motion of a fluid jet Which of the following is not a similarity between a submerged culvert
B. flow over spillways and a siphon?
C. surge and flood waves
D. subsonic airfoils A. They both operate full
B. Torricelli's equation holds
In fluid flow, linear momentum is: C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses
D. In both, the water flows downhill
A. a vector quantity equal to the product of mass and velocity
B. a scalar quantity equal to the product mass and velocity In parallel pipe system originating and terminating in common
C. a scalar quantity equal to the product of force and length of junctions,
time is applied
D. the change in impulse A. mass flows through each branch are equal
B. pressure drops through each branch are equal
All of the following fluid phenomena are based on the force C. lengths of each branch are equal
momentum principle of a flowing fluid except: D. flow areas of each branch are equal

A. turbines Flows through multi-loop systems may be computed by:

B. Pelton wheels
C. Diesel automobile engines A. any closed – form solution of simultaneous equations
D. jet engines B. the Hardy – Cross method
C. trial and error
D. all of the above
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except: The matching of scale model and full – scale results for a fluid
dynamic phenomena with a free surface requires equality of:
A. venturi meters
B. static pressure probes A. Reynolds number
C. turbine and propeller meters B. Weber number
D. magnetic dynamometers C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:
The matching of scale model and full – scale results for a fluid
A. orifice plate meters dynamic phenomena involving compressible fluids requires equality
B. hot – wire anemometers of:
C. magnetic flow meters
D. mercury barometers A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except: C. Cauchy number
D. Mach number
A. flow nozzles
B. venture area meters The matching of scale model and full – scale prototype results for a
C. pitot tubes fluid dynamic phenomena involving surface tension requires equality
D. precision tachometers of:

The following are examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to A. Reynolds number

flow rates using obstruction meters except: B. Weber number
C. Froude number
A. variable area meters D. Cauchy number
B. venture meters
C. volume tanks The matching of scale model and full-scale prototype results for a
D. flow nozzles fluid dynamic phenomena involving a fully submerged body requires
equality of:
The following are examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to
flow rates using obstruction meters except: A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
A. pitot static meters C. Froude number
B. static pressure probes D. Mach number
C. weight and mass scales
D. direction – sensing probes The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what kind of fluid
mechanics?
In series pipe systems, all of the following parameters vary from
section to section except: A. Static (a phenomena independent of time)
B. Dynamic (a time – dependent phenomena)
A. pressure drop C. Compressible
B. friction loss D. Incompressible
C. head loss
D. mass flow All of the following are forms of drag on a body moving through a
fluid except:
Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice meters, flow nozzles, and
differential manometers all depend upon the relationship between: A. skin friction
B. wake drag
A. flow velocity and friction C. profile drag
B. flow velocity and pressure D. d’Alembert’s paradox drag
C. friction and pressure
D. pressure and mass flow The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a sphere in water is
dependent upon all of the following except:
The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of fluid is termed as:
A. fluid density
A. latent enthalpy B. fluid velocity
B. heat enthalpy C. units of measure (SI or English Engineering System)
C. throttling enthalpy D. drag force
D. stagnation enthalpy
The fact that there is no resistance to bodies moving through an ideal
The coefficient of velocity, Cv, accounts for the: (non – viscous) fluids is known as:

A. effects on the flow area of contraction, friction, and A. Reynold’s analogy

turbulence B. D’Alembert’s paradox
B. small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice C. Newton’s second law
C. changes in diameters of a converging pipe D. the second law of thermodynamics
D. effects of compressibility
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds number similarity in all of
Expansion factors take into account the: the following cases except:

A. area of the vena contracta A. submarines

B. small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice B. torpedoes
C. changes in diameters of a converging pipe C. seaplane hulls
D. effects of compressibility D. supersonic aircraft
The function of a turbine is to: What is the use of a Hydraulic jump?

A. transfer heat from one fluid to another A. increase the flow rate
B. increase the total energy content of the flow B. reduce the flow rate
C. extract energy from the flow C. reduce the velocity of flow
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow D. reduce the energy of flow

Pitot tube is use to measure the: A Kaplan turbine is:

A. velocity of mass A. a high head mixed flow turbine

B. velocity of pipe B. an inward flow impulse turbine
C. flow C. an outward flow reaction turbine
D. velocity of flow D. low head axial flow turbine

Orifice coefficients are used to determine: The locus of elevation is:

A. energy losses A. critical point

B. energy gains B. hydraulic gradient
C. mass losses C. energy gradient
D. energy losses and mass gains D. friction gradient

The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the: The locus of elevations to which water will rise in the parameter tube is
termed:
A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. actual discharge to the theoretical discharge A. energy gradient
C. actual discharge velocity to the theoretical discharge B. friction head
velocity C. hydraulic gradient
D. effective head to the actual head D. critical path

The volume flow passes through a venturimeter is: The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam is:

A. increasing A. tailrace
B. decreasing B. spiral casing
C. constant C. surge tank
D. varying D. penstock

What must be done to change the direction of rotation of a 440 –volt, A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the
3 – phase induction motor? blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water, the turbine starts
to move
A. reverse lines to start winding
B. interchange any two power leads A. Pelton wheel
C. replace any two wires to the rotor B. Steam turbine
D. remove any power leads C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine
A draft tube is a part of which power plants?
The lowest portion to storage basin from where the water is not drawn
A. Diesel engine power plant is:
B. Gas turbine power plant
C. Steam power plant A. bottom storage
D. Hydro – electric power plant B. sub-soil storage
C. spring reserve
In the hydro – electric plant having a medium head and using a D. dead storage
Francis turbine, the turbine speed may be regulated through:
In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine with medium head,
A. deflector gate the speed can be regulated using the
B. nozzle
C. wicket gate A. deflector gate
D. forebay B. nozzle
C. wicket gate
A Francis turbine has what flow? D. weir

A. Inward flow reaction In the deep well installation or operation, the difference between
B. Outward flow impulse static water level and operating water level is known as ______
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse A. suction lift
B. drawdown
Which of the following is a type of water turbine? C. priming level
D. clogging
A. Parson
B. Hero Which of the following is a characteristic of an impulse turbine?
C. Pelton
D. Bankl A. Steam striking blades on an angle
B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Steam reversing direction
What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a turbine? Which of the following is a characteristic of an impulse turbine?

A. Below atmospheric A. Steam striking blades on angle

B. Vacuum B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Atmospheric C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Gage D. Steam reversing direction

An impulse turbine are used for: A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the
blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water, the turbine starts
A. low head to move
B. medium head
C. high head A. Pelton wheel
D. very low head B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
Which of the following is used as high head turbine? D. Reaction turbine

A. Impulse The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam is:

B. Francis
C. Reaction A. tailrace
D. Propeller B. spiral casing
C. surge tank
In pumped storage plant D. penstock

A. power is produced by pumps In the hydro – electric plant having a medium head and using a
B. water is stored by pumping to high pressures Francis turbine, the turbine speed may be regulated through:
C. pressure accumulators are used
D. downstream water is pumped upstream during offload A. deflector gate
periods B. nozzle
C. wicket gate
What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a turbine? D. forebay

A. Below atmospheric A Francis turbine has what flow?

B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric A. Inward flow reaction
D. Gage B. Outward flow impulse
C. Outward flow reaction
An impulse turbine has: D. Inward flow impulse

A. low head Which of the following is a type of water turbine?

B. medium head
C. high head A. Parson
D. very low head B. Hero
C. Pelton
High head turbine is a/an: D. BankI

A. Impulse Hydraulic jump is used to:

B. Francis
C. Reaction A. increase the flow rate
D. Propeller B. reduce the flow rate
C. reduce the velocity of flow
The lowest portion to storage basin from where the water is not drawn D. reduce the energy of flow
is
A Kaplan turbine is:
A. bottom storage
B. sub-soil storage A. a high head mixed flow turbine
C. spring reserve B. an inward flow impulse turbine
D. dead storage C. an outward flow reaction turbine
D. low head axial flow turbine
In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine with medium head,
the speed can be regulated using the The locus of elevation is:

A. deflector gate A. critical point

B. nozzle B. hydraulic gradient
C. wicket gate C. energy gradient
D. weir D. friction gradient

In the deep well installation or operation, the difference between The locus of elevations to which water will rise in the piezometer tube
static water level and operating water level is called _______ is termed:

A. suction lift A. energy gradient

B. drawdown B. friction head
C. priming level C. hydraulic gradient
D. clogging D. critical path
In turbine installation, the air is removed from the condenser by the: The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the cross sectional area of
the pipe through which it flow decreases is due to:
A. air pump
B. air injector A. Bernoulli’s equation
C. air ejector B. the continuity equation
D. air jet C. the momentum equation
D. the perfect gas law
The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to:
In the absence of any heat and work interactions and any changes in
A. add energy to the flow potential energy, the stagnation enthalpy of a fluid remains constant
B. add mass to the flow during:
C. extract energy from the flow
D. none of the above A. unsteady flow
B. steady flow
A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a hole in a plate is C. turbulent flow
located approximately: D. variable flow

A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole When a falling object reaches a speed at which the drag force
B. at jet’s minimum diameter equals its weight, it has achieved:
C. at the orifice minimum diameter
D. at the orifice maximum diameter A. Mach one
B. a laminary boundary layer
The following are all example of indirect (secondary) miscellaneous C. a turbulent boundary layer
methods to measure flow except: D. terminal velocity

A. turbine and propeller meters The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the:
B. magnetic flow meters
C. positive displacement meters A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area
D. hot – wire anemometers B. actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds number similarity in all of D. effective head to the actual head
the following cases except:
The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the
A. pumps
B. fans A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area
C. turbines B. actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
D. weirs C. actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. effective head to the actual head
One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of
the following cases except: The coefficient of velocity is equal to the:

A. surface ships A. product of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of

B. surface wave motion contraction
C. flow over weirs B. actual velocity divided by the theoretical velocity
D. closed – pipe turbulent pipe flow C. sum of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of
contraction
One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of D. difference of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient
the following cases except: of contraction

A. motion of a fluid jet Which of the following is not a similarity between submerged culvert
B. flow over spillways and a siphon?
C. surge and flood waves
D. subsonic airfoils A. They both operate full
B. Torricelli’s equation holds
In fluid flow, linear momentum is: C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses
D. In both, water flows downhill
A. a vector quantity equal to the product of mass and velocity
B. a scalar quantity equal to the product mass and velocity In parallel pipe system originating and terminating in common
C. a scalar quantity equal to the product of force and length of junctions:
time is applied
D. the change in impulse A. mass flows through each branch are equal
B. pressure drops through each branch are equal
All of the following fluid phenomena are based on the force C. lengths of each branch are equal
momentum principle of a flowing fluid except: D. flow areas of each branch are equal

A. turbines Flows through multi – loop systems may be computed by:

B. Pelton wheels
C. Diesel automobile engines A. any closed – form solution of simultaneous equations
D. jet engines B. the Hardy – Cross method
C. trial and error
D. all of the above
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except: The matching of scale model and full – scale results for a fluid
dynamic phenomena with a free surface requires equality of:
A. venturi meters
B. static pressure probes A. Reynolds number
C. turbine and propeller meters B. Weber number
D. magnetic dynamometers C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:
The matching of scale model and full – scale results for a fluid
A. orifice plate meters dynamic phenomena involving compressible fluids requires equality
B. hot – wire anemometers of:
C. magnetic flow meters
D. mercury barometers A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except: C. Cauchy number
D. Mach number
A. flow nozzles
B. venture area meters The matching of scale model and full – scale prototype results for a
C. pitot tubes fluid dynamic phenomena involving surface tension requires equality
D. precision tachometers of:

The following are examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to A. Reynolds number

measure flow rates using obstruction meters except: B. Weber number
C. Froude number
A. variable area meters D. Cauchy number
B. venture meters
C. volume tanks The matching of scale model and full – scale prototype results for a
D. flow nozzles fluid dynamic phenomena involving a fully submerged body requires
equality of:
The following are examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to
measure flow rates using obstruction meters except: A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
A. pitot static meters C. Froude number
B. static pressure probes D. Mach number
C. weight and mass scales
D. direction – sensing probes The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what kind of fluid
mechanics?
In series pipe systems, all of the following parameters vary from
section to section except: A. Static (a phenomena independent of time)
B. Dynamic (a time – dependent phenomena)
A. pressure drop C. Compressible
B. friction loss D. Incompressible
C. head loss
D. mass flow All of the following are forms of drag on a body moving through a
fluid except:
Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice meters, flow nozzles, and
differential manometers all depend upon the relationship between: A. skin friction
B. wake drag
A. flow velocity and friction C. profile drag
B. flow velocity and pressure D. d’Alembert’s paradox drag
C. friction and pressure
D. pressure and mass flow The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a sphere in water is
dependent upon all of the following except:
The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of fluid is termed as:
A. fluid density
A. latent enthalpy B. fluid velocity
B. heat enthalpy C. units of measure (SI or English Engineering System)
C. throttling enthalpy D. drag force
D. stagnation enthalpy
The fact that there is no resistance to bodies moving through an ideal
The coefficient of velocity, Cv, accounts for the (non – viscous) fluids is known as:

A. effects on the flow area of contraction, friction, and A. Reynold’s analogy

turbulence B. D’Alembert’s paradox
B. small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice C. Newton’s second law
C. changes in diameters of a converging pipe D. the second law of thermodynamics
D. effects of compressibility
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds number similarity in all of
Expansion of factors take into account the: the following cases except:

A. area of the vena contracta A. submarines

B. small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice B. torpedoes
C. changes in diameters of a converging pipe C. seaplane hulls
D. effects of compressibility D. supersonic aircraft
The function of a turbine is to

A. transfer heat form one fluid to another

B. increase the total energy content of the flow
C. extract energy from the flow
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

Pitot tube is use to measure the:

A. velocity of mass
B. velocity of pipe
C. flow
D. velocity of flow

Orifice coefficients are used to determine

A. energy losses
B. energy gains
C. mass losses
D. energy losses and mass gains

The coefficients of velocity is the ratio of the

A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. actual discharge velocity to the theoretical discharge
velocity
D. effective head to the actual head

The volume flow passes through a venturimeter is:

A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
D. varying

Which of the following devices used to measure the discharge of

outflow from a vessel?

A. pitot tube
B. orifice
C. pump head
D. obstruction meter
The maximum continuous power available from a hydro – electric The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to
plant under the most adverse hydraulic conditions is called _______ the overall maximum demand of the whole system

A. base power A. Demand factor

B. firm power B. Diversity factor
C. primary power C. Power factor
D. secondary power D. Utilization factor

The area under load curve divided by maximum demand represents: Load curve refers to the plot of:

A. load factor A. load versus generating capacity

B. connected load B. load versus current
C. average load C. load versus time
D. diversity factor D. load versus cost of power

What is the reverse capacity of a plant? The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity

A. maximum demand – average demand A. Load factor

B. plant capacity – maximum demand B. Utilization factor
C. plant capacity – average demand C. Maximum load factor
D. plant capacity x (1 – load factor) D. Capacity factor

Load curve refers to the plot of: The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated
period of time is called _______
A. load versus generating capacity
B. load versus current A. load factor
C. load versus time B. reactive factor
D. load versus cost of power C. diversity factor
D. plant use factor
The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity is called ______
Peak load for a period of time divided by installed capacity is _____
A. load factor
B. utilization factor A. capacity factor
C. maximum load factor B. demand factor
D. capacity C. utilization factor
D. load factor
Peak load for a period of time divided by installed capacity is:
The area under load curve divided by maximum demand represents
A. capacity factor
B. demand factor A. load factor
C. utilization factor B. connected load
D. load factor C. average load
D. diversity factor
The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to
the maximum demand of the whole system is: The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to
the overall maximum demand of the whole system
A. diversity factor
B. utilization factor A. Demand factor
C. power factor B. Diversity factor
D. demand factor C. Power factor
D. Utilization factor
The ratio between the actual power and the apparent power in any
circuit is known as the _____ of that circuit The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to
the maximum demand of the whole system is known as ________
A. measured power
B. capacity A. diversity factor
C. power factor B. utilization factor
D. KVAR C. power factor
D. demand factor
The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity
The ratio between the actual power and the apparent power in any
A. Load factor circuit is known as the ______ of that circuit
B. Utilization factor
C. Maximum load factor A. measured power
D. Capacity factor B. capacity
C. power factor
The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated D. KVAR
period of time is called
Yeast as raw material for beer making is added to the equipment
A. load factor called:
B. reactive factor
C. diversity factor A. fermenters
D. plant use factor B. brew kettle
C. cooler
D. starting tube
A major cause of air pollution resulting from the burning of fuel oil is: Which of the following area of work requires lowest noise level?

A. nitrous A. Gymnasiums
B. hydrogen B. Library
C. sulfur dioxide C. Lecture halls
D. silicon D. Kitchen

Heavy water is: Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by

A. B2O A. bacteria
B. H2O B. molds
C. W2O C. virus
D. D2O D. algae

Scintillation counter are used to detect: Turbidity in water is due to:

A. Beta rays A. algae

B. X – ray B. fungi
C. Gamma rays C. organic salts
D. All of the above D. finally divided particles of clay, silt and organic matter

All of the following are common types of chemical reactions except Per capita consumption of water is generally taken as:

A. direct combination A. 50 – 100 liters

B. fission B. 150 – 300 liters
C. decomposition C. 400 – 500 liters
D. double replacement D. 750 – 1000 liters

Redox reactions can often be type of: Which of the following industries have the highest consumption of
water for processing?
A. direct combination
B. fission A. Foundry
C. decomposition B. Automobile industry
D. double replacement C. Paper mill
D. Aluminum industry
The fact that the amount of slightly soluble gas absorbed in a liquid is
proportional to the partial pressure of the gas is known as: The ratio of activity of water because of strontium can be removed
by:
A. Dalton’s law
B. Henry’s law A. aeration
C. Raoult’s law B. alum coagulation
D. Boyle’s law C. phosphate coagulation
D. lime
All of the following pollutants are produced because of decaying
organic matter except: Chemical used for checking the growth of algae in reservoirs is

A. ammonia A. copper sulphate

B. sulfur dioxide B. alum
C. methane C. bleaching powder
D. hydrogen sulfide D. brine

The velocity of radiations (v) and the frequency of radiations (f) are Which of the following is not the pollutant from a sulfuric acid plants?
related to the wavelength of radiations by:
A. Sulfur dioxide
A. v/f B. Sulfur trioxide
B. f/v C. Acid moist
C. vf D. Hydrogen sulfide
D. v^2f
Which of the following is a cold cathode lamp?
Swimming pool water needs
A. Sodium vapor lamp
A. pre – chlorination B. High pressure mercury vapor lamp
B. super – chlorination C. Low pressure mercury vapor lamp
C. dual – chlorination D. Neon lamp
D. de – chlorination
Which has an octane rating of more than 100?
Aeration of water is done for all of the following purposes except for:
A. Gobar gas
A. removal of CO2 B. Methyl alcohol
B. removal of bad taste C. Benzol
C. increasing the amount of oxygen in water D. Ethyl alcohol
D. removal of temporary hardness
The part per million is identical to: A type of polymer used for detergents, milk bottles, oil containers and
toys
A. Grains per gallon
B. Pounds per cubic foot A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
C. Milligrams per kg B. Polystyrene (PS)
D. Tones per acre foot C. High density polyethelene (HDPE)
D. Polypropylene
In power plant an electrostatic precipitators is installed between:
A type of polymer used for grocery bags and food wraps
A. forced draft fan and induced draft fan
B. furnace and chimney A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
C. primary air and secondary air B. Polystyrene (PS)
D. furnace and forced draft fan C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
D. Polypropylene
At present, the number of true elementary particles which include
leptons and quarks, is thought to be: A radioactive gas produced from the decay of radium within the
rocks beneath a building
A. 4
B. 8 A. Spills
C. 10 B. Radon
D. 12 C. Smoke
D. Smog
The effective size of a target atom that interacts with a moving
particle is called its _______ Consists of ground – level ozone and peroxyacyl nitrates (PAN)

A. length A. Smog
B. width B. Spills
C. cross section C. Sulfur oxide
D. pseudo-area D. Smoke

Most nuclear particles can react with atoms in several different ways A term used to mean the corrective steps taken to return the
including _______ environment to its original condition

A. absorption A. Stabilization
B. scattering B. Remediation
C. absorption and scattering C. Greenhouse effect
D. reflection and absorption D. Opacity

The operation that produces highest noise level is: The burning of low – sulfur fuel is known as:

A. welding A. fuel switching

B. riveting B. fuel adding
C. machining C. fuel binding
D. pressing D. fuel swapping

The ratio absorbed by the transfer fluid to the original incident energy The removal of particulate matter from a gas flow by exposing the
striking the collector flow to a liquid or slurry is known as:

A. Shading factor A. stripping

B. Collector efficiency B. spraying
C. Betz coefficient C. scrubbing
D. Transmittance D. absorption

A swinging support constructed as part of the vessel and that supports The drop in solvent’s vapor pressure and the increase in mole fraction
the manway cover when it is unbolted and moved aside as solute is added is decribed by:

A. Davit A. Dalton’s law

B. Handhole B. Henry’s law
C. Nozzle neck C. Raoult’s law
D. Manway arm D. Boyle’s law

Is the subjective method in which the smoke density is visually All of the following statements are characteristics of bases except
compared to five standardized white-black grids ________

A. Ringelman scale A. they conduct electricity in aqueous solutions

B. Dalton scale B. they turn red litmus paper blue
C. Smoke spot scale C. they have a pH between 0 and 7
D. Dew point scale D. they neutralize acids forming salts and water

The ratio of fugacity at actual conditions to the fugacity at some

reference state is known as:

A. compressibility
B. activity
C. gravimetric coefficient
D. saturation
All of the following statements about conjugate acids and bases are Generally refers to sulfur trioxide SO3 in the flue gas
true except ________
A. Acid rain
A. a conjugate acids results when a base accept a proton B. Acid gas
B. a conjugate base results when a base accepts a proton C. Hydrochloric acids
C. strong acids tend to give weak conjugate bases D. Stack gas
D. the Bronsted – Lowry theory defines bases as proton
acceptors What consists of weak solutions of sulfuric, hydrochloric, and to a
lesser extent, nitric acids?
Are any solid particulate matter that becomes airborne, with the
exception of particulate matter emitted from the exhaust stack of a A. Stack gas
combustion process B. Acid rain
C. Acid compound
A. Dusts or fugitive dusts D. Pollutant
B. Dioxins
C. Fugitive emissions A fibrous silicate mineral material that is inert, strong and
D. CFCs incombustible

Equipment leaks from plant equipments are known as _________ A. Fiberglass

B. Plastic
A. fugitive leaks C. Rubber
B. fugitive dusts D. Asbestos
C. fugitive exhausts
D. fugitive emissions An insulator with superior tensile strength but low heat resistance

What is a substance that absorbs or retains moisture? A. Rubber

B. Plastic
A. Surface acting agent C. Fiberglass
B. Dry ultra-fine coal D. Asbestos
C. Fossil fuel
D. Humectant Are highly concentrated liquid wastes produced in landfills

Is a soluble compound that reduces a liquid’s surface tension or A. Aerosols

reduces the interfacial tension between a liquid and a solid B. Leachates
C. Nitrogen dioxide
A. Surface – acting agent or surfactant D. Urea
B. Humectant
C. Oxygenated fuel What is the primary cause of smog formation?
D. CFC
A. Toxins
A material or substance that is accidentally or intentionally B. Dioxins
introduced to the environment in a quantity that exceeds what occurs C. Oxidants
naturally D. Nitrogen oxides

A. Waste Is a water soluble organic compound prepared from ammonia. It has

B. Sludge significant biological and industrial usefulness
C. Pollutant
D. Biosolids A. Urea or carbamide urea
B. Nitrite
Refers to organic waste produced from biological waterwaste C. Chlorinated organics
treatment processes D. Oxidants

A. Toxic waste Are by products of reaction between combustion products

B. Biosolids
C. Extrinsic waste A. Photochemicals
D. Process waste B. Oxidants
C. Organics
A rule which states that any solid waste mixed with hazardous waste D. Sediments
becomes harazdous
“Particulate matter” is defined as all particles that are emitted by a
A. The mixture rule combustion source. What is another term for particulate matter?
B. The derived from rule
C. The environmental rule A. Dust
D. The hazard rule B. Aerosol
C. Biosolids
A rule which states that any waste derived from the treatment of a D. Sediments
hazardous waste remains a hazardous waste
Are organic compounds manufactured in oily liquid and solid forms
A. The mixture rule through the late 1970s and subsequently prohibited
B. The treatment rule
C. The derived from rule A. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
D. The hazard rule B. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC))
C. Trihalomethanes
D. Plastic
A type of polymer used for Styrofoam cups and “clam shell” food All of the following occur during reduction of a substance except
containers _______

A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) A. an increase in negative charge

B. Polystyrene (PS) B. loss of electrons
C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE) C. an oxidation state decrease
D. Polypropylene (PP) D. reduction of the oxidizing agent

A type of polymer used for labels, bottles and housewares All of the following are units of energy except:

A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) A. Calories

B. Polystyrene (PS) B. Joules
C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE) C. Pascals
D. Polypropylene (PP) D. MeV

A type of polymer used for clear bottles What do you call the mixture if the solute particles of a solid
suspended in a liquid are larger than molecules?
A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
B. Polystyrene (PS) A. Solution
C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE) B. Suspension
D. Polypropylene (PP) C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
Refers to the high – temperature removal of tarry substances from the
interior of the carbon granule, leaving a highly porous structure What do you call the mixture when a solvent has dissolved as much
solute as it can?
A. Absorbent
B. Activated A. Solution
C. Breakthrough B. Mild solution
D. Adsorbent C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
A substance with high surface area per unit weight, and intricate pore
structure, and a hydrophobic surface The equilibrium constant for weak solution is known as

A. Adsorbent substance A. ionization constant

B. Absorbent substance B. Arrhenius exponent
C. Homogeneous substance C. Solubility product
D. Activated substance D. La Chatelier’s constant

Is a high – temperature process that turns incinerator ash into a safe, What do you call the mixture if the solute particles of solid suspended
glass – like material in a liquid are larger than the molecules?

A. Advance oxidation A. Solution

B. Biolfiltration B. Suspension
C. Vitrification C. Hydration
D. Bioventing D. Saturated solution

Refers to the use of composting and soil beds What do you call the mixture when a solvent has dissolved as much
solute as it can?
A. Biofiltration
B. Biomediation A. Solution
C. Bioventing B. Mild solution
D. Bioreactors C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
Are open or closed tanks containing dozens or hundreds of slowly
rotating disks covered with a biological film of microorganisms The equilibrium constant for weak solution is known as:

A. Biofilter A. ionization constant

B. Bioreactor B. Arrhenius exponent
C. Biomediator C. Solubility product
D. Bioinventor D. La Chatelier’s constant

Refers to the treatment of contaminated soil in a large plastic – If the solute particles of a solid suspended in a liquid are larger than
covered tank molecules, the mixture is known as:

A. Bioventing A. solution
B. Biological recycling B. suspension
C. Biocycle C. hydration
D. Bioremediation D. saturated solution

All of the following occur during oxidation of a substance except When a solvent has dissolved as much solute as it can, the mixture is
_______ called:

A. oxidation state increases A. solution

B. loss of electrons B. suspension
C. the substance becomes less negative C. hydration
D. oxidation of the oxidizing agent D. saturated solution
When excess solute in a solution settles to the bottom of the container, Which of the following contribute to the deterioration of the Earth’s
the process is called: ozone layer?

A. salvation A. Carbon monoxide

B. deemulsification B. Chlorofluorocarbons
C. precipitation C. Carbon dioxide
D. equation D. Refrigerants

All of the following express units of concentration except: Ozone filters out what type of radiation that damages crops and
causes skin cancer?
A. normality
B. molarity A. Tropospheric radiation
C. formality B. Atmospheric radiation
D. isotropy C. X – rays
D. Ultraviolet radiation
The desirable temperature inside an air conditioned auditorium is:
All of the following factors affect rates of reaction except:
A. 0 °C
B. 5 °C A. exposed surface area
C. 10 °C B. concentrations
D. 20 °C C. temperature
D. pressure
Which of the following acts as ignition accelerator for internal
combustion engine fuels? Le Chatelier’s principle predicts the direction of a state of chemical
equilibrium based on all of the following factors except:
A. Acetone peroxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide A. temperature
C. Aromatic compounds B. specific volume
D. n – heptane C. pressure
D. concentration
Which of the following does not use ambient air for propulsion?
The amount of energy necessary to cause a reaction to occur is
A. Turbo jet called the ________
B. Turbo – prop
C. Pulse jet A. heat of formation
D. Rocket B. heat of solution
C. activation of energy
Most observed properties of light and other radiant energy are D. heat of fusion
consistent with waves in nature, but in interactions with mater,
electromagnetic energy behaves as though it consists of discrete The equilibrium constant for weak solutions is known as ________
pieces or
A. the ionization constant
A. blocks B. The Arrhenius exponent
B. balls C. The solubility product
C. quanta D. Le Chatelier’s principle
D. atomic masses
The speed at which a reaction proceeds to equilibrium is the purview
The amount of energy absorbed when a substance enters a solution is of ______
called the:
A. reaction kinetics
A. heat of fusion B. Le Chatelier’s principle
B. heat of sublimation C. neutralization
C. endothermic heat of solution D. ionization
D. exothermic heat of solution
The color of water is measured:
The absorption of water by a dessicant often demonstrates:
A. in terms of pH value
A. heat of fusion B. in terms of degree of hardness
B. heat of sublimation C. in terms of platinum cobalt scale
C. endothermic heat of solution D. ppm of dissolved solids
D. exothermic heat of solution
What turbidimeter that gives direct readings in ppm?
A substance that absorbs moisture from the air is:
A. Jackson turbidimeter
A. deliquescent B. Hellige turbidimeter
B. efflorescent C. Baylis turbidimeter
C. effervescent D. all of the above
D. a precipitant
Which of the following is not a sound absorptive material?
The removal of a dissolved gas or other volatile component from
liquid by exposing the liquid to air or steam is known as: A. Rugs
B. Mirrors
A. stripping C. Carpets
B. gas absorption D. Heavy drapes
C. spraying
D. scrubbing
The total cross section of a target atom is made up of _______

A. the absorption cross section

B. the scattering cross section
C. the absorption and scattering cross sections
D. the reflection and absorption cross sections

Which of the following cannot be a phenomenon of neutron

interactions?

A. inelastic scattering
B. elastic scattering
C. fission
D. fusion

Which of the following cannot be used to describe neutron kinetic

energy levels?

A. cold
B. thermal
C. slow
D. freezing

All of the following are words used to describe neutron kinetic energy
levels except:

A. slow (resonant)
B. fast
C. supersonic
D. relativistic

The reduction of nuclear radiation intensity (called attenuation) is

accomplished by:

A. matter
B. antimatter
C. shielding
D. neurons

The ability of substance to absorb neurons depends upon its ________

A. absorption cross section

B. scattering cross section
C. total cross section
D. atomic number
If the energy of the incident photon is less than the work function: Mass density of liquid (ρ) is given by which of the following?

A. an electron will be ejected A. ρ = Mass / volume

B. more than one electron will be ejected B. ρ = metric slug / m^2
C. an electron will not be ejected C. ρ = kg sec^2 / ,^4
D. less than one electron will be ejected D. all of the above

For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid must decrease as the fluid The speed of sound in all fluid is most closely related to all of the
flow area of the duct following properties except _______

A. increases A. compressibility
B. decreases B. density
C. remain the same C. bulk modulus
D. none of these D. thermal conductivity

Density in terms of viscosity is Under which conditions, the specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m^3?

A. kinematic viscosity / dynamic viscosity A. at normal pressure of 760 mm

B. dynamic viscosity / kinematic viscosity B. at 4°C temperature
C. kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity C. at mean sea level
D. none of the above D. all of the above

Liquids and gases take the following characteristic(s) of their contents All of the following can be characteristics of fluids except ______

A. Volume A. kinematic viscosity

B. Shape B. surface tension
C. Shape and volume C. bulk modulus
D. Neither shape nor volume D. hysteresis

Alcohol finds use in manometers as: Which of the following can be used to measure the flow of water in a
pipe of diameter 3000 mm?
A. it provides a suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
B. its density being less can provide longer length for a A. Venturimeter
pressure difference, thus more accuracy can be obtained B. Rotameter
C. A and B above are correct C. Nozzle
D. Cheap and easily available D. Pitot tube

Which of the following statements about a Newtonian fluid is most The pressure at a given depth due to several immiscible liquids is:
accurate?
A. the average of the individual pressures
A. Shear stress is proportional to strain B. the sum of the individual pressures
B. Viscosity is zero C. independent of the individual pressure
C. Shear stress is multi – valued D. unknown
D. Shear stress is proportional to rate of strain
The equation of continuity of flow is applicable if:
The normal stress is the same in all directions at a point in fluid:
A. the flow is one dimensional
A. independent of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an B. the flow is steady
adjacent layer C. the velocity is uniform over the cross – section
B. when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an D. all of the above conditions are together
adjacent layer
C. only if the fluid is frictionless Uniform flow takes place when:
D. only if the fluid is frictionless and incompressible
A. conditions remain unchanged with time at any point
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fluid pressure? B. rate of change of velocity of fluid is zero
C. at every point the velocity vector is identical in magnitude
A. It is the same in all directions at a point in the fluid and direction for any given instant
B. It acts normal to a surface D. the change in transverse direction is zero
C. It is a shear stress
D. It is linear with depth The continuity equation of an ideal fluid flow:

The length of mercury column at a place at an altitude will change A. states that the net rate of in – flow into any small volume
with respect to that at ground in: must be zero
B. applies to irrotational flow only
A. a linear relation C. states that the energy remains constant along streamline
B. a parabolic relation D. states that energy is constant everywhere in the fluid
C. will remain constant
D. first slowly and then steeply A pitot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity as described by
the Bernoulli’s equation and the relationship between:
All of the following dimensionless parameters are applicable to fluid
flow problems except the ________ A. kinetic energy and static pressure
B. fluid pressure and height of fluid
A. Reynolds number C. fluid pressure and impact energy
B. Froude number D. pressure and momentum
C. Mach number
D. Biot number
In order to avoid vaporization in the pipe line, the pipe line over the For stable equilibrium of floating body its metacenter should lie:
ridge is laid in such a way that it is not more than:
A. below the center of gravity
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient B. below the center of buoyancy
B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient C. above the center of buoyancy
C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient D. above the center of gravity
D. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
Center of pressure on an inclined plane lies ______
The stream function is a useful parameter in describing ________
A. at the centroid
A. the conservation of mass B. above the centroid
B. the conservation of momentum C. below the centroid
C. the conservation of energy D. at metacenter
D. the equation of state
The line of action of the buoyant forces always acts through the
For high speed flows, the potential energy of the fluids are: centroid of the _______

A. positive A. submerged body

B. negative B. volume of the floating body
C. negligible C. volume of the fluid vertically above the body
D. none of these D. displaced volume of the fluid

McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement operates on the The hydraulic grade line of a pipeline denotes which of the following?
principle of _________
A. Total energy
A. Gas law B. Pressure energy
B. Boyle’s law C. Potential energy
C. Charles law D. The sum of pressure energy and potential energy
D. Pascal’s law
The energy grade line of a pipeline denotes which of the following
A Kaplan turbine is
A. Total energy
A. a high head mixed flow turbine B. Pressure energy
B. an impulse turbine, inward flow C. Potential energy
C. a reaction turbine, outward flow D. The sum of pressure energy and potential energy
D. low head axial flow turbine
The presence of friction in the energy grade line will always cause the
The most common method for calculating frictional energy loss for line to slope
laminar flowing fluids in noncircular pipes is:
A. down in the direction of the flow
A. the Darcy equation B. upward in the direction of the flow
B. the Hagan – Poisevill equation C. level (no slope)
C. the Hazen – Williams equation D. there is no effect of friction on the energy grade line
D. the Swamee – Jin equation
The pitot tube is a device used for measurement of
The parameter f in the expression for head-loss is
A. pressure
A. the fraction of flow that is totally turbulent B. flow
B. the Darcy friction factor C. velocity
C. the height of the roughness scale in turbulent flow D. discharge
D. the static coefficient of friction
Hydrometer is used to find out
Friction factor for both laminar and turbulent flows can be found
plotted in a A. specific gravity of liquids
B. specific gravity of solids
A. steam table C. specific gravity of gases
B. psychrometric chart D. relative humidity
C. Moody diagram
D. Mollier diagram The fluid forces taken into consideration in the Navier Stokes equation
are:
Which of the following is relative velocity?
A. gravity, pressure and viscous
A. The difference between two velocities B. gravity, pressure and turbulent
B. Average velocity C. pressure, viscous and turbulent
C. Sum of two velocities D. gravity, viscous and turbulent
D. Vector difference of two velocities
Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete tunnel, is
Which of the following is the highest head? generally

A. 33 inch Hg A. 4 – 5 m/s
B. 31.0 ft. water B. 10 – 12 m/s
C. 1.013 kg kg/cm^2 C. 13 – 16 m/s
D. 75.0 cm of Hg D. 20 m/s
Orifice refers to an opening Refers to the compressibility of a fluid, the fractional change in fluid
volume per unit change in fluid
A. with closed perimeter and of regular form through which
water flows A. Viscosity
B. with prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of B. Bulk modulus
opening in thick wall C. Density
C. with partially full flow D. Pressure
D. in hydraulic structure with regulation provision
A pitot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity as described by
The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison to coefficient of the Bernoulli equation and the relationship between:
velocity is found to be ________
A. kinetic energy and static pressure
A. more B. fluid pressure and static pressure
B. less C. fluid pressure and impact energy
C. same D. pressure and momentum
D. more/less depending on flow
The ratio of the area to the wetted perimeter is known as ______
Weir refers to an opening
A. flow factor
A. having closed perimeter and of regular form through which B. hydraulic radius
water flows C. Kutter’s C
B. having prolonged sides with length of 2 to 3 diameters of D. value of k in Darcy – Weisbach formula
opening in thick wall
C. having partially full flow What is the coefficient of contraction?
D. in hydraulic structure with regulation provision
A. The ratio of the area of vena contracta to the area of the
Which of the following parameters determine the friction factor of orifice
turbulent flow in a rough pipe? B. The ratio of actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. The ratio of the actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
A. Froude number and relative roughness D. The ratio of the effective head to the actual head
B. Froude number and Mach number
C. Reynolds number and relative roughness Where is vena contracta most likely located?
D. Mach number and relative roughness
A. At the orifice
Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the loss of head B. At a distance approximately ½ the diameter of the orifice
due to friction is: C. At a distance approximately equal to the diameter of the
orifice
A. one – half of the total head supplied D. At a distance approximately twice the diameter of the
B. one – third of the total head supplied orifice
C. one – fourth of the total head supplied
D. equal to the total head supplied A substance that is able to flow and yields to any force tending to
change its shape without changing its volume such as water and air
In a nozzle if back pressure is same as inlet pressure then _______
A. Fluid
A. no flow takes place B. Flux
B. maximum flow takes place C. Gas oil
C. flow becomes subsonic in diverging section D. Water gas
D. flow becomes supersonic in converging as well as
supersonic reaction The velocity of a fluid particle at the center of the pipe section is
______
The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is called _______
A. maximum
A. sonic B. minimum
B. sub – sonic C. average
C. supersonic D. logarithmic average
D. supersonic on one side and sub – sonic on the other side
For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid must increase as the fluid
Which of the following is the basic of Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow? flow area of the duct:

A. Continuity equation A. increases

B. Principle of conservation of energy B. decreases
C. Fourier’s law C. constant
D. Principle of conservation of mass D. none of these

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fluid pressure? Which is incorrect statement regarding apparent shear forces

A. It is a shear stress A. It can never be found in frictionless fluid regardless of its

B. It is the same in all directions at a point in the fluid motion
C. It acts normal to a surface B. It can never be found when the fluid is at rest
D. It is linear with depth C. It depends upon cohesive forces
D. It may occur owing to cohesion when the fluid is at rest
The time required for half a quantity of radioactive particles to decay Property of a fluid whereby its own molecules are attracted is known
(disintegrate) is called its ________ as _______

A. average life A. adhesion

B. median life B. cohesion
C. time constant C. surface tension
D. half time D. viscosity

SI unit of viscosity is: The term subsonic flow refers to a flowing gas with a speed:

A. 10 times poise A. less than the local speed of sound

B. 9.81 times poise B. equal to the speed of sound
C. 1 / 9.81 times poise C. greater than the speed of sound
D. 1 / 10 times poise D. much greater than the speed of sound

For computation convenience, fluids are usually classed as: The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions if
the fluid is:
A. rotational or irrotational
B. real or ideal A. viscous
C. laminar or turbulent B. viscous and static
D. Newtonian or non-Newtonian C. inviscous and in motion
D. viscous and is in motion
Which of the following is not a dimensionless parameter?
The statement that the “the hydrostatic pressure a fluid exerts on an
A. Kinetic viscosity immersed object or on container walls is a function only of fluid
B. Weber number depth” is
C. Darcy Weisbach friction factor
D. Froude number A. the perfect gas law
B. D’Alembert’s paradox
Which of the following is not a characteristic of real fluids? C. the hydrostatic paradox
D. Boyle’s law
A. Finite viscosity
B. Non – uniform velocity distributions Bernoulli’s equation is s/an _________
C. Compressibility
D. Experience of eddy currents and turbulence A. momentum equation
B. conservation of energy equation
Which of the following is not the mass density of water? C. conservation of mass equation
D. equation of state
A. 62.5 lbm/ft^3
B. 100 kg/m^3 An ideal fluid is one that:
C. 1 g/cm^3
D. 1 kg/L A. is very viscous
B. obeys Newton’s law of viscosity
The upper critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is: C. is assumed in problems in conduit flow
D. is frictionless and incompressible
A. of no practical importance to designers
B. always used to design pipes for strength The relationship between pressure and altitude in the atmosphere is
C. the number at which turbulent flow changes over to laminar given by the:
flow
D. the number at which laminar flow changes into turbulent A. perfect gas law
flow B. conservation of mass
C. barometric height relationship
Which of the following statements about gauge pressure is most D. first law of thermodynamics
correct? Gauge pressure are measured relative to ________
The fact the buoyant force on a floating object equal to the weight of
A. atmospheric pressure the water displaced is:
B. a vacuum
C. each other A. Bernoulli’s law
D. the surface B. Archimedes’ principle
C. The law of diminishing returns
The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is called D. The conservation of mass
_______
Which of the following terms does not appear in the steady flow
A. volumetric strain energy equation (the extended Bernoulli’s equation) ?
B. volumetric index
C. compressibility A. Kinetic energy
D. adhesion B. Potential energy
C. Friction losses
Compressibility of a fluid relates the fractional change in fluid volume D. Hysteresis losses
per unit change in fluid

A. temperature
B. density
C. pressure
D. viscosity
Neglecting the forces due to inertia, gravity and frictional resistance, The characteristic length of the Reynold’s number used to calculate
the design of a channel can be made by comparing the friction in noncircular full running pipes is based on the _______

A. Weber number A. run length

B. Reynolds number B. pipe length
C. Froude’s number C. hydraulic diameter (the equivalent diameter)
D. Prant’l number D. wetted circumference

The difference between stagnation pressure and total pressure is: The hydraulic radius of noncircular pipe is:

A. due to height difference A. the square root of the flow area

B. due to fluid kinetic energy B. the ratio of the area to the wetted perimeter
C. none of the terms are interchangeable C. the radius of a pipe of equivalent area
D. important only in supersonic flow D. none of the above

Fully turbulent flow in a pipe is characterized by all of the following The Darcy equation can be used for all liquids and flows except:
except:
A. water
A. a parabolic velocity profile B. alcohol
B. a momentum exchange due to fluid masses rather than C. gasoline
molecules D. air flowing supersonically
C. a maximum velocity at the fluid center line
D. a 1/7 velocity profile The Hazen – Williams formula for head loss due to friction is based
upon:
The laminar friction factor of fluid flowing through a pipe is a function
of all of the following except: A. rigorous mathematical derivation
B. empirical data
A. fluid velocity C. semi – empirical analysis
B. pipe diameter D. screndipity
C. pipe roughness
D. Reynolds number The extended Bernoulli equation includes all of the following terms
except:
The continuity equation is applicable to:
A. potential energy
A. viscous unviscous fluids B. kinetic energy
B. compressibility of fluids C. nuclear energy
C. conservation of mass D. friction losses
D. steady unsteady flow
An equipotential line is one that:
The rise or fall of head ‘h’ in a capillary tube of diameter ‘d’ and liquid
surface tension ‘s’ and specific weight ‘w’ is given by: A. has no velocity component tangent to it
B. has uniformly varying dynamic pressure
A. 4s/wd C. has no velocity component normal to it
B. 4ds/w D. exists in case of rotational flow
C. 4wd/s
D. 4ws/d What is the use of a Hydraulic jump?

The study of the practical laws of fluid flow and the resistance of open A. increase the flow rate
pipes and channels B. reduce the flow rate
C. reduce the velocity of flow
A. fluid mechanics D. reduce the energy of flow
B. hydraulics
C. aerodynamics What do you call the lowest portion to storage basin from where the
D. thermodynamics water is not drawn?

Which of the following turbine is different from the others? A. bottom storage
B. sub soil storage
A. Fourneyron turbine C. spring reserve
B. Francis turbine D. dead storage
C. Kaplan turbine
D. Pelton wheel The presence of friction in the hydraulic grade line will always cause
the line to slope:
Running away speed of a Pelton wheel gives:
A. down in the direction of the flow
A. actual operating speed B. upward in the direction of the flow
B. no load speed C. level (no slope)
C. full load speed D. there is no effect of friction on the energy grade line
D. no load speed when governor mechanism fails
The presence of a minor loss in the energy grade line will cause the
Which of the following turbine is different from the others? line to slope:

A. Pelton wheel A. down in the direction of the flow

B. Banki turbine B. upward in the direction of the flow
C. Jonval turbine C. vertically downward
D. Kaplan turbine D. there is no effect of friction on the energy grade line
What do you call the pressure which the fluid exerts on an immersed Which of the following is considered as an important parameter in the
object or container walls? study of compressible flow?

A. Normal pressure A. speed of fluid

B. Standard liquid pressure B. speed of sound
C. Hydrostatic pressure C. speed of light
D. Gage pressure D. speed of fluid flow

Viscosity for a fluid is defined as the constant of proportionality Is the velocity at which an infinitesimal small pressure wave travels
between shear stress and what other variable? through a medium

A. The spatial derivative of velocity A. Subsonic velocity

B. The time derivative of pressure B. Hypersonic velocity
C. The time derivative of density C. Sonic velocity
D. The spatial derivative of density D. Monatomic velocity

What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid travels parallel to It is the ratio of the actual velocity of the fluid to the velocity of sound
the adjacent layers and the paths of the individual particles do not
cross each other? A. Mach number
B. Froude number
A. Steady flow C. Sonic number
B. Laminar flow D. Euler number
C. Uniform flow
D. Turbulent flow The flow is called sonic when Mach number is:

Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s sensitivity to A. equal to 1

changes in viscosity with changes in temperature? B. less than 1
C. more than 1
A. Viscosity index D. none of these
B. Coefficient of viscosity
C. Viscosity ratio The following flow is sub – sonic when Mach no. is:
D. Viscosity factor
A. greater than 1
If the Mach number is greater than 1 but lesser than 5, what is the B. less than 1
standard classification of the travel? C. more than 1
D. none of these
A. Transonic travel
B. Subsonic travel The flow is supersonic when Mach no. is:
C. Hypersonic travel
D. Supersonic travel A. greater than zero
B. less than 1
What is measured by a Pitot tube? C. greater than 1
D. none of these
A. Volumetric discharge
B. Mass flow The flow is transonic when
C. Pressure
D. Velocity A. M=0
B. M<1
What is the difference between the energy grade line and the C. M>1
hydraulic grade line? D. M=1

A. potential energy The pressure decreases as the temperature and velocity increases
B. pressure energy while the fluid velocity and Mach number:
C. kinetic energy
D. friction losses A. increases
B. decreases
Kinetic energy is not neglected in calculations of: C. remains constant
D. none of these
A. high speed flow
B. low speed flow The Mach number is unity or one at the location of smallest flow area,
C. steady flow called the:
D. equilibrium flow
A. decreasing are
Discharge losses through orifice are due to: B. throat
C. increasing area
A. friction losses D. none of these
B. minor losses
C. both friction and minor losses What happens to the velocity of fluid after passing the throat although
D. pressure losses the flow area

A. increases rapidly
B. decreases rapidly
C. remains constant
D. none of these
Which of the following is an example of a Newtonian fluid? If Q is the volume in gallon; D is height or elevation in ft, and m is
weight in lbs per gallon, what is the desired energy to lift the water
A. Motor oils from lower to higher elevation?
B. Gas
C. Paints A. E = mD/Q
D. Clay slurries B. E = mDQ
C. E = mQ/D
What is the critical pressure of water? D. E = QD/m

A. 150 kg/cm^3 The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is always subsonic. If
B. less than 200 kg/cm^2 the flow is subsonic then the Mach number is:
C. more than 200 kg/cm^2
D. 100 kg/cm^2 A. greater than unity
B. less than unity
The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is called: C. near unity
D. unity
A. volumetric change
B. volumetric index
C. compressibility
D. adhesion

The energy of a fluid flowing at any section in a pipeline is a function

of:

A. velocity of flow only

B. pressure only
C. height above a chosen datum, density, internal energy,
pressure and velocity of flow
D. pressure, height above a chosen datum, velocity of flow,
density of fluid

If the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of
individual particles do not cross, the fluid is said to be:

A. turbulent
B. critical
C. dynamic
D. laminar

Center of pressure on an inclined plane lies:

A. at the centroid
B. above the centroid
C. below the centroid
D. at the metacenter

At any instant, if the number of particles passing every cross – section

of the stream is the same, the flow is said to be:

A. steady flow
B. uniform flow
C. continuous flow
D. laminar flow

The ratio of cross-sectional area of flow to the wetted perimeter is:

A. hydraulic lead
B. hydraulic section
C. hydraulic mean depth
D. hydraulic gradient

If A is the cross-sectional area of the flow and Pw is the wetted

perimeter of a pipe, then what is the hydraulic depth, Hd ?

A. Pw – A
B. Pw / A
C. A / Pw
D. Pw x A
The volumetric efficiency of a compressor having clearance factor c Surging is
is given by:
A. an unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in the compressor
A. 1 + c – c(P2/P1)^(1/n) B. the fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio
B. 1 + c + c(P2/P1)^(n – 1) C. the reduction in lift force at higher angle of incidence
C. 1 + c – c(P2/P1)^(n) D. none of the above
D. 1 + c + c(P2/P1)^(n + 1)
In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise takes place in:
In case of axial flow compressors for minimum fluid friction and blade
tip clearance losses, the blades of an axial flow compressor are A. fixed blades only
designed for _______ B. moving blades only
C. both fixed and moving blades
A. 80% reaction D. none of the above
B. 85% reaction
C. 60% reaction An axial flow compressor is suitable for:
D. 53% reaction
A. high volume flow rates with small pressure rise
Centrifugal blowers can supply B. low volume flow rates with low pressure rise
C. high volume flow rates with high pressure rise
A. large volumes of air at low pressures D. low volume flow rates with high pressure rise
B. small volumes of air at high pressures
C. large volumes of air at high pressures Which of the following is a positive displacement rotary compressor?
D. small volumes of air at low pressures
A. Roots blower
Which of the following is a safety device on a compressor? B. Centrifugal compressor
C. Axial flow compressor
A. Relief valve D. None of the above
B. Strainer
C. Over speed shut down Choking is
D. Over pressure shut down
A. change of mass flow rate in proportion to pressure ratio
In a four stage compressor system, the first and third stage pressures B. change of mass flow rate in inverse proportion to pressure
are 1 and 9 kg/cm^2 respectively. What is the fourth stage delivery ratio
pressure? C. fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio
D. all of the above
A. 9 kg/cm^2
B. 81 kg/cm^2 Crankshaft of a reciprocating compressor is basically made of what?
C. 27 kg/cm^2
D. 243 kg/cm^2 A. semi – steel
B. aluminum alloy
For a six compression of air set, the minimum work conditions are: C. steel forging
D. cast iron
A. pressure rise per stage will be equal
B. work done in successive stages will be in geometrical Most plant air systems to operate the tools and machines which
progression require 70 to 90 psig are maintained at ________
C. cylinder volumes will be same
D. temperature rise in the cylinders will be the same A. 90 to 110 psig
B. 110 to 130 psig
Which of the following give the optimum intermediate pressure in C. 130 to 150 psig
case of two stage compression? D. 70 to 90 psig

A. P2 = (P1 + P3)/2 The capacity of portable air compressors used for construction,
B. P2 = P1 + (P1+P3)/2 mining, road building, and painting ranges from _______
C. P2 = √(P1P3)
D. P2 = P1 + √(P1^2 + P3^2) A. 1 ft^3/min to 2000 ft^3/min
B. 30 ft^3/min to 2500 ft^3/min
In air compressor performance curve a surge line represents what? C. 1 ft^3/min to 2500 ft^3/min
D. 30 ft^3/min to 2000 ft^3/min
A. limit of compressor efficiency
B. limit of compressor discharge The power of portable air compressors used for construction, mining,
C. limit of stable operation road building, and painting ranges from:
D. lower critical speed of shaft
A. 1 hp to 500 hp
Which of the following is a displacement compressor? B. ½ hp to 500 hp
C. 1 hp to 1000 hp
A. Reciprocating air compressor D. ½ hp to 1000 hp
B. Vane blower
C. Centrifugal blower Most permanent installations use piston compressors available as
D. Axial flow compressors stock items in size ranging from

Stalling of the blades of axial flow compressor is: A. 1 ft^3/min to 2000 ft^3/min
B. 30 ft^3/min to 2500 ft^3/min
A. an unsteady periodic and reversal of flow C. 1 ft^3/min to 2500 ft^3/min
B. the fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio D. 30 ft^3/min to 2000 ft^3/min
C. the reduction in lift force at higher angle of incidence
D. all of the above
Most permanent installations use piston compressors available as The adiabatic pump efficiency is the ratio of the:
stock items of what pressure?
A. electrical energy output to the electrical energy input
A. 150 psi B. mechanical energy input to the electrical energy output of
B. 200 psi the device
C. 250 psi C. ideal energy input to the pump to the actual energy input
D. 300 psi D. actual energy extracted to the ideal energy extracted

When the piston is top center of the cylinder in a double – acting A condenser’s water – circulating pump is belt-driven by an electric
reciprocating compressor: motor with an adjustable pitch motor sheave. This sheave

A. all suction valves are open and all discharge valves are A. permits adjustment of pump speed
closed B. prevent overload and/or burnout of the pump and motor
B. all suction valves are closed and all discharge valves are C. prevents excessive wear on the belt and motor shaft
closed bearings
C. all suction valves are closed and all discharge valves are D. facilitates belt replacement
open
D. all suction valves are open and all discharge valves are The function of a pump or compressor is to
open
A. transfer heat from one fluid to another
Pump used to increase air pressure above normal, air is then used as B. increase the total energy content of the flow
a motive power C. extract energy from the flow
D. exchanged heat to increase energy to the flow
A. Air cooled engine
B. Air compressor An aftercooler on a reciprocating air compressor is used primarily to:
C. Air condenser
D. Air injection A. cool the lubricating oil
B. condense the moisture in the compressed air
A device used for raising fluids from a lower to higher level C. improve compressor efficiency
D. increase compressor capacity
A. Compressor
B. Pump A receiver in an air compression system is used to
C. Turbine
D. Blowers A. avoid cooling air before using
B. increase the air discharge pressure
When a pump is operating at a vacuum of 4 in Hg, which of the C. collect water and grease suspended in the air
following is not correct? D. reduce the work needed during compression

A. The pressure is 25.92 in Hg Crankshaft of reciprocating compressor is basically made of:

B. The pressure is 10.721 psia
C. The pressure is 158.4 torr A. semi-steel
D. The pressure is 0.8663 atm B. aluminum alloy
C. cast iron
The amount of energy actually entering the fluid from a pump is the D. steel forging

A. brake horsepower Cooling water system consists of equipment to dissipate heat

B. hydraulic horsepower absorbed by the engine jacket water, lube oil and the heat to be
C. theoretical horsepower removed from air intercooler is measurable to keep the engine outlet
D. hydraulic, theoretical, or water horsepower water temperature constant and the differential of the cooling water
at a minimum preferably not to exceed:
Primary purpose of a pump in a fluid loop is to
A. 10 to 30 °F
A. add energy to the flow B. 10 to 50 °F
B. add mass to the flow C. 10 to 20 °F
C. extract energy from the flow D. 10 to 40 °F
D. none of the above
Which of the following is one of the most popular types of compressor
The isentropic efficiency of a pump is given by the utilized for supercharging engine?

A. ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted A. Roots type blower

B. ratio of ideal to actual energy supplied B. Pulse turbo charger
C. ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted C. Constant pressure turbo charger
D. ratio of actual to ideal energy supplied D. Turbo compressor

The electrical efficiency of a device is the ratio of the: The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given
head with no losses in the pump is called:
A. electrical energy output to the electrical energy input
B. mechanical energy input to the mechanical energy output A. wheel power
of the device B. brake power
C. actual energy extracted to the ideal energy extracted C. hydraulic power
D. actual to the ideal energy input D. indicated power
Fluids that are pumped in processing work are frequently more Which of the following components of a power converts mechanical
viscous than water. Which of the following statement is correct? energy to pressure energy?

A. Reynolds number varies directly as the viscosity A. Impeller

B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the viscosity increases B. Valve
C. Increased fluid friction between the pump parts and the C. Shaft
passing fluid increases useful work D. Delivery pipe
D. Working head increases as the viscosity
Mr. De La Cruz wanted to buy a pump for his farm. What is suitable for
A reciprocating pump is considered positive displacement pump deepwell?
because
A. Reciprocating
A. displacement of the liquid is affected by the displacement B. Airlift
of the piston C. Hand lift
B. positive pressure is given to the liquid D. Centrifugal
C. liquid is discharge with positive pressure
D. liquid is lifted due to the vacuum created inside the cylinder A tank contains H2O. What is the intensity of pressure at a depth of 6
meters?
To protect adequately the engine bearings, what type and better
arrangement of lubricating oil filter is most practical? A. 68 kPa
B. 58.8 kPa
A. Full-flow type filter installed between the lubricating oil pump C. 78.0 kPa
and the bearings D. 48.7 kPa
B. Duplex filter installed before the lubricating pump
C. Bypass filter with cleanable and replaceable elements In order to avoid cavitation the NPSH of an installation should be:
D. Splash lubricating system in the crank case
A. at least equal or greater than the NPSH of the pump
Medium pressure when applied to valves and fittings are suitable for a B. at least equal or less than the NPSH of the pump
working pressure of: C. equal to the NPSH of the pump only
D. greater than the NPSH of the pump only
A. 862 to 1200 kPa
B. 758 to 1000 kPa The actual head, neglecting the kinetic energy in which the pump
C. 500 to 1000 kPa work against
D. 658 to 1050 kpa
A. delivery head
The function of an unloader on an electric motor-driven compressor is B. pressure head
to C. velocity head
D. suction head
A. reduce the speed of the motor when the maximum pressure
is reached Flow of water in a pipe have a velocity at 10 meters per second.
B. drain the condensate from the cylinder Determine the velocity head of the water
C. release the pressure in the cylinder in order to reduce the
starting load A. 50.1 meters
D. prevent excess pressure in the receiver B. 5.1 meters
C. 8.2 meters
An unloader is used on air compressor to: D. 100 meters

A. relieve air pressure Find the velocity head for a velocity of 18 m/s
B. start easier
C. stop easier A. 33.0 m
D. run faster B. 0.92 m
C. 1.8 m
The performance of a reciprocating compressor is expressed as: D. 16.5 m

A. adiabatic work divided by adiabatic input The size of a steam reciprocating pumps is generally designated by a
B. adiabatic work divided by indicated work three-digit number size as 646. The first digit designates
C. isothermal work divided by indicated work
D. isothermal work divided by adiabatic owrk A. stroke of the pump in inches
B. inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured in inches
For reciprocating compressor slip at positive or negative C. percent clearance
displacement D. number of cylinders

A. Cd = 1 If Qa is the actual discharge flow and Qb is the theoretical discharge

B. Cd > 1 flow, what will the coefficient of discharge be equal to during positive
C. Cd < 1 displacement slip?
D. Cd = 0
A. Qa x Qb
In order that cavitation will not take place in the suction line of a B. Qb/Qa
pump, what should be the sum of the velocity head and pressure C. Qa/Qb
head at suction compared to the vapor pressure of the liquid? D. 1 – Qa/Qb

A. Sufficiently lower
B. Constant
C. Adequately greater
D. Equal
Two pumps are connected in series, if Q1 is the discharge of Pump 1 An underground formation that contains sufficient permeable material
and Q2 is the discharge of Pump 2 where Q1 < Q2, what is the to yield significant quantities of water
discharge?
A. Aquifer
A. Q2 B. Wet pit
B. Q1 C. Ground water
C. Q1 + Q2 D. Well water
D. Q1/Q2
A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having a screened inlet
A pump in which the pressure is developed principally by the action kept partially filled with water by an open body of water such as
of centrifugal force pond, lake, or steams

A. Centrifugal pump A. Aquifer

B. End suction pump B. Wet pit
C. In line pump C. Ground water
D. Horizontal pump D. Well water

A single suction pump having its suction nozzle on the opposite side Water which is available from a well, driven into water bearing
of the casing from the stuffing box and having the face of the suction subsurface strata (aquifer)
nozzle perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the shaft
A. Aquifer
A. Centrifugal pump B. Wet pit
B. End suction pump C. Ground water
C. In line pump D. Well water
D. Horizontal pump
The level with respect to the pump, of the body of water from which it
A pump with the shaft normally in a horizontal position takes suction when the pump is not in operation

A. Centrifugal pump A. static water level

B. End suction pump B. pumping water level
C. In line pump C. suction head
D. Horizontal pump D. discharge head

A centrifugal pump whose drive unit is supported by the pump having The level with respect to the pump, of the body of water from which it
its suction and discharge flanges on approximately the same center takes suction when the pump is in operation

A. Horizontal split case pump A. static water level

B. End suction pump B. pumping water level
C. In line pump C. suction head
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump D. drawdown

A centrifugal pump characterized by a housing which is split parallel The vertical difference between the pumping water level and the
to the shaft static water level

A. Horizontal split case pump A. static water level

B. End suction pump B. pumping water level
C. In line pump C. suction head
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump D. drawdown

A centrifugal pump with one or more impellers discharging into one Imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal force as the
or more bowls and a vertical educator or column pipe used to impeller is rotated
connect the bowls to the discharge head on which the pump driver is
mounted A. impeller
B. casing
A. Horizontal split case pump C. stuffing box
B. End suction pump D. shaft sleeve
C. In line pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump Gives direction to the flow from the impeller and converts this velocity
energy into pressure energy
A pump that takes suction from a public service main or private use
water system for the purpose of increasing the effective water A. impeller
pressure B. casing
C. stuffing box
A. Horizontal split case pump D. shaft sleeve
B. Submersible pump
C. Booster pump A means of throttling the leakage which would otherwise occur at the
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump point of entry of the shaft into the casing

A vertical turbine pump with the pump and motor closed coupled A. impeller
and design to be installed underground, as in the case of a deepwell B. casing
pump C. stuffing box
D. shaft sleeve
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. Submersible pump
C. Booster pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
Protects the shaft where it passes through the stuffing box A positive displacement unit wherein the pumping action is
accomplished by the forward and backward movement of a piston or
A. impeller plunger inside a cylinder usually provided with valves
B. casing
C. stuffing box A. Rotary pumps
D. shaft sleeve B. Reciprocating pumps
C. Deep well pumps
Keeps internal recirculation down to a minimum D. Centrifugal pumps

A. wearing rings A type of rotary pump, consist of an eccentrically bored cam rotated
B. bearings by a shaft concentric in a cylindrically bored casing, with an
C. frame aburment or follower so arranged that with each rotation of the drive
D. coupling shaft a positive quantity of liquid is displaced from the space between
the cam and the pump casing
Accurately locate shaft and carry radial and thrust loads
A. Cam and piston pump
A. wearing rings B. Gear pump
B. bearings C. Screw pump
C. frame D. Vane pump
D. coupling
A type of rotary pump, consists of two or more gears, operating in
Which of the following is used to mount unit rigidly and support closely fitted casing so arranged that when the gear teeth unmesh on
bearings one side liquid fills the space between the gear teeth and is carried
around in the tooth space to the opposite side and displaced as the
A. wearing rings teeth mesh again
B. stuffing box
C. frame A. Cam and piston pump
D. coupling B. Gear pump
C. Screw pump
Connects the pump to the driver D. Vane pump

A. wearing rings A type of rotary pump, consists of two or three screw rotors so that as
B. bearings the rotors turn liquid fills the shape between the screw threads and is
C. frame displaced axially as the rotor threads mesh
D. coupling
A. Cam and piston pump
The most common means of throttling the leakage between the inside B. Gear pump
and outside of the casing C. Screw pump
D. Vane pump
A. packing
B. gland A type of rotary pump, consists of one rotor in a casing machined
C. seal gage eccentrically to the drive shaft. The rotor is fitted with a series of
D. mechanical seal vanes, blades or buckets which follow the bore of the casing thereby
displacing the liquid with each revolution of the drive shaft
To position and adjust the packing pressure
A. Cam and piston pump
A. packing B. Gear pump
B. gland C. Screw pump
C. seal gage D. Vane pump
D. mechanical seal
A type of reciprocating pump having a steam cylinder with no lap on
Provides passage to distribute the sealing medium uniformly around valves, a water cylinder and a common piston rod
the portion of the shaft that passes through the stuffing box. Also
known as water seal of lantern ring A. Direct acting steam pump
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump
A. packing C. Power driven pump
B. gland D. Piston pump
C. seal gage
D. mechanical seal A type of reciprocating pump driven by compound, cross compound,
or triple expansion steam engines
Provides a mechanical sealing arrangement that takes the pace of
the packing A. Direct acting steam pump
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump
A. packing C. Power driven pump
B. gland D. Piston pump
C. seal gage
D. mechanical seal A type of reciprocating pump that receives its forward and backward
motion of the piston and plunger from the rotary motion of a revolving
A positive displacement pump consisting of a fixed casing containing crankshaft by means of a crank and connecting rod
gears, cams, screws, vanes, plungers or similar elements actuated by
rotation of the drive shaft A. Direct acting steam pump
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump
A. Rotary pumps C. Power driven pump
B. Reciprocating pumps D. Piston pump
C. Deep well pumps
D. Centrifugal pumps
A type of deep well pump which are refinement of the old hand
pump that have played such an important role in a country home
and small town water supply from wells

A. Plunger pump
B. Turbine pump
C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Air lift

A type of deep well pump that represent the application of vertical

centrifugal pump to deep well service and are built for heads up to
305 meters and for capacities up to 26,495 liters per minute

A. Plunger pump
B. Turbine pump
C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Air lift

A type of deep well pump that has come into wide use for small
capacities combines a single stage centrifugal pump at the top of the
well and an ejector or jet located down in the center

A. Plunger pump
B. Turbine pump
C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Air lift

A type of deep well pump wherein compressed air is admitted to the

well to lift water to the surface, for successful operation of the system,
the discharge pipe must have its lower end submerged in the well
water

A. Plunger pump
B. Turbine pump
C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Air lift
One of the reasons for insulating the pipes is: According to Prevost theory of heat exchange

A. They may not break under pressure A. It is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source
B. There is minimum corrosion to high temperature source
C. Capacity to withstand pressure is increased B. Heat transfer by radiation needs no medium
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized C. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by combination of
The rate of radiant energy, that is emitted by a surface at any conduction, convection and radiation
temperature and in small wavelengths is found from the known rate of
energy, that under the same conditions will be emitted from a black Thermal conductivity of wood depends on which of the following?
surface, by multiplying with the absorptivity. The above enunciation is
called: A. moisture
B. temperature
A. Lambert’s law C. density
B. Kirchhoff’s law D. all of the above
C. Planck’s law
D. Stefan Boltzmann’s law A fur coat on an animal will help the animal to remain:

Which of the following is generally used to measure the temperature A. warm in winter
inside the furnace? B. cool in winter
C. warm in summer
A. mercury thermometer D. cool in summer
B. alcohol thermometer
C. ash thermometer The nature of flow of a fluid inside a tube, whether it is turbulent or
D. optical pyrometer laminar, can be ascertained by:

All heat transfer processes: A. flow velocity

B. surface conditions
A. involve transfer of energy C. viscosity of fluid
B. involve temperature difference between the bodies D. Reynolds number
C. obey first law of thermodynamics
D. obey second law of thermodynamics By which of the following modes of heat transfer is the Stefan-
Boltzmann law applicable?
What is thermal diffusivity?
A. conduction
A. a mathematical formula B. radiation
B. a physical property of the material C. conduction and radiation combined
C. a configuration for heat conduction D. convection and radiation combined
D. a dimensionless parameter
At all wave lengths and temperatures the monochromatic emissivity
Which of the following is a unit of thermal diffusivity? of a white body is equal to:

A. m^2 / hr A. zero
B. kcal / m^2 hr B. 0.5
C. kcal / m^2 hr °C C. unity
D. m^2 / hr °C D. 0.1 to o.5

Non – isotropic conductivity is shown by which of the following? The radiation from flames is having

A. brass A. continuous radiation from burning soot particles of

B. copper microscopic and submicroscopic dimensions
C. wood B. radiation from suspended larger particles of coal, coke, or
D. steel ash contributing to flame luminosity
C. infrared radiation from water vapor and carbon dioxide
For glass wool thermal conductivity changes from sample to sample D. all of the above
due changes in:
The statement that the emissivity and absorptivity of a surface is
A. structure surrounded by its own temperature are the same for both
B. density monochromatic and total radiation is called:
C. composition
D. all of the above A. Lambert’s law
B. Kirchhoff’s law
Which of the following is the S.I. unit of thermal conductivity? C. D’ Alambart’s
D. Law of emissivity
A. W / m-hr-°K
B. W / m°K A reservoir that supplies energy in the form of heat is called:
C. KJ / m-hr-°C
D. W / m-hr-°C A. source
B. sink
What is the value of the Prandt’l number for air? C. cold reservoir
D. hot reservoir
A. 10
B. 6.7
C. 67
D. 0.7
In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer occurs by: Which of the following is used as entrainer in acetic acid – water
separation?
A. direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
B. a complete separation between hot and cold fluids A. methyl alcohol
C. flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface B. phosphorous
D. generation of heat again and again C. butyl acetate
D. hexane
Least value of Prandt’l number can be expected in case of _______
A type of radiation consisting of singly charged particles that
A. liquid metals generate to intermediate distances
B. sugar solution
C. salt solution A. Nuclear radiation
D. water B. Alpha radiation
C. Beta radiation
“The boiling point of a solution is a linear function of water at the same D. Gamma radiation
pressure.” The above statement is called _______
An electrically charged atom or radical which carries electricity
A. Dubring’s rule through an electrolyte is called:
B. Petit and Dulong’s law
C. Fick’s rule A. ion
D. Reynolds law B. isotope
C. molecule
Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to D. hole

A. increase the pressure drop The energy of a body that can be transmitted in the form of heat
B. decrease the pressure drop
C. facilitate maintenance A. Heat energy
D. avoid deformation of tubes because of thermal expansion B. Thermal energy
C. Entropy
What do you call the first stage of crystal formation? D. Internal energy

A. nucleation In an isometric process, the heat transferred is equal to:

B. foaming
C. separation A. change in enthalpy
D. vortexing B. change in entropy
C. change in internal energy
In heat exchanger design, one transfer unit implies: D. work nonflow

A. one fluid which is exchanging with another fluid of the same A substance that is able to absorb liquids or gases and is used for
chemical composition removing them from a given medium or region
B. the section of heat exchanger which will cause temperature
drop of one degree centigrade A. Absorbent
C. the section of heat exchanger where heat transfer surface B. Cohesive
area has been one square meter C. Adsorbent
D. condition when the change in temperature of one steam is D. Adhesive
numerically equal to the average driving force
Radiant heat transfer is described by:
Dritus Boelter equation can be applied in case of fluid flowing in:
A. Newton’s law
A. transition region B. Fourier’s law
B. turbulent region C. The logarithmic mean temperature
C. laminar region D. Kirchhoff’s law
D. any of the above
A reservoir that absorbs energy in the form of heat is called _______
In sugar mills can just is evaporated in:
A. source
A. zigzag tube evaporators B. sink
B. long vertical tube evaporators C. cold reservoir
C. short vertical tube evaporators D. heat reservoir
D. horizontal tube evaporator
When the entire heat exchanger is selected as control volume, heat
A 1-2 heat exchanger refers to which of the following? becomes ________

A. single pass on shell side and double pass on tube side A. unity
B. single pass on tube side and double pass on shell side B. zero
C. single liquid cools two liquids at a different temperature C. undefined
D. two tubes of cold fluid pass through one tube of hot fluid D. indeterminate

A correction of LMTD is essential in case of: Heat is conducted in the direction of:

A. parallel flow heat exchanger A. increasing temperature

B. counter current heat exchanger B. decreasing temperature
C. cross flow heat exchanger C. increasing and decreasing temperature
D. none of the above D. constant temperature
The heat transfer term in the first law of thermodynamics may be due A theoretical body which when heated to incandescence would emit
to any of the following except: a continuous light-ray spectrum

A. conduction A. Black body radiation

B. convection B. Black body
C. radiation C. Blue body
D. internal heat generation (e.g., chemical reaction) D. White body

All heat transfer processes require a medium of energy exchange Which of the following is the reason for insulating the pipes?
except:
A. They may not break under pressure
A. conduction B. There is minimum corrosion
B. natural convection C. Capacity to withstand pressure
C. forced convection D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized
D. radiation
Heat transfer due to density differential
Thermal conduction is described by:
A. Convection
A. Newton’s law B. Nuclear
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference C. Conduction
C. The Stefan – Boltzmann law D. Radiation
D. Fourier’s law
The term “exposure” in radiological effects is used as a measure of a
Convection is described by which of the following laws? gamma ray or an X-ray field in the surface of an exposed object.
Since this radiation produces ionization of the air surrounding the
A. Newton’s law object, the exposure is obtained as
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
C. The Stefan – Boltzmann law A. number of ions produced per mass of air x coulombs per kg
D. Fourier’s law B. mass of air x surface area of an exposed object
C. mass of air over surface area of an exposed object
Radiation heat transfer is described by D. number of ions produced per mass of air + coulombs per kg

A. Newton’s law The passing of heat energy from molecule to molecule through a
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference substance
C. Fourier’s law
D. Kirchoff’s law A. conduction
B. radiation
The equivalent of ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for bodies in C. conservation
thermal equilibrium is described by: D. convection

A. Newton’s law The radiant heat transfer depends on:

B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
C. Fourier’s law A. temperature
D. Kirchoff’s law B. heat rays
C. heat from cold to hot
The temperature potential between temperature at the two ends of a D. humidity
heat exchanger are given by:
What kind of heat exchanger where water is heated to a point that
A. the logarithmic mean temperature difference dissolved gases are liberated?
B. the Stefan – Boltzmann law
C. Fourier’s law A. Evaporator
D. Kirchoff’s law B. Condenser
C. Intercooler
The function of a heat exchanger is to: D. Deaerator

A. increase the water temperature entering the boiler and Heat transfer processes which include a change of phase of a fluid
decrease combustion requirements are considered ________
B. transfer heat from one fluid to another
C. increase the total energy content of the flow A. convection
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow B. thermal radiation
C. conduction
The function of a superheater is to: D. radiation

A. increase the water temperature entering the boiler and A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface. The
decrease combustion requirements heat that is first transferred to the air layer close to the block is by
B. transfer heat from one fluid to another conduction. It is eventually carried away from the surface by ______
C. increase the total energy content of the flow
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow A. convection
B. radiation
What is the series of processes that eventually bring the system back C. conduction
to its original condition? D. thermal radiation

A. reversible process
B. irreversible process
C. cycle
D. isentropic process
A body that is hot compared to its surroundings illuminates more In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an object must be at a
energy than it receives, while its surrounding absorbs more energy temperature:
than they give. The heat is transferred from one to another by energy
wave motion. What is the mode of heat transfer? A. above 0 K
B. above 0 °C
A. Radiation C. above that of its surroundings
B. Conduction D. high enough for it to glow
C. Convection
D. Condensation The rate at which an object radiates electromagnetic energy does
not depend on its:
What is the heat transfer due to density differential?
A. surface area
A. Convection B. mass
B. Conduction C. temperature
C. Nuclear D. ability to absorb radiation
D. Radiation
Sublimation refers to:
What do you call the passing of heat energy from molecule to
molecule through a substance? A. the vaporization of a solid without first becoming liquid
B. the melting of a solid
A. Conduction C. the vaporization of a liquid
B. Conservation D. the condensation of a gas into liquid
C. Radiation
D. Convection In the process of freeze drying, ice goes directly into water vapor.
What is the temperature at which this process can take place?
The transmission of heat from one place to another by fluid circulation
between the spots of different temperatures is called _________ A. Below the triple point of water
B. At the triple point of water
A. Convection C. Above the triple point of water
B. Conservation D. Any of the above, depending on the pressure
C. Radiation
D. Conduction What usually happen when a vapor condenses into a liquid?

Which of the following requires the greatest amount of heat per A. It evolves heat
kilogram for a given increase in temperature? B. It generates heat
C. Its temperature increases
A. Ice D. It boils with temperature less than 100 °C
B. Water
C. Steam In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by:
D. Copper
A. condensation
What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at B. convection
a given temperature? C. evaporation
D. conduction
A. Absorptivity
B. Conductivity How do you classify a body that has an emissivity factor of 0.7?
C. Emissivity
D. Reflectivity A. Gray body
B. Black body
The natural direction of the heat flow between two reservoirs is C. White body
dependent on which of the following? D. Theoretical body

A. Their temperature difference At what particular condition that no more heat can that be removed
B. Their internal energy from a substance and the temperature can no longer be lowered?
C. Their pressures
D. Their states, whether solid, liquid and gas A. Freezing point
B. Absolute zero
Why are metals good conductors of heat? C. Critical point
D. Ground zero
A. Because they contain free electrons
B. Because their atoms are relatively far apart What refers to the heat transfer wherein the heat is transferred from
C. Because their atoms collide infrequently one point to another by actual movement of substance?
D. Because they have reflecting surfaces
A. Conduction
In natural convection a heated portion of a fluids moves because: B. Radiation
C. Convection
A. its molecular motions become aligned D. Absorption
B. of molecular collisions within it
C. its density is less than that of the surrounding fluid The ratio of the radiation of actual body to the radiation of a
D. of currents in the surrounding fluid blackbody is known as ________

A. emittance
B. reflectance
C. absorptance
D. transmittance
Which of the following is the usual geometric view factor for a black It refers to the ratio of the internal thermal resistance of a solid to the
body? boundary layer thermal resistance (or external resistance of the
body)
A. Zero
B. Infinity A. Biot number
C. One B. Prandtl number
D. Indeterminate C. Nusselt number
D. Reynolds number
What happens to the heat transferred radially across insulated pipe
per unit area? It refers to the ratio of the rate of heat transferred by conduction to the
rate of energy stored
A. The heat will flow at constant rate
B. Decreases with the increase in thermal conductivity A. Reynolds number
C. Decrease from pipe wall to insulated surface B. Fourier number
D. Partially increases from pipe wall to insulated surface C. Biot number
D. Prandtl number
What do you call a change of phase directly from vapor to solid
without passing through the liquid state? A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface. The
heat that is first transferred to the air layer close to the block is by
A. Sublimation conduction. It is eventually carried away from the surface by:
B. Solidification
C. Vaporization A. conduction
D. Deposition B. radiation
C. thermal
Which of the following is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant? D. convection

A. 5.77 x 10^-7 W / m^2 K^4 It is the term used to describe the energy of a body that can be
B. 7.67 x 10^-9 W / m^2 K^4 transmitted in the form of heat
C. 4.78 x 10^-10 W / m^2 K^4
D. 5.67 x 10^-8 W / m^2 K^4 A. Enthalpy
B. Thermal energy
What is the usual value of transmissivity for opaque materials? C. Entropy
D. Internal energy
A. 0
B. Indeterminate Which of the following is the equivalent heat transferred of a gas
C. 1 undergoing isometric process?
D. Infinity
A. Change in enthalpy
A body whose emissivity is less than 1 is known as a real body. What is B. Change in entropy
the other term for real body? C. Change in internal energy
D. Work nonflow
A. Gray body
B. White body What do you call a substance that is able to absorb liquids or gases
C. Black body and is usually used for removing liquids(or gases) from a given
D. Theoretical body medium or region?

What refers to an ideal body that absorbs all of the radiant energy A. Absorbent
that intrudes on it and also emits the maximum possible energy when B. liquefier
acting as a source? C. Adsorbent
D. Adhesive
A. White body
B. Black body In which direction that heat is transferred through conduction?
C. Gray body
D. Red hot body A. Increasing temperature
B. Decreasing temperature
The thermal resistance for one-dimensional steady conduction heat C. Increasing and decreasing temperature
transfer through cylindrical wall in the radial direction is expressed in D. Constant temperature
which of the following functions?
Which of the following statements is based on Prevost theory of heat
A. Linear exchange?
B. Exponential
C. Logarithmic A. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. Trigonometric B. The substance moves because of the decrease in its density
which is caused by increase in temperature
The law which states that the “ratio of the emissive powers to C. The substance moves because of the application of
absorptivities are equal when the two bodies are in thermal mechanical power such as that of a fan
equilibrium” is known as: D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by combination of
conduction, convection and radiation
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Newton’s Law of Convection Which of the following is emissivity of white body?
C. Fourier’s Law
D. Kirchhoff’s Law of Radiation A. zero
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 0<e<1
The mechanism of heat transfer in which there is no medium ( i.e. Which of the following is the measure of the relative effectiveness of
water, air, solid concrete ) required for the heat energy to travel is: momentum and energy transport by diffusion in the velocity and
thermal boundary layer?
A. Conduction
B. Radiation A. Nusselt’s number
C. Convection B. Prandtl number
D. Diffusion C. Reynold’s number
D. Dimensional measurement
The temperature potential between temperature at the two ends of a
heat exchanger are given by: Which of the following is the property of the solid that provides the
measure of the rate of heat transfer to the energy storage?
A. the logarithmic mean temperature difference
B. the Stefan-Boltzmann law A. Thermal efficiency
C. Fourier’s law B. Thermal diffusivity
D. Kirchoff’s law C. Thermal conductivity
D. Thermal radiography
Which of the following best describe function of heat exchanger?
Two metals were kept together at room temperature and it was found
A. Increase the water temperature entering the system out that one is colder than the other. Which of the following is the best
B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another reason why one metal is colder than the other?
C. Evaluate the total energy content of the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow A. The heat transfer coefficient of one metal is of higher
B. One metal is of lower temperature as compared to the other
What refers to a form of energy associated with the kinetic random C. One metal is of higher temperature as compared to the
motion of large numbers of molecules? other
D. The thermal conductivity of one metal is high as compared
A. Heat to the other
B. Heat of fusion
C. Entropy In convection heat transfer, what happens to the heat transfer
D. Internal energy coefficient if the viscosity of the fluid decreases?

How much is the part of light that is absorbed by the body that A. The heat transfer coefficient also increases
transmits and reflects 80% and 10% respectively? B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease
C. The heat transfer coefficient remains constant
A. 10% D. The heat transfer coefficient partially increases then
B. 30% decreases
C. 20%
D. 5% A body that is hot compared to its surroundings illuminates more
energy than it receives, while its surrounding absorbs more energy
In convection heat transfer, what happens to the heat transfer than they give. The heat is transferred from one to another by energy
coefficient if the viscosity of the fluid increases? of wave motion. What is the mode of heat transfer?

A. The heat transfer coefficient will increase A. Radiation

B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease B. Conduction
C. The heat transfer coefficient remains constant C. Convection
D. None of the above D. Condensation

How do you call a phenomenon wherein the heat is transferred by What do you call theoretical body where absorptivity and emissivity
motion of fluid under the action of mechanical device? are independent of the wavelength over the spectral region of the
irradiation and the surface emission?
A. Forced convection
B. Natural convection A. White body
C. Forced convection B. Opaque body
D. Thermal radiation C. Black body
D. Transparent body
In conduction heat transfer, what happens to the heat transfer per unit
time when the thermal conductivity decreases? Which of the following is the structure designed to prevent the spread
of fire having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours?
A. The heat flow will increase
B. The heat flow remains constant A. Fire escape
C. The heat flow will decrease B. Fire exit
D. The heat flow will partially increase and then will decrease C. Fire shield
D. Fire wall
Which of the following is the driving force in heat transfer?
Which of the following heat exchange device used to provide heat
A. Temperature gradient transfer between the exhaust gases and air prior to the entrance of
B. Thickness gradient combustor?
C. Viscosity gradient
D. Dielectric gradient A. Regenerator
B. Economizer
C. Condenser
D. Reheater
Which of the following transfer of heat is involved in the changing of Which of the following is the color of iron when it is heated to a highest
boiling water (at 100°C) to vapor at the same temperature? temperature?

A. Conduction A. White
B. Convection B. Red
C. Radiation C. Orange
D. Evaporation D. Yellow

Which of the following is the science of low temperatures? Which of the following is the reason why metals are good conductors
of heat?
A. Cryogenics
B. Thermo-kinetics A. Metals contain free electrons
C. Thermodynamics B. Metals have atoms the frequently collide one another
D. Ergonomics C. Metals have reflecting surfaces
D. Atoms in metals are very far to each other
Which of the following thermal state of the body considered as
reference to communicate heat to the other bodies? The rate at which heat flows through a slab of some material foes not
depend on which of the following?
A. Temperature
B. Pressure A. The thickness of the slab
C. Internal energy B. The area of the slab
D. Entropy C. The temperature difference between two faces
D. The specific heat of the material
The true mean temperature difference is also known as:
Which of the following is the primary function of a thermal radiator?
A. the average mean temperature difference
B. the logarithmic mean temperature difference A. To transferring the heat by using moving fluids
C. the trigonometric mean temperature difference B. To transfer heat from hot to cold body by using a forced-
D. the exponential temperature difference draft fan
C. To transfer heat by allowing molecules to vibrate one to
Which of the following can be a geometric view factor of a gray another
body? D. To transfer heat with or without a medium

A. Greater than one What is the reason why styrofoam is a good insulating material?
B. Less than one
C. Equal to one A. Because it contains many tiny pockets of air
D. Greater than zero but less than one B. Styrofoam is a white object
C. The structure of styrofoam is very unstable and heat cannot
The heat transfer by conduction occurs in which of the following? flow
D. Styrofoam structure is very dense
A. Only in liquids
B. Only in solids What usually happens to the surrounding when water vapor
C. Only in liquids and gases condenses?
D. In solids, liquids and gases
A. It warms the surrounding
Which of the following reasons why one gram of steam at 100°C B. The surrounding temperature decreases
causes more serious burn than 1 gram of water at 100°C? C. It neither warm nor cold the surrounding
D. The surroundings will be dehumidified
A. Steam is less dense than boiling water
B. The steam has higher specific heat The rate of radiation does not depend on which of the following?
C. Steam contains more internal energy
D. Steam is everywhere thus it strikes greater force A. Temperature of the radiating body
B. The emissivity of the radiation surface
What usually happens when vapor condenses into liquid? C. The area of the radiating body
D. The thickness of the radiating body
A. It absorbs heat
B. It rejects heat Which of the following is not a good conductor of heat?
C. Its temperature increases
D. Its temperature decreases A. Metals
B. Rocks
Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity? C. Glass
D. Asbestos
A. Mercury
B. Gasoline Which of the following is not a unit of the rate of heat transfer?
C. Water
D. Alcohol A. Watt
B. Btu per hour
Which of the following is the requirement of the temperature of a body C. Cal/s
for it to emit radiation? D. Btu/Hp-hr

A. Above zero Celsius The thermal conductivity does not depend on which of the following?
B. Above zero Kelvin
C. Above of the temperature of the surroundings A. Chemical composition
D. High enough for it to glow B. Physical state or texture
C. Temperature and pressure
D. Gravitational pull
In Maxwell’s theory for thermal conductivity of gases and vapors, In convection heat transfer, what mechanism heat transfer where the
which of the following is the value of “a” for triatomic gases? fluid moves due to the decrease in its density caused by increase in
temperature?
A. 1.7
B. 2.4 A. Forced convection
C. 1.3 B. Natural convection
D. 2.4 C. Density convection
D. Radial convection
Which of the following conductivities where Sutherland equation is
used?

A. Thermal conductivities of solids

B. Thermal conductivities of gases
C. Thermal conductivities of metal
D. Thermal conductivities of liquids

For pure metals, what happens to the thermal conductivity if the

temperature is extremely high?

A. Approaches infinity
B. Decreases except for ferrous metals
C. Almost constant except for ferromagnetic materials
D. Increases except for steel

Which of the following liquids that has the highest thermal

conductivity?

A. Gasoline
B. Glycerin
C. Water
D. Alcohol

Which of the following is not a heat exchanger?

A. Condenser
B. Boiler
C. Evaporators
D. Water hammer

Which of the following heat exchangers where fluid flow in the same
direction and both are of changing temperatures?

A. Parallel flow
B. Cross flow
C. Counter flow
D. Mixed flow

What happens to the thermal conductivity of diatomic gases if the

temperature is increase?

A. The thermal conductivity will also increase

B. The thermal conductivity decreases
C. The thermal conductivity remains constant
D. The thermal conductivity partially increases then decreases

What device is used to measure the amount of infrared radiation in

each portion of a person’s skin that is emitted?

A. Thermograph
B. Thermometer
C. Pyrometer
D. Potentiometer

The heat transfer by convection occurs in which of the following?

A. Only in gases
B. Only in liquids
C. Only in gases and liquids
D. Only in gases and solids
Which of the following could be used to check a leak in an ammonia Thermal expansion valves are usually of the:
system?
A. diaphragm
A. Litmus paper B. magnetic type
B. Halide torch C. bellows type
C. Sulfur stick D. A or C
D. A and C
When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one should:
Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by:
A. install all new plates
A. smelling the discharge water B. clean the plates and renew worn out ones
B. applying litmus paper to the circulating water discharge C. ground each plate to the shell
C. adding oil or peppermint to the system and tracing the smell D. paint the plates with red lead
D. applying a soapy solution to the condenser heads and
looking for bubbles The scale trap is located between the:

A sulfur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will give off a ______ A. compressor and oil separator
B. expansion valve and evaporator coils
A. dense yellow smoke C. king (liquid) valve and expansion valve
B. dense red smoke D. evaporator coils and compressor
C. dense white smoke
D. dense green smoke When the evaporator coils are located in the icebox, the system is
known as:
An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper _______
A. indirect system
A. blue B. direct system
B. green C. high-pressure system
C. red D. low-pressure system
D. yellow
The purge valve is located:
In an ammonia system the oil gauge must be kept:
A. on the receiver discharge
A. closed except when checking oil level B. in the highest part of the system
B. open at all times C. in the lowest part of the system
C. close when machine is shut down D. on the evaporator coils
D. open when machine is shut down
The solenoid valve is:
Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of:
A. a pressure-controlled stop valve
A. brass B. a temperature-controlled stop valve
B. bronze C. a Freon-controlled check valve
C. iron D. none of the above
D. copper
The thermal expansion valve is located between the:
The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located:
A. solenoid valve and the evaporator coils
A. on the discharge pipe from the condenser B. charging valve and the solenoid valve
B. on the discharge pipe from the compressor C. receiver and the king valve
C. in the compressor head D. king valve and the solenoid valve
D. A and B
The purpose of the scale trap is to:
When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of water, one
can tell when the air is out and ammonia starts to come through by A. dissolved scale and dirt in the system
the: B. remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
C. remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the refrigerant
A. smell of the ammonia being liberated from the water D. control the amount of scale going to the compressor
B. color of the water turning green
C. color of the water turning bluish The oil separator (trap) is located between the:
D. change of bubbling sound of air to the crackling sound of
ammonia A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser
B. receiver and the expansion valve
The crossover connection in an ammonia system can be used to ____ C. receiver and the king valve
D. condenser and the receiver
A. hot-gas defrost
B. pump air out of the system The charging connection in a refrigerating system is located:
C. add refrigerant to the system
D. reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the condenser A. before the receiver
B. between the condenser and the receiver
How is an ammonia system purged so that operator will not be C. between the receiver and the king valve
overcome by the fumes? D. between the king valve and the solenoid valve

A. Into a bucket of lube oil

B. Back in to the compressor
C. Into a bucket of water
D. Into the atmospheric line
The dehydrator is located between the The bulb for the thermal expansion valve is located

A. condenser and receiver A. near the evaporator coil outlet

B. receiver and the expansion valve B. in the middle of evaporator coils
C. condenser and the king valve C. near the evaporator coil inlet
D. receiver and the king valve D. on the bottom row of evaporator coils

The charging valve is located between the: The elements of a thermostat switch are usually of the _______

A. king valve and the expansion valve A. pitot-valve type

B. evaporator coils and the compressor B. bimetal type
C. compressor and the receiver C. diaphragm type
D. receiver and the condenser D. valve type

The solenoid valve is located between the _______ The expansion valve is located between the

A. thermal expansion valve and the evaporator A. compressor and condenser

B. scale trap and the thermal expansion valve B. evaporator and compressor
C. king valve and the scale trap C. receiver and evaporator
D. automatic and manual expansion valves D. condenser and receiver

A device used to keep moisture from passing through the system is The oil separator is located between the
called:
A. condenser and dehydrator
A. humidifier B. compressor and condenser
B. dehydrator C. evaporator and compressor
C. aerator D. solenoid valve and thermal expansion valve
D. trap
Zinc rods are found in the
The relief valve is located on the:
A. salt-water side of condenser
A. discharge side on the condenser B. compressor crankcase
B. outlet of the evaporator coils C. evaporator coils
C. receiver tank D. refrigerant side of condenser
D. discharge side of the compressor
A double-trunk piston is used to
The dehydrator is used
A. prevent oil from mixing with the refrigerant
A. to remove moisture from the system B. absorb some of the side thrust
B. when adding refrigerant to the system C. prevent gas from getting to crankcase
C. to remove air form the system D. all of the above
D. A and B
Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon
Which of the following is another name for the liquid valve? system?

A. Freon valve A. Asbestos

B. king valve B. Metallic
C. shutoff valve C. Rubber
D. master valve D. A and B

If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Freon system, the joints Many pressure gauges on a Freon system have two dials or
must be: graduations on one gauge. The two dials represent

A. welded joints A. suction and discharge pressure

B. finished joints B. pressure and temperature
C. ground joints C. liquid and gas pressure
D. soldered joints D. cooling water inlet and outlet temperatures

A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas from A double-pipe condenser has _______
the suction manifold and returning it to the suction line without
compressing it is called ________ A. two pipes for cooling water and one for refrigerant
B. a small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water passing
A. relief valve through the small pipe and the refrigerant through the large
B. suction line by-pass pipe
C. cylinder unloader C. two piping systems side by side, one with cooling water and
D. discharge line by-pass one with refrigerant
D. none of the above
The solenoid valve can be typed as a ______
When there is a Freon leak, the halide torch will burn:
A. bellows valve
B. bimetallic valve A. orange
C. thermal valve B. green
D. magnetic stop valve C. blue
D. white
Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be detected with a Excess frost on the evaporator coils
halide torch because it changes color with the slightest amount of
Freon present. A large leak can be detected easier by applying _____ A. does not affect the system
B. takes load off the compressor
A. sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for color C. reduces efficiency of the plant
change D. keeps the icebox cooler
B. a soapsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold the
solution together, and watch for bubbles Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the use of which of
C. a thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for bubbles the following?
D. a lighted candle at the joints and watch for leaky spots
blowing candle flame A. hollow sidewalls
B. diffuser fans
The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located C. louver doors
D. air vents to deck
A. next to the king valve
B. in the compressor head The cooling-water side of the condenser should be opened for
C. on the discharge pipe between the compressor and the inspection every
discharge valve
D. on the discharge pipe from the condenser A. six months
B. two years
The discharge pressure of the compressor should be: C. year
D. three months
A. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5°F to
15°F below that of the condenser discharge Some causes of a noisy compressor are
B. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature equal to
that of the condenser discharge A. worn bearings, pins, etc.
C. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5°F to B. slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant
15°F higher than the condenser discharge C. too much oil in the crankcase
D. none of the above D. any of the above

The purpose of relief valves on refrigeration machines is to: If the thermal expansion valve becomes inoperative, the iceboxes
will have to be controlled by the ______
A. by-pass the compressor when dehydrating
B. prevent overloading in the iceboxes A. king valve
C. prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage on the B. manual expansion valve
discharge side of the system C. manual solenoid valve
D. A and B D. solenoid valve

A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by Sweating of the crankcase is caused by which of the following?

A. a higher suction pressure A. too much oil in the system

B. a fluctuating suction pressure gauge B. insufficient superheat
C. closing in on the suction valve having no effect on the C. too much superheat
suction pressure D. expansion valve hung up
D. any of the above
Which of the following is the usual cause of slugging?
Too low suction pressure could be caused by
A. too much refrigerant in the system
A. too much oil in the system B. too much oil in the system
B. shortage of refrigerant gas C. expansion valve not operating properly
C. dirty scale traps D. too much cooling water to condenser
D. any of the above
What operates low-pressure cutout switch?
What do you call a system in which the evaporator coils are located
in a brine solution and the brine is pumped through the icebox? A. bellows
B. spring tension
A. an indirect system C. a magnet
B. a double-evaporator system D. water pressure
C. a direct system
D. a low-pressure system Which of the following must be checked up if an automatic Freon
system will not start up?
Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on it, be sure
to A. high-pressure cutout
B. reset mechanism
A. purge the system C. low-pressure cutout
B. have spare parts ready D. all of the above
C. pump down the system
D. B and C Which of the following is the probable cause of hot suction line?

Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually caused by A. insufficient lubrication

B. too much refrigerant
A. scale C. insufficient refrigerant
B. congealed oil in the system D. expansion valve closed too much
C. water in the system
D. any of the above
What do you call the device that is used as a low-pressure control Short-cycling means that the machine
and high-pressure cutout on a compressor?
A. runs slow
A. pressure controller B. stops and starts frequently
B. controller switch C. runs too fast
C. cutout D. grounds out frequently
D. cutout switch
The suction pressure in a Freon system should be
If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the compressor would be
stopped by which of the following? A. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature about
20°F above the temperature of the icebox
A. automatic trip B. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature about
B. low-pressure cutout switch 20°F below the temperature of the icebox
C. low-water cutout switch C. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature equal to
D. high-pressure cutout switch the temperature of the icebox
D. none of the above
The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to:
If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon system
A. cut out the compressor at a set pressure malfunction, which of the following valve will also automatically shut
B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor off?
C. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor
D. cut compressor in and out at a preset pressure A. King valve
B. Condenser cooling-water inlet valve
If the cooling water to the condenser suddenly fails? C. Expansion valve
D. Solenoid valve
A. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
B. the compressor will shut down A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected by
C. the expansion valve will close
D. the solenoid valve will close A. a drop in icebox temperature
B. a discharge pressure lower than normal
The most likely cause of high superheat would be C. a fluctuating high-pressure gauge
D. any of the above
A. too much refrigerant
B. expansion valve open too wide The dehydrating agent in a Freon system is usually
C. expansion valve closed too much
D. back-pressure valve set too high A. sodium chloride
B. calcium chloride
What do you call the liquid reaching the compressor through the C. activated alumina
suction? D. slaked lime

A. superheating If the compressor short-cycles on the low-pressure cutout, the trouble

B. overflowing might be:
C. flooding back
D. recycling A. too much frost on the evaporator coils
B. dirty traps and strainers
The suction pressure switch is operated by which of the following? C. lack of refrigerant
D. any of the above
A. electric current
B. pressure on a bellows If an electrically operated compressor failed to start, the cause might
C. a relay cutout be:
D. thermocouple
A. a blown fuse
If the compressor short-cycles on the high-pressure cutout, which of B. burned out holding coils in solenoid valve
the following would you check? C. an open switch
D. any of the above
A. check for too much refrigerant in the system
B. if plenty of cooling water is running through but it is not The high-pressure side of the system is sometimes referred to as the
picking up heat, the condenser tubes need cleaning
C. be sure system is getting cooling water A. hot side
D. all of the above B. suction side
C. cold side
A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under: D. cooling side

A. normal conditions If the compressor were to run continuously without lowering the
B. heavy loads temperature, the trouble would probably be:
C. light loads
D. all of the above A. leaky discharge valves
B. insufficient refrigerant in the system
Air is remove from the system by C. leaks in the system
D. any of the above
A. opening the purge valve
B. increasing the amount of cooling water
C. running the refrigerant through an aerator
D. running the refrigerant through a deaerator
Which of the following would cause a high head pressure? If the compressor discharge temperature is higher than the receiver
temperature:
A. suction valve not open enough
B. too much cooling water A. add more refrigerant to the system
C. insufficient cooling water B. decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser
D. icebox door left open C. increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser
D. remove some of the refrigerant from the system
If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be
How is a CO2 system purged?
A. charging valve left open
B. expansion valve not open wide enough A. when CO2 comes out of the purge valve, frost will from on a
C. expansion valve open too wide piece of metal held near the outlet
D. dehydrator not working properly B. through the king valve
C. pumped out with a suction pump
Which of the following would cause low head pressure? D. the CO2 will come out of the purge valve in liquid form

A. insufficient cooling water If the head pressure is too high:

B. too much cooling water
C. insufficient refrigerant gas A. the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant pass
D. B and C to receiver
B. close in on the suction valve
Too high suction pressure could be cause by C. the relief should open before the high-pressure cutout
D. the high-pressure cutout switch should operate before the
A. leaky suction valves relief valve opens
B. expansion valve bulb not working properly
C. expansion valve open too wide The system should be purged
D. any of the above
A. while starting up
Which of the following would cause high head pressure? B. after the system has been shut down for a few hours
C. while system is operating
A. air in the condenser D. once a week
B. insufficient cooling water
C. dirty condenser If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long period of
D. any of the above time but suddenly the compartment temperature started to rise, the
trouble might be
An excessively high head pressure could be caused by
A. refrigerant leak has developed
A. insufficient cooling water to the condenser B. the expansion valve may contain frozen water
B. insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coils C. the solenoid valve has jammed shut
C. solenoid valve shutoff D. any of the above
D. too much cooling water to the condenser
If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long period of
Which of the following would cause a high suction pressure? time but the oil level was rising slowly, one should:

A. expansion valve open too wide A. check the dehydrator cartridge

B. dirty dehydrator B. check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the system
C. king valve not open wide enough C. shut down the compressor and check the oil level with the
D. expansion valve not open wide enough machine stopped
D. drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper running
If a compressor runs continuously, the cause might be a level

A. clogged scale trap The purpose of the oil trap is:

B. defective thermal bulb
C. stuck high-pressure switch A. to add oil to the compressor
D. stuck low-pressure switch B. to remove oil from the refrigerating gas
C. to remove oil from the charging tank
Low suction pressure is caused by D. none of the above

A. expansion valve causing flooding back Too much oil in the compressor would:
B. solenoid valve not functioning properly
C. leaky compressor suction valves A. absorb too much refrigerant from the system
D. air in the system B. deposit oil on the condenser tubes
C. damage the expansion valve
How is a Freon system purged? D. cause leakage through the shaft seals

A. with a reefer pump The oil level in the compressor should be checked
B. the same as an ammonia system
C. back to the extra supply tank A. just before starting the compressor
D. the same as a CO2 system B. after a long period of operation
C. after an extended lay-up period
D. while the compressor is in operation
The agent used in an indirect reefer system is The solenoid valve controls the

A. calcium chloride A. amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils

B. potassium chloride B. amount of refrigerant going to the expansion valve
C. sodium chloride C. amount of refrigerant going to the compressor
D. A or C D. pressure of the refrigerant going to the evaporator coils

Air can be prevented from getting into the system by The purpose of the evaporator is to

A. running the refrigerant through an aerator A. absorb latent heat of vaporization

B. keeping the dehydrator clean at all times B. absorb latent heat of fusion
C. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high-pressure C. transfer latent heat of vaporization
side tight D. transfer latent heat of fusion
D. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the
The purpose of the dehydrator is to
Which of the following would not cause high suction pressure?
A. add more refrigerant to the system
A. suction valve not adjusted properly B. remove oil from the refrigerant
B. expansion valve stuck open C. remove moisture from the crankcase oil
C. leaky suction valves D. remove moisture from the refrigerant
D. insufficient refrigeration
The principle of mechanical refrigeration is
Water in the refrigerant is liable to
A. the conversion of liquid to a gas
A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and cut the flow of B. the absorption of temperature under heat, pressure,
refrigerant compression and expansion
B. clog the oil trap C. the compression of a liquid under temperature and
C. freeze in the king (liquid) valve expansion
D. emulsify the oil in the compressor D. the absorption of heat under temperature, compression,
pressure and expansion
The function of the expansion valve is to:
A thermostat is a
A. regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion
coils A. temperature-operated switch
B. change the gas refrigerant to a liquid B. pressure-operated switch
C. shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser C. superheat-operated switch
D. change the high-pressure liquid to a low-pressure liquid D. back-pressure-operated switch

When heavy electrical currents are involved, the thermostat will be The thermal expansion valve responds to the
operated by a:
A. amount of superheat in the vapor
A. pressure pipe B. amount of superheat in the liquid
B. fusetron C. temperature in the evaporator coils
C. relay D. pressure in the evaporator coils
D. small circuit breaker
The expansion valve on a Freon system controls the
Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on it, be sure
to: A. superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
B. back pressure in the evaporator
A. have gas mask handy C. temperature of the icebox
B. make arrangements to have perishables taken care of D. superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
C. notify the engineer
D. A and B The purpose of the expansion valve by-pass is to:

When securing a Freon system for repairs A. increase the efficiency of the plant
B. increase the capacity of the evaporator
A. pump down to 1 or 2 pounds pressure C. control the refrigerant to the evaporator in case the
B. pump down to a slight vacuum automatic valves fail
C. pump down to 10 to 15 pounds pressure D. bypass the compressor
D. remove all refrigerant from the system
The thermal expansion valve
When charging Freon system, all the valves should be in their normal
position except the: A. controls the amount of gas coming from the dehydrator
B. controls the quantity of liquid refrigerant going to the
A. solenoid valve evaporator coils
B. purge valve C. controls the amount of gas going to the receiver
C. king (liquid) valve D. removes trapped oil from the refrigerant
D. expansion valve
The function of the compressor is to
The purpose of the receiver is to:
A. pull the refrigerant gas through the system
A. cool the refrigerant gas B. increase the pressure of the refrigerant
B. separate the oil from the refrigerant C. discharge the refrigerant to the condenser
C. store the refrigerant D. all of the above
D. condense the refrigerant
The solenoid valve is controlled by The boiling point of NH3 at atmospheric pressure is

A. the amount of liquid in the system A. + 28 °C

B. the amount of gas in the system B. + 28 °F
C. the temperature in the condenser C. – 28 °C
D. the temperature in the icebox D. – 28 °F

Oil is added to a Freon compressor by Which of the following would you apply if a person got Freon in his
eyes?
A. shutting down the machine and pouring in through the
crankcase inspection plate opening A. clean water
B. pumping in with an electric-driven pump B. soapy water
C. pumping in with a hand pump C. sodium bicarbonate
D. pouring though oil in base D. sterile mineral oil

When adding oil to a Freon system, one must be sure that A double-seated valve allows the valve to be

A. the condenser is shut down A. packed only in the closed position

B. all air is removed from the pump and fitting B. packed in the wide open or closed position
C. there is not too high a suction pressure C. operated as suction or discharge valve
D. the discharge pressure is not too high D. removed for replacement without shutting down

To help a person who had been overexposed to ammonia gas, one The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is measured by
would:
A. pressure
A. apply cold compress B. weight
B. apply artificial respiration C. volume
C. douse with cold water D. psi
D. wrap in warm blankets
The latent heat of fusion of ice is:
Ammonia will corrode
A. 500 Btu
A. brass B. 188 Btu
B. copper C. 144 Btu
C. bronze D. 970 Btu
D. all of the above
Latent heat
A refrigerating unit of one (1) ton capacity can remove
A. can be measured with a pyrometer
A. 100 Btu’s per min. B. cannot be measured with a thermometer
B. 288 Btu’s per min. C. changes as the refrigerant cools
C. 200 Btu’s per min. D. can be measured with a thermometer
D. 500 Btu’s per min.
Absolute zero is
The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is
A. 144° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
A. NH3 B. The same as zero on the Fahrenheit scale
B. F12 C. 970° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
C. CO2 D. 460° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
D. F22
A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect of
A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of
A. 2,000 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs
A. 288,000 Btu per 24 hrs. B. 2,000 lbs. of water being converted to ice
B. 28,800 Btu per 24 hrs. C. 2,000 lbs. of ice melting in 12 hrs
C. 28,000 Btu per 24 hrs. D. 2,240 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs
D. 280,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
Which of the following best described a Freon?
The boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric pressure is:
A. odorless
A. + 22 °F B. non-poisonous
B. – 22 °F C. colorless
C. + 22 °C D. all of the above
D. – 22 °C
What is another name of discharge pressure?
The boiling point of CO2 at atmospheric pressure is
A. absolute pressure
A. – 110 °F B. head pressure
B. + 110 °F C. suction pressure
C. + 110 °C D. condenser pressure
D. – 110 °C
Which of the following is the oil used in a refrigeration system? A good refrigerant should have a

A. vegetable oil A. high sensible heat

B. straight mineral oil B. low sensible heat
C. lube oil SAE 20 C. high latent heat
D. lube oil SAE 10 D. latent heat

One disadvantage of a CO2 system is the fact that Which of the following is the most common method of heat flow in
refrigeration?
A. it is difficult to condensate the refrigerant if the circulating
water temperature is too high A. conduction
B. it takes more refrigerant to keep the iceboxes cold B. expulsion
C. due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil from mixing with C. radiation
the refrigerant D. convection
D. it is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the circulating
water temperature is too low From which of the following processes where the largest quantities of
heat are available?
The disadvantage of a CO2 system over an ammonia system is the
fact that _________ A. vaporization
B. melting
A. the pipes and fittings of a CO2 system must be of the high- C. fusion
pressure type D. cooling
B. the CO2 system operates at a much higher pressure
C. the CO2 system requires a larger prime mover What is the most common Freon gas used in centrifugal compressors?
D. all of the above
A. F – 12
A good refrigerant should be: B. F – 11
C. F – 22
A. non-inflammable D. F – 21
B. non-poisonous
C. non-explosive What is the most common Freon gas used in reciprocating
D. all of the above compressors?

What tonnage of refrigerating machine is required if the refrigerating A. F – 12

system extracted 48,000Btu per hour? B. F – 11
C. F – 22
A. 2 tons D. F – 21
B. 5 tons
C. 4 tons What is the other name of hygrometer?
D. 3 tons
A. hydrometer
What is the combination of a wet and dry bulb thermometer is called B. manometer
a C. psychrometer
D. A or C
A. hygrometer
B. psychrometer The temperature in the meat and fish box should be approximately
C. hydrometer
D. A or B A. 10° to 20 °F
B. -10° to 0 °F
A pressure controller is usually operated by the movement of a C. 0° to -10 °F
D. -10° to 10 °F
A. bellows
B. siphon The temperature in the vegetable box should be approximately:
C. diaphragm
D. A or C A. 35° to 45 °F
B. 10° to 20 °F
The critical temperature of a refrigerant is: C. 40° to 50 °F
D. 15° to 30 °F
A. the temperature at which it will freeze
B. the temperature above which it cannot be liquefied The temperature in the dairy box should be approximately
C. the temperature below which it cannot be liquefied
D. none of the above A. 20° to 30 °F
B. 0° to 10 °F
If the critical temperature of a refrigerant is too close to the desired C. 10° to 20 °F
condensing temperature, the equipment must necessarily be of: D. 30° to 40 °F

A. extra heavy construction Which of the following can be cause of low head pressure?
B. the direct expansion type
C. light construction A. too much or too cold condensing water
D. the indirect expansion type B. leaky discharge valves
C. insufficient charge of refrigerant
D. any of the above
If thermostatic expansion valve did not appear to be functioning How often the condenser must be cleaned?
properly, the cause should be:
A. once year
A. foreign matter in the valve B. every month
B. ruptured control bulb tubing C. when pressure goes above normal
C. moisture in the system D. every 6 months
D. any of the above
Which do you think is the cause of a hot suction line of a refrigerating
Which of the following is used in measuring the density of a brine compressor?
solution?
A. lack of refrigerant
A. litmus paper B. insufficient condensing cooling water
B. a chemical rest C. excess refrigeration
C. a hydrometer D. B or C
D. A or B
Which of the following vital components of the refrigeration system
Which of the following would not be cause for a refrigerating system where both temperature and pressure are increased?
to short cycle on HP cutout?
A. compressor
A. discharge valve leaking B. condenser
B. pressure cutout set incorrectly C. evaporator
C. system overcharged with refrigerant D. A and C
D. insufficient cooling water
The refrigerant temperature is at its maximum just before it enters the
Excessive head pressure is caused by: ________

A. air or noncondensable gas in the system A. expansion valve

B. dirty condenser tubes B. compressor
C. insufficient cooling water to condenser C. condenser
D. any of the above D. evaporator

The capacity of a centrifugal type compressor is controlled by which The greatest decrease in refrigerant temperature occurs in the _____
of the following?
A. evaporator
A. regulating the discharge pressure B. compressor
B. regulating the speed C. condenser
C. regulating the suction pressure D. A or C
D. B or C
What do you call the storage tank for liquid refrigerant?
Where is solenoid coil installed?
A. receiver tank
A. vertically above the valve B. charging tank
B. horizontally above the valve C. purging
C. vertically below the valve D. any of the above
D. horizontally below the valve
A precooler is sometimes installed between the _________
What is the condition of the compressor when purging a refrigeration
system? A. compressor and condenser
B. condenser and expansion valve
A. the compressor is running C. expansion valve and evaporator
B. compressor is running but the condenser secured D. evaporator and compressor
C. shut down
D. running with bypass open The solenoid valve controls which of the following?

What must be done first when opening a single packed stop valve? A. pressure in the evaporator coils
B. amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator
A. loosen the packing before opening C. flow of refrigerant to the expansion valve
B. tighten packing before opening D. amount of circulating water to the condenser
C. check to see that the seal is not scored
D. none of the above Closing the solenoid valve will stop the compressor through the ______

Excessive head pressure is caused by: A. low water-pressure cutout switch

B. bypass relief valve
A. flooded condenser tubes C. low-pressure cutout switch
B. too much cooling water to condenser D. high-pressure cutout switch
C. cooling water temperature too high
D. A or C What are the four basic methods of determining whether the proper
amount of refrigerant is being added to the system?
Everything is in its normal operating position when charging a system
except the ________ A. bull's-eye, weight, pressure and frost line
B. temperature, weight, pressure and frost line
A. compressor discharge valve C. bull’s-eye, weight, pressure and dip stick
B. purge valve D. bull’s-eye, weight, litmus test and frost line
C. solenoid valve
D. King (receiver discharge) valve
What is the cause of liquid “slugging” ? Which of the following must be considered when adding o removing
oil from a refrigerator unit?
A. liquid in the compressor clearance space
B. excessive liquid refrigerant in the receiver A. use new oil
C. the presence of liquid in the condenser causing excessive B. do not overcharge
noise C. watch crankcase pressure
D. the pounding of liquid refrigerant in the suction line at a D. all of the above
point of restriction
Where is the excess refrigerant removed?
All refrigerator compressor valves are opened and closed by ________
A. suction side of the system
A. a cam shaft B. discharge side of the system
B. springs C. bypass
C. manual D. charging side of the system
D. B or C
A double trunk piston is used to _________
Which of the following is also known as the “hidden heat” in
refrigeration work? A. absorb side thrust
B. seal off gas from crankcase
A. sensible heat C. prevent oil from mixing with gas
B. heat intensity D. all of the above
C. latent heat
D. A or C How do you call the process of changing a solid to a liquid?

A bull’s eye in a full liquid line will appear _______ A. evaporation

B. vaporization
A. cloudy C. fusion
B. clear D. condensation
C. latent
D. A or C If there is too much lube oil in the system, what must be done?

A compressor capacity reduction device reduces compressor A. remove same at once

capacity ________ B. wait until next overhaul to remove
C. wait until next recharging to remove
A. by reducing the compressor speed D. any of the above
B. by bypassing hot gas
C. as the refrigerant load dictates A temperature bulb of the thermo-expansion valve is attached to
D. by reducing compressor horsepower proportionately which of the following?

If a Freon – 12 compressor trip out on “cut-out,” the solenoid valve A. icebox coil
closes by which of the following? B. evaporator coil outlet
C. evaporator coil inlet
A. an electrical release D. wall of the icebox
B. temperature and spring control
C. pressure and bellow control What is the use of the suction pressure regulating valve?
D. bellows control
A. cuts in the compressor
The thickness of the head gasket is important because it may cause B. maintains the back pressure in the evaporator coils
________ C. cuts out the compressor
D. controls the expansion valve
A. re-expansion
B. decreased efficiency due to increased clearance How is a one-ton plant described?
C. the piston to strike the head
D. all of the above A. remove one ton of heat from the reefer box
B. melt one ton of ice in 24 hours
If the expansion valve capillary tube is pinched, which of the C. make one ton of ice in 24 hours
following must be replaced? D. remove the heat required to melt one ton of ice in 24 hours

A. tube The temperature bulb of the solenoid valve is attached to the ______
B. diaphragm
C. bulb A. icebox coil
D. all of the above (called the power element unit) B. wall of the icebox
C. evaporator coil inlet
When removing reusable refrigerant from a system, the line to the D. evaporator coil outlet
storage drum must
What usually happens if the specific gravity of the brine is too low?
A. be made of copper
B. have no bends in it A. the brine will freeze
C. contains a strainer – dryer B. solids will deposit
D. be above the level of the compressor C. it will be more heat-absorbing
D. all of the above
The cooling water regulator is automatically actuated by which of the What is the probable cause if a compressor runs continuously?
following?
A. a clogged condenser
A. the discharge pressure of the refrigerant B. insufficient refrigerant
B. the temperature of the refrigerant C. faulty cooling water valve
C. an electric relay D. any of the above
D. a thermo relay
To test a thermostatic valve, immerse the bulb in:
What will happen to the capacity if the superheat is increased on the
suction side? A. crushed ice
B. hot water
A. increases C. oil
B. decreases D. none of the above
C. remains the same
D. will double If a compartment requires the removal of 36,000 Btu per hour, how
much is the necessary compressor capacity?
Which do you think is very important in adjusting compressor “V”
belts? A. 6 tons
B. 3 tons
A. allow about ½” slack C. 2 tons
B. make it as tight as possible D. 1 ton
C. make belt just tight enough to turn pulley
D. keep belts parallel Which of the following must be done to eliminate frost on the
discharge pipe of the compressor?
Which of the following is important for evaporator coils?
A. open the expansion valve
A. it must be placed in the top of the compartment B. regulate water to the condenser
B. it must be secured to the sides C. crack bypass valve
C. it should have air completely surrounding them D. none of the above
D. it must placed in front of circulating fans
The following are standard characteristics of Freon – 11 except:
If there were a 15°F to 20°F temperature differential between the
temperature corresponding to the pressure at the compressor A. non-toxic
discharge and the temperature at the condenser outlet, it would B. separates from water
probably indicate the need for ________ C. boiling point over 200 °F
D. very volatile
A. more refrigerant
B. purging the system Which of the following type valves are not found on a Freon-12
C. more circulating water system?
D. less circulating
A. bellows
Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of Latent B. duplex
heat? C. diaphragm
D. single packed
A. heat removed to melt ice
B. heat removed to change temperature of a substance How much will be removed by one-ton refrigeration unit?
C. heat added to change temperature of a substance
D. heat added to change the state of a substance A. 200 Btu per min.
B. 144 Btu per min.
If the compressor discharge becomes frosted, the probable cause C. 400 Btu per min.
would be _______ D. 2000 Btu per min.

A. refrigerant flooding back Which of the following is the primary purpose of the evaporator?
B. expansion valve improperly set
C. too much cooling water A. transmit latent heat of fusion
D. insufficient cooling water B. transmit latent heat of evaporation
C. absorb latent heat of fusion
The low-pressure control switch: D. absorb latent heat of evaporation

A. is a safety device An automatically controlled Freon – 12 compressor will start when the
B. actuates the cooling water ________
C. cuts out the compressor to maintain proper flow
D. regulates the King valve A. expansion valve opens
B. solenoid valve opens
Which of the following is an indications of faulty Freon compressor C. expansion valve closes
valves? D. solenoid valve closes

A. compressor runs continuously A single trunk piston-type compressor is undesirable for a Freon unit
B. low head pressure – high suction pressure because the:
C. gradual or sudden decrease in capacity
D. any of the above A. lubricant mixes with the refrigerant
B. refrigerant reduces the crankcase pressure
C. lubricant temperature becomes excessive
D. refrigerant becomes superheated
Calcium chloride is sometimes used in refrigeration system as a: What is the main function of a receiver?

A. refrigerant A. separate the oil from the refrigerant

B. lubricant B. cool the hot gases
C. primary coolant C. store the refrigerant
D. secondary coolant D. condense the refrigerant

When the outlet temperature of the evaporator exceeds the inlet During the re-expansion portion of the refrigeration compressor cycle
temperature the condition is called ________
A. the suction valve is open
A. boiling B. the suction valve is closed
B. superheating C. the discharge valve is closed
C. melting D. B and C
D. freezing
Absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale is equal to:
Which of the following refrigerants would give the most trouble when
operating with warm circulating water? A. -273°
B. -460°
A. Freon – 12 C. 0°
B. CO2 D. -100°
C. Ammonia
D. Ethyl chloride A quick method of detecting a leaky condenser on a Freon system
would be to _______
As Freon leaves the expansion valve:
A. compare temperatures and pressures
A. pressure increases – volume increases B. test circulating water with proper chemicals
B. pressure decreases – volume increases C. open vent on head and test with halide torch
C. pressure decreases – volume decreases D. use soapsuds on condenser outlet fittings
D. pressure increases – volume decreases
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Freon – 12?
The suction pressure switch is actuated by:
A. corrosive
A. pressure on a bellows B. non-inflammable
B. temperature on a bellows C. odorless
C. a thermo-pressure regulator D. boiling point -21 °F
D. a thermostatic temperature device
In the discharge line between the compressor and the condenser one
A thermometer senses which of the following? would find:

A. latent heat A. high pressure, high temperature gas

B. sensible heat B. high pressure, low temperature liquid
C. heat of fusion C. high temperature, high pressure liquid
D. specific heat D. high pressure, low temperature gas

Five pounds of water heated to raise the temperature 2 °F requires For a low speed compressor the belt drive is preferred to the direct
how many Btu? drive because it:

A. 20 Btu A. eliminates the use of mineral lubricating oils

B. 5 Btu B. permits the use of a smaller high-speed motor
C. 2 Btu C. absorbs torsional vibration
D. 10 Btu D. reduces the number of automatic controls

Superheat is heat added _________ Refrigerant leakage from the compressor crankcase is prevented by

A. in changing liquid to vapor A. using skirt type pistons

B. after all liquid has been changed to vapor B. maintaining a vacuum in the crankcase
C. to increase pressure C. using shaft seals
D. to increase temperature D. using lantern rings

The expansion valve does not seem to be operating properly. There is The heat used to change a liquid to a gas or vapor is called latent
high superheat. Test by listening to the sound of Freon flooding heat of
through the tubes and _______
A. absorption
A. warm bulb with hand B. vaporization
B. place bulb in cold water C. fusion
C. place bulb in hot water D. liquid
D. any of the above
What is the compression ratio of a refrigerator compressor?
What do you call a material in a dryer?
A. the ratio of the absolute suction pressure to the absolute
A. drain discharge pressure
B. dryer B. the ratio of the absolute discharge pressure to the absolute
C. desiccant suction pressure
D. A or C C. the ratio of the excessive liquid refrigerant in the receiver to
that in the system
D. none of the above
The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain a constant A “CARRENE” is a type of:
_______
A. refrigerant oil
A. superheat B. refrigerant
B. flow C. scale cleaner
C. pressure D. none of the above
D. temperature
What is the first step that must be don when securing a system?
A refrigerant gives up heat when it
A. open bypass valve
A. vaporizes B. close receiver (King) valve
B. evaporates C. open solenoid valve
C. condenses D. cut out compressor on high pressure
D. boils
When securing a Freon-12 system for repairs
The cooling component of a refrigeration cycle is called ______
A. open the line at 1 to 2 pounds pressure
A. a receiver B. open the line at 5 to 10 pounds pressure
B. an evaporator C. pump down to a slight vacuum
C. a condenser D. pump down to 10” vacuum
D. a desiccant
The most common reason for the small usage of CO2 systems is:
When ordering an expansion valve which of the following information
is necessary? A. it is too dangerous
B. its upkeep is too high
A. size and pressure C. the machinery is too heavy
B. size, tonnage, temperature and pressure D. it is too costly
C. pressure and temperature
D. size and tonnage To increase heat transfer in the evaporator

A hot crankcase and cylinder head accompanied by a low suction A. increase suction pressure
pressure would be caused by B. increase air circulation
C. defrost coils
A. excess refrigerant D. B and C
B. insufficient refrigerant
C. air in the system When the compressor is operated in short spurts after a lay-up or
D. stuck discharge valve overhaul the purpose is to:

Which of the following characteristics that is not desirable in a A. allow refrigerant to circulate
refrigerant? B. determine actual compressor oil level
C. effect gradual cooling
A. low latent heat of fusion D. none of the above
B. high latent heat of vaporization
C. low latent heat of vaporization Which of the following types of valve are not used for suction or
D. A and C discharge?

The principle of the centrifugal system is based on which of the A. gate

following? B. diaphragm
C. metallic
A. kinetic energy D. ring
B. potential energy
C. Lenz’s law What usually happened if brine has a high specific gravity?
D. Boyle’s law
A. it will freeze
The temperature in the vegetable box should be approximately B. it will crystallize
C. nothing will happen
A. -5 °F D. it will solidify
B. 20 °F
C. 38 °F When does the refrigerant gives-up heat?
D. 10 °F
A. when it evaporates
The compressor will run continuously if there is B. when it condenses
C. when it vaporizes
A. insufficient refrigerant D. when it boils
B. air in the system
C. too heavy a load The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant
D. any of the above _______

A “direct” refrigeration system is one in which: A. pressure

B. flow
A. ice is used for cooling C. temperature
B. a secondary coolant is pumped through the evaporator D. superheat
coils
C. the refrigerant passes through coils in the evaporator
D. any of the above
A reactor plate is essential to the operation of a ________ When figuring compression ratio, the ratio will increase with a ______

A. thermostatic valve A. lower suction pressure

B. halide torch B. higher suction pressure
C. solenoid bulb C. higher discharge pressure
D. none of the above D. A and C

The greatest decrease in the temperature of the refrigerant is at the Copper tubing is used in Freon system because:
_________
A. it has less internal resistance
A. condenser B. it is cheaper
B. expansion valve C. it is easier to check leaks
C. evaporator D. iron corrodes
D. receiver
The cooling water regulator is actuated by
The temperature of the refrigerant is highest just before it enters the:
A. an electric relay
A. receiver B. pressure of the refrigerant
B. evaporator C. temperature of the refrigerant
C. condenser D. none of the above
D. king valve
If there is a 20°F temperature drop between the temperature
A hot suction line could be cause by: corresponding to the pressure at the compressor discharge and the
condenser outlet, one should:
A. insufficient refrigerant
B. excess refrigerant A. decrease the amount of circulating water
C. excess cooling water B. increase the amount of circulating water
D. insufficient cooling water C. purge the system
D. none of the above
Which of the following devices will prevent the relief valve from
opening in the event of excessive pressure? If refrigeration controls were constructed with little or no differential,
the:
A. water failure switch
B. high-pressure cutout switch A. compressor would short cycle
C. low-pressure cutout switch B. icebox would get too cold
D. any of the above C. icebox would get too warm
D. refrigerant would be subcooled
Which of the following would cause the suction switch to remain
open? What is the use of back pressure regulating valve?

A. insufficient spring tension A. controls the evaporator temperature by throttling the flow of
B. too much spring tension liquid refrigerant
C. bellows broken or jammed B. maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator coils
D. A or B C. controls the flow of circulating water in the condenser tubes
D. controls the temperature in the evaporator coils
Which of the following would not cause high head pressure?
If the thermal bulb becomes loose on the evaporator coils, it will
A. air in system cause _______
B. overcharge of refrigerant
C. circulating water too warm A. an electric short
D. liquid freezing back B. flooding back of the refrigerant
C. improper operation of expansion valve
A “cold diffuser” is a: D. any of the above

A. type of condenser External frost on inlet of expansion valve indicates:

B. special valve used as a bypass
C. type of evaporator A. expansion valve plugged or dirty
D. none of the above B. head pressure too high
C. refrigerating compartment too cold
Which do you think is the effect of “subcooling”? D. air in system

A. it causes flooding back to the compressor Subcooling of the refrigerant results in:
B. it reduces the horsepower per ton of refrigeration
C. it increases the compression ratio A. less circulating water needed
D. it increases the horsepower per ton of refrigeration B. effect of refrigerant increased
C. liquid less likely to vaporize
Subcooling is to: D. B and C

A. cool the evaporator below its normal temperature Which of the following is the reason when the crankcase is cooler
B. cool the liquid before it enters the evaporator than the suction line?
C. cool a liquid at constant pressure to a temperature lower
than its condensing temperature A. too much refrigerant
D. cool the refrigerant gas before it enters the receiver B. insufficient refrigerant
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. suction valve leaking
If the outlet of the thermostatic valve is warmer than the inlet, it What is the use of the low – water cutout switch?
indicates
A. recirculates the cooling water when there is too much
A. flooding back refrigerant in the condenser
B. thermostatic valve working properly B. stops the compressor when there is no refrigerant running to
C. thermostatic valve not working properly the evaporator
D. solenoid valve not working properly C. stops the flow of refrigerant when the condenser
temperature is too low
High temperature of cylinder heads and crankcase is caused by: D. stops the compressor when there is insufficient cooling water

A. insufficient refrigerant The high-pressure cutout switch:

B. too much refrigerant
C. high head pressure A. stops the flow of refrigerant when condenser pressure is too
D. noncondensable gases high
B. recirculates the refrigerant though the compressor under
Frost on the high-pressure side of a thermostatic expansion valve emergency conditions
would probably be caused by C. stops flow of water to condenser when there is no refrigerant
passing through
A. high head pressure D. stops compressor when head pressure is too high
B. dirty expansion valve
C. refrigerator box too cold Zinc rods are found in the:
D. loss of circulating water to condenser
A. gas side of the condenser
A Freon – 12 gage shows pressure and _______ B. salt water side of the condenser
C. evaporator area
A. superheat temperature D. compressor crankcase
B. saturation temperature
C. back pressure Which of the following is not essential to a compression refrigeration
D. vacuum system?

Moisture in a system will cause a: A. a receiver

B. a condenser
A. faulty expansion valve C. an evaporator
B. high suction pressure D. a dehydrator
C. high suction temperature
D. low discharge temperature What is the effect if the refrigerant is removed from the system too
fast?
Which of the following is not essential to a centrifugal-type
compressor system? A. it may flood the evaporator
B. it may “freeze-up” the condenser
A. evaporator C. it will lower the icebox temperature
B. distiller D. none of the above
C. condenser
D. expansion valve Closing the solenoid valve stops the compressor through the:

A scale trap in a Freon system will be found on the: A. high – pressure cutout switch
B. low water – pressure cutout switch
A. receiver C. low – pressure cutout switch
B. discharge side D. high water – pressure cutout switch
C. suction side
D. condenser A precooler, if used, is located between the:

Which of the following would cause expansion valve failure? A. expansion valve and evaporator
B. compressor and condenser
A. dirt in the valve C. evaporator and compressor
B. moisture in the system D. condenser and expansion valve
C. bulb in icebox ruptured
D. any of the above When the outlet temperature at the evaporator exceeds the inlet
temperature, the condition is known as:
Two compressor should not be run in parallel because:
A. superheating
A. there is a possibility of losing oil B. desuperheating
B. it will give over-capacity C. dehydrating
C. it is not efficient D. saturating
D. A or B
The purpose of providing hot-gas defrosting facilities:
The process that takes place in the evaporator is called
A. defrosting without raising compartment temperature above
A. transfer of the latent heat of vaporization 32 °F
B. absorption of the latent heat of vaporization B. thawing frozen coils
C. absorption of the latent heat of fusion C. defrosting automatically
D. transfer of the latent heat of fusion D. B or C
The suction control switch on the compressor is a What is the effect if the thermal bulb is loose on the evaporator coils?

A. thermal element A. improper operation of expansion valve

B. thermostat B. flooding back of refrigerant
C. pressure element C. vibration causing leaks
D. bellows D. improper operation of solenoid valve

With one machine serving several compartment, when one If the superheat on the suction side of the compressor is increased,
compartment reaches the desired temperature the temperature in what will happen to the tonnage capacity of the unit?
that compartment is maintained by:
A. increases
A. the expansion valve B. decreases
B. the solenoid valve C. no change
C. the back-pressure valve D. none of the above
D. any of the above
What do you usually do to correct slugging and flooding back?
The back-pressure regulating valve:
A. change the discharge pressure
A. controls the water flow through the condenser B. clean the traps
B. stops the flow of liquid refrigerant when temperature drops in C. remove some refrigerant
evaporator D. check the expansion valve
C. maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator coils
D. none of the above In a Freon – 11 system there is no

Faulty F – 12 compressor valves will be indicated by: A. receiver

B. distiller
A. low head pressure-high suction pressure C. condenser
B. compressor running continuously D. evaporator
C. gradual or sudden decrease in capacity
D. all of the above The suction pressure control valve is actuated by which of the
following?
How are tubing joints done?
A. thermostat
A. brazed B. bellows
B. welded C. thermal element
C. screwed D. pressure diaphragm
D. silver soldered
Which of the following would cause the crankcase and head to get
When starting a refrigerating unit, be sure the water side of the hot with low suction pressure?
condenser is _______
A. excess refrigeration
A. secured B. air in system
B. bypassed C. insufficient refrigeration
C. vented D. insufficient cooling water
D. B and C
Which of the following is the function of a suction pressure regulating
The water regulating valve is operated by the valve?

A. compressor discharge pressure A. cuts out the compressor

B. compressor discharge temperature B. controls the expansion valve
C. compressor suction pressure C. cuts in the compressor
D. none of the above D. maintains proper back pressure

High superheat of the vapor in the system would cause ________ Which of the following is the cause if the outlet of a thermostatic valve
is warmer than the inlet side?
A. an increase in capacity
B. a more efficient unit A. valve is working properly
C. a decrease in capacity B. valve is not working properly
D. A and B C. solenoid valve is not working properly
D. none of the above
The solenoid valve is actuated by which of the following?
How is a thermostatic valve tested?
A. a bellows
B. a magnet A. immersing its bulb in warm water
C. a spring B. immersing its bulb in ice water
D. any of the above C. holding its bulb in one’s hand
D. shorting out the cutout switch
Which of the following stops the compressor before the relief valve
opens? Which of the following will cause an automatically controlled F – 12
compressor to start?
A. low water – pressure cutout
B. high – pressure cutout A. closing of the expansion valve
C. low oil – pressure cutout B. opening of the expansion valve
D. low – pressure cutout C. closing of the solenoid valve
D. opening of the solenoid valve
Where is the solenoid coil installed? The moisture in a refrigeration system can be removed with the help
of which of the following?
A. horizontally over the valve
B. vertically over the valve A. driers
C. vertically below the valve B. evaporators
D. horizontally below the valve C. dehumidifiers
D. coolers
The “refrigerating effect” of a refrigerant is:
Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point
A. quantity of heat that 1 pound of refrigerant absorbs while temperature?
flowing through the evaporator under given conditions
B. amount of heat it can remove in a given time A. Freon 12
C. quantity of heat that 1 pound of refrigerant absorbs B. Ammonia
D. A or B C. Freon 22
D. Freon 11
The “refrigerating effect” of a refrigerant is always:
During compression in a vapor compression cycle when the
A. more than its latent heat refrigerant is super-heated, what happens to the performance?
B. more than its sensible heat
C. less than its sensible heat A. C. O. P. is reduced
D. less than its latent heat B. C. O. P. remains unchanged
C. Work done is increased
What will happen if the expansion valve is opened too wide? D. refrigerating effect is reduced

A. liquid will flood back to the compressor A Bell-Colman Cycle is also known as _______
B. it will make no difference, as the automatic expansion valve
is still operating A. reversed Otto cycle
C. the condenser coils will overheat B. reversed Joule cycle
D. A or C C. reversed Rankine cycle
D. reversed Carnot cycle
Which of the following should not be used to clean scale traps?
Critical temperature is that temperature above which:
A. compressed air
B. cotton waste A. a gas will never liquefy
C. kerosene B. a gas gets immediately liquefy
D. diesel oil C. water gets evaporated
D. water will never evaporate
If one of the ship’s service boxes suddenly stops cooling, the most
likely cause would be the malfunction of the: Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of:

A. discharge valve A. 0.1 ton

B. King valve B. 50 tons
C. solenoid valve C. 100 tons
D. expansion valve D. 4 tons

Which of the following items is not important when using a halide What is the usual COP of a domestic refrigerator?
torch?
A. less than 1
A. move flame slowly around the joints B. more than 1
B. hold flame close to the joints C. equal to 1
C. adjust to a clear white flame D. depends upon the make of it
D. adjust to a clear blue flame
Horsepower per ton of refrigeration is expressed as:
A system should be purged when the liquid outlet temperature from
the condenser is more than the temperature corresponding to the A. 4.75/COP
discharge pressure B. 4.75 x COP
C. COP / 4.75
A. 10°F above D. 4.75 / COP
B. 20°F below
C. 20°F above The highest temperature in vapor compression cycle is produced
D. 5°F below during:

Which of the following would cause the compressor to run A. expansion valve
continuously? B. evaporator
C. condenser discharge
A. low – pressure switch jammed D. compressor discharge
B. high – pressure switch jammed
C. clogged strainer Which type of compressor is used in refrigeration system?
D. defective thermal bulb
A. reciprocating
In a vapor compression cycle the lowest temperature is found in _____ B. centrifugal
C. rotary sliding vane
A. receiver D. all of the above
B. condenser
C. compressor
D. evaporator
What is the reason why a thermometer in vapor compression system Which of the following is also known as Refrigerant No. R – 717?
is installed close to the compressor?
A. Ammonia
A. because it helps the operator in adjusting compressor for B. Freon 22
greatest efficiency C. Freon 12
B. because temperature indicates whether liquid or vapor D. methyl chloride
refrigerant is going to compressor
C. because temperature helps in calculating the coefficient of In which part of the vapor compression cycle there is abrupt change
performance in pressure and temperature
D. because the performance of other units of the cycle can be
controlled A. solenoid valve
B. evaporator
Which refrigerant has the highest critical point temperature? C. expansion valve
D. drier
A. ammonia
B. Freon 11 What do you call a plate or vane used to direct or control movement
C. Freon 12 of fluid or air within the confined area?
D. Freon 22
A. baffle
White ice is B. bellows
C. regulator
A. fast cooled water D. diffuser
B. sub cooled water
C. due to dissolved air, gases and impurities Brazing is used for joining two ______
D. formed by blowing air during freezing
A. two ferrous material
Clear ice B. one ferrous and non-ferrous material
C. two non-ferrous materials
A. is pure ice D. two non-metals
B. contains dissolved gases
C. contains dissolved air Which refrigerant is used for the air-conditioning of passenger aircraft
D. is formed by blowing air during freezing cabin?

Dry ice is A. ammonia

B. Freon 12
A. free from water C. Freon 11
B. free from dissolved air or gases D. air
C. does not contain impurities
D. solidified form of carbon dioxide Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed between the _____

The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon can be detected by: A. compressor and condenser
B. condenser and evaporator
A. Halide torch which detection forms greenish flame lighting C. metering device and evaporator
B. Sulfur sticks which on detection form white smoke D. none of the above
C. using certain reagents
D. smelling A flash chamber is installed in the refrigeration circuit as to:

The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure- A. improve overall heat transfer coefficient
enthalpy diagram represents: B. reduce pressure losses through the evaporator
C. reduce the size of evaporator by avoiding vapors going to
A. compression of the refrigerant vapor evaporator
B. evaporation of the refrigerant liquid D. All of the above
C. condensation of the refrigerant vapor
D. metering of the refrigerant liquid The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon
refrigerant, will change to:
Which of the following uses a secondary refrigerant?
A. yellow
A. domestic refrigerator B. red
B. room air conditioner C. green
C. deep freezer D. orange
D. ice plant
What is the Boiling temperature of F – 12?
Which of the following secondary refrigerants generally used in milk
chilling plants? A. – 33.33 °C
B. – 78.5 °C
A. Brine C. – 29.8 °C
B. Ammonia solution D. – 40 °C
C. Glycol
D. Sodium silicate What is the Boiling temperature of F – 22?

What is the cycle where a refrigeration system generally operates? A. – 33.33 °C

B. – 29.8 °C
A. open cycle C. – 78.5 °C
B. closed cycle D. – 40 °C
C. mixed cycle
D. hybrid cycle
The following gas is preferred in refrigeration system: Boiling temperature of Freon 12 is:

A. F – 11 A. -33.33 °C
B. F – 22 B. -78.5 °C
C. CO2 C. -29.8 °C
D. NH3 D. -40.7 °C

The bhp/ton refrigeration requirement with increase in condenser Boiling temperature of Freon 22 is:
temperature, in a vapor compression system that uses reciprocating
compressor receiving refrigerant gas at constant suction temperature, A. -33.33 °F
will follow: B. -29.8 °C
C. -78.5 °C
A. linearly decreasing characteristic D. -41.04 °C
B. linearly increasing characteristic
C. first increase rapidly and then decrease slowly The faster way to remove frost from a direct – expansion finned – tube
D. first increase slowly and then rapidly evaporator is to:

Antifreeze chemicals are: A. send hot gas through the coil

B. scrape off frost
A. same as refrigerants C. wash with warm water
B. those that are added to refrigerant for better performance D. shut down warm let frost melt
C. those that lower down the freezing points of liquids
D. those that do not freeze at all You want to change refrigerants in a Freon – 12 plant using a
reciprocating single – acting compressor. Which refrigerant requires
The capacity in ice making is always the smallest amount of change to the system?

A. less than the refrigerating effect A. Carbon dioxide

B. greater than the refrigerating effect B. Ammonia
C. equal to the refrigerating effect C. Methyl chloride
D. directly proportional to the refrigerating effect D. Aqua ammonia

To check the lack of refrigerant or clogged refrigerant lines Soft copper tubing that is used for refrigerating piping, erected on
premises containing other than Group 1 refrigerant must be protected
A. installing service valves must be necessary by _______
B. installing king valve must be an option
C. sight glasses can be possibly used A. supporting it by approved clamps
D. Discharge pressure and temperature must be monitored B. limiting its length between supports up to 10 feet
C. a rigid or flexible metal enclosure
Can any refrigerant be used with a booster system? D. wrapping it with insulation tape throughout its length

A. Yes A Freon – 12 refrigeration system is fitted with thermal expansion

B. No valves. The valves are rated in:
C. Used for some
D. Used for all A. pound per minute
B. superheat setting
What is the chemical formula of methylene chloride? C. tons of refrigeration
D. cubic feet per minute
A. CHCL2F
B. CH2Cl2 The vapor cycle in thermal efficiency as the refrigeration cycle is to
C. CClF3 the _______
D. CBRF3
A. energy efficiency ratio
What is the chemical formula of butane? B. COP for a refrigerator
C. COP for a heat pump
A. C2H5Cl D. Carnot efficiency
B. C3H8
C. C2H4O2 The main purpose of a subcooler in a refrigerating system especially
D. C4H10 a two-stage system is to:

Type of refrigerant control which maintains pressure difference A. increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid system
between high side and low side pressure in refrigerating mechanism shutdown
B. improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and increase the
A. Suction valve temperature
B. Expansion valve C. reduce the total power requirements and return oil to the
C. Service valve compressor
D. Solenoid valve D. reduce the total power requirements and heat rejection to
the second stage
The dividing point between the high pressure and low pressure sides
of the refrigeration cycle occurs at the: Ton of refrigeration is a unit equivalent to:

A. expansion valve A. 50.4 kCal/sec

B. compressor B. 12,660 kN-m/hr
C. condenser C. 3413 kW-hr
D. cooling coil D. 2545 Btu/hr
In a refrigerating system, the heat absorbed in the evaporator per kg The sensible heat ratio is 0.8. That is
mass of refrigerant passing through:
A. 20% latent heat and 60% sensible heat
A. equals the increase in enthalpy B. 80% sensible heat and 20% latent heat
B. does not depend on the refrigerant used C. 80% sensible heat and 20% sensible heat and latent heat
C. is decreased if pre-cooler is used D. 20% latent heat and 80% sensible heat and latent heat
D. equals the increase in volume
The effect of superheating the refrigerant is to:
Lithium bromide is used in refrigeration system in:
A. increase the COP
A. condensate return lines B. increase and decrease the COP
B. absorbers C. decrease the COP
C. centrifugal compressors D. maintains the COP
D. ion exchangers
The ice making capacity is always
A refrigeration system in which only part of the refrigerant passes over
the heat transfer surface is evaporated and the balance is separated A. directly proportional to the refrigerating effect
from the vapor and recirculated B. less than the refrigerating effect
C. greater than the refrigerating effect
A. Direct expansion system D. equal to the refrigerating effect
B. Chilled water system
C. Flooded system The amount of sensible heat for a sensible heat ratio of 0.80 and total
D. Multiple system cooling load of 100 is:

A device whose primary function is to meter the flow of refrigerant to A. 80

the evaporator B. 20
C. 100
A. Sniffer valve D. 60
B. Equalizer
C. Thermostatic expansion valve The high pressure of refrigeration system consist of the line to the
D. Crossover valve expansion valve, the receiver, the uppermost half of the compressor
and the:
Select the one in which secondary refrigerant is used
A. line after the expansion valve
A. Domestic refrigerator B. lower most half of compressor
B. Room air conditioner C. condenser
C. Deep freezer D. evaporator
D. Ice plant
Which of the following materials is suitable for tubing in refrigeration
An odorless refrigerant whose boiling point varies over a wide range application where refrigerant ammonia is deployed?
of temperatures
A. Platic
A. Freon 22 B. Brass
B. Freon 12 C. Steel
C. Ammonia D. Copper
D. Freon 11
If PV is the power required for a vapor-compression refrigeration
The part that directs the flow of refrigerant through the compressor system, then what is the power required for an air-refrigeration
system, assuming that they have the same capacity?
A. wrist pin
B. valve A. 5PV
C. piston B. 2PV
D. connecting rod C. PV/10
D. 1/PV
The highest temperature in vapor compression cycle is produced
during: Tons of refrigeration in Btu/24 hours is

A. receiver A. 288,000
B. evaporator B. 28,800
C. condenser discharge C. 290,000
D. compressor discharge D. 29,000

The boiling point of Freon 22 is: R – 22 is:

A. -41.04 °F A. dichlorodifluoromethane
B. 40.60 °F B. monochlorodifluoromethane
C. -38.40 °F C. methyl chloride
D. -31.40 °F D. trichlorodifluoromethane

The secondary refrigerant used in mil chilling plants is generally: A salimeter reads the:

A. brine A. density of brine

B. ammonia B. rate of brine
C. glycol C. dew point temperature
D. sodium silicate D. relative humidity
Which of the following measures the density of salt in water?

A. Salimeter
B. Hydrometer
C. Pitot tube
D. Calorimeter

What is the device used to protect the compressor from overloading

due to high head pressure?

A. Overload relay
B. Hold back suction valve
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Expansion valve

The purpose of the expansion valve is to control the flow of the

refrigerant to the evaporator. The other function is to:

A. reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant

B. increase the pressure of the vapor refrigerant
C. reduce the pressure of the vapor refrigerant
D. increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant

It prevents the refrigerant from the condenser to go back to the

compressor

A. Check valve
B. Float switch
C. Expansion valve
D. Low side float

If the freezing point of water is 0°C, which of the following is its melting
point?

A. Slightly less than 0°C

B. Slightly more than 0°C
C. 0°C
D. 32°C
How do you call the water vapor content of air? Which of the following is considered as comfort condition in air
conditioning?
A. moisture
B. humidity A. 40°C DBT, 80% RH
C. dew B. 30°C DBT, 60% RH
D. vapor C. 30°C DBT, 80% RH
D. 20°C DBT, 60% RH
When air contains all of the water vapor it can hold, it is said to be
The drift loss in cooling towers is about:
A. simulated
B. loaded A. 1% only
C. saturated B. 12 to 15%
D. moistured C. 10 to 20%
D. 30 to 40%
What is the instrument used to register relative humidity?
Cooling towers are used for cooling water:
A. hygrometer
B. hydrometer A. to be injected in circulating air
C. perometer B. to be used for humidification
D. manometer C. to be used for filtration of air
D. to be used for cooling the compressor
Humidity is a measure of which of the following?
By which of the following processes heat mainly dissipates in cooling
A. water vapor content towers?
B. temperature
C. latent heat A. conduction
D. any of the above B. convection
C. radiation
Air conditioning is the process of: D. evaporation

A. keeping a place cool Which one is commonly used liquid absorbent?

B. removing heat from a specific area
C. maintaining the air at a required temperature and humidity A. silica gel
D. A or C B. activated alumina
C. ethylene glycol
In an air-conditioning system before the air is circulated to the D. any one of the above
required area, it is:
In sensible heating cooling following parameter remains unchanged
A. cooled
B. filtered A. dry bulb temperature
C. dehumidified B. wet bulb temperature
D. all of the above C. relative humidity
D. humidity ratio
The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to
condense is known as the: Heating and dehumidification can be obtained simultaneously if air is
passed through:
A. vapor point
B. dew point A. sprays of water kept at a temperature higher than the dew
C. moisture point point temperature of the entering air
D. none of the above B. a solid absorbent surface
C. a liquid absorbent spray
Saturation temperature is the same as: D. any one of B and C

A. dew point Dirt and foreign materials normally build-up on the side of the
B. vapor temperature condenser tubes. To ensure adequate condenser capacity, a certain
C. steam temperature factor is used in calculating the overall heat transfer through the walls
D. humidity of the tube including the heat transfer rate of the layers dirt and
foreign materials. What is this factor?
When the bypass factor is B, the coil efficiency for sensible cooling of
air is equal to: A. Booster Factor
B. Factor of Safety
A. 1+B C. Fouling Factor
B. 1–B D. Compression Factor
C. 1–B/B
D. 1+B/B The engineer was tested to design the air conditioning system for a
ball room dance hall. Considering that this involve a lot of activity
The psychrometeric chart in air conditioning determines the from its users, the engineer would design that will require:

A. wet bulb and dry bulb temperature A. Maximum attainable effective temperature
B. psychrometeric temperature requirements B. Constant Effective temperature
C. saturation temperature and relatives humidity C. Higher Effective Temperature
D. moist air conditions D. Lower Effective Temperature
What is the value of the Mach No. throat of the converging-diverging The method of cooling which primarily used where ambient air
nozzle? temperatures are high and relative humidity is used:

A. Zero A. Swamp Cooling

B. Two B. Evaporative Cooling
C. One C. Condensate Cooling
D. Ten D. Hydroionic Cooling

What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero? The other name for Swamp Cooling is:

A. It emits Energy A. Evaporative Cooling

B. It emits Thermal Radiation B. Condensate Cooling
C. It emits Heat for Conduction C. Wet Roof Cooling
D. It emits Heat for convection D. Excelsior Cooling

When air is saturated, the wet bulb depression is: Evaporative condenser is used to cool

A. zero A. condenser vapor

B. indefinite B. condenser surface
C. unity C. condensate liquid
D. 100% D. all of these

In a window air conditioning unit which of the following is usually A method of cooling which uses water as refrigerant. Pressure on the
done by the owner? water surface is reduced to lower its boiling temperature

A. Semiannual cleaning or replacement of filters A. Steam Jet Cooling

B. Annual cleaning of the evaporator, condenser fan blades, B. Evaporative Cooling
fan motor, compressor and casing C. Vortex Tube Cooling
C. Inspection of fan motors and lubricate them D. Pressurized Cooling
D. All of these
Palladium Chloride may be used to measure the presence of:
Fan motors in air conditioning units usually have:
A. vapor
A. 2 or 3 speeds B. CO
B. 3 or 4 speeds C. ammonia
C. 1 or 2 speeds D. refrigerant
D. 4 or 5 speeds
The amount of CO can be determined by the color of Palladium
Which of the following capacitors that can usually be found in an air Chloride. An amount of 30 ppm to 70 ppm will cause:
conditioning unit?
A. Slight Darkening
A. Starting capacitors B. Grey Color
B. Running capacitors C. Red Color
C. Fan motor capacitors D. Black Color
D. all of these
The term used to express the amount moisture in a given sample of
Which of the following troubles commonly occurs inside an air air. It is compared with the amount of moisture in a given sample of
conditioning unit? air

A. Stuck Compressor A. Humidity

B. Clogged Refrigerant Circuit B. Relative Humidity
C. Short Circuit, open circuit, grounded motor winding C. Absolute Humidity
D. All of these D. Humidity Ratio

The motor condition of an air conditioning unit can be checked with: How should the window type air conditioning unit be placed?

A. the continuity of light or with an ohmmeter A. Slant toward the inside of the home
B. the flow of refrigerant in the receiver B. Slant toward the outside of the home
C. the discharge pressure in the compressor C. Level
D. All of these D. Slant at approximately 15° from the horizontal

An air conditioning system wherein the entire systems are mounted in A dehumidifier is usually a small hermitic refrigerating system. It has
the cabinet: both a condenser and an evaporator. Many older systems use R – 12
or R – 500. The newer units use:
A. Console Air Conditioners
B. Centralized Air Conditioners A. R – 134a
C. Package Type Air Conditioners B. R – 145a
D. Multizone Split Ductless System C. R – 217a
D. R – 121a
The use of water to carry heat occupied spaces
The normal cutout setting of a window unit thermostat is between:
A. Hydronic Heating System
B. Water Boiling System A. 13 °C to 16 °C
C. Hydrokinetic Heating System B. 16 °C to 21 °C
D. Hydraulic Heating System C. 17 °C to 22 °C
D. 10 °C to 15 °C
Thermostat are used with most window units. They have differentials Which of the following refrigerants is popular in the industrial
which vary between: refrigerating system; also popularly absorption systems of refrigerant

A. 2 °C to 4 °C A. R – 717 (Ammonia)
B. 3 °C to 5 °C B. R – 600 (Butane)
C. 4 °C to 5 °C C. R – 611 (Methyl Formate)
D. 1 °C to 2 °C D. R – 504

In an air conditioning unit, the thermostat fails. The unit did not start. Which of the following is a function of air conditioning?
How do you test the operating of the thermostat?
A. Temperature and Humidity Control
A. Cover the air outlet and air inlet with a cloth. The air will B. Air Filtering, Cleaning, and Purification
recirculate into the unit and the temperature will quickly C. Air Movement and Circulation
drop to the cut out temperature D. All of these
B. Cover the outlet and the air will not circulate and the
thermostat functions because no air movement Oxygen is approximately what percent by weight in atmosphere?
C. Cover both the inlet and outlet so that the recirculating air
has the same temperature A. 23%
D. Never cover any air passage so that air can freely move B. 27%
and themostat functions well C. 77%
D. 73%
Which of the following dehumidifier is often used to reheat the air after
moisture is removed? Substances that have the ability to absorb moisture from the air are
called:
A. Evaporator
B. Chiller A. Dessicants
C. Condenser B. Moisturizer
D. Compressor C. Dehygroscopic substances
D. Moisture absorber
Which of the following refrigerant is added sometimes to other
refrigerant to improve oil circulation? When the dry bulb and the wet bulb temperatures are identical, the
air is said to be:
A. R – 117
B. R – 777 A. saturated
C. R – 170 (Ethane) B. compressed
D. R – 270 C. humidified
D. dehumidified
A refrigeration that deals with producing temperature of -157°C or
lower In what form that water exists in air?

A. Low temperature refrigeration A. Solid

B. Extremely low temperature refrigeration B. Liquid
C. Absolute zero refrigeration C. Vapor
D. Cryogenics D. Saturated

Measurement of a device’s ability to remove atmospheric air from When air is heated, what happened to its relative humidity?
test air
A. Increases
A. Atmospheric Dust Spot Efficiency B. Decreases
B. Atmospheric Dry Air Efficiency C. Remain Constant
C. Test Air Efficiency D. May increase or Decrease Depending on temperature
D. Baudelot Air Efficiency
The Horizontal scale (Abscissa) in the Psychrometric Chart represents:
A liquid mixture having constant maximum and minimum boiling
points. Refrigerants comprising this mixture do not combine A. Dry bulb temperature
chemically, yet the mixture provides constant characteristics B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Relative Humidity
A. Azeotropic Mixture D. Humidity
B. Homogeneous Mixture
C. Conzeotropic Mixture Most people are comfortable with the relative humidity of:
D. Cyrogenic Mixture
A. 30 % to 70 %
Refrigerant in Group A1 (R-11). Chemical combination of carbon, B. 10 % to 40 %
chlorine, and fluorine C. 20 % to 30 %
D. 40 % to 80 %
A. Carrene
B. Cerrene The temperature below which water vapor in the air will start to
C. CCL group condense:
D. HCL group
A. Condensing Temperature
B. Dry Bulb Temperature
C. Dew point Temperature
D. Wet Bulb Temperature
Which of the following is not used as method to measure air Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air
velocities? conditioning unit?

A. Hot wire Anemometer A. It will not cause ice build-up

B. Rotating Anemometer B. It will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise
C. Swinging Vane Velocimeter C. It may not slice suction line
D. Open type Barometer D. It decreases the volume flow of refrigerant

It is a form of oxygen photochemically produced in nature A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer

A. Ozone A. Hydrofluorocarbons (HCF’s)

B. Oxidation B. Hydrodichlorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
C. Oxidizing Agent C. R – 22
D. DO2 D. R – 12

What is the Chemical formula of Ozone? Which of the following is the type of refrigerant that damages Ozone
layer?
A. O3
B. O2 A. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
C. D2O B. R – 12
D. O1 C. R – 22
D. All of these
In the upper atmosphere, ozone is made by ultraviolet light reacting
with: Large-bulb alcohol thermometer used to measure air speed or
atmospheric conditions by means of cooling
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen A. Kata Thermometer
C. Nitrogen B. Kelvin Thermometer
D. Water Vapor C. JJ Thompson Thermometer
D. Wet Bulb Thermometer
The ozone concentration of 0.10 parts per million (ppm) is generally
considered the maximum permissible for how many hours exposure? Which of the following components of the window air conditioning
system must be cleaned annually?
A. 8 hrs
B. 4 hrs A. Evaporator and Condenser
C. 7 hrs B. Motor and compressor
D. 3 hrs C. Fan Blades and Fan motor
D. All of these
How many moisture be removed from air?
The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is called:
A. Condensation
B. Absorption A. Stratification
C. A and B B. Sedimentation
D. none of these C. Setting Due
D. Ventilation
In cooling cycle, the dry bulb temperature (db) of the air is lowered.
When this happens the relative humidity Air delivered to the room from the supply duct, moving at a velocity
of 150 ft/min or more is called:
A. increases
B. decreases A. Primary Air
C. remains constant B. Secondary Air
D. increases or decreases depending on the temperature at C. Saturated Air
which it is cooled D. Air turbulence

What is the effect of superheating the refrigerant? Carries needed to deliver air to the conditioned space. It is made of
sheet of metals like aluminum, galvanized sheet steel and some
A. It increases the Coefficient of Performance structural materials that will not burn
B. It decreases the Coefficient of Performance
C. It lowers the boiling point of the refrigerant A. Duct
D. It increases the suction pressure of the refrigerant B. Air Inlet
C. Air Outlet
In sensible heating the absolute humidity remains constant but the D. Diffuser
relative humidity:
From what principle that air ducts operate?
A. increases
B. decreases A. Principle of Pressure Difference
C. remains constant B. Principle of Temperature Difference
D. zero C. Forced Draft Fan Principle
D. Principle of Natural Convection
The relative humidity becomes 100 % and where the water vapor
starts to condense Which of the following is the common classification of ducts?

A. Dew Point A. Conditioned Air – Duct

B. Cloud Point B. Recirculating
C. Saturated Point C. Fresh-air Ducts
D. Critical Point D. All of these
It is used deliver concentrated airstreams into a room. Many have A popular air conditioning system that includes a single outdoor
one-way or two-way adjustable air stream deflectors condenser, three independent evaporators, and individual
evaporator temperature control. The condensing unit is located
A. Register outside on a slab. They are frequently used in legal and medical
B. Grille offices, motels and homes without ducts
C. Diffuser
D. Damper A. Multizone Ductless Split Sytem
B. Packaged Terminal Air Conditioner
It is used to control the air-throw distance, height, and spread, as well C. Console Air Conditioner
as the amount of air D. Window type Air Conditioner

A. Grille An air conditioning system which is a combination of heating and

B. Register cooling system. It is designed to serve an individual room or zone
C. Diffuser
D. Damper A. Multizone Ductless Split System
B. Packaged Terminal Air Conditioner
It is used to deliver widespread, fan-shaped flows of air into the room C. Console air Conditioner
D. Window Type air Conditioner
A. Grille
B. Register Which of the following is to be checked as regular monthly
C. Diffuser maintenance schedule of a console air conditioning units?
D. Damper
A. Water Leaks
Which of the following fans in air conditioning systems which can be B. Fan Speeds
classified as centrifugal flow? C. Cooling Tower
D. Duct Dampers, Registers, and Diffusers
A. Axial fan
B. Propeller fan Which of the following is to be checked as part of the weekly
C. Bi-axial fan maintenance schedule of a console air conditioners?
D. None of these
A. Filters
The most common controller in the heating and cooling systems B. Humidifiers
C. Safety valves
A. Thermostat D. Cooling Tower
B. Pressure gage
C. Barometer A mechanism that removes moisture
D. Sling Psychrometer
A. Humidifiers
A thermostat that functions as increase or decrease instead of starting B. Dehumidifiers
and stopping system is called: C. Moisturizers
D. Cooling Towers
A. modulate
B. heating-cooling the thermostat When coil surface temperature is below the dew point of the air
C. interlocked
D. compound thermostat A. moisture will condense out of the air
B. vapor will evaporate through the air
A number used to compare energy usage for different areas. It is C. air is dehumidified
calculated by dividing the energy consumption by the fottage of the D. air is humidified and saturated
conditioned area
Nitrogen occupied almost how much of the Earth’s Atmosphere
A. Energy Utilization Unit
B. Energy Utilization Efficiency A. One-fourth
C. Energy Utilization Index B. Three-fourths
D. Energy Utilization Ratio C. One-half
D. One-third
The ratio of the rated cooling capacity divided by the amount of
electrical power used: Water in vapor form remains a vapors as long as its temperature is
what relations to the dew point temperature
A. Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER)
B. Energy Efficiency Index (EE) A. above
C. Cooling Efficiency B. equals
D. Energy Cooling Ratio (ECR) C. below
D. almost
Heat exchanger in which water flows by gravity over the outside of
the tubes or plates An instrument used in measuring air velocity by velocity-pressure
method
A. Baudelot Cooler
B. Free Cooler A. Pitot Tube
C. Newtonian Cooler B. Anemometer
D. Bourdon Cooler C. Aneroid Barometer
D. Flowmeter
What is the specific humidity of dry air? Which of the following statements is correct?
The relative humidity of an air water vapor mixture
A. 100
B. 20 A. is the ratio of the partial pressure of the water vapor to the
C. 0 partial pressure of the air
D. 50 B. indicates the mass of water vapor in the mixture
C. is equal to the mole fraction of water vapor in the mixture at
When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an engineer was so the mixture temperature
eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he added ice cubes of ice to cool D. is the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to the
the soup stirred it. He noticed that dew starts to form on the outermost saturation pressure at the mixture temperature
surface of the cup. He wanted to check the temperature of the
outermost surface of the cup. What is this temperature equal to? In sensible cooling process, moisture content

A. superheated temperature A. does not change

B. equal to zero B. decreases
C. standard temperature C. indeterminate
D. equal to air’s dew point temperature D. increases

The temperature at which the water vapor in the gas begins to What amount of air is required in a low bypass factor?
condense in a constant pressure process
A. Greater
A. Dew point B. Lesser
B. Vapor point C. Indeterminate
C. Flue point D. Constant
D. Gas point
The design of an air supply duct of an air conditioning system _______
All of the following processes can be found on a psychrometric chart
except: A. adds moisture to the air
B. lowers the temperature of the air
A. humidification C. does not affect the moisture of air
B. sensible heating D. affects the distribution
C. natural convection
D. sensible cooling What is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly be
cooled in a cooling tower?
All of the following processes can be found on psychrometric chart
except: A. The effective temperature
B. The temperature of adiabatic compression
A. heating and humidifying C. The wet bulb depression
B. cooling and dehumidification D. The dew point temperature of the air
C. block body radiation
D. evaporative cooling Combined process of cooling and humidifying is also known as:

Which is not commonly used to cool and dehumidify equipment? A. heating and humidifying
B. cooling tower
A. Calcium chloride C. evaporative cooling process
B. Activated alumina D. moisture removal process
C. Sodium zeolite
D. Silica gel In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by:

All of the following temperatures have meaning in psychrometrics A. condensation

except: B. evaporation
C. convection
A. dry – bulb temperature D. conduction
B. wet – bulb temperature
C. adiabatic wall temperature Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing moisture
D. dew point on a solid dessicant or drying material such as activated alumina,
silicon gel or molecular sieve?
The relative humidity is given by the:
A. Regenerative dryer
A. ratio of the actual humidity to the saturated humidity at the B. Deliquescent dryer
same temperature and pressure C. Spray dryer
B. ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation D. Refrigerated dryer
pressure
C. ratio of wet-bulb to dry-bulb temperature The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point temperature
D. ratio of dry-bulb temperature to dew point to the amount that would be in the air if the air were saturated at the
dry bulb temperature is:
The determination of properties and behavior of atmospheric air
usually the purview of: A. partial pressure actual at dew point
B. percentage humidity
A. thermodynamics C. relative humidity
B. psychrometrics D. partial pressure of water
C. forced convection
D. Kirchoff’s law
When the air is saturated the wet bulb depression is:

A. zero
B. indefinite
C. unity
D. 100 %

A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer which has

constant specific humidity

A. Critical temperature
B. Dew point temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Wet bulb temperature

During sensible heating, the humidity remains constant but the

relative humidity

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. zero

The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts
to condense

A. Critical point
B. Saturated point
C. Dew point
D. Cloud point

What is the specific humidity of dry air?

A. 150
B. 100
C. 50
D. 0

An engineer inspected an air-conditioning unit. He found out that the

unit does not produce any cooling effect, however, the air-
conditioning unit is running. He checked the temperatures of the
condenser and evaporator and had the unit run. He found out that
there was no change in the temperature. What should he do?

A. Replace fuse
B. Charge with new refrigerant
C. Replace relay
D. Adjust door seal

What is the temperature range of air in air conditioning application

where the dry air can be considered ideal gas?

A. 100 to 125 °C
B. 50 to 75 °C
C. 75 to 100 °C
D. -10 to 50 °C

What is the value of air stratification in air conditioning design fir for
human comfort?

A. minimum
B. maximum
C. less than air temperature
D. equal to air temperature
Foundations are preferably built of concrete in the proportion of what The minimum vertical distance from the floor or soil level to the top
measure of Portland cement: sand : crushed stones? edge of the foundation must be around _______

A. 1:2:5 A. 150 mm
B. 2:4:6 B. 100 mm
C. 2:3:5 C. 200 mm
D. 1:2:4 D. 120 mm

For design stability, the center of gravity of the total combined For stability, the total combined engine, driven equipment, and
engine, driven equipment and foundation should be kept ______ foundation center of gravity must be kept _______

A. anywhere A. below the foundations top

B. above the foundation top B. above the foundations top
C. in line with surface of the foundation C. 120 mm above the foundations top
D. below the foundation top D. none of the above

The machine foundation must have a factor of safety of There shall be no foundation bolts less than ______

A. 4 A. 12 mm in diameter
B. 5 B. 16 mm in diameter
C. 6 C. 18 mm in diameter
D. 7 D. 20 mm in diameter

The diesel engine foundation safe soil bearing pressure is: The weight of steel bar reinforcements should be how many times the
weight of the foundation?
A. 4,890 kg/cm^2
B. 4,500 kg/cm^2 A. 1/2 % to 1 %
C. 4,490 kg/cm^2 B. 1 % to 1.5 %
D. 4,125 kg/cm^2 C. 3 % to 5 %
D. 3.2 % to 4.2 %
Anchor bolts in a machine foundation should be embedded in
concrete of at least how many times of the bolt diameter? Concrete foundation should have steel bar reinforcements placed
vertically and horizontally to avoid ________
A. 15
B. 20 A. breaking
C. 30 B. thermal cracking
D. 25 C. melting
D. vibration
As a good practical rule, the foundation depth may be taken as how
many times of the engine stroke? Foundations bolt length should be at least how many times the
anchor bolt diameter?
A. 2.2 to 3.2
B. 3.2 to 4.2 A. 16 times
C. 2.5 to 3.5 B. 18 times
D. 3.5 to 4.5 C. 20 times
D. 30 times
To secure the belts embedded within the foundation, the distance of
the edges of the foundation from the bedplate must be Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by
a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at least how many times the
A. 120 mm to 300 mm diameter of the anchor bolt?
B. 150 mm to 330 mm
C. 100 mm to 280 mm A. 3
D. 200 mm to 380 mm B. 4
C. 5
The weight of the machine foundation is how many times of the D. 6
weight of the engine?
For a diesel engine’s foundation, in pouring a concrete mixture, it
A. 4 to 5 times should be poured:
B. 3 to 5 times
C. 2 to 3 times A. one time
D. 4 to 6 times B. two times
C. three times
To eliminate transmission of vibration, the foundation should be D. four times
isolated from floor slabs or building footings at least how many mm
around its perimeter? For foundations of steam turbine, the conrete mixture should be ____

A. 15 A. 1:2:4
B. 20 B. 1:3:5
C. 25 C. 1:2:3
D. 30 D. 1:3:4
The steam turbine foundation should be designed to support the The static pressure drop due to friction through the boiler and stack
machine load plus how many percent for impact, condenser load,
floor loads and dead loads? A. draft loss
B. available draft
A. 15 C. stack effect
B. 20 D. fan boost
C. 25
D. 30 The difference between the theoretical draft and the draft loss

Which of the following draft rely on the stack effect to draw off A. draft loss
combustion gases? B. available draft
C. stack effect
A. Natural draft D. fan boost
B. Forced draft
C. Induced draft In a balanced system, the available draft is:
D. Balanced draft
A. unity
Fans located before the furnace that are used to apply air for burning B. zero
C. 100
A. Natural draft D. infinite
B. Forced draft
C. Induced draft The total pressure supplied by the fan at maximum operating
D. Balanced draft conditions

Forced draft fans are run at relatively high speeds in the range of: A. net rating or fan boost
B. draft loss
A. 1200 to 1800 rpm C. available draft
B. 1000 to 1600 rpm D. stack effect
C. 1500 to 2000 rpm
D. 900 to 1500 rpm Generally the higher the chimney

Chimneys that rely on natural draft are sometimes referred to as A. the smaller the stack effect
B. the greater the stack effect
A. natural chimney C. stack effect is zero
B. gravity chimney D. stack effect approaches unity
C. normal chimney
D. stack Modern stacks are seldom built higher than

Force draft fans create a positive pressure of: A. 60 m

B. 50 m
A. 0.5 to 2.5 kPa C. 40 m
B. 1.0 to 3.0 kPa D. 30 m
C. 2.0 to 4.0 kPa
D. 0.2 to 2.2 kPa Most stacks are built of height less than:

Fans that are used to draw combustion products through the furnace A. 60 m
bed, stack, and pollution control system by injecting air into the stack B. 50 m
after combustion C. 40 m
D. 30 m
A. Natural draft
B. Forced draft The average flue gas temperature is
C. Induced draft
D. Balanced draft A. the temperature entering the stack
B. the temperature leaving the stack
The term used when the static pressure is equal to the atmospheric C. the temperature halfway up the stack
pressure D. the sum of the temperatures

A. Natural draft The coefficient of velocity is approximately

B. Forced draft
C. Induced draft A. 0.30 to 0.50
D. Balanced draft B. 0.40 to 0.60
C. 0.20 to 0.40
In order to keep combustion products inside the combustion D. 0.50 to 0.70
chamber and stack system, balanced draft system may actually
operate with a slight For realistic problems, the achievable stack effect probably should
be considered to be:
A. negative pressure
B. positive pressure A. 75 % of the ideal
C. positive and negative pressure B. 80 % of the ideal
D. absolute pressure C. equal to the ideal
D. half the ideal
Guyed stacks seldom exceed: In guyed steel stacks, the angle between wires in a set of three is:

A. 1.83 m in diameter A. 120 deg.

B. 2.83 m in diameter B. 110 deg.
C. 1.45 m in diameter C. 135 deg.
D. 2.45 m in diameter D. 145 deg.

The angle between the stack and the guy wire is usually: Guys are usually applied in how many sets?

A. 30 degrees A. 1 to 3
B. 45 degrees B. 2 to 4
C. 60 degrees C. 3 to 5
D. 75 degrees D. 4 to 6

Guyed stacks height seldom exceed The empirical coefficient e in machine foundation if not given is
assumed
A. 30.48 m
B. 34.80 m A. 0.11
C. 43.80 m B. 0.25
D. 48.30 m C. 0.32
D. 0.15
The maximum unit pressure of turbine and generator on the
reinforced concrete should not exceed The term suction units is used with

A. 17.62 kg/cm^2 A. Natural draft

B. 18.62 kg/cm^2 B. Forced draft
C. 16.62 kg/cm^2 C. Induced draft
D. 19.62 kg/cm^2 D. Balanced draft

Foundations should be isolated from floor slabs or building footings by

at least how many mm to eliminate transmission of vibration

A. 25 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 35 mm
D. 45 mm

Concrete foundations should have steel bar reinforcements placed

both vertically and horizontally to avoid

A. vibrations
B. thermal cracking
C. breakdown
D. rupture

Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by

a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at least how many times the
diameter of the anchor bolt?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by

a pipe sleeve with a length of at least how many times the diameter
of the bolt?

A. 18
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16

Foundation should be designed to support the machine load plus how

many percent for impact, condenser load, floor loads, and dead
loads?

A. 25
B. 34
C. 15
D. 36
An instrument used for measuring evaporation, generally that of An instrument used to measure the density of gases is known as:
water, into the atmosphere
A. aerovane
A. Aerometer B. aerometer
B. Atmometer C. hygrometer
C. Anemometer D. atmometer
D. Fadometer
Which of the following is the apparatus used for mixing air with other
An instrument for testing the resistance of materials to fading when fluids?
they are exposed to artificial sunlight or ultraviolet light under
controlled conditions A. Carburetor
B. Dehydrator
A. Fadometer C. Gas mixer
B. Fulgurator D. Aerator
C. Odometer
D. Atmometer A device that supplies air to an air – injection system is called:

The type of calorimeter in which the specific heat of a specimen is A. air pump
measured by the quantity of ice it melts is the: B. air nozzle
C. gas scrubber
A. ice calorimeter D. air injector
B. heat calorimeter
C. vapor calorimeter An instrument used for measuring pressure, flow velocity and
D. hysometer discharge rate of a fluid flowing in a conduit

An instrument used for determination of the boiling point of water for A. Kampometer
estimating the altitude above sea level from its known variation with B. Flowmeter
atmospheric pressure C. Pitot tube
D. Katharometer
A. Vapor calorimeter
B. Hysometer An instrument used for measuring radiant energy especially in the
C. Boiler thermal region
D. Vapor bomb
A. Kampometer
A unit of work or energy equal to 10^7 ergs. It is equivalent to the B. Luxmeter
work done by a force of one Newton acting through a distance of C. Kapnometer
one meter D. Katharometer

A. Btu An instrument for the determination of the composition of the gas

B. Calorie mixture by measuring variations in the thermal conductivity
C. Joule
D. Watt A. Kampometer
B. Atmometer
An electromagnetic device for separating isotopes by electrical C. Kapnometer
sorting of their ions D. Katharometer

A. Ion sorter An apparatus used for measuring the surface tension of a liquid by
B. Isotope sorter recording the force necessary to detach a metal ring from the surface
C. Isotron
D. Jolly balance A. Tachometer
B. Tensiometer
A device used for the determination of the specific gravity of a C. Odometer
substance by weighing it in air and in water D. Telemeter

A. Kelvin balance An instrument used for measuring various quantities

B. Spring balance
C. Hysometer A. Tachometer
D. Jolly balance B. Odometer
C. DME
Which of the following instruments is NOT used to measure flow rates? D. Telemeter

A. Anemometer An apparatus used for determination of the transition point by

B. Rotameter measuring the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the two
C. Flowmeter modifications become equal
D. Velometer
A. Tensiometer
An instrument used to measure the quality of steam is the: B. Tensimeter
C. Tachometer
A. psychrometer D. Bourdon gage
B. gas calorimeter
C. pyrometer
D. steam calorimeter
An instrument for measuring the revolutions per minute of a rotating A device whose function is to pass an information in an unchanged
shaft form or in some modified form

A. Tachometer A. Relay
B. Odometer B. Sensor
C. All of the choices C. Transmitter
D. Speedometer D. Transducer

A device used for demonstrating the extreme force exerted by water A general term for a device that receives information in the form of
when if freezes is called: one or more physical quantities, modifies the information and or its
form if required and produces a resultant output signal
A. Ice calorimeter
B. Hysometer A. Converter
C. Ice bomb B. Transducer
D. Freezer C. Sensor
D. Scanner
A device to measure vertical distances or displacements?
An engine indicator is generally used to measure what?
A. Kampometer
B. Kapnometer A. steam temperature
C. Altimeter B. heat loss
D. Cathetometer C. steam cylinder pressure
D. gauge reading errors
A precision instrument for measuring very short time intervals
In the processing section, there is an instrument frequently used to
A. Clinometer measure the flow rate of fluids. What is the instrument consisting of a
B. Chronoscope vertical passage with variable cross-sectional area, a float and a
C. Stop watch calibrated scale?
D. Decremeter
A. Rotameter
Which of the following is a laboratory method for the determination of B. Pitot tube
the boiling range of petroleum? C. Rota Aire
D. Manometer
A. Jolly balance
B. Kelvin balance What is the function of a steam separator?
C. Engler distillation
D. Fractional distillation A. Trapping the steam and letting water through
B. Throttling
An instrument used to measure the humidity in the air C. Changing direction of the steam flow
D. Steam metering
A. Hygrometer
B. Hydrometer A salimeter reads the:
C. Pressure guage
D. Wind vane A. density of brine
B. dew point temperature
An instrument used to measure the specific gravity or relative density C. rate of brine
of liquids D. relative humidity

A. Hygrometer Which of the following measures the density of salt in the water?
B. Hydrometer
C. U – tube A. Salimeter
D. Manometer B. pitot tube
C. hydrometer
An apparatus used for the determination of the concentration of solid D. odometer
or liquid particles dispersed in a gas, such as the density of smoke or
fog

A. Kampometer
B. Atmometer
C. Kapnometer
D. Katharometer

Hydrometer is used to find out:

A. specific gravity of liquids

B. specific gravity of solids
C. specific gravity of gases
D. relative humidity

What is the clockwork operated device which records continuously

the humidity of the atmosphere?

A. Hetrograph
B. Hygrometer
C. Hygrodeik
D. Hygrograph
Ebb current refers to: Satellites are powered by:

A. the eddy current A. solar cells

B. the movement of the tidal current away from shore or down B. thermo – electric generators
a tidal stream C. thermionic converters
C. the removal by screen of undesirable fine materials from D. photo – electric cells
broken ore
D. none of the above A ship is powered by:

In power station practice “spinning reverse” is A. steam turbine

B. diesel engines
A. reverse generating capacity that is in operation but not in C. steam turbines or diesel engine
service D. steam turbines, diesel engines, hydraulic turbines or nuclear
B. reserve generating capacity that is connected to bus and reactors
ready to take load
C. reserve generating capacity that is available for service but Which of the following plant is suitable for peak load?
not in operation
D. capacity of the part of plant remains under maintenance A. Diesel engine plant
B. Steam power plant
Turnaround efficiency of battery energy storage system is about C. Nuclear power plant
D. All of the above
A. 75 percent
B. 40 percent The term ‘critical’ is associated with power plant of the type:
C. 25 percent
D. 80 percent A. steam power plant
B. diesel engine power plant
Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at: C. gas turbine power plant
D. nuclear power plant
A. 15000 rpm
B. 1500 rpm A turbocharger is a part of:
C. 750 rpm
D. 3000 rpm A. thermal power plant
B. diesel engine power plant
The power supplied to domestic consumers is at 220 volts. This C. hydro – electric power plant
represents: D. nuclear power plant

A. mean value of voltage Which of the following plant has least pollution problem?
B. seak value of voltage
C. RMS value of voltage A. Steam power plant
D. none of the above B. Gas turbine power plant
C. Nuclear power plant
The conductors that are used for transmitting bulk of power at high D. Hydro – electric power plant
voltage are of which of the following type?
Which of the following power plant can be installed within the shortest
A. Cadmium copper time?
B. Galvanized steel
C. Any of the above A. Nuclear power plant
D. Copper B. Hydro-electric power plant
C. Gas turbine power plant
When a conductor is suspended between two supports at the same D. Diesel engine power plant
level its shape becomes:
Which of the following item consumes least power?
A. catenary
B. cycloid A. Toaster
C. semicircle B. Desert cooler
D. parabola C. Electric shaver
D. Electric iron
Sag is provided in overhead transmission lines so that:
Which of the following needs highest level of illumination?
A. repairs can be carried out easily
B. corona can be reduced A. Proof reading
C. skin effect can be reduced B. Hospital wards
D. safe tension is not exceeded C. Railway platforms
D. Foyer for cinema halls
The string efficiency in an AC system is:
The lamp that is used for cinema projectors is a:
A. 50.75%
B. 100% A. frosted GLS lamp
C. 25.50% B. nitrogen filled GLS lamp
D. 70.7% C. mercury vapor lamp
D. carbon arc lamp
In a fluorescent tube circuit, choke acts as a In which of the of the following systems where Betz law is widely used?

A. a starter A. MHD systems

B. a device for improving the power factor B. solar cells
C. a current limiting device C. geothermal power plants
D. a source of heat D. wind mills

Transient disturbances are due to: At what rpm where most of the generators in thermal power plants
run?
A. switching operations
B. load variations A. 15000 rpm
C. faults B. 1500 rpm
D. any of the above C. 750 rpm
D. 3000 rpm
Bottoming cycle is quite common in:
Turnaround efficiency of battery energy storage system is about
A. cement plants
B. sugar mills A. 75 percent
C. paper mills B. 40 percent
D. all of the above C. 25 percent
D. 80 percent
Which of the following it the most highly developed device for
confining plasma with magnetic field? The conductors that are used for transmitting bulk of power at high
voltage are of which of the following type?
A. Tokamak
B. Tomahawk A. Cadmium copper
C. Breeder reactor B. Galvanized steel
D. Cyclotron C. Any of the above
D. Copper
Fuses and circuit breakers do not protect electric motors from:
Corona generally results in
A. short circuiting
B. motor burnout A. violet glow
C. overload B. hissing noise
D. overheating C. production of ozone gas
D. all of the above
Corona generally results in:
Which of the following affects corona?
A. violet glow
B. hissing noise A. Conductor size
C. production of ozone gas B. Spacing between conductors
D. all of the above C. Line voltage
D. All of the above
Which of the following affects corona?
When a conductor is suspended between two supports at the same
A. Conductor size level its shape becomes
B. Spacing between conductors
C. Line voltage A. catenary
D. All of the above B. cycloid
C. semicircle
The statement that the product of the error in the measured D. parabola
determination of a particle’s position and its momentum is of the order
or Planck’s constant “h” is known as What is the unit of electromagnetic wave frequency?

A. Bohr’s theory A. Volts

B. D’Alembert’s paradox B. Horsepower
C. The Heisenburg uncertainty principle C. Hertz
D. Planck’s law D. Knot

The phenomenon of physical adhesion of molecules of the surfaces of

solids without chemical reaction is

A. dredging
B. adsorption
C. coking
D. liquation

Fuses and circuit breakers do not protect electric motors from:

A. short circuiting
B. motor burnout
C. overload
D. overheating
A pump with capacity Q1 and head H1 is connected in series with An air conditioning system in which water is chilled or cooled and
another pump with capacity Q2 and head H2. What is the head which passes the evaporator coils
developed if Q2 is less than Q1?
A. chilled water system
A. 2 H2 H1 B. direct expansion
B. H2 + H1 C. absorption
C. H2 / H1 D. water circulation system
D. H2H1
A multi-stage refrigeration system which is realizable in using different
At ordinary temperature what substance will behave as inert gas and refrigerants
will not react in the combustion process?
A. direct
A. nitrogen B. cascade
B. sulfur C. flooded
C. hydrogen D. vapor
D. carbon
Very large pipe diameter means a thicker wall and high cost. It also
Which of the following cycles ideal for spark-ignition reciprocating means
engine?
A. zero pressure drop
A. Diesel cycle B. high pressure drop
B. Dual cycle C. constant temperature
C. Rankine cycle D. low pressure drop
D. Otto cycle
Aside from maintaining appropriate temperature for food cold
What is the relative humidity when the dew point and dry bulb storage, how is dessication minimized or decreased?
temperature are equal?
A. low oxygen
A. 110 % B. maintain humidity ratio
B. 0% C. low air circulation
C. 100 % D. increase humidity ratio
D. 50 %
During combustion process, only limited air is supplied and not
Reheating process is normally employed in steam plane when: enough to supply two molecule of oxygen per one molecule or
carbon, then the product is:
A. there is excess steam
B. subcooling is required A. hydration
C. turbine undergoes excessive moisture B. carbon monoxide
D. dehumidifying is required C. carbonic acid
D. carbon dioxide
Where does the final removal of water vapor in an absorption
refrigeration system occur? As far as combustion chamber design is considered, the maximum
power output of a given engine can be increased by:
A. analyzer
B. generator A. increasing combustion time
C. condenser B. increasing combustion chamber volume
D. rectifier C. decreasing combustion chamber volume
D. providing small values
If the average temperature of liquid of power cycle during heat
addition process is as high as possible, then the thermal efficiency of A water conservation device which employs both air and water is
the cycle will: condensed a condenser and cooling tower combined into one is
called:
A. increase
B. remain constant A. shell and tube condenser
C. decrease B. air-cooled condenser
D. zero C. water-cooled condenser
D. evaporative condenser
What is the temperature of lubricant at which it will ignite thus limit its
application? In order to perform efficiently, a power cycle must be communicated
with the outside temperature of its surroundings and into one is called:
A. cold point
B. burning point A. Kirchoff’s Law
C. flash point B. Second law of Thermodynamics
D. use point C. Kelvin-Planck Law
D. First Law of Thermodynamics
What is the heat that is removed from the space to be cooled, which
is the same as the heat absorbed by the cooling coils? Water is heated in a container. It expands and becomes less dense
and lighter. It rises up the container because of its reduced density
A. heating capacity and replaced by cooler air. As this process continues, the heat is
B. enthalpy transferred and disturbed all throughout. What is this mode of heat
C. work compression transfer called?
D. refrigerating effect
A. condenser
B. radiation
C. conduction
D. convection
When required, a regulator water valve in refrigerating system should The sum of the internal energy and the product of pressure and
be specific volume is known as the:

A. on the suction line on compressor line A. enthalpy

B. in the water inlet B. entropy
C. anywhere in the system C. total work
D. in the water outlet D. total internal energy

When there is no work between the thermodynamic system and its A refrigeration control that guards the compressor form overloads
surrounding, the quantity of net heat transfer is equal to: brought about by abruptly increases loads resulting from defrosting,
warm products and others, is called:
A. total energy of an open system
B. temperature of an open system A. safety valve
C. temperature of a closed system B. suction hold-back valve
D. total energy of a closed system C. solenoid valve
D. expansion valve
In order to attain equilibrium in the condenser, the cooling tower
range must be ________ with respect to temperature rise in the What does fossil-fuel fired power plants release, which in turn
condenser produces the key ingredient in acid rain?

A. greater A. nitrogen
B. equal B. sulfur emission
C. less C. carbon monoxide
D. zero D. carbon dioxide

If ice will form in a solution of water and salt, then it is at a The fraction of the radiation energy incident on a surface which is
temperature called: absorbed by the surface is called:

A. dew point A. Convection

B. freezing point depression B. Absorptivity
C. boiling point depression C. Emission
D. critical point D. Radiation

The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is always subsonic. If Which of the following power plants uses energy from uranium to
the flow is subsonic then the mach number is: produce electric power?

A. greater than unity A. Diesel Plant

B. less than unity B. Geothermal Plant
C. near than unity C. Nuclear Plant
D. unity D. Hydroelectric Plant

One hundred twenty percent theoretical air was supplied for Ice cubes added to a glass of water and stirred. Moisture starts to
combustion. What is the equivalent excess equal to: form on the outer surface of the glass. At his point, what is the
temperature at the outer surface called?
A. 20 %
B. 100 % A. critical temperature
C. 240 % B. surface temperature
D. 120 % C. dew point temperature
D. saturation temperature
If Pi is the indicated horsepower and Pb is the indicated horsepower
of a compressor, then what is mechanical efficiency, Em, equal to: The force when applied to a mass of one kilogram will give mass an
acceleration of one meter per second for every second called:
A. Em = Pb/Pi
B. Em = Pi/Pb A. Watt
C. Em = Pb – Pi B. Joule
D. Em = Pi – Pb C. Newton
D. Pascal
What is the least number of compressor a multistage system that will
use? The kinetic energy of a moving fluid is used to isentropically
compressed the fluid to state of zero velocity. The temperature of a
A. three moving fluid at the state zero velocity is called:
B. two
C. four A. stagnation temperature
D. one B. partial temperature
C. critical temperature
The relation between the Fahrenheit absolute scale and the Celsius D. absolute temperature
absolute scale is:
The dew point temperature of the products of combustion in the
A. R = 1.8 °K saturation temperature that corresponds to the partial pressure of the
B. R = 32 °K ______ in the products
C. R = 3.2 °K
D. R = 18 °K A. SO2
B. H2O
C. N2
D. CO2
What do we call a device that is used to boiler operation that will stop If a gas possess internal energy, then it is due to its:
the burner or at least send a signal to the operator if the water drops
to a low level that is no longer safe? A. velocity
B. pressure and volume values
A. safety valve C. height from a certain datum level
B. dead – weight valve D. molecular motion
C. high water cut off
D. low water cut off The pressure of ammonia was detected in brine solution. How can
ammonia be removed?
Dry analysis is a fractional analysis of the products of combustion
which does not include: A. freeze the brine solution
B. heat the brine to a high temperature enough to free the
A. water vapor ammonia
B. carbon dioxide C. throw the brine solution
C. sulfur dioxide D. lower the temperature of the brine
D. carbon monoxide
What will happen when the pressure at any point inside a centrifugal
The size of a reciprocating pump is stamped on the builder’s plate pump goes below the vapor pressure corresponding to the
3” x 4” x 6”. The diameter of the liquid cylinder is: temperature of the liquid?

A. 5” A. turbulent flow
B. 6” B. laminar flow
C. 3” C. cavitation
D. 4” D. priming

One foot water is equal to: What does a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient means during a
throttling process?
A. 0.4138 lb/in^2
B. 68.3 lb/ft^2 A. fluid pressure is constant
C. 0.8673 lb/in^2 B. fluid temperature drops
D. 62.43 lb/ft^2 C. fluid temperature rises
D. fluid pressure zero
The freezing point of R – 22 is:
For steam power plants, increasing the operating pressure of the
A. -109 °F boiler will:
B. -252 °F
C. -256 °F A. increase thermal efficiency
D. -211 °F B. decrease thermal efficiency
C. bring thermal efficiency to zero
Which of the following is a type of evaporator? D. make thermal efficiency constant

A. shell-and-tube- condenser The ratio of the average load to that of the rated capacity of a plant is
B. sell-and-tube-water cooler called:
C. oil lantern rings
D. polyphase motors A. output factor
B. load factor
For Brayton cycle, the result of regeneration is: C. demand factor
D. capacity factor
A. increase in thermal efficiency
B. decrease in thermal efficiency What is the method used to evaluate all welds performed on pressure
C. moderate thermal efficiency parts of boiler tube materials?
D. low thermal efficiency
A. hydrostatic test
If the pressure exerted on a liquid is higher than the saturation B. Orsat analysis
corresponding to its temperature, the liquid is a: C. vacuum test
D. radiographic test
A. saturated liquid
B. subcooled liquid If the pressure is disregarded in the various other components of a
C. superheated liquid steam of gas power plants, the pressure rise in the pump or
D. highly superheated liquid compressor is _______ to the pressure drop in the turbine

In a power driven pump, each piston stroke is displaced by 360° A. inversely proportional
divided the _____ B. constant
C. equal
A. revolution per minute D. varying
B. bore
C. length of stroke What is the effect on saturated temperature if the pressure of the fluid
D. number of cylinders is decreased?

If the air is compressed without discarding heat, then what do you call A. there is no effect
this kind of compression? B. saturation temperature decreases
C. saturation temperature remains constant
A. isobaric D. saturation temperature increases
B. isochoric
C. adiabatic
D. isothermal
If V3 is the cylinder volume after the combustion process of a Diesel If Hs is the total suction head of a pump, Hp is its suction surface
cycle and V2 is its cylinder volume before combustion, then calculate pressure, and Hf is its suction friction head, then calculate the total
the cut-off ratio, r suction head, Ht

A. r = V3 – V2 A. Ht = Hs – Hp – Hf
B. r = V2 – V3 B. Ht = Hs + Hp – Hf
C. r = V2 / V3 C. Ht = Hs + Hp + Hf
D. r = V3 / V2 D. Ht = Hs – Hp + Hf

Compare the temperature of discharge vapor refrigerant leaving the The constant spending of certain percentage of circulated water in a
compressor for a superheated cycle and the saturated cycle, for the cooling tower in order to prevent accumulation of dissolved mineral
same condensing temperature and pressure solids and other impurities in the condensed water is called

A. there is no difference A. approach

B. higher for the superheated cycle B. drift
C. higher for the saturated cycle C. range
D. lower for the superheated cycle D. bleed-off

A valve that releases steam form the boiler by opening at a pre- What process is employed when the turbine steam power plants
determined pressure in order to keep the steam pressure from rising experience excessive moisture?
more than the pressure from which the valve is set is called a
A. reheating
A. ammonia valve B. supercooling
B. stop valve C. subcooling
C. check valve D. freezing
D. safety valve
A company is interested to produce a water turbine wherein only little
What is the relationship of the capacity of a centrifugal pump, Q, to energy is required or necessary because the guide vanes are to be
impeller diameter, D, when there are two impeller diameters in the controlled. The turbine must be a:
same pump?
A. gas turbine
A. Q is directly proportional to the square of the ratio of D B. propeller turbine
B. Q is inversely proportional to the ratio of D C. Kaplan turbine
C. Q is directly proportional to the ratio of D D. Francis turbine
D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of the ratio of D
If Et is the total energy generated by a plant in a certain period of
If Wt is the turbine shaft work of a gas turbine unit, Wc is its compressor time and Er is the rated net energy capacity of the plant during the
shaft work and Q is the heat supplied in duel, then determine its same period of time, then what is the plant operating factor?
thermal efficiency
A. Er – Et
A. Q / (Wt – Wc) B. Et / Er
B. Q / (Wt + Wc) C. Et – Er
C. (wt + Wc) / Q D. Er / Et
D. (Wt – Wc) / Q
If W is the work output of a heat engine and H is the total heat input of
The schedule number of a pipe, N, indicates the thickness of the pipe an engine, then determine its thermal efficiency, e
wall. If the allowable stress of the pipe is S, then what is the internal
pressure equal to? A. e=H/W
B. e=W/H
A. N–S C. e=WxH
B. N/S D. e = I – (W – H)
C. NxS
D. S/N Which of the following is converted to mechanical energy by a water

What is the pressure present inside the casing of an impulse turbine? A. internal energy
B. kinetic energy
A. vacuum C. potential energy
B. atmospheric pressure D. hydraulic energy
C. above atmospheric
D. zero What must be the value of the available Net Positive Suction Head
(NPSH) of a centrifugal pump compared to its require NPSH to avoid
In order to remove the fly ashes from the flue gas, which of the losing priming?
following must a power plant be equipped with?
A. available NPSH lesser than required NPSH
A. condensner B. available NPSH equal than required NPSH
B. demineralizer C. available NPSH greater than required NPSH
C. electrostatic precipitator D. available NPSH constant at all times
D. desulphurization plant
What type of fuel is used with stationary power plants where gas is
available by pipeline?

A. gaseous fuels
B. solid fuels
C. coal
D. liquid fuels
Wb is shaft work of an engine and Wi is the indicated work of an A water-tube condenser has a total of 60 tubes. If these are two
engine. If mechanical friction is present in the engine mechanism, passes, then compute the number of tubes per pass
then:
A. 6C
A. Wb is equal to Wi B. 15
B. Wb is less than Wi C. 3C
C. Wb is proportional to Wi D. 2
D. Wb is greater than Wi
If Ev is the volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating pump, then
What is the saturation pressure at the critical temperature, or the determine SLIP which represents all losses of capacity given in
lowest pressure in which a substance can be in the liquid state at its percentage of the displacement
critical pressure?
A. 1 / Ev
A. external pressure B. 1 – 1 / Ev
B. critical pressure C. 1 – Ev
C. condensing pressure D. Ev + 1
D. evaporation pressure
What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal pump, Hp,
What is the significance of a high dielectric strength of lubricating oil? to the impeller speed, S, if the pump is at two different rotative
speeds?
A. oil is thick
B. oil is contaminant-free A. Hp is inversely proportional to the cube of the ratio of S
C. oil is thin B. Hp is directly proportional to the ratio of S
D. oil is not clean C. Hp is inversely proportional to the ratio of S
D. Hp is directly proportional to the cube of the ratio of S
Theoretically, what is the effect of the compressor clearance on
horsepower? What is likely to occur when the sections of the impeller of a
centrifugal pump are handling vapor and other sections are handling
A. varies in direct proportion liquid?
B. increase power
C. decrease power A. erosion of the pump
D. there is no effect B. high head and low capacity
C. excessive vibration
Compare the refrigerating effect per unit mass of refrigerant D. complete failure to operate
circulated for a superheated cycle that produces useful cooling and
a saturated cycle, for the same vaporizing and condensing When vapor compression takes place on one side of the piston and
temperature one during one revolution of the crankshaft, then the compressor is:

A. lower for a superheated cycle A. double-acting

B. greater for a saturated cycle B. four-cycle
C. the same C. two-revolution
D. greater for a superheated cycle D. single-acting

It is important to take some moisture from the air to dehumidify it if the In Stirling and Erickson Cycles, the efficiency can be increased by:
relative humidity reaches high levels. To do this, it requires cooling the
air: A. compressibility
B. superheating
A. at wet-bulb temperature C. regeneration
B. above its dew point temperature D. subcooling
C. at critical temperature
D. below its dew point temperature Which of the following is used to control refrigeration compressor
capacity?
What does enthalpy measure in a substance?
A. dehumidifier
A. its coldness B. check valve
B. its heat content C. solenoid valve
C. its humidity D. unloader
D. its dew point
During a cooling and dehumidifying process, sensible and latent
Pneumatic tools are powered by: heats are removed in the cooling coil. If Hs is the sensible heat and Ht
is the total heat transferred, then determine the coil sensible factor
A. natural gas
B. air A. Ht – Hs
C. electricity B. Hs – Ht
D. steam C. Ht / Hs
D. Hs / Ht
The pump will not cavitate if the available Net Positive Suction Head
(NPSH) is: Based on the PSME Code, what should be provided in each stream
outlets if two or more boilers will be connected in parallel?
A. less than the required NPSH
B. equal or lesser than the required NPSH A. relief and check valves
C. equal or greater than the required NPSH B. non-return and shut-off valves
D. zero compared to the required NPSH of 1 C. expansion and shut-off valves
D. expansion and check valves
The diesel cycle is the ideal cycle for a: There are three basic boiler types, namely:

A. absorption A. water-tube, horizontal tube and cast-iron boilers

B. steam-jet B. cast-iron, fire-tube and water tube boilers
C. compression-ignition engine C. fire-tube and water tube boilers
D. gas turbine D. HRT, fire-tube and Scotch Marine boilers

If a Carnot cycle is at the same maximum and minimum The amount of heat necessary to bring up the temperature of a unit
temperatures as Rankine cycle, then how would you compare the mass of a substance through a unit degree is called:
efficiency of a Rankine cycle to that of the Carnot cycle?
A. specific volume
A. efficiency is the same B. thermal heat
B. higher efficiency C. total heat
C. efficiency is the higher by 30% D. specific heat
D. lower efficiency
What is the specific gravity of an oil which has a Baume reading g of
Compute the wall gain load of a load storage room when A is the 28 degrees F?
outside surface area of the wall, D is the temperature differential
across the wall, and U is the overall coefficient of heat transmission A. 0.215
B. 0.562
A. AU / D C. 0.886
B. D / Au D. 0.774
C. A / UD
D. AUD If C is the capacity of the compressor in a refrigeration system and F is
the heat rejection factor, then calculate the condenser load, L
If m is the mass of dry air and H is the specific enthalpy of the water
vapor in air and r is the humidity ratio, then determine the latent heat A. L=F–C
of any dry air B. L=F/C
C. L=CxF
A. m / (r – H) D. L=C/F
B. r / (H – m)
C. (m – r) / H Based on the PSME Code, what should be the humidity of air to be
D. m (r x H) used ofr comfort cooling?

When an electric motor nameplate indicates a “100-kw electric A. 75% - 80% relative humidity
motor” then what does a 100-kw rating refers to? B. 50% - 60% relative humidity
C. 60% - 70% relative humidity
A. thermal energy input D. 70% - 75% relative humidity
B. thermal energy output
C. electrical power output What is the cause of pressure drop in the boiler, condenser and the
D. mechanical power output pipings between different components? Because of this drop, steam
leaving the boiler is at a lower pressure
For a hydraulic power to be transmitted at its maximum what should
be the value of loss of head due to friction if H is the total available A. positive slip
head? B. fluid friction
C. negative slip
A. 11H D. low thermal efficiency
B. 1/3 H
C. 1/4 H
D. 5H

The ratio of the average load during a certain time to peak the load
occurring during the same period of time is called:

A. demand factor
B. capacity factor
C. load factor
D. output factor

Based on the PSME Code, what should be the effective temperature

of the air to be maintained for comfort cooling at an air movement
from 0.0761 to 0.127 meter per second?

A. 25 – 29 degrees C
B. 35 – 39 degrees C
C. 20 – 24 degrees C
D. 30 – 34 degrees C

If R is the delivery rate of a pump, H is the total pumping head and e is

the efficiency of the pump, then compute the power required to drive
the pump

A. R/Hxe
B. 1 – (R + H) / e
C. (R x H) / e
D. (h – R) / e