ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

1. The increase in electronegativity values across a period is as a result of

the increasing effective ____ charge (a) electronic (b) positive (c) nuclear

(d) negative

Answer. C

2. The following compounds are polar except (a) CH 4 (b) NH 4(c) H 2 O (d)

HF

Answer. A

3. The occurrence of two or more compounds with the same molecular

formula but differing in physical and chemical properties is (a)

Tautomerism (b) Isomerism (c) Metamerism (d) Isomers

Answer. B

4. The simplest formula of a compound which expresses its percentage

composition is (a) General formula (b) Molecular formula (c) Chemical

formula (d) Empirical formula

Answer. D

5. _____ is the only group I element that does not form peroxide or

superoxide (a) Na (b) K (c) Li (d) Cs

Answer. C

6. Group II element that does not form ionic, saline hydride is (a) Na (b) Be

(c) Mg (d) Ba
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
Answer. B

7. Electronic configuration of Argon is given as (a) [ Rn ] 3 s 2 4 p6 (b) [ Ar ] 3 s 2 3 p6

(c) [ Ne ] 3 s 2 3 p6 (d) [ He ] 2 s 2 2 p6

Answer. C

8. The following properties of the halogens increase on descending the

group except (a) Melting point (b) Atomic radii (c) Boiling point (d)

Oxidizing agent

Answer. D

9. When propene completely reacts with chlorine, the name of the product

formed is (a) 2,2-dichloropropane (b) 1,1-dichloropropane (c) 1,2-

dichloropropane (d) 1-chloropropane

Answer. A

10. Sigma bond results from ______ (a) none of the above (b) parallel

overlapping of orbitals (c) when the bonds make a pi-shape (d) direct

overlapping of orbitals

Answer. A

11. During the 2020 COVID-19 pandemic remdesivir was approved or

authorized for emergency use to treat covid-19 in around 50 countries.

If the molecular formula of remdesivir is C 27 H 35 N 6 O8 P, the percentage

carbon and phosphorous compositions are (C¿ 12, H¿ 1 , N¿14, O

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
¿ 16 , P=31 ¿ ( a ) 5.15 %∧53.82 % respectively ( b )

53.82 %∧5.15 % respectively ( c ) 5.81 %∧53.82 % respectively (d)

21.21 %∧13.95 % respectively

Answer. B

12. 3-methylpentan-3-ol and 3-methylpentan-2-ol are examples of

_____ and _____ alkanols respectively (a) tertiary, tertiary (b) secondary,

secondary (c) tertiary, secondary (d) secondary, tertiary

Answer. C

13. The IUPAC name of the compound CH 3 CH 2CH¿CHC ≡ CCH3 (a)

Hept – 3 – en – 5 – yne (b) Hep, 3 – en – 5 – yne (c) Hep, 4 – ene – 2 – yne

(d) Hept – 4 – en – 2 – yne

Answer. D

14. Which of the following is used by divers to dilute the oxygen they

breath? (a) Helium (b) Hydrogen (c) Radon (d) Chlorine

Answer. A

15. Which of the following is not a type of dipole (a) Dipole – dipole

interaction (b) Permanent dipole (c) Instantaneous dipole (d) Induced

dipole

Answer. A
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16. What type of bond is present in HNO3 molecules ____ (a) covalent

(b) electrovalent bond (c) dative bond (d) metallic bond

Answer. A

17. In the group VIII, the first ionization energy (a) all of the above (b)

decreases down the group (c) increases down the group (d) remains

constant

Answer. B

18. CH 3 OC H 2 CH 2 CH 3 and CH 3 C H 2 OOCH 2 CH 3 are _____ isomers (a)

functional (b) positional (c) strong (da0 weak

Answer. A

19. Group (VIII) elements are generally considered unreactive

because (a) they are radioactive in nature (b) they have valence electron

(c) they have completely filled octet configuration (d) none

Answer. C

20. There is no fluorine oxide because (a) Fluorine is more

electronegative than oxygen (b) Fluorine is unreactive in nature (c)

Oxygen is more electropositive in nature than fluorine (d) Oxygen is

more electropositive

Answer. A
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21. Ra is widely distributed in earth, this exists due to its ____ (a)

ability to maintain stable oxidation state (b) ability to form solvent

compound (c) ability to react to air (d) ability to react with sand

Answer. D

22. Which of the following statements is not true about hydrogen

bonding (a) Hydrogen bonding is weaker than vanderwaal (b)

Hydrogen is stronger than the vanderwaal (c) Hydrogen bonding is

weaker than the covalent (d) formation of hydrogen bond leads to

abnormal temperature.

Answer. A

23. The rise in boiling point down the group (VII) and group (VIII)

due to the increase in the number of electron in the molecule which

leads to ______ (a) a lesser vanderwaal (b) greater intermolecular (c)

greater vanderwaal (d) lesser intramolecular

Answer. C

24. One of the products of combustion of pentene in excess air is (a)

pentanol (b) pentene (c) CO 2 (d) pentanal

Answer. C
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25. The presence of _____ dipole moments in a bond gives evidence

that the bond has certain ionic character (a) Electric (b) Induced (c)

Permanent (d) Instantaneous

Answer. A

26. The type of bond present in NH 4+ is (a) electrovalent (b) dative

covalent (c) covalent (d) hydrogen

Answer. B

27. The isomers of a substance must have (a) same structural formula

(b) same functional group (c) same molecular weight (d) same chemical

properties

Answer. C

28. The colour of oxides of Li 2 O and Na2 O is (a) yellow (b) white (c)

pink (d) orange

Answer. B

29. Li 2 O is best prepared by ____ of Li 2 O2 at 450℃ (a) substitution (b)

reduction (c) oxidation (d) thermal decomposition

Answer. D

30. _____ is used for etching of glass (a) PVC (b) Cl 2(c) KF 2 (d) HF

Answer. D
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31. The cleavage of covalent bond such that only one of the fragments

retains both electrons from the bond is (a) addition (b) heterolysis (c)

homolysis (d) catalysis

Answer. B

32. Which of the following is used in the dehydration of ethanol to

give ethene (a) H 2 S O 4 (b) Conc. H 2 S O 4 (c) Dil. H 2 S O 4 (d) Conc. HNO3

Answer. B

33. Bromination of ethene is done in the presence of (a) AlBr (b) HBr

(c) CCl 4 (d) AlCl3

Answer. C

34. All halides of Be are ____ in nature (a) covalent (b) Ionic (c)

metallic

Answer. A

35. When calcium loses its electron, the configuration becomes (a)

1 s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p (b) 1 s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 4 s (c) 1 s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p (d) none

2 2 6 2 6 2 2 6 2 6 1 2 2 6 4 5

Answer. A

36. The reaction between C 2 H 2 and HBr is called (a) polymerization

(b) oxidation (c) substitution (d) addition

Answer. D
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37. Disproportional reaction of the following halogens occurs in the

presence of water and alkalis except (a) Bromine (b) Chlorine (c)

Fluorine (d) Iodine

Answer. C

38. Which halide has the most basic nature in water (a) Fluorine (b)

Iodine (c) Bromine (d) none

Answer. A

39. Alkynes are hydrated with ____ and _____ (a) H 2 S O 4 / HgS O4 (b)

H 2 S O 4 / HgS O3 (c) AgNO3 / H 3 S O 4 (d) none

Answer. A

40. Al
3 +¿¿
is highly polarizing due to its (a) high melting point (b) low

melting point (c) high charge density (d) low charge density

Answer. C

41. The major difference between an ordinary covalent bond and a

dative covalent bond is (a) In dative covalent bonding, the shared pair of

electrons is supplied by only one of the bonded atom (b) While

electronegativity differences can influence the polarity of both types of

bonds, it's not the defining characteristic differentiating them. Both

types can occur between atoms with similar or vastly different

electronegativities (c) Ordinary covalent bonds typically form through

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
the sharing of valence electrons between two atoms, whereas dative

covalent bonds specifically involve the donation of a lone pair of

electrons from one atom to another (d) In an ordinary covalent bond,

both atoms contribute an equal number of electrons to the bond, while

in a dative covalent bond, one atom donates both electrons to form the

bond.

Answer A

42. Which of the following compounds will not show geometrical

isomerism (a) 1-bromo-2-chloroethene (b) 2-methylbut-2-ene (c) 1,2-

dibromoethene (d) 1,2-dibromopropene.

Answer. D

43. ______ is the most reactive metal in the periodic table (a) Ca (b) Li

(c) Na (d) Fr

Answer. D

44. Alkenes undergo the following reactions except (a)

polymerization (b) substitution (c) hydration (d) addition

Answer. B

45. Alkenes undergo the following except (a) substitution (b)

polymerization(c) combustion (d) hydrogenation

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
Answer. A

46. The compound of Mg used by athletes, gymnasts for firm grip is

(a) MgO (b) Mg(OH )2 (c) MgCO 3 (d) MgCl 2

Answer. D

47. Which of the following compounds is an example of halides (a) Al

Cl 3 (b) NaH (c) Cl 2 (d) HCN

Answer. D

48. Which of the following is an example of geometric isomer (a) 2-3 –

dimethylpentane (b) 2,2 – pent - 2 - ene (c) pentene (d) n – pentane

Answer. B

49. The IUPAC name of the compound (¿ ¿ (a) 2, 4 – dimethylhex -3 -

ene (b) 2,2 – dimethylhex – 2 - ene (c) 4,3 – dimethylhex – 3 – ene (d) all

Answer. A

50. Given the oxygen organic compounds which contains 84.51% C,

9.86% hydrogen and 5.63% oxygen. Find the empirical formula of the

compounds. (a) C 20 H 14 O2 (b) C 20 H 14 O (c) C 24 H 14 O8 (d) C 28 H 28 O20

Answer. B

51. When halides react with group (I) metal they are (a) MX (b) M X 3

(d) M 2 X

Answer. A
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
52. Types of dipole includes all except (a) induced – induced dipole

(b) instantaneous dipole (c) dipole dipole (d) permanent dipole

Answer. C

53. The alkaline earth metals are the ______ (a) Group I (b) Group IV

(c) Group II (d) Group VII

Answer. C

54. Sodium has ____ number of electrons to donate (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d)

Answer. A

55. A compound contains 78.6% C, 8.4% H and 12.92% N. Calculate the

empirical formula (a) C 7 H 9 N (b) C 5 H 7 N (d) C 2 H 7 N 3 (d) none

Answer. A

56. Hypochlorides are used_____ (a) in domestic bleaches (b) for

chlorinating water (c) as an oxidant fire and menthes (d) for etching

glass

Answer. B

57. Alkali metal belongs to _____ group (a) I (b) II (c) IV (d) VIII

Answer. A

58. All these are typical acids except (a) HBr (b) HCl (c) HF (d) HI

Answer. D
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59. Which group has the configuration 1 s 2 2 s 2 2 p6 3 s 2 (a) II (b) VII (c) I

(d) none

Answer. A

60. In which of these is an ionic bond (a) MgCl 2 (b) NH 4 (c) CH 4 (d)
NH 3 BF3

Answer. A

61. Conversion of pent-1-ene to pent-2-ene when heated at high

temperature is an example of (a) addition reaction (b) isomerization

reaction (c) replacement (d) elimination reaction

Answer. B
3+ ¿>¿¿

62. The correct decreasing order of polarizing cation is (a) Mg 2+¿> Al ¿

3+ ¿¿
+¿¿ 2+ ¿> ¿¿
+¿¿
(b) Al3 +¿>Mg (c) Na+¿>Mg (d) none
2+ ¿> Al ¿
¿ ¿
Na Na

Answer. B

63. A pi bond is the result from the (a) overlap of an S and a P –

orbital (b) side overlap of two parallel P orbitals (c) overlap of two S

orbitals (d) overlap of two P orbitals along the axes

Answer. B

64. Metals in group one in the periodic table are soft and have low

melting point because (a) the ionic bonds within their molecule is
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
strong (b) The covalent bond within their molecule is strong (c) they

have strong metallic bonding (d) they have weak metallic bonding

Answer. D

65. The atomic radius of group I elements ____ from Li to Fr (a)

increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) none

Answer. A

66. Which of the following could exhibit optical isomerism (a) C 5 H 12

(b) CH 2 ClF (c) CH 3 C ( Cl ) ( Br ) (I ) (d) C 2 H 6

Answer. C

67. On descending the group VIII on the periodic table, the electron

affinity (a) Increases (b) remains constant (c) all of the above (d)

decreases

Answer. D

68. Which of the group II elements is an important component of

cement (a) Barium (b) Calcium (c) Beryllium (d) Magnesium

Answer. B

69. Sigma bonds result from (a) direct overlapping of orbitals (b)

parallel overlapping of orbitals (c) none (d) all

Answer. C
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70. Compounds like silver halides and Zinc Sulphide show some

covalent character in ionic bonding due to (a) Electrongativity ion (b)

strong force of attraction (c) weak force of attraction (d) polarization of

ions

Answer. D

71. The process of converting large alkanes to small one, alkene and

hydrogen is (a) Nitration (b) Thermal cracking (c) Knocking (d)

Isomerization

Answer. B

72. Which of the following statements is true about electronegativity

of elements (a) Electronegativity value decreases down the group as

more electronic shells are present (b) All of the above (c) Increase in

electronegativity value across a period is as a result of increasing

effective nuclear charge (d) Two atoms of similar electronegativity will

form a covalent bond.

Answer. B

73. The general formula that can be used to represent group one

metal halides is (a) MX 3 (b) MX 4 (c) MX 2 (d) MX

Answer. D
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74. A suitable reagent to distinguish between alkenes and alkynes is

(a) KMnO4 (b) bromine water (c) ammoniacal silver chloride (d)

ammoniacal silver nitrate

Answer. D

75. Polar molecules such as HCl have ______ dipole moments (a)

Instantaneous (b) Temporary (c) Permanent (d) Induced

Answer. C

76. Any species that contains an upward electron is called (a) free

radical (b) cation (c) Anion (d) Ionic

Answer. A

77. Mg may be extracted in commercial scale from (a) Lepidolite (b)

Limestone (c) Dolomite (d) Rocksalt

Answer. C

78. An organic substance of molecular weight 107 was found to

contain 78.6% Carbon, 8.4% hydrogen and 12.92% N. What is the

molecular formula of the substance? (a) C 8 H 8 N 2 (b) none (c) C 7 H 9 N 2 (d)

C7 H9 N

Answer. D

79. Lutein is a powerful anti – oxidant and anti – cancer carotenoid

found in high quantities in given fruity vegetables and is made up of

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
84.51% carbon, 9.86% hydrogen and 5.36% O. If the molecular mass of

Lutein is 568.871, its empirical and molecular formulae are (a) C 40 H 56 O2

and C 20 H 28 O respectively (b) C 20 H 28 O and C 40 H 56 O2 respectively (c) C 5 H 7

and C 40 H 56 respectively (d) C 40 H 56 and C 5 H 7

Answer. B

80. How many equal number of electrons are shared between

nitrogen and hydrogen atoms in N H 3 molecule (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4

Answer. A

81. The type of bond in which the shared pairs of electrons is supplied

by only one of the bonded atoms is _____ (a) ionic (b) covalent (c)

metallic (d) coordinate covalent

Answer. D

82. X ¿ 1 s 2 2 s 2 2 p6 3 s 2. The combination of X and chlorine atom will form

(a) metallic bond (b) covalent (c) electrovalent bond (d) none

Answer. C

83. The distortion of the electron cloud of the anion due to the

influence of the nearby cation is known as (a) Electronegativity (b)

Polarization (c) Polarizability (d) Polarity

Answer. B
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84. Fluorine is mined as the following except (a) Cryolite (b)

Fluorspar (c) Bauxite (d) Fluoropalite

Answer. C

85. The electronic configuration of bromine is (a) [ Ne ] 4 f 4 5 d 10 6 s 2 6 p5

(b) [ Ne ] 3 d 10 4 d 5 5 s 2 (d) [ He ] 3 d 10 4 s2 4 p3 (d) [ Ar ] 3 d 10 4 s2 4 p5

Answer. D

86. A drug with an empirical formula C 24 H 35 N 6 P endorsed by WHO for

COVID – 19, find the mass of carbon and phosphorous in the drug (a)

65.75%, 7.07% (b) 60.75%, 70.7% (c) 6.575%, 9.08% (d) 6.575%,

70.7%

Answer. A

87. A certain compound has an empirical formula C 24 H 37 O7 and

molecular mass ¿875.106, find the molecular formula (a) C 48 H 74 O14 (b)

C 14 H 37 O7 (c) C 24 H 42 O9 (d) C 12 H 18 O3

Answer. A

88. Which of the following is not a mineral of fluorine? (a) carnalite

(b) cryolite (c) fluorspar (d) fluoropalite Answer: A

89. Interatomic combination involves (a) neutrons in nucleus only (b)

protons in nucleus only (c) electrons in outer shell only (d) electrons in

all shells Answer: C

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
90. Propanal and propanone are ___________ type of isomers

Answer:

Functional

91. Which of the group 2A elements reacts with oxygen to form a

monoxide and a peroxide? Answer: Magnesium

92. What is the flame colour of potassium? Answer:

Lilac

93. Lithium exhibits similar properties and shows a diagonal

relationship with ____________ Answer: Magnesium

94. Beryllium exhibit similar properties and shows a diagonal

relationship with ___________ Answer:

Aluminium

95. Primary valency gives rise to the (a) oxidation number (b) valency

number (c) proton number (d) donor number Answer: A

96. What is the boiling point of helium? (a) 7.8k (b) 0k (c) 4.2k (d)

3.7k Answer: C

97. Which of the following has the smallest atomic radius? (a) N (b) Li

(c) Be (d) C Answer: A

98. Which of the following has the smallest atomic radius? (a) Si (b) Al

(c) Na (d) Mg Answer: A

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
99. Halides react with _________ to form covalent compounds (a) non-

metals (b) alkaline earth metals (c) alkali metal Answer: A

100. Which halide has the most basic nature in water? (a) chloride (b)

iodide (c) bromide (d) fluoride Answer: D

101. Which of the following has the strongest hydrogen bond between

the molecules? (a) HCl (b) HF (c) N H 3 (d) H 2 S Answer: B

102. How many isomers are in C 4 H 10? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Answer: B

103. Which has the lowest % of S? (a) S p3 (b) S p2 (c) Sp (d) none

Answer: A

104. The first elements of alkaline earth metal is? (a) fluorine (b)

beryllium (c) iodine (d) lithium

Answer: B

105. Group (II) elements are comprised of 6 elements

True

106. Helium has a complete shell of electrons

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

True

107. The boiling point of halogens _____________ (a) increases down the

group (b) decreases down the group (c) remain constant

Answer: A

108. Boron has five electrons, what is the hybridization of B F 3 (a) S p3

(b) S p2 tetrahedral (c) Sp linear (d) Sp

Answer:

109. Which of these has an ionic character? (a) Ca (b) Mg (c) Be (d) S

Answer: C

110. Force of attraction showing alignment between polar covalent

molecules Answer: Polar Covalent

Bond

111. The compounds ortho-aminophenol, meta-aminophenol and para-

aminophenol are typical examples of ___________ isomers (a)

stereo/geometric (b) positional (c) functional group (d) structural

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: B

112. Which halogen is used in the manufacture of disinfectants? (a)

chlorine (b) fluorine (c) iodine (d) bromine

Answer: A

113. What is the weakest intermolecular force? (a) hydrogen bond (b)

ionic bond (c) London force (d) dipole – dipole

Answer: C

114. Four elements A, B, C and D have 6, 3, 7 and 9 electrons

respectively therefore (a) C will form an electrovalent bond with D (b) B

will form a covalent bond with D (c) A will form an electrovalent bond

with C (d) B will form an electrovalent bond with D

Answer: D

115. Group IIA elements are known as the (a) alkali metals (b)

halogens (c) alkaline earth metals (d) noble metals

Answer: C
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116. The characteristic colour obtained when Na is burnt in Bunsen

flame is (a) lilac (b) blue (c) violet (d) yellow

Answer:

117. Caesium is ____________ on a warm day (a) water (b) gas (c) solid

(d) liquid

Answer: D

118. The following are structural isomers of hexane ( C 6 H 14 ) except (a)

2, 2-dimethylpentane (b) 2, 3-dimethylbutane (c) 2, 3-dimethylbutane

(d) 2-methylpentane

Answer: A

119. Which of the following halogens forms the most basic solution in

water (a) I (b) Cl (c) F (d) Br

Answer: C

120. What is the isomerism between propanal and propanone (d)

functional (b) positional (c) structural (d) stereo

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: A

121. In which hybridization does S have the highest percentage?

Answer: SP

122. Helium is not able to form intermolecular bond because

______________ (a) its valence shell is completely filled (b) the atoms

contain only protons (c) the number of protons is equal to the number

of electrons (d) there are no electrons around the nucleus

Answer: A

123. In the form ns1, the value of n in Rb is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 4

Answer: C

124. The group (II) element that forms an amphoteric oxide is

________________

Answer:

Beryllium
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125. The number of isomers formed by C 5 H 12 is (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 1

Answer: C

126. Butanoic acid and ethylethanoate are isomers (a) true (b) false (c)

not sure (d) none of the above

Answer: A

127. The functional group in isothiocyano compound is (a) R−N (b)

R−S (c) N=H (d) N=C=S

Answer: D

128. When lithium forms its ion (a) it attains electronic configuration

of helium (b) it loses one proton (c) atomic number decreases (d) it

gains one electron and become negatively charged

Answer: A

129. Boiling point of halogen _____________ down the group (a) increases

(b) decreases (c) unchanged Answer: A

130. Be ( OH )2 of beryllium hydroxide is (a) amphoteric oxide (b) basic

oxide (c) none (d) acidic oxide

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: A

131. Na metal is soft because of its (a) high density (b) low pressure (c)

high pressure (d) low density

Answer: D

132. The halogen with radioactive feature is called _________

Answer: Astatine

133. Chlorine gas is manufactured industrially by the (a) Ostwald

process (b) Haber process (c) chloro-alkali process (d) Deacon process

Answer: C

134. Lobster, shrimp and some crabs turn red when cooked because

the astaxanthin which is bound to the proton in the shell becomes free

as the proton denatures and unwinds. If astaxanthin is an hydrocarbon

derivative with 80.54% carbon and 10.74% oxygen and its molecular

mass is 595. The empirical and molecular formula of the compound are

_____________ and _________________ respectively (a) C 10 O and C 40 O4 (b)

C 40 H 52 O 4 and C 10 H 13 O (c) C 40 O4 and C 10 O (d) C 10 H 13 O and C 40 H 52 O 4

Answer: D
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135. Which of the following bonds exist between molecules of ethanoic

acids (a) hydrogen bond (b) covalent (c) metallic (d) electrovalent

Answer: A

136. The condensed formula of 3-methylbutan-2-ol is (a)

C H 3 C H 2 C H 2 CH ( C H 3 ) CHO (b) C H 3 CH ( C H 3 ) CH ( OH ) C H 3 (c)

C H 3 CH ( C H 3 ) COC H 3 (d) C H 3 CHOHC H 2 C H 2 C H 3 Answer: B

137. Group IA elements are characterized by I electron each on their ns

orbital in their outermost shell. For Li, n is (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2

Answer: D

138. Which correctly describes a property of the compound formed

when a halogen X (e.g. Cl, Br) combines with an alkali metal M (e.g. Li,

Na, K) (a) will not conduct heat or electricity when liquid or when

dissolved in water (b) silvery solid (c) the solid is a good conductor (d)

high melting point

Answer: D

139. Group IIA elements form divalent ions by losing ____________

electrons (a) four (b) five (c) two (d) three

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: C

140. How many structural isomers would an alkane with the molecular

formula C 6 H 14 has ___________ (a) five (b) four (c) three (d) two

Answer: A

141. The following exhibits partial ionic character except (a) Sr (b) Ba

(c) Mg (d) Ca

Answer: C

142. Which of the following statements is incorrect about noble gases

(a) they are monoatomic (b) they are odourless (c) they have an outer

electronic configuration of n s2 n p 6 (d) all are correct Answer: C

143. Chlorine, bromine and iodine react with ____________ to form

covalent compounds (a) non-metals (b) alkali metals (c) alkaline earth

metals (d) acids

Answer: A

144. How many sigma and pi bond is present in a single bond? (a) 0, 1

(b) 1, 0 (c) 0, 0 (d) 1, 1

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: B

145. The first element of alkaline earth metals is (a) Mg (b) Be (c) Ca

(d) Sr

Answer: B

146. Group IA elements are characterized by one electron on the ns

orbital in the outermost shell. For Cs, n is ___________ (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d)

Answer: D

147. How many isomers does alkane, C 5 H 12 have? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Answer: B

148. Which of the following group IIA metals does not react with

water? (a) Fluorine (b) Bromine (c) Beryllium (d) Helium

Answer: C

149. An oxygen organic compound was shows on quantitative analysis

containing 40% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen, with vapour
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
density of 90. Find the molecular formula (a) C H 2 O (b) C 6 H 12 O6 (c)

C 6 H 2 O (d) CH O2 Answer: B

150. Halogens have high affinity because (a) they can accommodate

only one electron in their valence (b) all of the above (c) the incomplete

can occupy the orbital with strong attraction

Note: They are just short of 1 electron to achieve the stable

configuration

151. Hardness of group IIA elements is due to (a) increase down the

group (b) None (c) constant (d) decrease down the group

Answer: A

152. A molecule of nitrogen contains ____________ bond (a) single (b)

triple (c) double (d) none

Answer: B

153. Which statement is true about group 7 halogen? (a) they have low

boiling point (b) they exist as single atoms at room temperature (c)

they are good conductors of electricity (d) lone the first one is a gas at

room temperature and pressure

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: A

154. How many sigma and pi-bond are present in triple bond? (a) 2

sigma and 2 pi bond (b) 1 sigma and 1 pi bond (c) 1 sigma and 2 pi bond

(d) 2 sigma and 1 pi bond

Answer: C

155. An ion or molecule that has lone pair of electrons to use to form a

bond is ___________ (a) Lewis base (b) Lewis acid (c) Lewsis acid (d)

Lewis base

Answer: A

156. Propanone and propanol are examples of ___________ isomers (a)

cis (b) trans (c) functional group

Answer: C

157. Pi – bond is the result from the overlap of ____________ (a) 2 parallel

s orbitals (b) 2 parallel p orbitals (c) 3 parallel p orbitals (d) 3 parallel s

orbitals Answer: B
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158. What is the atomicity of halogen? (a) diatomic (b) monoatomic (c)

triatomic (d) none Answer: A

159. The weakest binding power is provided by _____________ forces (a)

covalent bonding (b) hydrogen bonding (c) dipole-dipole (d) London –

dispersion

Answer: D

160. Which one of these is not an intermolecular force? (a) dipole –

dipole (b) covalent bonding (c) hydrogen bonding (d) London

dispersion forces

Answer: B

161. The H−C−H bond angle in C H 4 is (a) 1200 (b) 1800 (c) 109.50 (d) 90 0

Answer: C

162. C F 4 has a shape of _________ (a) hexagonal (b) tetrahedral (c)

polygonal (d) square

Answer: B
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163. Na has how many valence electron? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3

Answer: A

164. What type of isomerism is exhibited by C H 3 COC H 3 and

C H 3 C H 2 CHO (a) metamerism (b) functional group (c) nuclear (d)

position

Answer: B

165. As you go down the group, how does the boiling point of the

halogen elements change? (a) does not change (b) decreases (c)

increases (d) none of the above

Answer: C

166. How many sigma and pi bonds are present in a triple bond? (a) 0,

3 (b) 3, 0 (c) 2, 1 (d) 1, 2

Answer: D

167. The forces of attraction between non-polar molecules are (a)

hydrogen bonds (b) covalent bonds (c) Vanderwaal forces (d) London

dispersion forces
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: D

168. Which of the following group IIA elements occurs in small

amounts in uranium ores (a) Mg (b) Ca (c) Ra (d) Be

Answer: C

169. The characteristic colour obtained when Li is burnt in Bunsen

flame is (a) crimson (b) yellow (c) blue (d) lilac

Answer: A

170. Which of the following group IA metals reacts with oxygen to give

both the monoxide and peroxide? (a) Lithium (b) Helium (c) Beryllium

(d) Fluorine

Answer: A

171. All these are sources of organic compound except (a) coal (b)

petroleum (c) living organisms (d) rock

Answer: D
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172. If 12 and 9 are the atomic numbers of elements A and B

respectively, the interatomic bond between these elements are (a)

covalent (b) ionic (c) dative (d) hydrogen

Answer: B

173. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of ionic

compound (a) fast reaction in solution (b) conduction of electricity in

solution (c) solubility in polar solvents (d) low melting points

Answer: D

174. Which of the following is the hardest? (a) Sr (b) Be (c) Ra (d) Mg

Answer: B

175. What is the name of the organic compound C H 2=CH −C H 2 COOH ?

(a) But-2-enoic acid (b) But-2-en-2-oin acid (c) But-3-en-1-oic acid (d)

But-1-en-3-oic acid

Answer: C

176. Group 1 has how many elements? (a) 6 (b)1 (c) 4 (d) 9

Answer: A
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177. What is the source of organic compounds? (a) fossil (b) rock (c)

soil (d) all of the above

Answer: A

178. Which of the following group IIA members exhibit predominatly

covalent character? (a) Fluorine (b) Helium (c) Lithium (d) Beryllium

Answer: D

179. The characteristic colour obtained when Cs is burnt in Bunsen

flame is _____________ (a) orange (b) purple (c) blue violet (d) red

Answer: C

180. The interatomic bond formed between an atom of an element

with high electron affinity and an atom of another element with low

ionization energy is __________________ (a) electropositive (b)

electronegative (c) electrovalent (d) electrode

Answer: C

181. The group IIA elements form divalent ions by losing (a) four

electrons (b) nine electrons (c) three electrons (d) two electrons
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: D

182. The first element of the alkaline earth metal is ______________ (a)

boron (b) argon (c) beryllium (d) fluorine

Answer: C

183. The absorption in the UV-visible region electromagnetic spectrum

is based on the presence of _____________ in an organic compound (a) all of

the above (b) isolated system (c) conjugation (d) commutative

Answer: C

184. Where F acts as a ligand, its name becomes (a) fluorine ion (b)

fluorion (c) fluoro (d) fluorine

Answer: C

185. Two elements X and Y have electronegativity value 0.8 and 3.0

respectively. The interatomic combination of the two elements is

expected to produce (a) ionic (b) metallic (c) polar covalent (d) non-

polar covalent
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: A

186. The forces of attraction resulting from the alignment of polar

covalent molecules is _____________ (a) London forces (b) induced dipole

induced dipole (c) dipole dipole (d) permanent induced dipole

Answer: C

187. What is left after the electrolysis of brine (aqueous sodium

chloride solution) (a) sodium chlorate (I) (b) sodium hydroxide (c)

chlorine (d) hydrogen

Answer: B

188. The IUPAC name of this compound H 2 C=CHC H 2 COOH is (a) but-3-

en-1-oic acid (b) but-3-enoic acid (c) but-2-ene-4-oic (d) but-2-enoic

acid

Answer: A

189. The following halide displays the most basic nature in water ( H 2 O )

(a) bromide (b) fluoride (c) iodide (d) chloride

Answer: B
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190. Sigma bond results from (a) parallel overlapping of orbital (b)

when the bond make a pi-shape (c) directly overlapping of orbitals (d)

none of the above

Answer: C

191. Ionic solids are generally stable because of (a) hydrogen bond (b)

Vanderwaal forces (c) London dispersion (d) crystal lattice forces

Answer: D

192. Which of the following has the large radius? (a) Na (b) Mg (c) Si

(d) Al

Answer: A

193. Which of the following has the large radius? (a) C (b) Li (c) N (d)

Be

Answer: B

194. Group I elements are characterized by ns. Na is ____________ (a) 5

(b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 3

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: D

195. Which of the halogens is most reactive (a) Br (b) Cl (c) F (d) I

Answer: C

196. The following compounds are examples of positional isomers

except (a) butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol (b) 2-methylbutan-1-ol and 3-

methylpentan-2-ol (c) ortho-aminophenol, meta-aminophenol and para-

aminophenol (d) 2-methylpropan-1-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol

Answer: B

197. Which is the hardest? (a) Mg (b) Sr (c) Be (d) Ra

Answer: C

198. Which of the following is not correct (a) the shorter the bond

length, the greater the S-character (b) the longer the bond length, the

higher the bond energy (c) sigma ond is stronger than pi bond

Answer: B
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199. After the decomposition of brines, what is the residue? (a) NaCl

(b) Cl (c) OH (d) NaOH

Answer: D

200. What is the electronic configuration of halogens? (a) n s2 n p 3 (b)

n s n p (c) n s n p (d) n s n p
2 4 3 4 2 5

Answer: D

201. Which of the elements is silvery white metallic solid at room

temperature? (a) Cs (b) Na (c) Li (d) K Answer: B

202. Electrovalent bond requires the transfer of _____________ (a)

protons (b) neutrons (c) electrons (d) ions

Answer: C

203. Group IIA elements are known as the (a) halogens (b) alkaline

earth metals (c) noble metals (d) alkali metals

Answer: B

204. If the electronegativity difference between A and B is small, the

interatomic bond between them is (a) non-polar (b) ionic (c) corrdinate

covalent (d) polar covalent Answer: D

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205. C H 3 OC H 2 C H 2 C H 3 and C H 3 C H 2 OOC H 2 C H 3 are ______________

isomers (a) functional (b) positional (c) strong (d) weak

Answer: B

206. The abnormal high boiling point of water is due to _____________ (a)

presence of hydrogen bond (b) absence of hydrogen bond (c) presence

of covalent bond (d) absence of covalent bond Answer: A

207. If the electronegativity difference between elements A and B is

small, the interatomic bond between them is __________ (a) polar covalent

(b) dipole dipole (c) hydrogen bond (d) London dispersion

Answer: A

208. Which of the following halogens is radioactive (a) chlorine (b)

astatine (c) bromine (d) fluorine

Answer: B

209. Group IA elements contain (a) 6 elements (b) 3 elements (c) 5

elements (d) 4 elements

Answer: A
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210. Beryllium exhibits similar properties and shows a diagonal

relationship with ______________ (a) magnesium (b) chlorine (c) aluminum

(d) iron

Answer: C

211. Notable human dietary studies of experimentally induced survey

were conducted on conscientious objectives during world war II in

Britain in the late 1960s to the 1980s. Men in the prison study

developed the first signs of scurry about four weeks after starting the

vitamin C – free diet. If vitamin C (a) ascorbic acid) contains 4.54%

hydrogen, 40.91% carbon and the rest for oxygen, while the molecular

mass is 176 g/mol , the molecular and empirical formula of vitamin C are

(a) CHO and C 3 H 4 O3 (b) C 6 H 8 O6 and C 3 H 4 O3 (c) C 6 H 6 O6 and CHO (d)

C 3 H 4 O3 and C 6 H 8 O6

Answer: D

212. For the alkanes, how many isomers do C 6 H 14 have? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6

(d) 7

Answer: B
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213. Which of the following holds the crystal layers in graphite

together (a) electrostatic force (b) hydrogen bonds (c) covalent bond

(d) Vanderwaal forces

Answer: D

214. Ionic solids are stable because of ___________ (a) electrostatic force

of attraction is higher (b) electrostatic force of attraction is lower (c)

electrostatic force of attraction remains the same (d) electrostatic force

of attraction is not present Answer: A

215. _______________ is an organic compound (a) cumulative system (b)

conjugated system (c) isolated system (d) all of the above Answer: D

216. Which of the following forms the strongest hydrogen bonds

between its molecules (a) HF (b) H 2 S (c) N H 3 (d) HCl

Answer: A

217. The interatomic bonds present in the ammonium ion are (a)

metallic and coordinate covalent (b) covalent and electrovalent (c)

covalent and coordinate covalent (d) electrovalent and metallic

Answer: C
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218. Which of the hydroxides of group IIA metal is amphoteric? (a)

helium (b) beryllium (c) lithium (d) ilium

Answer: B

219. When excess chlorine react with methane in the presence of

sunlight, what is formed? (a) carbon tetrachloride (b) methylene

chloride (c) chloroform (d) refrigerant

Answer: A

220. The force of attraction between non-polar molecules is (a)

covalent (b) Vanderwaals (c) hydrogen bond (d) London dispersion

Answer: D

221. The force of attraction between polar covalent molecules and non-

polar covalent molecules when they are brought close to each other is

(a) induced-induced dipole (b) hydrogen bond (c) dipole-dipole (d)

permanent dipole Answer: A

222. The interatomic combination of two elements is expected to

produce (a) non – polar (b) polar (c) metallic (d) ionic
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: D

223. Which displays basic oxide with water (a) iodine (b) bromine (c)

chlorine (d)calcium

Answer: D

224. Drawing structure of ethanoic acid, which of the following is not

correct (a) the functional group is S p3 hybridized (b) the functional

group is S p2 hybridized (c) the shape of the hybridization is tetrahedral

(d) none

Answer: B

225. Which is left after the electrolysis of brine (aqueous sodium

chloride solution) (a) hydrogen (b) sodium chloride (c) chlorine (d)

sodium hydroxide

Answer: D

226. Sigma bonds result from (a) side overlap of two p-orbitals

laterally (b) overlap of s and p orbitals (c) overlap of different s –

orbitals (d) all of the above

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: B

227. What type of isomerism is exhibited by C H 3 COC H 3 and

C H 3 C H 2 CHO (a) positional isomerism (b) functional group isomerism

(c) metamerism (d) chain isomerism

Answer: B

228. Alkenes show geometrical isomerism due to (a) resonance (b)

restricted rotation around a double bond (c) isomerism (d) pi – bond

Answer: B

229. Number of carbon atoms present in 1 mole of 2-methylpentane is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) 6

Answer: E

230. Alkenes are generally (a) S p2 (b) S p3 (c) Sp (d) S2 p

Answer: A

231. Butanoic acid and ethylethanoate are isomers (a) true (b) false (c)

none of the above (d) all of the above

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: A

232. Isomerization of alkane occurs in the presence of (a) HCl/3000 C (b)

CC l 4 /300 C (c) S O3 /300 C (d) AlC l 3 /300 C

0 0 0

Answer: D

233. How many isomers are in C 4 H 10 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Answer: B

234. Calculate the empirical formula of C=40 % , H=6.7 % ,O=53.3 % (a)

C H 2 O (b) C 2 HO (c) CHO (d) CH O2

Answer: A

235. Alkanes have (a) 0 sigma, 0 pi bond (b) 1 sigma, 0 pi bond (c) 1

sigma, 1 pi bond (d) 0 sigma, 1 pi bond

Answer: B

236. Which of the intermolecular force in alkanes is responsible as

carbon chain decreases with physical properties (a) hydrogen force (b)

covalent force (c) Vander waal forces (d) dipole force

Answer: C
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237. Alkenes undergo the following except (a) hydration (b) addition

(c) substitution (d) polymerization Answer: C

238. Reduction of ethene with H 2 /¿ gives (a) ethanol (b) ethanone (c)

ethane (d) ethanoic acid

Answer: C

239. Reaction between C 2 H 2 and HBr is (a) oxidation (b)

polymerization (c) addition (d) substitution

Answer: C

240. Bromination of ethene is done in the presence of (a) AlC l 3 (b) CC l 4

(c) AlBr (d) HBr

Answer: B

241. The cleavage of a covalent bond such that only one of the

fragments retains both electrons from the bond is (a) addition (b)

hemolysis (c) heterolysis (d) all of the above

Answer: C

242. What type of hybridization is in triple bond (a) Sp (b) S p2 (c) S p3

(d) S2 p 2
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: A

243. Which has the highest value of S – orbital? (a) S p3 (b) S p2 (c) Sp (d)

none of the above

Answer: C

244. How many pi and sigma bonds are in triple bonds? (a) 1 pi and 2

sigma (b) 2 pi and 1 sigma (c) 3 pi and no sigma (d) all of the above

Answer: B

245. Which has the highest boiling point? (a) pentane (b) methane (c)

ethane (d) propane

Answer: A

246. What type of hybridization is single bond? (a) Sp (b) S p2 (c) S p3 (d)
4
Sp

Answer: C

247. How many pi and sigma bonds are in single bond? (a) 1, 1 (b) 0, 0

(c) 0, 1 (d) 1, 2
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: C

248. Butan-2-one and butanal are ____________ isomers (a) functional

group (b) geometric (c0 chain (d) positional

Answer: A

249. Alkynes are hydrate with _____________ and _____________ (a)

H 2 S O 4 / HgSO 4 (b) H 2 S O 4 / HgSO3 (c) AgN O3 / H s S O4 (d) none

Answer: A

250. _______________ reaction is involved in the hydration of alkynes (a)

electrophilic substitution (b) electrophilic addition (c) nucleophilic

substitution (d) nucleuophilic addition Answer: B

251. ______________ contains an unpaired electron (a) ions (b) free

radicals (c) cations (d) anions

Answer: B

252. The main factor that determine the order of boiling points of

isomeric alcohols is (a) solubility in water (b) hydrogen bonding (c)

molecular weight (d) halogen bonding

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: C

253. C 4 H 8 has how many isomers (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 8

Answer: C

254. The occurrence of two or more compounds with same molecular

formula but different physical and chemical properties is (a)

metamerism (b) isomerism (c) tautomerism (d) all of the above

Answer: B

255. Which of these hybridizations of carbon in organic compound has

highest S percentage? (a) S p2 (b) S p3 (c) Sp (d) S p4

Answer: C

256. Which of the following alkanes has the highest boiling point? (a)

methane (b) pentane (c) hexane (d) octane

Answer: D
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257. The complete hydrogenation of C 6 H 6 in the presence of nickel

catalyst at 2000 C gives (a) C 6 H 14 (b) C 6 H 8 (c) C 6 H 12 (d) C 6 H 6

Answer: C

258. 2-methylpentane and 2, 2-dimethylbutane are examples of (a)

positional isomerism (b) chain isomerism (c) metamerism (d)

stereoisomerism

Answer: B

259. A suitable reagent to distinguish between alkenes and alkynes is

(a) bromine water (b) KMn O4 (c) ammoniacal silver chloride (d)

ammoniacal silver nitrate Answer: D

260. 2-methylpentane and 2, 2-dimethulbutane are isomeric with the

following except (a) 2, 3-dimethylbutane (b) hexane (c) 2-methylhexane

(d) 3-methylpentane Answer: C

261. What is the name of the compound ( C H 3 ) 2 CHC H 2 CH ( C H 3 ) C H 2 C H 3?

(a) 2, 4-dimethylhexane (b) 3, 4-dimethylpentane (c) 4, 4-

dimethylnonane (d) all of the above

Answer: A

262. How many moles of oxygen will be needed for complete

combustion of butane? (a) 6 (b) 6.5 (c) 5 (d) 8

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: B

263. Which of these structures represents 3-ethyl-2-methylpentanal

(a) C H 3 ( C H 2 )2−C H 2 C H 2 C H 3 (b) C H 3 C H 2 CH ( C 2 H 5 ) CH ( C H 3 ) CHO (c)

C H 3 C H 2 CH ( C H 3 ) C H 2 C H 2 CHO (d) C H 3 C H 2 CH ( C H 3 ) CHO Answer: B

264. The intermediate product of reaction between propene and H 2 S O 4

is (a) C H 2 ( OS O3 H ) C H 2 C H 3 (b) C H 3 C H 2 ( S O3 H ) C H 3 (c)

C H 3 CH ( OS O3 H ) C H 3 (d) C H 2 ( S O3 H ) C H 2 C H 3

Answer: C

265. 3-methylbutan-2-ol and 2-methylbutan-1-ol are examples of (a)

stereoisomers (b) chain isomers (c) positional isomers (d) all of the

above Answer: C

266. Which of the following compounds shows geometric isomerism

(a) 2-pentene (b) 2-methyl-2-butene (c) 1, 2-dichloropropane (d)

ethane

Answer: B

267. The IUPAC name of C H 3 CH ( C H 3 ) CH ( OH ) C H 3 is (a) 2-

methylbutan-2-ol (b) 3-methylbutan-3-ol (c) 3-methylbutan-2-ol (d) 2-

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
methylbutan-1-ol

Answer: C

268. The bond angle in C 2 H 4 is _______________ (a) 1800 (b) 1090 (c) 90 0 (d)
0
120

Answer: D

269. What is the alkene hybridization (a) S p2 (b) S p3 (c) S2 p (d) Sp

Answer: A

270. One of the product of combustion of pentane in excess air is (a)

pentene (b) pentanol (c) pentanal (d) carbon (IV) oxide

Answer: D

271. C-C triple bond in ethyne molecule have (a) three pi-bond (b)

three sigma bond (c) one sigma and two pi-bond (d) two sigma and one

pi-bond

Answer: C

272. How many sigma and pi-bonds are present in a double bond? (a)

1, 1 (b) 0, 3 (c) 3, 0 (d) 1, 0

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: A

273. 2, 4, 4-trimethylpent-1-ene is an isomer of (a) octane (b) octene

(c) heptane (d) heptene

Answer: B

274. How many structural isomers are possible for C 4 H 9 Br (a) 4 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 5

Answer: A

275. Ethanol and dimethylether are best considered (a) diastereomers

(b) structural isomers (c) enantiomers (d) stereoisomers

Answer: B

276. The structure of 3-ethyl-2, 5-dimethylhexane is _____________ (a)

C H 3 CH ( C H 3 ) CH ( C 2 H 5 ) C H 2 CH ( C H 3 ) C H 3 (b) C H 3 C H 2 CH ( C H 3 ) C H 2 C H 3 (c)

C H 3 C H 2 C H 2 ( C H 3 ) C H 2 C H 3 (d) C H 3 ( C H 3 ) C H 2 C H 2 C ( C H 3 ) C H 2 C H 3

Answer: A
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277. Which of the following compounds will not show geometrical

isomerism (a) 2-methylbut-2-ene (b) 1-bromo-2-chloroethene (c) 1, 2-

dibromoethene (d) 1, 2-dibromopropene

Answer: D

278. The bond angle in C H 4 is (a) 109.50 (b) 1200 (c) 1800 (d) 1500

Answer: A

279. The formula of a substance which expresses the actual number of

atoms of each element present in its molecule is called (a) empirical

formula (b) molecular formula (c) molecular mass (d) all of the above

Answer: B

280. Which compound is not an isomer of the others (a) n-pentane (b)

2, 2-dimethyl propane (c) 2, 3-dimethyl butane (d) 2-methyl butane

Answer: C

281. A hydrocarbon contains 81.8% carbon and 18.20% hydrogen, find

the number of atoms of hydrogen (a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) 13

Answer: B
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
282. Butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol are (a) chain isomers (b) functional

group isomers (c) positional isomers (d) all of the above

Answer: B

283. The isomers of a substance must have same (a) molecular weight

(b) chemical properties (c) structural formula (d) functional group

Answer: A

284. A compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is found to

contain 32% carbon and 4% hydrogen. Its molecular weight is 150,

what is its molecular formula? (a) C 2 H 3 O3 (b) C 4 H 6 O6 (c) C 4 H 6 O 4 (d)

C 2 H 2 O4

Answer: B

285. What type of reaction is C H 3 C H 3 +C l 2 →C H 3 C H 2 Cl+ HCl (a)

substitution (b) addition (c0 esterification (d) saponification

Answer: A
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286. The process of converting large alkanes to smaller ones, allkenes

and hydrogen is called (a) knocking (b) nitration (c) thermal cracking

(d) isomerization

Answer: C

287. The product of halogenation of 4-methylpent-1-ene with HCl is (a)

4-methylchlorobutane (b) 2-chloro-4-methylpentane (c) 3-chloro-4-

methylbutane (d) 4-chloro-2-methylpentane

Answer: B

288. The condensed formula of 3-methylbutan-2-one is (a)

C H 3 CHOHC H 2 C H 2 C H 3 (b) C H 3 C H 2 C H 2 CH ( C H 3 ) CHO (c) ( C H 3 ) 2 CHCOC H 3

(d) C H 3 CH ( C H 3 ) COC H 3

Answer: D

289. X, the red pigment of tomatoes, contains 89.55% C and 10.45%

hydrogen. If the molecular mass of X is 536, its molecular formula is? (a)

CH (b) C 40 H 56 (c) C 41 H 41 (d) C 40 H 54

Answer: B

290. The number of structural isomers of saturated monohydric

alcohols with molecular formula C 4 H 9 OH is (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 5

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: C

291. The product of reaction between propene and H 2 S O 4 is (a)

propan-1-ol (b) propan-2-ol (c) butan-1-ol (d) butan-2-ol

Answer: B

292. A compound contains 78.6% carbon, 8.4% hydrogen and 12.92%

nitrogen. Calculate the empirical formula (a) C 5 H 7 N (b) C 7 H 9 N (c)

C 2 H 7 N 3 (d) C 2 H e N 4 Answer: B

293. The difference in the properties of isomers is due to (a) molecular

theory (b) different mode of combination (c) different separation (d)

binding force

Answer: B

294. What is thermal cracking? (a) conversion of large alkanes into

smaller alkanes, alkenes and hydrogen (b) conversion of alkenes into

hydrogen (conversion of alkanes into hydrogen (d) all of the above

Answer: A
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
295. Find the empirical formula of hydrocarbon in 90% carbon (a)

C 3 H 4 (b) C 6 H 4 (c) C H 4 (d) C 2 H 7

Answer: A

296. Find the molecular formula in CH where vapour density is 13 (a)

C 6 H 6 (b) C 3 H 4 (c) C 2 H 2 (d) C 4 H 8

Answer: C

297. What is the result if propene and chlorine are added (a) 2-

choropropane (b) 2-chloroprop-2-ene (c) 3-chloroprop-2-ene (d) all of

the above

Answer: A

298. An hydrocarbon X, decolourises bromine water but has no action

on ammoniacal silver trioxonitrate (V) solution was found to have a

molar mass of 56 g/mol , which of the following is the molecular formula

of X? ( C=12 , H =1 ) (a) C 4 H 6 (b) C 3 H 8 (c) C 2 H 6 (d) none

Answer: D
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
299. The complete hydrogenation of C 6 H 6 in the presence of nickel

catalyst of 2000 C gives (a) C 6 H 14 (b) C 6 H 8 (c) C 6 H 12 (d) C 6 H 10

Answer: C

300. Isomerism that differs in spatial arrangement is ______________ (a)

stereoisomerism (b) geometric isomerism (c) positional isomerism (d)

all of the above Answer: A

301. Find the molecular formula, given the empirical formular to be

C H 2 O and molecular weight of 90? (a) C 3 H 6 O3 (b) C 3 H 6 O2 (c) C 3 H 6 O4 (d)

C 3 H 8 O4

Answer: A

302. Which of the following is not correct? (a) the shorter the bond

length, the greater the S-character (b) the longer the bond, the higher

the bond energy (c) carbon-carbon triple bond is stronger than carbon-

carbon double bond (d) sigma bond is stronger than pi-bond

Answer: B

303. How many carbon atoms are gotten from a single compound of 2-

methylpentane (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 5 Answer: B

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
304. The IUPAC name of C H 3 CH ( C H 3 ) CH ( OH ) C H 3 is (a) all is correct (b)

3-methylbutan-2-ol (c) 3-methylbutanol (d) 1-methylbutan-2-ol

Answer: B

305. Compounds with the same molecular formula but differ in the

positions of a functional group on the carbon chain are called (a)

positional isomers (b) functional group isomers (c) chain isomers (d)

tautomers

Answer: A

306. ________________ is an attraction between two or more species (a)

weight b) bond (c) catalyst

Answer: B

307. ________________ is the force of attraction between the metal ion and

the ionized electron (a) physical bond (b) acidic bond (c) chemical bond

(d) all of the above

Answer: C

308. The type of bond when one or more electrons is transferred from

a metal to a non-metal (a) dative bond (b) electrovalent bond (c)

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
covalent (d) metallic bond

Answer: B

309. How many bond and lone pair are there in ammonia? (a) 1 lone

pair and 2 bond pairs (b) 2 lone pairs and 2 bond pairs (c) 1 lone pair

and 3 bond pairs (d) all of the above

Answer: C

310. What type of bond is present in HN O3 molecules (a) covalent bond

(b) electrovalent bond (c) dative covalent bond (d) metallic bond

Answer: A

311. The type of bond in which one member donates the two electrons

to be used for bonding is (a) electrovalent (b) covalent (c) dative bond

(d) metallic bond Answer: C

312. How many lone and bond pair are there in H 2 O molecule (a) 1

lone pair and 2 bond pairs (b) 2 lone pairs and 1 bond pair (c) 2 lone

pairs and 2 bond pairs (d) all of the above

Answer: C
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
313. Methyl chloride is ______________ in nature (a) polar (b) non-polar

(c) dative (d) ionic

Answer: A

314. Tetrachloromethane is ______________ in nature (a) polar (b) non-

polar (c) ionic (d) tetraionic

Answer: B

315. Ethanol is a polar solvent because of the presence of (a) −OH

group (b) −COOH group (c) −CHO group (d) −CO group

Answer: A

316. An example of purely covalent compound is (a) NaOH (b) NaCl (c)

C l 2 (d) Mg ( OH )2

Answer: C

317. The other name for group II elements is ___________ (a) Alkali

metals (b) earth metals (c) Real gases (d) Alkali-earth metals

Answer: D
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
318. The atomic radius of group I element ____________ from Li to Fr (a)

remain constant (b) increases (c) decreases (d) indeterminate

Answer: B

319. What is the chemical formula of astatine? (a) Tn (b) At (c) As (d) St

Answer: B

320. Which of the following is completely an acid? (a) NaCl (b) HBr (c)

HCl (d) HI Answer: C

321. How many unsaturated isomers are possible for C 4 H 8 (a) 3 (b) 4

(c) 5 (d) 6

Answer: C

322. Which one is group I element? (a) Rb (b) Rn (c) Ra (d) Ru

Answer: A

323. ______________ has the highest ionization potential (a) radon (b)

xenon (c) helium (d) krypton

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF

Answer: C

324. The type of bonding with formation of ammonium ion is known as

(a) covalent bond (b) ionic bond (c) polar covalent (d) coordinate

covalent

Answer: D

325. Quantitative analysis shows that the empirical formula of a

compound is CH. The vapour density is found to be 39. Find the

molecular formula (a) C 2 H 6 (b) C 2 H 2 (c) C 6 H 12 (d) C 6 H 6

Answer: D

326. Group VII elements exist freely in the atmosphere as (a) hydride

(b) mono atom (c) diatomic molecule (d) ions

Answer: C

327. How many structural isomers are present in C 4 H 9 OH (a) 4 (b) 6

(c) 3 (d) 5

Answer: A
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
328. Group II of the periodic table is also known as (a) alkali metals (b)

halogen (c) alkali earth metal (d) noble gas Answer: C

329. _____________ is the ability of elements to attract ions towards itself

(a) ionic (b) electronegativity (c) electron affinity (d) covalency

Answer: B

330. Alkanes have _____________ bond (a) triple (b) half (c) single (d)

double

Answer: C

331. Alkanes are generally known to be (a) polar (b) non-polar (c)

crystalline (d) cyclo-alkane

Answer: B

332. The most reactive element in the group I (alkaline metal) is (a) Fr

(b) Li (c) Na (d) Al

Answer: A

333. What is the name given to the compound C H 3 C H 2 CH =CHC ≡ CC H 3

? (a) hept-4-en-2-yne (b) hept-3-en-1-yne (c) hept-4-en-4-yne (d) hept-

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
2-en-4-yne

Answer: A

334. The valence electron in alkali metal is (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2

Answer: A

335. Transition metals have what type of bond between atoms? (a)

metallic (b) ionic (c) covalent (d) dative

Answer: A

336. Which of the following fluoride is not suitable (a) BaF (b) Mg F 2 (c)

Be F 2 (d)Ca F 2

Answer: A

337. Presence of __________ dipole moment gives the fact that the

compound has certain ionic character (a) electric (b) induced (c)

instantaneous (d) permanent

Answer: A

338. The following are the characteristic of halogens except (a) they

are non-metals (b) they exist as diatomic molecule (c) they are coloured
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
(d) All options are correct

Answer: D

339. A certain compound has an empirical formula C 24 H 37 O7 and

molecular mass ¿ 875.106 , find the molecular formula (a) C 48 H 74 O14 (b)

C 14 H 37 O7 (c) C 24 H 42 O9 (d) C 12 H 18 O3

Answer: A

340. Name the compound ( C H 3 ) 2 CHC ≡ CC H 3 (a) 4-methylpent-2-yne (b)

3-methylpent-1-yne (c) 4-methylpent-3-yne (d) 2-methylpent-4-yne

Answer: A

341. L i2 O is best prepared by _________ of L i2 O2 at 450 0 C (a) oxidation (b)

reduction (c) substitution (d) thermal decomposition

Answer: D

342. IUPAC name for C H 3 C H 2 CH =CHC ≡ CC H 3 is (a) hep-4-en, 2-yne

(b) hept-4-en-2-yne (c) hept-3-ene-5-yne (d) none Answer: B

343. The bond in N H 3−B F 3 molecule is (a) hydrogen (b) ionic (c)

covalent (d) dative Answer: D

344. Fluorine in all compounds has oxidation number of (a) −2 (b) −1

(c) +2 (d) −7 Answer: B

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
345. When the carbonyl group of an hydrocarbon is located in between

the methylene chain, the hydrocarbon is (a) an aldehyde (b) an alkanal

(c) none (d) alkanone Answer: D

346. Which of the following exhibits isomerism (a) ethyne (b) propyne

(c) methane (d) butane Answer: D

347. Al
3+¿ ¿
is highly polarizing due to its (a) high melting point (b) low

melting point (c) high charge density (d) low charge density Answer: C

348. Molten sodium chloride is also called (a) common salt (b) bawite

(c) roar salt (d) river salt Answer: A

349. How many structural isomers are possible in C 4 H 9 Br (a) 5 (b) 3

(c) 2 (d) 4 Answer: D

350. __________ is used for etching glass (a) Kr F 2 (b) PVC (c) HF (d) C l 2

Answer: C

351. Potassium naturally occurs as (a) lepilolite (b) carnallite (c)

rubidus (d) ootomite Answer: B

352. Bromine molecule is a _______________ molecule (a) monoatomic (b)

diatomic (c) multiatomic (d) none Answer: B

353. Which of the following bond exist between molecules of oxygen

gas? (a) dative (b) hydrogen (c) covalent (d) ionic Answer: C
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
354. 2-methylbutane and 2, 2-dimethylpropane are both ____________

isomers of ___________ (a) chain, n-butane (b) structural, pentane (c)

position, pentane (d) branched, hexane Answer: B

355. The reaction between nitrogen and group II element yields

compound of the type (a) M N 5 (b) MN (c) M 3 N 2 (d) M 3 N 3 Answer: C

356. Milk of magnesia is hydroxide of (a) M g (b) Mn (c) Ca (d) Cu

Answer: A

357. Hypo chlorides are used ____________ (a) as an oxidant fire and

menthes (b) for etching glasses (c) in domestic bleaches (d) for

chlorinating drinking water Answer: D

358. Hydrogen halides have the general formula (a) HF (b) HX (c) HCl

(d) HBr Answer: B

359. 2-methylbutan-2-ol and 2-methylbutan-1-ol are example of

_____________ isomerism (a) positional isomerism (b) optical isomerism

(c) structural isomerism (d) geometrical isomerism Answer: A

360. ______________ are ionic compound (a) B r 2 (b) AgI (c) HCl (d) none

Answer: B

361. Alkali metal belongs to (a) group II (b) group I (c) group III (d)

group IV Answer: B
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
362. In the group VIII, the firs ionization energy (a) all of the above (b)

decrease down the group (c) increase down the group (d) remains

constant Answer: B

363. ________________ is used by athletes for firm grip (a) MgC O3 (b) MgO

(c) MgC l2 (d) Mg ( OH )2 Answer: C

364. A strong non-dimensional electrostatic force of attraction

between positive charge ion is known as ________________ (a) Vanderwaal

(b) ionic (c) covalent (d) hydrogen Answer: B

365. Which type of bond will 1 s 2 2 s 2 2 p2 and 1 s 2 2 s 2 2 p5 form? (a) covalent

(b) ionic (c) electrovalent (d) hydrogen Answer: A

366. Write the IUPAC name of CHCC H 2=COOH (a) propan-2-oic acid

(b) propan-1-enoic acid (c) propannoic acid (d) propan-2-enoic acid

Answer: C

367. The nobel gases are isolated by (a) fractional distillation (b)

electrolysis (c) radioactivity (d) none Answer: A

368. Which of the group one metal oxides has an orange colourization?

(a) L i2 O (b) N a2 O (c) R b2 O (c) C s2 O Answer: D

369. The actual composition of molecule of the compound that

represents the exact mole of atoms is (a) gravi metric formula (b)
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
empirical formula (c) molecular formula (d) structural formula

Answer: C

370. The following properties of the halogen increases on descending

the group except (a) atomic radii (b) melting point (c) oxidizing ability

(d) all Answer: C

371. The following are true of BeO except (a) good conductor of heat

(b) high reactivity (c) high solubility in alkali solution (d) all

Answer: C

372. How many shells are in nucleus of calcium? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 4

Answer: D

373. The following are examples of group I metal halide except (a)

NaCl (b) KBr (c) NaOH (d) LiF

Answer: C

374. The oxidation number of xenon in its compound are (a)

+2 ,+3 ,+5 ,+8 (b) +2 ,+ 4 ,+6 ,+8 (c) +1 ,+5 ,+7 ,+9 (d) +3 ,+5 ,+6 ,+ 16

Answer: B
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
375. In stable organic compound, carbon will always form (a) 3 bonds

(b) 2 bonds (c) 1 bond (d) 4 bonds

Answer: D

376. The following are polar except (a) N H 3 (b) H 2 O (c) HF (d) C H 4

Answer: D

377. One of the major source of organic compound is (a) natural gas

(b) fermentation (c) sea water (d) atmosphere Answer: A

378. Two nitrogen atoms form a stable configuration by sharing

______________ pair of electrons to form a covalent bond (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: C

379. Be is used in making nozzle to fuel space craft (a) true (b) false (c)

none (d) all

Answer: A

380. Which of the following is not an acid? (a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d)

none

Answer: D
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
381. What group has the electronic configuration of 1 s 2 2 s 2 2 p6 3 s 2? (a) II

(b) III (c) IV (d) V Answer: A

382. Which of the following is an ionic compound? (a) B r 2 (b) CC l 4 (c)

HCl (d) Al F 3 Answer: D

383. Chemical bond that involves transfer of one or more electrons is

called (a) covalent (b) ionic (c) dative (d) structural formula Answer: B

384. ___________________ is an example of a molecule with triple bond (a)

N 2 (b) C O3 (c) C 2 H 4 (d) N H 3 Answer: A

385. HF is weak acid because the H – F bond is very ________________ (a)

strong (b) weak (c) polar (d) all Answer: C

386. The group 7 elements form halide ions by (a) none of the above

(b) accepting an electron (c) donating an electron (d) donating lone pair

of electron Answer: B

387. Alkanol reacts with alkanoic acid to produce (a) ester and ether

(b) ester and water (c) soap and water (d) all of the above

Answer. B

388. Reduction of ethanal with H 2 /¿ gives (a) ethanol (b) ethanone (c)

ethane (d) ethanoic acid

Answer. A
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
389. Which is not a class of alcohol (a) monohydric (b) polyhydric (c)

tetrahydric (d) trihydric

Answer. C

390. Which is the least soluble in water (a) C H 3 C H 2 C H 2 OH (b)

C H 3 C H 2 OH (c) C H 3 OH (d) C H 3 C H 2 C H 2 C H 2

Answer. D

391. Aldehydes can be distinguished from ketones by using (a)

Fehling’s solution (b) Bromine water (c) ammonia silver nitrate (d) all

of the above

Answer. A

392. Melting points of aldehydes and ketones tend to (a) be

unpredictable due to resonance (b) remain unchanged (c) decrease with

increase in molecular weight (d) increase with molecular weight

Answer. C

393. Formula of alkanones is (a) RCOOH (b) RCHO (c) RCOOR (d) R2 CO

Answer. D

394. Butan-2-one and butanal are _______ isomers (a) functional group

(b) geometric (c) chain (d) positional

Answer. A
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
395. The IUPAC name of isopropyl alcohol is (a) propan-1-ol (b)

propan-2-ol (c) 2-methylpropan-1-ol (d) 2-methylpropan-2-ol

Answer. B

396. _______ reaction is involved in the hydration of alkynes (a)

electrophilic substitution (b) electrophilic addition (c) nucleophilic

substitution (d) nucleophilic addition

Answer. B

397. Which reagent can be used to distinguish between

C H 3 CH ( OH ) C H 2 CHO and C H 3 COC H 2 C H 2 OH (a) dilute sulphuric acid (b)

Fehling’s reagent (c) acidified potassium dichromate (VI) (d) 2, 6-

dinitrophenylhydrazine

Answer. B

398. Which of the following aldehydes is most soluble in water (a)

ethanal (b) propanal (c) methanal (d) butanal

Answer. B

399. The main factor that determine the order of boiling points of

isomeric alcohols is (a) solubility in water (b) hydrogen bonding (c)

molecular weight (d) halogen bonding

Answer. C
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
400. Oxidation of secondary alcohol in the presence of K 2 C r 2 O 7 and in

the presence of acid gives (a) alkanals (b) alkanoic acid (c) ketones (d)

alkanols

Answer. C

1 Cl
2 3 4

Br
Cl Br

401. The name of the above compound is (a) 2-bromo-3, 3-

dichlorobutane (b) 2,3-dibromo-2, 3-dichlorobutane (c) 3-chloro-2-

methylbutane (d) all of the above

Answer. B

402. The complete hydrogenation of C 6 H 6 in the presence of nickel

catalyst at 2000 C gives (a) C 6 H 14 (b) C 6 H 8 (c) C 6 H 12 (d) C 6 H 6

Answer. C

403. Which of the following is not a secondary alcohol (a) hexan-3-ol

(b) 3-methylpentan-3-ol (c) 2-methylpentan-3-ol (d) 3-methylpentan-2-

ol

Answer. B
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
404. The intermediate product of reaction between propene and H 2 S O 4

is (a) C H 2 ( OS O3 H ) C H 2 C H 3 (b) C H 3 C H 2 ( S O3 H ) C H 3 (c)

C H 3 CH ( OS O3 H ) C H 3 (d) C H 2 ( S O3 H ) C H 2 C H 3

Answer. C

405. 3-methylbutan-2-ol and 2-methylbutan-1-ol are examples of (a)

stereoisomers (b) chain isomers (c) positional isomers (d) all of the

above

Answer. C

406. A chemical test whereby Fehling’s solution containing bluish C u 2+¿¿

is reduced to reddishC u+ ¿¿ is a confirmatory test for (a) alkanones (b)

aldehydes (c) alkanols (d) alkynes

Answer. B

407. Which action best accounts for the solubility of aldehydes and

ketones in water (a) hydrogen bonding between solute and solvent

molecule (b) hydrogen bonding between solute molecule (c) polar

interaction between solute molecule (d) vander waals forces

Answer. A

408. The IUPAC name of C H 3 CH ( C H 3 ) CH ( OH ) C H 3 is (a) 2-methylbutan-

2-ol (b) 3-methylbutan-3-ol (c) 3-methylbutan-2-ol (d) 2-methylbutan-

2-ol
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
Answer. C

409. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones respectively gives _______ and

_______ (a) secondary and primary alcohols (b) secondary and tertiary

alcohols (c) primary and secondary alcohols (d) primary and tertiary

alcohols

Answer. C

410. Alkanol reacts with acid to form (a) alkanoates and alkanones (b)

alkanoates and water (c) alkanoates and phenol (d) ester and ethane

Answer. B

411. Reduction of an organic acid gives (a) secondary alcohol (b) poly

alcohols (c) tertiary alcohols (d) primary alcohols

Answer. D

412. Acetone reacting with HCN to form a cyanohydrin is an example of

(a) electrophilic substitution (b) electrophilic addition (c) nucleophilic

addition (d) nucleophilic substitution

Answer. C

413. Aldehydes undergo oxidation with KMn O4 in the presence of a

mineral acid to form (a) carboxylic acid (b) acetals (c) ketones (d)

alcohols
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
Answer. A

414. Carbonyl group in aldehydes is (a) CHO (b) CO ((c) C−O (d) C=O

Answer. D

415. When ketone reacts with a Grignard reagent and the complex
hydrolysed, the product is (a) tertiary alcohol (b) primary alcohol (c)
secondary alcohol (d) all of the above C
Answer. C

416. Ethanol and dimethylether are best considered (a) diastereomers

(b) structural isomers (c) enantiomers (d) stereoisomers

Answer. B

417. Which of these compounds will reduce Fehling solution (a)

( C H 3 ) 2 CO (b) C H 3 CH ( OH ) C H 3 (c) C H 3 COC H 2 C H 3 (d) C H 3 CHO

Answer. D

418. Butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol are (a) chain isomers (b) functional

group isomers (c) positional isomers (d) all of the above

Answer. B

419. Ketone is (a) primary alcohol (b) tertiary alcohol (c) secondary

alcohol (d) none of the above

Answer. C

420. A hydrazone will result from the reaction of hydrazine with (a)

phenol (b) acid (c) alcohol (d) aldehyde

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
Answer. D

421. The appearance of a silver mirror in Tollen’s test indicates the

presence of (a) an alkane (b) an aldehyde (c) an alcohol (d) a ketone

Answer. B

422. Which does not represent saturated monohydric alcohol (a)

C n H 2 n +1 OH (b) C n H 2 n +2 OH (c) C n H 2 n +2 O (d) C n H 2 n +2 ROH

Answer. B

423. The product of reaction between propene and H 2 S O 4 is (a)

propan-1-ol (b) propan-2-ol (c) butan-1-ol (d) butan-2-ol

Answer. B

424. Ketones are prepared by the oxidation of (a) monohydric alcohols

(b) primary alcohols (c) tertiary alcohols (d) secondary alcohols

Answer. D

425. Aldehydes react with KMn O4 to give (a) alkanol (b) alkanoic acid

(c) alkanals (d) alkenone

Answer. B

426. What is the reagent to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones

(a) Fehling’s solution (b) Grignard reagent (c) Tollen’s reagent (d) all of

the above
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
Answer. D

427. Reagent that can be used with both aldehyde and ketone is (a)

Schiff (b) Grignard (c) Fehling (c) Tollen

Answer. A

428. Reduction of ketone gives (a) ketal (b) secondary alcohol (c)

primary alcohol (d) carboxylic acid

Answer. B

429. Reduction of organic acid gives (a) polyhydric alcohol (b) primary

alcohol (c) secondary alcohol (d) tertiary alcohol

Answer. B

430. Which of these is not a type of alcohol (a) monohydric (b) dihydric

(c) trihydric (d) polyhydric

Answer. D

431. For which pair of compounds can the members be distinguished

2+¿ ¿
by means of Tollen’s test (The use of a solution containing Ag [ N H 2 ] )

(a) C H 3 COC H 3 and C 2 H 5 COC H 3 (b) C H 3 CHO and C H 3 COC H 3 (c)

C H 3 COC H 3 and C H 3 C O2 C H 3 (d) C H 3 C O2 H and C H 3 C O2 C H 3

Answer. B

432. Aldehydes can be oxidized to (a) alcohol (b) carboxylic acid (c)

esters (d) alkene

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
Answer. B

433. Butanoic acid and ethyl ethanoate are isomers (a) false (b) true

(c) none (d) all of the above

Answer. B

434. Ketones can be prepared in one step from which of the following

(a) hydrolysis of esters (b) oxidation of primary alcohols (c) oxidation of

secondary alcohols (d) reaction of acid halides with alcohols

Answer. C

435. The general formula for alkanones is (a) R2 CO (b) RCOOR (c) RCHO

(d) RCOOH

Answer. A

436. The IUPAC name of C H 3 CH ( C H 3 ) CH ( OH ) C H 3 is (a) all is correct (b)

3-methylbutan-2-ol (c) 3-methylbutanol (d) 1-methylbutan-2-ol

Answer. B

437. The alcohols are soluble in water while hydrocarbons are not

because (a) hydrocarbon molecules associate with water molecule

through covalent bonding (b) alcohols associate with water molecule

through covalent bonding (c) hydrocarbon molecules associate with

water molecule through hydrogen bonding (d) alcohol molecules

associate with water molecules through hydrogen bonding

 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
Answer. D

438. Which of the following aldehyde is not soluble in water (a)

methanol (b) butanal (c) ethanal (d) propanal

Answer. B

439. Ethanol is a polar solvent because of the presence of (a) −OH

group (b) −COOH group (c) −CHO group (d) −CO group

Answer. A

440. Monosaccharides have the basic structure of (a) ( CHO ) 2 n (b)

( C H 2 O ) n (c) (C 2 H 4)O (d) all of the above

Answer. B

441. When monosaccharides link together, they form (a)

monosaccharides and disaccharides (b) oligosaccharides and

polysaccharides (c) only oligosaccharides (d) only polysaccharide

Answer. B

442. Two monosaccharides link together to form (a) oligosaccharide

(b) polysaccharides (c) disaccharides (d) all of the above

Answer. C

443. Which of the following is not an example of monosaccharides (a)

glucose (b) fructose (c) galactose (d) maltose

Answer. D
 ZENITH CHM 102 PDF
444. Monosaccharide in which the carbon group is an aldehyde is (a)

ketone (b) aldose (c) pentose (d) triose

Answer. B