OROMIA EDUCATION BUREAU

GRADE 11TH BIOLOGY FINAL EXAM FOR BOARDING AND NON-

BOARDING (SPECIAL) SECONDARY SCHOOLS
JUNE 2016/2024 ACADEMIC YEAR

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NUMBER OF ITEMS: 50 ‘MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS’

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THIS BOKLET CONTAIN BIOLOGY FINAL EXAM FOR GRADE 11TH. IN THIS

EXAMINATION, THERE ARE A TOTAL OF 50 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.

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DIRECTIONS: -THIS PAPER CONTAINS BIOLOGY FINAL-EXAMINATION FOR GRADE 11TH. THE
EXAMINATION CONTAINS 50 ITEMS AND THERE IS ONLY ONE BEST ANSWER FOR EACH ITEM.
CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER FROM THE SUGGESTED OPTIONS AND WRITE THE LETTER OF YOUR
CHOICE ON THE ANSWER SHEET

1. How is bioinformatics helpful in sequencing DNA? By

A. generating undesired vaccines by scanning databases for pathogen genomes.
B. assessing the quality of sequencing data rather than genetic variations by identifying errors, such
as sequencing artifacts or base-calling mistakes.
C. constructing phylogenetic trees based on DNA sequences to study evolutionary relationships
between different species or populations.
D. reducing our understanding of evolutionary processes through the analysis of protein sequence
mutations.
2. Haemophilia is sex-linked recessive disorder of humans. The pedigree chart given below shows the
inheritance of haemophilia in one family. A blood test shows that the individual 14 is a carrier of
haemophilia. The member numbered 15 has recently married numbered 14. What is the probability
that their first child will be haemophilic male?

A. ½ C. ¼
B. ¾ D. 0
3. Populations have three basic types of dispersion patterns-clumped, random, and uniform. What
situation supports random distributions?
A. When individuals of the populations do not interact strongly with one another.
B. When individuals of the population are in competition for resources.
C. When there is an even distribution of resources.
D. When individuals of the population display social interactions.

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4. How is a pedigree used to determine the genotype and phenotype of an individual? To determine the
genotype of an individual using a pedigree, you would need to look at the
A. probability phenotypes of the parents and offspring over generations.
B. phenotypes of the parents if the trait is dominant and an individual does not display that trait, you
can infer that the individual's genotype is homozygous dominant for that trait.
C. phenotypes of the parents if the trait is dominant, an individual only needs two copies of the
allele to express the trait.
D. phenotypes of the parents if the trait is recessive, the individual needs one copies of the allele to
express the trait.
5. Consider the following statements of genetic disorders.
I. Individuals with a single defective gene will have Huntington’s disease later in life by a
progressive neurodegenerative disorder.
II. A child with cystic fibrosis or albinism has inherited a defective gene from each parent.
III. Hemophilia, the blood-clotting disorder which are less common in females than in males.
IV. Disorders caused by changes in the combination of multiple genes, complex interaction with
environmental and lifestyle factors
V. Disorders resulting from changes in the number or structure of chromosomes.
Which numbers describe autosomal dominant and multifactorial genetic disorders respectively?
A. IV and I C. II and IV
B. I and IV D. I and V
6. Why the plant breeding techniques practiced through mass selection method was selecting a large
number of plants of similar phenotype? To
A. create a new variety of seeds that exhibit the desired traits.
B. Releasing sterile progeny as pure line variety
C. leveraging genetic knowledge rather than developing crop varieties with desired traits for agricultural use.
D. Limit the production of crop varieties that boast common traits for a variety of agricultural applications.
7. The positive consequences of purebreds are aim to establish and maintain stable traits that the animal
can pass on to the next generation that could help to develop superior qualities while the negative
one is
A. expression of undesired recessive traits in the family more likely.
B. incompatible with the conservation of indigenous breeds.
C. to produce offspring with more desirable characteristics.
D. to enhance the local breeds with exotic sires.

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8. Which one of the following products of gene therapy is used to disrupt harmful genes or to repair
mutated genes.
A. Patient-derived cellular gene therapy
B. Human gene editing technology
C. Plasmid DNA
D. Bacterial and viral vectors
9. Which of the followings are NOT elements of counseling prior to routine prenatal genetic testing?
A. Review of family history
B. Review of medical history
C. Review of the patient’s use of medication or controlled substances
D. Discussion of patient’s values and preferences
10. Gene therapy can be done through
A. replacing a healthy copy of the gene with a disease-causing gene
B. activating a disease-causing gene that is not functioning properly
C. introducing a new or modified gene into the body to help treat the disease.
D. transferring the effects onto the patient’s children based on somatic gene therapy
11. Which one of the following is said to be the most important cause or reason for the extinction of
animals and plants?
A. Loss of habitat and fragmentation C. Over-exploitation of specie
B. Invasion of alien species D. Co-extinctions
12. Which of the following most common types of chromosomal disorder is INCORRECT with respect
to aneuploidy?
A. Arises due to the non-disjunction of homologous pair of chromosomes
B. Arises due to the disjunction of homologous chromosomes
C. One gamete comes to have an extra chromosome
D. Another gamete becomes deficient in one chromosome
13. Why bioaccumulation increase as one goes from producers to consumers? This occurs because
A. animals at the bottom of the food chain consume many larger organisms that have already
accumulated the toxins, thereby increasing the concentration of the toxins in their own bodies.
B. organisms at lower trophic levels have greater concentrations of toxins accumulated in their tissues.
C. animals at the top of the food chain consume many smaller organisms that have already
accumulated the toxins, thereby increasing the concentration of the toxins in their own bodies.
D. organisms at higher trophic levels have lower concentrations of toxins accumulated in their tissues.

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14. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about human musculoskeletal system?
A. Allow bodily movements and produce blood cells in the bone marrow.
B. Provide the human body with shapes and forms and protect the vital organs.
C. Bind organs together, support stability and stores minerals.
D. Involuntary cardiac and smooth muscle helps you move when you want to.
15. Which male reproductive structures carry sperm from the epididymis to its junction with the urethra and
secretes fructose into the semen, which provides energy for the sperms respectively?
A. Urethra and seminal vesicle C. Seminal vesicle and vas deferens
B. Vas deferens and Seminal vesicle D. Vas deferens and urethra
16. What is the main role of Sertoli cells in the process of spermatogenesis?
A. They help in the nourishment of the developing sperms.
B. For producing the male hormone called androgen or testicular hormone.
C. To generate primary spermatocytes which undergo meiosis to form two haploid cells
D. To undergoes primary spermatocytes development that begins with meiotic division.
17. How will the feedback mechanism in the menstrual cycle respond if there is a high level of
progesterone? Excess amounts of progesterone will cause
A. negative feedback inhibition on each prior organ, resulting in the cessation of the release of
hormones.
B. positive feedback inhibition on each prior organ, resulting in the cessation of the release of hormones.
C. negative feedback stimulation on each prior organ, resulting in the release of hormones.
D. positive feedback stimulation on each prior organ, resulting in the release of hormones.
18. What is the role of Luteinizing hormone (LH) as a gonadotrophic hormone for regulating the function
of the testes in men?
A. It stimulates cells in the testes to produce androgen to support sperm production.
B. It carries out different roles in the two halves of the menstrual cycle.
C. It stimulates Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone, which acts locally to support sperm
production.
D. It stimulates cells in the epididymis to produce testosterone to support sperm production.
19. The human axial skeleton consists of
A. The bones of the vertebral column and thoracic ribcage.
B. The bones that connect the limbs to the axial skeleton.
C. The bones of the legs, hands and sternum.
D. The bones of the arms and vertebral column.

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20. From the following human skeleton which one is represented by number 42 and 43 respectively?
A. Humerus and fibula
B. Humerus and tibia
C. Tibia and humerus
D. Fibula and humerus

21. Put the following muscle contraction and relaxation steps in order.
1. Acetylcholine travels across the synaptic gap
2. Actin and myosin form linkages
3. Calcium ions diffuse into the skeletal fiber and bind to troponin
4. Actin and myosin linkages are broken
5. Calcium ions diffuse out of the skeletal muscle
6. Acetylcholine is released from the distal end of the motor neuron
7. Cholinesterase decomposes acetylcholine
8. Acetylcholine stimulates the skeletal fiber
9. Muscle relaxes
10. Muscle fiber shortens (contracts)
A. 6 →1 →8→ 3→ 2 →10→ 7→ 5→ 4→ 9
B. 6 →2 →3→ 8→ 1 →10→ 7→ 5→ 4→ 9
C. 6 →2 →8→ 3→ 1 →10→ 7→ 5→ 4→ 9
D. 6 →1 →8→ 2→ 3 →10→ 5→ 7→ 4→ 9
22. Success at solving an environmental problem is more likely when researchers follow the basic
principles of ecology because
A. Ecological solutions to problems are usually very easy to implement and can be done quickly.
B. Most people in the world are more interested in saving the environment than in their own comfort
and convenience.
C. Ecology uses scientific research to identify the cause of the problem and the best practices to
solve the problem.
D. Ecologists are very good at influencing government officials into changing laws to improve the
environment.

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23. When does menstruation start in women with no obvious reproductive a health problem? It happens
when
A. The fertilized ovum reaches the uterus and attaches into the thick spongy lining.
B. The FSH stimulates the development of a follicle in the ovary and the egg ripens.
C. Pregnancy occurs and the embryo obtains nourishment and oxygen.
D. Thick spongy lining of the uterus detaches in the absences of pregnancy.
24. All of the following sentences are correct about environmental pollution EXCEPT?
A. Deforestation increases the amount of CO2 absorbed from the environment.
B. Decompositions of dead bodies increases the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere.
C. Burning fossil fuels increases pollution due to the release of hydrocarbons.
D. Burning of wood increases pollution by causing global warming which blocks sunlight.
25. Which one of the followings BEST describe the basic function of bone cell?
A. Osteoprogenitor are mature bone cells that help them to form into correct shapes
B. Osteocytes involves in new bone formation.
C. Osteoclasts break down bones and help them to form into correct shapes.
D. Osteoblasts are important in repair of fracture.
26. From the following option, which one contains the steps of contraceptive methods in order from
lowest failure rate to the highest one.
A. Sterilization, IUD, Oral contraceptive pills, Depo-Provera, spermicides, condoms
B. Sterilization, IUD, Depo-Provera, Oral contraceptive pills, spermicides, condoms
C. Sterilization, IUD, Depo-Provera, Oral contraceptive pills, condoms, spermicides
D. Sterilization, IUD, Oral contraceptive pills OCPs, Depo-Provera, condoms, spermicides
27. Which one of the following Ethiopian people can be taken as an exemplary practice of indigenous
knowledge used for the conservation of natural resources by making terraces, contour ploughing,
crop rotation, mixed cropping, surface mulching, and agroforestry.
A. Sidama C. Konso
B. Mursi D. Gurage
28. Which one of the following types of muscle contractions are correctly paired accordingly with their
own function?
A. Concentric: does not change the length of muscle
B. Isometric: shortening the muscle.
C. Eccentric: lengthening the muscle fibers.
D. Isometric: lengthening the muscle fibers.

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29. Which of the following is the typical first visible sign of male puberty?
A. Facial hair C. Pubic hair
B. Enlargement of the testes D. Lengthening of the penis
30. Which one of the followings are NOT properly describe the basic function of bone?
A. Make platelets, red blood cells, and white blood cells inside bones.
B. Store necessary minerals when the levels are too high in the blood and release minerals when the
body needs them like calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D.
C. Keep organs to be safe from hard impacts, punctures, and other forms of injury.
D. Store sugar and release when the body provides energy.
31. Suppose that a species of toads is introduced into a new environment in an attempt to reduce the
population of insects. The toad has no natural predators in the new environment. The toad population
would most likely
A. Increase exponentially. C. Decrease rapidly and die out.
B. Increase logistically. D. Remain the same.
32. This item is based on the following different types of joints and their function?
1. The ball and socket joints are rounded head of one bone sits in the cup of another bone to permit
movement in all directions
2. A joint that opens and closes in one direction along one plane only like a door are hinge joints.
3. Condyloid joints are rotate and allow movements like elbow and knee joints.
4. Pivot joints are rotary or trochoid joints in which one bone swivels in a ring.
5. Saddle joint allows movement back and forth, side to side, and able to rotate.
The correctly matched joints and its function is indicated by number
A. 1, 4 and 5 C. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
33. A young man had unprotected sex with a lady. As a result, after several days he started feeling burning
during urination and a yellowish-white discharge from his penis. What is the disease he contracted?
A. Syphilis C. Chancroid
B. Chlamydia D. Gonorrhoea
34. Which one of the following female reproductive structures and their function are NOT properly correct?
A. Ovaries to produce the hormones estrogen and progesterone.
B. Oviducts carry the ovum from the ovary to the uterus.
C. Fimbria sweep the ovum into the oviduct following ovulation.
D. Womb to holds the fetus in place during pregnancy.

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35. Which one of the followings NOT properly describe the basic types and properties of cardiac muscle
cells?
A. The pericardium is a double-layered sac that surrounds the heart, providing protection and
anchoring it in place.
B. The epicardium is the outermost layer of striated voluntary muscle
C. The myocardium is the middle layer that is composed of contractile tissues.
D. The endocardium is the innermost layer with blood supplied to circulate via the coronary circulation.
36. A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with the complaint of abdominal pain.
On exam she is noted to have purulent cervical drainage and cervical motion tenderness. She is
diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease. This infection gained access to her abdominal cavity
through which order of anatomic connections?
A. Vagina, cervix, uterus, fallopian tube C. Vagina, uterus, cervix, fallopian tube
B. Cervix, vagina, uterus, fallopian tube D. Vagina, cervix, fallopian tube, uterus

37. Which of the following is true about nonrenewable natural resources?

A. They can be replaced through sustainable development.
B. There are plenty for people to use for a very long time.
C. Using them up will help keep the environment healthy.
D. They cannot be replaced after they are used up.
38. The correct sequence of cell stage in spermatogenesis is
A. Spermatocytes – Spermatids – Spermatogonia – Sperms.
B. Spermatogonia – Spermatids – Spermatocytes – Sperms.
C. Spermatocytes – Spermatogonia – Spermatids – Sperms.
D. Spermatogonia – Spermatocytes – Spermatids – Sperms.
39. What is the difference between Density-Dependent and Density-Independent Factors on populations?
A. Density-dependent factors exert a greater influence when there are more individuals while
density-independent exerts the same influence on all individuals regardless of their number.
B. Density-dependent factors exert a greater influence on larger, more dense individuals while
density-independent factors exert the same impact on individuals of all size.
C. Density-dependent factors exert the same influence on all individuals regardless of their number
while density-independent factors exert a greater influence when there are more individuals
regardless of their number.
D. Density dependent factors affects all populations regardless of the population size while density
independent factors are a limiting factor that depends on population size.

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40. Generally, drugs have the following side effects EXCEPT?

A. Increasing the risk of illness and infection.
B. Nausea and abdominal pain lead to changes in appetite and weight loss.
C. Reduce strain on the liver that puts the person at risk of significant liver damage
D. Problems associated with memory, attention, and decision-making.
41. Which one of the following major causes of female infertility prevents ovulation by making both
overactive and underactive?
A. Thyroid problems C. Cervical mucus problems
B. Pelvic surgery complications D. Pelvic inflammatory diseases
42. Based on the below survivorship curve which statement best explains survivorship curve type I?

A. The death rate is relatively constant throughout the entire life span, and mortality is equally likely
to occur at any age in the life span.
B. Organisms produce many offspring but provide them with little or no care. As a result, few
offspring survive to adulthood.
C. Organisms produce relatively few offspring and provide a lot of care to the offspring by
increasing the likelihood of their survival.
D. Organisms produce moderate numbers of offspring and provide some of these organisms survive
their younger years.
43. Which one of the following harmful traditional practices affect reproductive health?
A. By giving awareness for reducing abduction to make the girl a wife willingly.
B. Any form of voluntary sexual contact within a relative or marriage.
C. By reducing gender-based violence and any form of unwanted sexual contact
D. Forcing underage girls to get married based on cultural norms to perpetuate poverty.

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44. A student was studying primate uterine thickness. She had 3 samples of uterine tissues. The thickness
in mm for the samples are as follows:
Sample A – 4 mm, Sample B – 10 mm, Sample C – 1 mm
Given the knowledge of menstrual cycle in humans, what phases do you think each sample belongs to?
A. Sample A: Menstrual phase, Sample B: Follicular phase, Sample C: Luteal phase
B. Sample A: Proliferative phase, Sample B: Luteal phase, Sample C: Menstrual phase
C. Sample A: Secretory phase, Sample B: Menstrual phase, Sample C: Proliferative phase
D. Sample A: Menstrual phase, Sample B: Secretory phase, Sample C: Follicular phase
45. Young adult male chimpanzees look for mates outside their own population. The males then take the
females back to their group. Which of the following occurs in females' original population?
A. Emigration C. Immigration
B. Mortality D. Natality
46. Use the population pyramids below to answer the given questions that follow.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the differences in the population pyramids?
A. Region A has a higher dependency ratio than Region B.
B. Region B has a higher population density than Region A.
C. Region A has a higher childhood mortality rate and overall quality of life than Region B.
D. Region B has a higher total fertility rate with lower life expectancies than Region A.

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47. The most accurate explanation among the options provided below for the reason of why do
populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity?
A. Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
B. Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
C. Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations.
D. Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur.
48. Carbon dioxide is important in our atmosphere because it is required for photosynthesis and traps
some heat, keeping the Earth warm. However, human produced carbon dioxide is a problem because
it primary concerns:
A. Increasing carbon dioxide concentration in the oceans.
B. Leads to higher global warming.
C. Disrupts the natural cycling of other greenhouse gases
D. Causes uncontrolled photosynthesis.
49. Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations
increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic growth
model equation for the wolf population, dN/dt = rN, which factor accounts for the effect of the moose
𝑑𝑁 (𝐾−𝑁)
population? (Hint. (𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑝𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑧𝑒 𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑟 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒) 𝑑𝑡 = 𝑟𝑁 )
𝐾

A. r C. rN
B. N D. K
50. The first incubation period of HIV is characterized by a duration of
A. 20 years before all the symptoms appear in well-nourished people.
B. 2 weeks to produce enough antibodies.
C. 3-12 weeks when mild symptoms are manifested.
D. 2-3 years for the progress of infection to AIDS.

THE END!!!

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