22-09-2024

9610ZMD801235240008 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The radius of the earth is 4 times that of the moon and its mass is 80 times that of the moon. If the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth is 10 m/sec2, then acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of the moon will be :-

(1) 1 m/sec2
(2) 2 m/sec2
(3) 3 m/sec2
(4) 4 m/sec2

2) Two concentric shells have masses M and m and their radius are R and r respectively, where R >
r. If x be the distance from the common centre, then what is the gravitational potential at a point for
which r < x < R ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the centre of earth and
the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become :-

(1) 10 h
(2) 80 h
(3) 40 h
(4) 20 h

4) Radius of the earth is R. If a body is taken to a height 3R from the surface of the earth than
change in potential energy will be :-

(1) 3mgR

(2)
mgR
(3) mgR
(4)
mgR

5) If the radius of earth reduces by 4% and density remains same then escape velocity will-

(1) reduce by 2%
(2) increase by 2%
(3) reduce by 4%
(4) increase by 4%

6) The magnitudes of gravitational field at distances r1 and r2 from the centre of a uniform sphere of
radius R and mass M are F1 and F2 respectively. Then-

(1)
, if r1 < R and r2 < R

(2)
, if r1 < R and r2 < R
(3) All of the above
(4) None of the above

7) Mass density of a solid sphere is ρ. Radius of the sphere is R. The gravitational field at a distance
r from the centre of the sphere inside it is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) In the given figure there is a hollow sphere. Then on which points, gravitational potential due to

the sphere will be same ?

(1) O, A, B, C
(2) O, A, B
(3) O, B
(4) No where

9) Two wires of the same material, have radii and lengths are both is the ratio 1 : 2. If the extensions
produced are equal, what is the ratio of loads ?
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

10) Compressibility per unit atm. pressure of water is 'σ' and if due to pressure P (in atm) there is
decrement in volume, find change is volume (V - volume)

(1) σ P / V
(2) σ PV
(3) σ / PV
(4) σ V / P

11) An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then, the

velocity v of the fluid is :-

(1) 3.0 m/s

(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s

12) Two small spheres of radii r and 4r move downward through a viscous liquid with the same
terminal velocity. The ratio of the viscous forces acting on them is ?

(1) 1:2
(2) 4:1
(3) 1:16
(4) 1:4

13) Two bodies having same mass m each are placed at a distance r gravitational force between
them is F. If 75% mass of the body is transfer to the second body and distance between them
becomes half then gravitational force between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) F

14) The maximum and minimum distances of a comet from the sun are 8 × 1012 m and 1.6 × 1012m. If
its velocity when nearest to the sun is 60 m/s, what will be its velocity in m/s when it is farthest :
(1) 12
(2) 60
(3) 112
(4) 6

15) The orbital angular momentum of satellite revolving at a distance r from the centre is L. If the
distance is increased to 4r then new angular momentum will be :-

(1) L
(2) 2 L

(3)

(4) 4L

16) In a gravitational field, the gravitational potential is given by, (J/kg). The gravitational
field intensity at point (2, 0, 3) m is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A wire of area of cross-section 10–6 m2 is increased in length by 0.1%. The tension produced in
wire is 1000 N. The Youngs modulus of wire is :-

(1) 1012 N/m2

(2) 1011 N/m2
(3) 1010 N/m2
(4) 10 N/m2

18) A capacitor of capacity C has reactance X. If capacitance and frequency become double then
reactance will be

(1) 4X
(2) X/2
(3) X/4
(4) 2X

19) The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as
The average power in watts consumed in the circuit is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Consider the following two statements regarding electromagnetic wave

A : The electric field and the magnetic field have equal maximum value.
B : The electric energy and magnetic energy have equal average values.

(1) Both A & B are true

(2) A is false but B is true
(3) B is false but A is true
(4) Both A & B are false

21) If in a circuit current lags behind emf by π/2. Then it is a/an

(1) resistor circuit

(2) capacitor
(3) inductor circuit
(4) CR circuit

22) A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 volts is connected across R and C as shown in figure. The voltage
across R and C as shown in figure. The voltage across R is 12 volt. The voltage across C is

(1) 8 V
(2) 16 V
(3) 10 V
(4) not possible to determine unless values of R and C are given.

23) In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the
voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively
(1) 100 V, 2.0 A
(2) 220 V, 2.2 A
(3) 150 V, 2.2 A
(4) 220 V, 2.0 A

24) If current I1 = 3A sin ωt and I2 = 4A cos ωt, then I3 is :-

(1) 5A sin (ωt + 53°)

(2) 5A sin (ωt + 37°)
(3) 5A sin (ωt + 45°)
(4) 5A sin (ωt + 30°)

25)

Current in AC ckt is i = i1 sinωt + i2cosωt. It r.m.s. value is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The phase relationship between current and voltage in a pure resistive circuit best represented
by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) Q-factor can be increased by having a coil of :-

(1) Large inductance, small ohmic resistance

(2) Large inductance, large ohmic resistance
(3) Small inductance, large ohmic resistance
(4) Small inductance, small ohmic resistance

28) To establish an instantaneous displacement current of I ampere in the space between the plates

of a parallel plate capacitor of farad, the value of is

(1) 2I

(2)

(3)

(4) I

29)

Maxwell's modified form of Ampere's Circuital law is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) In an electromagnetic wave, at any instant the electric field was found to oscillate with an
amplitude of 18 V/m. The magnitude of oscillating magnetic field will be :

(1) 4 × 10–6 T
(2) 6 × 10–8 T
(3) 9 × 10–9 T
(4) 11 × 10–11 T

31) Find the direction of vibration of Electric field if vibration of magnetic field is in positive x-axis
and propagation of em wave is along positive y-axis.

(1) – ve x-axis
(2) + ve y-axis
(3) + ve z-axis
(4) – ve z-axis

32) For an EM Wave,

0
E = E sin 12 × 106 [Z - 2 × 108 t]
in a medium, then its refractive index is

(1) 2/3
(2) 3/2
(3) 4/3
(4) 5/3

33) Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves ?

(1) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and
(2)
same time
(3) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the
(4)
direction of propagation of wave

34) In an electromagnetic wave the average energy density associated with magnetic field will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The frequency order for γ-rays(a), X-rays (b) and UV-rays (c) is given as :-

(1) b > a > c

(2) a > b > c
(3) c > b > a
(4) a > c > b

SECTION-B

1) A stone is dropped from height 'h' reaches to Earth surface in 1 sec. If the same stone taken to
Moon and dropped freely from same height then it will reach the surface of the Moon in the time
(The 'g' of Moon is 1/6 times of Earth):–
(1) second
(2) 9 second
(3) second
(4) 6 second

2) Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of the distance. Then, the time
period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to :

(1) Rn
(2) R(n+1)/2
(3) R(n–1)/2
(4) R–n

3) Eight equal drops of water each of radius r = 2 mm are falling through air with a terminal velocity
of 16 cm/s. The eight drops combine to form a big drop. The terminal velocity of the bigger drop will
be :

(1) 16 cm/s
(2) 32 cm/s
(3) 64 cm/s
(4) 30 cm/s

4) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's modulli of steel and brass wires in the figure are, a, b and

c respectively. Then the corresponding ratio of increase in their length would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two identical blocks of ice float in water as shown. Then :-

(1) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since the pressure acts on a smaller bottom area.
(2) Block B displaces a greater volume of water since the pressure is less on its bottom.
(3) The two blocks displace equal volumes of water since they have the same weight.
(4) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since its submerged end is lower in the water.

6) Find net 'FG' on any one mass of the given figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Two drops of equal radius are falling through air with a steady velocity of 5 cm/s. If the two drops
coalesce, then its terminal velocity will be –

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) Diameter of two limbs of a U-tube are 2 mm and 5 mm, and surface tension is 70 dyne/cm, if
water density is 1000 kg/m3 and g = 9.8 m/s2, then water level difference in both the tubes will be :-

(1) 8.4 m
(2) 8.4 cm
(3) 84 cm
(4) 0.84 cm

9) Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used
for communication?

(1) R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 35 µF
(2) R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45 µF
(3) R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30 µF
(4) R = 25 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45 µF

10) When 100 volt DC is applied across a solenoid, a current of 1.0 amp flows in it. When 100 volt
AC is applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5 amp. If the frequency of the AC source is
50 Hz the impedance and inductance of the solenoid are
(1) 200 ohm and 0.55 henry
(2) 100 ohm and 0.86 henry
(3) 200 ohm and 1.0 henry
(4) 100 ohm and 0.93 henry

11) If v = v0 sinωt and I = I0 cos , calculate phase difference between 'v' and 'I' :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In given circuit applied voltage V = 50 sin (100πt) volt and ammeter reading is 2A then

calculate value of L.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the x-direction.
At a particular point in space and time , What is at this point ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) none of these

14)

For a plane electromagnetic wave, the magnetic field at a point x and time t is B(x, t) = [1.2 × 10–7
sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011t) ]T.
The instantaneous electric field E corresponding to B is (Given, speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s)

(1)
E(x, t) = [–36 sin (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011t) ]
(2)
E(x, t) = [36 sin (1 × 103 x + 0.5 × 1011t) ]

(3)
E(x, t) = [36 sin (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011t) ]

(4)
E(x, t) = [36 sin (1 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011t) ]

15) Efficiency of a 720 W bulb is 3% then peak value of electric field produced by it at 3m distance:

(1) 12 V/m

(2)

(3)
(4) 6V/m

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Assertion : The free gaseous Cr atom has six unpaired electrons.

Reason : Half-filled s-orbital has greater stability.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

2) Statement-I : Atomic spectrum is discontinuous spectrum.

Statement-II : Energy of electron decreases when electron transits from a higher orbit to lower
orbit.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

3) In H-atom, energy of electron is determined by :-

(1) only n

(2) n,

(3) n, , m
(4) all the four quantum numbers

4) Calculate the maximum number of electrons in 4f orbitals ?

(1) 5
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 7

5) Assertion : Molality of the solution does not change with temperature.

Reason : Molarity of the solution change with temperature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

6) Statement-I :- Mass of one molecule of CH4 is 16 amu.

Statement-II :- Mass percentage of carbon in CH4 is 80%.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-II is correct, statement-I is incorrect
(4) Both statement are wrong

7) The law of multiple proportions is illustrated by which pair of compounds in the following ?

(1) sodium chloride and sodium bromide

(2) water and heavy water
(3) sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
(4) magnesium hydroxide and magnesium oxide

8)

Which of the following plot between probability density ψ2(r) and distance r of the electron from the
nucleus for 2s orbit is correct -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) If V.D. of a gaseous substance is 32 then its molecular weight will be :-

(1) 32
(2) 16
(3) 64
(4) 48

10) The fraction of volume occupied by the nucleus with respect to the total volume of an atom is :

(1) 10–15
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–30
(4) 10–10

11) Ernest Rutherford's scattering experiment demonstrated the existence of :

(1) alpha particle

(2) neutron
(3) electron
(4) nucleus

12) The ratio of the energy of a photon of wavelength 3000 Å to that of a photon of wavelength 6000
Å is :

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 3

(4)

13) What is the energy of photons with a wavelength of 434 nm?

(1) 2.76 × 105 kJ/mol
(2) 2.76 × 102 kJ/mol
(3) 2.76 × 10–1 kJ/mol
(4) 2.76 × 10–4 kJ/mol

14) The energy required to break one mole of hydrogen-hydrogen bonds in H2 is 436 kJ. What is the
longest wavelength of light with sufficient energy to break a single hydrogen-hydrogen bond?

(1) 122 nm
(2) 132 nm
(3) 274 nm
(4) 656 nm

15) In the following transition which statement is correct?

(1) E3→1 = E3→2 – E2→1

(2) λ3 = λ1 + λ2
(3) ν3 = ν2 + ν1
(4) All of these

16) Which of the following transition will have a wavelength different than that observed in rest of
the transitions?

(1) H-atoms, transition from 3rd level to 1st level.

(2) He-ion, transition from 5th excited state to 1st excited state.
(3) Li2+ ion, transition from 9th level to 3rd level.
(4) Be+3 ion, transition from 11th excited state to 3rd level.

17) If atomic mass of is assumed to be 150 units then atomic mass of will be :

(1) 175 units

(2) 180 units
(3) 200 units
(4) 150 units

18) According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is :

(1) 25 (h/π)
(2) 1.0 (h/π)
(3) 10 (h/π)
(4) 2.5 (h/π)

19) An electron in an atom jumps between bohr's orbit in such a way that its kinetic energy changes

from x to . Find the change observed in potential energy considering atom as single e¯ species :
(1)

(2)

(3) x
(4) 6x

20) When electrons are de-excited from nth orbit of hydrogen atoms to ground state, 15 spectral lines
are formed. The shortest wavelength among these will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) During an experiment an α-particle and a proton are accelerated by same potential difference,
their de Broglie wavelength ratio will be :
(Take mass of proton = mass of neutron)

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3)
(4)

22) The de Broglie wavelength of an object of mass 33g moving with a velocity of 200 ms–1 is of the
order of :

(1) 10–31 m
(2) 10–34 m
(3) 10–37 m
(4) 10–41 m

23) Orbital angular momentum of 3s and 3p are:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) How many radial nodes does a 3d-orbital possess?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

25) If the atomic mass of sodium is 23, the number of moles in 46 g of sodium is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 2.3
(4) 4.6

26) A gaseous mixture contains CO2(g) and N2O(g) in 2:5 ratio by mass. The ratio of the number of
molecules of CO2(g) and N2O (g) is:

(1) 5 : 2
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 5 : 4

27) If two moles of an ideal gas at 546 K occupies a volume of 44.8 litres, the pressure must be :

(1) 2 atm
(2) 3 atm
(3) 4 atm
(4) 1 atm

28) Which of the following will contain same number of atoms as 20 g of calcium?

(1) 24 g magnesium
(2) 12 g carbon
(3) 8 g oxygen gas
(4) 16 g oxygen atoms

29) Total number of protons, neutrons and electrons present in 14 mg of 6C14 is:
(Take NA = 6 × 1023)

(1) 1.2 × 1022

(2) 1.2 × 1025
(3) 7.2 × 1021
(4) 1.08 × 1022

30) What mass of the compound CrO3 (M = 100.0) contains 4.5 × 1023 oxygen atoms?

(1) 2.25 g
(2) 12.0 g
(3) 25.0 g
(4) 75.0 g

31) In the reaction 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3 what will be the number of moles of product formed?
Starting from 2 moles of A, 1.2 moles of B and 1.44 moles of C.

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 4.64
(4) 0.48

32) According to the equation

SnO2 + 2H2 → Sn+ 2H2O
What volume of hydrogen, measured at 1 atm and 273 K, is required to react with 2.00 g of SnO2?
[Sn= 50]

(1) 0.00133 L
(2) 0.00265 L
(3) 0.595 L
(4) 1.093 L

33) The empirical formula of a compound of molecular mass 120 is CH2O. The molecular formula of
the compound is:

(1) C2H4O2
(2) C4H8O4
(3) C3H6O3
(4) All of these

34) Each 9.4 gm of a compound contains 7.2 gm carbon, 0.6 gm hydrogen and rest oxygen. The
empirical formula of the compound is:

(1) C3H3O
(2) C6H3O
(3) C6H6O
(4) C3H6O2

35) A chloride salt of Rhenium contains 63.6% Re by mass. What is its empirical formula? [Re= 186]

(1) ReCl
(2) ReCl2
(3) ReCl3
(4) ReCl5

SECTION-B
1) Assertion : A spectral line will be seen for a 2px – 2py transition in Hydrogen.
Reason : Energy is released in the form of waves of light when the electron drops from 2px to 2py
orbital in Hydrogen.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

2)

Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List (Metal ions) List (Magnetic moment)

a Cr3+ i

b Fe2+ ii

c Ni2+ iii

d Mn2+ iv

v
The correct matching is :
(1) a= i b= iii c= v d= iv
(2) a= ii b= iii c= v d= i
(3) a= iv b= iii c= v d= i
(4) a= iv b= v c= iii d= i

3) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) 2s (P) n = 4, ℓ = 2, m = 0

(B) 2pz (Q) n = 4, ℓ = 2,m = –2 or + 2

(C) (R) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0

(D) (S) n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0
(1) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

4)

The ratio of Ionisation energies of Li+2 and Be+3 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Assertion (A) :- Mass of 1 gram molecule of H2SO4 is 98 gm.

Reason (R) :- One gram atom contains NA atoms.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

6) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(P) (A) 3s

(Q) (B) 2s

(R) (C) 2p

(S) (D) 1s

(1) (P) - D, (Q) - B, (R) - C, (S) - A

(2) (P) - A, (Q) - C, (R) - B, (S) - D
(3) (P) - D, (Q) - C, (R) - B, (S) - A
(4) (P) - A, (Q) - B, (R) - C, (S) - D

7) Equivalent weight of Ca+2 is :-

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 8
(4) 15

8) Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment led to the conclusion that :

(1) Mass and energy are related

(2) The mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in the nucleus
(3) Neutrons are present in the nucleus
(4) Atoms are electrically neutral

9) The approximate size of the nucleus of is :

(1) 3 fm
(2) 4 fm
(3) 5 fm
(4) 2 fm

10) A photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas and then emits two photons. One photon has a
wavelength of 496 nm then the wavelength of second photon in nm is:

(1) 759
(2) 859
(3) 95
(4) 65

11) The greater the energy of a photon, the :

(1) longer the wavelength higher the frequency.

(2) longer the wavelength lower the frequency.
(3) shorter the wavelength higher the frequency.
(4) shorter the wavelength lower the frequency.

12) For H-atom, the energy required for the removal of electron from various sub-shells is given as
under :

The order of the energies would be :

(1) E1, E2, E3

(2) E3 > E2 > E1
(3) E1 = E2 = E3
(4) None of these

13) A substance absorbs electromagnetic radiations of wavelength 12.3 nm and then emits another
electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 24.6 nm. If ratio of number of photons absorbed to number
of photons emitted is 2:1 then ratio of energy absorbed to energy emitted will be :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

14) If the velocity of an electron in 1st orbit of H-atom is u, what will be the velocity of electron in
3rd orbit of Li+2 ?

(1) u

(2)

(3) 3u
(4) 9u

15) 1021 molecules are removed from 200 mg of CO2. The moles of CO2 left are :

(1) 2.88 × 10–3

(2) 28.2 × 10–3
(3) 288 × 10–3
(4) 28.8 × 103

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Identify the group of bacteria which having complex cell wall, lives in a most harsh conditions?

(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Eubacteria
(3) Archaebacteria
(4) Mycobacteria

2) Kingdom protista includes :-

(1) Unicellular prokaryotes

(2) Multicellular prokaryotes
(3) Unicellular eukaryotes
(4) Multicellular eukaryotes

3) Bacteria found in extreme salty areas are called :-

(1) Thermoacidophiles
(2) Halophiles
(3) Methanogens
(4) Cynobacteria

4) Which disease is not caused by virus -

(1) Jacob disease

(2) Mumps
(3) Herpes
(4) Influenza

5) Methanogens are present in rumens of -

(1) Humans
(2) Buffalo
(3) Dog
(4) Cat

6) Sexual reproduction is absent in :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Zygomycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes

7) Diatoms have :-

(1) Silica in cell wall

(2) True walls
(3) Pellicle
(4) Stiff cellulosic plate

8) Cell wall is not present in -

(1) Fungus
(2) Eubacteria
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Archaebacteria

9) Puff ball is a
(1) Fungus
(2) Alga
(3) Moss
(4) Pine cone

10) Which bacteria are utilized in Gober gas plant ?

(1) Methanogens
(2) Nitrifying bacteria
(3) Ammonifying bacteria
(4) Denitrifying bacteria

11) Identify A, B and C in given below diagram.

(1) A–leaves, B–stems, C–roots

(2) A–stems, B–leaves, C–roots
(3) A–stems, B–branches, C–leaves
(4) A–leaves, B–roots, C–stem

12) Which is not a moneran?

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Archaebacteria
(3) Slime mold
(4) Eubacteria

13) Members regarded as 'fungi imperfecti' are related to all of the following characteristics, except
:-

(1) Decomposition of litter

(2) Formation of conidia
(3) Aseptate and branched mycelium
(4) Help in mineral recycling

14) In five kingdom classification unicellular fungi yeast is placed in which kingdom

(1) Protista
(2) Monera
(3) Fungi
(4) Plantae

15)

Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in

(1) Mode of reproduction

(2) Cell wall structure
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Cell shape

16) Assertion: The archaebacteria can survive in harsh habitats.

Reason: These bacteria contain a different cell wall structure.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

17)

Identify the following figure :-

(1) Aspergillus-An ascomycete

(2) Agaricus-An ascomycete
(3) Agaricus-A basidiomycete
(4) Mucor-A phycomycete

18) Discovery of which of the following hormone is related to fungus and a herring fish respectively
:-

(1) Auxin and NAA

(2) Ethylene and cytokinin
(3) Auxin and 2, 4-D
(4) Gibberellin and kinetin

19) Which of the following is required for synthesis of auxin ?

(1) Boron
(2) Manganese
(3) Copper
(4) Zinc

20) Which of the following hormone is responsible for increasing yield of sugarcane as much as 20
tonnes per acre

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Gibberellins

21) Select the incorrect pair ?

(1) Auxin → Coleoptile of Oat seedling

(2) Gibberellins → Foolish seedling disease
(3) Cytokinin → Delay in leaf senescence
(4) Ethylene → Apical Dominance

22) Primary CO2 fixation product in C3 and C4 plant respectively is

(1) 3-PGA and Malic acid

(2) 3-PGA and OAA
(3) OAA and 3-PGA
(4) OAA and Malic acid

23) Which one is the correct summary equation of photosynthesis ?

(1) C6H12O6 + 6CO2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

(2) C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O → 6CO2 + 12H2O + energy

(3)
6CO2 + 6H2O → 6O2 + C6H12O6

(4)
6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

24) The membranous system of chloroplast is responsible for –

(1) Trapping light energy but not ATP and NADPH2 formation
(2) Trapping light energy and also for fixation of CO2
(3) For ATP and NADPH2 formation but not for light trapping
(4) For light capturing and also for NADPH2 and ATP formation

25) Which of the following radioactive oxygen was used to detect the source of oxygen in
photosynthesis
(1) O12
(2) O16
(3) O18
(4) O15

26) Which of the following is obtained from H2O during photosynthesis :-

(1) Oxygen
(2) Carbon
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

27) The experimental material that has largely been responsible for making rapid advances in
research on photosynthesis is

(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Spinach leaf
(3) Chlorella
(4) Hydrilla

28) The balance between CO2 and O2 is brought about by

(1) Transpiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) C4 pathway
(4) Photorespiration

29) During photosynthesis

(1) Both CO2 and water get oxidized

(2) Both CO2 and water get reduced
(3) Water is reduced and CO2 is oxidized
(4) Carbon dioxide gets reduced and water get oxidised

30) Choose correct option for chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP formation in chloroplasts.
(a) NADP reductase is located on lumen side of the thylakoid membrane.
(b) Proton gradient across the membrane is generated due to pumping of protons as well as
photolysis of water.
(c) Proton gradient breaks when protons move passively through F0 particle.
(d) Energy is not used to pump protons from stroma side to lumen side.

(1) c & d
(2) a & b
(3) b & c
(4) a & d
31) Which one is correct for C4 plants ?

Mesophyll Bundle Sheath

(1) PEPcase C4–Cycle RUBisCO C3–Cycle

(2) PEPcase Calvin Cycle RUBisCO C4–Cycle

(3) RUBisCO C4–Cycle PEPcase C3–Cycle

(4) RUBisCO C2–Cycle PEPcase C3–Cycle

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Assertion : PSII supply electrons continuously.

Reason : The splitting of water is associated with the PS II, water is split into H+, [O] and electrons.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Assertion: Chlorophyll 'a' is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.
Reason: The wavelength at which there is maximum absorption by chlorophyll 'a' i.e. in the blue and
the red region also show higher rate of photosynthesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

34) Which of the following statement is not correct regarding photosynthesis :-

(1) It is an anabolic process

(2) It is an exergonic process
(3) It is a redox process
(4) It is a physico-biochemical process

35) The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is

(1) PS II, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS I, ferredoxin

(2) PS I, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS II, ferredoxin
(3) PS I, ferredoxin, NADP
(4) PS I, ferredoxin, PS II

SECTION-B
1) Cyanobacteria exhibit a unique phenomenon called "blooms," which refers to:

(1) Reproduction through spores

(2) Sudden increase in population due to favourable conditions
(3) Formation of endospores for survival
(4) Formation of heterocysts

2) In the above given figure, identify the structure A and B:

(1) A – Mucilagenous sheath, B – Heterocyst

(2) A – Heterocyst, B – Mucilagenous sheath
(3) A – Mucilagenous sheath, B – Cell wall
(4) A – Mucilagenous sheath, B – Cell membrane

3) Which one of the following matches is correct ?

Sexual
(1) Alternaria reproduction Deuteromycetes
absent

Reproduction by
(2) Mucor Ascomycetes
Conjugation

(3) Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes

Aseptate
(4) Phytophthora Basidiomycetes
mycelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
4) In given diagram of bacteriophage identify A, B, C and D :-

(1) A-Head, B-Sheath, C-Collar, D-Tail fibre

(2) A-Head, B-Tail fibre, C-Sheath, D-Collar
(3) A-Head, B-Collar, C-Tail fibre, D-Sheath
(4) A-Head, B-Collar, C-Sheath, D-Tail fibre

5) Identify the four categories of bacteria marked as A, B, C and D based on their shapes :-

(1) A = Spirilla, B = Cocci, C = Vibrio, D = Bacilli

(2) A = Bacilli, B = Cocci, C = Vibrio, D = Spirilla
(3) A = Vibrio, B = Bacilli, C = Cocci, D = Spirilla
(4) A = Cocci, B = Bacilli, C = Spirilla, D = Vibrio

6) Statement-I :- The protistan cell body contains a well defined nucleus and other membrane-
bound organelles.
Statement-II :- The slime mould spores possess true walls and survive for many years, even under
adverse conditions.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

7) Assertion : Deuteromycetes are known imperfect fungi.

Reason : Sexual reproduction is absent in deuteromycetes.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
8) Following figure is a member of :–

(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

9) Assertion :- Photorespiration does not take place in C4 plants.

Reason :- They have Kranz anatomy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statement
is not correct?

(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight
(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
C3 plants responds to higher temperature with enhanced photosynthesis while C4
(3)
plants have much lower temperature optimum
(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 – enriched atmosphere for higher yield

11) Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D select the right option for two correct
statements :-
(A) Z-scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PS I only.
(B) Only PS I is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation.
(C) Cyclic Photophosphorylation results into sysnthesis of ATP and NADPH2.
(D) Stroma lamellae lack PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme.
Option :

(1) C and D
(2) B and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and C

12) During light reactions of photosynthesis, which of the following phenomenon is observed during
cyclic photophosphorylation as well as noncyclic photophosphorylation ?

(1) Formation of ATP

(2) Release of O2
(3) Involvement of both pigment system I and pigment system II system.
(4) Formation of NADPH + H+

13) Choose the correct combinations of labelling in Calvin cycle :–

(1) a—RuBP, b—Triose phosphate, c—PGA

(2) a—PGA, b—RuBP, c—Triose phosphate
(3) a—PGA, b—Triose phosphate, c—RuBP
(4) a—RuBP, b—PGA, c—Triose phosphate

14) Select a correct statement :-

(1) Chemiosmosis explains the formation of NADPH+H+ during photophosphorylation

(2) 12-NADPH2 and 18ATP are formed during single C3-cycle.
Cyclic photophosphorylation probably takes place to meet the difference in number of ATP and
(3)
NADPH2 used during dark reaction
In C4 cycle primary CO2 fixation occurs in Bundle sheath cells whereas final fixation occurs in
(4)
mesophyll cells

15) Identify A, B, C and D in the Hatch and Slack pathway shown below :-
(1) A=CO2, B=Regeneration of RuBP, C=C3 acid, D=C4 acid
(2) A=HCO3 , B = Regeneration, C=C4 acid, D=C4 acid
–

(3) A=CO2, B=Regeneration of RuBP, C=C4 acid, D=C3 acid

(4) A=HCO3 , B=Regeneration, C=Malic acid, D=Pyruvic acid
–

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world.
Statement II : Photorespiration does not occur in C4 plants.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

2) Which one is correct ?

(1) The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
(2) Protons are removed from the lumen for the formation of NADPH+H+.
(3) The splitting of water is associated with PSI.
(4) Most of the photosynthesis takes place in the blue and green region.

3) Minerals involved in photolysis of water is :-

(1) Mn, Cl, Ca
(2) Mg, Fe, Mn
(3) Mn, Fe, Ca
(4) N, P, K

4) The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because :-

(1) Stomata are more in number in mesophyll cell

(2) Size of Stomatal pore is small
(3) RuBisCO shows only carboxylase activity
(4) More amount of water is utilized

5) During light reactions of photosynthesis, which of the following phenomenon is observed during
cyclic photophosphorylation as well as noncyclic photophosphorylation ?

(1) Formation of ATP

(2) Release of O2
(3) Involvement of both pigment system I and pigment system II system.
(4) Formation of NADPH2

6) What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side, to bend toward the source of
light as it grows?

(1) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis

(2) Green plants seek light because they are phototropic
(3) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster
(4) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there

7) When one molecule of sucrose is fermented to alcohol or lactic acid, what is the net gain of ATP?

(1) 4 ATP
(2) 2 ATP
(3) 8 ATP
(4) 72 ATP

8) Electron transport system occurs in :-

(1) Outer membrane of mitochondria

(2) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(3) Matrix of mitochondria
(4) Stroma

9) How many ATP are produced from one molecule of Acetyl Co-A ?

(1) 8 ATP
(2) 10 ATP
(3) 12 ATP
(4) 14 ATP

10) R.Q. is less than one if the respiratory substrate is:-

(1) Organic acids

(2) Fats and protein
(3) Sucrose
(4) Glucose

11) The 5 carbon organic acid of Krebs cycle, is :-

(1) Oxaloacetic acid

(2) Citric acid
(3) α-Ketoglutaric acid
(4) Succinic acid

12) Which of the following substrate is used in protoplasmic respiration?

(1) Fat
(2) Carbohydrate
(3) Protein
(4) All the above

13) Which of the following is important in electron transport system ?

(1) Ubiquinone
(2) Acetyl CoA
(3) Tricarboxylic acid
(4) Ferricyanide

14) Assertion :- Breaking down processes within the living organism is anabolism and synthesis is
catabolism.
Reason :- The proteins would be degraded by proteases and the individual amino acids (after
deamination) depending on their structure would enter the pathway at some stage within the Kreb's
cycle or even as pyruvate or acetyl CoA.

(1) A and R both are correct.

(2) A and R both are incorrect.
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect, R is correct.

15) Final Decarboxylation in Krebs cycle occur between–

(1) Citric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid

(2) α-ketoglutaric acid and succinic acid
(3) Succinic acid and malic acid
(4) Malic acid and oxalo acetic acid

16) How many ATP will be produced during the production of 1 molecule of Acetyl Co-A from 1
molecule of pyruvic acid through substrate level phosphorylation ?

(1) 3 ATP
(2) 5 ATP
(3) 8 ATP
(4) None of the above

17) Which of the following processes occur during conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA ?

(1) Decarboxylation of acetyl CoA

(2) Reduction of coenzyme NAD+
(3) Reduction of pyruvic acid
(4) Oxidation of coenzyme NAD+

18) The aerobic respiration yields

(1) 8NADH2, 2FADH2 , 2ATP

(2) 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 38ATP
(3) 12NADH2 , 30ATP, H2O
(4) 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 2GTP, 2ATP

19) The stress hormone that helps plant response to drought is :-

(1) Auxins
(2) Ethylene
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin

20) Consider the following statements.

I. The basis to the phenomenon of growth is formation of new protoplasm.
II. Growth is maximum is zone of cell elongation.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Statement I is true, but II is false

(2) Statement I is false, but II is true
(3) Statement I and II are true
(4) Statement I and II are false

21)

Seed plants are all :-

(1) Dioecious
(2) Monoecious
(3) Homosporous
(4) Heterosporous

22) Which of the following is true for alternation of generation?

(1) The sporophyte, undergoes syngamy to produce spores.

(2) The gametophyte, undergoes syngamy to produce spores.
(3) The sporophyte, undergoes meiosis to produce spores.
(4) The gametophyte, undergoes meiosis to produce gametes.

23) Pyrenoids are composed of

(1) Starch and protein

(2) Protein and lipids
(3) Starch and lipids
(4) Lipids and vitamins

24) A bryophyte, used as packing material for transhipment of living material

(1) Marchantia-liverwort
(2) Funaria-moss
(3) Sphagnum-moss
(4) Sphagnum-liverwort

25) Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having :-

(1) Cambium
(2) Vessels
(3) Seeds
(4) Motile Sperms

26) Which of the following pteridophytes where heterospory initiate & its member of lycopsida ?

(1) Salvinia
(2) Selaginella
(3) Lycopodium
(4) All of these

27) Which of the following groups of marine algae is used as food?

(1) Chlorella, Volvox and Gracilaria

(2) Porphyrya, Laminaria and Sargassum
(3) Laminaria, Sargassum and Gracilaria
(4) Porphyra, Sargassum and Chalmydomons
28) Bryophytes are:-

(1) Sciophytes
(2) Heliopillous
(3) Halophytes
(4) Xerophytes

29) Motile stages are not found in life cycle of :-

(1) Red Algae & green Algae

(2) Red Algae & brown Algae
(3) Red Algae & blue green Algae
(4) Green Algae & brown Algae

30) Which of the following contains chlorophyll-c?

(1) Kelps, Diatoms, Dinoflagellates

(2) Brown algae, Euglenoids, Diatoms
(3) Diatoms, Dinoflagellates, B.G.A
(4) Green algae, Brown algae, Diatoms

31)

Haploid, diploid and triploid conditions can be traced respectively in -

(1) Egg, Nucellus, Endosperm

(2) Antipodal, Egg, Endosperm
(3) Nucellus, Endosperm, Synergids
(4) Antipodal, Synergids, Endosperm

32) Thallophyta & Bryophyta are correctly termed as-

(1) Phanerogames
(2) Cryptogames
(3) Non-vascular cryptogames
(4) Vascular cryptogames

33) The four sketch (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of organism. Which
one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct stored food and class.
 Name of Stored
Class
Organism Food
(1) (d) Nostoc Leucosine Myxophyceae
(2) (a) Fucus Mannitol Chlorophyceae
(3) (b) Volvox Starch Phaeophyceae
Floridean
(4) (c) Polysiphonia Rhodophyceae
starch
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Which bryophyte is known as peat

(1) Sphagnum
(2) Riccia
(3) Funaria
(4) Marchantia

35) First vascular land plant is :-

(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Thallophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

SECTION-B
1) Number of oxygen molecules required during glycolysis of one glucose molecule is :-

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) zero

2) Match the following for PGR.

(1) (A-iii) (B-iv) (C-i) (D-ii)

(2) (A-i) (B-iii) (C-ii) (D-iv)
(3) (A-iv) (B-ii) (C-iii) (D-i)
(4) (A-ii) (B-i) (C-iv) (D-iii)

3)

Match the column

Column-I Column-II
(A) Link reaction (i) Unicellular eukaryotes
Succinate
(B) (ii) Mitochondrial matrix
dehydrogenase
(C) Fermentation (iii) RQ 1.33
(D) Krebs cycle (iv) Inner Membrane of mitochondria
Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic
(E) Malic acid (v)
acid

Option:-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(1) iv v i ii iii

(2) ii iv v i iii

(3) v i iv ii iii

(4) v iv i ii iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
4)

Read the following statements with respect to Krebs cycle and select the correct option :-
(a) First stable product is 3C compound
(b) At three steps NAD+ is reduced
(c) GTP is produced when succinyl CoA is converted to succinic acid

(d) Citric acid is the first stable product

(1) a, b & c are correct
(2) b,c, & d are correct
(3) Only a is correct
(4) a, b & d are correct

5) Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?

+
(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD is reduced to FADH2
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric
(3)
acid
(4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+ H+

6) In which of the following step of glycolysis, ATP is utilized ?

(1) DHAP → biphospho glyceric acid

(2) 3 phosphoglyceric acid → 2 phosphoglycerate
(3) Fructose 6 phosphate → fructose 1, 6 biphosphate
(4) Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate → DHAP and PGAL

7) How many ATP will be produced during the production of two molecule of acetyl Co-A from 2
molecule of pyruvic acid ?

(1) 6 ATP
(2) 5 ATP
(3) 3 ATP
(4) 8 ATP

8) The cortex of a plant is taken as explant and cultured on a nutrient medium in a tissue culture lab.
After few day an undifferentiated mass cell called callus develops, which is the result of

(1) Differentiation
(2) Dediffrentiation
(3) Rediffrentiation
(4) Both (1) and (3)

9) Which statement is provide correct information regarding to AGR and RGR of A and B leaf.
(1) Both are contain same AGR and RGR
(2) A and B leaf are contain same AGR but B leaf is contain high RGR as compared to A leaf
(3) A and B leaf are contain same AGR but A leaf is contain high RGR as compared to B leaf
(4) Both contain same RGR but different AGR

10) Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation just prior to
flowering in beet ?

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Gibberellin

11) Identify the bryophytes marked as A and B:

(1) (A) = Male Sphagnum , (B) = Female Sphagnum

(2) (A) = Female Marchantia , (B) = Male Marchantia
(3) (A) = Male Marchantia , (B) = Female Marchantia
(4) (A) = Female Sphagnum , (B) = Male Sphagnum

12) Pteropsida includes :

(1) Equisetum and Psilotum

(2) Lycopodium and Adiantum
(3) Selaginella and Pteris
(4) Pteris and Adiantum

13) Asexual spores in brown algae are :-

(1) Multiflagellates, pear shaped with laterally attached flagella
(2) Multiflagellates, kidney shaped with apically attached flagella
(3) Biflagellates, pear shaped with laterally attached flagella
(4) Biflagellates, kidney shaped with apically attached flagella

14) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

A Carrageen (i) Brown algae

B Algin (ii) Red algae

C Agar-agar (iii) Gelidium

(iv) Gracilaria
(1) A = (ii), B = (iii, iv), C = (iv)
(2) A = (i), B (ii, iii), (C) = (iv)
(3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii, iv)
(4) A = (i, ii), B = (iii), C = (iv)

15) Assertion-A : Chlorella and Spirulina are used as food supplements by space travellers.
Reason-R : These are unicellular green algae

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 3 2 3 4 1 4 3 1 3 4 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 4 1 2 2 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 4 1 2 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 2 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 3 2 3 1 1 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 1 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 4 3 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 2 4 4 3 1 3 2 4 3 1 1 1 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 4 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 4 3 4

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 3 1 4 1 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 3 1 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 1 4 2 3 3 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) g =

2)

3)

⇒ T2 = T1 × =5×
⇒ T2 = 5 × 8 = 40 h

4)

ΔU = Uf – Ui = –

ΔU =

5)

Ve =

⇒
escape speed reduces by 4%.

6)

Inside F ∝ r and outside F ∝

7)

8) Gravitational potential is same inside and surface of hollow sphere.

 9) Y = ,F=

10) K=

⇒ ΔV = σPV

11) Volume flowing per sec in left tube

= volume flowing per sec in 1st branch tube
+ volume flowing per sec in 2nd branch tube
Av1= Av2 + 1.5 Av
A × 3 = A × 1.5 + 1.5Av

∴ v = 1 m/s.

12) By stoke's law

viscous force F = 6πηrν
For same liquid η = constant
and velocity ν is same

F∝r⇒

13)

F'

14)

By conservation of angular momentum mvr = constant

vmin × rmax = vmax × rmin

∴ = 12 m/s

15) L =
L∝

16)
 =

17)

⇒ Y = 1012 N/m2

18)

∴
Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

19) P = Vrms Irms cosϕ

20) (A) Both are in same phase but E0 ≠ B0

(B) <UE> = <UB>

21)

in inductive circuit current lags behind emf by π/2

22)

VC = 16 V

23) VL = VC thus circuit is in resonance condition

so Vapplied = VR = 220 V

24)

using KCL, I3 = I1 + I2
I3 = 3A sin ωt + 4A cos ωt
Let 3A = Rcosθ ...(i)
4A = Rsinθ ...(ii)
I3 = R sin (ωt + θ)
 where R = = 5A

tan θ =

25)

26)

In the pure resistive circuit current and voltage both are in phase. Hence graph (3) is correct.

27) Q-factor is given by

So, for large quality factor the inductance should be large and resistance and capacitance must be
small.

28)

29)

30)

B= = 6 × 10–8 T

31)

gives direction of propagation.

32)

= E0 sin(12 × 106z – 24 × 1014t)

;

33) By theory
 34)

35) a > b > c

36)

37)

or

38) We know that,

vterminal ∝ r2

∴
when 8 drops combine, we have

8× =
⇒ r2 = 2r1

∴ ⇒ v2 = 64 cm/sec

39) ∵ Δℓ =

40) Mg = ρω Vdis g
 Vdis = (same for both A and B)

41) θ = 60°
F1 = F2
Fnet = F

Fnet =

42)

vT ∝ r2 ∴

or ....(1)
when 2 droplets of radius r coalesce the new radius R of the big drop will be given by

⇒ ...(2)
from equation (1) and (2)
v'T = (21/3)2 × 5 = 41/3 × 5 cm/sec.

43)

h=

=
= 0.84 cm

44)

Quality factor of an L-C-R circuit is given by,

Q1 = 10.35, Q2 = 9.43, Q3 = 22.77, Q4 = 7.30

Clearly Q3 is maximum of Q1, Q2, Q3 and Q4
Hence option (3) is better for tuning of an L-C-R circuit.
Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

45)

In case of DC, ω = 0 and hence Z = R

∴
For AC : Z = [R2 + (2πnL)2]1/2
or 200 = [(100)2 + (100 πL)2]1/2

Solving, we get; L = 0.55 henry

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

46) V = V0sinωt

47)

Vrms = Irms XL ∵ Reading of ammeter = Irms

XL = = = = 25 Ω

⇒ L= = = H

48)

So B will be in +Z direction.

B= = 2.18 × 10–8

49)

E0 = B0 = 1.2 × 10–7 × 3 × 108

= 36

E = 36sin (0.5 × 103 × 1.5 × 1011t)

50)

E0 = 12 V/m

CHEMISTRY
 51) Cr → [Ar]4s13d5
6 unpaired e–
due to high stability of half filled d - orbital

52) Fact

53) For single e- species energy is determined by principal (n) quantum no.

54)

In every orbital only 2e- are allowed

55) Volume dependent concentration terms depend on temperature

(Eg - molarity)

56) Mass of a molecule of CH4 is 16 amu

% of

57) Based on theory

58) (Fact) [As per mentioned in NCERT]

59)

M.wt = 2 × V. D = 2 × 32 = 64

60) Based on Rutherford model.

[Vatom = 1015 Vnucleus ⇒ ]

61) Based on Rutherford model.

62)

(as )

63)

64)
Energy required for 1 H2 molecule =

∴λ=

65)

66)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) ; (d) is different

67)

12 amu → 150 units

amu → units
So for oxygen atom

= 16 amu = = 200 units

68)

69)

70)
 71)

mα = 4mp
qα = 2qp

72)

73)

Orbital angular momentum

for 3s (ℓ = 0) ⇒ L = 0

and 3p (ℓ = 1) ⇒ L =

74)

Radial node = n – – 1
=3–2–1=0

75)

= 2 mol (n = w / molar mass)

76)

⇒ 2:5

77)

PV = nRT ⇒

78)

nCa = = 0.5 mol → 0.5 NA atoms

 = 0.25 mol O2 → 0.5 mol O-atom → 0.5 NA atoms

79)

80)

=
= 25g CrO3

81) Concept of L.R

82)

83)

=4=n
molecular formula = n × (Empirical formula)
= 4 × CH2O ⇒ C4H8O4

84)

→ Empirical formula

85)

Re : Cl =
= 0.34 : 1.02
=1:3
 86) for H - atom
energy : 2px = 2py
no energy will be released in transition and no spectral line will be observed

87) magnetic moment

=
n = no. of unpaired e–

88) n → principal quantum no.

ℓ → Azimuthal quantum no.
m → magnetic quantum no.

89) IE = – E1
E1 = – 13.6 × z2 n=1
2
= – 3.6 × (3) z=3
2
= –13.6 × (4) z=4

90)

As per theory of mole

91) 1s → zero node

2s → one node
p → dumbell shape
3s → 2 Nodes

92)

Eq. wt. of Ca =

93) Based on statement of Rutherford model.

94)

r = r0[A]1/3 [r0 = 1.33 × 10–15 m]

95)

⇒λ 759 nm

96)
 ⇒
E = hν ⇒ E ∝ ν
So, E↑ λ↓ ν↓

97) For single e- species energy is decided by value of n

So E1 = E2 = E3 (same n)

98)

=4:1

99)

100)

BIOLOGY-I

101) NCERT Pg. # 13

102) NCERT Pg. # 14

103) NCERT Pg. # 13

104) NCERT Pg. # 20, 21

105) NCERT Pg. # 13

106) NCERT Pg. # 18

107) NCERT Pg. # 14

111) NCERT XI Page # 31

 112)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 15

113) NCERT Pg. # 18

115) NCERT Pg. # 13

116) NCERT Page no. 13

117) NCERT Pg. # 17, fig. 2.5 (c)

120)

NCERT Pg. # 176

121) NCERT Pg. # 174, 176

122) NCERT XI Pg. # 142, 143

123) NCERT Pg. # 135

129) NCERT Pg. # 135

132)

NCERT XI Page No. # 145

133)

NCERT XI Pg. # 139

137)

NCERT Pg. # 13, fig. 2.2

A – Heterocyst
B – Mucilagenous sheath.

139)

NCERT XI Pg. # 20, fig.-2.6(b)

140) NCERT Pg. # 12, fig. 2.1

141)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14 & 15

 142) NCERT Pg. # 18

143) NCERT XI Pg # 17, fig. 2.5 (b)

144)

NCERT XI, Page # 137

145)

NCERT Page no. 149, 150

146)

NCERT XI Pg. # 139, 141

147)

NCERT XI Pg. # 212

148) NCERT Pg. # 144

150) NCERT Pg. # 146, fig. 11.9

BIOLOGY-II

152)

NCERT Pg. # 138,139, 140

158) NCERT Pg. # 159

160) NCERT Pg. # 164

161)

NCERT Pg. # 159

162) NCERT Pg. # 154

163) NCERT Pg. # 160

165) NCERT Pg. # 159

167) NCERT Pg. # 158

 169) NCERT Pg. # 177

173) NCERT XI Page No. # 32

174) NCERT Pg. # 29

176) NCERT Pg. # 32

177) NCERT Pg. # 26

178) NCERT Pg. # 30

179) NCERT Pg. # 26, 27

182) NCERT Pg. # 28

183) NCERT Pg. # 13, 25

184) NCERT Pg. # 30

185) NCERT XI Pg.# 30

186)

Hint : Oxygen is not required during glycolysis.

187) NCERT Pg. # 174

189) NCERT Pg. # 159

190) NCERT Pg. # 158

191) NCERT Pg. # 159

192) For the production of Acetyl Co-A link reaction required. In one link reaction 1-
NADPH2 synthesised.
So for 2-pyruvic acid
2NADPH2 synthesised
2NADPH2 = 6 ATP
 193)

NCERT XI Pg. # 245

194) NCERT Pg. # 171

195) NCERT Pg. # 176

196)

NCERT XI Pg. # 28 Fig - 3.2 (a, b)

197)

NCERT Pg. # 32

198) NCERT Pg. # 27

199) NCERT Pg. # 26