PPSC related MCQs
By Dr. NAJAM UDDIN
Oral Pathology (1–25)
1. The most common site for oral cancer is:
A) Tongue
B) Floor of the mouth
C) Buccal mucosa
D) Hard palate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The floor of the mouth is the most common site for squamous
cell carcinoma.
2. A white patch in the oral cavity that cannot be rubbed off is known as:
A) Leukoplakia
B) Lichen planus
C) Erythroplakia
D) Candidiasis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Leukoplakia refers to a white, non-removable patch, which may
indicate dysplasia or malignancy.
3. The most common benign tumor of the salivary glands is:
A) Pleomorphic adenoma
B) Warthin’s tumor
C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign salivary
gland tumor.
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of Lichen planus?
A) Desquamative gingivitis
B) Painful ulcers
C) Smooth, shiny lesions
D) Hyperkeratotic plaques
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lichen planus often presents with desquamative gingivitis and
characteristic white striae (Wickham’s striae).
5. The most common type of oral cancer is:
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Melanoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Sarcoma
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common malignant
neoplasm in the oral cavity.
6. The most common odontogenic cyst is:
A) Dentigerous cyst
B) Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
C) Radicular cyst
D) Odontogenic myxoma
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Radicular cysts are the most common type of odontogenic cyst.
7. A benign tumor with the appearance of a “fried-egg” on histopathology is
characteristic of:
A) Ameloblastoma
B) Odontoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Myxoma
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Odontomas are characterized by a histologic appearance of
well-differentiated odontogenic tissue.
8. The characteristic radiographic feature of a keratocystic odontogenic
tumor is:
A) Well-defined, multilocular radiolucency
B) Radiopaque mass
C) Unilocular radiolucency
D) Diffuse radiolucency
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Keratocystic odontogenic tumors appear as well-defined,
multilocular radiolucencies.
9. The most common cause of gingival hyperplasia is:
A) Hormonal changes
B) Medications (e.g., phenytoin)
C) Periodontal disease
D) Malnutrition
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Medications such as phenytoin, cyclosporine, and calcium
channel blockers are common causes of gingival hyperplasia.
10. The main histological feature of squamous cell carcinoma is:
A) Keratin pearl formation
B) Mucin production
C) Fibrosis
D) Plasma cell infiltration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Keratin pearls are a hallmark of squamous cell carcinoma,
representing the differentiated nature of the tumor.
11. The most common viral infection associated with oral lesions is:
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Human papillomavirus
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Cytomegalovirus
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Herpes simplex virus causes painful vesicular lesions,
particularly around the lips (herpes labialis).
12. A “soap bubble” appearance on radiographs is characteristic of:
A) Ameloblastoma
B) Odontogenic myxoma
C) Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
D) Central giant cell granuloma
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Odontogenic myxomas often present as multilocular
radiolucencies with a soap bubble appearance.
13. The most common site for a mucocele is:
A) Lower lip
B) Hard palate
C) Tongue
D) Buccal mucosa
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mucoceles commonly develop on the lower lip due to trauma or
blockage of salivary gland ducts.
14. The characteristic appearance of “cotton wool” radiolucencies in the jaws
is seen in:
A) Paget’s disease of bone
B) Osteomalacia
C) Fibrous dysplasia
D) Osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Paget’s disease of bone presents with a characteristic “cotton
wool” appearance on radiographs.
15. The most common primary bone malignancy of the jaws is:
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Ewing’s sarcoma
C) Chondrosarcoma
D) Metastatic carcinoma
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone
tumor affecting the jaws.
16. A bluish discoloration in the oral mucosa due to the presence of
extravasated blood is known as:
A) Hematoma
B) Petechiae
C) Ecchymosis
D) Purpura
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A hematoma refers to localized bleeding within tissues,
resulting in bluish discoloration.
17. The most common location for a dentigerous cyst is:
A) Around the crown of an unerupted third molar
B) In the mandible near the symphysis
C) In the maxilla near the canine
D) At the apex of an infected tooth
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dentigerous cysts are most commonly associated with the
crown of an unerupted third molar.
18. Which of the following is characteristic of oral candidiasis?
A) White, removable plaque
B) Red, painful ulcers
C) Brown, velvety patches
D) Purple lesions
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Oral candidiasis presents as white, removable plaques, often
seen in immunocompromised individuals.
19. Which of the following is associated with a high risk of developing oral
cancer?
A) Smoking
B) Bruxism
C) Dental caries
D) Poor oral hygiene
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Smoking is a major risk factor for the development of oral
cancers, particularly squamous cell carcinoma.
20. A palatal lesion that is pink, well-circumscribed, and elevated is most
likely:
A) Oral fibroma
B) Melanoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Mucocele
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Oral fibromas are benign, pink, well-circumscribed, and typically
seen as firm lesions.
21. The characteristic radiographic feature of a central giant cell granuloma
is:
A) Multilocular radiolucency
B) Single radiopaque mass
C) Well-defined unilocular radiolucency
D) Ground glass appearance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Central giant cell granulomas typically appear as multilocular
radiolucencies on radiographs.
22. The most common cause of osteomyelitis in the jaws is:
A) Trauma
B) Bacterial infection
C) Viral infection
D) Fungal infection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bacterial infections, particularly Streptococcus and
Staphylococcus species, are the most common cause of osteomyelitis in the
jaws.
23. A benign tumor characterized by an overgrowth of bone and fibrous
tissue is called:
A) Osteoma
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Fibroma
D) Chondroma
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Osteomas are benign bone tumors that cause gradual
enlargement of the affected bone.
24. The presence of a “hairy” tongue is most commonly associated with:
A) Smoking
B) Poor oral hygiene
C) Vitamin B deficiency
D) Syions
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: “Hairy” tongue, characterized by elongated filiform papillae, is
often due to poor oral hygiene.
25. Which of the following is the most common primary malignant tumor of
the salivary glands?
A) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C) Pleomorphic adenoma
D) Warthin’s tumor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignant
tumor of the salivary glands.
Oral Pathology (26–50)
26. The most common location for a traumatic bone cyst is:
A) Mandible
B) Maxilla
C) Hard palate
D) Floor of the mouth
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Traumatic bone cysts are most commonly found in the
mandible, especially in the posterior regions.
27. The clinical feature of a cystic lesion of the maxilla that causes
displacement of the maxillary central incisors is likely:
A) Dentigerous cyst
B) Radicular cyst
C) Nasopalatine duct cyst
D) Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The nasopalatine duct cyst can cause displacement of the
maxillary central incisors due to its location near the incisive canal.
28. The histological feature that distinguishes an ameloblastoma from a
dentigerous cyst is:
A) Presence of columnar cells
B) The appearance of keratin pearls
C) Presence of odontogenic epithelium in a fibrous stroma
D) Presence of calcified material
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ameloblastomas exhibit columnar cells resembling ameloblasts,
whereas dentigerous cysts are lined by non-keratinized epithelium.
29. The most common odontogenic tumor is:
A) Ameloblastoma
B) Odontoma
C) Odontogenic myxoma
D) Pindborg tumor
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Odontomas are the most common benign odontogenic tumors
and are composed of a mixture of enamel and dentin.
30. A fibrous tissue overgrowth that often occurs in the gingiva as a response
to irritation is:
A) Pyogenic granuloma
B) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
C) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
D) Fibroma
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Peripheral ossifying fibromas are reactive gingival lesions that
often result from irritation or trauma.
31. Which of the following is a characteristic of Paget’s disease of bone?
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Decreased alkaline phosphatase levels
C) Thickening and enlargement of the affected bone
D) Increased risk of osteosarcoma
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Paget’s disease of bone is characterized by abnormal bone
remodeling, leading to thickened and enlarged bones.
32. The presence of “bull’s eye” or “target” lesions on the skin is suggestive
of:
A) Lichen planus
B) Erythema multiforme
C) Lupus erythematosus
D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Erythema multiforme presents with “bull’s eye” or “target”
lesions, commonly on the extremities and mucous membranes.
33. The oral manifestation most commonly associated with vitamin B12
deficiency is:
A) Glossitis
B) Leukoplakia
C) Candidiasis
D) Oral pigmentation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to glossitis, characterized by a
smooth, painful tongue.
34. The characteristic radiographic appearance of an osteosarcoma in the
jaw is:
A) Well-defined radiolucency
B) “Sunburst” pattern of bone spicules
C) Ground-glass appearance
D) Soap-bubble radiolucency
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Osteosarcoma often presents with a “sunburst” radiographic
pattern due to the radiating bone spicules.
35. The primary treatment for a keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KCOT) is:
A) Surgical enucleation
B) Curettage with peripheral ostectomy
C) Radiation therapy
D) Chemotherapy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Due to the aggressive nature of KCOTs and their high recurrence
rate, curettage with peripheral ostectomy is recommended.
36. The most common cause of halitosis is:
A) Dental caries
B) Gingivitis
C) Periodontal disease
D) Dry mouth
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Periodontal disease, characterized by the accumulation of
bacteria and plaque, is the most common cause of halitosis.
37. A soft, painless, elevated lesion that arises from the mucosa and contains
fluid is termed:
A) Cyst
B) Tumor
C) Vesicle
D) Papule
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled lesion that is typically less than 1
cm in size.
38. The most common location for oral candidiasis in immunocompromised
patients is:
A) Palate
B) Buccal mucosa
C) Tongue
D) Gingiva
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Oral candidiasis most commonly affects the tongue in
immunocompromised patients, presenting as white plaques.
39. Which of the following conditions is associated with multiple, painful,
shallow ulcers in the oral cavity?
A) Herpes simplex infection
B) Aphthous stomatitis
C) Erythema multiforme
D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Aphthous stomatitis (canker sores) presents with multiple,
painful, shallow ulcers, typically on non-keratinized mucosa.
40. A “strawberry tongue” is commonly seen in:
A) Scarlet fever
B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Strawberry tongue, characterized by a red and bumpy
appearance, is seen in both scarlet fever and Kawasaki disease.
41. Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of
multiple, non-tender, raised, dark lesions on the hard and soft palates?
A) Melanoma
B) Kaposi’s sarcoma
C) Focal melanosis
D) Oral melanotic macule
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly associated with HIV/AIDS,
presents with dark, raised lesions on the palate.
42. A condition characterized by the chronic ulceration of the oral mucosa
and the presence of white, lace-like striae is:
A) Oral lichen planus
B) Oral herpes simplex virus infection
C) Candidiasis
D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Oral lichen planus presents with white, lace-like striae
(Wickham’s striae) and chronic ulceration.
43. The most common presenting feature of acute leukemia in the oral cavity
is:
A) Gingival bleeding
B) Oral ulcerations
C) Xerostomia
D) Tongue swelling
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Gingival bleeding is often the first oral manifestation of acute
leukemia due to the infiltration of leukemic cells.
44. The most common site of metastasis in the oral cavity is:
A) Mandible
B) Maxilla
C) Tongue
D) Salivary glands
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The mandible is the most common site for metastatic tumors in
the oral cavity, often from breast, lung, and prostate cancers.
45. The presence of “bullous” lesions on the skin and mucous membranes is
a characteristic of:
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Lichen planus
C) Herpes simplex virus
D) Aphthous stomatitis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the formation of bullous
lesions on both the skin and mucous membranes.
46. The most common oral manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus
is:
A) Oral ulcers
B) Gingival bleeding
C) Salivary gland enlargement
D) White patches on the mucosa
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Oral ulcers are a common manifestation of systemic lupus
erythematosus, particularly in the form of painful lesions on non-keratinized
mucosa.
47. The most characteristic feature of a basal cell carcinoma is:
A) Pearly, raised lesion with telangiectasia
B) Non-healing ulcer
C) Bleeding lesion
D) Painless swelling
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Basal cell carcinoma often presents as a pearly, raised lesion
with visible blood vessels (telangiectasia).
48. Which of the following lesions is most commonly found in smokers?
A) Smokeless tobacco keratosis
B) Erythroplakia
C) Leukoplakia
D) Lichen planus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Leukoplakia is a white patch commonly associated with smoking
and tobacco use.
49. Which of the following oral conditions is associated with an increased risk
of developing esophageal cancer?
A) Oral candidiasis
B) Oral lichen planus
C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
D) Leukoplakia
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: GERD is associated with an increased risk of esophageal cancer
due to repeated acid reflux.
50. The most common odontogenic infection is:
A) Periapical abscess
B) Gingival abscess
C) Periodontal abscess
D) Osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Periapical abscesses, resulting from untreated dental caries or
trauma, are the most common type of odontogenic infection.
Best wishes
Dr. Najam uddin
