Write your Roll No.

and Name on this

slip only and not on the answer Book ISLIP ONLY immediately on receipt of this

Roll No. Tick mark on the right answer. There is

incorrect response.
Name.
Paper No... rt C, Part D, Part E

PART A(MCQ)

response?
1. Which of the following factors does not decrease surgical stress
(a) Minimal access techniques
(b) Epidural analgesia
(c) Minimization of Preoperative fasting
(d) Bed rest
the following is not a component of SIRS (systemic inflammatory
2. Which of
response syndrome):

(a) Temperature

(b) WBCcount

(c) Blood pressure

(d) Respiratory rate
P.T.0.
 2
7854A
except:
3 Massive transfusion results in all

(a) DIC

(6) Hypothenia

(c) Hypokalemia

(d) Hypercalcemia
reaction is:
4. True about febrile non haemolytic transfusion

(a) Occurs due to ABO incompatibility

(b) Steroids should begiven before transfusion

(c) Decreases by giving leuco depleted blood

(d) Isan uncommon complication of blood transfusion

5. Systemic vascular resistance is low in which type of shock?

(a) Cardiogenic

(b) Hypovolaemic

(c) Neurogenic
(d) Haemorrhagic shock

6. The electrolyte imbalance seen in postoperative period after thyroidectomy

(a) Hypokalemia

(b) Hypercalcaemia,

(c) Hypocalcaemia,

(d) Hypomagnesemia
7854A

7. "FAST" used in management of acute trauma stands for?

(a) Fast assessmnent with sonography in trauma

(b) Failed assessment with sonography in trauma

(c) Focused assessment with sonography in trauma

(d) Free fluid assessment with sonography in trauma

8 Black colour in triage tag is uscd for:

(a) Injuries that require immediate attention

(b) Injuries that require delayed attention

attention
(c) Injuries that require minimal
(d) Expectant management

9. Swelling that has a punctum is:

(a) Sebaceous cyst

(b) Lipoma

(c) Neurofibroma

(d) Dermoidcyst

Marjolins ulcer is:

10. False regarding
cell carcinoma
of squamous
(a) It is a type
scars
arises in burns and chronic
(b) It

growing
(c) It is slow
metastasis is common feature
(d) Lymphnode

PT
 7854A 4

11. Which of the following is a clinical feature of hernia?

(a) Compressibility

(b) Reducibility

(c) Positive transillumination

(d) Pulsatility

12. True regarding direct inguinal is:

(a) It emerges lateral to inferior epigastric artery

(b) It emerges medial to inferior epigastric artery

(c) Itemerges at point 4cm below and 1ateral to pubic tubercle

(d) Itemerges at point 4cm below and medial to pubic tubercle

13. The procedure which is not a type of laparoscopic hernia repair is

(a) Lichtenstein

(b) TAPP

(c) TEP

(d) IPOM

14. All of the following is considered as skin involvement in breast cancer except:

(a) Peau D Orange

(b) Dimpling

(c) Satellite nodules

(d) Ulceration
 7854A

,6 The distinctive characteristic of ffbroadenoma is:

(a) free mobility
(b) cystic consistency
(c) transilluminantion

(d) compressibility
16. Bloody nipple discharge may be seen in all
except:
(a) fibradenoma

(b) breast carcinoma

(c) duct papilloma

(d) duct ectasia

17. Paradoxical respiration is seen in:

(a) flail chest

(b) haemothorax

(c) cardiac tamponade

(d) tension pneumothorax

18. Murphys sign is seen in

(a) acute appendicitis

(b) acute cholecystitis

(c) chronic cholecystitis

(d) acute pyelonephritis

PT.0.
 6
7854A
following is not a feature of Charcots triad
19. Which of the

(a) pain

(b) jaundice
(c) fever
(d) gastrointestinal bleed
is used for treatment of
20. Oschner Sherren regimen
(a) acute appendicitis

(b) appendicular lump

(c) appendicular tumor

(d) appendicular perforation

21. Multiple bone fractures in

a newborn are seen in

(a) Scurvy
(b) Congenital Syphilis
(c) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(d) Morquio's syndrome
to
22. Rocker bottom foot deformity is due
(a) overcorrected clubfoot

(b) poliomyelitis

(c) congenital vertical talus

(d) Deformities of spine
23. Alberg-Schonberg disease is a type of
(a) osteopetrosis
(b) osteoporosis
(c) osteomalacia

(d) osteitis dessicans

 7854A

24. A Bennctt's fracture is difficult to

of the pull of maintain in areduced position mainly
because

(a) flexor pollicis longus

(b) flexor pollicis brevis
(c) xtensor pollicis brevis
(d) abductor pollicis longus

25. The earliest radiological change seen in cases of acute osteomyelitis is:
(a) Bony sclerosis

(b) Periosteal reaction

Loss of plane between soft tissue and muscle

(d) Sequestrum formation

26. Gold standard for diagnosis of osteoporosis is:

(a) Single-energy X-ray absorptiometry
(b) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry
(c) Digital X-Ray

(d) Ultrasonography

radial head. The patient developed

underwent excision of right
27. A25-year-old man hand. Most likely cause
is:
the right
extend the thumb and fingers of
inability to

interosseous nerve
anterior
Injury to the right
(a)
interosseous nerve
posterior
Injury to the
(b)
extensor
common
the
Injuryto the origin of
(C)
nerve palsy
(d) High radial PT:0.
 7R54A
Onion peel apearance is seen in?

(a) osteoclastoma
(b) Osteosarcoma

(c) Ewing's sarcoma

(d) Osteochondroma

29. The nerve involved in Carpal Tunnel Syndromne is:

(a) Median nerve

(b) Ulnar nerve

(c) Radial nerve

(d) Musculocutaneous nerve

30. Fracture shaft humerus commonly

results in injury to which nerve?
(a) Radial Nerve
(b) Median Nerve
(c) Ulnar Nerve
(d) Posterior
interosseous nerve
 (Thís question paper contains 2 printed pages.]

Sr. No. of Question Paper : 7854 Your Roll No..

Name of the Paper : Paper III SURGERY - I (PART B, C, D,E )
Name of the Course : 1| MBBS PART - I|(Annual) 2023 (0S
Annual : Annual

Duration 2½ Hours

Maximum Marks : 45

Instructions for Candidates

1. Write your Roll No. on the top immediately on receipt of this question
paper.
2. Allquestions to be attempted.
3. Use separate answer sheets for Part B, PartC. Part D. & Part E.

PART - B (3×3=9)

1. Write Short notes on:

1. Diagnosis andmanagement of acute fracture neck of femur

2. Pathophysiology of acute osteomyelitis

3. Describe the Clinical features and management of Developmental dysplasia

of hip in a 6 month old.

PART-C (4x3=12)

2. Write Short notes on:

1. How do you evaluate an unstable knee? Explain the various clinical methods.

PT.0.
7854 2

paraplegia
2. Discuss the classification and managementof Pott's

3. Carpal tunnel syndrome

4. Describe the clinical features, radiological features and management of Ewing's
Sarcoma

PART - D
(4x3=12)
3. Write short notes on:

1. Types of shock

2. Primary Survey in resuscitation of trauma patient

3. Describe the management of a patient presenting to the surgery emergency

with burns on the face, chest, back and both upper limbs with respiratory
distress.

4. Write down the clinical presentation and diagnostic work up of testicular

tumour.

PART - E (4x3=12)

4 Write short notes on:

1. Methods of sterilization of surgical instruments

2. Clinical features of intestinal obstruction

3. Types of gastrointestinal stoma

4. List important post splenectomy complications. Describe OPSI.

(100)
 v e r s i t y

Co
(This qucstion papcr contains 8 printed pages.)
Sr. No. of Question Paper : S104A
Name of the Paper : Paper III -SURGERY - I[PART - A (MCO)
Name of the Course : III MBBS PART -I1 (Annual) 2020
Annual : Annual
Duration : 30 minutes
Maximum Marks : 15

ctions for Candidates

Irite your Roll No. on the Attached SLIP ONLY immediately on receipt of this
uestion paper.
Bach question carries 1/2 mark. Tick mark on the right answer. There is
1/8mark negative marking for each incorrect response.

PART - A (MCQ)

1. High stepping gait is a feature of:

(a) CTEV

(b) CPN palsy

(c) TB hip
(d) Flat foot

2. A l-year-old boy is brought to the emergency with history of fever for two days,
Swelling around the hip and decreased movements of the hip. On examination, the
child keeps the right hip in flexion and cries on attempt of movements. The local
temperature is raised. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Septic arthritis of the hip.
(b) Fracture neck of femur.

(c) Perthes' disease.

(d) DDH

PT0.
 2
5104A 3
causes which type
of fracture? 5104A
3 Twisting force
7 Galcazzi fracture-dislocation is :
(a) Spiral ulna with dislocation of radial head
(a) Fracture of proximal third of
(b) Transverse dislocation of distal radio-ulnar joint
(b) Fracture of distal third of ulna with
(c) Comminuted dislocation of proximal
(c) Fracture of proximal third of radius with
radio-ulnar joint
(d) Segmental
dislocation of distal
EXCEPT: (d) Fracture of distal third of radius with
is seen in all, radio-ulnar joint
4. New bone formation
(a) Osteosarcoma
differentiated from structural scoliosis by the fact that
the :
8. Postural scoliosis
Osteomyelitis
(b) Acute Pyogenic (a) Postural curve disappears on lying down
(c) Multiple Myeloma (b) Structural curve is usually seen in the lumbar spine
(d) Fracture healing (c) The postural curve disappears on forward flexion
5 The Thomas test is used
to reveal (d) Structural curve disappears on correction of limb length discrepancy
(a) Flexiondeformity at the hip 9 Tenderness in the Anatomical Snuff Box is indicative of the fracture of:
hip
(b) Abduction deformity at the (a) Talus
(c) Adduction deformity at the hip (b) Scaphoid
the hip
(d) Internal rotation deformity at (c) Lunate
supracondylar fracture of humerus is (d) Navicular
6. Which of the following statement about
FALSE?
10. Acute Hematogenous Osteomyelitis most commonly startsat :
following fall on outstretched
(a) Commonly seen in children of 5-10years,
hand (a) Epiphysis
(b) Extension type is more common than flexion type
(b) Metaphysis
(c) Diaphysis
(c) Doing massage after this injury is contraindicated
(d) Joint space
(d) Open reduction and wire fixation is treatment of choice
 5104A
4
5104A
15. Optimal age for surgery for inguinal hernia ín a l
11. Looser's Zone is scen in
patients of': -month-old child is :
(a) At diagnosis
(a) Paget's disease
(b) Three months
(b) Hyperparathyroidism (c) Two ycars
(c) Osteomalacia
(d) Five years
(d) Osteoporosis 16. Consolidated Standards for Reporting
Trials (CONSORT] guidelines are used to
viability of the limb
because improve the quality of which type of research
dangerous to the studies?
Encircling plaster
casts can be (a) Case Series
12.
of:
(b) Randomized Controlled Trials
(a) Vascular compression
(c) Meta-analysis
following plaster application
(b) Joint stiffness (d) Case-control studies
reduction in plaster
(c) Loss of fracture 17. A 15-year-old girl presents with a unilateral
during setting of
plaster thyroid swelling, which is
(d) Exothermic reaction asymptomatic. Fine needle aspiration cytology reveals normal thyroid tissue and
ultrasound shows a uniform isoechoic mass. Thyroid
in the table :
function tests are as given
belongs to category of:
13. Marjolin Ulcer
carcinoma Test Value
(a) Basal cell Normal
range
(b) Squamous cellcarcinoma T3 32 80-230 ng/aL
T4 6
5-14 mcgldL
(c) Melanoma
TSH 25 0.1-5.0
(d) Atypical tuberculosis
mlU/L
Surgical Safety Checklist?
14. Which of the following
is NOT acomponent of The appropriate treatment for this girl is:
(a) Sign-in (a) Hemithyroidectomy
(b) Time-Out (b) Thyroxine
(c) Carbimazole
(c) Sign- Out
(d) Time-In
(d) Pituitary ablation
PT.O
 s104A
6
(systemic
inflammatory
22. Followinga surgical
S104A sepsis from SIRS period within: procedure,
18. Which of the
following
differentiates
reactionary hemorrhage occurs in
responsc syndrome)?
sourccof infection
(a) 24 hours postoperative
Identifiable
(a) (b) 3-4 days
> 10,000/ml
of neutrophils
(b) Presence
(c) 7-14 days
(c) Tachycardia > 120/min
(d) 1month
Hypothermia <97 °F
(d)
hypokalemia despite potassium
postoperative patient,
there is persistent 23. Spleen is best
19. In a Which of the following
supplementation.
may be responsible? identified by palpating:
(a) Right iliac fossa
and moving upwards
(a) Hyponatremia and medially with each breath
(b) The left
(b) Hypomagnesemia hypochondrium
(C) Left lumbar area and
(c) Hypocalcemia moving upwards to palpate the splenic notch
and its lower margin
(d) Hypophosphatemia
markers is useful in (d) Umbilical area - as the
of the following tumor enlarged spleen gets located here
estimation of which follicular carcinoma
of thyroid?
Preoperative
20. after surgery for
recurrence 24. The gold
monitoring for tumor standard for diagnosis of GERD is :
(a) Calcitonin (a) Barium swallow and
barium mneal study
(b) Thyroglobulin (b) 24-hour pH monitoring of
esophagus
Carcino-embryonic
antigen (CEA)
(c) (c) UGI endoscopy
fetoprotein (AFP)
(d) Alpha examination, he is
(a) Manometry
emergency. On
29-year-oldstab victim
is brought to the middle of right
21. A wound is present in the
easily. A S cm long controlling the 25. PSA levels are significantly influenced by all, EXCEPT :
oriented and can talk BEST step for
bleeding profusely.
The immediate
thigh and is (a) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
bleeding is :
the wound (b) 5 a reductase inhibitors
(a) Pressure on
(b) Immediate repair (c) Aspirin and statin intake
artery forceps
(c) Clamping with an (d) Digital rectal examination
(d) Elevation of the leg
 26 Unilateral clavdication in the thigh' and calf is manifestation of
which aterial segment?
(n) Aortoiliac
hstructi n nf
(b) liac
(c) Femopopliteal
(d) Antcrior tibial

27. Which of the following structures is prescrvcd during radical neck

(a) Vagus nerve dissection?
(b) Submandibular gland
(c) Stermocleidomastoid muscle
(d) Internal jugular vein

28. The normal value of Central Venous Pressure with zero reference point
axillary level is : at mid-
(a) 0-3 cm
(b) 5-8 cm
(c) 11-14 cm
(d) 15-20 cm

29. The diagnostic investigation of choice in a patient

with upper gastro-intestin al
bleeding is :
(a) Flexible endoscopy
(b) Ultrasonography
(c) CT scanning
(d) MRI

30. The preferred method of treating choledochal cyst is :

(a) Aspiration
(b) Marsupialization
(c) Internal drainage
(d) Excision

(800)
 (This question paper contains 2 printed pages.]

Sr. No. of Question Paper : 4323 Your Roll No.........ss

Name of the Papcr : Paper II - SURGERY - 1(PART B, C AND D)

Name of the Course : 11I MBBS PART - I|(Annual) 2019

Annual / Supplementary : Annual

Duration : 2½ Hours

Maximunm Marks : 45

Instructions for Candidates

1 Write your Roll No. on the top immediately on receipt of this question paper.
2. All questions to be attempted.
3 Use separate answer sheets for Part B, Part C and Part D.

PART - B

Write short notes on: (4x3=12)

1. Haemorrhage - pathophysiology, definitions / types,degree and classification.

2. The principles, effects and complications of diathermy.
3. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome and multiple organ dysfunction
syndrome.

4. Tuberculous cervical lymphadenitis.

PART -C

Write short notes on: (4x3=12)

1. Enteral nutrition - methods, complications.

PT.0.
entr

4323 2

2. Classification of severity and type of head injurics.

3. Fluid resuscitation of the burn paticnt.

4. Tumors of the parotid gland - clinical features, investigations andprinciples of

management.

PART - D

Write short notes on: (7x3=21)

1. Stages of fracture healing.

2. Gas Gangrene.

3. Ring Fixator.

4. Ewing's Sarcoma.

5. Wrist Drop.

6 Clinical features of median nerve palsy.

7. Non-Union of fractures and its management.

 prined pages.]
[This question paper contains 8
2133A
Sr. No. of Question Paper :
Name of the Paper Paper l- SURGERY - 1PART - A (MCQH
Name of the Course : IIMBBS PART-I1(Annual) 2018
:Annual
Annual /Supplementary
: 30 minutes

Marks : 15

pns for Candidates

immediately on receipt of
e your Roll No. on the Attached SLIP ONLY
question paper.
answer. There is
h question carries 1/2 mark. Tick mark on the right
mark negative marking for each incorrect response.

PART - A MCQ)

1 The most effective method to avoid gas gangrene infection in a contaminated

wound is :

{a) Anti-gas gangrene serum injection

(b) Penicillin G injection

(c) Wound irrigation and debridement

(d) Rapid suturing of the wound

2. Allof the following can cause hypercakaemia EXCEPT:

(a) Sarcoidosis

(b) Primary hyperparathyroidism

(c) Acute pancreatitis

(d) Metastatic bonchial carcinoma

PT.0.
 2133A 2 2133A 3
3. The following are clinical features of Horner's syndrome: 6. A man sustained burns over his chest and arms while working in a factory.
What is the % of burns he has sustained?
(a) Miosis
(a) 9%
(b) Convergence insufficiency of the affected eye
(b) 18%
forehead
(c) Increased sweating on the contralateral side of the
(c) 27%
(d) Exophthalmos
(d) 36%
anything
4. A55 year old patient with history of head trauma does not remember 7
about the mode of injury. He comes walking to-the casualty and is
seemingly What is the ideal caloric requirement during the post-operative period?
coherent, when during examination he becomes unconscious.
The diagnosis ,
(a) 20 kcal/kg/day
is:
(b) 25 kcal/kg/day
(a) Extradural hemorrhage with lucid interval
(c) 30 kcal/kg/day
(b) Subarachnoid hemorThage with lucid interval
{d) 35 kcal/kg/day
interval
(c) Intracranial hemorrhage with lucid
8. A patient presents with complaints of non-healing uBcers on the medial aspect
(d) Delayed rupture of intracerebral aneurysm of both his ankles since last l year. He is a vegetable vendor, and has to stand
for prolonged periods. On examination, there are dilated tortuous veins in
episodes of severe colicy right
A 40year old lady has history of recurrent both his lower limbs. What is the treatment for his ukcers?
distension and repeated episodes
sided abdominal pain along with abdominal
this episode started 24 hors back. (a) Split thickness skin grafting
of vomiting for the past 2 years but
Examination showed apulse of 90/min, with a blood
pressure of 110/70 mmHg. (b) Full thickness skin grafting
with
distension but is soft and non-tender
The abdomen shows central
exaggerated bowel sound. The x-ray of
the abdomen shoed dilated small (c) Bed test and limb elevation
diagnosis of subacute intestinal
bowel loops with multiple air fluid levels. A (d) Antibiotics and analgesics
treatment in this episode.
obstruction is made and settles on conservative
employed to diagnose the cause?
Which management strategy should be 9. Which of the following is NOT a phase in metabolic response to trauma?
hemicoBectomy and biopsy
(a) exploratory laparotomy with right (a) Nadir phase
(b) Barium enema (b) Ebb phase
(c) FBow phase
(c) Diagnostic laparoscopy
(d) Recovery phase
(d) Barium meal follow through
PIO.
 2133A
2133A EXCEPT :
low cardiac output 14. All of the following are types of surgical
following types of shock have a wounds EXCEPT:
10. Allof the
(a) Clean
(a) Hypovolacmic
(b) Clean contaminated
(b) Cardiogenic
(c) Obstructive (c) Dirty contaminated
(d) Distributive (d) Dirty
u. Reactionary haemorrhage : 15. Which of the following is an isotonic intra
venous fluid?
(a) Is seen during surgery (a) 3% saline solution
(b) Is seen within 24 hours after surgery (b) 5% dextrose solution
(c) Is seen after 7 days of surgery (c) 5% dextrose in saline solution
(d) Is seen after 14 days of surgery (d) 10% dextrose solution
surgery" in trauma include allof the following 16. Anti Diuretic Hormone (ADH) secretion is stimulated
12. The aims of "Damage control by:
EXCEPT:
(a) Stress of surgery/trauma
(a) Control bleeding
(b) Decrease in plasma osmolarity
(b) Control sepsis
(c) Increase in ECF volume
(c) Protect from further injury
(d) Alcohol
(d) Definitive repair
17. Increased Anion Gap Acidosis is seen in :
non-absorbable suture materials EXCEPT:
13. All of the following are
(a) Diabetes Mellitus
(a) Silk
(b) Uraemia
(b) Catgut
(c) Uretero-sigmoidostomy
(c) Linen
(d) Hypovolemic Shock
(d) Nylon
PI0.
 2133A
6
2133A 22. 'Saber Shin' is a clinícal
feature of:
scaphoid is through the :
18. The blood supply of the (a) Paget's disease
(a) Proximal poBe (b) Osteogenesis imperfect
(b) Tubercle (c) Achondroplasia
(d) Multiple exostoses
(c) Waist
23. Best method of treatment of fracture of
(d) Distal pole both bones of the forearm in a S year
old is:
except:
of scaphoid cast
19. All are features (a) Open reduction and fixation with rush nails
above elbow cast (b) External fixation
(a) It is an
holding position (c) Manipulation and POP cast application
kept in the tumbler
(b) The hand is
metacarpal heads (d) Massages
extends upto the
(c) The cast
extends upto the
24. The most common nerve involved in supracondylar
thumb, the cast fracture :
(d) In case of the (a) Median
interphalangeal joint
(b) Ulnar
the:
injury is usual at
20. A side swipe (c) Radial
(a) Knee (d) Musculocutaneous
(b) Elbow 25. Nutrition of a articular cartilage derived from (in adults) :
(c) Wrist (a) Surrounding soft tissues
(b) Nutrient artery of the bone
(d) Spine
by the fact that (c) Synovial fluid
differentiated from structural scoliosis
is
21. Postural scoliosis (d) Joint capsule
the:
disappears on lying down 26. The Thomas test is used to reveal :
(a) Postura! curve
usually seen in the lumbar
spine (a) Flexion deformity at the hip joint
(b) Structural curve is
(b) Abduction deformity at the hip
disappears on forward flexion
(c) The postural curve (c) Adduction deformity at the hip
length
disappears oncorrection of limb
(d) Structural curve (d) Internal rotation deformity at the hip
discrepancy
PI
 2133A

27. Nursemaid's elbow is:

(a) Elbow dislocation

(b) Radial head subluxation (Pulled elbow)

(c) Radial head racture
(d) Lateral epicondylitis

28. Major duct of submandibular gland is also called :

(a) Bartholin duct
(b) Gartner duct
(c) Stenson duct

(d) Wharton duct

29. The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the
the :
tongue is to

(a) Left submental lymph node

(b) Left and right submental lymph nodes
(c) Left submandibular lymph node
(d) Left and right submnandibular lymph nodes

30. A successful inferior alveolar nerve block will produce anesthesia of the:

(a) Lower lip

(b) Lower lip and mandibular teeth

(c) Lower iip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior mandibular
teeth

(d) Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the

anterior and buocal gingivae of he posterior mandibular teeth

(700)