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The document contains a series of mathematical and reasoning questions divided into two parts. Part I includes quantitative ability questions involving calculations, ratios, and logical reasoning, while Part II focuses on reasoning ability with statements, assumptions, and conclusions. The questions cover a range of topics including sets, interest calculations, and problem-solving scenarios.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
46 views55 pages

PLA

The document contains a series of mathematical and reasoning questions divided into two parts. Part I includes quantitative ability questions involving calculations, ratios, and logical reasoning, while Part II focuses on reasoning ability with statements, assumptions, and conclusions. The questions cover a range of topics including sets, interest calculations, and problem-solving scenarios.

Uploaded by

shivangi yadav
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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You are on page 1/ 55

Part I

1. If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 3, 4}, and C is the set consisting of all


the fractions whose numerators are in A and whose denomina-
tors are in B, what is the product of all of the numbers in C?

(A) 1/64 (B) 1/48 (C) 1/24 (D) 1/12

2. If x = 1 and x = −1/3 are roots of the equation mx2 –nx–1 = 0.


Determine the value of m and n.

(A) m = −3, n = −4 (B) m = −3, n = 1


(C) m = 3, n = 2 (D) More than one of the above

3. The value of log2 log2 log3 log3 273 is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

4. If the simple interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 5% per


annum is Rs. 50, what is the compound interest on the same
sum at the same rate and for the same time?

(A) Rs. 51.25 (B) Rs. 52 (C) Rs. 54.25 (D) Rs. 60

5. A bag contains 6 white and 4 red balls. Three balls are drawn
at random. What is the probability that one ball is red and the
other two are white?

(A) 3/10 (B) 1/12


(C) 1/2 (D) 7/12

1
6. Shyam invested certain amount in three different schemes A,
B and C with the rate of interest of 10% p.a., 12% p.a. and
15% p.a. respectively. If the total interest accrued in one year
was Rs. 3200 and the amount invested in Scheme C was 150%
of the amount invested in Scheme A and 240% of the amount
invested in Scheme B, what was the amount invested in Scheme
B?

(A) Rs. 5000 (B) Rs. 6500


(C) Rs. 8000 (D) Cannot be determined

7. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same


direction in which the train is going, at the rate of 2 kmph
and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds
respectively. The length of the train is

(A) 45 m (B) 50m


(C) 54m (D) 72m

8. In a two-digit number, the digit in the unit’s place is more


than twice the digit in ten’s place by 1. If the digits in the
unit’s place and the ten’s place are interchanged, difference
between the newly formed number and the original number is
less than the original number by 1. What is the original number?

(A) 25 (B) 37 (C) 49 (D) 52

9. If the radius of a circle is increased by 75%, then its


circumference will increase by

(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 100%

2
10. If x and y are integers such that x3 = y 2 , which of the following
could not be the value of y?

(A) −1 (B) 1 (C) 8 (D) 12

11. Ashok usually deposits the same amount of money each month
into a travel fund. This year he decided not to make any
contributions during November and December. To make the
same annual contribution that he had originally planned, by
what percent should he increase his monthly deposits from
January through October?

(A) 15% (B) 20%


(C) 30% (D) Insufficient data

12. A rectangular tank has a base that is 10 centimeters by 5


centimeters and a height of 20 centimeters. If the tank is half
full of water, by how many centimeters will the water level rise
if 325 cubic centimeters of water are poured into the tank?

(A) 3.25 (B) 4.25 (C) 6.5 (D) 9.5

13. If 1 12 cups molasses can be substituted for 1 cup of sugar in a


recipe, how many cups of molasses should be used in a recipe
requiring 1 12 cups of sugar?

(A) 5/2 (B) 4/3 (C) 9/4 (D) 7/5

14. Ramlal can do a job in 10 days. After working 3 days, he hires


a helper and the two complete the task in 5 days. How long
would it have taken the helper to complete the task alone?

(A) 20 days (B) 25 days


(C) 8 days (D) 16 days

3
15. A tank can be filled by tap A in 2 hours and tap B in 5 hours.
Tap C can empty the filled tank in 8 hours. If all the taps are
opened simultaneously, how long will it take to fill the tank
completely?

(A) 12 hours (B) 10/3 hours


(C) 40/30 hours (D) None of the above

4
Part II

Test of Reasoning Ability

Questions 16 – 17: In each question below, is given a


statement followed by two or three assumptions. An assumption
is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider
the statement along with the assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement. Then decide which of
the alternatives is the correct answer.

16. Statement: “Use Xlin cream for fair complexion” – an


advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. People like to use cream for fair complexion.
II. People are easily fooled.
III. People respond to advertisement.
(A) Only I is implicit.
(B) Both II and III are implicit.
(C) Both I and III are implicit.
(D) All are implicit.

17. Statement: Train fairs have been increased to meet the deficit.
Assumptions:
I. The present rates are very low.
II. If the rates are not increased, the deficit cannot be met.
(A) Only I is implicit.
(B) Only II is implicit.
(C) Both I and II are implicit.
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit.

5
Questions 18 – 19: In each question below are given two
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be absurd and decide which of the conclusions follows.

18. Statements:
Some sands are particles.
Some particles are glasses.

Conclusions:
I. Some glasses are definitely not particles.
II. Some glasses being sands is a possibility.

(A) Only I follows. (B) Only II follows.


(C) Both I and II follow. (D) Neither I nor II follow.

19. Statements:
Some chairs are made up of wood.
Some tables are made up of wood.

Conclusions:
I. All wooden things are either chairs or tables.
II. Some chairs are tables.

(A) Only I follows. (B) Only II follows.


(C) Both I and II follow. (D) Neither I nor II follow.

6
Questions 20 – 21: Each question given below has a statement
followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have
to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide
which of the two suggested courses of action logically follows for
pursuing.

20. Statement: Despite good economic progress of the country,


significant number of under nourished children has been ob-
served in the rural parts of the country.
Courses of Action
I. Government should increase wealth tax and Income tax and
use that money for upliftment of the deprived class.
II. Government should introduce schemes like free meals in
primary schools and make primary education compulsory.

(A) Only I follows. (B) Only II follows.


(C) Both I and II follow. (D) Neither I nor II follow.

21. Statement: Most of the children in country X are not able to get
education because they get employed to earn livelihood in their
childhood only.
Courses of Action
I. Education should be made optional for all children upto age
of 14.
II. Employment of children below the age of 14 year should be
banned.

(A) Only I follows. (B) Only II follows.


(C) Neither I nor II follow. (D) Both I and II follow.

7
Questions 22 – 23: Read the following passage carefully to
answer the given questions.
Seven friends Anu, Beena, Kanika, Mohini, Samina, Easther and
Rani study different disciplines such as Arts, Commerce, Science,
Engineering, Architecture, Management and Pharmacy, not nec-
essarily in the same order. Each of them belongs to a different
state viz., Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Kar-
nataka, Kerala, Chhattisgarh and Punjab, but not necessarily
in the same order. Kanika studies Engineering and does not be-
long to either Uttar Pradesh or Punjab. The one who belongs
to Chhattisgarh does not study Architecture or Pharmacy. Anu
belongs to Maharashtra. Samina belongs to Kerala and stud-
ies Science. The one who belongs to Andhra Pradesh studies
Commerce. Mohini studies Management and Rani studies Arts.
Beena belongs to Karnataka and does not study Architecture.
The one who studies Arts does not belong to Punjab.

22. Which of the following student and subject combination is


correct?

(A) Anu – Architecture (B) Easther – Pharmacy


(C) Beena – Commerce (D) None of these

23. Which of the following state and subject combination is/are cor-
rect?
I. Chhattisgarh – Engineering
II. Punjab – Pharmacy
III. Andhra Pradesh – Commerce
IV. Andhra Pradesh – Architecture

(A) I and II (B) II and III


(C) I and IV (D) I and III

8
24. On a shelf six volumes are placed by side labelled A, B, C, D, E
and F . Three volumes B, C and E have green covers while the
other volumes have yellow covers. A, D and B are new volumes
while the rest are old ones. A, C and B are law reports while
the rest are gazetteers. Which of the following volumes is green
covered, old and law report?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

25. In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’;
‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and ‘9a, 4d,
2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’. Which of the following
means ‘enmity’ in that language?

(A) 3a (B) 7c (C) 9a (D) 8b

Questions 26 – 27: Which makes the best comparison?

26. Love is to hate as valour is to

(A) Anger (B) Security


(C) Courage (D) Cowardice

27. Capricious : Reliability


(A) Heated : Boiling
(B) Extemporaneous : Predictability
(C) Arbitrary : Whimsicality
(D) Unreliable : Inhuman

9
28. The ratio of the age of a father to that of his son is 5:2. If the
product of their ages is 1000, then the father’s age (in year)
after 10 years will be

(A) 50 (B) 60 (C) 85 (D) 100

29. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A − B means A is the


sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Then which
of the following means that C is the son of M ?

(A) M − N x C + F (B) F − C + N x M
(C) N + M − F x C (D) M x N − C + F

30. Seethal and Ramlal both start from a point towards North.
Seethal turns to left after walking 10 km. Ramlal turns to right
after walking the same distance. Seethal waits for some time
and then walks another 5 km., whereas Ramlal walks only 3
km. They both then return to their respective South and walk
15 km. forward. How far is Seethal from Ramlal?

(A) 10 km. (B) 9 km.


(C) 12 km. (D) None of these

10
Part I
Test of Quantitative Ability

1. Three numbers are in the ratio of 4 : p : 7. The third number is


greater than the first one by 27. Find the value of p, if the sum of the
numbers is 135.

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

2. If -7 ≤ x ≤ 7 and 0 ≤ y ≤ 12, what is the greatest possible value of


y-x?

(A) -17 (B) 19 (C) -19 (D) 17

3. In a room there are some peacocks and some cats. If the total
number of eyes in the room is 1046 and total number of legs is
1500, what is the number of cats in the room?

(A) 80 (B) 296 (C) 67 (D) 227

4. Anshul gave 20% of his baseball cards to Suhash and 15% to


Pamy. If he still had 520 cards, how many did he have originally?

(A) 670 (B) 710 (C) 800 (D) 910

5. A square and an equilateral triangle each have sides of length 5.


What is the ratio of the area of the square to the area of the
triangle?

(A) 4/3 (B) 16/9 (C) √3/4 (D) 4√3/3

1
6. From 1994 to 1995 the sales of a book decreased by 80%. If the
sales in 1996 were the same as in 1994, by what percent did they
increase from 1995 to 1996?

(A) 100% (B) 200% (C) 120% (D) 400%

7. The total investment of three persons Arun, Barun, and Vijay is


Rs. 51,000. At the end of one year, Barun and Vijay got individual
shares of profit of Rs. 6,000 and Rs. 8,000, out of the total profit of
Rs. 15,000. Find the investment of Arun.

(A) Rs. 3,000 (B) Rs. 5,600 (C) Rs. 3,400 (D) Rs. 4,250

8. A sum of Rs. 44,000 is divided into three parts such that the
corresponding interest earned after 2 years, 3 years, and 6 years
may be equal. If the rates of simple interest are 6% p.a., 8% p.a.
and 6% p.a. respectively, what is the smallest part of the sum that
was lent?

(A) Rs. 8,000 (B) Rs. 9,500 (C) Rs. 6,000 (D) Rs. 7,500

9. A solution of 66 litres contains milk and water in the ratio of 7 : x.


If four litres of water is added to the solution, the ratio becomes
3 : 2, find the value of x.

(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

10. A and B take a work on contract for Rs. 3,000. A alone can do it in
12 days, whereas B alone can do it in 24 days. With the help of C
they finish out in 4 days. Find the wage of C.

(A) Rs. 1,000 (B) Rs. 1,200 (C) Rs. 1,500 (D) Rs. 1850
2
11. Three persons Sushil, Kamal and Ishika finished a work. Sushil
worked for 8 days, Kamal worked for 9 days, and Ishika for 10
days. Their wages per day were in the ratio 4 : 3: 2 and their total
wages for the work Rs. 2,370. Find Kamal’s wages per day.

(A) Rs. 810 (B) Rs. 120 (C) Rs. 90 (D) Rs. 187

12. Sohel can row at 18 km per hour in still water. If the speed of the
stream is 6 km per hour, then how long will Sohel take to row upto
a distance of 6 km and return to the starting point?

(A) 45 minutes (B) 50 minutes (C) 57 minutes (D) 52 minutes

13. There are twice as many girls as boys in an English class. If 30%
of the girls and 45% of the boys have already handed in their book
reports, what percent of the students have not yet handed in their
reports?

(A) 72.5% (B) 25% (C) 45% (D) 65%

14. If it is now June, what month will it be 400 months from now?

(A) January (B) April


(C) June (D) October

15. If A is 25 kilometers east of B, which is 12 kilometers south of C,


which is 9 kilometers west of D. How far is it, in kilometers, from
A to D?

(A) 20 (B) 5√34 (C) 5√41 (D) 52

3
Part II

Test of Reasoning Ability

Questions 16 – 17: In each question below, is given a statement followed


by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement along
with the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in
the statement. Then decide which of the alternatives is the correct answer.

16. Statement:
During pre-harvest kharif season, the government has decided to
release vast quantity of food grains from FCI.

Assumptions:
I. There may be a shortage of food grains in the market during
this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to produce kharif
crop immediately after harvest.

(A) None is implicit. (B) Only I and II are implicit.


(C) Only II and III are implicit. (D) All are implicit.

17. Statement:
To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the
production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.

Assumptions:
I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these
countries.

(A) All are implicit. (B) Only II and III are implicit.
(C) Only I and II are implicit. (D) None is implicit.

4
Questions 18 – 19: Each question below, is followed by two arguments
numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the given arguments is a
‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answer
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(B) If only argument II is strong.
(C) If either I or II is strong.
(D) If neither I nor II is strong.

18. Should educated people work in villages?

Arguments:
I. Yes, because they can revolutionize agriculture and
revamp atmosphere.
II. No, the educated should be employed in cities.

19. Should number of public holidays be reduced?

Arguments:
I. No, there is going to be hue and cry.
II. Yes, it must be done as early as possible.

Questions 20 – 21: In each question below, is given a statement followed


by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or
administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further
action in regard to the problems, policy, etc. on the basis of the
information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the given suggested courses of
action logically follows for pursuing. Give answer:
(A) If only I and II follows.
(B) If only II and III follows.
(C) If either I or III follows.
(D) None of these.

5
20. A large number of tribal inhabitants are found to have been suffering
from various diseases due to exposure to radioactive waste near the
Uranium mine.

Courses of action:
I. The government should immediately close down the
mine.
II. The government should immediately take steps to save
local people from exposure to radioactive waste.
III. The tribals should be rehabilitated at a safer place.

21. The world will have to feed more than 10 billion people by 2050 of
whom half will be in Asia and will eat rice as their staple.

Courses of action:
I. More funds should immediately be allocated for rice
research to help ensure adequate supplies.
II. The people in Asia should be encouraged to change their
food habit.
III. The rice should be grown in countries outside Asia to
meet the demand.

In question 22, a statement is given followed by four inferential


conclusions. Identify the inferential conclusion which can be drawn,
without assuming anything in addition to the information giver.

22. Statement:
High rate of population growth is linked closely with the fact of
dwindling area under forest cover.

Conclusion:
(A) Forests are inimical to human growth.
(B) Population growth leads to demand for more land.
(C) There is less danger to human population from wild animals.
(D) Decreasing space of forest cover acts as incentive for humans
to reproduce at a faster rate.
6
23. Child : Family :: _______ : _________

(A) Mother : Baby


(B) Bird : Nest
(C) Pond : Fish
(D) Tentacle : Octopus

24. In the following series, find the number which is wrong.

215, 28, 63, 126, 7, 343

(A) 343 (B) 215


(C) 126 (D) 7

25. If ‘light’ is called ‘morning’, ‘morning’ is called ‘dark’, ‘dark’ is


called ‘night’, ‘night’ is called ‘sunshine’ and ‘sunshine’ is called
‘dusk’, when do we sleep?

(A) morning (B) sunshine


(C) night (D) None of these

26. A and B start together from one point. They walk 10 km towards
North. A turns left and covers 5 km whereas B turns right and covers
3 km. A turns left again and covers 15 km whereas B turns right and
covers his 15 km. How far is A from B?

(A) 48 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D) None of these

7
27. Which one would be a meaningful order of the following?

I. Mother II. Child


III. Milk IV. Cry
V. Smile

(A) I II III IV V (B) II IV I III V


(C) II IV III I V (D) I V II IV III

28. Pointing to Mary, Bob said, “Her mother’s only daughter is my


daughter.” How is Bob related to John?

(A) Brother (B) Uncle


(C) Father (D) None of these

29. Starting from the fifth letter from the left, if twelve letters are written
in reverse order, then which letter will be the seventh to the left of
the fourteenth letter from the right?
(A) N (B) H (C) O (D) None of these

30. Which one of the areas marked I-VII represents the urban hard
working who are not educated?

(A) IV (B) III (C) II (D) None of these

8
Part I

Test of quantitative ability

1. If each side of a square is increased by 40%, find the percentage change


in its area.

(A) 44% (B) 80% (C) 84% (D) 96%

2. If 2 boys can shovel a driveway in 4 hours, how many minutes will it


take 6 boys to do the job?

(A) 96 (B) 66 (C) 80 (D) 52

3. There are two numbers. H.C.F. (highest common factor) of the two
numbers is 12, and their L.C.M. (least common multiple) is 504. If the
first number is 72, find the second number.

(A) 91 (B) 88 (C) 86 (D) 84

4. Two trains P and Q start simultaneously in opposite directions from two


points X and Y and arrive at their destinations 36 and 25 hours
respectively after their meeting each other. At what speed does the
second train Q need to travel if the first train P travels at 100 km/h?

(A) 120 (B) 125 (C) 115 (D) 110

5. Nisha is trying to collect all the cards in a special commemorative set of


baseball cards. She currently has exactly 1/4 of the cards in that set.
When she gets 10 more cards, she will then have 1/3 of the cards. How
many cards are there in the set?

(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 120 (D) 240

1
6. In 2019, Ravi read 10 English books and 7 Kannada books. In 2020, he
read twice as many Kannada books as English books. If 60% of the
books that he read during the two years were Kannada, how many books
did he read in 2020?

(A) 16 (B) 26 (C) 32 (D) 48

7. A jar contains only red, white, and blue marbles. The number of red
marbles is 5/6 the number of white ones, and the number of white ones is
3/5 the number of blue ones. If there are 420 marbles in all, how many of
them are blue?

(A) 180 (B) 360 (C) 280 (D) 200

8. P : Q : R is in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. How much money will R get out of


Rs. 1155?

(A) 211 (B) 221 (C) 231 (D) 241

9. If x2 - y2 = 30 and x - y = 10, what is the average of x and y?

(A) 1.5 (B) 3.5 (C) 5 (D) 6

10. Kusuma completed exercises 6-20 on her math review sheet in 30


minutes. At this rate, how long, in minutes, will it take her to complete
exercises 29-57?

(A) 56 (B) 58 (C) 60 (D) 62

11. After Sushil gave 85 marbles to Asima and 60 to Suhana, she still had
355 left. What percent of his marbles did Sushil give away?

(A) 37 (B) 31 (C) 32 (D) 29

2
12. In 15 years, P will be twice as old as Q was 15 years ago. If P is now 14
years older than Q, the present age of Q is:

(A) 29 (B) 39 (C) 49 (D) 59

13. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'READING' be
arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

(A) 720 (B) 480 (C) 360 (D) 120

14. Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 minutes whereas pipe A along with pipe B
can fill the same tank in 6 minutes. In how many minutes can pipe B
alone fill the tank?

(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 18 (D) 21

15. Krish has 4 times as many books as Jatin and 5 times as many as Isha. If
Isha has more than 40 books, what is the least number of books that
Krish could have?

(A) 200 (B) 220 (C) 210 (D) 205

3
Part II

Test of Reasoning Ability

The following questions (16 - 17) consist of statements that may have cause
and effect relationship, can be the effects of the same or independent causes or
may be independent causes without having any relationship. You have to read
the statements carefully and choose the right answer.

16. Statements:

Statement I: There is a sharp decline in the production of rice this season.


Statement II: The government has decided to increase the import of rice.

(A) Statement II is the cause, and statement I is its effect


(B) Statement I is the cause, and statement II is its effect
(C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
(D) Both the statements are independent causes

17. Statements:

Statement I: People living in the coastal areas have been evacuated to


safer places in the last few days.
Statement II: The government has rushed in relief supplies for the people
living in the affected coastal areas.

(A) Statement II is the cause, and statement I is its effect


(B) Statement I is the cause, and statement II is its effect
(C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
(D) Both the statements are effects of some common cause

4
In the following questions (18 - 19), each question is followed by two
statements. You are required to analyze the data of both the statements and
decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. After
analyzing the statements, you have to choose the appropriate answer out of
the four options.

18. How many brothers does Siva have?

Statement I: Siva's father has three children.


Statement II: Siva has one sister.

(A) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient


(B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient
(C) Either I or II is sufficient
(D) Both I and II are needed

19. Hari, Rishav, Harish, and Husain are friends. Who is the heaviest?

Statement I: Rishav is heavier than Hari and Husain, but lighter than
Harish.
Statement II: Hari is lighter than Rishav and Harish, but heavier than
Husain.

(A) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient


(B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient
(C) Either I or II is sufficient
(D) Both I and II are needed

5
20. Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence.

1. Cow
2. Grass
3. Milk
4. Curd
5. Butter

(A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 (B) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
(C) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

21. Pointing to a man, Nitu said, "He is the only son of the mother of my
sister's brother." How is that person related to Nitu?

(A) Father (B) Maternal Uncle


(C) Brother (D) None of these

In the following question 22, a statement is followed by two assumptions. You


have to read and understand the statement and assumptions, and decide which
of the assumption is implicit in the statement.

22. Statement:

The efforts to boost the tourist numbers in Kashmir are being made by
the state government.

Assumptions:
I. The special fares are being announced in the railway.
II. For the last few years, tourism has fallen in Kashmir.

A. Only I is implicit.
B. Only II is implicit.
C. Neither I nor II is implicit.
D. Both I and II are implicit.

6
In the following question 23, the two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

23. Statements:

I. All fish are a tortoise.


II. No tortoise is a crocodile.

Conclusions:

I. No crocodile is a fish.
II. No fish is a crocodile.

(A) Only conclusion I follows


(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Both I and II follow

24. Match the following:

a. A mob of i. birds
b. A regiment of ii. wolves
c. A flock of iii. soldiers
d. A pack of iv. ruffians

(A) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i


(B) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(C) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(D) None of the above

7
25. Select the odd one out.

(A) Flute (B) Guitar (C) Sitar (D) Violin

26. If in a certain language, MUMBAI is coded as NVNCBJ, how is


BANGALORE coded in that language?

(A) CBOHBMPSF (C) CBOHBMSPF


(B) OBCHBMPSF (D) CBOBHMPSF

27. Harish walks 5 km toward the South and then walks 4 km to his left.
Finally, he turns to his right and walks 6 km. In which direction is he
from the starting point?

(A) South (B) South-West (C) South-East (D) West

28. Find the best analogy: Eyes : Tears

(A) Sea : Water (C) Heart : Artery

(B) Volcano : Lava (D) Hunger : Bread

29. 13, 26, 16, 32, 22, 44, __, which number should come next?

(A) 34 (B) 36 (C) 38 (D) 40

30. 0, 11, 13, 26, 51, 85, 152, __, which number should come next?

(A) 237 (B) 247 (C) 257 (D) 267

8
1. Answer all questions.
2. All questions carry equal marks.

Part A: Test of Quantitative Ability

1. The product of two numbers is 1014 and their ratio is 2/3. Then the
sum of the numbers is –

A) 80
B) 45
C) 65
D) 115

2. Arvind can do a piece of work in 20 days, Bhanu in 30 days and


Chetan in 60 days. All begin to do it together, but Arvind leaves after
6 days and Bhanu leaves 6 days before the completion of the work.
How many days did the work last?

A) 18
B) 23
C) 20
D) 27

3. Amit purchases 70 kgs apples at Rs. 90/kg and another 30 kgs apples
at Rs. 120/kg. What is the average cost/kg?

A) 95.50/kg
B) 97.66/kg
C) 101.00/kg
D) 99.00/kg

4. After two successive discounts of 10% and 50%, a badminton racket


is sold for Rs. 1647. What is the marked price (in Rs.) of the racket?

A) Rs. 2745
B) Rs. 3660
C) Rs. 2999
D) Rs. 3599

1
5. What is the simplified value of 1 + tan x tan (x/2)?
A) sin x/2
B) cos x
C) tan x
D) sec x

6. The heights of a cylinder, cone and hemisphere are equal. If their radii
are in the ratio 1 : 4 : 2, then the ratio of their volumes is-

A) 16 : 36 : 8
B) 3 : 16 : 8
C) 16 : 36 : 18
D) 3 : 16 : 6

7. How many rectangles can be formed by using 7 horizontal lines and


10 vertical lines?

A) 945
B) 1005
C) 845
D) 935

8. From a group of 8 women and 10 men, a committee consisting of 5


men and 5 women is to be formed. In how many ways can the
committee be formed if one man and one woman refuses to serve
together?

A) 8702
B) 10704
C) 9702
D) not possible

9. A sum is invested for 3 years compounded at 5%, 10% and 20 %


respectively. In three years, if the sum amounts to Rs. 2772, then find
the sum.

A) Rs. 2400
B) Rs. 2800
C) Rs. 2000
D) Rs. 1126.65

2
10. Two vertical poles are 400 m apart and the ratio of their height is 1:2.
From the middle point of the line joining their feet, an observer finds
the angular elevations of their tops to be complementary. Find the
heights of the poles (√2=1.41).

A) 90 m and 180 m
B) 100 m and 200 m
C) 141 m and 282 m
D) 70.5 m and 141 m

11. Two trains, each 150 metres long are moving in opposite directions.
They cross each other in 10 seconds. If one is moving twice as fast as
the other, the speed of the faster train is

A) 60 km/hr
B) 70 km/hr
C) 72 km/hr
D) 92 km/hr

12. Two trains are running at 50 km/hr and 20 km/hr respectively in the
same direction. If the faster train completely passes a man sitting in
the slower train in 6 seconds, the length of the faster train is:

A) 45 meters
B) 20 meters
C) 30 meters
D) 50 meters

13. Pipe P can fill a tank in 3 hours, pipe Q in 7 hours and pipe R in 21
hours. If all the pipes are open, in how many hours will the tank be
filled?

A) 2 hr 30 min
B) 2 hr 06 min
C) 1 hr 54 min
D) 1 hr 35 min

3
14. Rohan was 6 times as old as his daughter 6 years ago. After 6 years,
Rohan will be thrice as old as his daughter. Find out the present age of
Rohan.

A) 44 years
B) 40 years
C) 54 years
D) 52 years

15. The average score of a cricketer for ten matches is 42.5 runs. If the
average for the first seven matches is 35, what is the average for the
last three matches?

A) 72
B) 45
C) 60
D) 50

Part B: Test of Reasoning Ability

The following questions (16-17) are accompanied by statements. You have to


determine which statement(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the
questions.

16. How is 'No' coded in the code language?

Statements:
I. 'Ne Pa Sic Lo' means 'But No None And' and 'Pa Lo Le Ne' means
'If None And But'.
II. 'Le Se Ne Sic' means 'If No None Will' and 'Le Pi Se Be' means
'Not None If All'.

A) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient


B) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C) Either I or II is sufficient
D) Neither I nor II is sufficient

4
17. Who among Siddhartha, Nikunj, Vipul and Mukul is the youngest?

Statements:

I. Vipul is younger than Mukul but older than Siddhartha and


Nikunj.
II. Mukul is the oldest.
III. Siddhartha is older than Nikunj.

A) Only I is sufficient
B) Only I and II is sufficient
C) Only II and III is sufficient
D) Only I and III is sufficient

The following questions (18-19) are accompanied by a group of statements.


You have to determine which of the conclusion/s is/are true.

17. Statements:

Bananas are Apples.


All Apples are Oranges.
All Oranges are Mangoes

Conclusion:

I. All Apples are Mangoes


II. All Oranges are Bananas
III. All Bananas are Mangoes
IV. All Mangoes are Apples

A) Only I and II follow


B) Only I and III follow
C) Only II and III follow
D) All follow

5
18. Statements:

Most Cell phones are Calculators.


No Calculator is a Camera.
All Cameras are Cell phones.

Conclusion:

I. Some Calculators are Cell phones.


II. All Cell phones are Cameras
III. No Camera is a Calculator
IV. Some Cameras are Calculators

A) Only I follows
B) Only I and II follow
C) Only I and III follow
D) Only II follows

In the following questions (20-21) a statement is given followed by two


courses of action numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and
the following course of actions, and decide which of the course of actions
needs to be followed and choose your answer accordingly.

20. Statement: There is an increase in the number of requests for berths in


many of the long distance trains during the current festive season.

Courses of Action:

I. The railways should increase the number of trains running between these
stations.
II. The people should be advised to make their travel plan after the holiday
season.

A) Only I follows
B) Only II follows
C) Either I or II follows
D) Neither I nor II follows

6
21. Statement: Several cases of Dengue have been reported after the rains.

Courses of Action:

I. Pesticides should be properly sprayed on a regular basis.


II. Using various means of media, people should be informed about the
methods to be adopted for prevention from these seasonal diseases.

A) Only I follows
B) Only II follows
C) Either I or II follows
D) Both I and II follow

In the following questions (22-23) an assertion is given followed by a reason.


You have to consider the assertion and the reason, and decide which of the
options is correct.

22. Assertion (A): Blood is red in colour due to haemoglobin.


Reason (R): Haemoglobin is a red pigment.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

23. Assertion (A): Chopped fruits and vegetables should not be kept in the
open for long.
Reason (R): The nourishment is reduced.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

7
24. Green Revolution is related to Plants in the same way as Silver
Revolution is related to......

A) Poultry
B) Rubber
C) Milk
D) Forest

25. In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is


written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?

A) QLPNKJ
B) QLPNMF
C) QLPMNF
D) QLPNDF

26. A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the mother of B and


A * B means A is the sister of B. Which of the following means M is the
maternal uncle of R, (Given that K is the mother of R)?

A) M + K + R
B) M - R + K
C) M + K - R
D) M + K * R

27. If Reena says, "Sunita`s father Aman is the only son of my father-in-law
Rampal", then how is Indu, who is the sister of Sunita, related to Rampal?

A) Niece
B) Daughter
C) Daughter-in-law
D) None of these

8
28. Ravi is not wearing white and Ajay is not wearing blue. Ravi and Sohan
wear different colours. Sachin alone wears red. What is Sohan's colour, if all
four of them are wearing different colours?

A) Red
B) Blue
C) White
D) Can't say

29. Select the odd one out

A) cornea
B) retina
C) pupil
D) vision

30. 2, 30, 130, 350, 738, ?

A) 1342
B) 1150
C) 1320
D) 987

9
Course: M.S. in Library and Information Science
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Test Code: PLA (Forenoon)

This test consists of two parts:


Part A: Test of Quantitative Ability.
Part B: Test of Reasoning Ability.

This test contains 30 questions in all. Some sample questions are given below.

Part A: Test of Quantitative Ability

1. 16 years ago my grandfather was 9 times older than me. He will be 3 times of my age after 8 years
from now. What was the ratio of my age to that of my grandfather’s age, 8 years ago?
A. 3:8
B. 1:2
C. 2:5
D. 1:5

2. Find the x-intercept of the curve y = 2log( √(x -1) -2)


A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 13

3. A two digit number is five times the sum of its digits. If 9 is added to the number, the digits
interchange their positions. The sum of the digits of the number is:

A. 9
B. 11
C. 7
D. 6

4. A sample of 50 litres of glycerine is found to be adulterated to the extent of 20%. How much pure
glycerine should be added to it so as to bring down the percentage of impurity to 5%?
A. 152
B. 150
C. 151
D. 149

5. A loss of 19% gets converted into a profit of 17%. When the selling price is increased by Rs. 162,
find the cost price of the article.
A. 450
B. 360
C. 540
D. 630
Part B: Test of Reasoning Ability

1. The following question (17) is accompanied by two statements I and II. You have to determine
which of the conclusion/s is/are true.
Statements:
I. Some cows are crows.
II. Some crows are elephants.
Conclusions:
1) Some cows are elephants.
2) All crows are elephants.

A. Neither (1) nor (2) is true


B. Both (1) and (2)are true
C. Only (1) is true
D. Only (2) is true

In the following questions a statement is given followed by two course of actions numbered I and II.
You have to consider the statement and the following course of actions, and decide which of the
course of actions needs to be followed and choose your answer accordingly.

2. Statement: A large number of people in ward Z of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a
fatal malaria type.

Courses of Action:
I. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in ward
Z.
II. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.
A. Both I andII to be followed
B. Only IIto be followed
C. Either I or II to be followed
D. Only I to be followed

3. If, LION = JGML then TIGER=


A. RGTWS
B. GTRSW
C. RGECP
D. RGEDO

4. Find the odd one out


A. Assess
B. Polish
C. Attire
D. Manner

5. Find the odd one out


A. Larva
B. Pupa
C. Nymph
D. Caterpillar
PART- I: Test of Quantitative Ability
1. Gauri bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paisa went on
sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what
was the cost of the tax free items?

A. Rs. 15
B. Rs. 15.70
C. Rs. 19.70
D. Rs. 20

2. If log107 = a, then log10 (1/70) is equal to

A. - (1 + a)
B. (1 + a)-1
C. a/10
D. 1/10a

3. How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5,


6, 7 and 9, which are divisible by 5 and none of the digits is
repeated?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

4. A container contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio


of 7:5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the container is
filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. How many litres
of liquid A were there in the container initially?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 21
D. 25

1
5. Two alloys of gold and copper were prepared by mixing metals in
the ratio 7:3 and 7:13 respectively. Then equal quantities of the
two alloys were melted together to form a third alloy. The
proportion of gold and copper in the third alloy was …

A. 5:4
B. 6:5
C. 21:19
D. 8:7

6. The diameter of a cart wheel is 35cm. It revolves once in two


seconds. The cart speed is
A. 3.96 kmph
B. 1.98 kmph
C. 4.44 kmph
D. 5.5 kmph

7. A cylinder has a radius of 20cm and its height is 50cm. If it is


already 40% filled with a liquid, how many more cubic
centimetres of liquid must be added to completely fill it?

A. 18000π
B. 2000π
C. 16000π
D. 12000π

8. John can mow his lawn in ‘t’ hours. 2 hours after he started work
it began to rain. What part of the lawn is left unmowed?
A. (2-t)/t
B. (t-2)/2
C. (t-2)
D. t-2/t

9. The numerator and denominator of a fraction are in the ratio of


2:3. If 6 is subtracted from the numerator the result will be a
fraction that has a value 2/3 of the original fraction. The numerator
of the original fraction is

A. 27 C. 36
B. 18 D. 6

2
10. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on
the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively. If they
cross each other in 23 seconds, what is the ratio of their speeds?
A. Insufficient data
B. 3:1
C. 1:3
D. 3:2

11. When an item is sold for Rs. 18,700/- the owner loses 15%. At
what price should that item be sold to get a gain of 15%?
A. 25100
B. 25200
C. 25300
D. 25400
1
12. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 372 minutes and 45
minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The cistern will be
filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after…

A. 5 mins
B. 9 mins
C. 8 mins
D. 7 mins

13. P is able to do a piece of work in 15 days and Q can do the same


work in 20 days. If they can work together for 4 days, what is the
fraction of work left?

A. 8/15
B. 9/15
C. 6/15
D. 7/15

14. Ten years ago, P was half of Q's age. If the ratio of their present
ages is 3:4, what will be the total of their present ages?

A. 45
B. 40
C. 35
D. 30

3
15. P can lay railway track between two stations in 16 days. Q can do
the same job in 12 days. With the help of R, they complete the job
in 4 days. How many days does it take for R alone to complete the
work?

A. 3
9 5 days
B. 1
9 5 days
C. 2
9 5 days
D. 10 days

PART II: Test of Reasoning Ability


16. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?

A. 22
B. 24
C. 44
D. 48

17. Which is an ODD word of the following?

A. book
B. index
C. glossary
D. chapter

In the following questions 18 & 19, each pair has a certain


relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words.
Select the correct pair which has the same relationship.

18. MUNDANE: SPIRITUAL

A. common: ghostly
B. worldly: unworldly
C. routine: novel
D. secular: clerical

4
19. OVERWEIGHT:DIETING

A. poverty : sickness
B. fatigue : resting
C. gourmet : underweight
D. drug : pain

20. Find the odd man out among the numbers 23, 27, 36, 52, 77, 111,
162.

A. 52
B. 111
C. 27
D. 77

21. A is son of C while C and Q are the sisters to one another. Z is the
mother of Q. If P is the son of Z, Which one of the following
statements is correct?

A. Q is the grandfather of A
B. P is the maternal Uncle of A
C. P is the cousin of A
D. Z is the cousin of B

22. Statement: The Company X has rejected first lot of valves


supplied by Company A and has cancelled its entire huge order
quoting use of inferior quality material and poor craftsmanship.

Courses of Action:
I. The Company A needs to investigate functioning of its
purchase, production and quality control departments.
II. The Company A should inspect all the valves rejected by
Company X.
III. The Company A should inform Company X that steps have
been taken for improvement and renegotiate schedule of
supply.

A. Only I and II follow


B. Only I follows
C. Only I and III follow
D. Only II follows

5
23. Statement: India's economy is depending mainly on forests.
Conclusions:
I. Trees should be preserved to improve Indian economy.
II. India wants only maintenance of forests to improve economic
conditions.

A. Only conclusion I follows


B. Neither I nor II follows
C. I and II follow
D. Only II follows

24. Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q


P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
P & Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P * Q means P is not greater than Q

Statements: C # P, P * L, L @ E, E $ M
Conclusions:
I. M#P
II. M@L
III. P#E
IV. L#C

A. None is true
B. Only I is true
C. Only III is true
D. Only IV is true

25. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year

A. 2014
B. 2016
C. 2017
D. 2018

6
26. Choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.

monopoly
A. Corrupt
B. Exclusive
C. Rich
D. Gigantic

27. P, Q, R, S and T are five speakers who have to speak on a


particular day, not necessarily in the same order. R is neither the
first nor the last speaker. There are three speakers after S and three
speakers ahead of T. If P speaks after Q, then who is the last
speaker to speak?

A. S
B. T
C. P
D. Q

28. Identify the missing square.

7
29. The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the
expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and
answer the question based on it.

Expenditure Incurred in Publishing a Book


Promotion
Cost
Royalty 10%
15%

Printing Cost
Binding Cost 20%
20%

Paper Cost
25% Transportation
Cost
10%

If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as
printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be paid for these
books?
A. Rs. 19,450
B. Rs. 22,950
C. Rs. 21,200
D. Rs. 26,150

30. Select a figure from the four alternatives, which can be placed in the
blank space of fig. (x).

A. B. C. D.

9
Sample
QUESTION PAPER
For the entrance test of M.S.(LIS) (2018)

Test Code: PLA

Note: PLA test consists of two parts: Part I: Test of Quantitative Ability and Part II: Test of Reasoning
Ability. The candidates are expected to answer 30 questions. Some sample questions are given below.

Sub: Library & Information Science


Test Code: PLA Duration: 2 hours

PART I : Test of Quantitative Ability

1. David receives a commission of 25 cents for every 20 euros worth of merchandise he sells. What
percentage is his commission?
A. 1.25%
B. 2.5%
C. 25%
D. 12.5%

-1
2. If p/q = 33 what is (11 q/p) ?
A. 3
B. 1/3
C. 363
D. 1/363

3. The sum of the squares of three numbers is 138, while the sum of their products taken
two at a time is 131. Their sum is
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. None of these

Answer the questions numbered 4 and 5 based on the following information:


I have five different green balls and five different red balls. I want to arrange them in a line such that
the colours are alternating.

4. In how many ways can the above arrangement be achieved?


A. 28800
B. 86400
C. 43200
D. 57600

5. If in the above case the green balls are all identical, in how many ways can the balls be arranged
such that no two red balls are together?
A. 6
B. 120
C. 720
D. 1440
6. Two trains are moving in the same direction at 50 km/hr and 30 km/hr. The faster train crosses a man
in the slower train in 18 seconds. Find the length of the faster train.
A. 109 m
B. 155 m
C. 100 m
D. 200 m

7. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is


A. 0.934
B. 0.945
C. 0.954
D. 0.958

8. Milk and water are mixed in a vessel X in the proportion 5:2 and in vessel Y in the proportion 8:5.
In what proportion should quantities be taken from the two vessels so as to form a mixture in
which milk and water will be in the proportion of 9:4?
A. 7:2
B. 6:4
C. 3:2
D. 7:3

9. The age of the father 3 years ago was 7 times the age of his son. At present the father’s age is
5 times that of his son. What are the present ages of the father and the son?
A. 45, 9
B. 40, 9
C. 50, 6
D. 55, 9

10. X, Y, and Z contract a work for Rs. 550. Together X and Y are supposed to do 7/11 of the work.
How much does Z get?
A. 210
B. 215
C. 205
D. 200

PART II : Test of Reasoning Ability

In each of the following questions numbered 11 - 20, four words have been given out of which three
are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose the word, which is different from
the rest.

11. Choose the word, which is different from the rest.


A. Rose
B. Lotus
C. Jasmine
D. Dahlia
12. Choose the word, which is different from the rest.
A. Curd
B. Butter
C. Oil
D. Cheese

13. P is the son of Q. Q and R are brothers. S is the mother of R and M is the daughter of S. On the
basis of this information, select the statement, which is false.
A. M is the paternal aunt of P
B. Q is M's brother
C. S is not Q's mother
D. P, Q and R are males

14. MHZ, NIW, OKT, PNQ, ?


A. RRN
B. B.QRN
C. QRM
D. QQN

15. If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of Q, and Q shifts to the place of B, then who will
be the second to the left of the person opposite to O ?
A. Q
B. P
C. E
D. D

16. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.


(a) Poverty (b) Population (c) Death (d) Unemployment (e) Disease
A. b, c, d, e, a
B. c, d, b, e, a
C. b, d, a, e, c
D. a, b, c, d, e

17. In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one
of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.
_ stt _ tt _ tts _
A. tsts
B. ttst
C. sstt
D. tsst
18. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
• At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
• The schools do not admit children after six years of age.

A. If only assumption I is implicit


B. If only assumption II is implicit
C. If neither I nor II is implicit
D. If both I and II are implicit

19. ‘Marathon’ is to ‘race’ as ‘hibernation’ is to


A. winter
B. bear
C. dream
D. sleep

20. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my
uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?
A. Brother
B. Nephew
C. Uncle
D. Son-in-law
Course: M.S. in Library and Information Science

Syllabus for PLA (Forenoon)


There will be 60 objective type questions. These are given to test
quantitative skill (at 10 +2 level) and reasoning skills (at the
undergraduate level), knowledge of mathematics, ability to read and
understand graphs & statistical tables (preferably 10 +2 level).

SAMPLE QUESTIONS
For the entrance test for MS in Library and Information Science – 2016

Note: PLA test consists of two parts: Part I: Test of Quantitative Ability
and Part II: Test of Reasoning Ability. The candidates are expected to
answer 60 questions. Some sample questions are given below.

Sub: Library & Information Science


Test Code: PLA Duration: 2 hours

PART I Test of Quantitative Ability

1. Davide receives a commission of 25 cents for every 20 euros worth of


merchandise he sells. What percentage is his
commission?
A. 1.25% B. 2.5%
C. 25% D. 12.5%

2. If p/q = 33 what is (11 q/p)-1?


A. 3 B. 1/3
C. 363 D. 1/363

3. The sum of the squares of three numbers is 138, while the sum of their
products taken two at a time is 131. Their sum is
A. 20 B. 30
C. 40 D. None of these

Answer the questions numbered 4 and 5 based on the following


information.
I have five different green balls and five different red balls. I want to
arrange them in a line such that the colours are alternating.

4. In how many ways can the above arrangement be achieved?


A. 28800 B. 86400
C. 43200 D. 57600

5. If in the above case the green balls are all identical, in how many ways
can the balls be arranged such that no two red balls are together?
A. 6 B. 120
C. 720 D. 1440

PART II Test of Reasoning Ability

In each of the following questions numbered 6 - 7, four words have been


given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is
different. Choose the word, which is different from the rest.

6. Choose the word, which is different from the rest.


A. Rose
B. Lotus
C. Jasmine
D. Dahlia

7. Choose the word, which is different from the rest.


A. Curd
B. Butter
C. Oil
D. Cheese

8. P is the son of Q. Q and R are brothers. S is the mother of R and M is


the daughter of S. On the basis of this information, select the statement,
which is false.
A. M is the paternal aunt of P
B. Q is M's brother
C. S is not Q's mother
D. P, Q and R are males

9. MHZ, NIW, OKT, PNQ, ?

A. RRN B. QRN
C. QRM D. QQN
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

For the entrance test for MS in Library and Information Science – 2015

Note: PLA test consists of two parts: Part I: Test of Quantitative Ability
and Part II: Test of Reasoning Ability. The candidates are expected to
answer 60 questions. Some sample questions are given below.

Sub: Library & Information Science


Test Code: PLA Duration: 2 hours

PART I Test of Quantitative Ability

1. Davide receives a commission of 25 cents for every 20 euros worth of


merchandise he sells. What percentage is his
commission?
A. 1.25% B. 2.5%
C. 25% D. 12.5%

2. If p/q = 33 what is (11 q/p)-1?


A. 3 B. 1/3
C. 363 D. 1/363

3. The sum of the squares of three numbers is 138, while the sum of their
products taken two at a time is 131. Their sum is
A. 20 B. 30
C. 40 D. None of these

Answer the questions numbered 4 and 5 based on the following


information.
I have five different green balls and five different red balls. I want to
arrange them in a line such that the colours are alternating.

4. In how many ways can the above arrangement be achieved?


A. 28800 B. 86400
C. 43200 D. 57600

5. If in the above case the green balls are all identical, in how many ways
can the balls be arranged such that no two red balls are together?
A. 6 B. 120
C. 720 D. 1440
PART II Test of Reasoning Ability

In each of the following questions numbered 6 - 7, four words have been


given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is
different. Choose the word, which is different from the rest.

6. Choose the word, which is different from the rest.


A. Rose
B. Lotus
C. Jasmine
D. Dahlia

7. Choose the word, which is different from the rest.


A. Curd
B. Butter
C. Oil
D. Cheese

8. P is the son of Q. Q and R are brothers. S is the mother of R and M is


the daughter of S. On the basis of this information, select the statement,
which is false.
A. M is the paternal aunt of P
B. Q is M's brother
C. S is not Q's mother
D. P, Q and R are males

9. MHZ, NIW, OKT, PNQ, ?

A. RRN
B. QRN
C. QRM
D. QQN
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

For the entrance test for MS in Library and Information Science – 2015

Note: PLB test consists of three parts: Part I Comprehension Ability, Part
II Test of English Language Proficiency, Part III Test of Knowledge of
Books, Libraries, Information and Computers. The candidates are
expected to answer 60 questions. Some sample questions are given below.

Sub: Library & Information Science


Test Code: PLB Duration: 2 hours

PART I Comprehension Ability

A text is given (one or two paragraphs). The candidate has to read and
answer 4 or 5 objective type questions.

PART II Test of English Language Proficiency

2. With this ________, two further questions can be asked, and


answered in a preliminary way at this ________ stage.
A. prelude, introductory
B. inspiration, decisive
C. conclusion, empirical
D. answer, final

3. What is the synonym for pensive?


A. Caged

B. Thoughtful

C. Happy

D. Obsessive

4. It has been established that


P : Einstein was
Q : although a great scientist
R : weak in arithmetic
S : right from his school days.
What should be the proper sequence for P, Q, R and S to produce the
correct sentence?
A. SRPQ
B. QPRS
C. QPSR
D. RQPS

PART III Test of Knowledge of Books, Libraries, Information and


Computers

5. The author of “The Lord of the Rings” is


A. J.R.R. Tolkien
B. William Gloding
C. Thomas Friedman
D. J.D. Salinger

6. You are asked to prepare a small write up on a topic. You will refer to
A. Encyclopedia
B. Manual
C. Thesaurus
D. Directory

7. Famous sculptures depicting art of love built some time in 950 AD -


1050 AD are
A. Khajuraho temples
B. Jama Masjid
C. Sun temple
D. Mahabalipuram temples

8. Which computer language is used for artificial intelligence?


A. FORTRAN
B. PROLOG
C. C++
D. COBOL

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