1. Which is wrong based neonatal sepsis?

A. Early treatment is of critical importance for neonatal sepsis.

B. CRP may rise early when there is neonatal sepsis.
C. there won’ t be neonatal sepsis if the WBC count is normal.
D. Platelet count is the late sign for
2. A 70-year-old woman was seen on the elderly care ward. She had been
admitted 3 days previously from home with vomiting, abdominal distension
constipation. She had received and initial intravenous replacement of
phosphate and magnesium, as well as treatment for her pneumonia. She had a
nasogastric tube in situ. On examination, she appeared well. Her abdomen was
distended and bowel sounds were hypoactive. What is the most appropriate next
step in management?
A. enemas and laxatives
B. intravenous neostigmine
C. total colectomy and end ileostomy
D. flexible sigmoidoscopy
E. manual evacuation
3. Which of the following drugs is not recommended for Chronic Hepatitis C
patients?
A. Daclatasvir+sofosbuvir
B. Grazoprevir/elbasvir
C. Tenofovir alafenamide
D. Sofosbuvir/velpatasvir
4. Which of the following cases indicates insufficient breast milk supply?
A. The baby can sleep quietly after nursing.
B. Breast-feed less than 6 to 7 times a day.
C. A “Gudong” sound be heard when the infant is suckling.
D. Poor weight gain
5. Which one is wrong according to apgar score?
A. For appearance, it can get 1 score if the body is completely pink.
B. For pulse, it can get 2 score if the pulse is above 100.
C. For grimace, it can’ t get any score if there is no response.
D. For activity, it can get 1 score if there is some flexion.
6. Under the condition that both mother and baby are all healthy, it is best to give
breastfeeding after birth.
A. <1 hour
B. 2 to 3 hours
C. 3 to 4 hours
D. 1 to 2 hours
7. Which of the following changes in blood gas analysis belongs to the type
respiratory failure?
A. PaO2 65mmHg, PaCO2 40mmHg
B. PaO2 85mmHg, PaCO2 55mmHg
C. PaO2 75mmHg, PaCO2 30mmHg
D. PaO2 50mmHg, PaCO2 40mmHg
8. Which drug is the first choice for cerebral malaria?
A. Chloroquine
B. Pyrimethamine
C. Artesunate
D. Primaquine
E. Quinine
9. Presented with a 12-month history of intermittent epigastric and right upper
quadrant pain occurring up to six times per month and lasting for 30-45 minutes.
The most recent episode of pain had occurred 24 hours previously. She had
been obliged to leave work on several occasions and, during one episode, had
presented to the emergency department. The symptoms were unrelated to diet,
eating or bowel movement. Antacids had been unhelpful and she took codeine at
home for the pain. She was otherwise well, with no other significant medical
history.ultrasoundscan of abdomen is normal. What is the Most appropriate next
investigation?
A. repeat ultrasound scan when in pain
B. CT scan of abdomen
C. MRCP
D. ERCP
E. HIDA scan
10. Which ONE of these is least valuable in the diagnosis of acute myeloid
leukaemia?
A. Immunophenotypic analysis of a bone marrow sample
B. Microscopic analysis of the bone marrow aspirate (morphology)
C. Cytogenetic analysis of peripheral blood
11. A 20-year-old healthy man incurs blunt force trauma to the abdomen in a
motor vehicle accident. An abdominal CT scan reveals a splenic hematoma. At
laparotomy a splenectomy splenectomy, is performed. Following which of the
following peripheral blood findings would be LEAST likely to be present:
A. Howell-Jolly bodies in RBC’ s
B. Increased platelet count
C. Polycythemia
D. Pappenheimer bodies in RBC’ s
E. Increased white blood cell count

12.AKI is associated with which one of the following conditions?

A. Increased risk for progression to CKD and also ESRD
B. Increased need for renal replacement therapy(RRT)
C. Increased hospital stay and cost
D. Increased in-hospital mortality
E. All of the above
13.Which one is not the clinical manifestation for HIE?
A. neurological symptoms such as changes in consciousness
B. severe asphyxia at birth such as Apgar score is below 3 at 1 minute
C. blood glucose is 4.5 mmol/L
D. amniotic fluid third-level pollution
14. A 67-year-old man presented with while taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
He was transfused and later underwent an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, and
ileocolonoscopy, which were unremarkable. The melaena settled and so his
warfarin was restarted and he was allowed home. He re-presented 21 days later
with further melaena and again required transfusion. Hi upper gastrointestinal
endoscopy GOOR ar colonoscopy were repeated, but no cause mis melaena was
discovered.
What is the investigation? Most appropriate next
A. double balloon enteroscopy
B. small bowel capsule endoscopy
C. red cell scintigraphy
D. MR scan of small bowel
15. Which two anterior pituitary hormones are the least likely to be
affected/damaged by a pituitary mass?
A. ACTH and TSH
B. ACTH and prolactin
C. LH and FSH
D. GH and TSH
16. A 20-year-old athletic man with no significant past medical history is found to
microscopic have isolated asymptomatic hematuria on routine physexam.He is
not on any medications, and does not use illicit drugs. Which one of the following
observations suggests hematuria of glomerular origin?
A. Presence of many isomorphic red blood cells(RBCs) in urine sediment
B. Presence of many decoy cells”in urine 66 codiment
C. All of the above
D. Presence of many isomorphic RBCs and white blood cells (WBCs) in urine
sediment
E. Presence of many dysmorphic RBCs or acanthocytes in urine sediment

17. Which of the following treatment is wrong in acute exacerbation of chronic

obstructive pulmonary disease for an old and weak patient who have cough and
massive expectoration?
A. Usage of antitussive.
B. Infection control
C. Oxygen therapy
D. Usage of antispasmodic and antiasthmatic agents
E. Usage of expectorant.
18. The most important evidence of influenza diagnosis is
A. History of contact with people who get influenza
B. Hemagglutination inhibition
C. Virus isolation
D. Mild symptom of respiratory system and severs systemic symptom
E. Season
19. Which of the following is specific immunity?
A. skin
B. humoral immunity
C. humoral factors
D. natural barrier
E. phagocytosis
20. A 35-year-old man has had fatigue, fever, and epistaxis for the past 3 months.
Large blasts with Auer rods are seen on a peripheral blood smear. The total WBC
count is 52,000/microliter.The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Plasma cell leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Infectious mononucleosis
21. A 54year-old man presented to the emergency department with dysphagia
and stridor, and was found to have a large proximal oesophageal cancer. Because
of external compression of the trachea by the oesophageal tumour, his stridor
was treated initially with an endotracheal stent and then a T-tube tracheostomy.
A. radiologically inserted gastrostomy
B. percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
C. nasogastric tube
D. parenteral nutrition via a central vein

22. CT scan of chest showed a 7-cm mass from the suprasternal notch to the
aortic arch arising from the oesophagus. Radical chemoradiotherapy was planned.
Although he was able to swallow small amounts of semi-liquid food, nutritional
support was required.What means of nutritional support most appropriate during
additional oral supplements Count is 52,000/microliter. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Plasma cell leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
23. The most common location for the primary infection is:
A. urinary tract
B. abdomen
C. lung
D. skin
E. none of the above
24. Which type of gastric cell is responsible for the production and secretion of
intrinsic factor?
A. G cell
B. enterochromaffin-like cell
C. D cell
D. parietal cell
E. chief cell
25. The most opportunistic infections of AIDS is Common
A. Tuberculosis
B. Oral candidiasis (thrush)
C. Herpes virus infections
D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
26. The duration of Acute pneumonia is _____
A. >12 weeks
B. <4weeks
C. 8-10 weeks
D. 4-8 weeks

27. Which of the following referring to average values of weight, length and head
circumference in 1-year-old children are correct?
A. Weight 10 Kg, length 75 cm, head circumference 46 cm.
B. Weight 12 Kg, length 75 cm, head circumference 50 cm.
C. Weight 10 Kg, length 75 cm, head circumference 34 cm.
D. Weight 12 Kg, length 65 cm, head circumference 46 cm
28. Which of the following is prone to ABO hemolysis?
A. Blood type A or B infants born to with type O mothers.
B. Blood type A or B infants born to with type AB mothers.
C. Blood type O infants born to with type A or B mothers.
D. Blood type B infants born to with type A mothers.
29. Which of the following is true concerning the physiology of newborn babies?
A. appeared within 3 days after birth, disappeared within 2 weeks
B. appeared immediately after birth and disappeared about 1 week later
C. appeared within 24 hours after birth, disappeared after 2 weeks
D. appeared within 24 hours after birth and disappeared within 1 week later
30. Which of the following options is not the diagnostic criteria for Inactive
Chronic Hepatitis B?
A. Serum HBV DNA <2,000 IU/mL
B. HBsAg present for>6 months
C. Liver biopsy confirms absence of significant necroinflflammation.Biopsy or
noninvasive testing show variable levels of fibrosis.
D. HBeAg negative, anti-HBe positive
E. Intermittently or persistently elevated ALT and/or AST levels
31.Which of the following NAS with the lowest rate of drug resistance?
A. Tenofovir
B. Entecavir
C. Lamivudine
D. Adefovir
E. Telbivudine
32. Total body iron of newborn is_
A. 75mg/kg
B. 50mg/kg
C. 35mg/kg
D. 95 mg/kg

33. nullA 25 year old male presents after 1 week of progressive fatigue followed
by 2 days of jaundice.Laboratory studies demonstrate serum ALT 225 IU/L, ALP
of 330 IU/L and bilirubin of 5.2 mg/dl with normal albumin and INR.A liver
ultrasound was normal.He recently returned from a one week vacation in the
Carribean. A positive value for which of the following tests most likely explains
this situation?
A. anti-HAV IgM
B. anti-HEV
C. anti-HDV
D. anti-HCV
E. anti-HB surface
34. A 53-year-old man had been admitted with moderately severe pancreatitis 1
week previously. Despite regular use of analgesic and antiemetic treatments, he
Remained nauseated and uncomfortable, with no appetite and poor oral intake.
What is the most appropriate management of his nutrition?
A. peripheral intravenous nutrition
B. nasogastric tube feeding
C. endoscopic jejunal feeding
D. parenteral nutrition
E. oral intake
35. Which one is not Four-early Principle of treatment of infectious disease:
A. Early report
B. Early transport
C. Early detection
D. Early treatment
E. Early isolation
36. Of the following findings, the one that will be most likely to occur with
extravascular, hemolysis is: rather than intravascular,
A. Acute renal failure
B. Decreased serum haptoglobin
C. Jaundice
D. Splenomegaly
E. Increased reticulocyte count
37. Which are the two phases of accelerated growth during childhood periods?
A. infancy, puberty
B. infancy, toddlerhood
C. toddlerhood, pre-school age
D. pre-school age, school age

38. Many drugs are removed by intermitten hemodialysis and continuous renal
replacement therapies. Which one of the following physicochemical
characteristics affects removal drug removal by these renal replacement
therapies?
A. Volume of distribution (Vd)
B. Molecular weight
C. Protein binding
D. Membrane characteristics
E. All of the above
39. Which of the following description about dyspnea is mostly in accordance
with patients with asthma?
A. Dyspnea with obviously prolonged inspiratory time
B. Wheezing typically at night or in the early morning
C. Dyspnea can’ t relieve without medicine
D. Frequent sighing breathing
E. Exertion dyspnea
40. Which drug is most commonly used for the treatment of pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia.
A. Gancyclovir
B. Bleomycin
C. pentamidine
D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
E. Clindamycin
41. Which one has strong Biological activity in our bodies?
A. 25-(OH)D3
B. 1,25 (OH)2D3
C. Vit D2
D. Vit D3
42. Treatment of hemolytic disease in neonates focuses on___ ?
A. plasma exchange
B. correction of anemia
C. reduction of bilirubin, prevention and treatment of bilirubin encephalopathy
D. use of enzyme inducers
43. Which is the most common causes of type II respiratory failure?
A. Pneumonia.
B. Pleurisy.
C. Tuberculosis
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
E. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension.

44. 2-years-old boy present development retardation and shortness of

breath,can hear a 3-6/6 HSM between the 3rd and 4th ribs of the left sternal
margin and conducting widely to the around with thrill, P2 enhanced, what
disorder maybe the boy with
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. PDA
D. TOF
45. Which of the following result is not in accordance with the result of pulmonary
function in patients with COPD?
A. FEV1 decreased
B. Total lung volume decreased
C. Vital capacity decreased
D. Residual volume Increased
46. Which one is right according to the infantile diarrhea?
A. isotonic refers to the 1/3 tonicity
B. it is easy to appear hypokalemia before dehydration correction
C. hypokalemia refers to [K+] <4.0mmol/L
D. isotonic refers to serum sodium of 130- 150mmol/L
47. You are consulted on a 28- year-old man with IgA nephropathy and
proteinuria of 1.2g/day. His BP is 134/84 mmHg with a heart rate of 70/min. His
Creatinine is 88.4umol/L. He has no insurance. Which one of the following
medications you recommend to improve his proteinuria?
A. Atenolol
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Chlorthalidone
E. Prednisone
48. A 30-year-old African American female student isreferred to you for
evaluation of hematuturia is unrelated to her menstrualcycle. BP is 120/78mmHg.
Serum creatinine is 1.0mg/dL. She weighs 60kg. Renal ultrasound reveals large
kidneys with multiplecysts. She wants to know whether or not she has kidney
disease. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT regarding her renal
condition?
A. She has CKD based on hematuria and abnormal renal imaging
B. She can not be classified as having CKD because she has no proteinuria

49. A 30-year-old woman was referred with worsening constipation, which she
had experienced since childhood. She described opening her bowels once a week
with a formed stool. She felt bloated and uncomfortable for the rest of the week.
She did not strain excessively at stool and she did not need to manually evacuate.
She worked as a teacher and her dietary history was unremarkable. She
exercised regularly. Sh had one daughter, born by vaginal delivery years
previously.Clinical examination normal.
A. She has CKD based on hematuria and abnormal renal imaging
B. She can not be classified as having CKD because she has no proteinuria
C. None of the above
D. She needs a renal biopsy to make the diagnosis of CKD
E. She can not be classified as having chronic kidney disease(CKD) because her
serum creatinine is normal
50. Which of the following is not a basic feature of infectious diseases?
A. Infectivity
B. Post infection immunity
C. epidemiologic feature
D. pathogen
E. Eruption
51. normal. What is the investigation? Most appropriate next
A. anorectal manometry
B. evacuation proctography
C. colonic transit study
D. colonoscopy
E. no investigation required
52. nullA 43-year-old man with acromegaly was referred for colonoscopy. Pan-
colonoscopy with terminal ileal intubation was achieved. A solitary, sessile, 5-
mm polyp was found in the transverse colon. This was removed
completely.Histology showed tubular adenoma with a low-grade dysplasia.After
how long should he undergo further colonoscopy?
A. 1 year
B. 10 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
E. 2 years
53. A 35-year-old man with Crohn’ s disease presented complaining of
Recurrent oral ulceration.What is the most appropriate initial traetment?
A. prednisolone
B. chlorhexidine mouthwash
C. topical tacrolimus
D. thalidomide
E. topical hydrocortisone
54. Which one is not the susceptible factors for infantile diarrhea?
A. Heavy burden of gastrointestinal tract.
B. dysbacteriosis
C. The digestive system is immature.
D. breastfeeding
55. Which descriptions characteristics pneumonia? Is of of wrong the following
about hospital the acquired
A. Drug-resistant strains were few
B. The mortality is high
C. Most of them are secondary to various primary diseases
D. There is not only one kind of pathoger in most cases
E. Gram negative bacilli is one of the most common pathogens
56. Which one of the following is TRUE about acute myeloid leukaemia?
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is not a presenting feature
B. It is associated with more than 20% blast cells in the bone marrow
C. It is most common in children
D. It it never caused by chemotherapy
57. A woman presented with a 3-month history of episodic difficulty in swallowing
both liquids and solids. In the month before presentation, there had been three
episodes of nocturnal coughing that woke her from sleep. She had lost 8 kg in
weight since onset the of her symptoms.Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
showed that food residue particles were present in the oesophagus despite an
adequate fast. There was no hiatus hernia c discrete stricture, but the
gastrooesophage junction opened with difficulty.What is most appropriate next
step to establis definitive diagnosis?
A. 24-h oesophageal pH measurement
B. Barium swallow
C. sublingual glyceryl trinitrate spray
D. oesophageal manometry
E. CT scan of thorax
58. When to start highly active antiretroviral therapy?
A. CD4%<25%
B. CD4 cell count<500cells/mm3
C. CD4 cell count<200cells/mm3
D. at any CD4 cell count
E. CD4 cell count=350cells/mm3

59. Which kind of oxygen therapy is most commonly used for COPD?
A. Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)
B. Intermittent high concentration oxygen
C. mechanical ventilation
D. Invasive mechanical ventilation
E. Continuous high frequency ventilation

1. Hypothyroidism symptom include except

A. Bradycardia
B. Cold intolerant
C. Irritability
D. Coarse skin
E. Constipation
2. The pathological changes of ankylosing spondylitis is
A. Synovitis
B. Cartilage degradation
C. Uric acid accumulation
D. Enthesitis
3. Primary adrenal insufficiency in adults leads to all of the following except
A. Nausea, vomiting abdominal pain
B. Progressive weight loss
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Skin hyperpigmentation
E. Loss of sex characteristics in the male
4. A 58 year old man presented to the emergency department with acute left
sided abdominal pain and mild fever. He denied any previous similar episodes. He
had a colonoscopy 2 years previously , which had been normal except for the
presence of left sided colonic diverticula. On examination, his temperature was 37.
5° c ,his pulse was 90 beats per minute and his BP was 100/ 70 mmHg
His abdomen was mildly tender in the left lower quadrant , without abdominal
guarding. What is the most appropriate next investigation?
A. CT scan of abdomen and pelvis
B. Faecal calprotectin
C. Erect chest x- ray
D. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
E. MR scan of abdomen

5. Hyperthyroidism symptoms include except

A. Coarse skin
B. Heat intolerant
C. Irritability
D. Hyperhidrosis
E. Palpitation
6. In diabetic ketoacidosis DKA the most important initial therapy after the ABCs
is
A. Potassium
B. Fluids
C. Correction of the acid base barrier
D. Dextrose
E. Fluid insulin therapy
7. The source of infection for covid19 is
A. None of the above
B. Asymptomatic person infected with 2019 nCoV
C. 2019 nCoV infected patients
D. All the above
8. Which is preferred with pregnant women with thyrotoxicosis
A. Propranolol
B. Mathimazole
C. Propyl thiouracil
D. Radio active iodine
9. Which is not fundamental principle of treatment of viral hepatitis
A. Good rest
B. Avoiding drugs which injury liver
C. Properly using drugs for protecting liver
D. Eat fat food
E. Sufficient nutrition
10. The portal vein formed by the confluence of which veins?
A. Splenic and hepatic
B. Hepatic and superior mesenteric
C. Splenic and renal
D. Splenic and superior mesenteric
E. Inferior and superior mesenteric

11. Related to non alcoholic steatohepatitis presented with increasing

shortness of breath. It had been present for 3 months and was becoming
increasingly worse, especially when she stood up. She denied any cough or
cardiac symptoms. Examination showed palmar erythema, multiple spider naevi,
and peripheral oedema, but no ascites . What is the most appropriate
investigation?
A. Pulmonary function test
B. Transoesophageal echocardiaography
C. Pulmonary artery pressure measurement
D. Pulmonary angiography

12. A 35 year old man presented with his third episode of pancreatitis within 1
year. He was taking allopurinol for gout. On examination , he was slim with no
abnormal physical signs apart from epigastric tenderness and tachycardia .
Ultrasound scan is normal. What is the most likely cause of his Pancreatitis?
A. Hypertriglyceridaemia
B. Drug induced pancreatitis
C. Pancreas divisum
D. Alcohol related pancreatitis
13. Pathogen invade into the host and cause mild damage of tissue. There are no
clinical manifestation or only atypical symptoms and signs . But there are
specific antibodies in the serum. The condition is called
A. Overt infection
B. Covert infection
C. Carriers state
D. To clear-out pathogens
14. All the statement associated with breastfeeding are correct except
A. The infant should empty at-least one breast at each feeding
B. Feeding should be initiated as soon after birth as possible
C. Formula fed infants prefer shorter feeding intervals than breast fed
infants
D. The infant should be allowed to suck Until satisfied
15. the diagnosis of diabetes can be made with which of the following
A. 2 hr blood glucose>=10.0 mmol/l during an oral GTT
B. Random plasma glucose >=11.1 mmol/l with symptoms of diabetes
C. Ketones in urine
D. Fasting plasma glucose >=7.8 mmol/l

16. Cardiac effect in hyperthyroidism include except

A. Heart failure
B. Palpitation
C. Arrhythmia
D. Bradycardia
E. Heart enlargement
17. Besides protecting your child against disease , what is another advantage of
breastfeeding
A. Breastmilk is free and readily available
B. Breastmilk doesn't need to be prepared
C. Breastmilk easier to digest than formula
D. All of the above

18. Which immunoglobulin can pass through the placenta

A. SigA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgA
19. Chickenpox mostly occurs in which age group 16-25 year old age group
A. 0-1 year old age group
B. 1-3 year old age group
C. 4- 10 year old age group
D. 11-15 year old age group
20. A 35 year old female is found to have chronic HCV and referred for evaluation .
Which of the following laboratory tests is not required to be assessed prior to
initiating treatmemt with peginterferon and ribavirin
A. Pregnancy test
B. Thyroid stimulating factor
C. Hemoglobin
D. Total bilirubin
E. HCV Genotype
21. The patient scalp demonstrate alopecia and she has significat loer extremity
edema initial laboratory results demostrate a hemoglobin level of 8.1 g/dL, a white
blood cell count of 2000 cells/ l , a platelet count of 30,000 cells/l and a positive
antinuclear antibody ( ANA) test. Which of the following disease is most likely to
have?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Gout
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
22. How does breastfeeding help the mother?
A. Breastfeeding increase bone strength
B. Breastfeeding reduce risk for ovarian cancer
C. A and B
D. Breastfeeding helps you get back to your Normal weight
23. Tissue injury mechanism of infectious disease include
A. Direct invasion, toxic effect, immunologic mechanism Immunologic mechanism
B. None of the above
C. Direct invasion toxic effect
D. Dosage pathogenicity and specific locations of pathogen
24. Which age range would you expect to observe a child start walk?
A. 6-9 months
B. 9-12 months
C. 15-18 months
D. 12- 15 months
25. Which is the route of typhoid fever?
A. Contact Transmission
B. Blood transmission
C. Fecal route
D. Airborne transmission
E. Vector transmission
26. The most common site of tuberculosis is the
A. Joints
B. Lymph nodes
C. Pleura
D. Lung
E. Bones
27. Protection of susceptible population include
A. Artificial active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Enhance nonspecific immunity
D. Drug prophylaxis
E. All of the above

28. A 55 year old man had recently been found to have hereditary
haemochromatosis, with clinical symptoms, an elevated serum Ferritin and
homozygous state for the C282Y gene mutation. He had four siblings . He was
four siblings. He was married , with the three children, aged 30, 28, and 27 years.
All were well. A screening of family members was advised. What is the most
appropriate single screening test for family members?
A. HFE gene mutation
B. Transferrin saturation
C. Serum alanine aminotransferase
29. Which of the follwoing definitions referring to childhood periods incorrect?
A. Toddler age period 1-3 years
B. Infant period 6 months -1 year
C. Newborn period birth 4 week
D. Pre school age period 3-6 years
30. Addisons disease should be considered in any patient with
A. Fever and badly cough
B. Hypertension or hypokalemia
C. Hypotension or hyperkalemia
D. Constipation
E. Cold intolerant
31. A 55 year old women presented with a history of central abdominal pain,
bloody diarrhoea urgency and faecal incontinence. She had undergone pelvic
radiotherapy for cervical cancer 1 year previously. What is most likely diagnosis?
A. Radiation enteropathy
B. Crohn's disease
C. CMV colitis
D. Ischemic colitis
E. Ucerative colitis
32. Which of the following statements referring to dental development is incorrect
A. The first two teeth to erupt the two top central incisors at about 6 months of age
B. Most children have all 20 baby teeth by the age of two years to two and a half
C. Delayed eruption is usually considered when there are no teeth by approximately
13 months of age
D. Exfoliation begins at about 6 years of age and continues through 12 years of age
33. Which is the most appropriate test to confirm eradication of H pylory infection?
A. Gastric antral biopsy for histology
B. Stool H pylori antigen
C. Serum H pylori antibody
D. Gastric antral biopsy for rapid urease test
34. The following are all options to considering patients with stage A heart failure
except
A. Discourage alcohol intake
B. Encourage smoking cessation
C. Encourage exercise
D. Treat risk factor
E. Dietary salt restriction
35. Which of the following is not the pathological change of tetralogy of fallot
Ventricular septal defect
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Aortic straddling
36. Patient with cholera need to be isolated during treatment . After all symptoms
disappear 6 days, the stool should be cultured once every other day, if cannot
isolate the pathogenic bacteria () consecutive times, then the patients can be
released
A. Three
B. One
C. Four
D. Two
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