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Crimsoc - Crim

BS Criminology (University of Southern Mindanao)

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BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON

SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS
Prepared by: Prof. Frederick Rodriguez
1. A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social 11. It has the power to define and punish crime
phenomenon. A. church
A. criminal psychology B. judiciary
B. criminal law C. state
C. criminal sociology D. police
D. criminology 12. Which of the following is not a victimless crime?
2. It is the study of human society, its origin, structure, A. vagrancy
functions and directions. B. illegal detention
A. psychology C. illegal gambling
B. sociology D. illegal possession of prohibited drugs
C. criminology 13. The purpose of penalty in the Positivistic School of
D. anthropology Criminology.
3. What the society’s instrument of making known what A. retribution
acts are crimes and what sanctions may be applied to B. rejection
those who commit acts defined as crimes? C. reformation
A. ethics D. restitution
B. conduct 14. A doctrine which criminals were seen as distinct
C. law types of humans who could be distinguished from non-
D. justice criminals by certain physical characteristics.
4. Who is the primary advocate of Positivism? A. theory of biological inferiority
A. Cesare Beccaria B. theory of differential association
B. Henry Goddard C. theory of natural selection
C. Cesare Lombroso D. theory of evolution
D. August Comte 15. A type of crime in which the end result is
5. The science of classifying human physical destruction.
characteristics. A. acquisitive crime
A. determinism B. seasonal crime
B. positivism C. extinctive crime
C. somatology D. static crime
D. atavism 16. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution
6. Science concerned with improving the quality of in a community.
human offspring. A. criminal epidemiology
A. genetics B. criminal psychology
B. criminology C. criminal demography
C. eugenics D. criminal determinism
D. heredity 17. The author of “The Criminal Man.”
E. Inheritance A. Goddard
7. Scientific approach based upon mental processes B. Garofalo
and characteristics. C. Beccaria
A. psychogenic approach D. Lombroso
B. biological determinism 18. Laws made by justices in cases decided in the
C. emotional determinism appellate courts especially by the Supreme Court.
D. criminological determinism A. common laws
8. Criminals who acted under the impulse of B. case laws
uncontrollable emotion on occasion during C. statutory laws
otherwise moral lives. D. civil law
A. seasonal criminal 19. This type of physique have relatively predominant
B. occasional criminal muscles, bones and motor organs of the body.
C. criminals of passion A. viscerotonic
D. born criminals B. endomorphic
9. A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on C. mesomorphic
victims of crime. D. ectomorphic
A. penology 20. The author of “Origin of Species” and “The Descent
B. criminal profiling of Man.”
C. criminal psychology A. Lombroso
D. victimology B. Beccaria
10. The principle which states that man, by nature, C. Darwin
always tries to maximized pleasure and avoid pain. D. Garofalo
A. utopia 21. He is the primary advocate of the “Theory of
B. socialism Differential Association.”
C. hedonism A. Lombroso
D. atavism B. Beccaria

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C. Sutherland C. Cheater theory

D. Garofalo D. Alienation
22. The author of “On Crimes and Punishment,” and 33. According to this theory, crime is a function of the
the primary advocate of the Classical School of conflict between the goals people have and the means
Criminology. they can use to legally obtain them.
A. Lombroso A. Social Learning theory
B. Beccaria B. Strain theory
C. Sutherland C. Social Disorganization theory
D. Garofalo D. Cultural Transmission
23. Who among the following stated that crime is 34. In 1913 published “The English Convict”, the result
normal in society? of a study begun in 1902 of 3,000 English convicts and
A. Henry Maudsley comparison groups of college students, hospital
B. Emile Durkheim patients, and soldier.
C. James Q. Wilson A. Charles Goring
D. Alienist B. Robert Dugdale
24. What is the legal principle in which the decision or C. Henry Goddard
holding in earlier case becomes the standard by which D. Edward Wilson
subsequent similar cases are adjudged. It literally 35. Literally means guilty act.
means “to stand by decided cases.” A. Dura lex sed lex
A. Just Desert B. Mens rea
B. Stare Decisis C. Actus reus
C. equal protection clause D. corpus delicti
D. Due process of law 36. The elements of social bond are…
25. The first I.Q. test was developed by a French 1. attachment
psychologist named. 2. family
A. Walter Reckless 3. commitment
B. Gabriel Tarde 4. career
C. Alfred Binet 5. involvement
D. Albert Bandura 6. responsibility
26. The Latin term “Nullum Crimen Nulla Poena Sine 7. belief
Lege” means… 8. morality
A. An act done against my will is not my act. A. 1,2,7,8
B. There is no crime where there is no law B.1,3,5,7
punishing it. C. 3,5,7,8
C. Ignorance of the law excuses no one D. 2,4,5,6
D. Mistake of fact is an excuse 37. What are the violent acts directed toward a
27. What crime is committed by a series of act in a particular person or members of group merely
lengthy space of time? because the targets share discernible racial, ethnic,
A. Instant crime religious, or gender characteristics.
B. episodal crime A. terrorism
C. static crime B. Hate crimes
D. rational crime C. molestation
28. Which of these refers to the scientific analysis of D. apartheid
the causes of crime? 38. What is the course of conduct directed at a specific
A. Criminal Etiology person that involves repeated physical or visual
B. Criminal Sociology proximity, nonconsensual communication, or verbal,
C. Criminal Anthropology written, or implied threats sufficient to cause fear in an
D. Criminal Psychiatry reasonable person?
29. Considered as one of the first known attempts to A. Cybercrime
establish a written code of conduct which was based B. typology of crime
on the principle of “lex talionis” OCULO PRO OCULO C. stalking
DENTE PRO DENTE. D. violent crime
A. Mosaic Code 39. What is the theory which suggests that
B. Code of Urnammu victimization risk is increased when people have a high-
C. Code of Kalantiaw risk lifestyle. Placing oneself at risk by going out to
D. Hammurabi’s Code dangerous places in increased victimization?
30. Who is the French Anthropologist that introduced A. Victim precipitation theory
the term Criminologie? B. Lifestyle theory
A. Paul Topinard C. Deviant place theory
B. Emile Durkheim D. Routine Activities theory
C. Robert Merton 40. Those who have substance abuse problems and
D. August Aichorn their prostitution is committed to support their drug
31. What is the process by which a person becomes habits.
fixed with a negative identity, such as “criminal” or “ex- A. Street Walker
con” and is forced to suffer the consequences of B. Bar Girls
outcast status? C. Brothel prostitutes
A. labeling D. Skeezers
B. natural selection 41. He was the first to take advantage of the criminal
C. situational crime prevention statistic that was beginning to become available in the
D. virulency 1820’s. He was the first “ Scientific Criminologist”
32. The idea that low female crime and delinquency employing an approach to his subject matter, which
rates are a reflection of the leniency with which police was very similar to that of modern criminologists, and
treat female offenders. is the “Father of Modern Sociological and Psychological
A. Chivalry hypothesis Statistic.”
B. Age of onset A. Abrahamsem

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B. Adolphe Quetelet 51. This doctrine states that man is essentially a moral
C. Andrew Von Hirsch creature with absolute freedom and intellect to chooses
D. William Tarde between good and evil.
42. A criminal act that is modelled or inspired by a A. free will
previous crime that has been reported in the media or B. hedonism
described in fiction. C. determinism
A. Copycat crime D. atavism
B. hedonism 52. Scientific study of crimes and criminals is started
C. acquisitive crime by the…
D. extinctive crime A. Classical School of Criminology
43. The Holy Three of Criminology are: Cesare B. Neo-classical school of Criminology
Lombroso, Enrico Ferri, and… C. Positivist School of Criminology
A. Stephen Schafer D. Independent School of Criminology
B. Ernest Hooton 53. The one regarded as the Father of Modern
C. Charles Goring (Empirical) Criminology.
D. Raffaele Garofalo A. Cesare Beccaria -Classical Criminology
GAROFELO B. Cesare Lombroso
GARO- GAROFALO C. Edwin Sutherland
FE-FERRI D. Jeremy Bentham
LO -LOMBROSO 54. The theory stating that criminal behavior is not
inherited but learned through the process of
44. What are the crimes which are serious in nature association and communication refers to…
and which occur with sufficient frequency and A. Anomie theory
regularity such that they can serve as an index to the B. Strain theory
crime situation? C. Somatotyping theory
A. Crime volume D. Differential Association Theory
B. Index crimes 55. Regraded as the Dean of Modern Criminology.
C. Non-index crimes A. Cesare Lombroso
D. Crime solution efficiency B. Sigmund Freud
45. What is the science which involves the C. Edwin Sutherland
measurement of facial and other body characteristics D. Hans Gross
as indicative of human personality? 56. This refers to acquisition of criminal behavior from
A. Astrology one generation to another in which children have no
B. Phrenology choice but to adopt the criminal behavior of their
C. Physiognomy patterns.
D. Palmistry A. Social disorganization
46. If you study the primary reasons for crime B. Cultural conflict
causation, then you specifically deal with the C. Cultural transmission
application of… D. Social learning
A. Victimology 57. The one who disapproved the idea of Cesare
B. Sociology of Law Lombroso about born criminals by his study of English
C. Criminology Convict was…
D. Criminal Etiology A. Enrico Ferri
B. Edwin Sutherland
47. The anthropologist who introduced the term C. Earnest Hooton
Criminology into English Language. D. Charles Goring
A. Cesare Lombroso 58. This assumes that all of our actions are calculated
B. Cesare Beccaria in accordance with their likelihood of bringing pleasure
C. Edwin Sutherland and pain.
D. Paul Topinard A. Law of Talion
B. Utilitarianism
48. The theory of crime causation which states that C. Classical
offenders should be punished regardless of their D. Neo-classical
condition during the commission of the crime, thus, 59. According to Albert Bandura, behaviors are
emphasized more on the injurious effect of the criminal transmitted through examples. Children learn how to
act than the offender refers to… behave by fashioning their behavior after that of
A. Classical Criminology t=others. This theory is referred to as…
B. Positivist Theory A. Experience learning
C. Neo-classical Theory B. Social Learning
D. Differential Association Theory C. Observational learning
49. The one regarded as the cradle of Criminological D. Mock learning
study or the Father of Classical Criminology who wrote 60. It is the theory that focuses in the study of
the book on “Crimes and Punishment” on 1764. economics in relation to criminality.
A. Cesare Lombroso A. labeling
B. Cesare Beccaria B. Conflict
C. Classical Criminology C. Marxist
D. Positivist Criminology D. Consensus
50. The theory which states that children and lunatics 61. Criminal_______ the study of milieu (surroundings)
do not have the sufficient capacity to ponder upon the in relation to criminality.
consequences of their acts, thus, they should not be A. Psychiatry
regarded as criminals. B. Psychology
A. Classical Theory C. Physical Anthropology
B. Neo-Classical Theory D. Epidemiology
C. Positivist theory 62. Considered to be the criminal law of the Philippines
D. Anomie theory prior to Spanish Colonization promulgated on 1433.

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A. Mosaic Code
B. Roman Law D. Study of human mind.
C. Code of Kalantiao 72. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
D. Code of Maragtas ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law,
63. This theory states that punishment should fit the and as a private citizen can push him to a life of crime
crime. as pointed out in this theory.
A. Classical Theory A. Disorganization theory
B. Neoclassical theory B. Cultural Conflict Theory
C. Utilitarianism C. Differential Association Theory
D. Positivist School of Criminology D. Strain theory
64. He stated that Criminal Behavior is rooted to 73. Cultural conflict was thoroughly studied by____
hereditary inferiority. wherein he concluded that the main difference
A. Henry Maudsley between a criminal and a non-criminal is that each is
B. Montesquieu responding to different sets of conduct norms.
C. Rafael Garofalo A. Thorsten Sellin
D. Ernest Hooton B. Emile Durkheim
65. The following are causes of criminality according to C. Sigmund Freud
psychological determinism, except… D. Abraham Maslow
A. poor moral development 74. Peter robbed the watch of Maria but due to Maria’s
B. emotional immaturity refusal, Peter stab Maria to death. What crime
C. defective conscience according to plurality is committed by Peter?
D. abnormal chromosomes A. Complex crime
66. This theory focuses on the development of high B. Simple Crime
crimes areas associated with the disintegration of C. Instant Crime
conventional values caused by rapid industrialization, D. Situational Crime
increased immigration, and urbanization. 75. These are offenses committed by people who are
A. Cultural Theory highly respected belonging to the upper socio-
B. Differential Association economic class and results to the commission of the
C. Culture Conflict theory crime in line with their profession.
D. Social Disorganization theory A. White-collar crime
67. This theory focuses on techniques and strategies B. Blue-Collar Crime
that regulates human behavior and lead to conformity C. Public order crime
to society’s rules. D. Organized crime
A. Containment theory 76. Who wrote the book “ Introduction to the Principles
B. Social Bond of Morals and Legislation during the enlightened era
C. Social Control which popularized the idea that people being equally
D. Social Reaction possessed of freewill and the capacity for rational
68. A societal stage marked by normlessness in which thought should be treated equally and that
disintegration and chaos have replaced social cohesion. utilitarianism should be the basis of social governance
A. Social Disorganization as it is for most human behavior?
B. Anomie A. John Howard
C. Strain B. Cesare Beccaria
D. Conflict C. Jeremy Bentham
69. Cesare Lombroso, in his Positivist Theory referred D. John Locke
to a particular type of offenders considered to be lower 77. Which school of thought in criminology states
form of life nearer in appearance to their ape-like character not freewill nor determinism is the source of
ancestors, than the non-criminals both in character and criminality?
disposition differentiated by various atavistic stigmata. A. Classical School
These particular type of criminal is referred to as… B. Neo-classical school
A. Criminaloids C. Positivist School
B. Insane criminals D. Latino School
C. born-criminal 78. An astronomer in Belgium during the 1820’s who
D. Habitual criminal mixed meteorology, mathematics, biology, and early
70. In Classical Criminology it was explained that man’s sociology into what was called social physics or the
intelligence and rationality controls human behavior social mechanics of crime. Who was he?
and that before they commit any crime they try to A. August Comte
determine the amount of pain they will suffer, which B. Adolph Quetelet
represents the _____ for the crimes they have C. Glenn Armstrong
committed. D. Charles Darwin
A. reward 79. What perspective on crime causation holds that
B. punishment criminality is the result of conscious choice? It predicts
C. pain that individuals will choose to commit crime when the
D. pleasure benefits of doing so outweigh the costs of disobeying
71. Physiognomy as a factor in crime causation refers the law.
to the… A. Radical theory
A. Study of the body built of a person in B. Rational Choice Theory
relation to his personality behavior and the C. Endangered Species Theory
type of offense he or she is most prone to D. Freewill
commit. 80. If the motive of the criminal act is based upon
stress, hassles and interpersonal relations, then
B. Study of external formation of the skull and the most applicable theory would be…
brain formation A. Differential association theory
B. Theological theory
C. Study of the facial features of man and its C. Anomie Theory
relation to human behavior. D. Strain Theory

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81. Which of the following is not a crime against public 90. The attempt to categorize, understand, and predict
order in the context of the Revised Penal Code? the behavior of certain types of offenders based on
A. Rebellion behavioral clues they provide is commonly known as…
B. Sedition A. Psychological Reasoning
C. Gambling B. Psychological Profiling
D. Coup d’ etat C. Psychological statistics
82. After having rape May, Pedro stabbed the former D. Psychological Dimensions
to death, seventy two (72) times with an eight inches 91. An organized program That offers services to
knife but the acts of stabbing was not premeditated victims of crime in the areas of crisis intervention and
nor with deliberate thinking but rather a product follow-up counseling and that helps victims secure their
of his passion to kill. Pedro in this case is a … rights under the law. This refers to…
A. Acute criminal A. Victims rights
B. Chronic Criminal B. Victims-Assistance Program
C. Professional Criminal C. In-house rehabilitation program
D. Insane Criminal D. Witness protection program
83. The idea in Criminology that emphasizes on the 92. Statement No.1 Criminology Explains the etiology,
subordinate position of women in society. According to extent and nature of crime in society; Statement No.2
this idea, women remain in a position of inferiority that Criminal Justice System refers to the agencies of social
has not been fully rectified by changes in the law during control that handle criminal offenders.
the late twentieth century. What is being described? A. Statement No.1 is true
A. Feminist Criminology B. Statement No. 2 is false
B. Radical Criminology C. Statement No.1 and 2 are true
C. Critical Criminology D. Statement No 1 and 2 are false
D. All of the foregoing 93. According to Hans Eysenck about the behavioral
84. One of the earliest scientific work in Philippine character and incidence to crime, the typical extravert
Criminology was “ Criminality in the Philippines: 1903- is one who is …
1908” studied or initiated by… A. oversized, heavy and firm
A. Vladimir Villamor B. Undersized, short and untidy
B. Ramon Blanco C. Reserved, quiet and cautious
C. Ignacio Villamor D. Sociable, impulsive, optimistic, and has
D. Daniel Polkmar high needs for excitement.
85. When physician has specialized with the study of 94. Among the following classical thought in
changes in body tissues as a result of disease or death, Criminology is not correct.
and the impact of such evidence on legal cases, A. the Classical School of Criminology also
typically homicide, and may work as medico-legal or argued that nature has placed mankind under
coroner in determining the cause of death, then he or the governance of two sovereign masters,
she must be a… pain and pleasure.
A. Forensic Chemist B. The classical school of Criminology argues
B. Forensic Odontologist that criminals were primitive creatures,
C. Forensic Pathologist incapable of living normally in society.
D. Autopsy expert C. the classical school of Criminology is an
86. A person who studies criminology not to be advocate of punishment as a deterrent to
confused with a “criminalist” who reconstruct a crime crime.
scene or works with crime scene evidence for forensic D. The classical school of Criminology is
purposes is properly called… spearheaded by Bentham and Beccaria.
A. Social Worker 95. What school of thought in Criminology challenges
B. Criminologist the proposition than man has absolute freewill to
C. Sociologist choose between good and evil and states that it is not
D. Forensic Scientist absolute as presumed to be because freewill can be
87. Some of the defining features of the classical school diminished by pathology, mental disorders and other
in criminology include the following, except… condition that may mitigate personal responsibility.
A. People are guided by freewill A. Positivism
B. Behavior is guided by hedonism B. Hedonistic Calculus
C. Punishment should fit the crime not the C. Neo-classical theory
criminal. D. Radical Criminology
D. Bad people are nothing more than a result 96. Which of the following statements describe
of bad laws. mesomorphic?
88. _________ is a person with a personality disorder, A. The fat and soft body type.
especially one manifested in aggressively antisocial B. The muscular and hard physique.
behavior, which is often said to be the result of a poorly C. The attractive and beautiful shape.
developed superego. D. The twin and fragile with withdrawn
A. Neurotic behavior.
B. Psychopath 97. What chapter of the thesis contains the review of
C. Paranoid the related literature and related studies?
D. Criminaloid A. Chapter 1
89. Rehabilitation through re-education and re- B. Chapter 2
socialization. Segrate offenders and keep suggestible C. Chapter 3
people away from bad influences are concepts falling D. Chapter 4
under the application of… 98. This method of research is concerned with
A. Learning theory conditions of relationships that exist, practices that
B. Conflict theories prevail, beleifs and processes that are going on, effects
C. Control Theories that are being felt, or trends that are developing.
D. Anomie Theories A. descriptive
B. historical
C. experimental

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D. case study B. PNP law

99. A research to be empirical requires that the C. Constitution
researcher to have… D. Common law
A. knowledge of the problem 9. A law enforcement function in order to preserve
B. direct experience and observation social and public order.
C. complete description of the problem A. protection
D. confidence B. order maintenance
100. In 2001, there are 200, 450 crimes reported to C. crowd control
the Police Station of Municipality A. if the population of D. crime prevention
municipality A is 5 million, What is the crime rate? 10. A function of the Prosecution , by representing the
A. 3509 State in criminal cases and to present the case to the
B. 4250 judge.
C. 4010 A. trial advocacy
D. 4009 B. rehabilitation
C. pleading
Formula: D. charging
Crime Volume ÷ Population X 100, 0000 11. A claim by the accused that he or she was in
Given: another place when the crime occurred and therefore
Crime Volume: 200,450 could not have committed it.
Population: 5,000,000 A. defense of instigation
Crime rate: ??? B. defense of consent
C. defense of alibi
D. defense of duress
200, 450 ÷ 5,000,000 = 0.04009
12. A judicial tribunal designed to administer justice.
0.04009 x 100,000 = 4009 A. Office of the Ombudsman
B. Court
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM C. Jury
1. The apparatus of the state designed to enforce the D. Department of Justice
law by arresting, prosecuting and adjudicating those 13. One which consists of several parts that interacts
accused of violating it and by applying the proper with each other to produce some results, serve some
sanctions to those found guilty. functions or meet some objectives.
A. court A. justice
B. criminal justice system B. feedback
C. government C. system
D. due process of law D. environment
2. It means not only observed acts of crime but the 14. What is the most basic unit of the government?
results of a crime, which triggers the operation of the A. family
criminal justice process. B. law enforcement
A. commission of crime C. barangay
B. detection of crime D. Court
C. solution of crime 15. The recital of the rights of the suspect during
D. adjudication of crime custodial investigation.
3. A person who has violated the penal law and has A. Bill of Rights
been found guilty by the court. B. Code of ethics
A. accused C. Miranda Warning
B. suspect D. Policeman’s Code
C. parolee 16. The one who determines personally the existence
D. criminal of probable cause in the issuance of search warrant.
4. The taking of a person into custody in order that he A. fiscal
may be bound to answer for the commission of an B. judge
offense. C. police officer
A. search D. victim
B. detention 17. Who is the main character of the Criminal Justice
C. seizure System?
D. arrest A. victim
5. A valid warrantless arrest B. offender
A. citizen’s arrest C. law enforcement
B. illegal arrest D. Fiscal
C. void arrest 18. Fiscal or prosecutors are under the…
D. judicial arrest A. Department of Justice
6. The authority of the court to hear and determine a B. Department of the Interior and Local
case. Government
A. executive power C. Department of Social Welfare and
B. hearing Development
C. jurisdiction D. Department of National Defense
D. decision 19. How many members the Lupon has?
7. The reading of charges against the accused in the A. 3
open court and the declaration of his plea of guilty or B. 10-20
not guilty. C. 5-10
A. charging D. 5
B. arraignment 20. They serve as the conciliation panel consisting of 3
C. sentencing members.
D. trial A. Lupon Tagapagkasundo
8. It provides the basis for due process of law. B. Lupon Tagapamayapa
A. Bible C. Pangkat Tagpagkasundo

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D. Pangkat tagapamayapa C. Assert or make an accusation

21. A____________ period during the peak of an anger D. Remove from its position
reaction. 33. Any of the processes involving enforcement of care,
A. Cooling off custody or support orders by an executive agency
B. completion rather than by courts or judges.
C. winding up A. trials
D. cleaning up B. summary procedure
22. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for C. administrative procedure
the transgression of the law. D. criminal procedure
A. penalty 34. A disposition requiring a dependent to pay
B. exemplarity damages to a victim. The law prohibits making it a
C. self-defense condition of receiving probation. Poor families cannot
D. punishment be deprived of probation simply because they are too
23. It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that poor to afford it.
the evidence does not show that his guilt beyond A. surety
reasonable doubt. B. bond
A. dismissal C. restitution
B. acquittal D. protection money
C. conviction 35. It refers to the security given for the release of the
D. judgment person in custody of the law, furnished by him/her or
24. Judgment becomes final when… a bondsman to guarantee his/her appearance before
A. the period for perfect appeal lapse any court.
B. when the sentenced is partially or totally A. conditions
satisfied or served B. surety
C. when the accused waived in writing his C. money order
right to appeal D. answer not given →bail
D. when he applied for probation 36. What do you call the arrest made by an ordinary
E. All of the foregoing citizen of the community under the conditions
25. When should an appeal be taken? prescribed under Rule 113 Section 5 of the Revised
A. within 10 days Rules of Court?
B. within 15 days A. Warrantless arrest
C. within 30 days B. Ordinary arrest
D. within 5 days C. Warranted Arrest
26. The party appealing the case shall be called… D. Police Apprehension
A. appellant 37. In bringing the offender to the folds of the law and
B. accused assisting in their conviction, what is the role of the
C. appellee police when the case is under trial?
D. defendant A. Be responsible for the detention of the
27. It refers to the process by which the judge renders accused
his disposition of the case by writing his decision. B. Act as a witness in favor of the prosecution
A. rendition C. Act as witness in favor of the defense
B. execution of judgment D. provide the court with evidence
C. promulgation of judgment 38. When in his presence the person to be arrested has
D. service of judgment committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to
28. Pre-trial conference is a mandatory proceeding in commit an offense is a scenario which can also be
criminal cases designed to expedite the proceeding called as…
should be conducted within____ days after the A. hot pursuit
arraignment. B. In Flagrante Delicto Arrest
A. 15 C. Fugitive from Justice
B. 20 D. Prisoner arrest
C. 30 39. The following are officers empowered to conduct
D. 180 Preliminary Investigation, except…
29. During the prehistoric times, there was no formal A. City Fiscal
criminal justice system, and crimes where punished B. Regional Prosecutor
based on… C. Clerk of Court
A. formal laws D. State prosecutor
B. conscience 40. Who shall act as the Law Office of the Province or
C. customs City in absence of Legal Officer?
D. The Bible A. DOJ Secretary
30. Generally, putting to death a person, as a legal B. Prosecutor
penalty is called… C. Judge
A. execution D. Ombudsman
B. infliction 41. Which among the following criminal justice model
C. capital punishment is based on the idea the most important function of the
D. murder pillars of the Criminal Justice System are the protection
31. When we say capital offense, it means that… of the public and the repression of criminal conduct?
A. a very serious crime, for which the death A. crime control
penalty is imposed B. crime prevention
B. total punishment of offender by C. crime detection
incarceration. D. crime reduction
C. the highest penalty for selected offenses 42. It is a sworn written statement charging a person
D. all of the above for an offense, subscribed by the offended party, public
32. Allege means… officers or any peace officer in charge of the law
A. Direct act for doing violated.
B. Intentional Mutilation A. affidavit

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B. information 54. It is a change made by the president on the

C. complaint decision of the court by reducing the degree of penalty
D. statement imposed upon the convicted felon.
43. It is under the supervision and control of the A. amnesty
Department of Justice and is tasked as the B. Pardon
prosecutorial arm of the government. C. Commutation
A. National Prosecution Service D. reprieve
B. Ombudsman 55. It is tasked for the treatment and rehabilitation of
C. Sandiganbayan National Prisoner which us under the Department of
D. Truth Commission Justice?
44. It is an authority conferred by law to act in certain A. Bureau of Correction
conditions or situations in accordance with an official’s B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
or an official agency’s own judgment and conscience. C. Bureau of Prisons
A. decision D. Bureau of punishment
B. judgment 56. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges
C. discretion presented before the court, he is…
D. power A. absuelto
45. What serves as a basis in charging or prosecuting B. acquitted
a person with and for an offense? C. Suspended
A. intelligence report D. Convicted
B. probable cause 57. Mr Tenten is convicted for a crime. After serving
C. Judge’s Whim the minimum term of his sentence, he is qualified to
D. Raw Information apply for __________ to be approved by the Board of
46. Which among the following was formerly knowns Pardons and Parole.
as the Court of First Instance? A. Pardon
A. Court of Appeals B. Amnesty
B. Regional Trial Court C. Probation
C. Municipal Trial Court D. Parole
D. Supreme Court 58. It is the security facility, usually operated by the
47. What is considered as the base and most important police stations, for temporary detention of persons held
pillar of the criminal justice system because without its for investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation
cooperation, the other pillars cannot exercise their before the prosecutor.
functions well and attain their goals and objectives. A. Lock-up jail
A. Community B. Workhouses, jail farms or camp
B. Law Enforcement C. Ordinary Jail
C. Corrections D. Prison
D. Prosecution 59. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director
48. It is the capacity to use wise and appropriate of Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted
judgment on every incident a given situation. from the length of years that a prisoner have been
A. decision sentenced to serve for his good conduct.
B. judgment A. Commutation of sentence
C. discretion B. Good conduct time allowance
D. Wisdom C. Parole
49. Which of the following determines Jurisdiction in D. Reprieve
criminal cases? 60. How many days is given to an accused person to
A. Place where the crime was committed. prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered.
B. Place where the judge lives A. 15 days
C. residence of the accused. B. 20 days
D. Residence of the victim C. 30 days
50. What is the branch of criminology, which deals with D. 180 days
the management and administration of inmates. 61. A pillar or component of the Criminal Justice
A. Criminalistics System which is involved in the administration of
B. Penology appropriate sanctions in keeping with the sentence
C. Etiology of crime handed down.
D. Sociology of crime A. corrections
51. It refers to a person who is sentence to a prison B. prosecution
term of over 3 years or to pay a fine of more than 1 C. court
thousand pesos or both and imprisonment. D. law enforcement
A. Insular prisoner 62. The stage of the criminal justice process which
B. Municipal prisoner involves the convicted person’s serving the sentence
C. Provincial prisoner imposed.
D. Regional Prisoner A. sentencing
52. Who shall act as the Law officer of the province or B. adjudication
city in the absence of Legal Officer? C. corrections
A. Court Administrator D. charging
B. Prosecutor 63. The informal component of the Criminal Justice
C. Judge System.
D. Ombudsman A. community
53. It is a program of activity directed to restore an B. prosecution
inmate’s self respect, thereby making him a law abiding C. law enforcement
citizen after serving his sentence. D. corrections
A. reformation 64. This defense in a criminal case is based on the claim
B. retribution that the act was the result, not of any intent on the
C. restitution part of the accused but of threats of loss of life, limb or
D. revival a loved one.

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A. defense of instigation B. petition for Writ of Amparo

B. defense of alibi C. temporary Protection Order
C. defense of consent D. Production order
D. defense of duress 76. Ador was caught in the act of committing robbery.
65. It is an authority conferred by law to act a certain The arresting officer likewise seized a caliber .45 pistol
conditions or situations in accordance with an official’s from his possession. This case is an illustration of…
or an official agency’s own considered judgment and A. search incidental to lawful arrest
conscience. B. valid warrantless search
A. power C. stop and frisk
B. discretion D. plain view doctrine
C. jurisdiction 77. The crimes of adultery and concubinage may
D. command prosecuted only…
66. It refers to a person who is sentence to serve A. upon the complaint filed by the offended
imprisonment for not more than 3 years or to pay a spouse.
fine of not more than one thousand pesos or both fine B. when the offended spouse included in the
and imprisonment. complaint both of the guilty parties.
A. insular prisoner C. when the offended spouse has not
B. provincial prisoner consented to the offense or pardoned the
C. regional prisoner offenders.
D. municipal prisoner D. all of the foregoing are correct answer.
67. Who heads the Lupon Tagapamayapa as 78. When is preliminary investigation required?
prescribed in Republic Act 7160? A. when the offense is punishable by
A. Barangay Chairman imprisonment of at least 4 years, 2 months,
B. District Representative and 1 day.
C. City Mayor B. when the offense is punishable by
D. Provincial Governor imprisonment of more than 4 years, 2 months
68. A local government together with society of and 1 day.
individuals or institutions. C. when the offense is punishable by at least
A. family 4 years.
B. religion D. when the offense is punishable by at least
C. community 6 years, 2 months and 1 day.
D. prison 79. What is the purpose of Barangay Justice System?
69. It refers to anything which is contrary or against A. to prevent the deterioration of the quality
the rule of a particular prison or jail facility like cash, of justice which has been brought about by
jewelry, dangerous drugs and deadly weapons. the indiscriminate filing of cases in the courts
A. taboo stuff and to reduce numbers of court litigations.
B. contraband B. to maintain the harmonious relationship
C. censored article between neighbors.
D. Prohibited items C. no complaint, petition, or action shall be
70. The reduction or elimination of the desire and filed directly or indirectly in court or any
opportunity to commit a crime government office for adjudication without
A. law enforcement first referring the same with the Lupon.
B. protection of rights D. Amicable settlement and arbitration award
C. crime prevention has the force and effect of a final judgment.
D. order maintenance 80. Plea bargaining may be conducted during…
71. It has the power to define and punish crime. A. pre-trial conference
A. church B. Trial
B. judiciary C. arraignment
C. state D. preliminary investigation
D. police 81. What is the purpose of pre-trial?
72. What is the basic unit of society? A. to ascertain that the accused is guilty.
A. community B. to expedite the trial
B. government C. to ascertain that the complainant and the
C. family witnesses are telling the truth.
D. barangay D. to acquire jurisdiction over the person of
73. Which of the following is considered as the easiest the accused.
to understand and most practical course yet difficult to 82. Doubt engendered by an investigation of the whole
apply or observe properly? proof and an inability, after such investigation, to let
A. administration the mind rest upon the certainty of guilt.
B. investigation A. reasonable doubt
C. ethics B. cause of action
D. operation C. probable cause
74. An information is, except… D. prima facie evidence
A. an accusation in writing. 83. What is the summary investigation conducted by a
B. charging a person with an offense public prosecutor in criminal cases involving persons
C. subscribed by the prosecutor arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant
D. Subscribed by the offended party of arrest issued by the court.
75. A remedy available to any person whose right to A. inquest proceeding
life, liberty and security is violated or threatened with B. summary hearing
violation by an unlawful act or omission of a public C. pre-trial
official or employee, or of a private individual or entity. D. preliminary investigation
It shall cover extralegal killings and enforced 84. Subpoena is the compulsory process to insure the
disappearance or threats thereof. attendance of witnesses and presentation of evidence
A. petition for Writ of Habeas Corpus before the court.
A. true

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B. False B. Court
C. yes C. prosecution
D. no D. community
85. What is the order issued by the investigating 96. Warrant of arrest expires within 10 days after
prosecutor to compel the presence of a person in a receipt.
particular time and date. A. true
A. mandamus B. false
B. Subpoena C. maybe true
C. Certiorari D. maybe false
D. quo warranto 97. Who is the main character in the Philippine Criminal
86. Literally means “ to produce the body.” Justice System?
A. copus delicti A. offender
B. habeas corpus B. victim
C. situs criminis C. law enforcement
D. warrant of arrest D. community
87. Which of the following has the same meaning as 98. Who is the main offended party in a criminal case?
respondent? A. plaintiff
A. plaintiff B. the victim
B. Complainant C. the state
C. accused D. law enforcement officer
D. offended party 99. Evidence illegally obtained is…
88. A lien on the property given as security for the A. returned to the owner
amount of the bail B. Destroyed
A. recognizance C. confiscated
B. cash deposit D. inadmissible
C. corporate surety 100. Peter Penduco was charged for the crime of
D. property bond murder. A warrant of arrest was eventually issued by
89. It has the exclusive original jurisdiction over the court. Since Peter Penduco cannot be located, the
violations of city or municipal ordinances. warrant was not executed. The court then allowed the
A. MTC/MCTC prosecution to present its evidence. The court found
B. RTC Peter Penduco guilty of murder beyond reasonable
C. Supreme Court doubt. If the police officers who are in charge of the
D. Barangay case eventually find Peter Penduco, they shall…
90. Considered as the base and most important pillar A. arrest him and bring him to the National
of the Philippine Criminal Justice System because Bilibid Prison because he is convicted of a
without its cooperation, the other pillars cannot crime punishable by reclusion perpetua,
exercise their functions well and attain their goals and therefor, he is an insular prisoner.
objectives. B. arrest and detain him.
A. law enforcement C. just let him enjoy his liberty.
B. Correction D. make friend with him.
C. prosecution
D. community POLICE ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS
91. It is under the supervision and control of the
Department of Justice tasked as the prosecutorial arm 1. What is the practical science that treats the
of the government. principles of human morality and duty as applied to law
A. National Prosecution Service enforcement?
B. Solicitor General A. Virtue
C. Prosecutor B. Ethics
D. Ombudsman C. Police Ethics
92. What is the negotiation between the defense D. Conscience
counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at reaching an 2. What is the conceptual policy laid down for
agreement whereby the prosecutor uses discretion to observance of all law enforcement personnel to
obtain from the judge a lighter sentence in exchange exercise utmost restraint and self-control in the
for accused’s entering a guilty plea? performance of their official functions?
A. contract A. Maximum Tolerance
B. amicable settlement B. Police discretion
C. arraignment C. prudence
D. plea bargaining D. temperance
93. The arbiter in court who has the duty to weigh the 3. What is the virtue characterized by firmness of mind;
credibility of evidence and to ensure that the defense the courage to endure without yielding?
and prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of A. patience
introducing evidence. B. Perseverance
A. jury C. endurance
B. sheriff D. fortitude
C. clerk of court 4. What is the moral courage to sacrifice self-interest?
D. judge A. delicadeza
94. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the B. equality of service
commission of a crime and subject of an investigation. C. political patronage
A. accused D. Word of honor
B. Defendant 5. What is the ceremony conducted as a sign of respect
C. respondent to a deceased member of the command or
D. suspect organization?
95. What is the forefront and prime mover of the A. posthumous promotion
justice system? B. half-mast
A. law enforcement C. flag raising

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D. flag retreat B. integrity

6. What is the police professional conduct C. judicious use of authority
characterized by providing services to everyone D. morality
without discrimination? 16. What is the foundation of police community
A. commitment to democracy relations?
B. non-partisanship A. police ethics
C. commitment to public interest B. efficient service
D. non-solicitation of patronage C. goodwill of the people
7. What is the set of norms or standard practiced by D. confidence of the people
members of the Philippine National Police during social 17. What is the highest form of love as a basic police
and other gatherings? values?
A. customs A. love of God
B. Ceremony B. love of one’s self
C. social decorum C. selfless love
D. courtesy D. love of power
8. What is the planned used of communication 18. PNP members are encourage to promote a living
techniques designed to effect the minds and emotion that is acceptable in the eyes of the public. They must
of a given group on certain issues? promote simple yet credible lives. This means that it is
A. propaganda unethical for the PNP members to become rich.
B. Information A. True
C. intelligence gathering B. False
D. rumors C. sometimes
9. Refers to the performance of duties without D. maybe
arrogance; recognizing one’s own inadequacies, 19. What is the binding spirit that enhances the
inabilities and limitations as individual and performing teamwork and cooperation in the police organization,
duties without attracting attention or expecting the extending to the people they serve, and manifested by
applause of others. the PNP member’s deep commitment and concern to
A. orderliness one another?
B. Humility A. loyalty
C. valor B. Camaraderie
D. integrity C. patriotism
10. PNP members shall seek self-improvement D. responsibility
through career development and shall not directly 20. What is the purpose of police ethics?
or indirectly solicit influence or recommendation A. to set standard on right attitude.
from politician, government officials, prominent B. to established a rule on the right thing to
citizens, person affiliated with civic or religious do.
organizations with regard to promotion, assignments, C. to teach members of the PNP to become
transfer, etc. good.
A. solicitation of patronage D. to provide rules of conduct and punishment
B. public office is a public trust 21. What is the doctrine that impose commensurate
C. non-solicitation of patronage accountability to the one who is vested with authority
D. devotion to duty to exercise management leadership functions?
11. What is the public announcement of relinquishment A. command responsibility
of command by the outgoing officer and assumption of B. Command
the same by the incoming officer in the presence of the C. scalar principle
immediate superior or his representative? D. responsibility
A. honor ceremony 22. Any public officer who agrees to perform an act
B. courtesy call constituting a crime, in connection with the
C. exit call performance of his official duties, in consideration of
D. turn-over ceremony any offer, promise gift or present received by such
12. What is the channel through which information is officer personally or through the mediation of another
disseminated to the public? shall be liable for…
A. television A. direct bribery
B. facebook B. indirect bribery
C. newspaper C. extortion
D. media/mass media D. malversation
13. Which of the following is not a requirement for 23. Which of the following statement pertains to public
good community relations? relations program?
A. sincerity in serving the public A. designed to maintain harmony and mutual
B. Submitting to all the desires and will of the support between the police and the
people community.
C. sound police ethics B. designed to bridge the communication gap
D. high standard of management and between the police and the public
operation C. designed to maintain and encourage
14. Medical-dental mission, sports clinic, feeding community development
programs, seminars, and the like conducted by the D. designed to condition both friendly and
police are examples of… hostile public, ensuring the facilitation of the
A. Police community relations attainment of police objectives.
B. community participants 24. The Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act.
C. public relations A. RA No. 3019
D. community service B. RA No. 6713
15. What is the service of proper and legitimate use of C. RA No. 7080
authority in the performance of duty? D. RA No. 6975
A. discretion 25. The Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for the
Public Officials.

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A. RA No. 3019 35. The PNP members are upright in character, polite
B. RA No. 6713 in manners, dignified in appearance, and sincere in
C. RA No. 7080 their concern to their fellowmen. This statement
D. RA No. 6975 pertains to the police tradition of…
26. This arises when a public official or employee is a A. patriotism
member of a board, an officer, or a substantial B. gentlemanliness
stockholder or a private corporation or owner or has a C. discipline
substantial interest in a business, and the interest of D. word of honor
such corporation or business, or his rights or duties 36. What is equality of service?
therein, may be opposed to or affected by the faithful A. The judicious and equitable distribution of
performance of official duty. opportunity to prove one’s worth in the PNP
A. conflict of interest service and it shall strictly adhere to the rule
B. Nepotism of merit and fitness system.
C. illegal exaction B. The PNP shall formulate and implement
D. betrayal of public trust policies and human resources development
27. Any gift or emolument used corruptly to influence system for all personnel, from recruitment to
public or official function. retirement.
A. kickback C. PNP members shall set good examples to
B. Gratuity their subordinates and fellow good examples
C. bribe from their superior.
D. pension D. None of the above
28. An act of behavior of a police officer, irrespective 37. The ability to pursue goals despite obstacle and
of rank, done in his official or private capacity which, in opposition.
dishonoring or disgracing himself as a police officer, A. patience
seriously compromise his character and standing in the B. Endurance
PNP in such a manner as to indicate vitiated or corrupt C. perseverance
state of moral character which shows his unworthiness D. prudence
to remain in the police service. 38. What is the manifestation or expression of
A. immorality consideration and respect for others.
B. conduct unbecoming of a police officer A. courtesy
C. corruption B. Salute
D. moral turpitude C. Ceremony
29. A police officer who refrains from patronizing D. loyalty
houses of ill-refute and always faithful to his lawfully 39. The best police community relation activity of a
wedded wife is adhering to the ethical standard of… police officer is…
A. morality A. perform his job efficiently and effectively.
B. loyalty B. make more arrest
C. conscience C. dress well
D. integrity D. issue press release
30. The ethical doctrine for members of the PNP is set 40. Which of the following is not a duty of a civic action
in the… officer?
A. Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act. A. issue press release for time to time
B. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and regarding police activities which are of public
Ethical Standards (COPCES). concern. → Duty of Public Relations Officer
C. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for B. initiate fund-raising campaigns for juvenile
Public officials and Employees. delinquents who are being rehabilitated.
D. Anti-Plunder Act. C. be alert to safeguard the community
31. Refers to how people in the community perceive or against loss and damages to the properties
regard the police. and possible death, in the event of calamity.
A. police public image D. answer not give.
B. Propaganda 41. Refers to the police officers relation with men and
C. police-community relations women in his own department, superiors, the station
D. mass media commanders as well as the city or municipal mayor
32. What is the state of mind and emotions, affecting where he is assigned.
willingness to work, which in turn affects individual and A. inter-departmental relations →relations
organizational objectives. Also it is the mental condition with other police agencies
or attitude of individuals and group which determines B. intra-departmental relations
their willingness to cooperate. C. citizen’s relations
A. moral D. governmental relations
B. Morale 42. Which of the following is not a principle of police
C. morality community relations?
D. esprit d’ corps A. community must be kept informed.
33. The following, except one, are the ways to develop B. community goodwill must be developed.
goodwill of the public. C. community support must be maintained.
A. courtesy in dealing with the people. D. community resentment must be
B. employing maximum tolerance. developed.
C. employing diplomacy in resolving conflict. 43. One of the principles of police community relations
D. be selective of people to serve. is “ community goodwill must be developed. Which of
34. Which of the following is not a police custom on the following describes goodwill?
social decorum? A. prestige and friendly relations of the police
A. proper attire with the community.
B. proper uniform and appearance B. feeling of resentment of the community
C. salute towards the police.
D. table manners C. rejection by the public of the police officers.

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D. readiness of the community to give favor b. PNP Law

to the police. c. Constitution
44. Refers to the strength of mind and spirit that d. COPCES
enables a person to encounter danger with firmness 55. It refers to commitment, dignity and attitude of an
which is given the highest distinction in the police and individual towards work and his integrity and his
military. practice of the core moral value principles.
A. valor a. conduct
B. Patriotism b. professionalism
C. nationalism c. morality
D. bravery d. ethics
45. The first and foremost authority that must be 56. Which of the following is not a police custom on
respected by the PNP members is… courtesy?
A. the Constitution a. salute
B. Chief, PNP b. giving gift
C. immediate superior c. address/title
D. laws d. courtesy call
46. When a police officer is doing a job distinct from
regular duty as a policeman, he is said to be… 57. The branch of moral science which treats of the
A. malingering duties which a police officer owes to the public and
B. moonlighting community.
C. wandering a. police philosophy
D. AWOL b. police conduct
47. Police officers are accountable to the people c. police professionalism
because they are… d. police ethics
A. the authority
B. public servants 58. it is the essence of good manners, a manifestation
C. they are the boss of sportsmanship and an exposition of gentility and
D. they have the resources to perform their culture.
jobs a. courtesy
48. All members of the PNP must respect and protect b. loyalty
human dignity and man’s inalienable rights to life, c. discipline
liberty and property. This means that… d. morale
A. a police officer must never shoot anyone in 59. A mental or moral training that makes a man willing
any circumstance. to be subject to controls and regulations for the good
B. police must never destroy another’s of the entire group of which he is a member.
property. a. courtesy
C. police officers must exercise legitimate use b. loyalty
of authority in performing their job. c. discipline
D. police must never detain anyone. d. morale
49. What is the philosophy of the Philippine National 60. The concealment or distortion of truth in a matter
Police? of fact relevant to one’s office, or connected with the
A. All of these performance of his duties.
B. service a. gross misconduct
C. honor b. dishonesty
D. justice c. incompetence
50. What is the performance of duties with dedication, d. disloyalty
thoroughness, efficiency, enthusiasm, determination, 61. The doing either through ignorance, inattention or
and manifest concern of public welfare? malice, of that which the police officer had no legal
A. discipline right to do at all, as where he acts without any
B. social awareness authority whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses his
C. devotion to duty power.
D. obedience to superior a. incompetence
51. The society’s prime instrument for making known b. misconduct
what acts are crimes and what sanctions may be c. dishonesty
applied to those who commit acts defined as crimes. d. neglect of duty
a. ethics 62. The omission of refusal, without sufficient excuse,
b. law to perform an act or duty, which is the officer’s legal
c. conduct obligation to perform.
d. justice a. incompetence
52. A social norm providing guidance for people in their b. neglect of duty
dealings with one another, as an standard against c. misconduct
which actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or d. bribery
requirement that people act justly. 63. As a general rule, police officers are not permitted
A. law or allowed to engage in any other business or calling.
B. ethics a. bribery
C. conduct b. neglect of duty
D. justice c. moonlighting
53. What is the mental capacity to distinguish what is d. misconduct
right and wrong? 64. Police officers shall treat official business as such,
a. discernment and shall not impart the same to anyone except those
b. ethics for whom it is intended, or as directed by his superior
c. morality officer, or as required by law.
d. doli incapax a. criminal investigation
54. It provides basis for due process of law. b. confession
a. Bible c. admission

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d. confidential information 77. It is the state of affairs requiring tact to protect the
65. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and integrity of a person.
do good. a. virtue
a. virtue b. courage
b. dignity c. delicadeza
c. value d. honesty
d. conscience 78. All PNP members must have the moral courage to
66. Authority of a person he exercised over his sacrifice self interest in keeping with the time honored
subordinate. principle of…
a. chain of command a. delicadeza
b. responsibility b. pakikisama
c. command responsibility c. amor propio
d. command d. utang na loob
67. The courage to endure without yielding. 79. What characteristics of a police officer would show
a. perseverance firmness of mind?
b. fortitude a. Prudence
c. endurance b. Endurance
d. prudence c. Fortitude
68. It is a public trust. d. Perseverance
a. private property 80. It is the division of justice which regulates those
b. public office actions that involves the right which an individual may
c. duty claim from the society
d. personal commitment a. commutative justice
69. This refers to the sum total of dealings of the police b. distributive justice
with people it serves. c. legal justice
a. human relations d. cumulative justice
b. police community relations 81. It is the virtue by which men govern and discipline
c. police relations oneself by means of reason and sound judgment.
d. police public relations a. prudence
b. temperance
70. It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of c. fortitude
the police force. d. patience
a. Public Information Program 82. It is the sum total of dealings of the police with the
b. Civic Action program people it serves and whose goodwill and cooperation it
c. Public Relations craves for the greatest possible efficiency in public
d. Mass Communication Programs service.
71. The recital of the rights of a suspect during a. police public relations
custodial investigation. b. police community relations
a. bill of rights c. human relations
b. Code of Ethics d. public relations
c. Miranda Warning 83. There are eight categories of Peace Officer
d. Policemen’s Code Professional Public Relations. What category consists
72. The one who determines personally the existence of peace officer’s relations with other police
of probable cause in the issuance of a search warrant. agencies also involved in the enforcement of laws and
a. fiscal maintenance of peace and order as well as information
b. judge dissemination to the public.
c. police officer a. Intra-departmental
d. victim b. citizens’ relation
73. It refers how the people in the community perceive c. inter-departmental
or regard the police. d. complaint relation
a. police public image 84. Consists of persons dealings with the citizen of the
b. police projection community, city or town where a community person
c. police reputation lives. And his membership or contribution to the civic
d. police character organization or community association in the locality
74. Which of the following is an example of police a. domestic relation
immorality? b. community relation
a. going to office not in uniform c. neighborhood relation
b. always absent on his post d. government relation
c. smoking inside the mobile while patrolling 85. The following are principles of Police Community
d. living with a woman not his wife. relations, except…
75. What characteristics of a police officer would show a. public support must be maintained
the courage without yielding? b. public resentment must be avoided
a. prudence c. public goodwill must be developed
b. endurance d. public must not be informed
c. fortitude
d. perseverance 86. What is the degree of force that is appropriate in a
76.Refers to other standard of behavior or conduct given situation, and is not excessive, which is the
accepted in a given society which is expected of an minimum degree of force necessary to protect oneself,
individual living in that society. property, a third party, or the property of another in
a. culture the face of a substantial threat?
b. principles a. doubtful means
c. norms b. reasonable force
d. laws c. maximum tolerance
d. police discretion

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87. An old woman approach Patrolman Jose asking the c. gallantry

police officer to run after an unidentified young man d. valor
who allegedly snatched he mobile phone. Jose declined 98. These are honest policemen who are ready to hide
claiming that the man was already away from them and the corrupt practices of their comrades as part of
besides the police officer alleged that he is rushing camaraderie.
home for an urgent matter. The officer’s refusal to help a. black nights
the old woman is an example of… b. rogues
a. misconduct c. carnivorous
b. misfeasance d. straight shooter
c. malfeasance 99. They are police officers who engage in relatively
d. nonfeasance minor type of corruption opportunities as they
88. It is one’s ability to moderate or avoid something; present themselves.
the virtue that regulates the carnal appetite for sensual a. cotton eaters
pleasures. b. meat eaters
a. control c. grass eaters
b. judgment d. metal eaters
c. discretion 100. It refers to unnecessary and unreasonable use of
d. temperance force in effecting arrest or abuse in the manner of
89. It is a formal act or set of formal acts established conducting search and seizure.
by customs or authority as proper to special occasion. a. brutality
a. ceremony b. negligence
b. program c. imprudence
c. ritual d. nonfeasance
d. tradition
90. It is a habit that inclines the person to act in a way JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AND CRIME
that harmonizes with his nature. PREVENTION
a. attitude 1. The mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong.
b. value A. discernment
c. character B. ethics
d. virtue C. morality
91. What aspect of behavior pertains to our conscience D. imbecility
whether that action is good or bad? 2. Refers to the presumption that a child cannot form
a. moral a mens rea as they do not yet have a sufficient
b. just understanding between right and wrong.
c. decency A. discernment
d. ethics B. CICL
92. It is a gift of God that should be respected at all C. Doli incapax
times by everybody including the government. D. presumption of innocence
a. benefit 3. One of the following is an act constituting
b. privilege exploitation and sex abuse among children in exchange
c. incentive of any form of incentive.
d. right A. child abuse
93. Which of the following is considered as the easiest B. child trafficking
to understand and most practical course yet difficult to C. child racketeering
apply or observe properly. D. child prostitution
a. administration 4. Is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent
b. investigation whom the child feels the greatest emotional
c. ethics attachment to.
d. operation A. paternity
94. It is the relinquishment and assumption of B. maternity
command or key position that is publicly announced by C. parental selection
the outgoing and incoming officers. D. psychological parent
a. commencement exercises 5. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of
b. promotion rite a minor, whether habitual or not?
c. recognition rite A. abuse
d. turn over ceremony B. discrimination
95. It refers to the established usage or social practices C. caress
carried on by tradition that have obtained the force of D. exploitation
law. 6. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality
a. customs of which youth feels no remorse.
b. ethics A. accidental
c. decorum B. neurotic
d. tradition C. asocial
96. It is considered with those actions that pertains to D. social
one’s duties towards his neighbors and himself that 7. What is wrong, degrading or immoral habit or
build the character of a person. practice accustomed to the child?
a. emotional virtue A. addiction
b. physical virtue B. indecent action
c. moral virtue C. habitual delinquency
d. social virtue D. vice
97. It is the strength of mind or spirit that enables a 8. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that
person to encounter danger with firmness which is the status, rights and interests of children are upheld
given the highest distinction in police and military. in accordance with the Constitution and International
a. bravery instruments on Human Rights?
b. courage A. Kabataan Party List

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B. Sangguniang Kabataan 19. What program is required for the child in conflict
C. Commission on Human Rights with the law to undergo after he/she is found
D. National Youth Commission responsible for an offense without resorting to formal
9. It is an institution or place or residence whose court proceedings?
primary function is to give shelter and care to pregnant A. community service
women and their infants before, during and after B. parole
delivery. C. diversion
A. day care D. probation
B. maternity 20. This consists of the conditions and factors that
C. detention home surround and influence the individual.
D. nursery A. school
10. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind or otherwise B. gene
defective which restricts their means of action on C. chromosome
communication with others. D. environment
A. essentially incurable 21. Guardian ad litem means…
B. mentally Subnormal A. legal authority
C. Physically handicapped children B. for the proceeding
D. Retarded at maturity C. protection of child by the law
11. It is committed by any person who shall engage in D. guardians of the little children
trading and dealing with children including, but not
limited to the act of buying and selling of a child for Ad Litem → for the processing
money or for any other consideration or barter.
A. child prostitution 22. Which of the following refers to juveniles who have
B. child marketing doli incapax?
C. child exploitation A. children at puberty age
D. child trafficking B. children in conflict with the law
12. It is a process of taking into one’s family of the child C. children above nine below fifteen years old
of another, as son or daughter, and conferring on it a D. children aging from seven to twelve
title to the rights and privilege of such. 23. What is the legal doctrine establishing “parental”
A. adoption role of state over welfare of its citizens, especially its
B. filiations children?
C. expatriation A. parens patriae
D. repatriation B. Guardianship
13. The following are considered mentally retarded C. order of authority
children, except… D. in loco parentis
A. essentially incurable 24. What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is
B. mentally subnormal “unfit”, very young children should be placed in custody
C. late bloomer with their mother following a divorce?
D. retarded maturity A. illegitimacy
14. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only B. Tender years doctrine
against a child, while an adult does not suffer any C. Psychological parent doctrine
penalty of committing similar acts. These shall include D. unwed mother doctrine
curfew violations, truancy, parental disobedience and 25. A court order giving and individual or organization
the like. legal authority over a child. A guardian of the person is
A. Delinquency usually an individual and the child is called a ward. A
B. grave guardian of the estate is usually and organization, like
C. exclusive a bank, which manages the property and assets of a
D. status child’s inheritance. Guardians are usually compensated
15. Which among the following is the most preferred for their services.
court to handle cases involving Child in Conflict with A. parens patriae
the Law? B. guardianship
A. Barangay Court C. order of authority
B. Regional Trail Court D. In Loco Parentis
C. Family Court 26. Which of the following is the basic political unit
D. Supreme Court of the Filipino nation that implements the policies of
16. What approach towards delinquency views the the national and local government?
lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the result A. Barangay
of faulty biology? B. Family
A. biogenic C. Community
B. psychogenic D. Society
C. pathogenic 27. What is the doctrine that requires a process of
D. sociogenic resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of
17. It is defined as freedom from parental authority the victim, the offender and the community?
both over his person and property. A. Reactive Justice
A. liberty B. Proactive Justice
B. right C. Restorative Justice
C. emancipation D. all of the foregoing
D. independence 28. What is the type of offense committed where there
18. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately is no private offended party involved?
unattended or inadequately attended. A. minor crime
A. abandoned child B. status offense
B. dependent child C. Victimless crime
C. abused child D. all of the foregoing
D. neglected child

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29. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged A. judgment

as having committed an offense under Philippine laws B. disposition
is considered as… C. Preliminary investigation
A. minor offense D. probationary period
B. child at risk 39. What kind of assault is committed when it includes
C. child in conflict with the law kicking, punching, deliberately throwing an object and
D. Juvenile Offender drawing lethal weapon against someone?
30. The series of activities designed to address issues A. verbal
that caused the child to commit and offense, it may B. mental
take the form of an individualized treatment program, C. physical
which may include counseling skills training, education D. sexual
and other activities that will enhance his/her 40. Allege means…
psychological, emotional and psycho-social well being A. direct an act for doing
is called… B. Intentional mutilation
A. diversion C. Assert or make accusation
B. intervention D. Remove from its position
C. welfare procedures 41. Which of the following is described as the
D. reformation guide threatening behaviors, either verbal or physical,
31. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child directed at others.
with the law by law enforcement officers of private A. violence
citizens is termed as… B. abnormality
A. initial contact C. dependency
B. arrest D. aggression
C. child custody 42. Which of the following is an act committed by a
D. all of the foregoing juvenile for which an adult could not be prosecuted in
32. Children who are vulnerable to and at risk of a criminal court.
committing criminal offenses because of personal, A. status offense
family and social circumstances are considered… B. adult offense
A. Children at risk C. children in conflict with the law
B. Abused Children D. Delinquency Offense
C. Children in Conflict with the law 43. A term used to described a clinical condition in
D. Neglected Children young children who have received non-accidental,
33. Teachers, administrators and babysitters who are inexcusable violence or injury, ranging from minimal to
viewed as having some temporary parental rights and severe or fatal trauma at the hand of an adult in a
obligations are considered… position of trust, generally a parent or guardian.
A. parens patriae A. Abuse trauma syndrome
B. guardianship B. Battered Child Syndrome
C. order of authority C. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
D. in Loco Parentis D. Battered Woman Syndrome
34. It refers to the totality of circumstances and 44. When there is shared parental authority to make
conditions most congenial to the survival, protection decisions over a child or a minor, then there is…
and feelings of security of the child and most A. a rejoinder
encouraging to the child’s physical, psychological and B. joint custody of child
emotional development. C. Parental Jurisdiction
A. child’s role D. a jury
B. rights 45. Which of the following laws provides for stringent
C. best interest of the child deterrence against child abuse by giving special
D. obligations protection to children from exploitation and
35. A parent who provided an egg, sperm or uterus discrimination?
with an intent of giving the child up for adoption to A. P.D. 603
specific parties. B. P.D. 1612
A. stepparent C. P.D. 1602
B. foster parent D. R.A. 7610
C. surrogate parent 46. Under the law, this refers to persons below 18
D. none of the above years of age or those over but unable to fully take care
36. The independence of a minor from his or her of themselves from neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation
parents before reaching age of majority is known as… or discrimination due to some physical defect or
A. recognizance mental disability or condition.
B. emancipation A. minors
C. freedom from parental obligation B. wards
D. enlightenment C. disabled youths
37. A legal relationship between two people not D. children
biologically related, usually terminating the rights of 47. The form of an individualized treatment program
biological parents, and usually with trial “live-in” which may included counseling, skills training,
period. Once it is finalized, the records are sealed and education, and other activities that will enhance a
only the most compelling interests will enable child’s psychological, emotional and psycho-social well
disclosure of documents. being falls under the______ programs of the
A. brotherhood government as mandated by law.
B. adoption A. intervention
C. common law relationship B. rehabilitation
D. foster parenting C. diversion
38. It is a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to D. probation
sentencing phase of adult trial. The judge must 48. Offenses which discriminate only against a child,
consider alternative, innovative and individualized while an adult does not suffer any penalty for
sentences rather than imposing standard sentences. committing similar acts, are known as…

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A. victimless crime C. Neurotic delinquent

B. delinquencies D. Accidental delinquent
C. status offense 58. The putting of a child under duress to consent and
D. Juvenile Delinquencies engage in an activity is considered an act of…
49. A child over 15 but under 18, without discernment A. molestation
upon committing a crime is subject to… B. abuse
A. criminal proceeding C. coercion
B. diversion program D. cruelty
C. intervention program 59. Anything deliberately done that result in a child
D. probation engaging in sexual activity with any person willingly or
50. Which among the following is not part of the rights otherwise is considered…
of a child in conflict with the law? A. sexual abuse
A. right not to be subjected to torture or other B. lascivious conduct
cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or C. molestation
punishment. D. obscenity
B. to be imposed a sentence of capital 60. If an act or condition is something harmful to
punishment or life imprisonment, without the children by taking advantage of their innocence, then
possibility of release. it is an act of…
C. not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, A. exploitation
of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment B. obscenity
being a disposition of last resort, and which C. abuse
shall be for the shortest appropriate period of D. Lascivious conduct
time. 61. Lewd or sexually motivated acts done to others is
D. Right to bail and recognizance, in considered…
appropriate cases. A. Lascivious conduct
51. If the offender is over nine years of age but under B. unjust vexation
18 years of age at the time of the commission of the C. obscenity
crime, then he is often referred to as… D. sexual abuse
A. social delinquent 62. As a parent, the failure to provide for the needs of
B. youth offender a child can be considered by law as an act of …
C. criminal A. neglect
D. truant B. abuse
52. Which of the following delinquency factors refers C. cruelty
to inherited propensities which cannot be considered a D. discrimination
criminal one unless there is a probability that a crime 63. A harm done to a child’s intellectual functions
will be committed? which causes a change in behavior, awareness and
A. predisposing factor emotional response is appropriately called…
B. biological factor A. cruelty
C. precipitating factor B. child abuse
D. environmental factor C. physical injury
53. If the cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is D. psychological injury
a result of factors such as personal problems, 64. One of the following is an act of going about from
ignorance, and curiosity, then these are… place to place by a person without visible means of
A. predisposing factors support, who was idle, and who, though able to work
B. biological factors for his or her maintenance, refused to do so, but lived
C. precipitating factors without labor or on the charity of others.
D. environmental factors A. vandalism
54. Anything said or done that degrades, debases or B. truancy
demeans the inherent worth and dignity of a child is C. vagrancy
considered… D. wanderers
A. cruelty 65. A human conduct which results to bodily harm or
B. neglect damage, whether external or internal. Which one of the
C. abuse following is defined?
D. discrimination A. abuse
55. What study or approach in understanding juvenile B. psychological injury
delinquency explains that delinquency is a result of C. cruelty
critical factors such as personality problems to wherein D. physical injury
misbehavior is a response mechanism. 66. It is otherwise known as the decline in criminal
A. biogenic approach activities together with time.
B. Sociogenic approach A. birth cohort
C. Psychogenic approach B. observation
D. Cultural approach C. aging out phenomenon
56. An institution or person assuming the care, D. non participant observation
custody, protection and maintenance for children for 67. A person of this age is exempted from criminal
placement in any child-caring institution or home or liability.
under the care and custody of any person or persons A. 15 years of age and below
for purposes of adoption, guardianship or foster care. B. over 15 years but under 18 who acted with
A. Child Caring Institution discernment
B. Shelter Home C. over 15 years but under 18 who acted
C. Detention Home without discernment
D. Child Placing Agency D. A and C
57. What type of delinquent child internalizes his 68. A doctrine that treats Juvenile offenders not
conflicts and becomes preoccupied with his feelings. violators of the law but victims of parental neglect
A. Social Delinquent where the State extend to them the parental care that
B. Asocial Delinquent they need, thus the state becomes the Father.

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A. Substitute Parental Authority A. recidivism

B. Parens Patriae B. delinquency
C. Parens ad Litem C. reiteracion
D. Loco Parentis D. crime
69. Children found among places an armed conflict is 81. PD 603 is known as…
taking place are declared as________ where the state A. Parole Law
and all sectors are directed to settle and resolve B. The Child and Youth Welfare Code
problems of peace in order to promote the welfare of C. Probation Law
the said children. D. The Revised Penal Code
A. Zones of Peace 82. What is the power of the state to give any form of
B. Victims of War charity of public nature. It is the philosophy behind the
C. Juveniles view that youthful offender/child in conflict with the law
D. Innocent Victims is the victim of improper care and that the state is duty
70. This refers to the immediate family consisting of bound to provide protection?
the father, mother and their children. A. positivism C. loco parentis
A. Nuclear family B. parens patriae D. patria potestas
B. Conjugal family 83. Who has the responsibility make initial
C. Extended Family assessment whether the child alleged of having
D. Family committed a crime acted with discernment?
71. Peter is a child who roams around the street and a. social welfare officer
survive through the support of kind hearted people. C. the judge
Peter is what kind of special child? b. apprehending officer
A. Abandoned d. Barangay Chairman
B. neglected 84. The period of suspended sentence may be
C. Dependent extended until the involved child reached the age of…
D. Abused A. 15
72. Peter is a 16-year-old. He committed a crime of C. 21
theft. Peter is… B. 18
A. Child at risk D. 25
B. Child in Conflict with the law 85. Once the child in conflict with the law reached the
C. Youthful Offender age of 18 while under suspended sentence the court
D. Delinquent may?
73. The Juvenile Justice Welfare Act refers to… A. Any of the following.
A. RA 9344 B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict
B. RA 6809 with the law.
C. RA 9262 C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain
D. RA 7658 period or to its maximum age of 21.
74. This is otherwise known as the Child and Youth D. Order the execution of sentence.
Welfare Code of the Philippines. 86. In case of separation between parents of the child,
A. RA No. 9344 a child of such age is given by the court the preference
B. RA No 6809 to choose between either parents.
C. RA NO. 7610 A. under 9 years of age
D. RA No. 603 C. 10 years of age
75. The law which is known as Special Protection of B. 7 years of age
Children against child abuse, Exploitation and D. 5 years of age
Discrimination is… 87. The elements of Social Bond according to Travis
A. RA 7610 Hirsch are…
B. RA 7658 1. commitment
C. RA No. 6809 2. Love
D. RA No. 9344 3. attachment
76. What is the most basic unit of society? ` 4. Discipline
A. community
B. barangay 5 . involvement
C. family
D. church 6. training
77. A local government together with society of 7. family
individuals or institutions. 8. Intervention
A. family 9. belief
B. community a. 2,3,8,9 c. 3,5,6,7
C. religion b. 1,5,6,9 d. 1,3,5,9,
D. prison 88. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
78. A twenty four hour child caring institution that a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile
provided short term resident care for youthful offender. delinquency when parents find it hard to
A. shelter care institution balance their jobs with their parental
B. foster home responsibilities
C. nursery b. peer group is a factor to juvenile
D. Detention home delinquency
79. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately c. it is only within the family that a child must
unattended. learn his life values
A. neglected child d. parental rejection causes juvenile
B. dependent child delinquency
C. abandoned child 89. Under the Rule on Examination of a Child Witness,
D. abusive child Evidence offered to prove that the alleged victim
80. It refers to anti social act which deviates from engaged in other sexual behavior and evidence to
normal pattern of rules and regulations. prove the sexual predisposition of the alleged victim

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are considered inadmissible evidence. This rule is 97. What is freedom of a person from parental
known as… authority, both over his person and property?
A. Child abuse rule a. age of majority c. emancipation
C. sexual abuse rule b. civil personality d. adoption
B. Confidentiality Rule 98. Refers to a deserted or abandoned infant or child
D. sexual abuse shield rule whose parents, guardian or relatives are unknown.
90. Gino, a 10 years of age committed the crime of a. Adopted child
theft. What is the course of action to be taken? c. Foundling
a. proceed with diversion program b. Filiation
b. proceed with intervention program d. Biological child
c. commit Gino to Bahay pag-asa 99. What are the inherited propensities that cannot be
d. immediately release Gino because he is considered a criminal one unless there is a probability
exempted from criminal liability that a crime will be committed?
91. Contest as to the age of a child in conflict with the a. Precipitating factor
law shall be filed with the…. c. predisposing factor
a. RTC c. MTC b. criminality
b. Family Court d. Court d. criminal tendency
of Appeals 100. The child in conflict with the law cannot be
92. The following statement are false, except… prosecuted for the commission of the following,
a. Intervention refers to an alternative, child- EXCEPT:
appropriate process of determining the a. theft
responsibility and treatment of a child in c. prostitution
conflict with the law on the basis of his/her b. sniffing of rugby
social, cultural, economic, psychological or d. status offense
educational background without resorting to
formal court proceedings. HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND CRISIS MANAGEMENT
1. It is the voluntary or involuntary attitude a person
b. Diversion refers to a series of activities adapts to fit society’s idea of right or wrong. It is partly
which are designed to address issues that determined by heredity and environment and modified
caused the child to commit an offense. It may through learning. It is also the way human beings act.
take the form of an individualized treatment A. human behavior
program which may include counseling, skills B. human conduct
training, education, and other activities that C. human character
will enhance his/her psychological, emotional D. human personality
and psycho-social well-being. 2. It refers to conscience of man.
A. ego
B. superego
c . A Child in conflict with the law is one who
C. id
has committed a crime and is undergoing
D. spirit
either intervention or diversion program
3. What is the defense reaction to frustration when the
under the Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of
anger is directed to someone or something other than
2006.
to the person/thing the individual is angry at?
A. compromise
93. What is the legal process by which relations of B. regression
paternity and filiations are recognized as legally C. displacement
existing between persons not so related by nature? D. substitution
Also, the taking into one’s family of the child of 4. What type of compromised reaction is best described
another, as son or daughter and heir, and conferring when there is a desire on the individual to
on it a title to the rights and privileges of such. counterbalance inferiority to that of something he can
succeed.
a. age of majority c. emancipation A. compensation
b. civil personality d. adoption B. regression
94. What is the proper procedure when a Child in C. displacement
Conflict with the Law who is under suspended D. substitution
sentence, whose disposition measures has been 5. A woman who is very angry with her boss and would
fulfilled.? like to quit her job may instead be overly kind and
a. the court shall DISMISS the case and order generous toward her boss and express a desire to keep
the FINAL DISCHARGE of the child. working there forever. She is incapable of expressing
b. execute judgment the negative emotions of anger and unhappiness with
c. automatic suspension of sentence her job, and instead becomes overly kind to publicly
d. extend the suspension of sentence demonstrate her lack of anger and unhappiness. This
95. What is the act of willful or malicious destruction or is an example of…
defacement of property. A. Reaction formation
a. mendicancy c. vandalism B. Sublimation
b. delinquency d. victimless C. Projection
crime D. Compartmentalization
96. What is the type of diversion which includes 6. Reacting to events with alertness and vigilance and
general measures to promote social justice and equal a feeling of persecution.
opportunity, which tackle perceived root causes of A. dementia praecox
offending? B. paranoia
a. Primary intervention C. hallucination
C. Tertiary intervention D. depression
b. Secondary intervention 7. AN irrational fear which is fixed, intense,
d. diversion uncontrollable and often has no reasonable foundation.
A. phobia

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B. regression 18. An exaggerated belief in one’s importance, power,

C. delusions wealth, or fame. In extreme form, it is called delusion.
D. anxiety Which of these?
8. Refers to as dementia praecox, which is a form of A. Powerism
psychosis characterized by thinking disturbance and B. Famousity
regression C. Grandiosity
A. schizophrenia D. Algolagnia
B. paranoia 19. A term used to described a clinical condition in
C. manic depression young children who have received non-accidental,
D. psychopathy inexcusable violence or injury, ranging from minimal to
9. Another term for a “psychiatrist.” severe or fatal trauma at the hand of an adult in a
A. Psychologist position of trust, generally a parent or guardian.
B. Sociologist A. Abuse trauma syndrome
C. Alienist B. Battered Child Syndrome
D. Doctor C. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
10. It is the process of interpreting our behavior in D. Battered Woman Syndrome
ways more acceptable to the self by using reasoning or 20. What do we call the psychological, emotional and
alibis to substitute causes. behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims and
A. fixation their inability to respond effectively to repeated
B. repression physical and psychological violence?
C. rationalization A. McNaghten Rule
D. sublimation B. Violence against women
11. It is the part of personality that contains powerful C. Battered Women Syndrome
urges and drives for gratification and satisfaction. D. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
A. alter ego 21. One day we may be cool and withdrawn and the
B. superego next day, warm and sociable. This condition may fall to
C. ego a disorder known as…
D. id A. Schizophrenia
12. It is the part of personality that contains powerful B. Bipolar Disorder
urges and drives for gratification and satisfaction. C. Psychopathic Behavior
A. alter ego D. Amnesia
B. superego 22. A false belief based on an innocent interference
C. ego about external reality and family sustained despite
D. id clear evidence to the contrary, and which is not related
13. A person who behaves abnormally, with unclear to cultural or religious beliefs.
perception of reality, and might not even aware that he A. delusion
is suffering from this particular disorder, is referred to B. false alarm
as… C. wrong perception
A. psychotic D. incoherence
B. neurotic 23. When a person is seen to show indiscriminate
C. sociopathic giggling or crying, emotional flatness, the voice is
D. schizophrenia monotonous, the face immobile and expressionless and
14. A group of mental disorders characterized by manifest highly bizarre and odd behavior then probably
intentionally creating, falsifying, or exaggerating he is…
psychological and/or medical symptoms in order to A. suffering from schizophrenia
gain the role of patient without any obvious and B. suffering from psychopathic behavior
conscious secondary gains is generally termed as… C. suffering from sexual dysfunction
A. Factitious Disorders D. suffering from neurotic behavior
B. Dementia Praecox 24. Among the following, which is most contagious on
C. Hallucinosis human emotion?
D. Assumed personality A. worry
15. In the Freudian Concept of unconscious and B. fear
instinctual drives and urges,______ is usually C. panic
described in the context of wishes that are not socially D. dementia praecox
refined or acceptable. 25. This refers to feeling or impression of stimulus such
A. Id as visual, olfactory, cutaneous, auditory, and
B. ego gustatory.
C. Superego A. awareness
D. Impulse B. perception
16. A collection of symptoms in newborns related to C. emotion
maternal use of alcohol during the pregnancy. In D. sensation
Criminology, this is known as… 26. It is characterized by cold, cruelty, social
A. Hyperacidity disorder insensitivity, disrerard for danger, troublesome
B. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome behavior, dislike of others, and attraction toward the
C. Attention Deficit unusual.
D. Stockholm Syndrome A. extraversion
17. It is a severe, chronic, and generalized anxiety not B. neuroticism
clearly associated with a specific object or event. C. introversion
Sometimes sexual abuse victims can experience not D. psychoticism
only fear of the offender but a generalized sense that 27. It is a false interpretation of an external
they will live in a dangerous world. This is known as… stimulus maybe manifested through sight, hearing,
A. Neurotic Paradox taste, touch or and smell.
B. Melancholia A. delusion
C. Fear of the unknown B. hallucination
D. Free Floating Anxiety C. depression

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D. Illusion A. fellatio
28. This refers to the excessive, irrational and B. cunnilingus
uncontrollable fear of perfectly natural situation or C. anilism
object. D. sodomy
A. phobia 39. Juan engage in multiple means of torture, using
B. apathy psychological torment combined with physical methods
C. hallucination to lighten his sexual arousal is suffering from…
D. compulsion A. Masochism
29. This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that B. Sexual Torture
is a manifestation of withdrawal from reality. Some C. Sexual Pyromania
of examples are encephalitis, intoxication, cerebral D. Sexual Sadism
arteriosclerosis, senile brain disease, mania, dementia, 40. It is a sexual act done by two males and one female
praecox, or split personality. or vice versa?
A. psychoneurosis A. sexual trip
B. psychosomatic B. triolism
C. psychosis C. toontastic trio
D. psychotic D. pluralism
30. This involves cognitive adaptation that enhances 41. What do you call the sexual act of inserting the
the human being’s ability to cope with changes in the penis into the anus of the other person?
environment and to manipulate the environment in A. frottage
ways, improve the chance of survival. B. sodomy
A. learned C. anilingus
B. inherited D. coprolalia
C. evolution 42. This is concern to our state of being whether man
D. innate or woman because it is referring to our expression of
31. What explanation of crimes is based on Freudian love to another person irresponsive of gender.
Theory, which traces behavior as the deviation of A. transvestism
repression of the basic drives? B. feminity
A. psychological C. Sexuality
B. psychiatrically D. masculinity
C. psychoanalytical 43. What is the involuntary spasm in the vagina that
D. physiological prevents the penis from entering unto it?
32. It is characterized by suspicious, rigidity, envy, A. voyeurism
hypersensitivity and excessive self-importance called… B. vaginisimus
A. paranoid C. lesbianism
B. histrionic D. transvestism
C. schizotypal 44. Sexual intercourse with animals like dogs, cats,
D. schizoid chicken, carabao, horse etc. is called…
33. It is characterized by instability reflected in drastic A. voyeurism
mood shifts and behavior problems. B. bestiality
A. schizotypal C. transvestism
B. borderline D. peeping tom
C. dependent 45. The main priority in a crisis situation, specifically in
D. compulsive a hostage situation is “salvari vitas.” This Latin phrase
34. Who advocated the Hierarchy of Needs? means…
A. William Donger A. To recover stolen property
B. Enrico Ferri B. to save lives
C. Abraham Maslow C. the initiate negotiation
D. Sigmund Freud D. to conduct assault operation
35. It refers to though and impulse, which continually 46. The following must not be done during a hostage
occur in the person’s despite attempts to keep them negotiation. Among them, however, must never be
out. It is also a condition of the mind bordering on done, otherwise, it is considered as a “mortal sin” in
sanity and insanity that is sometimes associated with negotiation.
fear and usually occurs in persons suffering from A. Actions prejudicial to the safety of the
nervous exhaustion. hostages, like launching an assault operations
A. impulsion without proper planning.
B. delusion B. Saying “no” to the demands of the hostage
C. obsession taker.
D. hallucination C. Bluffing the hostage taker.
36. It is manifestation of mental disorder through an D. Giving all the demands of the hostage
erroneous perception without an external taker.
object of stimulus. 47. What is the situation in a hostage incident wherein
A. delusion there is no agreement, in other words, failure of the
B. hallucination negotiation?
C. depression A. Stale time
D. Illusion B. Deadlock
37. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant. He enjoys C. assault
having sexual relations with people of tender years. D. demand
What sexual deviant act did Antonio commit? 48. A result of a perpetration of crime that went wrong
A. Necrophilia and the criminals were trapped or cornered by law
B. Infantosexual enforcers.
C. Gerontophilia A. hostage-taking
D. Bestiality B. criminal siege
38. The sexual dysfunction characterized by the act of C. stronghold
licking the genitals of female partner is called… D. hostage situation

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49. The Philippine National Police (PNP)Operational B. launch tactical assault with precision
Procedure Manual follows the 3S principle in dealing against the hostage taker.
with hostages taking situations which consists of… C. continue to negotiate, don not lose hope
1. Single Access to communication D. appeal to the emotion of the hostage taker
2. Single Negotiating Party and beg for the life of the hostages
3. Single Command and Negotiator 58. When the hostage takers demand a prostitute, it
4. Single Command must considered as a…
A. 1,2,3 A. negotiable demand
B. 1,2,4 B. non-negotiable demand
C. 2,3,4 C. concession
D. 1,3,4 D. pay-off
50. One of the qualifications of a good negotiator is 59. What is established when the negotiator and
calmness in dealing with the situation. Which of the hostage taker develops friendly relationship?
following is NOT a manifestation of such attitude? A. rapport
A. Giving all demands at once B. deceit
B. Being firm and decisive C. concession
C. Avoid Making threats and imposing D. demands
deadlines. 60. Who is the primary communicator with the
D. building rapport with the hostage taker. hostage-taker?
51. In a hostage situation, “Quid pro quo” means… A. field commander
A. To save lives B. politician
B. to negotiate C. negotiator
C. something for something D. intermediary
D. an eye for an eye 61. Any person authorized by the Commander or
52. Which of the following is NOT true? negotiator to communicate with the hostage takers on
A. Person in Crisis as a hostage-taker are either the request of the latter or to facilitate smooth
people who take hostages during a period of communication between the designated negotiators
prolonged frustrations, despair and problems. and the hostage takers.
B. People with borderline personality disorder A. field commander
are unstable in several areas, including B. politician
interpersonal relationships, behavior, mood, C. negotiator
and self-image. D. intermediary
C. Delirium refers to a state of confusion of 62. What is the set of circumstances wherein a
the mind. It is characterized by incoherent suspected law violator is holding a person captive with
speech, hallucinations, illusions, delusions, the use of force and threat of violence while the police
restlessness, and apparently purposeless are in close contact with the suspect and his captive?
motions A. Hostage-taker
D. ammunition is a negotiable demand B. Hostage
53. An individual who has been held by What is the C. hostage-situation
short debriefing conducted by negotiating team prior D. crisis
to turn over to another set of negotiating team the 63. The negotiators in any hostage situation must be
perpetrators against his/her will as a bargaining chip credible, collected, trained, and…
for purposes of demanding certain amount of money, A. cool
self-protection, thwarting any police action, or pursuing B. Aggressive
personal interest or that of the general public. C. Coward
A. hostage D hot tempered
B. hostage-takers 64. The negotiator in a hostage-taking incident should
C. hostage-taking strive to…
D. kidnapping A. be mediators not arbitrators
54. What is the short debriefing conducted by B. set the pace, mood, and topic of
negotiating team prior to turn over to another set of conversation themselves
negotiating team? C. promise that all demands will be met
A. Hot debrief D. refute all views of the terrorist
B. Short debrief 65. Which of the following would be the best approach
C. debriefing in negotiating with a paranoid schizophrenic?
D. briefing A. bluffing
55. Which of the following situation indicates that B. communicate to him that his belief is true
negotiation is still necessary? C. convince him that his belief is wrong
A. there is proof of life. D. tell him that he is crazy
B. The hostage negotiator is highly trained 66. What is the strong attachment developed by the
C. the tactical assault team is ready at any hostages to their captors after a long period of
call. captivity, wherein they become sympathizer of the
D. the hostage-taker is mentally deranged. hostage-takers?
56. What is the most important element in a hostage A. Hostage syndrome
situation? B. Stockholm Syndrome
A. weapon C. hostage-taker syndrome
B. Time D. Battered Woman Syndrome
C. negotiator 67. What is the act of exchanging an agreed amount
D. demand between the family and the kidnappers at a designated
57. When the terrorist hostages takers choose time and place for the safe release of victim?
martyrdom and there is a clear indication that they are A. Concession
about to kill the hostages, the proper course of action B. pay-off
would be… C. proof of life
A. Just let them kill the hostages, as long as D. demand
you have done your part as a negotiator.

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68. Which of the following may be the best approach D. firearm

in dealing with mentally deranged hostage taker? 80. Highest ranking field commander should not also
A. Use chemical weapon to maim or be the chief negotiator because…
incapacitate the hostage taker. A. hostage takers will be afraid.
B. Stale time to remove stress on the mind of B. he is not authorized to grant concessions
the hostage taker. C. of conflict of interest as mediator and
C. irritate the hostage taker. decision maker
D. Tell the hostage taker that what he is doing D. hostage takers will not trust him
is wrong and against the law 81. Means to arrange by conferring or discussing.
69. Field/on-scene commander may be, at the same A. validate
time… B. extricate
A. the hostage C. negotiate
B. the hostage taker D. congregate
C. decision-maker 82. The last option in a hostage situation.
D. negotiator A. negotiation
70. Which of the following a negotiator should do first? B. assault
A. Consult higher authorities C. crowd control
B. Wear civilian clothes D. giving in to demands
C. establish contact with the hostage taker 83. The first step in a hostage situation.
D. secure the area A. assault
71. Stale time or buying time in a hostage situation B. crowd control
means… C. control
A. Advance D. negotiation
B. Delay 84. A person who is held as a security for the fulfillment
C. Attack of certain demands or terms.
D. secure A. victims
72. Generally, what is the most effective way to obtain B. negotiator
the safe release of the hostage? C. hostage
A. Use of force D. coordinator
B. Use of military tactics 85. In a hostage situation, non-verbal communication
C. Give thee demands at once which indicate openness and willingness to listen can
D. Use of psychological techniques be shown by…, except.
73. Referred to as dementia praecox, which is a form
of psychosis characterized by thinking disturbance and A. calmly repeating words of comfort or
regression. assurance.
A. schizophrenia B. by not attempting to trick or lie.
B. paranoia C. Keeping arms open and with other gesture
C. manic depression that indicates that you are willing to
D. psychopathy negotiate.
74. The following are guidelines for police negotiators, D. posture of a folded arms in a dominant
except… position.
A. don’t raise the aspirations or expectations
of the hostage takers. 86. The Stockholm Syndrome is a phenomenon which
B. give in to all of the terrorist’s demands put one into the picture the danger that the longer the
C. conserve your concession negotiations lasts in hostage taking situations, the
D. make sure you get something in return for greater the probability that…
a concession. A. the only option left for the authorities is
75. The following are qualities which must be assault.
possessed by a police negotiator, except one… B. rapport between negotiator and hostage
A. flexible takers will be diminish.
B. irrational C. hostage-takers will develop negative
C. patient feelings toward each other.
D. knows psychology D. both hostage and hostage takers develop
76. It is a method whereby an organized group or party a mutual feeling against the authorities.
seeks to achieve its avowed aims chiefly through the 87. What theory of human behavior, based on the
systematic use of violence. writings of Sigmund Freud, that sees personality as a
A. conventional warfare complex composite of interacting mental entities.
B. terrorism A. Psychoanalytical therapy
C. insurrection B. Psychological manipulation theory
D. insurgency C. Neo-classical theory
77. Which of the following is not a terrorist tactic? D. All of the above
A. noise barrage 88. The process whereby a person openly rejects that
B. bombing which he or she wants or aspires to but cannot obtain
C. assassination or achieve. It is one of the ego defense mechanisms.
D. kidnapping A. Reaction Formation
78. The most important consideration in a hostage B. Reactive responses
taking situation. C. Displacement
A. protection of life D. Rationality
B. media coverage 89. Which of the following describe the word
C. protection of property “Vigilantism”?
D. capture of the hostage taker. A. Taking the law into one’s own hand
79. In hostage situation, this is non-negotiable. B. Protective measure against crimes
A. food C. Security is everybody’s concern
B. telephone D. Robin Hood Style
C. media access

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90. In dealing with man-made crisis, the acronym WMD

used in biological warfare means… CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH
A. Worldwide Movement for Domination
B. Weapon of Mass Destruction 1. The following are the types of descriptive research
C. Win the Mass Dogmatism except
D. Weapon Manufacture and Distribution A. Ethnographic studies
91. The following are guidelines for police negotiators, B. Case studies
except… C. Surveys
D. Developmental study
A. don’t raise the aspirations or expectations
of the hostage takers. 2. This type of research seeks to quantify or reflect in
numbers the observations on the characteristics of the
B. give in to all of the terrorist’s demands population being studied.
A. Qualitative Research
C. conserve your concession B. Explanatory research
C. Quantitative research
D. make sure you get something in return for D. Exploratory research
a concession.
3. This type of research describes a situation or a given
92. The following are characteristics common to state of affairs in terms of specified aspects or factors
terrorist except one… -
A. operate openly A. Intervention research
B. promote fear B. Extensive research
C. highly mobile C. Correlation research
D. possess limited resources D. Descriptive research
93. The following are short range terrorist goal,
except… 4. Who is a person that needs accurate information
A. obtain money, weapon or equipment. before selecting a course of action?
B. cause dramatic change in the government A. A manager
C. satisfy vengeance B. A decision maker
D. free prisoners C. An administrator
94. Which of the following is not a terrorist tactic? D. Decision making
A. noise barrage
B. bombing 5. Which of the following is not part of the connection
C. assassination between research and the improvement of man's
D. kidnapping welfare?
95. The most important consideration in a hostage A. Improved condition welfare
taking situation. B. New skills/practices/behavior
A. protection of life C. Better Outcome
B. media coverage D. Research
C. protection of property
D. capture of the hostage taker. 6. What is a research that investigates relationships
96.A type of terrorism which is meant to incite the between factors or variables?
government to repression. A. Intervention research
A. organizational terrorism B. Correlation research
B. symbolic terrorism C. Extensive research
C. provocative terrorism D. Explanatory research
D. allegainace terrorism
E. Lone wolf terrorism 7. What should be formulated in searching key words
97. A type of terrorism which is aimed at a victim who or phrases that is pertinent to the problem or question
symbolizes the state. or interest?
A. Symbolic terrorism A. Indexes
B. allegiance terrorism B. Search terms
C. organizational terorism C. References
D. provocative terrorism D. Glossary
98. According to Frederick Hacker, these are terrorists
who are using terrorism to change society. 8. It is the "blue print" of the study. It guides the
A. crusaders collection, measurement and analysis of data-
B. criminals A. Research outline
C. crazies B. Research framework
D. mercenaries C. Research chart
99. In hostage situation, this is a non-negotiable item. D. Research Design
A. food
B. telephone 9. One of the research methods approach to determine
C. media access the growth and development of a group, organization
D. firearm or institution.
A. Content Analysis
100. What is the false perception of stimuli. B. Survey method
A. delusion C. Experimental Method
B. hallucination D. Historical Method
C. illusion
D. depression 10. There are most common of them that are history,
selection, testing, instruments, maturation, and
morality -
A. Validity Threats

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B. Statistics 20. This objectives relates directly to the research

C. Reliability problem and states clearly what the researcher will do
D. Variable and expects to find out
A. Specific objective
11. Which of the following steps that is not a part of B. Special Objective
Scientific Method - C. Important Objective
A. Data collection D. Immediate/general objective
B. Identification of a problem
C. Drawing of conclusion
D. Information Dissemination 21. It examined the study that are identified in the
specific objectives -
12. It maybe a question about the unknown A. Special objective
characteristics of a population or about factors that B. Specific Variables
explain the presence or occurrence of a phenomenon. C. Important Objective
A. Problem D. Immediate/general objective
B. Analysis Problem
C. Research Problem 22. What type of hypothesis might state that an
D. Critical Problem independent variable is associated with a dependent
variable?
13. A variable that is "assumed caused" of a problem. A. Single Hypothesis
It is an assumed reason for any "change" or variation B. Research Hypothesis
in a dependent variable C. Hypothesis
A. Dependent Variable D. Unconstructive Hypothesis
B. Independent Variable
C. Antecedent Variable 23. What should the researcher used in searching for
D. Assumption Variable relevant primary and secondary sources guided by the
search terms?
A. Indexes
14. In defining the research problem, what is the B. Sources
important thing for the researcher to present for the C. References
conduct of the study? D. Glossary
A. Valid ID
C. Valid justification 24. It is usually used when the intention of the
B. Certificate researcher is to ascertain the quality of message or
D. Present relevant data information found in a document or in mass media
A. Content Analysis
15. This type of research attempts to explain possible B. Survey method
factors related to problems which have been observed C. Experimental Method
in a descriptive study. D. Historical Method
A. Explanatory research
B. Intervention research 25. Also called the research hypothesis, is the positive
C. Descriptive research form of the form of the null
D. extensive Research A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
16. The most common types of sources of information C. Research Hypothesis
for a research problem are, except: D. Hypothesis
A. General reference
B. Primary sources 26. It states whether the relationship between two
C. Secondary sources variables is direct or inverse or positive or negative -
D. Glossary A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Directional Hypothesis
17. A type of sources which shows where to locate C. Hypothesis
other sources of information related to a certain topic. D. Non-directional Hypothesis
A. Glossary
B. General reference 27. It is a theory that explains why a problem under
C. Primary sources study exists and explains the connection between
D. Secondary sources certain factors and the problem -
A. Conceptual Framework
18. One of the research methods that obtain data to B. Research Framework
determine specific characteristics of a group. C. Special Framework
A. Content Analysis D. Theoretical Framework
B. Survey method
C. Experimental Method
D. Historical Method 28. Whenever a pretest is given, it may make the
examinees "test wise," and this can therefore affect the
19. In listing a note or index card the bibliographical posttest results -
data of the pertinent sources selected it includes the A. Selection
following, except: B. History
A. Author of the source C. Testing
B. Its title D. Maturation
C. Released date
D. Name of publication 29. Is a negative statement which indicates the
absence of a relationship/ correlation between two
variables-
A. Alternative Hypothesis

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B. Null hypothesis b. directional hypothesis

C. Research Hypothesis c. hypothesis
D. Hypothesis d. non-directional hypothesis

30. It is a concept that stands for a variation within a 40. Development of _______ is/are designed to
class of objectives or persons - improve the welfare of men.
A. Concept a. process
B. Variables b. programs
C. Idea c. project
D. Theory d. project/programs

31. Variables can be classified as, except… 41. A________ should be closely monitored to check
a. Dependent variable progress and quality of implementation.
b. Independent Variable a. Project development
c. antecedent variable b. project proposal
d. assumption variable c. project implementation
d. project organization
32. It is a factor or a characteristics which is found
before (ante) the variable.
a. Dependent variable 42. A___________ are statements of what the
b. independent variable researcher intends to do.
c. antecedent variable a. alternative hypothesis
d. intervening variable b. research objectives
c. null hypothesis
33. A kind of category which all the possible responses d. research hypothesis
are included among the options.
a. exhaustive categories 43. A _________ which gives a person a feeling of
b. mutually exclusive categories discomfort. It could be a state of affairs that needs to
c. exclusive categories be changed or anything that is not working as
d. mutual categories expected.
a. problem
b. analysis of the problem
34. It is a set of concepts which explains the c. research problem
occurrence of a certain phenomenon. d. critical problem
a. Competing theory 44. There are three general categories of research, the
b. theory descriptive research, experimental intervention
c. assumptions research and….
d. dependent variables a. intervention research
b. extensive research
35. It refers to the extent to which a measurement c. correlation research
does what it is supposed to do, which is to measure d. explanatory research
what it intends to measure.
a. validity 45. A category that do not overlap. It is _____ when a
b. validity threats respondent cannot be assigned to more than one
c. reliability category.
d. variable a. exhaustive categories
b. mutually exclusive categories
36. People and things change over time and this c. exclusive categories
change can threaten the validity of conclusions… d. mutual categories
a. selection
b. instrumentation 46. ________ may also used to explain the possible
c. testing confounding influence of other variables on the
d. maturation assumed relationship between the major variables of
the study…
37. It is a written work of the page or near the front a. competing theory
which displays as the title. b. theory
a. approval sheet c. assumptions
b. abstract d. dependent variables
c. title page
d. acknowledgment 47. This suggests the type of analysis to be done.
a. special objective
38. The act of officially saying that something was b. specific objective
created for a particular purpose or to remember or c. important objective
honor a particular person. d. immediate/general objective
a. dedication
b. abstract
c. introduction 48. This explains the existence of a problem. It serves
d. acknowledgment as basis for examining and analyzing the connection
between or among the study variables.
a. research outline
39. A______ does not specify the direction of the b. research framework
relationship between varieties. It merely states the c. research chart
presence or absence of relationship between two d. statistics
variables or that one variable influence another.
a. alternative hypothesis 49. These are expressed in measurable items.

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a. Special objectives a. selection

b. specific objectives b. history
c. variables c. testing
d. immediate/ general objective d. maturation

50. This enables the researcher to learn how to 58. It is used to determine the effectiveness of a
conceptualize a research problem and properly identify treatment or an intervention or the cause and effect
and operationally define study variables. relationship of certain phenomena under controlled
a. literature condition.
b. methodology a. content analysis
c. related study b. survey method
d. hypothesis c. experimental method
d. historical method

51. Focuses on the identity of the human subject, **59. What is the ethical principles that the moral
multiculturalism, feminism, and human relationships to worth of an action is solely determined by its
deal with the concepts of differences and “otherness” contribution to overall utility? This is also a form of
without essentialism or reductionism but its consequentialism.
contributions are not always appreciated. a. utilitarianism
a. post modernist school b. ethics
b. modernist school c. ethical standard
c. post modern school d. utilitarian ethics
d. classical school
60. It involves a systematic way of gaining knowledge
ofr the process of testing ideas (hunches, guesses, or
hypothesis) to see if an idea holds true in a given
52. In studies that take a long time to finish, say, one
situation or under controlled conditions.
year or more, the cohort studies where the subjects
a. historical methods
(the same people) are followed up overtime, some
b. survey method
cases may drop out, thus resulting in a loss of cases.
c. experimental methods
a. selection
d. research method
b. instrumentation
61. A type of sources which results of many research
c. mortality
studies that are published in journals or monographs.
d. maturation
These articles or reports are generally written by those
who actually conducted the study.
a. glossary
53. When several options are available______ is about b. general reference
the options that can help the decision-maker in c. primary sources
selecting the best or the better alternative that will d. secondary sources
yield a better outcome.
a. making 62. this refers to publications where authors cite the
b. processing work of others. The most common secondary sources
c. data are books, reviews, yearbooks and encyclopedias.
d. developing a. secondary sources
b. glossary
54. This type of research aims to see an immediate c. general reference
solution to a problem, it focuses on variables or factors d. primary sources
which can be changed by intervention in order to
achieve a desired goal. 63. a variable that is “assumed effect” of another
a. applied research variable. It is the change that occurs in the study
b. explanatory research population when one or more factors are changed or
c. keen research when an intervention is introduced.
d. intervention research a. dependent variable
b. independent variable
55. An interactionist theory of deviance. This theory c. antecedent variable
centers on how individuals learn how to become d. assumption variable
criminals, but does not concern itself with why they
become criminals. 64. it is one of the parts of literature reviews that briefly
a. theoretical framework reports what experts think or what other researchers
b. differential association theory have found about the research problem.
c. Beccaria School of Thought a. summary/synthesis
d. Differential Identification Theory b. introduction
c. body
56. A research that is to understand or explain a d. conclusion
prevailing situation or explain a relationship between 65. It is one of the parts of literature reviews that “ties
factors which may have already been identified in together” the major findings of the studies reviewed. It
explanatory studies, and why the relationship exists. represents a general picture of what has been known
a. exploratory research or thought of about the problem to date.
b. pure basic research a. summary hypothesis
c. explanatory research b. introduction
d. keen research c. body
d. conclusion
57. Sometimes there are events in the life of a research
project, but which are not part of the project, that can 66. It is one of the parts of literature reviews that
increase or decrease the expected project outcomes. describes briefly the nature of the research problem

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and explains what led the researcher to investigate the

question…
a. summary/synthesis 75. The following are the steps in making research
b. introduction except…
c. body a. rigid control of the research
d. conclusion b. statistical analysis
c. the selection of the research topic
67. This part presents the course of action suggested d. the decision of hypothesis
by the literature. Based on the state of knowledge e. the decision on how the variables can be
revealed by the literature, the researcher could further used for data
justify the need for his study.
a. summary/synthesis 76. When we were going to define a problem?
b. introduction a. when the solution is already done
c. body b. when the problem is partially solved
d. conclusion c. when the problem is already identified
d. when the solution is already discovered
68.It is a factor that works between the independent
and dependent variables. It can weaken (decrease) or
strengthen (increase) the effect of the independent on 77. In doing a research, what is the first thing a
the dependent variables. researcher does for the problem to be studied.
a. dependent variable a. enumerating the first problem
b. independent variable b. determining the cause of the problem
c. antecedent variable c. research the problem
d. intervening variable d. identify and clearly define the problem

69. Researchers make educated guesses to tentatively

answer the research questions from these they select 78. A research problem can only be investigated if
the more logical and theoretically sound guesses. resources like time, money, and personnel are
a. alternative hypothesis available.
b. research hypothesis a. a research problem must be feasible
c. hypothesis b. a research problem must be clear
d. unconstructive hypothesis c. research problem must be ethical
d. a research problem must be appropriate
70. it refers to the consistency, stability and
dependability of the data. A reliable measuring device
is one which, if used for the second time, will yield the 79. Major variables of the study should be measurable
same results as it did the first time. and should be specified in the problem statement.. the
a. validity used of ambiguous terms must be avoided.
b. statistics a. a research problem must be feasible
c. reliability b. a research problem must be clear
d. variable c. a research problem must be ethical
d. a research problem must be appropriate
71. When a research instrument, such as a
questionnaire or a measuring device, like a weighing
scale or a thermometer is changed during the study 80. When to start reviewing related literature?
period between the pretest and the posttest. a. When research problem is still being
a. selection conceptualized
b. instrumentation b. when research problem is still on data
c. testing analysis
d. maturation c. when research problem is being defined
d. when research problem is partially over
72. This is the document that shows your panel has
approved the content of your thesis or dissertation, and
a copy of it will remain in your official records. 81. What is the first thing to remember in defining a
a. approval sheet research problem?
b. abstract a. examine current available data/statistics
c. title page b. seeks educated opinions from persons
d. acknowledgment concerned with the problem
c. determine the probable reasons for the
73. It is a brief summary of a research article, thesis or existence of the problem
any in-depth analysis of a particular subject and is d. review relevant literature and previous
often used to help the reader quickly ascertain the studies on the problem
papers purpose.
a. dedication
b. abstract 82. The conduct of the study should not pose any
c. introduction danger, embarrassment, hurt or any risk to the
d. acknowledgment research respondents or subjects or any one.
a. a research problem must be feasible
74. An author’s statement recognized his use of the b. a research problem must be clear
works of other authors or a declaration or avowal of c. a research problem must be appropriate.
one’s act of a fact to give it legal validity. d. a research problem must be ethical
a. dedication
b. abstract
c. introduction 83. This are the list which is under the table of
d. acknowledgment contents, except…

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a. Title page, approval sheet, abstract, used to determine the best research design, data
acknowledgment, dedication, table of collection method and collection of subject and often
contents, list of figure, list of tables. concludes that a perceived problems does not actually
b. title page, introduction, abstract, exist?
acknowledgment, dedication, table of a. exposition research
contents, list of figures, statement of the b. qualitative research
problem. c. quantitative research
c. Introduction, title page, statement of the d. exploratory research
problem, dedication, table of contents, list of
figure, list of table
d. abstract, acknowledgment , introduction, 92. It is a process of collecting, selecting, and reading
approval sheet, dedication, table of contents, books, journal articles, reports, abstracts, and other
list of figures, list of tables. reference materials, including electronic sources to get
relevant information about the problem under
investigation
84. What is the specific title of the Chapter 1 in a thesis a. research problem
book? b. collecting resources
a. review a related literature c. investigation
b. methods and procedure of data d. review of related literature
c. presentation and analysis of data
d. the introduction and its setting 93. Some researchers cannot answer their research
questions because they do not have clear measures of
their variables. A variable must be ______ according
85. What is the specific title of Chapter 2 in a thesis to how it is used in the study, so that it can be properly
book? measured.
a. review of related literature a. learned correctly
b. procedure and source of data b. operationally defined
c. presentation and analysis of data c. precisely observed
d. the introduction and its setting d. analyze

94. In an experimental study, a threat to validity occurs

86.What is the specific title of Chapter 3 in a thesis when the elements or subjects selected for the
book? experimental group is very different from those
a. review of related literature selected for the control group.
b. methods, procedure and source of data a. selection
c. methods and source of data b. history
d. the introduction and it setting c. testing
d. maturation

87.What is the specific title of Chapter 4 in a thesis 95. A research that refers to single and multiple case
book? studies, it may include quantitative evidence, relies on
a. summary, conclusion and recommendation multiple sources of evidence an benefits from the prior
b. methods and procedure of data development of theoretical proposition?
c. presentation and analysis of data a. hypothesis
d. the introduction and its setting b. case study
c. experimental research
d. non-experimental research
88.It means to investigate thoroughly, basically a
systematic collection of data for the purpose of 96. The problem must be______ and_____ it must be
explaining, describing or making predictors. of interest to one investigating it. It should yield
a. criminological research answers that will contribute to knowledge and
b. research development.
c. basic research a. timely and relevant
d. re-search b. appropriate and exact
c. clear and feasible
d. proper and precise
89. What is a way of looking at natural phenomena that
encompasses a set of philosophical assumptions and 97. A research that is designed to describe an existing
guide one’s approach to iniquity? problem situation and examine the underlying factors
a. paradigm that contribute to the emergence of the problem, the
b. examples nature of which is not yet well known.
c. objective a. exploratory research
d. model b. pure basic research
c. explanatory research
d. keen research
90. Which among the following is not the step in the
scientific method? 98. What type of research that evaluates the effect or
a. determining outcome of a particular intervention or treatment and
b. forming a hypothesis its studies the “cause and effect” relationship between
c. doing the library research certain phenomenon under controlled conditions?
d. systematic organization a. applied research
b. explanatory research
c. keen research
91. What type of research which is conducted because d. intervention/experimental research
a problem has not been properly defined? It is likewise

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99. This type of research attempts to describe an

existing situation and/or explanatory certain patterns
of behavior using either both qualitative and
quantitative research techniques.
a. pure basic research
b. explanatory research
c. qualitative research
d. keen research

100. This type of research emphasizes verbal

descriptions of human behavior and practices in an
attempt to understand how the units or members of
the study population experience or explain their own
world.
a. qualitative research
b. explanatory research
c. quantitative research
d. exploratory research

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