RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Contents
RBI Grade B: Exam Pattern 2024 ..................................................................... 2
RBI Grade B: Phase 1 ...................................................................................... 3
Reasoning ................................................................................................ 3
Quant......................................................................................................98
English .................................................................................................. 143
General Awareness ............................................................................... 195
RBI Grade B: Phase 2 ................................................................................... 287
Finance and Management ..................................................................... 287
2024: Management ..................................................................................... 312
2024: Finance .............................................................................................. 314
Economic and Social Issues.................................................................... 318
2024: ESI ..................................................................................................... 346
English .................................................................................................. 355
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

RBI Grade B: Exam Pattern 2024

Phase 1 :

Total
Sections Marks Duration
Questions

Reasoning 60 60 45 minutes

General Awareness 80 80 25 minutes

English Language 30 30 25 minutes

Quantitative Aptitude 30 30 25 minutes

Total 200 200 120 minutes

Phase 2 :
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

RBI Grade B: Phase 1

Reasoning:
Directions (Q1- 2): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by
fiveconclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variancewith commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the givenconclusions logically does not follow from the given statements, disregarding
commonly knownfacts.
Q.1) Only a few bananas are oranges. No banana is mango. No grapes are oranges.
Conclusions:
A. Some grapes can be mangoes
B. All bananas can be oranges
C. Some mangoes are not bananas
D. Some grapes are bananas is a possibility
E. Some oranges can be mangoes

Answer – B

Q.2) Some actors are dancers. Only a few dancers are singers. No singer is politician
Conclusions:
A. Some politician being actors is a possibility
B. Some dancers are not singers
C. Some dancers are not politicians is not a possibility
D. Some actors are singers
E. Some actors are singers is a possibility

Answer – D

Directions (Q3-7): Answer the questions based on the information given below:
Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I were born on 18th of different months in the same
year suchthat no one was born in March, June and November. These persons belong to
different placesamong Solapur, Kanpur, Jaipur, Raipur, Jodhpur, Sultanpur, Udaipur,
Nagpur and Firozpur.
B was born in a month with 31 days and three months before the person from Raipur.
Threepersons were born between B and D, who is not the youngest. The person from
Nagpur was bornimmediately after the one from Kanpur. The person from Kanpur was not
born in a month withonly 30 days. G is not from Sultanpur.
There is a gap of only one month between the birth of G and the one from Solapur. The
personfrom Jaipur is five months elder than G. F was born two months after D. Only one
person wasborn between F and E, who is from Solapur. H, who is from Udaipur, was born
three months afterI, who is not the eldest. A is younger than C. Person from Jodhpur was
born before the one fromSultanpur.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.3) A is how many months older than H?

A. Five
B. Four
C. Six
D. Seven
E. Eight

Answer – B

Q.4) Who among the following persons were born between C and the one from Udaipur?
I. Person from Jaipur
II. D
III. B
A. Both II and III
B. All I, II and III
C. Both I and II
D. Both I and III
E. Only II

Answer – C

Q.5) The eldest person belongs to which place?

A. Raipur
B. Jodhpur
C. Sultanpur
D. Kanpur
E. Firozpur

Answer – D

Q.6) persons were born between the person who is born in October and the one from
.
A. Five, Nagpur
B. Four, Jaipur
C. Three, Raipur
D. Six, Solapur
E. None of these

Answer – A

Q.7) 3rd eldest person is months older than .

A. Three, D
B. Five, H
C. Seven, G
D. Four, F
E. Six, B
Answer - A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (Q8-9): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
@F52M$7KTR3C+8B!9DQ*G6WN
STEP 1 – Those numbers which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately
followedby an alphabet are written at the right end in descending order.
STEP 2 – After completing step 1, the alphabet which is immediately followed by a symbol
arewritten between 7th and 6th element from right end in alphabetical order from left to
right.

Q.8) Which of the following element is 11th to the right of the element which is 4th from
theright end in step 1?
A. *
B. Q
C. G
D. B
E. 9

Answer – C

Q.9) How many alphabets are immediately followed or preceded by symbol in step 2?
A. Four
B. Two
C. Five
D. None
E. Three

Answer – A

Directions (Q10-14): Answer the questions based on the information given below:
Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are kept one above the other. Each box contains
differentitems among Clothes, Bottles, Books, Watches, Combs, Pens, Mobiles, Shoes &
Pencils. Numberof items in these boxes is different among 7, 12, 14, 18, 21, 23, 24, 30 and
27. The bottommostbox is numbered 1 and the topmost box is numbered 9.
Mobiles are kept in box 4. H is three boxes above the box with 24 items. G has 14 items
and is oneof the four boxes above H. Third box from the top contains 2nd highest number
of items. Thereare three boxes between G and the box with 18 items. Number of bottles is
six more than numberof clothes. D is immediately below the box which contains clothes
and neither of these boxescontains more than 23 items. There are three boxes between
the box, which contains bottles andE, which contains books.
Shoes are three boxes above B. A is immediately above F. Box, which contains Pens,
isimmediately above I. C is three boxes above the box, which contains the lowest number
of items.Box with 23 items is immediately below the box, which contains watches.
Number of pencils isless than number of combs. Number of Books is not less than number
of shoes.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.10) C is how many boxes above the box which contains 21 items?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Two
D. Six
E. Three

Answer – A

Q.11) What is the sum of number of combs and pencils?

A. 37
B. 35
C. 41
D. 30
E. 28

Answer – D

Q.12) Which among the following box is not between the box containing the lowest and
highestnumber of items?
I. D
II. A
III. Box containing 14 items.
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Both II and III
D. Only III
E. Only II

Answer – C

Q.13) What is the difference between the number of items in the topmost box and the
numberof watches?
A. 10
B. 14
C. 16
D. 12
E. 18

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.14) Which among the following boxes are kept between the box with 21 items and box
containing Pens?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. E
E. H

Answer – A

Directions (Q15-19): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Fourteen persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing seven persons in each row in
such away that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. Initially, in row 1, P,
Q, R, S, T, Uand V are seated and all of them are facing towards the east and in row 2, A, B,
C, D, E, F and Gare seated and all of them are facing towards the west. Therefore, in the
given seatingarrangement each person sitting in row 1, is facing the persons sitting in row
2 and vice versa.
They play a game of throwing a dice. They interchange their initial position according to
the gamerules which are as follows:
I. On throwing the dice, if odd number comes, then the person sitting 2nd to the left of
throwerexchanges his seat with the person sitting opposite to the one, who sits
immediate right ofthrower.
II. On throwing the dice, if even number comes, then the person sitting immediate right of
thethrower exchanges his seat with one, who sits opposite to the thrower.
Before Movement:
1. T sits fourth to the left of P. Either T or P sits at an extreme end of the row.
2. The one who faces P sits second to the left of F.
3. S sits exactly in the middle of the row. C and D are immediate neighbours of each other.
4. Number of persons sitting to the left of F is twice the number of persons sitting to the
rightof F.
5. The one, who faces P sits to the immediate left of G and that person is neither C nor D.
6. Number of persons sit between P and R is same as the number of persons sit between T
andS.
7. T neither faces C nor D. No one sits between S and V.
8. At least two persons sit between G and E. R does not face B.
9. At most one person sit between S and Q.
10. U faces neither E nor C.
11. A throws the dice and gets 4 after that F throws the dice and gets 3 and finally, V throws
thedice and gets 1.

Q.15) Who sits opposite to R after the movement?

A. D
B. A
C. G
D. F
E. C
Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.16) Who sits 2nd to the right of G before the movement?

A. A
B. C
C. F
D. B
E. D

Answer –A

Q.17) What is the position of T with respect to V after the movement?

A. Facing The One, Who Sits 2ndto The Right Of V
B. 2nd To The Right Of V
C. 2nd To The Left Of V
D. Facing The One, Who Sits Immediate Right Of V
E. Immediate Left

Answer – D

Q.18) How many persons sit between A and F before the movement?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. More than three
E. None

Answer – E

Q.19) Which of the following statement is true about B?

A. B sits immediate right of T after the movement
B. B sits 4thto the left of Q after the movement
C. B sits 4thto the right of A before the movement
D. B sits opposite to V before the movement
E. None

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (Q20-21): In the following question, two conclusions have been given followed
byfive sets of possible statements. You have to take the given conclusions to be true even
if theyseem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide for the
given conclusionslogically follow from which of the given set of statements disregarding
commonly known facts.

Q.20) Conclusions:
1. Some gold are not silver.
2. Some gold are fabric.
Statements:
A. All silver are fabric. No fabric is gold. Some gold are metal.
B. Some silver are fabric. Some fabrics are gold. All gold are metal.
C. No silver is fabric. All fabric are gold. Some gold are metal.
D. All silver are fabric. Some fabric are metal. Some gold are metal.
E. All fabric are silver. All silver are gold. All gold are metal.

Answer – C

Q.21) Conclusions:
1. Some hospitals are buildings is a possibility.
2. Some hostels are not houses.
Statements:
A. All buildings are schools. All schools are hostels. No school is house. No hospital is
hostel.
B. Some buildings are schools. All Schools are hostels. No hospital is house. Some
schools arehouses.
C. All buildings are schools. All schools are hostels. No school is house. All hospitals are
hostels.
D. Some buildings are schools. No school is hostel. No hostel is hospital. Some hospitals
are houses.
E. None of these.
Answer – C

Q.22) Direction: In which of the following expressions V > Z, K < Y is definitely true?
A. X => W > K => Z < Y <= U < V
B. W <= T < V > G => I => Y > Z < K
C. T => C < V => A = Q => Z > Y > D > K
D. D => E = G > V = F > K > Z < K < Q <= Y
E. A => I => H = L < Z > K > V < J < Y

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.23) Direction: In which of the following expression does the expression M => R is
definitelytrue
A. X < R => T => P < N > B => M > U
B. N > M > L = C => A = D > S = R
C. L <= B > M > X => U <= A = O < R
D. T > M = F => G = U => O <= R = S
E. A > R <= B = L = P <= S = M < G

Answer – E

Q.24) The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below
it.You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer thequestion. Read all the statements and give an answer.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table having eight seats
such thatone of the seats is vacant. The vacant seat is to the immediate left of A’s seat. All
are facingtowards the centre. How many people sit between G and F, when counted from
the right of F?
Statement I: F sits second to the right of A and to the immediate left of D. One person sits
betweenD and G. B sits opposite to G. C and D are not sitting adjacent to each other.
Statement II: D sits third to right of A. B sits on the third seat to the left of A. One person
sitsbetween E and F but neither E nor F sits adjacent to A. E and F are not adjacent to vacant
seat.
A. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question
B. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statementI alone are not sufficient to answer the question
C. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question
D. The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question
E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Answer – E

Q.25) The question given below can be answered using sentence given in only one of the
options.Find out the option which can be used to answer the question.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table such that four
persons aresitting in the corner of the table and four are sitting in the middle of the table.
Also, the one, whosits at the corner of the table faces away from the center and the one,
who sits in the middle ofthe table faces towards the table.
Who sits second to the right of C?
A. Only two persons sit between C and B when counted from the right of B. A is an
immediateneighbour of C and faces towards the center. E sits second to the right of
A. B is second to the rightof E.
B. C is an immediate neighbour of A. Person, who is immediate left of C, is sitting
opposite to G. Eand F are immediate neighbours of each other. F is sitting at the
corner of the table.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. A sits second to the right of E, who sits in the middle of the table. C is an immediate
neighbour ofA. D sits second to the left of C. H is an immediate neighbour of D. G sits
one of the corners. B sitssecond to the right of A
D. Only two persons sit between H and G, when counted from the left of H, who is an
immediateneighbour of D, who sits second to the left of C, who sits immediate right
of E, who sits in the middleof the table.
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q.26) The question given below consists of two statements I and II given below it. You
have todecide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Readall the statements and give answer.
Six persons, Anu, Bill, Chand, Dia, Ema and Faiz, sit along the corners of a regular
hexagonal tableand face towards the centre of the table. Who among the following sits
immediate left of Faiz?
Statement I: Bill sits second to the right of Anu. Chand sits adjacent to Bill. Dia sits second to
theright of Chand. Ema does not sit adjacent to Anu.
Statement II: Ema sits adjacent to Dia. Chand sits adjacent to Bill. Dia sits second to the right
ofChand. Faiz sits adjacent to Bill. Ana does not sit adjacent to Chand.
A. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in
statement II alone isnot sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in
statement I alone isnot sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
E. Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer – B

Q.27) The question given below consists of two statements I and II given below it. You
have todecide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Readall the statements and give answer.
Seven points, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are drawn on a rectangular piece of paper. What is
thedirection of point W with respect to point U?
Statement I: Y is 3cm to the west of T. V is 6cm to the east of Y. U is 3cm to the south of T.
W is9cm to the east of Z. X is 6cm to the west of W. V is 5cm to the south of X.
Statement II: Z is 6cm to the north of U. X is 3cm east of Z. V is 5cm south of X. Y is 6cm west
of V.T is the midpoint of Y and V. W, which is in east of X, is 13cm to the northeast of Y.
A. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in
statement II alone isnot sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in
statement I alone isnot sufficient to answer the question.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the

question.
D. Data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
E. Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer – C

Directions (Q28-32): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
P, Q, R are three adjacent buildings. P is to the west of Q. Q is to the west of R. Each
building hasdifferent number of floors with the lowest floor numbered as 1, floor above it
numbered 2 andso on. The height of floors in each building is the same i.e. the same
numbered floors are at equalheight from the ground. Only few of the floors of these
buildings are taken and rest are vacant.None of the buildings had more than 10 floors.
· D's floor number was twice as that of J's floor number.
· J lived in building Q. Q had prime numbered floors and J lived on the floor that was
3rdfrom thetop
· Not more than 3 flats were taken in building P
· F was exactly to the east of B
· B lived exactly above C but not in the same building
· C and F did not live in the same building
· A's floor number was thrice as that of C's floor number.
· A was exactly to the west of H
· H was not in building R
· C and G did not live in the same building
· G lived immediately below E
· B and E lived on consecutive floors of the same building
· I was exactly to the east of C
· I and E did not live in the same building
· B and G did not have the same floor number
· The number of floors in I's building was 3 less than that in building Q
1. Only one person lives on each floor
2. Exactly to the east or west does not mean immediate east or west, but on the same
floor.
3. Immediately above or below implies that the person is not in the same building.

Q.28) How many floors were there in building P?

A. 6
B. 8
C. 5
D. 10
E. 9

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.29) What was the floor number of F?

A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6

Answer – C

Q.30) Four of the following bears a similar relation and hence form a group, who among
thefollowing is not a part of that group?
A. B
B. H
C. E
D. A
E. J

Answer – D

Q.31) What was the difference between the number of floors in building Q and P?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
E. 3

Answer – E

Q.32) What was the difference between the floor numbers of H and F?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Answer – C

Direction (Q33-37): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
A word arrangement machine given an input line of words rearranges them following a
particularrule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: random optimistic thrifty afraid predictable extravagant pompous humble
bravepessimistic
Step1: afraid random optimistic thrifty predictable extravagant pompous humble
pessimisticbrave.
Step2: extravagant afraid random optimistic predictable pompous humble pessimistic
bravethrifty.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Step3: humble extravagant afraid random optimistic predictable pessimistic brave

thriftypompous.
Step4: optimistic humble extravagant afraid random predictable brave thrifty
pompouspessimistic.
Step5: predictable optimistic humble extravagant afraid brave thrifty pompous
pessimisticrandom.
Step5: is the last step of the above input.
Input: jeopardize entrust safeguard withdraw anxiety lengthen secular abridge spiritual
ease.

Q.33) What will be the fourth step of the above input?

A. jeopardize entrust abridge anxiety secular spiritual lengthen ease withdraw
safeguard.
B. jeopardize entrust anxiety abridge secular spiritual lengthen brave withdraw
safeguard.
C. jeopardize entrust anxiety abridge secular lengthen spiritual ease withdraw
safeguard.
D. jeopardize entrust anxiety abridge secular spiritual lengthen ease withdraw
safeguard.
E. jeopardize entrust anxiety afraid secular spiritual lengthen withdraw ease safeguard.
Answer – D

Q.34) In step 5th of the rearrangement, if ‘anxiety’ is related to ‘entrust’ and ‘abridge ‘ in a
certainway. Which of the following would ‘withdraw’ be related to, following the same
pattern?
A. Lengthen and ease
B. Ease and entrust
C. Ease and safeguard
D. Lengthen and safeguard
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q.35) Which of the following steps will be the last but one of the above input?
A. IV
B. V
C. II
D. III
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.36) Which of the following word is 4th to left of withdraw in step2

A. Ease
B. Jeopardize
C. Anxiety
D. Entrust
E. Abridge

Answer – E

Q.37) What is the position of secular from right end in last but one step?
A. Fifth
B. Seventh
C. Fourth
D. Sixth
E. Third

Answer – D

Directions (Q38-44): Answer the questions based on the information given below:
There are 3 horizontally parallel rows, row 1, row 2 and row 3. Row 1 is to the north of
row 2 androw 2 is to the north of row 3. There are five persons sitting in each row and L is
one of the personsamong them. In row 1, first three persons sitting from left to right are
facing north and rest arefacing south. In row 3, first three persons sitting from left to right
are facing north and rest arefacing south. In row 2, first two persons sitting from left to
right are facing north and rest arefacing south. Last two persons from left end of row 1
face the first two persons from the left endof row 2. Last three persons from left end of
row 2 face first three persons from left end of row 3.F, who is sitting 2nd to the right of Q,
is sitting opposite to A. Three persons are sitting between Aand M. F is facing south. G is
sitting 2nd to the right of C and both of them are facing the north. Eis sitting in the left of
G. One person is sitting between E and N. B is sitting to the immediate leftof D, who is
sitting opposite to O, who is not sitting adjacent to A. S and P are sitting opposite toeach
other. Neither S nor P is sitting in row 1. R is not sitting adjacent to M.

Q.38) Find the odd one out?

A. C
B. O
C. N
D. F
E. Q

Answer -C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.39) How many persons are sitting in the left of S?

A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
E. None of these

Answer - B

Q.40) How many persons are sitting between Q and D?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
E. None of these

Answer – A

Q.41) is sitting opposite to B.

A. D
B. N
C. F
D. Q
E. None of these

Answer – N

Q.42) is sitting in the middle of row 3.

A. D
B. G
C. R
D. Either (1) or (2)
E. None of these

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.43) In the question given below, a passage/statement is given followed by three

statementswhich may or may not strengthen/weaken the assertion made in the passage.
Answer thequestions as per the individual direction given.
It's highly probable that 50 years from now, it is likely that the 2D internet we now all use
willseem laughably archaic. Not only will the internet likely exist behind a screen, but it is
probablethat we will interact with it differently. We'll manipulate objects using
augmented reality (AR),explore virtual-reality (VR) worlds, and meld the real and the
digital in ways we can currently notimagine.

Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument made in the above
passage?
I. Truly immersive computing and augmented reality, at scale and accessible by billions of
humansin real time, will require a 1,000-times increase in computational efficiency from
today's state ofthe art.
II. Precipitated by the pandemic, we are transitioning away from the nine-to-five
commute andturning our backs on the traditional office setting, enabled by a newfound
love of virtualmeetings.
III. One company not only let you see how its sunglasses look like on your face, it is also
workingon using augmented reality to virtually show you how the world will look like
through differentlenses.
A. Only I and III
B. Only II and III
C. Only III
D. Only I and II
E. All I, II and III

Answer – B

Q.44) In the question below, a situation is given, followed by statements that may or may
notbe possible reasons for the situation. Select the option that best describes the reason
for thesituation in the question.
Situation: Drugs giant Pfizer has said it expects $15bn (≤11bn) of sales this year of the
coronavirusvaccine it developed with German firm BioNTech. The vaccine was one of the
first to beauthorised for use by countries including the UK and the US.
I. In England, around 28 million eligible individuals are yet to be vaccinated - around two-
thirdsof the population
II. Many countries around the world have been scrambling to vaccinate their populations
in a bidto save lives and aid economic recovery.
III. Within age groups, the NHS is trying to ensure that all people, regardless of
deprivation,geography, or ethnicity, have equal uptake of the vaccine.
A. Only I
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and II
D. Only III
E. All I, II and III

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.45) In the question below, a situation is given, followed by statements that may or may
notbe possible reasons for the situation. Select the option that best describes the reason
for thesituation in the question.

Situation: The American Academy of Pediatrics, the American Academy of Child and
AdolescentPsychiatry, and the Children's Hospital Association declared a national
emergency in child andadolescent mental health in the fall of 2021. This may be a
contributing factor to the increase inschool shooting incidents across the US.
I. During the past two decades more than 85% of school shootings in the US have been
committedby people younger than 25, and the majority by children under 18
II. According to National Alliance of Mental Illness, nearly 20% of high school students
haveseriously contemplated suicide, and 9% have attempted suicide.
III. While in the past it was easier for adolescents to talk to a trusted adult in their
extended familyduring turbulent times as it was common for three generations of a family
to live nearby, it hasbecome rare these days with the prevalence of nuclear families.
A. Only I and II
B. Only III
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and III
E. All I, II and III

Answer – B

Q46) What may be the code for “Mentioned”?

A. 9k*
B. 9m*
C. 8k*
D. 6l?
E. 9m#

Answer – A

Q47) What is the code for “Parenting”?

A. 7g?
B. 7r*
C. 9g?
D. 7g$
E. None of these

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q48) Code ‘2x!’ is for which of the following words?

A. Chronical
B. Dormant
C. Cool
D. Calibri
E. Charisma

Answer – E

Q49) How the word “Vikram” coded as?

A. 3n*
B. 9n(
C. 13m?
D. 9n*
E. 7k!

Answer – B

Q50) How the word “banking selection” be coded as

A. 5n& 5l@
B. 9k! 5l@
C. 5m# 5k$
D. 6a$ 9k!
E. 4m# 6l%

Answer – C

Q.51) The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments
numberedI and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and
which is a 'weak'argument.
Statement: Should over the top (OTT) platforms such as Whatsapp, Signal and Facebook
berequired to obtain licences to operate in a country just like telecom companies both of
whichprovide services like voice calling, messaging and video calling?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because it will create a level playing field by making OTT platforms liable to pay
taxes andlevies that telecom companies already do.
II. Yes, this will ensure OTT platforms' compliance with security requirements, lawful
interceptionand other regulatory obligations imposed on.

A. Only argument I is strong

B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.52) The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments
numberedI and II. You have to decide which of the argument is either a ‘strong’ argument
or ‘weak’argument or both or neither of them is ‘strong’ or ‘weak’.
Despite the popularity of economic liberal ideas and globalization, the increasing severity
ofenergy and environmental problems has raised many questions about the ability of
markets tosolve these problems. Kyoto Agreement ultimately resulted in the creation of a
market-basedsystem. The privatization of environmental problems has helped to reduce
greenhouse gasemissions while generating significant amounts of wealth.
Arguments:
I. Yes, it is important to balance economic goals with environmental protection to ensure
asustainable future for generations to come.
II. No, economic liberal ideas and globalisation directly help in conserving climate and
therebythere is no need to implement the market-based system.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Answer – A

Q.53) Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments
numberedI and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and
which is a 'weak'argument.
Statement: Should the demand of exporters, who are facing liquidity challenges, for
extendingGST (Goods and Services Tax) exemption on freight be met?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because GST on export freight is revenue-neutral as exporters can claim a refund
aftermaking the payment, so extending the exemption will improve exporters' liquidity.
II. Yes, because GST on export freight is levied by the central government, which has
thediscretionary powers to provide exemption from the tax.

A. Only argument I is strong

B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Answer – A

Q.54) Read the following group of statements and identify the main conclusion in the
argument.
Considering the rate at which these photo voltaic panels are being installed around the
country,India is expected to generate an enormous amount of waste over the next 20
years. In fact, Indiais expected to become one of the top five leading photovoltaic waste
producers worldwide by2050. India should note that it doesn’t find itself caught
unprepared against a new problem in thefuture for two good reasons.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

First, simply clubbing PV waste with other e-waste could lead to confusion. Secondly, the
wastegenerated from PV modules and their components is classified as ‘hazardous waste’
in India.
A. Implementing e-waste management programs can be expensive and may require
significantfinancial resources.
B. E-waste management requires specialized equipment and technical expertise, which
may not bereadily available in all areas.
C. E-waste management often involves complex regulations and requirements that can
be difficultto navigate.
D. India should formulate and implement provisions specific to PV waste treatment
within theambit of the e-waste guidelines.
E. Now is the right time for it to install clear policy directives, well-established recycling
strategies,and greater collaboration to tackle waste.

Answer – D

Q.55) In the question below, two statements (I) and (II) are given. These statements may
beeither independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common
cause. One ofthese statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the
statements and decidewhich of the following answer choices correctly depicts the
relationship between these twostatements.
I. Long forced to take a back seat to the arabica bean, robusta is now becoming the flavour
ofnote for the speciality coffee industry.
II. Everyone, from planters to roasters and coffee companies, is promoting robusta,
looking atnew flavour extraction processes more suited to the bean's unique properties,
trying to extractcomplex flavours from the bean - unheard of even a couple of years ago.

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Answer – E

Q.56) In the question given below, a passage/statement is given followed by three

statementswhich may or may not strengthen/weaken the assertion made in the passage.
Answer thequestions as per the individual direction given.
If every crevasse in your home is overflowing with objects you haven't used in more than
fiveyears, it would be fairly safe to say you are a hoarder. And if the very thought of
parting withpossessions you no longer need creates distress, you may have hoarding
disorder. You are notalone - most Indians are known for hoarding, a habit probably
triggered by generations of makingdo and not having enough.
Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument made in the above
passage?
I. Collectors typically acquire possessions in an organised and targeted fashion whereas
hoardersacquire objects impulsively, with little active planning.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

II. A typical Indian middle-class family has a room exclusively for holding all the big and
smallitems hidden by generations of family members.
III. Most Indians are constantly worrying about survival, prompting them to keep things in
casethey are needed in the future.
A. Only I and II
B. Only II
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
E. All I, II and III

Answer – D

Direction (57-60): Answer the following questions on the basis of the information
givenbelow.
Eight people Alex, Ben, Charlie, Daniel, Peter, Quinin, Rachel, and Sophia are seated
around acircular table facing the centre. Some information about their relationships and
position is given:
• Sophia’s husband is sitting two seats to the right of Ben.
• Quinn is seated two seats to the left of Daniel’s daughter.
• Quinn is Rachel’s sister.
• Sophia’s husband is not sitting next to Quinn.
• There is one person between Quinn and Alex.
• Similarly, there is one person between Peter and Sophia’s mother.
• Alex is the father of Rachel. Charlie is not sitting next to Quinn.
• Sophia’s mother is seated immediately to the right of Daniel, who is Sophia’s
brother.
• There is one person between Sophia and Rachel.
• Peter is not sitting next to Rachel, who is the mother of charlie.

Q.57) Who is sitting second to the right of Ben?

A. Rachel
B. Alex
C. Quinn
D. Peter
E. Sophia

Answer – A

Q.58) How many people are seated between Quinn and Alex?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. One
E. None

Answer - D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.59) Who is the sister of Rachel?

A. Quinn
B. Charlie
C. Peter
D. Sophia
E. Ben

Answer – A

Q.60) What is position of Peter’s grandmother with respect to Quinn?

A. 2nd to the right
B. 3rd to the right
C. 3rd to the left
D. 4th to the right
E. 5th to the left

Answer –D

Directions (61-63): Study the following information carefully and answer the question
givenbelow.
There are 7 persons in the family P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V. V is the father-in-law of U. U has a
brotherP. P is the brother-in-law of T. V has only 2 children. U is elder than P but younger
than R. S is thegrandmother of Q. T is the father of Q. Ages of S is 41 which is 10 more
than V. Age of P is 23.
Note: It is to be assumed husband is elder than the wife.
Q61. How is S related to Q?
A. Paternal grandfather
B. Paternal grandmother
C. Maternal grandfather
D. Maternal grandmother
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q62. How is V related to S?

A. Husband
B. Wife
C. Son
D. Daughter
E. None of these

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q63. what is the possible age of R?

A. 42
B. 32
C. 29
D. 35
E. 22

Answer – C

Directions (64-68): Study the following information carefully and answer the question
givenbelow.
There are 9 persons A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I living in 3 flats P, Q, and R. Flat P is to the west of
Flat Qand Flat R is to the east of Flat Q. Each flat has 3 floors numbered 1 to 3 from
bottom to toprespectively. All the people are from a different county viz India, Pakistan,
China, Russia, USA,UK, South Africa, UAE, and Singapore but not necessarily in the same
order.
No person is to the left of the person who is from USA. There is a gap of 1 floor between
theperson from USA and China but they not live in same flat. Person A is from India and
Person H isnot from South Africa. Person G lives in flat R. Person H is from UK and lives in
flat R. Person fromSouth Africa lives in floor 2. Person from UAE doesn’t live in flat R.
Person from China and Russialives in same flat. There is a gap of 1 floor between person
from Pakistan and UAE and they livein different flats. Person E and C lives on top floor.
Person from Singapore lives on Top floor inflat Q. Person E is not from Singapore. Person
A and the one who is from UK lives in same floorbut not in same flat. There is one floor
above and below the person from UK. Person from UAElives in first floor. Person B is
south of Person E. Person from Russia is in the east of person fromUAE. Person from India
lives immediate south of the person from Singapore. Person F lives in flatP above the
person B. D is from Russia. Person from China doesn’t live on first floor.

Q64. G is from which country?

A. Russia
B. China
C. Singapore
D. UAE
E. Pakistan

Answer – B

Q65. USA lives in which floor and flat.

A. Floor 1 and Flat Q
B. Floor 3 and Flat R
C. Floor 3 and Flat P
D. Floor 1 and Flat R
E. None of these

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q66. Find the one which is not right.

A. E- Pakistan- Flat P
B. I- UAE- Flat P
C. A- India- Flat Q
D. C- Singapore- Floor 3
E. F- South Africa- floor 2

Answer – B

Q67. Which of the following is true?

A. A- South Africa
B. Pakistan- floor1
C. Russia- floor 3
D. B- USA
E. G- Flat Q

Answer – D

Q68. Who lives below the person from Russia?

A. E
B. Person from UAE
C. No one
D. Person from India
E. B

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (69): Study the following information carefully and answer the conclusions that
don’tfollow?
Q89. Statement: Some carroms are wood. Some woods are games. All Cricket is game. No
gameis fruit. Only A few veggies are fruits.
Conclusion I: All woods being veggies is a possibility
Conclusion II: All veggies can be fruits.
Conclusion III: At least some cricket is wood.
A. Only Conclusion I
B. Only conclusion I and II
C. Only conclusions I and III
D. All Conclusion I, II and III
E. Only conclusions II and III

Answer – E

Directions (70): Study the following information carefully and answer the conclusions that
follow?
Q70. Only a few cats are lions. Some lions are female. All cats are males.
Conclusion I: All cats being lions is a possibility.
Conclusion II: All females being cat is a possibility
Conclusion III: At least some lions are males
A. Only Conclusion I
B. Only conclusion I and II
C. Only conclusions III
D. Only conclusions II and III
E. None follows

Answer - D

Directions (71): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in

thestatements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answerM&N
means M is neither greater than nor equal to N
M%N means M is neither smaller than nor greater than N
M*N means M is not greater N
M$N means M is greater than N
M@N means M is either greater than or equal to N
Q71. Which of the following will make S>P definitely true?
I: P$E@I*S%M
II: I%L@P%K*G*S
III: B*P%Y&N*S
A. If only Conclusion I follows
B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If both Conclusion I and II follows
D. If only conclusion III follows
E. If both the conclusion I and III follows.

Answer - D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q72. In which of the following K>T is definitely true and K>L definitely false?
A. H>G>K=P≤Q≤R=N; L=C≥E=N≤Y<W; F<I<Z>G>T=S≥B
B. H>G<K=P≤Q≤R=N; L=C≥E>N≤Y<W; F<I<Z>G<T=S≥B
C. H>G<K=P≤Q≤R=N; L=C≥E>N≤Y<W; F<I<Z>G>T=S≥B
D. H>G≤K=P≤Q≤R=N; L=C≥E≤N≤Y<W; F<I<Z>G≥T=S≥B
E. none of these

Answer – C

Directions (73): Study the following information carefully and answer the conclusions that
follow?
Q93. Statement: Only fish is water. Some fish is not aquatic. All aquatic is sea. No sea is
lakes.Some lakes are waterfalls
Conclusion I: All fish can be waterfall.
Conclusion II: Some waterfall can be aquatic
Conclusion III: All sea can be fish

A. If only Conclusion I follows

B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If both conclusion II and III follows.
D. If both Conclusion I and II follows
E. If both conclusion I and III follows

Answer – C

Directions (74): In the question given below a passage is given followed by three
statements.Read it carefully and answer the question that follows.
China is still only a middle-income country with a per capita income just above
$10,000,one-sixthof the USA’s. It will surely keep rising for a long time. But after it
becomes a high-income countrywith a per capita income of $20,000-30,000, it will stumble
and stagnate unless its politicalsystem becomes more flexible.
I. China follows the model of the original four Asian Tigers – Singapore, Korea, Taiwan,
and HongKong.
II. China has become hegemon of the 21st century.
III. The Chinese model is far superior and will flourish much longer.
Q74. Which of the following inference can be drawn?
A. only II & III
B. only I & III
C. only III
D. only I
E. None

Answer – E

Directions (75-79): Study the following information carefully and answer the question
givenbelow:
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

numbers, itarranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an

input and itsrearrangement.
Input: steno 89 bike 17 Map 46 dog 67 Tame 55 Yak 24 Light 96
Step I: 18 steno 89 bike Map 46 dog 67 tame 55 24 light 96 yak
Step II: bike 18 steno 89 map 46 dog 67 tame 55 24 light yak 95
Step III: 23 bike 18 steno 89 map 46 dog 67 55 light yak 95 Tame
Step IV: dog 23 bike 18 steno map 46 67 55 light yak 95 Tame 90
Step V: 45 dog 23 bike 18 map 67 55 light yak 95 Tame 90 steno
Step VI: Light 45 dog 23 bike 18 map 55 yak 95 Tame 90 steno 68
Step VII: 56 Light 45 dog 23 bike 18 yak 95 tame 90 steno 68 map
And step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given
input.
Input: Car 11 Pack 62 Ignite 83 Too 48 Draw 29 Adieu 74 noon 33

Q75. Which element is third to the right of the eighth from left end in step IV?
A. Too
B. 74
C. Adieu
D. draw
E. 33

Answer – A

Q76. which step has elements in these manner “Adieu 12 62 ignite”?

A. Step III
B. Step V
C. Step IV
D. Both step IV and V
E. Both step III and IV

Answer – D

Q77. Which of the following Step V has in the same manner?

A. ignite 48 Too
B. Too Yak 73
C. 48 draw Too
D. 12 ignite 48
E. 12 car 62

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q78. which is the third element from left end in step II and third element from right in
step VIIrespectively.
A. Adieu, Yak
B. 34, 73
C. car, 61
D. car, noon
E. 12, noon

Answer - D

Q79. Which of the following is not right in any step?

A. 30 Adieu 12
B. draw Too 73
C. Too 84 Yak
D. 47 draw 34
E. 73 noon 61

Answer – B

Direction (80-84): Study the following instruction carefully and answer the question given
below.
Eight persons F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M were born in different months, viz January, April,
June andOctober, on two different dates – 12th or 27th. Only one person was born on
each date. Each ofthem has different ages viz 13, 19, 25, 34, 45, 50, 65, 71 but not
necessarily in the same order.
F was born in April. Only one person was born in the month between F and the one whose
ageis 65, who was not born in January. Only one person was born between the ones
whose ages are50 and 65 respectively. Only five persons were born between G and K, who
was born in themonth after G. K was not born on 27th. I was born on date before L and
both of them were bornin the same month. No one was born on date before the one
whose age is 25. The number ofpersons born before J is the same as the number of
persons born after the date whose age is 65.
No one is born between F and the one whose age is 19. H’s age is not 19. H was born in
monthbefore the month of M but not immediately before. Only four persons were born
between M,whose age is 45, and the one whose age is 34. M was born in the month that
is after the monthof the one whose age is 34. One of the persons born in June has age 13.

Q80. Who among the following has age 34?

A. F
B. H
C. L
D. M
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q81. Who was born exactly between the person aged 45 and J.
A. G
B. I
C. K
D. M
E. L

Answer – L
Q82. what is the age of H?
A. 45
B. 65
C. 71
D. 13
E. 19

Answer – C

Q83. Which of the following is not correct?

A. F-34- 12th April
B. I- 65- 12th June
C. L-13-27th October
D. H-71- 27th January
E. G-25- 12th January

Answer – C

Q84. Which one is the odd one out?

A. Person who is aged 19
B. M
C. G
D. Person who is aged 71
E. J

Answer – C
Directions (85): Question given below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
Youhave to decide which of the arguments is strong.
Q85. Statement: There is massive protest in university on dress-code. It is specifically for
females.
Argument I: Protest is demanding it should be applied to both or none.
Argument II: Protest is demanding in place of dress code; security should be enhanced.
A. If only argument II is strong
B. If only argument I is strong
C. If both I or II are strong
D. If neither I nor II is strong
E. If either I or II is strong

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (86-90): Study the following information carefully and answer the question
givenbelow:

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T have different designations in a company i.e., Chief

Generalmanager (CGM), General Manager (GM), Deputy General Manager (DGM), Assistant
GeneralManager (AGM), Manager, Assistant Manager (AM), Probationary Officer (PO), and
Clerk. All thedesignations given are to be considered in a given order (as CGM is considered as
Senior-mostand Clerk is considered as the Junior-most). They all visited some different number
of countriesi.e., 2, 3, 5, 6, 8, 9, 11, 15 but not in same order.
There are 3 persons in between the person who is AM and the person who visited 8
countries.Clerk has not visited the least number of countries. T is GM and R visited 2 countries.
There aretwo persons in between O and the person visited 5 countries. S designated one place
above Rand he is not manager. CGM is not the person who visited highest number of countries.
PersonQ is AGM. Person who visited 15 countries is higher in designation than who visited 9
countries.M and P has post lower than AGM. P visited 3 countries and His post is lower than M.
O visitedhighest number of countries. N visited 11 countries. AGM visited less number of
countries thanManager but more number of countries than clerk.

Q86. Who visited 6 countries?

A. N
B. O
C. Q
D. P
E. S

Answer – C

Q87. Who is above and below AGM respectively?

A. O, Person Visited 5 Countries
B. N, R
C. Person Visited 8 Countries, Q
D. M, O
E. Person Visited 15 Countries, M

Answer – E

Q88. What is the sum of countries visited by DGM and person S?

A. 22
B. 18
C. 25
D. 15
E. 20

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q89. Which of the following is the odd one out?

A. N
B. DGM
C. Manager
D. R
E. Clerk

Answer – D

Q90. Which of the following is not right?

A. CGM-N-11
B. AGM-Q-5
C. Manager-M-9
D. PO-R-2
E. DGM-O-15

Answer – B

Directions (91): Read the given passage and answer the question that question that
follow.
Due to the increasing air pollution in the city, the Government has decided to reduce the
use ofvehicles older than ten years by the people in the city of Delhi. Old diesel vehicles
pollute the airwith their harmful emissions. To prevent pollution, the Government has
decided to seize tenyear old diesel vehicles from the roads of the city.
Q91. Which of the following argument could be made from the above passage?
A. Old vehicles are better than new vehicles.
B. Old vehicles cannot be eliminated as people will have to give up their vehicle
C. Vehicular pollution would decrease if new vehicles are not allowed on the road.
D. Eliminating old diesel vehicles would reduce air pollution in the city
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Directions (92-94): Study the following information and give answer based on it:
Q92. Eight people are living in a building. Who is sitting at the topmost floor?
I. Five person live between P and T. No person lives below T. Three people live between S
and Q,who lives on the fourth floor from the bottom.
II. Two persons live between S and T. P lives on third floor from the top. Four people live
betweenS and R, who lives on 2nd floor.

A. If data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
StatementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. If data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
inStatement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. If data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
E. If data in either of the Statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Answer – A

Q93. Six persons have birthday on six days of a week starting from Monday to Saturday.
Onlyone player has birthday on one day. Deepak has birthday on which day?
Statement I: Vinay has birthday just before Deepak, who is not the last one. Rohan has
birthdayon the first day of the week immediately followed by Shivam.
Statement II: Rohan and Vinay have birthday at a gap of one day such that Rohan has
birthdayon Monday. Deepak has birthday just before Rahul.
A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
C. If the data in statements I and II is necessary to answer the question
D. If the data in statements I and II is not sufficient to answer the question
E. If data in either statement I or II is sufficient to answer the question

Answer – C

Q94. In a football tournament, there were seven goalkeepers namely P to V, who saved
different number of goals. Were the goals saved by T more than that of Q?
Statement I: U saved more goals than only two goalkeepers. P saved more goals than R,
who wasthe third highest goal saver. T saved lesser goals than R but more than U.
Statement II: Q saved more goals than S but lesser than R. The goals saved by U was more
thanQ. P was not the highest goal saver.
Statement III: V saved more goals than R. Number of goals saved by P was less than
onegoalkeeper only. T saved more goals than U and S.
A. If the data in statement I and II together is sufficient.
B. If the data in statement II and III together is sufficient.
C. If the data in all the statements together is necessary.
D. If the data in all the statements together is not sufficient.
E. If the data in any two of the three statements is sufficient.

Answer - E

Directions (95-99): Study the following information carefully and answer the question
givenbelow:
Seven cars namely Hyundai, Kia, Maruti, Renault, Skoda, Tata, Volkswagen are parked in a
linearrow and are facing in the north direction, but not necessarily in the same order.
Distancebetween two adjacent cars is in consecutive multiple of 7, from left to right end.
Renault is parked 126m to the left of Tata.
Hyundai is parked 21m to the right of Maruti.
If Kia moves 5m north and then turns right and moves 91m, it reaches to the north of
Tata.
If Volkswagen moves 5m towards the south and then turns left and moves 35m and again
turnsright and moves 5m and again turns left and moves 28m, it reaches to the south of
Renault.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q95. What is the minimum distance between any 2 cars?

A. 7
B. 14
C. 21
D. 28
E. 35

Answer – B

Q96. How many cars are to the right of Skoda?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Answer – B

Q97. What is the sum of distance between Hyundai and Kia?

A. 63
B. 49
C. 77
D. 35
E. 91

Answer – A

Q98. How many cars are there in between Maruti and Tata?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

Answer – C

Q99. How many cars are to the left of Volkswagen and right of Renault?
A. 1,4
B. 2,3
C. 0,4
D. 3,2
E. 0,3

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (100): Read the statement and arguments carefully and choose the right
answer.
The world is witnessing the highest levels of displacement on record. An unprecedented
70.8million people around the world have been forced from home by conflict and
persecution at theend of 2018. Among them are nearly 30 million refugees, over half of
whom are under the ageof 18. There are also millions of stateless people, who have been
denied a nationality and accessto basic rights such as education, healthcare, employment
and freedom of movement.

Q100. Which of the following courses of action should help improve the current scenario?
I. People fleeing persecution and conflict should be granted asylum in foreign lands.
II. UNHCR should divert all of its resources towards planning of protection of refugees.
III. International agencies should protect the camps in which refugees must live when they
areleft without access to such basic necessities as food, water, sanitation and health care.
A. only II
B. only III
C. only I & III
D. only I & II
E. only II & III

Answer - C

Direction (101-105): Study the following information carefully and answer the below
questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are born in different years are 1973, 1982, 1985,
1991,1993, 1994, 1996 and 2000 but not necessarily in the same order. Each person likes
differentcolour viz. Orange, Red, and Yellow but not necessarily in this order. The age of
the persons iscalculated based on 2022.
G’s age was in an odd number and like Red. Two persons are born between one who
likesMagenta and A. Three persons are born between the persons who like green and
yellow. Onewho like magenta born in an even-numbered year and born immediately
before or after G. Hwas born after G. Persons born after A is the same as persons born
before E. G was not born in1991. D is born after C. Two persons are born between E and D,
who likes violet. The number ofpersons born between G and D is the same as between A
and C who likes orange. H is older thanF but younger than B. F likes neither green nor
grey. A doesn’t like maroon.

Q101. Whose age is 37?

A. H
B. The person who like Red.
C. The person who like orange
D. A
E. none of these

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q102. Who was born exactly between the one who like Violet and person G?
A. Person who likes Yellow
B. Person H
C. Person A
D. Person who likes Green
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q103. Who born just before and after the person who like Magenta respectively?
A. B, E
B. person who likes Red, C
C. C, person who like Green
D. person who likes orange, G
E. None of these

Answer - D

Q104. what is the sum of the ages of E and the person who like Grey?
A. 77
B. 68
C. 60
D. 58
E. 57

Answer – C

Q125. The person born between C and A is same as the person born between the person
wholike green and…….?
A. H
B. B
C. A
D. D
E. None Of These

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (106): A passage is given that represents an issue. The passage is followed by
threepoints. Choose the option which gives the most suitable course(s) of action that
should befollowed in order to improve the current situation.
Water is at the core of sustainable development and is critical for socio-economic
development,energy and food production, healthy ecosystems and for human survival
itself. The UnitedNations has long been addressing the global crisis caused by insufficient
water supply. Childhooddiarhea is closely associated with insufficient water supply,
inadequate sanitation, watercontaminated with communicable disease agents, and poor
hygiene practices. Diarrhea isestimated to cause 1.5 million child deaths per year, mostly
among children under five living indeveloping countries.

Q106. Which of the following courses of action should help improve the current scenario?
I. Awareness should be created among the masses about the deleterious effects of
unhygienicwater.
II. Medical treatments should be improved.
III. Only children should be provided with hygienic water.
A. only II
B. only III
C. only I
D. only I & III
E. only II & III

Answer – A

Directions (107): Study the following and give answer based on the information given:
Globalization consists of the social, political and economic changes that we all adapt to.
Thestrong currency rates, constructions, trading are all consequences of globalization.
There areboth positive and negative impacts of this globalization on the economy and it
leads to theinterconnection between the countries of different cultures, caste and
heritage. Globalizationleads to the usage of new innovative ideas of new technology that
people tend to start using.

Q107. Given below are the impacts of Globalization, select the negative impact among
them.
A. It introduces new technologies.
B. It has brought an impact on political and cultural domain.
C. Because of too much exchange of trade, money etc independent domestic policies
are lost.
D. Globalization has introduced many different ideologies among people.
E. It introduces better trade.

Answer – C

Directions (108): In the question below, a statement is given depicting an issue or a

problem.

You have to assume everything in the statement to be true even if they are at variance
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

fromcommonly known facts, and on the basis of the information given in the statement,
answer thequestion that follows.

Q108. Statement: Our economy, people’s health and mental anxiety will continue until
thevaccination programme is completed. We should aim to finish the vaccination in six
monthsinstead of two years. For this, we need to increase the current pace to four times
the currentlevels, or to 8 crore doses/week.
Course of action:
I. Securing the supply of the vaccines from the indigenous suppliers and stop exporting
vaccines.
II. Approve more vaccines from around the world, and have more manufacturing facilities
toincrease the availability of the vaccine.
III. Every private hospital, dispensary and healthcare centre should be allowed to
administer thevaccine in order to increase the vaccinators.
A. only I follow
B. only II & III follows
C. only I & II follows
D. All follow
E. None follows

Answer – D

Directions (109): Each of the questions below, consist a question and three statements
numbered I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read the three statements and Give answer

Q109. There are six floors considering first floor at the bottom and sixth floor at the top.
Sixpeople namely Umang, Pulkit, Suman, Sunny, Virat, Kamal lives on each floor. Who
lives on 3rdfloor?
I. Kamal lives on the floor which is somewhere above the floor on which Suman lives but
Sumandoes not live on the bottom most floor. At least two people lives between the floor
Umang andVirat lives.
II. Sunny lives on the floor that is four floors below than the floors on which Umang lives.
Thefloors one which Virat and Pulkit lives have two floors between them. Pulkit does not
live on firstfloor.
III. Suman lives on an odd numbered floor somewhere above the floor on which Virat
lives. Kamaldoes not live on second floor.
A. Only I is sufficient
B. Only I & II is sufficient
C. Only II is sufficient
D. Only II & III is sufficient
E. Both (C) & (D)

Answer – B

Directions (110): Each of the questions below, consist a question and three statements
numbered I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

sufficient to answer the question. Read the three statements and Give answer

Q110. Who amongst eight persons S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z sitting in a row are at both extreme
endsof row?
I. S is third from one end of row, T second to right of S and both face opposite direction (if
S facenorth than T face south and if S face south than T face north direction). One person
X sitsbetween S and Z and face same direction as Q face.
II. As many persons sit between Z and W is one more between X and U, who is not at any
extremeend of row. V is not the neighbor of U. T do not face in south direction.
III. V is third to left of T. As many persons sits between T and Z as one more than between
Z andW. U is not neighbor of V and S do not face north.

A. Only I & II
B. Only I & III
C. All I, II or III are sufficient
D. only I and either II or III is sufficient
E. None of these

Answer – D

Directions (111-115): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
There are certain number of persons sitting around a circular table and facing the centre.
Onlytwo persons sit between X and V. U likes Mango and Y likes Papaya. Only the persons
mentionedlikes fruits. One of the immediate neighbours of S likes Grapes but W does not
like Grapes. Z sitssecond to the left of V. Only one person sits between the one who like
Grapes and the one wholikes Pear. U sits eight to left of Z. X sits sixth to the right of S who
likes Kiwi. Only two persons sitbetween the one who likes Pear and the one who likes
Banana. W sit third to the left of Y who isan immediate neighbour of Z. More than 11
persons sit around the circular table. Neither W norZ likes Pear. The one who sits seventh
to the left of the one who likes Banana, likes Apple.

Q111. How many persons are sitting around the circular table?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14
E. none of these

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q112. Who among the following like Apple?

A. W
B. Y
C. V
D. X
E. none of these

Answer - A

Q113. If ‘E’ sits exactly between U and W then what is the position of ‘E’ with respect to S?
A. Third To The Right
B. Fourth To The Left
C. Second To The Left
D. Immediate Right
E. None Of These

Answer – B

Q114. If ‘F’ sits second to the right of the one who likes Pear, then how many persons sit
betweenF and the one who likes Papaya?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. None
E. None Of These

Answer – A

Q115. Z likes which of the following fruits?

A. Pear
B. Mango
C. Banana
D. Grapes
E. None Of These

Answer – D

Directions (116): The passage given below is followed by three statements. Choose the
onewhich can be the correct assumptions on which the passage is based.

Q116. An entire field of study is devoted to biomimetics, sometimes referred to as

biomimicry.Having evolved over millennia, living organisms present beautiful and
sometimes complexdesigns that are integral to their lives. And humans have learnt to
emulate those designs for theirown purposes. Design-engineering of buildings that stay
cool on the inside despite soaringtemperatures outside are inspired by the structure and
ventilation of termite.
I. Living organisms create beautiful and sometimes complex designs for humans to copy.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

II. Humans have evolved by copying from other living organisms and being able to find
successfulsolutions.
III. Humans have cognitive ability to get inspired from the designs made by other
organisms.

A. Only I
B. Only I & II
C. Only II
D. Only II & III
E. Only III

Answer – E

Directions (117): Study the following information and answer the question given below it.
A July 2020 paper published in the Journal of Economic Structures by Mohammad
MasudurRahman and co-authors makes some fascinating points. Using econometric
modelling, theauthors conducted a comparative analysis of the likely impact of tariff
reduction and tradefacilitation in a scenario of Indo-Pacific regional integration on various
macroeconomic and tradevariables. The modelling showed if Quad countries were to sign
a trade agreement wherebilateral tariffs are scrapped, India’s real GDP could increase by
0. 2% or $5. 7 billion.

Q117. Which of the following would strengthen the argument above?

I. While such an agreement would be advantageous for the other two partners as well,
benefitswould differ depending on the size of the economy, the levels of tariff and non-
tariff barriers.
II. If other nations or groupings like Asean were to join such a trade agreement and
engage inreducing non-tariff barriers, the benefits for member countries could be
exponentially higher.
III. Among Quad nations, India needs investment, attractive financing for
infrastructure,technology, and access to key raw materials, particularly rare earth
elements.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only I & II
D. Only II & III
E. Only III

Answer – B

Directions (118): In the question given below a passage is given followed by three
statements.
Read it carefully and answer the question that follows.

Q118. Climate activism is seen as just planting trees and engaging in clean-up drives.
Those areimportant but it’s also about holding those in power accountable and asking if
they will leaveindigenous people and their land alone, leave the coal in the ground, leave
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

the rivers unpoisonedand leave the trees standing.

I. Climate activists should reach representatives - at all levels of the government to raise
the issueof environment due to their inactions.
II. Climate activists should sympathise with those who fuel our destruction.
III. Climate activists should volunteer with local organizations to make changes related to
climate.
A. Only I
B. Only I & II
C. Only II
D. Only II & III
E. Only I & III

Answer – E

Directions (119): In the question below are given a statement followed by two courses of
actionnumbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken
for improvement, follow-up or further action regarding the problem, policy, etc. Based on
theinformation given in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested
courses ofaction logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Q119. Statement:Country A and Country B have friendly foreign trade systems. Both
countries import and exportgoods and services from each other. Country A has been
importing Beauty Product B fromCountry B for a long while. Recently, a newspaper in
Country B has been running an exposéinvolving Product B. According to the exposé, Beauty
Product B has a cancer-causing pigment init. The article also mentioned statistical data
showing the number of people affected by thepigment.
Course of Actions:
I. The Health Ministry of Country A asks the Ministry of Foreign Trade to ban Beauty
Product B.
II. The Ministry of Foreign Trade levies heavy taxes on the import of Beauty Product B.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Either I or II
D. Both I & II
E. Neither I nor II

Answer - E

Directions (120): Read the given passage and answer the question that question that
follow.
The Holocaust that took place in Germany was a systematic, state-sponsored persecution
andmassacre of millions of Jews. The Jewish race was considered an inferior race that was
weighingdown the country and obstructing its development, so there was a
misconception thateliminating Jews would help the country and bring back the glory of
the country.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q120. Which of the following argument could be made from the above passage?
A. The elimination of Jews glorified Germany.
B. Jews were believed to be the pride of Germany.
C. The delusion of the Germans resulted in the persecution of Jews.
D. The mass genocide of the Jews had nothing to do with race.
E. None of the above

Answer – C

Directions (121-125): Study the following information carefully and answer the
below questions.
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are born in different years but not necessarily in
the same order. The ages of each person are calculated from the base year 2020. Note: If
it is given that A's age is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of B, then the
age of A will be in any sequence. For example: If B is born in 1992, A's age is equal
to the last two digits of the birth year of B, then the age of A may be either 29 or 92
years. None of the persons were born before 1970 and after 2015. W was born in
2000. Only three persons are born between W and T. The age of T is the last two digits
of the birth year of V. The difference between the age of V and W is five years. V is born
two persons after the one whose age is 20 years. Q is born two persons before the one
who is born immediately after S. Only two persons are born between S and the one whose
age is 18 years. The sum of the ages of W and R is one less than the age of S. The last two
digits of the birth year of a person who is born adjacent to Q is equal to the age of the
person who is born immediately after W. The age difference between R and the one
whose age is 20 is the same as between Q and the one who is born adjacent to Q.
The age difference between V and U is one less than the age difference between Q and S.
The numbers of persons are born between P and R is the same as between S and T. The
age of P is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of the person who was born two
persons before P. All person's ages are equal to the last two digits of the birth year of
some other persons except V and Q.
Q.121) What is the age of P?
A. 20
B. 25
C. 27
D. 07
E. 38

Answer – C

Q.122) Who among the following person was born immediately before V?
A. U
B. The one who was born two persons after S
C. The one who was born immediately after W
D. Q
E. T

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.123) What is the sum of the ages of V, U, and T?

A. 95
B. 82
C. 62
D. 72
E. 75

Answer – D

Q.124) As many persons are born before Q is same as after_?

A. The one who was born in 2000
B. The one who was born in 2013
C. The one who was born in 2005
D. S
E. P

Answer - C

Q.125) In which of the following year does Q was born?

A. 1970
B. 1972
C. 1976
D. 1982
E. 1992

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (126-130): Study the following information carefully and answer thebelow
questions.
Numbers and words arrangement machine when given an input line of
numbersrearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is
anillustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 53218 crew kept 32174 73628 mode form 82746 23684 very
Step I: 23684 crew 32174 form 53218 kept 73628 mode 82746 very
Step II: 11842 crew 16087 form 26609 kept 36814 mode 41373 very
Step III: 952 crew 697 fomr 329 kept 544 node 423 very
Step IV: 16 crew 22 form 14 kept 13 node 09very
Step V: 5 crew 0 form 3 kept 2 node 9 node.
Step V is the last step
Input: Line 35422 Turn 87342 63926 Wake Sand 48524 73842 Pure

Q.126) What is the position of "921" from the right end in step III?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Fifth

Answer – B

Q.127) Which of the following element is fourth from the right end in step IV?
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
E. 16

Answer – A

Q.128) What is the output of "48524"?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.129) What is the sum of the numbers in Step V?

A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 17
E. 15

Answer – D

Q.130) How many elements are between "521" and "Uvrn" in step Ill?
A. Eight
B. Seven
C. Six
D. Five
E. Four

Answer – C

Directions (131-132): In each group of questions below are three conclusionsfollowed by

five statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements thatlogically satisfies
the given conclusion:

Q.131) Conclusion:
I. Some Red is Green
II. Some Black is not a Blue
I. All Green being Red is not a possibility
Statement:
I. Some Red is Blue; All Blue is Black; No Black is Green
II. Only a few Red is Blue; All Blue is Green; Only Green is Black
III. Only Red is Black; Some Red is Blue; No Blue is Green
IV. Only Green is Black; All Red is Green; No Green is Blue
V. Some Black is Blue; No Blue is Green; Only Green is Red.
A. All Follows
B. Both III and V follows
C. Both Il and IV follows
D. Both I and II follow
E. None Follows

Answer – C

Q.132) Conclusion:
I. All Mobile being Laptop is not a possibility
II. Some Speaker being Laptop is a possibility
III. Some speakers are charger
Statement:
I. Only a few mobiles are Laptop; No Laptop is Charger; All Charger is Speaker
Il. Only a few Speaker is Charger; Some Charger is Mobile; All Mobile is Laptop
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

III. No Speaker is Charger; All Charger is Mobile; No Mobile is Laptop

IV. No speaker is Laptop; All Laptop is Charger; No Charger is Mobile
V. Some Charger is Mobile; All Mobile is Laptop; No Laptop is Speaker
A. Both I and Il follow
B. Both Il and IV follows
C. Both III and V follows
D. None Follows
E. All Follows

Answer – A

Directions (133-137): Study the following information carefully and answer the
below questions
Twelve persons- 0, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting in two parallel rows. Eachrow
contains six persons are facing each other. The persons who are sitting in row 1facessouth
and those who are sitting in row 2 facing north but not necessarily in thesame order. They
are having a different number of chocolates. Note: The persons whoare sitting in row-1
having an even number of chocolates and those who are sittingin row-2 having an odd
number of chocolates. Only three persons are sitting betweenR and the one who has 15
chocolates who sits to the right of R. S sits opposite to the onewho sits immediate left of the
one who has 15 chocolates. X sits second to the right of theone who sits adjacent to the
person having 11 chocolates. P and X are sitting diagonallyopposite to each other. P has only
one neighbour who has 10 chocolates. The number ofpersons is sitting between R and X is
the same as between the one who has 22 chocolatesand the one who has 4 chocolates. The
one who has 22 chocolates sits immediate right ofT. T does not sit adjacent to S. O sits
opposite to the one who sits immediate left of Z whosits third to the right of R. S sits
adjacent to O. W sits immediate left of Q who has an oddnumber of chocolates. Y has 6
chocolates, does not sit at end of the row. S has thechocolates twice that of V who has an
even number of chocolates. Z has one chocolatemore than S. The difference between the
number of chocolates of Pand T is equal to the number of chocolates of 0. W has ten
chocolates more than Z andtwo chocolates less than R. None of them has the same number
of chocolates. X has theprime number of chocolates more than U but less than R.
Conditions:
They are playing the dice game. Two persons are rolling the dice at the same time.
1) If two persons are getting an even number, then their chocolate will be added to the
person who sits second to the left of them.
2) If two persons are getting an odd number, then their chocolates will be subtracted
from the person who sits immediate right from them
3) If one person gets an even number and another one gets an odd number then their
chocolates will be twice.

Q.133) The person who sits second to the right of Q and third to the left of 0 are rolling
the dice, one of them gets number 5 and another one gets the number which is equal to
the number of chocolates of V. Then how many chocolates does the person have who sits
third to the left of 0?
A. 30
B. 10
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. 15
D. 8
E. 24

Answer – D

Q.134) If the persons who are sitting in the right corner of each row are rolling thedice,
they get an even number. Then what is the sum of the chocolate of the personswho sits
second to the left of each of them?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 75
D. 85
E. 80

Answer - A

Q.135) What is the sum of the chocolate of 0, S, Q, and W?

A. 55
B. 45
C. 50
D. 35
E. 40

Answer – C

Q.136) If the persons who are sitting second from the left end of each row arerolling the
dice, both are getting an odd number, then what is the differencebetween chocolate of
the person who sits immediate right of each of them?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
E. 9

Answer – B

Q.137) Who among the following person sits second to the right of the one who
sitsopposite to the person who has twice of the chocolates of Y?
A. The one who sits immediate left of W
B. The one who has 19 chocolates
C. The one who has 17 chocolates
D. The one who sits second to the right of R
E. The one who has 15 chocolates

Answer –E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (138-142): Study the following information carefully and answer the
below questions
Three married couples- A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting at the circular table facing the centre
but not necessarily in the same order. They are of different age persons. The couples are not
sitting together. D sits second to the left of the one who sits opposite to a person whose age
is 40. Only one person sits between D and the one whose age is 32. E sits immediate right of
the one who is the wife of A. E is a female member who sits opposite to the one who sits
second to the left of the one whose age is 32. F sits immediate right of the one who sits
second to the right of A. The husband's age is more than the wife's age. F is not a spouse of
C. There is five years age difference between B and B's wife. C does not sit adjacent to A's
spouse. A's age is twice that of E's age. C's spouse's age is 29. There are 10 years age
difference between C and B. No one's age is more than fifty.
Q.138) What is the age of D's spouse (in years)?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 25
D. 20
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Q.139) Who among the following person sits opposite to B?

A. A
B. The one who sits immediate left of D
C. The one whose age is 40
D. D's spouse
E. The one who sits second to the right of A

Answer – D
Q.140) What is the sum of the age of D and A's spouse?
A. 71
B. 61
C. 51
D. 70
E. 75

Answer – B

Q.141) Four of the following are alike in a certain way. Which of the following onedoes
not belong to the group?
A. C
B. A
C. The one who sits immediate right of C
D. The one who sits second to the right of B
E. The one who sits immediate left of D

Answer - D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.142) Which of the following statement is/ are true?

I. A's age is 40
II. B is the spouse of E
III. Only one person sits between D and F when counted to the right of D.

A. All I, II, and III

B. Both I and III
C. Only III
D. Both I and II
E. Only II

Answer –A

Direction (143-145): Each of the questions below consists of a question and

twostatements numbered l and Il given below it. You have to decide whether the
dataprovided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question: -

Q.143) Six persons-L, M, N, 0, P and Q are sitting in a row but not necessarily in thesame
order. Who among the following person sits second from the left end of therow? (facing
south)
Statement1: Q sits third to the left of the one who sits second to the right of L. Only
twopersons are sitting between Q and M. Only one person sits between L and N.
Statement2: Only two persons are sitting between M and Q. M sits immediate right of
theone who sits second to the left of 0 who sits either left or right end.
A. Only Statement I is sufficient
B. Either statement I or statement II is sufficient
C. Only Statement Il is sufficient
D. Neither statement I nor statement Il is sufficient
E. Both statements I and Il sufficient

Answer – C

Q.144) There are six boxes- A, B, C, D, E, and F are kept one above another in a stackbut
not necessarily in the same order. How many boxes are kept above E?
Statement1: Box F is kept two boxes below the box which is kept three boxes above
A.Only two boxes are kept between F and C which is kept below A. Box B is
keptimmediately above Box D, neither of the boxes kept adjacent to C.
Statement2: Box E is kept three boxes below the box which is kept immediately above
F.Box E is kept neither top nor bottom of the stack. Only two boxes are kept between C
andF. Neither B nor D is kept below F.
A. Only Statement I is sufficient
B. Only Statement Il is sufficient
C. Neither statement I nor statement Il is sufficient
D. Both statements I and Il are sufficient
E. Either statement I or statement Il is sufficient

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.145) What is the direction of point L with respect to point X?

Statement1: Point S is north of Point M which is west of Point G. Point P is east of PointX.
Point L is North of point V.
Statement2: Point V is exactly the middle of Point M and G. Point Lis east of Point S.
PointX is neither south nor south-east of Point M. Point P is south of point G.
A. Only Statement I is sufficient
B. Only Statement Il is sufficient
C. Both statements I and Il are sufficient
D. Either statement I or statement Il is sufficient
E. Neither statement I nor statement Il is sufficient

Answer – C

Q.146) In a certain code language, "Program is super" is coded as "217 693 472","Super
Art" is coded as "693 238", "He learns program" is coded as "217 479 624",then what is
the sum of the code for "Program Art"?
A. 696
B. 689
C. 1103
D. 910
E. 455

Answer – E

Q.147) T is 15m north of M. H is 9m south G which is 15m east of M.L is 20m west ofH. V is
north of 0 and 5m east of S which is 5m north of L. 0 is west of H. Then whatis direction
and distance of V with respect to T?
A. 14m, north
B. 19m, north
C. 19m, south
D. 24m, south
E. 24m, north

Answer – C

Q.148) In which of the following more than two meaningful words can be formedby using
the following letters?
i. A, S, T, E
ii. T, D, N, B
iii. P, L, S, 0
A. Only 1
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Only III
E. All I, II, and III

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.149) If the second letter of all the words from the right end are taken andchanged to
the next second successive letter in alphabetical order. Which of thefollowing has more
than one vowel thus formed?
I. Bank, Blow, Cash
II. Draw, Ford, Hurt
III. Mass, Mode, Once
A. Only I
B. Only III
C. All I, II, and III
D. Both Il and III
E. None

Answer – B

Directions (150-152): Answer the questions based on the information givenbelow.

Certain persons are sitting in a straight line and all of them are facing towards north. Not
more than 23 persons are there in the row. D sits fourth from the right end and is fifth to
the right of E. Only two persons sit between E and I. J sits sixth to the left of 1 and is second
to the right of F. The number of persons between I and E is one less than the number of
persons between H and F. K sits third to the left of H and the number of persons to the left
of K is one less than the number of persons to the right of G who doesn't sit adjacent to D.

Q.150) How many persons are there in the row?

A. 27
B. 25
C. 23
D. 21
E. 19

Answer – D

Q.151) Who among the following person sits second to the left of D?
A. G
B. E
C. I
D. J
E. None

Answer – C

Q.152) How many persons are there between H and E?

A. Six
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. Nine
E. None
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (153-155): Study the following information carefully and answer thebelow
questions.
Six persons- L, M, N, O, P, and Q have different heights. Only one person is between the one
whose height is 159 cm and L. The height of P is 156 cm. M is taller than L. The number of
people between N and L is the same as between L and Q. The number of persons who are
taller than N is the same as shorter than P. The height of L is 10cm more than Q whose
height is 3cm more than P. No one height is more than 181cm.

Q.153) What may be the height of M, If the height of N is divisible by five?

A. 171 cm
B. 172 cm
C. 174 cm
D. 175 cm
E. None of the above.

Answer – B

Q.154) How many persons are taller than L?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None

Answer – B

Q.155) What is the average height of N, P, and Q?

A. 163cm
B. 151cm
C. 163.33cm
D. 161.22cm
E. None of the above

Answer – C

Q.156) In which of the following expressions does the expression ‘I > D’ and ‘A ≤
G’definitely hold true?
A. A ≥ 1≥ G = K>S> D
B. A<D ≥ M= F≤G<I
C. I≥ C> Q≥A = G≥D
D. G ≥ D = A <B≤S≤I
E. D ≥ E = G ≥ W = A < I

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.157) which of the following expressions will definitely be true if the expressions‘L. > R’
and ‘M ≤ N’ are true?
A. K> M < S≤N< R≥ D≤L
B. K= M >S ≥N= R≤D < L
C. K> M ≥S = N≤ R≤D sL
D. K≥M≥S≥N< R< D ≤ L
E. None of these

Answer – E

Q.158) Which of the following expressions does the expression ‘B ≤ H’ and ‘A > G’
definitely hold true?
A. A = B < F ≥ H = K> G> D
B. D > A = G ≥ B = F≤G< H
C. A < 0>G< H = H≥S≥ B
D. G = Us B = E sH = 0 < A
E. None of the these

Answer – D

Directions (159-163): Study the following information carefully and answer thebelow
questions.
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting at the circular table facing the centre but
not necessarily in the same order. They all have different ages and the age of all the persons
is less than 50. G sits third to the right of the one who sits immediate left of the one whose
age is 36. Two persons are sitting between G and F. D sits adjacent to the one who sits
second to the right of A. A sits immediate left of F. The one whose age is 20 sits opposite to
the one who sits second to the left of E. Neither F nor G is 20 years old. H sits third to the
left of the one whose age is 15 years. Neither E nor A is 15 years old. B sits second to the left
of C. The age of D is twice the age of the one who sits immediate right of G. The age
difference between E and D is the same as between D and A. The age of G is five years more
than the one who sits immediate left of G. The age of F is one year less than the one who
sits immediate right of H. One of the persons sitting at the table is 22 years old.

Q.159) Which of the following combination is true?

A. F-36
B. E-15
C. D-30
D. C-20
E. B-22

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.160) How many persons are sitting between D and E?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Either b or d

Answer – E

Q.161) Who among the following person sits opposite to the one whose age is 29?
A. A
B. С
C. The one who sits second to the left of D
D. The one whose age is 35
E. The one whose age is 15

Answer – E

Q.162) If G is related to 30 and A is related to 22 in a certain way. Then who amongthe

following is related to 15?
A. C
B. The one who sits opposite to F
C. E
D. The one who sits third to the left of D
E. None of the above

Answer – C

Q.163) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way thus forms a group. Findthe one
which does not belong to the group?
A. A
B. The one who sits second to the right of C
C. The one who sits immediate right of H
D. The one who sits immediate left of D
E. E

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (164-166): Each of the following questions consists of a statementfollowed by

two arguments I and II.

Q.164) Statement: Should system of offering jobs only to the wards of government
employeesbe introduced in all government offices in India?
Arguments: I. No. It denies opportunity to many deserving individuals and
governmentmay stand to lose in the long run.
II. No. It is against the principle of equality. Does not government owe its responsibilityto
all its citizens?
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument Il is strong
C. if both I and Il are strong
D. if either I or Il is strong
E. if neither I nor Il is strong.

Answer –C

Q.165) Statement: Does India need so many plans for development?

Arguments: I. Yes. Nothing can be achieved without proper planning.
II. No. Too much time, money and energy are wasted on planning.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument Il is strong
C. if either I or Il is strong
D. if neither I nor Il is strong
E. if both I and Il are strong.

Answer – A

Q.166) Statement: Should those who receive dowry, despite the law prohibiting it,
bepunished?
Arguments: I. Yes. Those who violate the law, must be punished.
II. No. Dowry system is firmly rooted in the society since time immemorial.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if either I or Il is strong
C. if only argument Il is strong
D. if neither I nor Il is strong
E. if both I and Il are strong.

Answer – C

Directions (167-168): In each question below is given a statement followed by twocourses

of action numbered I and Il. You have to assume everything in thestatement to be true
and on the basis of the information given in the statement,decide which of the suggested
courses of action logically follows) for pursuing.
Given answer-
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.167) Statement: The Committee has criticized the Institute for its failure to implementa
dozen of regular programs despite an increase in the staff strength and not drawing upa
firm action plan for studies and research.
Courses of action
I. The board objectives of the Institute should be redefined to implement a practicalaction
plan.
Il. The Institute should give a report on reasons for not having implemented the
plannedprogrammers.
A. If only I follow
B. If both I and Il follow.
C. If only ll follows,
D. If either I or Il follows;
E. If neither I nor Il follows

Answer – B

Q.168) Statement: Majority of the students in many schools do not pass in the
finalexamination.
Courses of action
I. These schools should be closed down as these have become unproductive.
Il. The teachers of these schools should immediately be retrenched.
A. If only I follow;
B. If only Il follows,
C. If either I or Il follows;
D. If neither I nor Il follows
E. If both I and II follow.

Answer - D

Directions (169-172): In each question below is given a statement followed by

twoassumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken
forgranted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions anddecide
which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Q.169) Statement: In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbsto
reach their places of work on time.
Assumptions:
I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption Il is implicit
C. If either I or Il is implicit
D. If neither I nor Il is implicit
E. If both I and Il are implicit

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.170) Statements: It is not always true that only a Brilliant person can qualify thewritten
examination for Probationary Officers (Po's).
Assumptions
I. A Brilliant person can qualify the written examination for PO's.
II. A person who is not brilliant can also qualify the written examination for Po's.
A. If both I and Il are implicit
B. If only assumption I is implicit
C. If only assumption IT is implicit
D. If either I or Il is implicit
E. If neither I nor Il is implicit

Answer – A

Q.171) Statement: "If it does not rain throughout this month, most farmers would be in
trouble this year."
Assumptions:
I. Timely rain is essential for farming.
Il. Most farmers are generally dependent on rains.
A. If only assumption I is implicit.
B. If only assumption Il is implicit.
C. If either I or II is implicit
D. If neither I nor Il is implicit.
E. If both I and Il are implicit.

Answer – E

Q.172) Statement: If the city bus which runs between Ram Nagar and Sant Colony is
extended to Vasant Vihar, it will 'be convenient. - Appeal of residents of Ram Nagar to the
city bus company.
Assumptions:
I. The convenience of the city bus company is much more important than the needs of the
consumers.
II. The city bus company is indifferent to the aspirations of the residents of Sant Colony.
A. If only assumption I is implicit.
B. If only assumption Il is implicit.
C. If either 1 or Il is implicit.
D. If neither I nor Il is implicit.
E. If both I and Il are implicit.

Answer – D

Directions (173-175): In each question below is given a statement followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true, even if they are at variance with the commonly known facts. Then consider the two
conclusions together ignoring the commonly known facts and decide which of them
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement
give answer.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.173) Statement: India is seeking partnership with Germany in aeronautical engineering

and space exploration. Earlier, India entered into partnership with some other countries in
aeronautical engineering.
Conclusion:
I. It is high time for joint venture between the Germany and India, because Germany
isdeveloping State of-the-art technologies in aeronautical engineering.
II. Both India and Germany, have core competence in the give area.
A. If only conclusion I follows.
B. If only conclusion Il follows.
C. If either I or Il follows.
D. If neither I nor ll follows.
E. If both I and Il follows.

Answer – E

Q.174) Statement: Now days a number of telecommunication companies are providing

better services in the market to compete with foreign companies.
Conclusion:
I. They want to India become number one in the field of telecommunication. At the same
time, they want to fetch more and more money from the other countries.
II. Company want increase customers and become no. I position.
A. If only conclusion I follows.
B. If only conclusion II follows.
C. If either I or ll follows.
D. If neither I nor Il follows.
E. If both I and II follows.

Answer – E

Q.175) Statement: Unity is hindered by gaps among the people on the basis of
economy,culture religion and language.
Conclusion:
I. Unity is a must for the Country.
II. Any country where there are such gaps will find it difficult to stay united
A. If only conclusion I follows.
B. If only conclusion II follows.
C. If either I or Il follows.
D. If neither I nor Il follows.
E. If both I and Il follows.

Answer – D

Direction (176-180): Answer the questions based on the information given below. Six
persons joined the ABC organization in 2017. All are joined on different dates of either the
same or different month. Each of them already has some working experience. One of them
joins on 18th July. Less than two persons joined before E who has an experience in even
number. The number of persons joined before E is same as after the one whose experience
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

is 13 years. B who does not have experience in prime number, joined before the one whose
experience is 16 years but after the one whose experience is 5 and 9 years. The one whose
experience is 5 years joins before the one whose experience is 9 years who joins on 24th
May. D has an experience twice that of E's Experience. The number of persons joins
between the one whose experience is 5 years and B is the same as between the one whose
experience is 9 years and D who joins in the organization on 27th September. A join after C
but before F. The one who joins on 26th July joined before D but after B. The one whose
experience is 10 years joined after the one who joined the organization on 12th January
which is not the joining date of E. B does not joinon 15th January. Based on their working
experience a foreign company XYZ gives theproject with certain
conditions:
1. The project is given to those people having experience minimum of 3 years afterjoining
the ABC Organization (Calculate their experience on the following date 31 staugust 2020).
2. The project is given to the persons who joins the organization at first accordingto the
month.
3. If two persons join in the same month then give priority to the one who joins
theorganization first according to date.

Q.176) Which among the following is the order of the people who get the project?
A. CEABF
B. BFACE
C. FCEBA
D. FECBA
E. None of these

Answer – A

Q.177) If the project is given according to the only date of joining of the people thenhow
many persons remain unchanged in their positions?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
E. None

Answer – A

Q.178) Who among the following has maximum working experience as before thejoining
of this organization?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. None

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.179) How many persons joined after F?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Answer – A

Q.180) If the company appointed a CEO who has an experience minimum of 10 years, then
who will be the CEO?
A. D
B. B
A. E
C. Either A or B
D. Either B or C

Answer – C

Direction (181 - 185): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Eight people M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight line facing north direction. They
all havedifferent ages, viz. 8, 12, 14, 21, 28, 36, 44 and 56 but not necessarily in the same
order. Two peopleare sitting between O and the one whose age is 56 years. The one whose
age is 14 years is sittingsecond to the left of O. N is sitting to the immediate left of the one
whose age is 56 years. One person
is sitting between T and the one whose age is 56 years. Either T or the one whose age is 56
years issitting at the extreme end. The one who is 56 years old is not sitting to the left of T.
There is a differenceof 7 years between the ages of R and S and two people are sitting
between them. The one whose ageis 12 years is sitting second to the left of P. P is not sitting
at the extreme end. There is one peoplesitting between R and the one whose age is 44
years. M is an immediate neighbourof the one whose
age is 44 years. Q and the one whose age is 21 years are immediate neighbours. T is older
than M andN is younger than Q
Q181. How many people sit(s) between R and the one who is 21 years old?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. More than three
E. Less than three

Answer – B

Q182. What is the age difference between M and S?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 13
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. 12
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q183. What is the age of P?

A. 21 years
B. 44 years
C. 12 years
D. 56 years
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q184. What is the sum of the ages of the people who sit the extreme ends?
A. 30 years
B. 48 years
C. 84 years
D. 58 years
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q185. What is the name of the person who is 28 years old?

A. O
B. M
C. P
D. R
E. None of these

Answer – E

Direction (186 - 189): Study the following information to answer the given questions: In a
certain code,
'make security in theme lists' is written as jo ti tis sunic,
'India make old regime' is written as 'die min tip ti',
'old lists with correction' is written as 'za tis die kee' and
'theme curbs regime' is written as 'tip banic'.

Q186. What is the code for 'security'?

A. jo
B. ti
C. su
D. tis
E. Can't be determined

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q187. What does 'za' stand for?

A. Old
B. Lists
C. Correction
D. With
E. Either with or correction

Answer – E

Q188. 'tis da tip' could be a code for which of the following?

A. Old Regime Lists
B. Correction Theme Case
C. India With Regime
D. Regime Lists Arise
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q189. Which of the following may represent 'transparency in old security'?

A. su die mac ti
B. die mac jo tip
C. jo die su mac
D. die jo nicsu
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q190. If it is possible to make one meaningful word with the 1st, 5th, 6th and 9th letters
of the wordOVERWHELM, which of the following will be the second letter from the right
end of that word?Ifno such word can be made, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one
such words can be made,give 'V' as the answer.
A. M
B. O
C. H
D. X
E. V

Answer – B

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numberedI and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance withcommonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q191. Statements:
Only a few Men are Boys.
All Boys are Kids.
No Kids are Children.
Conclusions:
I. Some Men are not Children.
Il. Some Men are not Boys.
A. If only conclusion Il follows
B. If both conclusions I and Il follow
C. If either conclusion I or conclusion Il follows
D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion Il follows
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numberedI and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance withcommonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.

Q192. Statements:
Some Fruits are Mangos.
Only Mangos are Tasty.
Only a few Mangos are Guavas.
Conclusions:
I. All Guavas are Mangos.
II. No Tasty being Fruit is a possibility.

A. If only conclusion I follows

B. If either conclusion I or conclusion Il follows
C. If only conclusion Il follows
D. If both conclusions I and Il follow
E. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion Il follows

Answer – C

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numberedI and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance withcommonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q193. Statements:
Only a few Dairy Milk is Milky Bar.
Some Milky Bar is Munch.
Only Munch is Perk.
Conclusions:
1. All Dairy Milk can be Milky Bar
II. Some Munch is Milky Bar.
A. If only conclusion I follows
B. If either conclusion I or conclusion Il follows
C. If only conclusion Il follows
D. If both conclusions I and II follow
E. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion Il follows

Answer – C

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numberedI and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance withcommonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Q194. Statements:
All Trees are Plants.
Some Plants are Bushes.
Only a few Bushes are Grass.

Conclusions:
I. No Plant is Grass.
II. All Bushes can be Grass.
A. If only conclusion I follows
B. If only conclusion Il follows
C. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion Il follows
D. If either conclusion I or conclusion Il follows
E. If both conclusions I and II follow

Answer – C

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numberedI and Il. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance withcommonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q195. Statements:
Only a few Dinners are Cake.
No Dinner is Apple.
Only a few Apples are figures.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are not figures.
II. No Apple is Cake.
A. If only conclusion I follows
B. If only conclusion Il follows
C. If either conclusion I or conclusion Il follows
D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion Il follows
E. If both conclusions I and Il follow

Answer – A

Direction (196 - 200): Study the following information carefully to answer the given
questions below.
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are going to market on seven different days starting
from Mondayto Sunday and buy any one item among Chair, Table, Lamp. Not more than
three people buy the sameitem. E buys table before Wednesday. Three people go to the
market between E and B. The one whogoes to the market on Thursday buys Chair. A goes
to the market immediately before G. Two peoplego to the market between G and F. Only
A and the one who goes to the market on Saturday buy Lamp.F neither goes to the
marketon Thursday nor buy lamp. Only one people goes to the market betweenD who
buys Table and the one who buys Chair. C does not buy table. C go to the market
neitherimmediately after nor immediately before B.

Q196. Who among the following goes to the market immediately before F?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. E
E. F

Answer – B

Q197. Who among the following goes to the market on Monday?

A. D
B. G
C. C
D. E
E. F

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q198. D buys which of the following item?

A. Lamp
B. Table
C. Chair
D. Either Lamp or Table
E. Either Chair or Lamp

Answer – B

Q19. How many people go the market between C and B?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. More than four

Answer – D

200. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, find the one which doesn't
belong to thatgroup.
A. EF
B. AD
C. СА
D. GB
E. EG

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (201 - 204): Study the following information carefully and answer the question
based on it.
Raga started walking in East direction from point R. After walking 15 m she reached point
S, from thereshe takes a left turn and walks 10 m to reach point T. From T, she turns left
and walk 7 m and reachespoint U. Then, she turns left and walks 34 m to reach point V.
From point V she turns right and walks28 m. Now she reached point W and from there she
turns right and walks 40 m to reach point X. Frompoint X she turns right and walks 32 m to
reach point Y.

Q201. What is the direction of X with respect to R?

A. North
B. East
C. South - West
D. West
E. North – West

Answer –C

Q202. If point A is the point of intersection of line segment RS and UV then which of the
following is/are true about A?
A. Point Y is North of A
B. A is to the North of U
C. AV + AU = XW - 6
D. All are true
E. None is true.

Answer – C

Q203. What is total distance travelled by Raga in west direction?

A. 65 m
B. 35 m
C. 45 m
D. 25 m
E. 55 m

Answer –B

Q204. What is the direction of point T with respect to Y?

A. South
B. North – West
C. South - West
D. South - East
E. North – East

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (205 - 207): In these questions, statements are given followed by two sets of
conclusionsnumbered I and II. These statements show relationship between different
elements. You have toassume the statement to be true and then decide which of the
given two conclusions logicallyfollows from the given information given in the statement.

Q205. Statements: SST< P=D; P≤M; R≥M

Conclusions:
I. MS S
II. D > S
A. Neither conclusion I nor Il is true.
B. Either conclusion I or ll is true.
C. Both conclusions I and Il and true.
D. Only conclusion Il is true.
E. Only conclusion I is true.

Answer –D

Q206. Statements: S≤T < P = D; P≤ M; R≥ M

Conclusions:
I. 1.D < R
II. R=D
A. Neither conclusion I nor Il is true.
B. Only conclusion Il is true.
C. Either conclusion I or Il is true.
D. Both conclusions I and Il and true.
E. Only conclusion I is true.

Answer – C

Q207. Statements: L≥J≥U ≤P; D≤ P; U > T

Conclusions:
I. L> T
II. D SJ
A. Only conclusion I is true
B. Neither conclusion I nor Il is true.
C. Either conclusion I or Il is true.
D. Only conclusion Il is true.
E. Both conclusions I and Il and true.

Answer – A

Direction (208 - 214): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way
that there isan equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C, D, E and F are
seated and all of themare facing south. In row-2 P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of
them are facing north. Therefore, inthe given seating arrangement each member seated in
a row faces another member of the other row.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

V sits third to the right of S. S faces F and F does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the
line. D sitsthird to the right of C. R faces C. The one who is facing E sits third to the right of
P. B and P do not sitat the extreme ends of the line. T is not an immediate neighbour of V
and A is not an immediateneighbour of C. R does not sit at the extreme end.

Q208. Who amongst the following faces D?

A. P
B. T
C. R
D. Q
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q209. Who amongst the following represent the people sitting at the extreme ends of the
rows?
A. R, F
B. D, R
C. T, A
D. C, Q
E. S, A

Answer –C

Q210. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is
the onethat does not belong to that group?
A. D-R
B. B-T
C. A-Q
D. C-S
E. F-P

Answer - A

Q211. How many persons are seated between R and T?

A. ONE
B. TWO
C. THREE
D. FOUR
E. None of these

Answer –B

Q212. Who amongst the following faces Q?

A. A
B. B
C. E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. D
E. None of these

Answer –E

Q213. Which of the following is true regarding B?

A. B sits to the immediate left of C
B. B faces Q
C. D and F are immediate neighbours of B
D. B sits fourth from the extreme left end of the line
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q214. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'Rockabilly' each of which has
as manyletters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (Both forward and
backward)?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Nil
E. None of these

Answer –B

Direction (215 - 219): When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input
line ofand numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration cand its rearrangement (All the numbers are two-digit numbers).
Input: not 10 bold 21 curse hockey 31 28 49 44
Step I: 10 21 not bold curse hockey 31 28 49 44
Step Il: not bold 10 21 curse hockey 31 28 49 44
Step III: 28 31 not bold 10 21 curse hockey 49 44
Step IV: curse hockey 28 31 not bold 10 21 49 44
Step V: 44 49 curse hockey 28 31 not bold 10 21
And Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtainedthe rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given
input.
Input: judge 20 12 gone ear 17 11 sitting 34 dinner arranges 29
Q215. How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
E. None of these

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q216. Which word/Number would be at the fifth place from the right in Step IV?
A. 11
B. 12
C. Ear
D. Gone
E. None Of These

Answer – B

Q217. How many elements are there between 'judge' and '34' in step II?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None of these

Answer –C

Q218. Which of the following represents the position of 'sitting' in step V?

A. 1st from right
B. 2nd from right
C. 5th from left
D. 6th from left
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q219. Which of the following elements is third to the left of 6th element from the right
end in the last step?
A. 34
B. Judge
C. Arranges
D. Ear
E. None Of These

Answer –A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q220. Each of the consonants in the word ORGANISATION is replaced by number 3 and
each vowelis replaced by its numeric place value in the English alphabet series i.e. A is by
1, E is by 5 and so on.What is the total sum of all the numbers once the replacement is
completed?
A. 48
B. 58
C. 78
D. 68
E. None of these

Answer – D

Direction (221 - 225): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions
accordingly.
W, X, Y, T, U, V and Z are seven colleagues, who live in a seven-storey building. The ground
floor isnumbered 1; the floor above it is numbered 2; and so on, until the topmost floor is
numbered 7. Eachof them works in different companies i.e., IOC, RIL, BPCL, SBI, Tata
Motors, ONGC and HPCL but notnecessarily in the same order. Z and X don't work in SBI.
The one, who works in Tata motors, lives justabove X. The one, who works in HPCL, lives
above T. Z lives on the fifth floor. Neither X nor Z works inRIL. There are two floors
between the floors on which X and V lives. The one, who works in ONGC,lives on the
topmost floor. V lives on an even numbered floor. Y works in BPCL. There is only one
floorbetween U and the one, who works in RIL. There are three floors between T and the
one, who worksin IOC.

Q221. Who among the following works in IOC?

A. The one, who lives just below W
B. The one, who lives on sixth floor
C. The one, who lives two floors above X
D. The one, who lives between V and X
E. None of these

Answer –C

Q222. If V is related to Tata motors and T is related to HPCL then in the same way, Z is
related to _
A. ONGC
B. RIL
C. SBI
D. BPCL
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q223. How many persons are living above the one, who works in BPCL?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
E. None of these

Answer –D

Q224. Find the odd one.

A. W, RIL
B. T, BPCL
C. Z, Tata motors
D. Y, HPCL
E. V, SBI

Answer – E

Q225. Find the correct statement.

A. Y works in BPCL and lives just above X
B. Four persons are living between W and the one, who works in SBI
C. V lives three floors away from the one, who works in HPCL
D. U works in Tata motors and lives two floors away from T
E. None is correct

Answer – C

Direction: In the following question is given a statement followed by two assumptions

numbered Iand II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of theassumptions is implicit in the statement.

Q226. Statement: "You are here by appointed as a curriculum developer with a period of
probationthat shall last for 6 months; at the end of which you will be confirmed or let go
as per yourperformance evaluation" A line in an offer letter.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of any professional can usually not be measured at the time of offering
the job.
Il. The probation period is for the professional to prove his capabilities.
A. If both l and Il are implicit
B. If only assumption I is implicit
C. If only assumption Il is implicit
D. If either I or Il is implicit
E. If neither I nor Il is implicit

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction: In the question given below, one statement is followed by three assumptions
numbered 1, 1I, and III. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the given
assumptions are implicit in the Statement.

Q227. Statement: Overwhelmed with grief and anger, families have been returning to
what is left oftheir homes in the Old City of Mosul, following its liberation from Isis, the
terrorist organization.
Assumptions:
I. The terrorist organization, Isis, destroyed the Old City of Mosul before they left.
Il. Most of the residents of Mosul had left/ been driven away when Isis took over their
city.
Ill. None of the residents of Mosul supported Isis, which is why they left the city.
A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption Il is implicit
C. If only assumption Ill is implicit
D. If none of the assumptions are implicit
E. If both assumptions I and Il are implicit

Answer – E

Direction: In the questions given below, a statement is given followed by three courses of
action. Acourse of action is taken for improvement, follow up, etc.
Read the statement carefully and give your answer as:

Q228. Statement: The Indian High Commission in Antigua and Barbuda had asked the
authoritiesthere to stop billionaire diamond trader Mehul Choksi from travelling around
the world, sourcessaid on Monday.
Courses of Action:
I. All billionaire diamond traders should immediately stop travelling to Antigua and
Barbuda for thetime being.
Il. Mehul Choksi should seek asylum in some other country to avoid being caught.
IlI. The Indian High Commissioner should himself go and arrest Mehul Choksi.
A. If only course of action I follows
B. If only course of action Il follows
C. If both I and Il follow
D. If both Il and Ill follow
E. If none of them follow

Answer –E

Q229. Statement: Disposal of nonbiodegradable electronic waste is another problem that

the government, which is unable to reduce the use of plastic, has to handle in the near
future.
Courses of Actions:
I. The government should not worry about electronic waste now.
Il. The government should learn from its failure to reduce the use of plastic and take early
steps for effective disposal of electronic waste.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

A. Only course of action I follows

B. Either I or Il follows
C. Only course of action Il follows
D. Neither | nor Il follows
E. Both I and Il follow
Answer –C
Direction: In each of the following question, two statements are given. They may either be
independent causes, independent effects or bear a cause-and-effect relationship that is
unique to each other. Read both the statements carefully and mark:
Q230. Statements:
I. Kochi got its new traffic light system that was specially designed to cope with the
increasing trafficproblems and roadblocks.
Il. The number of road accidents in Kochi has come down in the past 2 months.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement Il is its effect.
B. Statement Il is the cause and statement I is its effect.
C. Both the statements I and Il are independent causes.
D. Both the statements I and Il are effects of some common cause.
E. Both the statements I and Il are effects of independent causes.

Answer –E
Direction (231 - 235): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven different boxes of different colours i.e., black, silver, red,
pink, yellow,white and green but not necessarily in the same order. Box S is kept
immediately above the yellowcolour box. More than three boxes are there between pink
and silver colour box. There are two boxesbetween box Q and box T. There is only one box
between box T and box W. There are three boxesbetween box W and box P, which is of
black colour. There are only two boxes between box P and boxR, which is of white colour.
The silver colour box is kept immediately above the box W. More thanthree boxes are
there between yellow and pink colour box. The colour of box T is red.
Q231. Which box is of yellow colour?
A. Q
B. S
C. W
D. V
E. P

Answer –C
Q232. How many boxes are there between the green coloured box and silver coloured
box?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q233. Box Q is of which colour?

A. Pink
B. Silver
C. Green
D. Yellow
E. Black

Answer - A
Q234. Which box is placed immediately above red colour box?
A. P
B. R
C. S
D. T
E. W

Answer - B
Q235. How many boxes are there between box W and box Q?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None

Answer –D

Direction: In each question below, a statement is given followed by three conclusions

numbered I,Il, and Ill. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
consider the twoconclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt fromthe information given in the statement.
Q236. Statement: Mexico's ruling Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI), which has
dominated itspolitics for the better part of a century, seems at risk of a defeat in the July 1
election.
Conclusions: I. The PRI has won most of the elections held in Mexico in the last 100 years.
II. The PRI will no longer remain the reigning party in Mexico post July.
III. The leaders of PRI seemed to have irked the sentiments of the common people in
Mexico.
A. Both I and Il follow
B. Only I follows
C. Only Il follows
D. Both II and Ill follows
E. Both I and Ill follow

Answer –B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction: In the questions below, a statement is given followed by two arguments.

Choose the mostappropriate option.

Q237. Statement: In 2016, the Government of India put a ban on all Rs 500 and 1000 notes
in an effortto curtail the shadow economy and impede the use of illegal and fake currency
that funds illegalactivities and terrorism.
Arguments:
I. This was the best way to tackle corruption and to stop the use of counterfeit cash.
II. Demonetisation looks like a bad idea, badly executed on the basis of some half-baked
notions.
A. Only 1 is strong
B. Only 2 is strong
C. Both are equally valid
D. Together, they can be used to make a strong argument
E. None are valid

Answer –E

Direction: A statement is given followed by two inferences numbered I and Il. Consider
thestatement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to
decide whichof the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Q238. Statement: Sea level rise driven by climate change is set to pose an existential crisis
to manyUS coastal communities, with new research finding that as many as 311,000
homes face beingflooded every two weeks within the next 30 years.
Inferences:
I. This research report will potentially inflict a huge financial and emotional toll on all
thoseAmericans who live in the properties at risk of having their basements, backyards,
garages or livingrooms inundated every other week.
Il. Greenhouse gas emissions, the main cause of rising sea levels, need to severely
curtailed withimmediate effect.
A. Both of them can be inferred
B. Only I can be inferred
C. Only Il can be inferred
D. None of them can be inferred
E. Either Only I or Il

Answer - B

Q239. The lifeline of Mumbai is its railway network, which is one of the most crowded
places in thecity. A Group of commuters of the Mumbai suburban railways called for a
strike in response to theincrease in the number of accidents in some routes in the past
year due to overcrowding. Thecommuters want to continue the strike unless the
authorities agree to increase the frequency of thetrains in that route. Which of the
following can be inferred from the forementioned statements?
A. Increase in the frequency of the trains would lead to decrease in the number of such
accidents
B. The trains in the Mumbai suburban run overcrowded
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. The railways did not increase the frequency of trains in proportion to the increase in
the number of commuters in the past year.
D. The railway authorities are indifferent to the safety of the commuters
E. None of these

Answer –C

Q240. Statement: Digital payment systems have ballooned in popularity in India since the
governmentscrapped large value banknotes in 2016.
Inferences:
I. People find it easier to pay via electronic methods rather than cash.
II. The common people have realised the convenience of digital payments, which is why it
has gainedpopularity.
III. Digital payments methods have become popular in india because of good advertising.
A. Both I and Il follow
B. Only I follow
C. Only Il follows
D. Both Il and Ill follows
E. Both I and Ill follow

Answer – A

Direction (241-245): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
Eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are kept one above another. These boxes are of different
coloursnamely, Orange, White, Violet, Green, Black, Grey, Red and Yellow but not
respectively in the sameorder. Three boxes are kept between the one whose colour is
Yellow and the one whose colour isGreen, one of them is at the bottommost position. Box E
is orange and kept immediately below Box B. Two boxes are kept between D and B. Box D is
kept at the topmost position. Box G is placed in themiddle of Box B and Box C and is of Black
colour. Three boxes are placed between G and F. Box B isplaced above Box C. The Box which
is white in colour is placed immediately above Box H. Three boxesare placed between the
one which is grey in colour and the one which is red in colour. Grey colour box is above red
colour box. Box H is placed above Box A. Box C is of green colour.

Q241. Which box is kept at the fourth position from the top?
A. A
B. G
C. The box which is red in colour
D. The box which is yellow in colour
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q242 Which Box is White in colour?

A. E
B. D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. B
D. G
E. F

Answer – E

Q243. How many boxes are there between box H and A?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

Answer – C

Q244. Four of them are alike in a certain way, which one of the following does not belong
to the group?
A. D, F
B. B, E
C. G, A
D. H, C
E. F, H

Answer – D

Q245. Which one is true about box D?

A. Box D is kept at third position from top
B. Two boxes are there between box D and E
C. It is orange in colour
D. Violet in colour
E. None of these

Answer – D

Direction (246-250): Read the following information carefully to answer the given
questions.
Eight members Susheel, Geeta, Vinit, Chetan, Sonu, Pankaj, Aashi and Seema of a family
went to the park. There are two married couples and four generation. None of the fourth-
generation member is married. Chetan is the husband of Pankaj's Daughter in law. Neither
Seema nor Susheel is married to Chetan. Susheel's sister has one son. There are four males
and four females. Vinit is the grandfather of Aashi's father. Sonu is unmarried and is not the
son of Chetan or Seema. Susheel is not married to Pankaj, who is fatherin law of Sonu's
mother. Vinit does not have any son. Susheel's nephew has one son and one daughter.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q246. Who is not the female member of the given group?

A. Geeta
B. Susheel
C. Sonu
D. Aashi
E. All are females

Answer – D

Q247. Who is the nephew of Susheel?

A. Aashi
B. Sonu
C. Pankaj
D. Geeta
E. Chetan

Answer – E

Q248. Who are the married females in the family?

A. Susheel, Aashi
B. Susheel, Seema
C. Geeta, Pankaj
D. Geeta, Seema
E. Susheel, Geeta

Answer – D

Q249. To which generation Pankaj belongs?

A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 4th
D. 3rd
E. Can't be determined

Answer – B

Q250. Who is the son of Geeta?

A. Sonu
B. Aashi
C. Pankaj
D. Vinit
E. None of these Direction

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (251-255): In the following question, assuming the given statements to be true,
find whichof the conclusion among given conclusions is /are definitely true and then give
your answersaccordingly.

Q251. Statements:
A > B SC; B = D; ES F≤ D
Conclusions:
I. E = C II. C> E
III. A < D IV. F > B
A. None is true.
B. Only IV is true.
C. Either I or Il follows.
D. Both I and IV follow.
E. All are true.

Answer – C

Q252. Statements:
D > 0 ≤M = | < N; I > A ≥ T > E
Conclusions:
I. M > E 11.0 < T
III. N>A IV. D = E
A. None is true.
B. Only IV is true.
C. Only Il follows.
D. Both I and Ill follow.
E. All are true.

Answer - D

Q253. Statements:
P= Q≥R; Q≥S>T; U < R
Conclusions:
I. P2S II. Q > U
III. P= T IV. R > P
A. None is true.
B. Both l and Il are true.
C. Only Ill follows.
D. Both I and Ill follow.
E. All are true.

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q254. Statements:
12J = K< L; M≤J; N < K
Conclusions:
IMSI II. N< L
II. I > L IV. J= N
A. Both l and Il are true.
B. Only I follow.
C. Only Ill follows.
D. None is true.
E. All are true.

Answer – A

Q255. Statements:
1 ≥ J = K< L; L> M ≥ N; I < 0
Conclusions:
1. 0>L II. N> L
III. I > M IV.J<N
A. Both I and Ill are true
B. Only IV follows
C. Only I follow
D. None is true
E. All are true

Answer – D

Direction (256-258): Study the following alphanumeric sequence carefully and answer the
questionsgiven beside:
84 LAST 67 CRAB 78 NEWS 89 ROSE 76 UNDO

Q256. If the digits of the word that is starting with consonant and ending at a consonant
are to bemultiplied within the number while the digits of the rest words are to be added
within the numberthen the words are arranged according to ascending order of the
number from left to right end thenwhat would be the 11th letter from left end?
A. А
B. D
C. S
D. W
E. T

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q257. If all the letters which are attached to an odd number are reversed and all the
letters whichare attached to an even number are changed to their succeeding letter then
how many letters in thenew sequence will appear exactly twice?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
E. Seven

Answer – D

Q258. If a meaningful word is to be formed using the letters of words separately (using
each letteronly once), given that the second letter of newly formed word must be a vowel
then what would bethe total sum of the digits of the numbers attached to those words
which follow the condition given?
A. 24
B. 20
C. 29
D. 33
E. 38

Answer – C

Direction (259-263): Study the information given below and answer the questions based
on it.
Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a square table. They are sitting in
such a waythat four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sits in the middle
of each of the four sides.
The ones who sit at four corners face inside while those who sit in the middle of the sides
face outside.They were born in different months from January to August but in the same
year, not necessarily inthe same order. Q was born in a month which has 30 days and
facing the centre. The one who is 3rdto the right of Q is 2 months elder to Q. The number
of person elder to T is same as younger to P. Onlyone person is elder to N. The one who
was born in June is 2nd to the right of the one who was born inFebruary. S is 2nd to the
left of N. R is the youngest person and neighbour of T. P is one month elderto Q. O is 3rd
to the left of R. P is facing outside. The one who was born in January is 2nd to the left ofO.
S is elder to O.

Q259. Who among the following is the eldest person?

A. M
B. N
C. P
D. Q
E. T

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q260. Who among the following is 2nd to the left of R?

A. O
B. S
C. Q
D. P
E. T

Answer – C

Q261. Which of the following combination is correct?

A. P-March
B. T-May
C. O-July
D. M-February
E. S- July

Answer – C

Q263. Who among the following is not elder to P?

A. T
B. O
C. S
D. M
E. N

Answer – B

Direction (264-268): The question below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
thequestion. Read both the statements and give answer.
Q264. What is Q's position with respect to M when L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a
circlefacing the centre?
I. Lis second to the left of O who is sitting immediate left of P.
II. M and N are immediate neighbour of each other and M is sitting immediate left of L.
A. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data in statements I alone or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Data in both the Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the question
E. Data in both the Statements I and Il are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q265. On a T.V. channel, four movie A, B, C and D were screened, one on each day, on
fourconsecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day was the movie C
screened?
I. The first movie was screened on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by movie D
Il. Movie A was not screened on 25th and one movie was screened between serials A andB
A. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data in statements I alone or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Data in both the Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the question.
E. Data in both the Statements I and Il are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer – D

Q266. What is the meaning of the code 'pullu' in a code language?

I. In that code language 'rem tezkullupullutullu' means 'shersingh is my son' and
'gullusullurullupullu' means 'is he at home'.
Il. In that code language 'nelpullukullu dela' means 'my daughter is nirmala' and
'sethagamalala'means 'sit with me'.
A. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement Il alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data in statements I alone or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Data in both the Statements I and Il are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. Data in both the Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the
question.

Answer – A

Q267. How many persons standing between Rohit and Vijay in a straight line of 15 persons
(Note:all are standing in a straight line facing north).
I. Ajay stands eleventh from the right end of the line. Vijay stands exactly at the centre of
the line.There are as many persons to the right of Rohit as there are to the left of Ajay.
II. Rahul stands fourth from the left end of the line. Ajay is the immediate neighbor of
Rahul. Onlytwo person stand between Vijay and Ajay. Only two person Stand between
Rohit and Ajay.
A. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement lI alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statement I| alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data in statements I alone or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Data in both the Statements I and Il are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. Data in both the Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer – C

Q268. Among M, N, O, P, Q and R, each having a different height, who is the second
tallest?
I.M is taller than only O. N is taller than P shorter than R. Q is shorter than N.
II. Q is taller than only three persons. P is taller than M but shorter than R. N is shorter
than R taller than P.
A. Data in statement | alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement ! alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data in statements I alone or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Data in both the Statements I and Il are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. Data in both the Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer – A

Direction (269-271): Study the following information and answer the questions given
below:
Point A is 3m east of point B. Point D 4m north of point of C. Point K 7m west of point J.
Point D 4msouth of point of A. Point L 4m south of point G who 6m west of point F. Point
E 5m east of point C andpoint B 5m north of point F. Point M 5m south of point E who 4m
west of point N. Point K 3m north ofQ. Point I is 4m east of point A. Point J is in 6m north
of I.

Q269. What is shortest distance between point N and point K?

A. 340m
B. 75m
C. √340m
D. √341 m
E. Both b and c

Answer – C

Q,270. If Point W 3m east of point J and point V 4m north of point W. what is shortest
distancebetween point V and point L?
A. √ 145m
B. √ 581m
C. √ (617) m
D. 24 m
E. √381m

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q271. In which direction point M respect of point Q?

A. North
B. South
C. North east
D. south west
E. South east

Answer – E

Q272. Direction: In the question given below, one statement is followed by three
assumptionsnumbered I, Il, and III. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the
given assumptions areimplicit in the statement.
Statement: Overwhelmed with grief and anger, families have been returning to what is
left of theirhomes in the Old City of Mosul, following its liberation from Isis, the terrorist
organization.
Assumptions:
I. The terrorist organization, Isis, destroyed the Old City of Mosul before they left.
II. Most of the residents of Mosul had left/ been driven away when Isis took over their
city.
IlI. None of the residents of Mosul supported Isis, which is why they left the city.
A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption Il is implicit
C. If only assumption Ill is implicit
D. If none of the assumptions are implicit
E. If both assumptions I and Il are implicit

Answer – E

Q273. Direction: The question below, there is a statement followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true. Then
consider the 2 conclusionstogether and decide which of them follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information givenin the statement.
Statement: The Nobel Peace Prize conferred on the International Campaign to Abolish
NuclearWeapons (ICAN) is equally a recognition for the 122 countries that backed the
2017 UN treaty thissummer to ban the bomb.
Conclusions:
I. Nobel peace prize highlights the urgent need to outlaw nuclear weapons
Il. Countries do not give importance to Nobel prize
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion Il follows
C. Both conclusion I and Il follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor Il follows
E. Either conclusion I or Il follows

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q274. Direction: A statement is given followed by three inferences numbered I, Il, and III.
Considerthe statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You
have to decidewhich of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statement: 17 million children in the US have or have had a psychiatric disorder, but there
arecurrently less than 60,000 beds to accommodate them.
Inferences:
I. The US government does not give too much importance to the difficult issue of mental
health.
Il. Funding is limited for mental health issues and for medical aid in general in the United
States.
IlI. The US has the maximum number of children who suffer from psychiatric disorder s.
A. Only I follow
B. Only Il follows
C. Both I and Il follow
D. Only Ill follows
E. Both Il and Ill follows

Answer – A

Q275. Direction: A statement is given followed by three inferences numbered I, Il, and II.
Considerthe statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You
have to decidewhich of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statement: Recent radar scans of Tutankhamun's tomb conclusively prove that there are
noadditional chambers or passages behind the walls of the famed pharaoh's burial
chamber in theValley of the Kings, Egyptian officials announced today.
Inferences:
I. It was previously assumed that there were secrets chambers or other mysteries hidden
behindTutankhamun's burial chamber.
II. King Tutankhamun is one of the most well-known pharaohs in the world.
III. Radar scans penetrate wood, concrete, and other walls and help figure out what's
there on theother side.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Only Ill follows
D. All of them follow
E. None of them follows

Answer – D

Q276. Direction: In the question given below, a statement is given followed by three
courses of action.
A course of action is taken for improvement, follow up, etc. Read the statement carefully
and giveyour answer accordingly.
Statement: Children are more susceptible than adults to diseases caused by chemical
pesticideresidues in food, a recent research report by a food committee states.
Courses of Action:
I. Every family should have a kitchen garden where they can grow their own food.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Il. Parents should try and ensure that children eat more organic and locally grown food
that is freeof pesticides.
III. Parents and children should keep a tab on which fruits and vegetables have higher
levels ofpesticide residue and try and avoid them.
A. Only course of action I follows
B. Only course of action Il follows
C. Both Il and Ill follows
D. Both I and Il follow
E. None of them follow

Answer – C

Direction (277-281): Study the information given below and answer the questions based
on it.
Less than 10 persons are sitting in a straight line and facing north. The persons whom are
sitting at theboth ends like Fruits and the persons whom are sitting in the middle like
Colours. C likes Banana. Twopersons are sitting between C and E. Two persons are sitting
between G and B who likes Pink. A is 3rdto the left of F. F is neighbor of B. The one who
likes Apple sits 2nd to the right of B. B is neighbor of E.
The number of persons between the one who likes Pink and the one who likes Banana is
same as theone who likes Apple and the one who likes Blue. Two persons are sitting
between the one who likesBlue and the one who likes Brown. The one who likes Red sits
2nd to the left of the one who likesBlack.

Q277. If D likes Apple, then how many persons are between D and F?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None

Answer – E

Q278. Who among the following sits 2nd to the left of E?

A. B
B. A
C. G
D. C
E. F

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q279. A like which of the following?

A. Pink
B. Apple
C. Blue
D. Black
E. Brown

Answer – C

Q280. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. F is at one of the ends
B. E sits exactly in the middle
C. G likes Blue
D. F likes Apple
E. Two persons are sitting between A and B

Answer – B

Q281. How many persons are sitting between C and the one who likes brown?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 8
D. 9
E. 5

Answer – B

Directions (282-286): In each of the questions below, some statements are followed by
someconclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance withcommonly known facts. You have to decide which of the following
conclusions logically follows fromthe given statements. Give answer.

Q282. Statements:
Some jacket is shirt. Some shirts are trouser. No shoes are t-shirt. All trousers are shoes.
All pants are t-shirt.
Conclusions:
I. All shirts being t-shirt is a possibility.
II. Some shoes are trouser.
III. Some jackets are t-shirt.
IV. Some shirts being t-shirt is a possibility.
A. Only Il and Ill follows.
B. Only II and IV follows
C. Only I follow
D. All follow
E. None of these

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q283. Statement:
No colour is paper. Some paper is book. All books are eraser. All pens are colour.
Conclusions:
I. Some papers are eraser.
II. All pens being eraser is a possibility.
Ill. Some pens are eraser.
IV. Some pens are not eraser.
A. I and Il follow
B. I and IV follow
C. l and Il and either Ill or IV follows
D. All follow
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q284. Statement:
Some laptops are charger. Some chargers are mobile. No mobile is wire. Some wires are
cable.
Conclusion:
I. Some laptops are mobile.
Il. Some laptops can be mobile.
III. All charger being cable is a possibility.
A. I, II, Ill follow
B. I and Il follow
C. Il and Ill follow
D. None follow
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q285. Statement:
All schools are college. Some colleges are hostel. All hostels are building. No building is
land.
Conclusion:
I. Some land being hostel is a possibility.
Il. Some hostel is school.
Ill. Some buildings are college.
IV. All buildings are school.
A. Il and IV follow
B. I and Ill follow
C. Only Ill follows
D. Only IV follows
E. None of these

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q286. Statement:
All watch is time. All time are clock. Some watch is period. Some late is period.
Conclusion:
I. Some clocks are period.
Il. Some time is watch.
Ill. Some late are time.
IV. All watch are clock.
A. Il and Ill follow
B. Only I follow
C. I, Il and IV follows
D. All follow
E. None of these

Answer – C

Direction (287-290): Read the following information carefully to answer the given
questions.
In a family of 9 members- Jyotsna, Lavanya, Mahesh, Megha, Prem, Priya, Ram, Supriya,
and Vijay.There are 2 married couples in the family. Further following information is
known:
a) Prem is son of Mahesh.
b) Prem is married to Priya.
c) Jyotsna is sister of Priya.
d) Lavanya is daughter of Prem's father, Mahesh and she is married to Ram's son, Vijay.
e) Jyotsna is aunt of both Supriya and Megha.
f) Vijay has no child.

Q287. How is Ram related to Lavanya?

A. Mother-in-law
B. Father-in-law
C. Either a) or b)
D. Can't be determined
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q288. How many male members are there in the family?

A. Can't be determined
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
E. None of these

Answer - A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q289. Who is the paternal aunt of Megha?

A. Can't be determined
B. Priya
C. Jyotsna
D. Lavanya
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q290. If Mahesh is married to Sucheta, how is Sucheta related to Supriya?

A. Mother
B. Father
C. Grandmother
D. Grandfather
E. Can't be determined

Answer –C

Direction (291-295): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions:
6 persons P, Q, R, S, T and V travel to Delhi either on 2nd or 30th of 4 different months,
each havingexactly 30 days. Each of them drives a different car - Alto, Breeza, Creta,
Ferrari, Mercedes and Swiftbut not necessarily in the same order. There are 2 days on
which no person travels to Delhi. T travelsto Delhi on 30th of a month by Swift. Both P and
V travels in a same month. Only 3 persons travel oneach particular date (i.e., 3 persons
travel on 2nd and 3 persons travel on 30th). Only 4 persons cantravel between T and Q.
Person who drives Breeza travels on 30th. P travels to Delhi before T but afterQ. No one
travels between V and T. S drives Breeza but not in April. Number of persons
travellingbefore T are same as that of travelling after the one who is driving Alto. One who
drives Mercedestravels immediately after Creta.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q291. Who travels to Delhi on 2nd April?

A. Q
B. R
C. V
D. P
E. cannot be determined

Answer - B

Q292. Who travels immediately after one who drives Breeza?

A. Q
B. R
C. P
D. V
E. T

Answer – C

Q293. Which of the following statements) is true?

A. Only 1 person travels between S and Q.
B. T travels on 30th September.
C. V drives Creta
D. No one travels between S and P.
E. All the given statements are true

Answer – D

Q294. How many persons travel between S and P?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. More than 3
E. None

Answer – E

Q295. Who travels on 30th April?

A. S
B. V
C. T
D. R
E. None of these

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q296. It is believed that algae grow faster in slow-flowing water. On the other hand, it is
also arguedthat growth of algae causes hindrance to the flow of water. As more algae
grows the speed at whichwater flows decreases.
Which of the following, if true, would most appropriately weaken the argument that
growth of algaereduces speed of water?
A. Algae grows at the same rate in still water as the rate at which it grows in flowing
water.
B. Algae grows faster in shallow water than in deep water.
C. Propagation of algae takes place faster in flowing water than in still water.
D. The South African perennial rivers, which flow very fast throughout the year, are
home to a large variety of algae.
E. The rivers closer to the equator, which receive good amount of sunlight throughout
the year and have the thickest algae population, are the fastest-flowing rivers

Answer – E

Q297. Direction: In the following question is given a statement followed by two

assumptionsnumbered I and Il. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions and decidewhich of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: "You are hereby appointed as a curriculum developer with a period of
probation thatshall last for 6 months; at the end of which you will be confirmed or let go
as per your performanceevaluation" - A line in an offer letter.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of any professional can usually not be measured at the time of offering
the job.
Il. The probation period is for the professional to prove his capabilities.
A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption Il is implicit
C. If either I or Il is implicit
D. If both land Il are implicit
E. If neither I nor Il is implicit

Answer – D

Q298. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.
I. The destiny of Asia will be shaped by the triangular relationship between the Asian
nations, India,China and Japan.
II. India, China and Japan which have registered a phenomenal growth, over the last
decade inparticular, has acted as southern engines of growth for the whole world.
A. If statement I is the cause and statement Il is its effect;
B. If statement Il is the cause and statement, I is its effect;
C. If both the statements I and Il are independent causes;
D. If both the statements I and Il are effects of independent causes;
E. If both the statements I and Il are effects of some common cause.

Answer - B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (299-300): The question in the form of inference/conclusions are based on the
passagesgiven below. The passage is followed by five inferences. You are required to
examine eachinference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its
degree of truth or falsity.
Q,299. The number of freelancers and consultants are at a steep rise in India. The credit
for this goesto wider internet penetration. People prefer to work on their own terms and
conditions and stillmake more money than what they could make in a 9-5 job. But tax
filing is something which scaresthem a lot here. We are dealing with the tax implications
for freelancers, bloggers and consultantsin India. Mostly freelancers and consultants ask
the question whether they have to pay income taxon their income. The answer is yes and
in addition to income tax, they are also liable to pay servicetax if their gross income is
more than 10 lakhs from freelancing as per the rate prescribed by thegovernment.
Freelancer is a term which refers to the person who is self-employed not working
orcommitted to a particular employer or client for the long-term anywhere. Within Indian
law, if youare running your own business then you are termed as the sole proprietor and
the same thingapplied to the freelancers.
Inference: No one likes to work in 9-5 jobs.
A. Inference is definitely true
B. Data is inadequate
C. Inference is probably true
D. Inference is probably false
E. Inference is definitely false

Answer – C

Q300. The number of freelancers and consultants are at a steep rise in India. The credit for
this goesto wider internet penetration. People prefer to work on their own terms and
conditions and stillmake more money than what they could make in a 9-5 job. But tax
filing is something which scaresthem a lot here. We are dealing with the tax implications
for freelancers, bloggers and consultantsin India. Mostly freelancers and consultants ask
the question whether they have to pay income taxon their income. The answer is yes and
in addition to income tax, they are also liable to pay servicetax if their gross income is
more than 10 lakhs from freelancing as per the rate prescribed by thegovernment.
Freelancer is a term which refers to the person who is self-employed not working
orcommitted to a particular employer or client for the long-term anywhere. Within Indian
law, if youare running your own business then you are termed as the sole proprietor and
the same thingapplied to the freelancers.
Inference: If the income of freelancers is more than 10 lakhs then they are liable to pay
service tax.

A. Inference is definitely true

B. Inference is probably true
C. Data is inadequate
D. Inference is probably false
E. Inference is definitely false

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Quant:
Q.1) Given below are 3 equations I, II and III where 'a' and 'b' are the roots of equation I
where(a < b) and 'c' and’d’ are roots of equation II where (c < d). On this basis, solve for
equation III andfind the relationship between 'z' and 'k' given that k = 11
I. 3x(x - 12) + 72 = x²- 11x – 5
II. 5y(y - 3) - 64 = y(3y - 2) – 19
III. (z + 2a - d)² = 169
A. z > k
B. z < k
C. z = k or the relationship cannot be established
D. z ≥ k
E. z ≤ k

Answer – E

Q.2) Given below are three equations i.e. 'I', 'II' and 'III'. If roots of the equation 'I' are 'p'
and'q', respectively such that p > q while the roots of the equation 'II' are 'm' and 'n'
respectively suchthat m > n, then find the value of 'K'.
I. 2x²- 6(x + 4) = 3x + 11
II. 2y²- 12(y - 4) = 7y + 6
III. (15m/2) - 8q = 9p - 4n + K²
A. 11
B. 4
C. 7
D. 9
E. 14

Answer – B

Q.3) The series given below contains a missing number 'P'. Find the value of 'P' and
determinewhich among the given three statement(s) is/are true.
74, 290, 241, 753, 672, 'P', 1551
I: The nearest perfect square number to 'P' is 1600
II: 'P' is divisible by 11
III: (P + 28) is a multiple of 50.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only I and II
D. Only II and III
E. Only III

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.4) Given below are two number series I and II where the missing numbers in series I and
IIare 'P' and 'Q', respectively. Find the value of 'P' and 'Q' and find which among the given
optionsgives the correct value of (P - Q).
I: 5000, 4000, 3000, 2100, P, 819
II: 4, 6, 15, 56, Q, 1644
A. 1120
B. 1090
C. 980
D. 1240
E. 1050

Answer – B

Q.5) Given below are two number series I and II where the missing numbers in series 'I'
and 'II'are 'P' and 'Q', respectively. Find the value of 'P' and 'Q' and find which among the
given optionsgives the L.C.M of 'P' and 'Q'.
I: 77, 106, 48, P, 19, 164
II: 141, 98, Q, 63, 71, 96
A. 1080
B. 1200
C. 724
D. 960
E. 1440

Answer – A

Q(6-10) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A survey was conducted among certain number of players who played games in at-least
one ofthe levels i.e. National and International. Players who played only at national level
played in atleast one of the three trophies i.e. Ranji, Duleep and Irani while the players
who played only atInternational level played in at least one of the two leagues i.e. CPL
and BBL.
Out of total number of players, 10% had played at both levels and the number of players
whoplayed only at national level is 250 more than number of players who played only at
internationallevel. 24% of players who played only at national level had played only Ranji
which was 200 lessthan players who played only in CPL. Number of players who played in
all three trophies i.e. Ranji,Duleep and Irani is 144 and is 52% less than number of players
who played only Ranji. Ratio ofnumber of players who played only in BBL to number of
players who played in both Ranji andIrani but not in Duleep is 25:(p + 3). Number of
people who played only at national level but notplayed Irani trophy is 630. (2p - 0.8)% of
number of players who played only at national level hadplayed only in Irani trophy. The
number of players who played only at international level andplayed only in CPL was (p +
10) % of total number of players. (2p + 1.6)% of players who played atnational level had
played in both Ranji and Duleep trophy. Number of players who played bothRanji and
Duleep but not Irani trophy was 125% more than number of players who played bothIrani
and Duleep but not Ranji.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.6) Number of players who played exactly in one trophy is:

A. 650
B. 620
C. 690
D. 720
E. 740

Answer – C

Q.7) Number of players who played only in BBL is how much percent of total number of
playerswho played at the international level?
A. 40%
B. 30%
C. 24%
D. 50%
E. 45%

Answer – C

Q.8) Ratio of number of players who played in both Ranji and Irani trophy but not in
Duleeptrophy to number of players who played in both Irani and Duleep trophy but not in
Ranji trophyis:
A. 10: 9
B. 15: 14
C. 29: 20
D. 39: 20
E. None of these

Answer - D

Q.9) Total number of players who played in CPL is:

A. 300
B. 500
C. 700
D. 750
E. 450

Answer - C
Q.10) Difference between number of players who played in all three trophies and number
ofplayers who played in both leagues is:
A. 6p - 6
B. 5p - 6
C. 3p² - 25p + 6
D. 5p² - 45p + 12
E. None of these

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.11-15) Directions: Following is the data regarding the revenue and expenditure of 4
companies in 2018 and in 2017. All figures are in Rs crore.
• Profit = Revenue – Expenditure
• Percentage profit = (Profit/Expenditure)*100%

2017 2018

Revenue Expenditure Revenue Expenditure

Mckinsey 5800 5300 6000 5000

BCG 6000 5400 5600 4800

Bain 5000 4800 5400 4800

ATK 4800 4000 5000 4000

Q.11) Which company in which year has seen the maximum percentage profit?
A. ATK in 2017
B. BCG in 2017
C. Bain in 2018
D. ATK in 2018
E. Mckinsey in 2018

Answer – D

Q.12) Which company has seen the maximum percentage increase in profit from 2017 to
2018?
A. Mckinsey
B. BCG
C. Bain
D. ATK
E. 2 companies have the same percentage increase

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.13) What is the sum of the numerical values of the percentage profit of Mckinsey in
2018 andBain in 2018?
A. 27.5
B. 25
C. 32.5
D. 38
E. 45

Answer – C

Q.14) What is the ratio of the numerical values of the percentage profit of Mckinsey in
2017 toBCG in 2017?
A. 45: 53
B. 41: 51
C. 47: 61
D. 38: 65
E. 33: 61

Answer – A

Q.15) For all 4 companies combined, what is the percentage (approximately) increase in
the sumof their profits from 2017 to 2018?
A. 48%
B. 62%
C. 44%
D. 55%
E. 72%

Answer - B

Q.16-20) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Five different schools of a district participated in multiple tournaments during a year. Each
schoolwon some gold, silver and bronze medals. The pie chart given below shows the
percentagedistribution of number of gold medals won by each school out of total gold
medals won by allschools together.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

The table chart given below shows the difference between number of gold and number of
silvermedals, won by each school and percentage of number of bronze medals won by
each school aspercentage of number of silver medals won by that school.
School Difference between Percentage of number of
number of goldand number bronzemedals won by each
of silver medals won school aspercentage of
number of silvermedals
won
A 116 84%
B 186 78%
C 104 (3.5x+1)%
D 120 75%
E 144 4x%

Note: Total number of medals won by school 'E' were 86 more than that by school 'D'.
Q.16) Find the sum of number of bronze medals won by schools 'A' and 'C' together.
A. 816
B. 664
C. 704
D. 752
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q.17) Find the ratio between number of bronze medals won by school 'E' and sum of
number ofgold medals won by schools 'B' and 'C' together, respectively.
A. 3: 5
B. 4: 7
C. 2: 5
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. 5: 7
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q.18) Find the average number of medals won by schools 'C' and 'D' together.
A. 925
B. 890
C. 915
D. 935
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q.19) Find the difference between number of silver medals won by school 'A' and
school'D'.
A. 12x - 45
B. 8x + 45
C. 9x + 20
D. 12.5x - 15
E. 11x

Answer – E

Q.20) If number of silver medals won by school 'B' were 'm' and number of gold medals
won byschool 'D' were 'n', then find the value of 3(m - n).
A. 150
B. 250
C. 175
D. 225
E. 200

Answer –A

Q.21) The question consists of two statements numbered “I and II” given below it. You
have todecide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question.
A shopkeeper sold an article. Find the selling price of the article.
Statement-I: The selling price of article is 45% more than the cost price of article. Marked
price ofarticle is 10% more than the selling price, and the amount of discount offered is Rs.
870.
Statement-II: Profit made by the shopkeeper is 45%. Had the article was sold for Rs. 300
more,the shopkeeper would have earned 50% profit.
A. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statementI alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
D. The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer – C

Q.22) The question consists of four statements numbered "I, II, III and IV" given below it.
Youhave to decide whether the data provided in any of the statement(s) alone is/are
sufficient toanswer the question.
There are only three people in a family i.e. father, mother and a child. If present ages of
fatherand mother are in the ratio 10:9, respectively, then find the present age of the child.
Statement I: Ten years hence from now, the age of child will be 56% less than that of the
father.
Statement II: Present age of child is 70% less than that of the father and 24 years less than
that ofthe mother.
Statement III: Six years ago from now, the age of mother was 5 times the age of child. Six
yearshence from now, the age of father will be 28 years more than that of child.
Statement IV: Difference between present age of mother and father is 4 years and
differencebetween present age of child and mother is 24 years.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only I, II and III
D. Only II, III and IV
E. Only I and II

Answer - D

Q.23) Harry, Ron and Cedrick started a business with an investment in the ratio of 14: 15:
20.After 5 months, Harry invested an additional amount which was 2/5th of the initial
investment ofRon. 3 months after that, Ron increased his investment by an amount which
was 1/4th of Cedrick’sinitial investment and Cedrick increased his investment by an
amount which was 2/3rd of Ron’sinitial investment. After one year of business, the
difference between the profit share of Ron andHarry was what percent of that between
Ron and Cedrick?
A. 13.33%
B. 6.67%
C. 16.67%
D. 8.33%
E. 12.5%

Answer – E

Q.(24-26) Directions: In the question, two Quantities I and II are given. You have to solve
boththe Quantity to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and Quantity-II and
choose thecorrect option.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.24) The speed of boat 'B' in still water is 8 km/h more than that of boat 'A'. The ratio of
downstream speed of boat 'A' to upstream speed of boat 'B' is 9:8. The ratio of upstream
speedof boat 'A' to downstream speed of boat 'B' is 6:11. (Both the boats are travelling in
the samestream)
Quantity-I: Find the sum of distance travelled by boat 'A' in downstream in 125 minutes
anddistance travelled by boat 'B' in upstream in 75 minutes.
Quantity-II: Speed of Boat 'C' in still water is 50 km/h. Find the sum of distance travelled
by boats'A', 'B' and 'C' together while travelling in upstream for 1 hour. Boat 'C' is also
travelling in thesame stream.
A. Quantity-I > Quantity-II
B. Quantity-I < Quantity-II
C. Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
D. Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
E. Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II

Answer – A

Q.25) Quantity-I: The selling price of an article when it is marked 36% above its cost price
andsold after a discount of Rs. 140 is Rs. 'P' and the selling price of the same article when
it is marked28% above its cost price and sold after a discount of Rs. 120 is Rs. 'Q'. If P : Q =
19:18, then findthe cost price of the article.
Quantity-II: The compound interest received on investing Rs. 10,500 for 2 years at 'y%'
p.a.,compounded annually is Rs. 2,205. Find the compound interest received on investing
Rs. 4,800 ata rate of (y + 5) % p.a., compounded annually for 2 years.
A. Quantity-I > Quantity-II
B. Quantity-I < Quantity-II
C. Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
D. Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
E. Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II

Answer – B

Q.26) Which of the following pair of symbols will define the relation between Quantity I
andQuantity II and between Quantity II and Quantity III respectively?
A. =
B. >
C. <
D. ≥
E. ≤
F. # (relation cannot be established)
'p', 'q' and 'r' are three distinct positive roots of the given equation such that 'p' > 'q' > 'r'.
x³- 9x²+ 23x - 15 = 0
Quantity I: Find the value of '8p'.
Quantity II: Find the value of (q + 40).
Quantity III: Find the value of (r X 20).
A. C, B
B. B, C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. A, B
D. B, A
E. C, A

Answer – A

Q.27) Arjun and Rajiv deposited Rs. 8400 and Rs. in scheme A at 20% and at 10%
perannum compound interest compounded annually, respectively. Also, Arjun and Rajiv
depositedRs. and Rs. 3700 in scheme B at 15% and at 24% per annum simple interest,
respectively.
Sum of interest earned by both from both schemes together after 2 years is Rs. .The
values given in which of the following options will fill the blanks in the same order in
whichis it given to make the statement true:
I. 7200, 4120, 8220
II. 9600, 3640, 8540
III. 8000, 5400, 8772
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Only II and III
E. Only I and III

Answer – E

Q.28) A man fell down from his boat at point 'A' which was 64 km away in downstream
from arescue boat which started travelling immediately for his rescue. Till the time, the
rescue boatreached point 'A', the man travelled with help of stream only. As soon as the
boat reached thepoint 'A', the man started swimming towards the boat such that his
speed in still water is 5 km/hand the boat rescued him after 48 minutes after it reached
point 'A'. The speed of the stream is60% of that of the rescue boat in still water. Find the
total distance covered by the rescue boat inthe time it meets the man.
A. 88 km
B. 108 km
C. 96 km
D. 124 km
E. 120 km

Answer – C

Q.29) Paper A is in the form of a square of side 130mm. Four quadrants of diameter 14mm
is cutfrom the four corners of the square. Paper B is in the form of a rectangle whose one
side is 150mmand this side is 20% more than the shorter side. Two semicircles of diameter
equal to the smallerside of the rectangle is cut from both the edges of the rectangle. By
what percent is the remainingarea of paper B more or less than that of paper A?
A. 61.3% more
B. 52.3% more
C. 61.3% less
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. 52.3% less
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q.30) A natural number, N, is divisible by at most two distinct divisors of 12. What will the
HCFof all possible values of N be?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. 3
E. 4

Answer – B

Directions (31-33): In the following questions three equations are given in variables x.
Thirdequation is equal to the sum of the first two equations. You have to solve the
questions basedon given information.
Ax 2 + bx + 4 = 0
Ax 2 + 3x + c = 0
2x2 + 7x + √ (49-13) = 0
Note: Eq 3 = Eq 1 + Eq 2

Q31. What is the value of (b+c)?

A. 9
B. 7
C. 6
D. 15
E. 10

Answer -C

Q32. What is the product of the roots of equation III?

A. 16
B. 22
C. 14
D. 8
E. 3

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q33. What is the square of the larger root of equation II?

A. 25
B. 16
C. 9
D. 4
E. 1

Answer – E

Q34. Lateral surface area of a cube is 420 cm2 less than the lateral surface area of a
cylinder.Height of cylinder is 2R cm and radius is R cm. If the side of cube is equal to the
radius of cylinder,find the approximate area of a circle whose radius is (R+3) cm.
A. 628 cm2
B. 314 cm2
C. 289 cm2
D. 356 cm2
E. 414 cm2

Answer – B

Directions (35-36): Each question below contains a statement followed by Quantity I

andQuantity II. You have to study the information along with the question and compare
the valuederived from Quantity I and Quantity II, then answer:
Q35.
Quantity I: Value of ‘p’ such that (√ (ap))2 = a4/√ (a16)
Quantity II: 1
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Answer – B

Q36.Quantity I: (a3- b3)/(a-b) – 3ab

Quantity II: 1-𝟏/a- -𝟏/b
Note: a > 1 > b > 0
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (37): In the following question two equations are given in variables x and y. You
haveto solve these equations and determine the relation between x and y.
Q.37)
I. x2 + 7x + 12 = 0
II. y2 + 8y + 15 = 0
A. x > y
B. x < y
C. x ≥ y
D. x ≤ y
E. x = y or no relation between x and y

Answer – E

Directions (38-42): Information regarding five different shops A, B, C, D, and E is given

below.
Each shop sells blue and red pens. Some data is missing which you have to calculate
accordingto the question.

Selling Price of Blue pen = Rs. 20 and Red = Rs. 15 respectively.

Q38. Find the ratio of the number of blue pens to number of red pens sold by shop B.
A. 16:15
B. 11:15
C. 15:16
D. 12:13
E. 13:12

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q39. Ratio between number of blue pens sold by shop A and number of red pens sold by
shopA is 3:2. If total selling price obtained by shop C is Rs 50 less than that obtained by
shop A andnumber of blue pens sold by shop C is 5 more than red pens sold then, number
of red pens soldby shop C is?
A. 24
B. 28
C. 21
D. 31
E. 34

Answer – A

Q40. If the ratio of total selling price of shop B and shop D is in the ratio 108:89
respectively.Then find the difference between the number of blue and red pens sold by
shop D.
A. 1
B. 11
C. 9
D. 6
E. 15

Answer – A

Q41. If the sum of total selling priced of shop D and E is Rs. 2340 and the average of the
redpens sold by these two shops is 30. Then find the number of blue pens sold by shop E.
A. 61
B. 59
C. 41
D. 47
E. 57

Answer – D

Q42. Find the average number of red pens sold by shop D, B and shop E together if the
totalselling price of shop D is 81/3% less than that of shop B and the ratio between blue
pen sold byshop B and E is 30:47?
A. 24
B. 30
C. 27
D. 29
E. 22

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (43-45) A series is given below where the first term is marked as (a), the second
as(b), third as (c) and so on.
Series – 100, 95, 105, 88, 114, ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
Q43. What is the value of ‘(f)’?
A. 67
B. 77
C. 87
D. 74
E. 81

Answer –B

Q44. If a new series is made following the same pattern of the above series, where (a) is
thethird term, (b) is the fourth term, (c) is the fifth term and so on. Then find the second
term ofsuch a series.
A. 98
B. 99
C. 102
D. 111
E. None of the above

Answer –A

Q5. What minimum number should be added to the ‘f+20’ to get to the nearest perfect
square.
A. 4
B. 1
C. 7
D. 3
E. 6

Answer – D

Directions (46-50): the following information carefully and answer the questions based on
it.
In a locality there are four buildings namely A, B, C, and D. Each building has a certain
number offloors. Each floor has a certain number of flats and each flat has a certain number
of people livingin it. The information about each building is given below.Building A: The
number of floors in building A is same as number of floors in building C. Thenumber of flats
per floor in is equal to the product of the smallest and the second smallest primenumbers.
The total number of people living in building A is √1764.
Building B: The number of floors in building B is one less tha n the sum of flats per floor in
buildingA and C. The number of flats per floor in building B is the same as the number of
floors in buildingA. The total number of people in building B is 6 2/3 time the number of
people in building A.Building C: The number of floors in building is ∜2401. The number of
flats per floor in building Cis one less than the number of flats per floor in building A. The
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

number of people per flat inbuilding C is four times more than the number of people per flat
in building A. The total numberof people in the building is 175.
Building D: The number of floors in building D is 9. The number of people per flat in building
D is60% of the number of people per flat in building C. The total number of people in
building D is108.
Note - The total number of people living in a particular building = No. of floors in the
building xNo. of flats on each floor x No. of people per flat.
Q46. What is the ratio of sum of total number of people living in building A and C to the
sum ofthe people living in building B and D?
A. 217:398
B. 217:388
C. 219:388
D. 219:398
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Q47. The number of people living in building C is how much percentage less than the
numberof people living in building B?
A. 50%
B. 40%
C. 34%
D. 42.5%
E. 37.5%

Answer – E

Q48. Which among the four building has the highest number of flats and how many?
A. C, 35
B. A, 42
C. B, 70
D. C, 45
E. D, 36

Answer – C

Q49. If there is another build E where the number of floors is 70% of the number of floors
inbuilding B, the number of flats per floor is 1/3rd more than the number of flats per floor
inbuilding A and the total number of people in the building is 280. Then find the number
peopleper flat in building E.
A. 4
B. 2
C. 7
D. 3
E. 5

Answer - E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q50. In the given options below the building and the corresponding number of people per
flooris given. Find out which of the following option is right i.e. where the number of
people per flooris correctly matched with the building name.
I. A – 6, D – 12, B – 28
II. B – 38, D – 12,
III. C – 25, A – 6, D – 12
A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
E. Only I and II

Answer – C

Q51. Rs. 13000 was invested for 2 years in scheme A which offers compound interest, and
therate of interest % per annum. The amount received after 2 years from scheme A is
Rs. 15,730.What approximate amount is received on investing the amount obtained from
scheme A againin a different scheme B for 2 years where the interest rate of scheme B is
twice the rate ofinterest of scheme A?
I. 10%, Rs 22,651
II. 12%, Rs 23,784
III. 15%, Rs 26,584
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only I and II
D. Only I and III
E. All I, II and III

Answer – A

Q52. Navya buys two articles A and B at the same cost price Rs. P. Then, she marks up
botharticles by 75% above their cost price. Then, she sold article A at Rs. 268 discount and
article Bat 20% discount. Then, which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely
correct:
I: The profit earned by selling article B is greater than that by article A.
II: Discount percent given on article A is more than that in B
III: She earned equal profits by selling both the articles.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Only III
E. None of the above

Answer – E

Q53. Arun invested a certain sum of money at a rate of interest % for years. If the
ratioof the amount to interest is 216:91. Then find the rate of interest and time for which
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Aruninvested the money.

I: 10%, 2 years
II: 20%, 3 years
III: 25%, 3 years
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III
E. All I, II and III

Answer – B

Q54. A boat travels from town A to town B and then goes from town B to town C. Going
fromtown A the boat reached B which is km away in 5 hours while travelling
downstream. Thenthe boats leave town B for C which is km away from town B and
reaches town C after 7 hourswhile travelling upstream. The ratio of the speed of boat to
speed of stream is 8:1. (Note –Assume the speed of boat and stream is constant for
bothjourneys)
I. 135 km, 147 km
II. 120 km, 147 km
III. 180 km, 196 km
A. Only II
B. Only III
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III
E. Both I and III

Answer – E

Q55. Maya’s monthly salary is 60% more than that of Swevi. Both Swevi and Maya, out of
theirrespective monthly salary, pay equal sum towards EMI. Out of remaining monthly
salary, Mayaand Swevi, spend a certain amount towards house rent. Amount that Swevi
pays towards EMI is20% of her monthly salary. Amount that Maya pays towards house
rent is ‘x’ times of that shepays towards EMI.
I: Find the total savings of Maya if her expenditure on EMI and house rent is just half of
totalsalary. Also, EMI expense of Swevi is Rs 30000. It is to be assumed that Maya and
Swevi had onlytwo expenses from their salaries i.e. EMI and house rent.
II: Difference between house rents paid by Maya and Swevi is Rs 10000. House rent paid
by Mayais Rs 6000 more than EMI paid by her. If house rent paid by Swevi is 33.33% of
EMI paid by Maya,then, salary of Maya is?
A. Rs. 30000, Rs. 36000
B. Rs. 45000, Rs. 60000
C. Rs. 120000, Rs. 48000
D. Rs. 75000, Rs. 48000
E. Rs. 135000, Rs. 60000

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (56-60): Five companies A, B, C, D and E manufacture bookshelves. Pie chart

givenbelow shows the distribution of total bookshelves manufactured by all 5 companies.
The tablehere represents percentage distribution of unsold bookshelves of different
companies.
1. The value of x is 26 degrees greater than that of B.
2. Bookshelves manufactured by D is 1160.
3. Total manufactured bookshelves = sold bookshelves + unsold bookshelves

Q56.Find the value of 11P – 𝟑/𝟕 y + 𝒙/𝟐𝟗

A. 51
B. 53
C. 47
D. 59
E. 41

Answer –B

Q57. Find the difference between the unsold bookshelves of company B and average
numberof bookshelves sold by companies D and C.
A. 630
B. 595
C. 610
D. 621
E. None of the above

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q58. Find the difference between the average unsold bookshelves of company A and B
and theaverage of sold bookshelves of company C and D.
A. 618
B. 516
C. 628
D. 544
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q59. If there is another company F which manufactures 60% more bookshelves than
companyC and the number of unsold bookshelves for that company is 37.5% of the
bookshelvesmanufactured by company F. Then find the number of bookshelves sold by
company E?
A. 684
B. 712
C. 625
D. 610
E. 640

Answer – E

Q60. If half of the unsold bookshelves manufactured by all the companies are defective.
Thenfind the ratio of sum of defective bookshelves from company B and D to sum of
defectivebookshelves from company A and C.
A. 161:121
B. 161:123
C. 173:121
D. 170:123
E. None of the above

Answer –A

Directions (61-63): In each of the following questions 3 statements are given. You have
todetermine the which statement/statements are necessary to answer the given
question:

Q.61) A shopkeeper sells articles at a certain profit. Find out the amount of profit.
A. Ratio of the selling price to the cost price of the articles is 4: 3.
B. If the cost price increases by Rs 500, and selling price remains the same, the
profitpercentage is decrease by 13-%.
C. If the marked price is kept at Rs 1000 above the cost price and a discount of 15% is
given, then the profit percentage is decreased by 182%.

A. Only A and B together

B. Only A and C together
C. A and either B or C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. All statements are required

E. None of these

Answer – C

Q.82) Find lateral surface area of a cylinder.

A. Volume of a cone with base same as that of the cylinder and height 30 cm is equal to
volume of the cylinder.
B. Circumference of base of the cylinder is 132 cm.
C. Volume of the cylinder is 13860 cm3.
A. Only A and B together
B. Only A and C together
C. All the three together
D. Either A and B together or A and C together
E. Any two of the three together

Answer – E

Q.63) Rinku borrowed an amount of Rs 5000 from Milan and Rahul. What is the rate of
interest?
A. Rinku returned the amount of Rs 5400 after due date to Milan.
B. Rinku returned Rs 5900 to Rahul after due date.
C. Rinku returned the money to Milan by Si, whereas to Rahul by compound interest.
A. Only A and B together are sufficient
B. Only B and C together are sufficient
C. A, B and C even together are not sufficient
D. A, B and C together are necessary
E. Either A and B together or B and C together are sufficient

Answer - C

Q.64) Quantity | =- 21x3 y3, Quantity II = 11 xty3, if x > 0 & y < 0

A. Quantity I >Quantity I|
B. Quantity | < Quantity lI
C. Quantity I ≤ Quantity Il
D. Quantity I=quantity Il or No relation
E. Quantity I ≥ Quantity Il

Answer – A

Q.65) Quantity | = Unit digit of 3634 Quantity ||= x2-3x - 10 = 0

A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity | ≤ Quantity II
D. Quantity I=quantity II or No relation
E. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.66) Quantity | = A container contains 40 liters of milk. From this container 4liters of milk
was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeatedfurther two times. How
much milk is now contained by the container?
Quantity lI= In a mixture of milk and water of Volume 30 Liter the ratio of waterand milk is
3: 7. How much quantity of water will be added to the mixture to makethe ratio of milk
and water 1: 2
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
D. Quantity I=quantity II or No relation
E. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

Answer – B

Q67) consider the following pairs :

Which of the above pair is not correctly match?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 and 3
E. Both 2 and 3

Answer – C

Q.68) 5x - 2y = 5 and 1 + (x/y) = 8/5.

Quantity I: Value of 3x + y?
Quantity II: Value of 3y - x?
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≤ Quantity Il
D. Quantity I=quantity Il or No relation
E. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (Q.69 - 72): Study the following information carefully and answer thegiven
questions. The table below shows cost price and selling price of 5 differentarticles sold by
a shopkeeper:

Note: Total cost price of article = Cost price + Cost of transportation

Q.69) If the cost price of article S is 20% more than the cost price of Article T thenfinds the
selling price of article S?
A. Rs. 2050
B. Rs. 4450
C. Rs.9000
D. Rs.7777
E. Rs. 8888

Answer – E

Q.70) If the shopkeeper has paid Rs. x for the cost of transport in article R and when the
transportation cost increases by Rs. 100, then find the value of x if the sum of selling
prices of article R in these two cases is 11000?
A. Rs. 203
B. Rs. 665
C. Rs. 825
D. Rs. 700
E. Rs. 527

Answer -C

Q.71) If the cost of transportation on article T is Rs. 300 and the selling price ofarticle P is
40% less than the selling price of article T, then find the profit earnedon article P?
A. Rs. 1433
B. Rs. 1509
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Rs. 1107
D. Rs. 1345
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q.72) If the cost on transportation on article Q is 120 % of cost of transportation onarticle

S, then find the profit percentage in article Q if there is no transportationcost charged?
A. 28 %
B. 25 %
C. 12 %
D. 35 %
E. 40 %

Answer – B

Q.73) There are three persons A, B and C. If 8 years ago the average age of A, B andC is ---
years and 5 years hence the average age of A and C will be 33 years and thepresent age of
B is years.
A. 22, 14
B. 17,19
C. 21,30
D. Either A Or C
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q.74) Ajay invested Rs. 'x' in a scheme Z. Scheme Z offers compound interest at the rate
10% compounded annually for the first three years and then simple interest at the rate 8%
for the next five years. Find the value of 'x', if the total interest earned by Ajay after eight
years is Rs. 34,536?
A. Rs. 45000
B. Rs. 36000
C. Rs. 48000
D. Rs. 36000
E. Rs. 40000

Answer – E

75) While writing first N natural numbers, I missed one number. What is thenumber that I
missed?
Statement I: The sum of all the natural number which I wrote, is 320.
Statement II: The digit I missed is an odd number.
Statement III: if I had not missed the number then sum would have been 325.
A. Only statement I, Il, and III together are sufficient.
B. Either statement Ill alone or statements I and II together are sufficient.
C. Only statement I is sufficient.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Only statement I and Il together are sufficient.

E. None of these

Answer –A

Direction (76 - 77): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions based on it.
A sequence of numbers is given to you as below:
18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 124
Where, A = p2 - Q
B - A = (P +1) 2 + Q
C - B = (P + 2) ≥ + Q
D - C = (P + 3) 2 + Q
P = HCF of L and M, where L and M are co - primes
Q = Smaller root of K2 - 2K - 8 = 0

Q.76) How many numbers are divisible by 3, in the given sequence?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. None

Answer –B

Q.77) Find the value of (A3 + 3B + 5C - 4D).

A. - 10
B. - 20
C. - 18
D. - 30
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q.78) P, Q and R entered into a partnership by investing a certain amount for 12months, T
month and 12 -T months respectively. Find the value of T?
Statement I: Q invested 50% more amount than P and R invested twice the amountof Q.
Statement II: At the end of the partnership, the total profit earned by them is Rs.700 and
the profit share of Q is Rs. 100
Statement III: Profit share of P and R is in the ratio of 1:2
A. Either 1 and Il or I and III
B. Only I and II
C. Only I and III
D. Only Il and III
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.79) If a, b, c and d are positive integers, then find the correct relation between
quantity I and II.
Quantity I: ab / aª= ab x c
Quantity Il: (a* x b3) / (a x b2) = (b3 x d4) / (b x d)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity I
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Answer – E

Direction (80 - 82): Read the following information carefully and answer the
Questions based on it.
There are four trainers A, B, C and D those take classes in a month of three types
basic class (1 hour), Regular Class (2 hours) and Advanced class (3 hours). No
trainer can leave the class before the time and no one can take the class for extra
time. D doesn't take any regular class. He will take either basic or Advance. The pie
chart given below shows the % distribution of total hours class taken by all the four
trainers. Total hours of the class are 60 hours.

Q.80) In Next month, D takes 10 hours classes and he will use 3 hours out of 10hours as of
the previous month. If the number of basic classes taken by D nextmonth is twice of
advanced classes taken by D next month, then find the differencebetween basic classes
and advanced classes by D?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of these

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.81) If A takes twice basic classes than advanced classes, then find the totalnumber of
classes taken by A?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
E. None of these

Answer - C

Q.82) B and C take all three types of classes, basic classes taken by B are equal tothe
regular classes taken by B. C takes four regular classes in the month and thenumber of
advanced classes taken by B and C is the same. Find the differencebetween the minimum
and the maximum number of basic classes taken by C?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. 12
E. 15

Answer – B

Q.83) Total number of students in the classroom is 360 out of which one-ninthpassed in all
three subjects-A, B and C. One-sixth of the total students failed in allsubjects and one-
fourth of all students that passed at least one exam is equal to thenumber of students
who passed only in subject A. One-fourth of the total studentspassed in both A and B and
50 students passed in both A and C. Find the totalnumber of students who passed in
subject A
A. 175
B. 165
C. 155
D. 180
E. None of these

Answer – A

Directions (84-86): The following questions are accompanied by threestatements A, B and

C. You have to determine which statements) is/arenecessary/sufficient to answer the
question.

Q.84) How many times does the efficiency of a man exceed that of a woman?
A. 3 women and 2 men working together complete a work in 6 days.
B. 3 men do the same work 5 days sooner than 9 women.
C. Ratio of the efficiencies of 8 women and 4 men is 1: 3.
A. Any two of the three together
B. Either C alone or A and B together.
C. All the three together
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Only C
E. Only A and B together

Answer – B

Q.85) Find out the length of train A.

A. Train A crosses another train B moving in same direction in 72 sec.
B. Speed of train A is 25km/h more than that of train B.
C. Length of train B is 20% less than that of train A.
A. All the three together are not sufficient
B. Only A and C together
C. All the three together
D. Only A and B together
E. Only B and C together

Answer – C

Q.86) What are the speeds of two trains?

A. Two trains of lengths 100 m and 80 m respectively run-on parallel tracks.
B. When running in the same direction the faster train passes the slower one in
18seconds.
C. When running in opposite directions, they pass each other in 9 seconds.
A. A and C together
B. A and B together
C. B and C together
D. A, B and C together
E. Question can't be answered even after using all the information

Answer – D

Q.87) The average age of a family of 5 members was 32 years. 3 years later, theoldest
member of the family died at the age of 60. On the same day, a child was bornin the
family. What would be the average age of the family 20 years after the deathof the oldest
member?
A. 50 years
B. 52 years
C. 43 years
D. 47 years
E. 55 years

Answer – C

Q.88) The taxi charges in a city consist of fixed charges and additional chargesper
kilometer. The fixed charges are for a distance of up to 5 km and additionalcharges are
applicable per kilometer thereafter. The charge for a distance of 10 kmis Rs 350 and for 25
km is Rs. 800. The charge for a distance of 30 km is-
A. Rs. 800
B. Rs. 950
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Rs. 900
D. Rs. 750
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q.89) On reducing the entry fee by 35% in a park, the number of people comingto the park
increased by 40%, then the percent increase or decrease in the incomefrom the entry fee
is -
A. 7% decrease
B. 9% decrease
C. 9% increase
D. 5% decrease
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q.90) A number series given below as I. A second number series as Il having firstterm
same as the wrong term of the series I. Find 3rd term of series II?
Series I. 3, 7, 22, 95, 479, 2879
A. 551
B. 571
C. 561
D. 541
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (91 - 96): Study the given information carefully and answer the following
questions:
Data regarding the number of Doctors(D) and Engineers(E) in three colleges - A, B and C is
given.
College A: Ratio of male doctors and male engineers is 12: 5 and the difference between
them is 280.Total number of female doctors and female engineers is 300. Number of male
engineers is 30 morethan that of the number of female engineers. College B: Sum of the
number of male doctors and maleengineers is equal to the sum of the number of female
doctors and female engineers in college A.Ratio of the male doctors and male engineers
together and female doctors and female engineerstogether is 6: 7. Ratio of female doctors
and female engineers is 2: 3. Number of male doctors incollege B is 1/3rd of the number
of male engineers in college C. College C: Male engineers is 1.5 timesthe number of female
doctors. Sum of the number of female doctors and female engineers is 550.Number of
female engineers is 70 more than the number of female doctors. Total number of
maledoctors and male engineers is 760.

Q91. What is ratio of total number of male and female doctors together in college B to
that incollege C?
A. 12: 25
B. 14: 19
C. 13: 32
D. 23: 34
E. 19: 32

Answer – C

Q92. What is total number of male and female engineers in colleges A, B and C together?
A. 1390
B. 1430
C. 1510
D. 1500
E. 1300

Answer – B

Q93. In another college D, total number of females is 640 out of which 25% are doctors
and numberof male doctors in college is 12.5% more than that in college C. What is the
total number of doctorsin college D?
A. 610
B. 630
C. 570
D. 590
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q94. Average number of female doctors in colleges A, B and C is?

A. 150
B. 160
C. 170
D. 180
E. 200

Answer – C

Q95. Female doctors and engineers in college C is approximately what percent less than
total maledoctors and engineers in college A?
A. 28
B. 8
C. 4
D. 19
E. 34

Answer – D
Q96. Find the difference between male engineers in college B and female engineers in the
samecollege.
A. 30
B. 20
C. 40
D. 45
E. None of these

Answer – A

Q97. A number when multiplied by 7 gives another number which is as much above 260 as
theoriginal number itself is below 260. What is 32% of the original number?
A. 16
B. 20.8
C. 18.5
D. 17.5
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q98. Cost price of B is Rs 180 more than the Cost price of A. A is sold at profit of 20% and B
is soldat loss of 40%. Ratio of selling price of A and B is 5:4. What is the cost price of A?
A. Rs. 300
B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 460
D. Rs. 450
E. Rs. 550

Answer –A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q99. Ratio of present ages of A and B is 6:5. After 10 years, the ratio of their ages will be
7:6. Findthe difference in their present ages?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. 7
D. 10 years
E. 12 years

Answer – D

Q100. Ratio of heights of right circular cylinders A and B is 1:2. Ratio of curved surface
areas of rightcircular cylinders A and B is 2:3. Find the ratio of radii of right circular
cylinders A and B?
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 4:3
D. 3:4
E. 3:5

Answer –C

Q101. Train A, 240 m long, crosses a platform double its length in 24 seconds. Find the
approx. timetaken to cross train B, 200 m long and travelling at 108 kmph in opposite
direction?
A. 7 seconds
B. 12 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 14 seconds
E. 15 seconds

Answer – A

Direction (102 - 105): Find the wrong term in the given series:
Q102). 13, 22, 40, 76, 152, 292, 580
A. 40
B. 22
C. 76
D. 152
E. 292

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q103).4, 15, 37, 100, 224, 439, 781

A. 37
B. 15
C. 439
D. 100
E. 224

Answer – B

Q104). 15, 20, 27, 37, 51, 72, 95

A. 20
B. 27
C. 37
D. 51
E. 72

Answer - E

Q105).26, 29, 22, 25, 18, 23, 14

A. 22
B. 23
C. 25
D. 29
E. 18

Answer –B

Direction (106 - 109): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You
have todetermine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the
question. Youshould use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose the best
possibleanswer.

Q106. There are 4 positive integral values A, B, C and D. Find the value of C?
I. Average of A, B, C and D is 42.
II. A<B<C<D. Average of B and C is 40. A and B are equidistant from 28. A and Care
equidistant from32.
A. Data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I| aloneare not sufficient to answer the question
B. Data either in Statement I or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
C. Data in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the question, while he data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
D. Data in both Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the question.
E. Data even in both Statements I and Il together are not sufficient to answer the
question.

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q107. In how many days, 4 men and 4 women can complete the work?
I. 6 men and 10 women can complete the work in 10 days.
II. Il. 8 men and 20 women can complete the work in 6 days.
A. Data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement Il aloneare not sufficient to answer the question
B. Data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I aloneare not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data either in Statement I or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Data even in both Statements I and Il together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
E. Data in both Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer – E
Q108. What is A's mother present age?
I. Ratio of A's father present age and A's present age is 3:1.
II. Combined present age of A's father & A is 8 years more than the combined present age
of A'smother & A. 12 years ago, A's father that time was times A's mother that time.
A. Data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I| aloneare not sufficient to answer the question
B. Data in Statement I| alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I aloneare not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data either in Statement I or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Data in both Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the question.
E. Data even in both Statements I and Il together are not sufficient to answer the
question.

Answer – B

Q109. Find the cost of paving the rectangular field at the rate of Rs. 12 per
Statement I: The length of a rectangular field is equal to the diagonal of a square of area
162 andratio of length and breadth of the rectangle is 3: 2 respectively.
Statement II: The perimeter of the rectangle is 40 m less than the perimeter of a square of
area 4096
A. If the data in Statement I| alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in Statement Talone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data either in Statement I or in Statement Il alone are sufficient to answer the
question
C. If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in Statement Il alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data in both Statements I and Il together are necessary to answer the question.
E. If the data even in both Statements I and Il together are not sufficient to answer the
question.

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (110 - 114): Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the given
questions.5 TV channels A, B, C, D and E show the two types of movies-Bollywood and
Hollywood. Number ofmovies shown by these 5 TV channels in a year is given in the bar
graph.

Q110. Number of Hollywood movies telecasted on channel E is what percent more than
the numberof Bollywood movies telecasted on the same channel?
A. 33.33%
B. 25%
C. 20%
D. 37.5%
E. 16.66%

Answer – A

Q111. What is the average number of Hollywood movies telecasted on the channels B, D
and Etogether?
A. 640
B. 680
C. 720
D. 730
E. 750

Answer –C

Q112. What is the ratio of the total number of movies telecasted on channel A and
channel E?
A. 5:6
B. 4:7
C. 5:7
D. 4: 7
E. 6: 7
Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q113. what is the difference between the number of Bollywood movies telecasted on
channels A andC and the number of Hollywood movies telecasted on channels B and D?
A. 360
B. 390
C. 480
D. 420
E. 520

Answer – C

Q114. 30% of the Bollywood movies telecasted on channel E and 20% of the Hollywood
movies telecasted on the same channel were on historical events. How many movies
telecasted on channelE were on historical events?
A. 256
B. 292
C. 264
D. 262
E. 272

Answer –E

Q115. A shopkeeper sold a wrist watch at 20% discount to Sohan and Sohan sold this
watch at theprofit of 12.5% profit for Rs. 2700, Then find the discount.
A. 450
B. 550
C. 600
D. 870
E. 700

Answer – C

Q116. A person travels a total distance of 1260 km partly by bike and partly by Car. The
speed of Bikeand Car is 4: 3. If the distance travelled by car is 180 km more than that by
bike, then What is theratio of time taken by car and bike to travel?

A. 11: 9
B. 16:9
C. 16: 6
D. 9: 16
E. 17: 5

Answer –B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q117. Two pipes can fill a tank in 36 hours and 12 hours respectively. If the pipe C can
empty the one-fourth of the tank in 8 hours, then in how much time all the three pipes
can fill half the empty tank?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
E. 4

Answer – C

Q118. Bina invested 10% of her monthly income in stocks. She spent 15% of remaining on
groceriesand gave the remaining 30600 to her husband. What is the difference between
the amount spenton groceries and the investment in stocks?
A. 1930
B. 1500
C. 1400
D. 2200
E. 1300

Answer –C

Q119. Cost of 4 shirts and 3 trousers is Rs. 1700. If the price of a shirt is 37.5% more than
the price ofa trouser, then what is the difference between the price of a shirt and a
trouser?
A. 85
B. 65
C. 75
D. 55
E. 95

Answer -C

Q120. Wages of a labour are increased by 15% and his working hours are also increased by
9%.Initially he used to earn Rs.18,000 per month for 300 hours in a month. Find his total
earning in amonth now?
A. Rs.21,000
B. Rs.23,623
C. Rs.24,868
D. Rs.23,456
E. Rs.22,563

Answer –E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q121Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series:

27, 34, 51, 75, 107, 147, 195
A. 34
B. 51
C. 27
D. 75
E. 147

Answer – A

Q122. Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series:

10, 4.5, 3.5, 5, 16, 122, 1904
A. 122
B. 3.5
C. 5
D. 10
E. 75

Answer – A

Q123. Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series:

800, 678, 579, 497, 434, 385, 349
A. 494
B. 385
C. 800
D. 579
E. 349

Answer - B

Q124. Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series:

1, 12, 120, 960, 5780, 23040, 46080
A. 12
B. 960
C. 23040
D. 1
E. 5780

Answer – E
Q125. Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series:
7,11, 19, 35, 68, 131
A. 19
B. 11
C. 7
D. 131
E. 68
Answer - E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q126. There was a loss of 22% after selling an article at 40% discount. So, the shopkeeper
hadincreased the marked price of the article by 40% but had allowed the same discount
percent. If heearned Rs. 184 as profit after increasing the marked price then find the cost
price of the article.
A. Rs. 2200
B. Rs. 2000
C. Rs. 2100
D. Rs. 2500
E. Rs. 1600

Answer – B

Q127. A shopkeeper sells two products A and B. He sells product A at x% profit and
product B at 8% loss. The total selling price of both products is Rs. 4344 and the cost price
of product A and product B are in the ratio of 4: 3, respectively. If the shopkeeper had sold
product A at the loss percent equal to the loss percent incurred on selling product B, then
its selling price would have been Rs. 2208. Find out the value of x.
A. 12%
B. 15%
C. 14%
D. 9%
E. None of these

Answer – A

Q128. Amit, Bharat and Chirag started a business with their investments in the ratio 1: 2:
4. After 6 months, Amit invested half the amount more than before; Bharat invested twice
the amount more as before while Chirag withdrew 1/4th of his investment. What will be
the ratio of their profits at the end of the year?
A. 5: 16: 14
B. В. 16: 5: 14
C. 14: 5: 12
D. 14: 12:5
E. None of these

Answer – A

Q129. A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 4:1. When 10 Lt. of the
mixture was taken out and 10 Lt. of liquid B was poured into the jar, this ratio becomes
2:3. The quantity of liquid A contained in the jar initially was:
A. 10 Lt.
B. 12 Lt.
C. 14 Lt.
D. 16 Lt.
E. 18 Lt.

Answer - D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q130. Akash borrowed Rs 12000 from a bank at the rate of 6% for 8 years. After a certain
period oftime, the government introduced a scheme which reduced the interest rate by
3%. At the end of 8years, Akash paid Rs 16680 in total then after how much time the
government introduced thescheme?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 2
D. 3
E. None of these.

Answer – A

Direction (131-135): Read the following information carefully and answer the Questions.
The Tabular graph below shows data related to students in different Schools
School Total student Boy: Girl Pass: Fail % of students
who got
scholarship

P 7:9 65

Q 1500 8:7

R 4:5 60

S 1800 5:4
T 9:5 40
U 1500 12:13 20

Q131. If 25% of the boys in school U got scholarship, then find how many girls didn't
receivescholarship?
A. 624
B. 660
C. 760
D. 550
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q,132. 60% of the students who passed the exam in school Q are boys and percentage of
girls whopassed the exam is 80%, then find the number of boys in school Q?
A. 1000
B. 1120
C. 1080
D. 1100
E. 950

Answer - D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q133. If the difference between the Boys and Girls in school P is 180, then find how many
Studentin school P didn't get scholarship?
A. 504
B. 320
C. 424
D. 532
E. 394

Answer – A

Q134. If the number of students who received scholarship in school R is 540 and 20% of
the boys inschool R received Scholarship then find how much percentage of girls received
scholarship out oftotal girls in school R.
A. 48
B. 98
C. 74
D. 92
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q,135. If 20% of the students who passed the examination in schoolS received Scholarship
then findnumber girls who received scholarship if 120 boys from school S received
scholarship?
A. 85
B. 92
C. 86
D. 78
E. 80

Answer – E

Q136. Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given
information,you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should
use the given data andyour knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible
answers.
Quantity I: 2x2 + 29x+ 50=0
Quantity II: 3y2 + 18y+ 27=0
A. Quantity | > Quantity lI
B. Quantity I ≥ Quantity Il
C. Quantity II > Quantity I
D. Quantity Il ≥ Quantity I
E. Quantity | = Quantity Il or Relation cannot be established

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q137. Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given
information,you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should
use the given data andyour knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible
answers.
Quantity I: Number of perfect cubes each of side 3mm that can be cut out of a solid cuboid
ofdimensions 3cm x 30cm x 30cm.
Quantity Il: Number of perfect cuboids of dimensions 3mm x 30mm x 30mm that can be
cut out ofa cube of side 30cm.
A. Quantity | < Quantity I
B. Quantity I > Quantity I|
C. Quantity | = Quantity I|
D. No relation
E. Data inadequate

Answer – B

Q138. Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given
information,you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should
use the given data andyour knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible
answers.
Quantity I: Ram invested a sum of Rs. 52, 000 in scheme offering compound interest at the
rate of10% per annum. Find the interest earned by him after 3 years.
Quantity II: Rahim invested Rs. 28, 750 in a scheme offering simple interest at the rate of
20% perannum. Find the interest earned by him after 3 years.
A. Quantity | > Quantity lI
B. Quantity | < Quantity I!
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity I|
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity lI
E. Quantity | = Quantity Il or No relation

Answer – B

Q139. Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given
information,you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should
use the given data andyour knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible
answers.
Quantity I: The present age of three business colleague, Sumit, Anil and Deepak are in
proportion 5:7: 8 respectively. Seven years ago, the sum of their ages was 79. Find the
present age of Deepak inyears.
Quantity Il: A daughter's present age is three- fifth of the age of her mother. After seven
years, shewill be 2/3rd of the age of her mother. Find mother's present age in years.
A. Quantity | > Quantity Il
B. Quantity | ≥ Quantity !!
C. Quantity | < Quantity Il
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity Il
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation.
Answer - A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q140. Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given
information,you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should
use the given data andyour knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible
answers.
Quantity I: one day Sandeep on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km
at 80km/hr. The average speed of the tour is:
Quantity Il: Sandeep went from Patna to Giridih with the speed of 60km/hr. and return
back withthe speed of 90km/hr. Find the average speed.
A. Quantity I > Quantity Il
B. Quantity | 2 Quantity II
C. Quantity Il >Quantity !
D. Quantity II ≥ Quantity I|
E. Quantity | = Quantity Il or Relation cannot be established

Answer – C

Direction (141-145): Given below is the description of the cost price of the per product,
overheadexpenditure and selling price of a product for the given years (in IN thousands).
Read the followinginformation carefully and answer the following questions.

Note: SP for a product for the year 2015 needs to be calculated

Q141. If in the year 2015 the company has the same profit margin which it had in the year
2013then find the sale price of the year 2015.
A. INR 682400
B. INR 686400
C. INR 681600
D. INR 860000
E. INR 850000

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q142. In the year 2011, the company sells 15 products. Out of total revenue earned, the
companydonated 1/9th to charity. Find the amount given to charity.
A. INR 30,000
B. INR 3,00,000
C. INR 5,00,000
D. INR 50,000
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q143. By what percentage is the profit earned by the company in the year 2012 is
more/less thanthe profit earned in 2014?
A. 50% more
B. 50% less
C. 150% less
D. 150% more
E. 250% more

Answer -D

Q144. If there is no overhead expenditure then in which year company had the lowest
profitpercentage?
A. 2012
B. 2013
C. 2014
D. 2015
E. 2016

Answer – B

Q145. If in the year 2017, the overhead expenditure of the product increase by 45% of
that of 2016then the overhead expenditure of 2017 is what percentage more than the
overhead expenditure ofthe year 2011?

A. 193.33%
B. 93.33%
C. 33.33%
D. 133.33%
E. 48.27%

Answer – B

Q146. Alekh and Alia can together do a piece of work in 5 days which Alia and Aman
together cando in 15 days. After Alekh has been working at it for 4 days and Alia for 5
days, Aman then takes upand completes the work alone in 4 days. In how many days can
Alia do the work alone?
A. 30 days
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

B. 50 days
C. 45 days
D. 25 days
E. 35 days

Answer – C

Q147. There are two circles of different radius such that radius of the smaller circle is
three – sevensthat of the larger circle. A square whose area equals 3969 sq. cm has its side
as thrice the radius ofthe larger circle. What is the approximate circumference of the
smaller circle?
A. 52 cm
B. 49 cm
C. 65 cm
D. 56 cm
E. 60 cm

Answer – D

Q148. A train Pawan express of length 380 m running with the speed of 108 km/h crosses
a platformof certain length in 37 seconds. Another train, Toofan express of certain length
running with a speedof 90 km/h crosses the platform in 42.6 seconds. What will be the
time taken by both trains to crosseach other if they run in opposite directions?
A. 12 seconds
B. 13 seconds
C. 14 seconds
D. 10 seconds
E. 9 seconds

Answer – B

Q149. Mithu bhai sells rasgulla at Rs. 15 per kg. A rasgulla is made-up of flour and sugar in
the ratioof quantity 5: 3. The ratio of price per kg of sugar and flour is 7: 3. Thus, he earns
200/3% profit.
What is the cost price of sugar per kg?
A. Rs. 10/kg
B. Rs. 9/kg
C. Rs. 18/kg
D. Rs. 12/kg
E. Rs. 14/kg

Answer – E

Q150. A mango and an orange costs Rs. 200 & Rs. 100 respectively. If the price of mango
and orangeis increased by 20% and 25 %. If a person wants to buy 10 mangoes and 5
oranges then what ispercentage change in the total amount spent by him after increase in
the price.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

A. 22
B. 25
C. 21
D. 22
E. 20

Answer - C

English:
Directions (1-7): Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the
availableinformation.
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 has rightfully identified 21st century skills as
fundamental to developing creators. Critical thinking and problem solving, communication
and collaboration, creativity and innovation, flexibility and adaptability, initiative and self-
direction, social and cross cultural interactions, and productivity and accountability all
strengthen the individuals’ abilities at the workplace.
Relying on traditional literacy and numeracy alone will not suffice and tends to marginalize
differently abled learners. Educators could consider a design-based approach where
students concentrate on a subject for two-three weeks to examine how it can be applied in
the real world.
But does our current classroom and content-heavy syllabus enable deep work? Also, how do
we retrain teachers who have been trained in traditional systems? They know terms like
‘constructivism’ but do not know how it should be used in a classroom that is focused on
exams rather than learning. And how ready are our future educators?
In a semester-long study that used Wikipedia as a pedagogical tool for teacher training, 65
preservice (B.Ed) teachers were asked to improve the pages on Wikipedia related to
educational concepts. Excluding a few, the content created by most participants was either
sent back to them or deleted by neutral editors of Wikipedia.
The content, it was found, was plagiarised, did not provide citations, lacked basic writing
and grammar skills, etc. After three iterative cycles that were emotionally intense, the
teachers were able to contribute content to over 75 Wikipedia articles in English and over
50 articles in Kannada, Tamil, Telugu, Hindi, Malayalam, Gujarati, Assamese and Punjabi. All
the content was related to educational technology. The critical feedback from various
Wikipedia editors was crucial because it was unbiased. This feedback forced the learners to
re-evaluate their skills. This shows that constant engagement, an emotional connection, and
immersive learning are important parts of education. EdTech apps can deliver content that
caters to multiple learning styles, learning curves and pace of learning. The pandemic has
shown that traditional teacher and brick-and-mortar schools may become obsolete if radical
pedagogical changes do not follow.

Q1.Which of the following measures has been suggested in the given passage for
improvementof the education system?
A. Educators will have to find ways to minimize their engagement strategies while
integrating technology into their approach.
B. Both (a) and (c)
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Educators can use a method in which students focus on a topic for a few weeks to
see how it might be used in actuality.
D. An individual must be motivated enough to remain immersed in a specific activity to
be creative and happy.
E. All are correct.
Answer – C

Q2.Which of the following were not among the shortcomings in the content provided by
theteachers for the first time?
A. Copying was found in the content.
B. They just stated the obvious facts.
C. There were no references in the material.
D. Basic grammar and writing abilities were lacking in the text.
E. None is incorrect.

Answer – B

Q3.The author is in line with

A. Children have lost all personal contact with their social group due to the pandemic.
B. The field of education is not evolving over time, with contemporary methods not
able to findplace in the classroom in a traditional setup.
C. Over-reliance on technology comes at a cost.
D. Education requires continual involvement, emotional connection, and deep learning.
E. None of these.

Answer – D

Q4.Which of the following ironies has been mentioned in the given passage?
A. The disruptive nature of digital tools has thrown up interesting challenges to the
traditionaleducation system.
B. Teachers are familiar with concepts like "constructivism," but are unsure how to use
it in theclassroom.
C. Parents are forced to rely upon technology to provide their children constant
gratification tokeep them engaged.
D. Both (a) and (b)
E. None of these.

Answer – B

Q5.Which of the following is not among the qualities that can support an individual to
develophis abilities at the workplace?
A. Teamwork and interaction
B. Interactions on a social and cross-cultural level
C. Versatility and flexibility
D. Problem-solving and critical thinking
E. None is incorrect.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Answer - E

Q6.Which of the following words is the synonym of “intense”, as highlighted in the given
passage?
A. Catalytic
B. Impactful
C. Vehement
D. Holistic
E. None of these

Answer - C
Q7.Which of the following words is the antonym of “obsolete”, as highlighted in the
givenpassage?
A. Contemporary
B. Archaic
C. Bygone
D. Superannuated
E. None of these.

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (8-11): In each of the questions given below four words are highlighted which
mayor may not be in their proper place. You are required to interchange these words in
order to formmeaningfully correct sentences.
Q8.The motto (a) of the US state of New Hampshire is “Live Free or Die”. Appropriately
enough,NH is currently the only US state offering legal certification (b) for flying cars. But
while such avehicle sounds like a technology (c) of science fiction, it could soon become
perfectlynormal figment (d).
A. a-c
B. c-d
C. b-d
D. a-b
E. No interchange required

Answer – B

Q9.The withdrawal (a) down of tensions between Assam and Mizoram, at least at the
leadership(b) level, with the respective (c) governments announcing the drawing (d) of
FIRs against the ChiefMinister of Assam and a Rajya Sabha MP from Mizoram, among
other steps, comes as a great relief.
A. a-d
B. b-d
C. a-c and b-d
D. a-b and c-d
E. No interchange required

Answer – A

Q10.A day after taking the bold decision to scrap (a) all retrospective tax demands and
refundmoney collected, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the move shows his
government's consistency(b) to providing businesses stability of investment climate (c)
and policy commitment (d).
A. a-c
B. b-d
C. a-c and b-d
D. a-b and c-d
E. No interchange required

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q11.Happy at a permanent commission for Air Quality Management in the National

Capital Regionand Adjoining Areas for better coordination, research, regulations(a), and
resolution of problemssurrounding (b) the air quality index, experts are also wary (c)of the
fact that mere identification(d)would not help in the long run.
A. a-c
B. b-d
C. a-d
D. b-c
E. No interchange required

Answer – C

Directions (12-16): Which of the following phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) can replace the
phrasein bold so as to make the statement correct grammatically and contextually? If the
statementdoes not need any correction then mark option E as your answer.
Q12.England cruised for a second successive victory at the ICC Twenty20 World Cup,
defeatingBangladesh by eight wickets.
A. cruises on a second successive victory
B. cruised to a second successive victory
C. cruise to a second successive victory
D. crushed to a second successive victory
E. no replacement required

Answer – B

Q13.The Delhi Disaster Management Authority has issued orders permit schools to
reopen, aftera gap of 19 months, for students from nursery to Class XII from November 1.
A. Issued Orders Permitting Schools To Reopening
B. Issued Orders Permitting Schools To Reopen
C. Issue Orders Permitting Schools To Reopen
D. Issuing Orders Permitting Schools To Reopen
E. No Replacement Required

Answer – B

Q14.With limited water resources and increasing water demand, it becomes imperatively
tostrategize to the sustained use of water in various sectors.
A. Imperial To Strategize For The Sustained Use Of Water
B. Imperative To Strategize For The Sustained Use Of Water
C. Imperative To Strategize For The Sustainable Use Of Water
D. Prior To Strategize For The Sustained Use Of Water
E. No Replacement Required

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q15.Scientists have identified a compound that shows potentially in easing the symptoms
ofCOVID-19 infection in laboratory and animals.
A. Show Potential In Easing The Symptoms
B. Shows Potential To Easing The Symptoms
C. Shows Potential In Easing The Symptoms
D. Showed Potential In Easy The Symptoms
E. No Replacement Required

Answer – C

Q16.The Indian team had defeat hosts England by 36 runs to lift the T20 Physically
Disabled CricketSeries in August last year.
A. Indian team has being defeated hosts
B. Indian team was defeated hosts
C. Indian team had defeated hosts
D. Indian team had have defeated hosts
E. No correction required

Answer – C

Directions (17-21): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A)But, Mr. Austin’s trip preceded an unannounced stop in Kabul where the U.S. is
undertaking amajor review of its troop’s pull-out schedule and peace plan.(B)The timing
of U.S. Secretary of Defense Lloyd Austin’s visit to New Delhi over the weekend
wassignificant for many reasons.(C)As a result, all three areas: bilateral ties, the Indo-
Pacific and Afghanistan came up for discussionduring talks.(D)Also, the visit, just after the
first ever Quad leaders’ summit, confirms the U.S.’s focus on greatermaritime cooperation
in the Indo-Pacific.(E)Finally, Mr. Austin was careful not to make any direct reference to
Beijing or about the LACdispute, which New Delhi considers a bilateral issue.(F) As the first
senior ranking official of the Biden administration to meet with the Modi government, his
visit this early in the new President’s tenure indicates the place India holds.

Q17.Which of the following statements does not form a part of a coherent paragraph,
afterrearranging the given statements?
A. B
B. F
C. C
D. D
E. None is coherent.

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q18.Which of the following pair of statements will appear in similar sequence after
rearrangement, as given in the option?
A. A-E
B. C-D
C. B-F
D. D-E
E. A-F

Answer – C

Q19.Which of the following is the SECOND statement after rearrangement?

A. B
B. C
C. F
D. A
E. E

Answer – C

Q20.Which of the following is the THIRD statement after rearrangement?

A. D
B. A
C. F
D. E
E. C

Answer – A

Q21.Which of the following is the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?

A. F
B. C
C. B
D. A
E. E

Answer – B

Directions (22-26): In each of the following questions, a sentence has been divided into
fiveparts out of which one part is erroneous. You are required to choose the option which
isgrammatically or contextually incorrect.

Q22.Union Home Minister Amit Shah conducted an (a)/ aerial survey of rain-ravaged
areas (b)/ ofUttarakhand to assessing the (c)/ damage which the state government (d)/
has pegged at Rs 7,000crore.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. d
E. e

Answer -C

Q23.As much as 150 Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) (a)/ which were upgraded by (b)/
TataTechnologies Limited under (c)/ Karnataka's UDYOGA program are set (d)/ to be
inaugurated in twoweeks.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Answer – A

Q24.Excessive rainfall has thrown (a)/ normal life out of gear in Uttarakhand. (b)/
Torrential rainfalland floods (c)/ have lead to food scarcity (d)/ and lack of
transportation.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Answer – D

Q25.The Madhya Pradesh Police arrested (a)/ four people, including (b)/ a professional
Kabaddiplayer, (c)/ for their alleged (d)/ involving in arms trafficking.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Answer – E

Q26.Addressing the nation, (a)/ Prime Minister Narendra Modi said (b)/ India's
vaccinationprogramme (c)/ were science-born, (d)/ science- driven and science-based.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (27-30): Given below is a highlighted word followed by 4 sentences. You need
to
understand whether the sentences are using the word correctly or not. Mark the incorrect
sentence with the incorrect word usage as your answer.

Q27.Adamant
A. The doctors at Apollo hospital had been absolutely adamant that Meena’s grandmother
was notgoing to get better.
B. Raani is so adamant in her political beliefs that no one can change her mind!
C. Kunal is a very sweet, amiable and adamant boy.
D. Unemployed youths of this country are adamant about finding a suitable job.
A. Only B
B. Only A
C. Only D
D. Only C
E. All are correct

Answer – D

Q28.Enervate
A. The lecture on calculus was enervating to the new students.
B. If you are idle then it will definitely enervate your progress towards success.
C. The energy drink enervated him to such an extent that he ran faster than the others.
D. The long journey from Kolkata to Bhubaneswar is quite enervating.
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. Only D
E. All are correct

Answer – C

Q29.Ubiquitous
A. Digital payments are becoming increasingly ubiquitous.
B. Greenery is becoming ubiquitous in urbanized towns.
C. The presence of these men is slowly becoming ubiquitous.
D. Raghu’s ubiquitous influence is always felt by his family.
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. Only D
E. All are correct

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q30.Negligent
A. Piangshuk is quite punctual and negligent when it comes to official works.
B. I was utterly shocked to find out how negligent Arun had been during these years.
C. Please do not be negligent in your work else you will suffer.
D. Pulak seems quite negligent about his health.
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. Only D
E. All are correct

Answer – A

Directions (31-36): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of
these.
The United Kingdom aspires to be a knowledge economy working at the top of the
production chain. The government has lifted student number caps to create more university
places. For those who prefer a work-based route to higher skills, there are new degree
apprenticeships. This is great. It’s essential that young people get the best possible
preparation for adult life and the opportunity to embark on interesting and satisfying
careers. But the number of 18- years olds in the UK population is falling, and the Office for
National Statistics predicts that more than a third of the UK workforce will be over 50 by
2020, so we also need to consider those already in the workplace.
Politicians are beginning to take notice. One of the Labour leaders has called for a National
Education Service or learners at every stage of life, and the current government is
considering whether the time is right to look again at "lifetime learning" support in its most
recent budget.
As part of this support, politicians have promised that – in addition to the loans
alreadyavailable for further and higher education – it will introduce loans for level 3 to 6
training infurther education, part- time second degrees in science, technology, engineering
and maths(Stem) subjects, and postgraduate taught masters courses.So why not introduce
lifetime learning accounts for everyone? As with further and highereducation loans, the
money could go straight from the government to a reputable provider –preventing fraud –
and would be repaid by the student once they were earning above a certainincome,
increasing affordability.Sadly, the last attempt to provide support to learners in this way
ended in disaster. The Labourgovernment’s 1997 manifesto promised “individual learning
accounts” – a fairly small amountof public money, supplemented by an individual’s own
savings, that could be used to pay fortraining, for example, by women returning to the
workforce.
Although the basic idea made sense, money was lost to fraud, the government was accused
ofincompetence and the whole policy became toxic. New "skills accounts" were introduced
in2008-09, but provided little more than careers information for graduates.If so, many past
initiatives have failed, why bother introducing new ones? There are severalpotential
benefits, not least making the system simpler by putting financial support for furtherand
higher education in one place.
These accounts could also provide a convenient vehicle for new or exceptional funding.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Whena major company goes under, the government usually provides support to retrain
people whohave lost their jobs. Instead of providing money to the bureaucracy, an
entitlement could godirectly into the workers’ accounts, making it easier for them to control
their route into a newjob.It’s unlikely that the government will change the system in one fell
swoop – and probablyinadvisable that it should. But little by little, new flexibilities could be
introduced. Loans couldhave an affordable cap, and could be drawn down throughout
students’ lives as required.
Those who are uncomfortable with carrying a lot of debt could draw money in modules,
payingeach one off before moving on to the next.There would have to be a more
collaborative mindset, with universities and colleges activelyencouraged to work together to
create clear progression routes. This could work for bothparties: universities could help
students to convert their further study into degrees andcolleges would be able to help
people with professional degrees access appropriateprofessional development.
These measures would make it possible for us all to learn throughout our lives and be
moreresilient to the ups and downs of the modern labour market. Let’s recognise that jobs
are nolonger for life and education is not just for the young.

Q31. In the following question, the italicised sentence in the second paragraph of the
passagehas been divided into four segments. There may be an error in one of the
segments. Find thepart with the error. If the sentence is correct, mark the answer as ‘No
error’.But the number of 18- years olds in the UK population is falling, (1)/ and the Office
for NationalStatistics predicts (2)/ that more than a third of the UK workforce will be over
50 by 2020, (3)/so we also need to consider those already in the workplace. (4)
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
E. No error

Answer – D

Q32. Why did the lifelong learning schemes in the UK fail in the past?
I. The personal savings invested by the public for training was lost to fraud.
II. The government utilised the money paid by the public in foreign investment.
III. The “skills accounts” of 2008-2009 provided nothing but careers information for
graduates.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and III
D. Both I and II
E. All of these

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q33. Why are the politicians in UK also targeting those already in the workplace for
lifelonglearning schemes?
A. The future of the economy depends on the senior citizens of the nations.
B. The number of the young in the nation is declining, and in the coming years, more
than athird population would constitute of the middle-aged.
C. The government has realised that women need to be given equal opportunities,
which canbe facilitated by lifelong learning schemes.
D. The one’s at the workplace possess outdated and futile skills and need to be
familiarisedwith the emerging technologies.
E. None of these.

Answer – B

Q144. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
I. Previous initiatives to help learners of all ages have been beset by problems, but it’s
time tolook at new models for a shifting employment landscape.
II. The future of the knowledge economy of the UK is bleak as the number of young people
isdrastically declining.
III. The government is reluctant to create a smooth process through which maximum
people canbenefit from lifelong learning schemes.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Both I and II
E. None of these

Answer – A

Q35. Which of the following is the MOST SIMILAR to the word given in bold in the
passage?
Embark
A. Terminate
B. Initiate
C. Preoccupy
D. Relevance
E. Associate

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q36. Which of the following is the MOST OPPOSITE to the word given in bold in the
passage?
Resilient
A. Steep
B. Tough
C. Plaint
D. Ignominious
E. Equal

Answer – C

Directions (37-40): Read the following sentence to find out whether there is any error in
it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that
part willbe your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No
error’. Ignore theerrors of punctuation if any.
Q37. Inefficiency high school learning (1)/eventually hurts the ability of student (2)/ to
take onglobal competition (3)/and turn into world beaters (4).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. No error

Answer – A

Q38. Political action groups lay (1)/ in wait for companies that stumble (2)/ in its conduct
andtreatment (3)/ of multiple stake-holders. (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. No error

Answer – C

Q39. E-business platforms operate on (1)/ the principle that long-term customer (2)/ lock-
on isfar more strategically (3)/ important than the short-term profits (4).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. No error

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

xQ40. Every kaleidoscopic elements (1)/ merged together beautifully to create (2)/ the
mostdelightful (3)/ and unique East Lindsey market town. (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. No error

Answer - A

Directions (41-43): Two sentences with one blank in each, followed by five alternatives,
aregiven. Choose that option as the answer which can fill both the blanks of both the
sentences.
Q41.A) He is sentenced to jail for consistently and ill- treating his wife and
children.
B) Valuable programs that could have saved lives but involved greater scrutiny of the
council'saffairs were abandoned.
A. Callously
B. Alluringly
C. Abating
D. Impassively
E. Droopingly

Answer – A

Q42.A) John's behaviour is to get him in a lot of trouble one of these days.
B) When the astronomer looked into the telescope, he was shocked by the sight of a star
movingin an path.
A. Peculiar
B. Abnormal
C. Deviation
D. Accede
E. Aberrant

Answer – E

Q43.A) When police officers questioned him, he became and tried to hit one of
them.
B) The boys found it hard to get along with Tom, because he always said
things.
A. Amicable
B. Abhor
C. Resolute
D. Belligerent
E. Requite

Answer - D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

xDirection (44-47): In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given,
whichare divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each
sentence andColumn II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match
column I with column II,so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and
grammatically correct. Choose the optionas your answer.
Q44.I.
A. It takes two hours on the train
B. The scores are low because
C. Writing a list of random sentences
II.
D. the task is cognitively demanding.
E. is harder than I thought it would be.
F. but it is a little bit long by road.
A. A-E and B-D
B. A-F, C-E and B- D
C. B-F
D. C- E and B-D
E. C-D and B-F

Answer - D

Q45.I.
A. While you were playing the video game,
B. Strategies discussed at a meeting included a study plan
C. The group emphasised on having
II.
D. your wife washed the clothes.
E. a strong protocol for safe carcass disposal.
F. for a synchronous coordinated survey in five states.
A. A-E and B-D
B. C-E
C. B-F
D. C- E and B-D
E. C-D and B-F

Answer - B

Q46.I
A. After a disaster, the Red Cross works with
B. The memory we used to share
C. Plants use electrical chemical
II.
D. community partners to provide hot meals.
E. means to convey information.
F. is no longer coherence.
A. A-D and C-E
B. C-E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. B-F
D. C- E and B-D
E. C-D and B-F

Answer - A
Q47.I.
A. Crude oil prices recovered some ground
B. His blue coat was dirty
C. Let's all be unique together until
II.
D. we realise we are all the same.
E. after significant losses the previous day.
F. neatly folded and kept.
A. C-D and A-E
B. A-D and C-E
C. C-E
D. B-F
E. C- E and B-D

Answer – A

Q48. Direction: In the given question, there are five sentences A, B, C, D and E, which
whenproperly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of
sentencesfrom among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A) Epidemics, much like wars or natural disasters, profoundly influence the course of
history.
B) Over a hundred years later, Spanish flu became a deadly combatant in the trenches of
WorldWar I.
C) Smallpox, malaria, and influenza decimated indigenous Americans after European
contact inthe 16th century, paving the way for western colonisation of the New World.
D) Some scholars credit the HIV/AIDS crisis of the 1980s with pushing the gay rights
movementinto the political mainstream.
E) Yellow fever helped turn the tide of the Haitian Revolution at the beginning of the 19th
century.
A. ACEBD
B. BECAD
C. EACDB
D. ABCDE
E. CAEBD

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q49. Direction: In the given question, there are five sentences A, B, C, D and E, which
whenproperly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of
sentencesfrom among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A) In everyday life, food is often used to enhance mood or “treat” ourselves.
B) However, if comfort eating becomes a habit, it often comes with health costs, such as
weightgain.
C) Eating tasty food releases dopamine in our brains, which is strongly associated with
desire andwanting for food.
D) Eating sweet and fatty foods may improve our mood temporarily by making us feel
happierand more energetic while also satisfying our hunger.
E) From an early age, infants learn to associate feeding with being soothed and social
interaction.
A. ACEBD
B. BECAD
C. EACDB
D. ABCDE
E. CAEBD

Answer – C

Q50. Direction: In the given question, there are five sentences A, B, C, D and E, which
whenproperly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of
sentencesfrom among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A) Even as modern science grapples with the rapidly declining bee population, we could
lookback and take a lesson on sustainability from the ancient culture of the Adivasis of the
Nilgiris.
B) Covering the three states of Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, the Nilgiri Biosphere
Reserveis home to over 18 ethnic groups.
C) Of these, Kattunaickens, Kurumbas, Sholigas and Irulas are known to be the primary
honeyhunter tribes.
D) Traditionally, these tribes hunt for honey on the cliffs of the Nilgiris, atop high trees,
insidetree cavities and also in underground hives.
E) In recent times, with reduced forest cover, climate change and government restrictions,
it hasbecome increasingly difficult for these tribes to collect wild honey.
A. ACEBD
B. BECAD
C. EACDB
D. ABCDE
E. CAEBD

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q51. Direction: In the given question, there are five sentences A, B, C, D and E, which
whenproperly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of
sentencesfrom among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A) Panic buying and stockpiling are likely responses to heightened anxiety, fear and
uncertaintyabout the future.
B) Amid the global spread of Covid-19, we are witnessing an increased focus on gathering
foodand supplies.
C) Messages to reassure people there would be continued supply of provisions has done
little toease public anxiety.
D) Being able to exert some control over the situation by gathering goods to store for
lockdownis one- way individuals seek to manage anxiety and fear, and feel protected.
E) We’ve seen images of supermarket shelves emptied of basics such as toilet paper,
pasta, andtinned foods.
A. ACEBD
B. BECAD
C. EACDB
D. ABCDE
E. CAEBD

Answer – B

Q52. Direction: Which of the following phrases (i), (ii), and (iii) given below each
sentenceshould replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence
grammatically correct?Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that
reflect the correct use of phrasein the context of a grammatically correct sentence. If the
sentence is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e.,"No correction required" as the answer.
The business looks at this new country and decides to move there because, from
theirstandpoint, they can make costs and be more efficient.
i. it would benefit their CEO's personal life
ii. they can save costs and be more efficient
iii. but to be cost efficient and tax exemptions.
A. Only i
B. Only iii
C. ii and iii
D. Only ii
E. No correction required

Answer – D

Q53. Direction: Which of the following phrases (i), (ii), and (iii) given below each sentence
should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically
correct?Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct
use of phrasein the context of a grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct
as it is, mark (E) i.e.,"No correction required" as the answer.
The company should insure its workers because if uninsured workers end up into the ER,
theburden falls on society, not the company.
i. when these uninsured workers end in ER
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

ii. when the uninsured workers fall ill

iii. if these uninsured workers suffer injury
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. ii and iii
E. No correction required

Answer – D

Q54. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the
sentence, three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the
sentence.
Choose the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of the
sentence. Incase the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E), i.e., “No correction
required”.Unlike in Western countries, where most of the salt comes into processed
foods, most saltconsumed in China comes from the salt added while cooking.
i. more salts are making their way into processed food
ii. more salts are becoming a part of the produce food
iii. most of the salt comes from processed foods
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. ii and iii
E. No correction required

Answer – C

Q55. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the
sentence, three alternatives to the bold part are given which may help improve the
sentence.Choose the option that reflects the correct use of the phrase in the context of
the sentence. Incase the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E), i.e., “No correction
required”.The earliest rocket parts were carried to ISRO over cycles and bullock carts.
i. earliest rocket positions would be carried
ii. further rocket parts would be carried
iii. earliest rocket parts was to be carried
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. ii and iii
E. No correction required

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q56. Direction: Choose the word from the following options which is opposite in meaning
tothe other words.
A. Incipient
B. Inceptive
C. Inchoate
D. Rudimentary
E. Developed

Answer – E

Q57. Direction: Choose the word from the following options which is opposite in meaning
tothe other words.
A. Uncanny
B. Bizarre
C. Eerie
D. Unearthly
E. Natural

Answer - E

Q58. Direction: In the given questions, one statement with a blank is given along with
fourwords. Two of the given words can fit into the given blank. Five options with
variouscombinations of these words are given. Pick up the combination of the words that
fit into theblank.In just over three months, the number of Covid-19 patients has swelled
past a million, but information about the disease spreads much faster.
a. Authentic
b. Dodgy
c. Clandestine
d. Dubious
A. b-d
B. b-c
C. c-a
D. d-c
E. a-b

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q59. Direction: In the given questions, one statement with a blank is given along with
fourwords. Two of the given words can fit into the given blank. Five options with
variouscombinations of these words are given. Pick up the combination of the words that
fit into theblank.
The immediate priority, of course, is to the spread of the pandemic
throughwidespread testing, rigorous quarantines, and social distancing.
a. Suppress
b. Catalyse
c. Inhibit
d. Ascend
A. b-c
B. c-d
C. a-d
D. c-a
E. a-b

Answer - D

Q60. Direction: In the given questions, one statement with a blank is given along with
fourwords. Two of the given words can fit into the given blank. Five options with
variouscombinations of these words are given. Pick up the combination of the words that
fit into theblank.A ratings downgrade coupled with a loss of investor confidence could
lead to a exchange rate and a dramatic increase in long term rates in this
environment, and substantiallosses for our financial institutions.
a. Plunging
b. Proliferating
c. Plummeting
d. Stagnant
A. c-d
B. a-c
C. a-b
D. b-d
E. a-d

Answer –A

(Directions 61-65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questionsgiven
below it. Certain words are written in BOLD to help you locate them whileanswering some
of the questions.
A tailor and a goldsmith were travelling together, and one evening when the sun had sunk
behind the mountains, they heard the sound of distant music, which became more and
more distinct. It sounded strange, but so pleasant that they forgot all their weariness and
stepped quickly onwards. The moon had already arisen when they reached a hill on which
they saw a crowd of little men and women, who had taken each other's hands, and were
WHIRLING round in the dance with the greatest pleasure and delight.
They sang to it most charmingly, and that was the music which the travelers had heard. In
the midst of them sat an old man who was rather taller than the rest. He wore a parti-
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

coloured coat, and his HOARY beard hung down over his chest. The two remained standing
full of astonishment, and watched the dance. The old man made a sign that they should
enter, and the little folks willingly opened their circle. The goldsmith, who had a hump, and
like all hunch-backs was daring enough, stepped in. The tailor felt a little afraid at first, and
held back, but when he saw how merrily all was going, he plucked up his courage, and
followed. The circle closed again directly, and the little folks went on singing and dancing
with the wildest leaps. The old man, however, took a large knife which hung to his girdle,
whetted it, and when it was sufficiently sharpened, he looked round at the strangers.
They were terrified, but they had not much time for reflection, for the old man seized the
goldsmith and with the greatest speed, shaved the hair of his head clean off, and then the
same thing happened to the tailor. But their fear left them when, after he had finished his
work, the old man clapped them both on the shoulder in a friendly manner, as much as to
say, they had behaved well to let all that be done to them willingly, and without any
struggle. He pointed with his finger to a heap of coals which lay at one side, and signified to
the travelers by his gestures that they were to fill their pockets with them. Both of them
obeyed, although they did not know of what use the coals would be to them, and then they
went on their way to seek a shelter for the night.
When they had got into the valley, the clock of the neighbouring monastery struck twelve,
and the song ceased. In a moment all had vanished, and the hill lay in SOLITUDE in the
moonlight.
The two travelers walked onwards and eventually found an inn, and covered themselves up
on their straw-beds with their coats, but in their weariness forgot to take the coals out of
them before doing so. A heavy weight on their limbs awakened them earlier than usual.
They felt in the pockets, and could not believe their eyes when they saw that they were not
filled with coals, but with pure gold. Happily, too, the hair of their heads and beards was
there again as thick as ever.
They had now become rich folks, but the goldsmith, who, in accordance with his
greedydisposition, had filled his pockets better, was twice as rich as the tailor. A greedy
man,even if he has much, still wished to have more, so the goldsmith proposed to the
tailorthat they should wait another day, and go out again in the evening in order to bring
backstill greater treasures from the old man on the hill. The tailor refused, and said, I
haveenough and am content. Now I shall be a master, and marry my dear object - for so
hecalled his sweetheart - and I am a happy man. But he stayed another day to please him.
In the evening the goldsmith hung a couple of bags over his shoulders that he might beable
to stow away a great deal, and took the road to the hill. He found, as on the nightbefore, the
little folks at their singing and dancing, and the old man again shaved himclean, and made
signs to him to take some coal. He was not slow about stuffing as muchinto his bags as
would go, went back quite delighted, and covered himself over with hiscoat. Even if the gold
does weigh heavily, said he, I will gladly bear that, and at last he fellasleep with the sweet
ANTICIPATION of waking in the morning an enormously rich man.
When he opened his eyes, he got up in haste to examine his pockets, but how amazed
hewas when he drew nothing out of them but black coals, and that howsoever often he
puthis hands in them. The gold I got the night before is still there for me, thought he,
andwent and brought it out, but how shocked he was when he saw that it likewise had
againturned into coal. He smote his forehead with his dusty black hand, and then he felt
thathis whole head was bald and smooth, as was also the place where his beard should
havebeen. But his misfortunes were not yet over. He now remarked for the first time that
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

inaddition to the hump on his back, a second, just as large, had grown in front on his chest.
Then he recognized the punishment of his greediness, and began to weep aloud.The good
tailor, who was awakened by this, comforted the unhappy fellow as well as hecould, and
said, you have been my COMRADE in my travelling time. You shall stay withme and share in
my wealth. He kept his word, and the poor goldsmith never wanted foranything, but he was
obliged to carry the two humps as long as he lived, and to cover hisbald head with a cap.

Q.61) What happened when they entered into the valley?

A. They covered themselves up on their straw beds with their coats.
B. They saw an old man.
C. They pointed with their fingers to a heap of coals.
D. The clock of the neighbouring monastery struck twelve and the song ceased.
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q.62) In the given story, who had a hump on his back?

A. The old man
B. The Goldsmith
C. The Tailor
D. The Tailor & the Goldsmith both
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q.63) Why did tailor refused to wait another day?

A. Because he was extremely tired.
B. He got disappointed because he found less gold
C. Because his pockets were filled with coals.
D. Because he had enough gold and was a happy man.
E. None of these

Q.64) What could be an appropriate moral of the story?

A. A tailor and a Goldsmith
B. There is a victory ahead of fear
C. The importance of contentment & satisfaction in life
D. The result of greediness is always harmful
E. None of these

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.65) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to theword
HOARY as used in the passage.
A. Modern
B. Designer
C. Developed
D. Old-Fashioned
E. None Of These

Answer – D

Q.66) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the wordprinted in
BOLD as used in the passage.
WHIRLING
A. Rotating
B. Creeping
C. Dragging
D. Crawling
E. None Of These

Answer – A

Q.67) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the wordprinted in
BOLD as used in the passage.
COMRADE
A. Challenger
B. Companion
C. Nemesis
D. Archenemy
E. None Of These

Answer – B

Q.68) Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the wordprinted
in BOLD as used in the passage.
ANTICIPATION
A. Intuition
B. Foresight
C. Astonishment
D. Expectation
E. None Of These

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.69) Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed
in BOLD as used in the passage.
SOLITUDE
A. Isolation
B. Loneliness
C. Reclusion
D. Company
E. None Of These

Answer – D

Q70) In the following questions, two columns are given containing three sentences
/phrases each. In first column, the sentences / phrases are A, B and C whereas the same
inthe second column are marked as D, E and F. A sentence / phrase from the first
columnmay or may not combine with another sentence / phrase in the second column to
form agrammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options
out ofwhich four have possible combinations of sentences / phrases that are
grammatically andcontextually correct. If none of the combinations gives us
grammatically and contextuallycorrect sentences, mark E as your answer.

Column (2)
Column (1)
(A) and the main reason
(A) The food there is so bad
behind thisis the emergence
thatyou wouldn't even
of thestudents community in
(B) It is very cold out there
hostelsacross the country.
despitethe fact that
(B) think of going back
(C) Fast food joints in India
there foranything else.
areincreasingly becoming
(C) the government has
popular
failed tocapitalize on the
fact.

Q.70) Find the best possible combination.

A. A-E and B-D
B. C-D and B-F
C. A-E and C-D
D. C-D
E. None of these
Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

(Directions 71-74): In the following questions, some part of the sentence is highlighted in
BOLD. Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part printed in
BOLD to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given
then choose option E 'No Correction required' as the answer.
Q.71) Maslow's Hierarchy of needs states that we must satisfy each need in turn STARTING
WITH THE FIRST, DEALING IN THE MOST OBVIOUS NEEDS OF SURVIVAL ITSELF.
A. Starting With The First, Which Deals With The Most Obvious Needs Of Survival Itself.
B. First Starting With The One That Deals With The Most Obvious Needs Of Survival
Itself.
C. Starting With The First, Which Is Dealt With The Most Obvious Needs Of Survival
Itself.
D. Starting With The First One That Deals In The Most Obvious Need Of Survival Itself.
E. No Improvement Required

Answer – A

Q.72) An individual's behavior may change over time, becoming bizarre if medicationis
stopped AND RETURNS CLOSER TO NORMAL WHEN RECEIVING APPROPRIATE
TREATMENT.
A. And Can Return Closer To Normal When Receiving Appropriate Treatment.
B. And Returning Closer To Normal When Receiving Appropriate Treatment.
C. While Returned Closer To Normal When Receiving Appropriate Treatment.
D. After Returning Close To Normal When Receiving Appropriate Treatment.
E. No Improvement Required

Answer – B

Q.73) Building peace and transcending regional and global conflicts CANNOT BE
LEFTENTIRELY TO THE ACTION AND VOLITION OF POLITICAL LEADERS.
A. cannot leave entirely to the action and volition of political leaders.
B. could not be left entirely for the action and volition of political leaders.
C. cannot be left entirely for the action and volition from political leaders.
D. should not be left entirely to the action and volition for political leaders.
E. No improvement required

Answer – E

Q.74) Opposing free trade, some argue, IS TANTAMOUNT TO SUPPORT ECONOMIC

INJUSTICE.
A. Is Tantamount To Supporting Economic Injustice.
B. Is Tantamount Of Supporting Economic Injustice.
C. Is Tantamount With Supporting Economic Injustice.
D. Is Tantamountly Supporting Economic Injustice.
E. No Improvement Required

Answer –A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

(Directions 75-80): Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions. Certain
words/ phrases are given in BOLD to help you locate them whileanswering some of the
questions.
Smartwatches can be a great tool for heart health monitoring. Most popularsmartwatches
on the market offer a heart rate monitor function, which has beenprimarily used by fitness
enthusiasts for tracking their activity levels during a workoutor throughout the day. Tracking
heart rate is a great way to chart your own personalmetabolic rate and allows you to
compare your rate of exertion to other members of yourage group, giving you a great
indicator of your heart health. Heart rate monitoring can bea fun metric to track, but it's
also one of the cardiologist's primary tools for assessingwhether your health is functioning
properly.
Anyone can check their heart rate by pressing a hand against the wrist, which checks
theflow of blood in the radial artery, or by pressing a hand against the neck, which
checksthe carotid artery. Physicians often use an Electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) to interpret
apatient's heartbeat. An EKG offers information that can tell your doctor four things:
• Whether your heartbeat is irregular
• If your heart is enlarged
• Whether your heart is getting enough oxygen
• Whether you've had a heart attack in the past

Smartwatches track heart rate in a similar way as checking the pulse, but without the
useof physical pressure. Popular Smartwatches from brands like Apple, Samsung, and
Fitbituse photoplethysmography to detect a heartbeat. This is the process of projecting
a greenlight on the skin, which gets absorbed by the blood. More green light being
reflected isrelated to lower blood flow, which indicates that the heart is in-between
beats.
While smartwatches are not as complex as an EKG, new studies have shown that
theymay be capable of detecting one of the same health issues that an EKG can.
IrregularHeartbeat, also known as Atrial Fibrillation or AFib, is a health condition that
can be aprecursor to serious cardiac events and stroke. Testing for AFib is a simple, but
importantprocess for older adults, and it's important to contact a doctor if you've
experiencedsymptoms, which include heart palpitations, shortness of breath, and chest
pain.Some forms of AFib are harder to detect however, and having a heartbeat-
enabledsmartwatch might be a great tool for finding the condition sooner. A study
funded byApple in the New England Journal of Medicine found that smartwatches had
the capacityto detect AFib, but weren't necessarily reliable in always detecting it. Of the
400,000participants in the study, 52% received an alert from their smartwatch that they
hadexperienced episodes of an irregular heartbeat after 117 days of monitoring. Of
those thatsaw a doctor after the notification, it was found that 70% of them experienced
irregularheartbeat after taking a long-term EKG test. This shows that smartwatches can
be usedto detect AFib, but they will not catch it in 100% of patients.
There's anecdotal evidence of smartwatches saving lives, but they're useless without
thework of medical professionals. Smartwatches are a great way to monitor your heart
rateand take an active step in understanding heart health, but they are not
medicalequipment. Smartwatches may be capable of detecting AFib, but they're not
infallible,and no substitute for the advice of a trained cardiologist.
If you're experiencing uncomfortable symptoms like weakness, reduced ability
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

toexercise, fatigue, light-headedness, shortness of breath, or chest pain, it's imperative

tospeak to a medical professional, regardless of whether you're wearing a smartwatch.
AFibage can be treated with a myriad of both invasive and non-invasive options, with
bloodthinners being a simple and effective solution for many patients, but it's important
toconsult a cardiologist early.

Q.75) Which of the following is true about smart watches' role as per the passage?
A. It is used as a widespread screen for atrial fibrillation
B. It monitors and assess people comprehensively outside of the clinical setting
C. It is majorly used by younger strata of the population
D. It works as a generic barometer and cannot be deemed as a medical device
E. None of the above

Answer –D

Q.76) What of the following best summarises the passage in one line?
A. AFib is permanent, and medicines or other treatments can't restore a normal heart
rhythm.
B. How smartwatches can bypass the need of clinic laboratories?
C. Using smartwatch to detect AFib cardiac arrest remedy.
D. The watch is smart, but can't replace your doctor.
E. Use of photoplethysmography to detect a heartbeat.

Answer – D

Q.77) As per the passage, can smartwatch be used as a substitute for

medicalprofessionals?
A. Yes, definitely
B. Yes, partially
C. No, definitely
D. No, partially
E. Cannot be determined

Answer – C

Q.78) From the following, find the word which means similar to the word given in bold:
Palpitations
A. Thumping
B. Closing
C. Stability
D. Retreat
E. Motionless

Answer –A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.79) From the following, find the word which means opposite to the word given in
bold: Infallible
A. Apodictic
B. Efficacious
C. Impeccable
D. Errant
E. Uncanny

Answer – D

Q.80) From the following, find the word which means opposite to the word given in
bold. Invasive.
A. Incursive
B. Invading
C. Encroaching
D. Defensive
B. Trespassing

Answer – D

(Directions 81-83): Each question contains three statements, one or more ofwhich may
not be grammatically correct. You are required to identify the incorrectstatements from
the options given below and mark that as your answer.
Q.81) I. The IMF has pressed Pakistan to improve tax revenue collection.
II. Pakistani rupee had depreciated by 30 percent again the U.S. dollar.
III. Pakistan's credit rating were downgraded by S&P, which cited diminishedgrowth
prospects.
A. Only II
B. Only I and Il
C. Only III
D. Only II and III
E. All are correct

Answer – D

Q.82) I. The top auditor must recuse himself from auditing the deal.
II. The Congress has claimed that the previous deal includes a technology
transferagreement with HAL.
III. The NDA has not disclosed details of the price as of yet.
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Only II
D. Only III
E. All are correct

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.83) I. The Rafale issue was raised before the Supreme Court, which did not findany
substance in the allegations.
II. Finance Secretary is only a designation given to the senior most secretary in thefinance
ministry.
Ill. Under the original proposal, 18 warplanes were to be procured in a fly -awaycondition.
A. Only I and II
B. Only II
C. Only I and III
D. Only III
E. All are correct

Answer – E

(Directions 84-88): In the following passage, some of the words have been madebold, each
of which is preceded by a letter. Find the suitable word from the optionsgiven below that
could replace the bold word so as to make the paragraphmeaningful.
Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan's note of caution on the next financial crisis that
could be building up needs to be taken in all _A_ consideration. In his note to Parliament's
Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan has_ B_ established
three major sources of potential trouble: Mudra credit, which is basically small-ticket loans
granted to micro and small enterprises; _C_ contributing to farmers through Kisan Credit
Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the
Small Industries Development Bank of India.
The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is ?6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the total
outstanding bank credit. These loans have been _D_ sanctioned under thePradhan Mantri
Mudra Yojana, which aims to 'fund the unfunded', and is a E.signature scheme of the NDA
government. Given that these are small loans up to Rs10lakh each, with the borrowers
mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitorthem very closely. It is debatable
whether banks have the resources and manpower to dothis when they are chasing the
bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly thesedays, recoveries. The risk is that these
small-ticket loans will drop under the radar andbuild into a large credit issue in course of
time. The same logic holds true for crop loansmade through Kisan Credit Cards.

Q.84) Fill in the blank A.

A. constitution
B. yield
C. stability
D. seriousness
E. no replacement required

Answer –D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.85) Fill in the blank B.

A. Utilized
B. Determined
C. Flagged
D. Guessed
E. No Replacement Required

Answer – C

Q.86) Fill in the blank C.

A. Borrowing
B. Helping
C. Lending
D. Assisting
E. No replacement required

Answer- C

Q.87) Fill in the blank D.

A. Processed
B. Given
C. Disturbed
D. Distributed
E. No Replacement Required

Answer – E

Q.88) Fill in the blank E.

A. Trademark
B. Promising
C. Loyal
D. Capable
E. No Replacement Required

Answer –E

Q.89) In each of the questions given below, a phrase/idiom is given in BOLDfollowed by

five sentences with some part of it as CAPITALS. You have to identifythe sentence in which
the bold part can be replaced by the given bold phrase/idiomto make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct.
Entered upon
A. I have no time to ENGAGE IN tittle-tattle.
B. The president has just MOVED ON another term of office
C. There is a narrow bridge ahead, so you should EASE DOWN.
D. She LAID ASIDE her knitting to rest her eyes for a moment.
E. He LAUNCHED INTO a long series of excuses for his behavior
Answer - B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.90) In each of the questions given below, a phrase/idiom is given in BOLDfollowed by

five sentences with some part of it as CAPITALS. You have to identifythe sentence in which
the bold part can be replaced by the given bold phrase/idiomto make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct.
Q.90) Profit From
A. When I tried to lift the cup, the handle CAME OFF.
B. The army was PULLED OFF from the valley after the battle
C. His protracted illness has PULLED HIM DOWN a lot.
D. I have immensely SALVAGED FROM her sound advice
E. He worked hard to PROVIDE FOR his large family.

Answer – D

Direction (91 - 95): In the given question, five words are printed in bold and are numbered
A, B, C,D and E. The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect and need to be
exchanged withanother highlighted to make the sentence correct. Find the words that
need to be exchanged.
Q91. As the spread (A) of habitat and biodiversity loss suggest (B) humans to more
zoonotic diseasesthat destruction (C) from animals to humans, a key programme to study
the spread of these diseasesand expose (D) ways to control them has been in the works
(E) in India since 2018.
A. Only A-B
B. Both C-D & B-E
C. Both A-D & C-E
D. Both A-C & B-D
E. No exchange required

Answer – D

Q92. The public school's multicultural (A) included curriculum (B) program that taught (C)
studentsabout ethnic (D) from different inventors (E) background.
A. A-B and C-D
B. D-B and C-D
C. A-B and D-E
D. B-D and D-E
E. No exchange required

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q93. With its diverse world (A), the cities (B) is considered (C) one of the most
cosmopolitan city (D)in the population (E).
A. D-E
B. D-A
C. A-D and D-E
D. A-E and B-D
E. No exchange required

Answer – D

Q94. To restrict (A) the study to the compliant patients, only those completing (B) a
second
department (C) at the outpatient visit (D) were included (E).
A. A-E and B-D
B. C-D
C. A-B and D-E
D. B-C
E. No exchange required

Answer – B

Q95. As the comment (A) are at a delicate (B) stage the senior staff at the observatory
preferred (C) to make no negotiations (D) when contacted (E) yesterday.
A. A-B
B. B-C
C. D-E
D. A-D
E. No exchange required

Answer – D

Direction (96 - 98): In this question, two columns I and Il and three sentences are given,
which aredivided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consist of first half of each sentence
and Column II (D,E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with
column Il, so that thesentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct.
Choose the option as youranswer.

Q,96. I.
A) There was a biographical note about
B) His research is at the cutting
C) I have no idea how to set

ll.
D) edge of new therapies for cancer.
E) the author on the back of the book.
F) off changing a tyre on a car.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

A. B-E and C-F

B. A-E and B-D
C. A-E
D. B-F
E. A-E, B-D and C-F

Answer – B

Q97. l.
A) The more precious the metals that go into the
B) We must ensure that tourism develop
C) The government is being widely
II.
D) criticized in the press for its strict step.
E) in harmony with the environment.
F) making of the alloy, the higher are the charge.
A. B-E and C-D
B. A-E, B-D and C-F
C. A-E and C-E
D. B-F
E. None of the above

Answer – E

Q98. l.
A) This method was criticized for being wasteful
B) The admission process was faulty
C) The portal aims at improving the
II.
D) These had to be conducted all over again.
E) And causing inconvenience to the common man.
F) Availability of coal to consumers.

A. B-E and C-D

B. A-D, B-F and C-E
C. A-E and C-E
D. A-E and C-F
E. None of the above

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (99 - 103): Given below are six statements A, B, C, D, E and F, which when
arranged in thecorrect order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. The sentence
marked E is fixed and wouldfit in the fifth position. Rearrange the other statements in a
proper sequence to form a meaningfulparagraph, then answer the questions that follow.
A) They have worked against the rules which state that Gl is given to goods where a given
quality and reputation are drawn from its geographic origin.
B) The result of this belief is that today, India has more than 600 GI products in defiance of
logic, rules and any economic rationale.
C) The officials who hand out the GI trademarks believe that they have the mandate to push
up the number of Gls it awards, while blithely ignoring the rules that govern its issuance.
D) This is a perpetually silly reason presented by the officials while assigning Gls at the
Geographical Indications (Gls) registry.
E) However, the officials seem to believe in numbers and made people jostle for the Gl label
in the mistaken belief that it would magically boost their business.
F) The tag was meant to safeguard monopolies and was a right given to a community of
producers, not individuals.

Q99. Which of the following will be the first statement after rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Answer – C

Q100. Which of the following will be the fourth statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. E
C. B
D. F
E. A

Answer – F

Q101. Which of the following will be the third statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. E
C. B
D. F
E. A

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q102. Which of the following will be the second statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. D
C. B
D. A
E. F

Answer – B

Q103. Which of the following will be the last statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. E
C. B
D. F
E. A

Answer – B

Direction (104 - 109): In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been
numbered.These numbers correspond to the question numbers. Against each question,
five words have beensuggested, one of which would fill the blank appropriately. Mark the
suitable word as the answer.
Countries are (###Q104###) species to move to new places by enabling climate change,
and at thesame time, making it harder for them to move. Across geologic time, the Earth
has apparently survivedfive mass extinctions, and we are on the verge of the Sixth. We
don't believe humanity can survivethis wave, unless we make rapid (###Q105###). There
has been a rising tide of ignorance in the faceof absolute facts in the global arena. The
very science that the world is (###Q106###) to reach themoon, Mars and beyond, is now
telling us that we might have to abandon ship if we keep pollutingand (###Q107###) the
environment and have leaders who ignore science. Large corporations,especially energy
corporations, release carbon emissions into the atmosphere. Factors that have
beeninfluencing these emissions are very much within our control. One of them is
consumerism which(###Q108###) climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization
of the United Nations, in itsreport titled 'Livestock's Long Shadow', argues that livestock is
a major stressor on many ecosystemsand on the planet as a whole. It is one of the largest
sources of greenhouse gases, and these gases willonly increase if we, as consumers, don't
make conscious (###Q109###).

Q104. Find the appropriate word in each case.

A. Carrying
B. Abandoning
C. Forcing
D. Finding
E. Ensuring

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q105. Find the appropriate word in each case.

A. Proceeds
B. Amends
C. Plots
D. Gauge
E. Atone

Answer – B

Q,106. Find the appropriate word in each case.

A. daunting
B. craving
C. heartening
D. scraping
E. using

Answer – E

Q107. Find the appropriate word in each case.

A. Outgrowing
B. Illustrating
C. Warping
D. Abusing
E. Depraving

Answer - D

Q108. Find the appropriate word in each case.

A. Amplifies
B. Misemploys
C. Expounds
D. Elucidates
E. Clucks

Answer – A

Q109. Find the appropriate word in each case.

A. Illuminates
B. Transitive
C. Choices
D. Reasoning
E. Prophecies

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (110 - 114): A statement with one blank is given below. Choose the set of words
from thegiven options which can be used to fill the given blank.

Q110. Despite almost ubiquitous scepticism, the electoral bonds have prevailed and, that
too,almost solely rhetorical claims of "transparency of political funding system,"
"clean money," and "donor's anonymity."
i. with the backing of the ruling government's
ii. based on the endorsement derived from the political party at power's
iii. backed by the political party at power's
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and ii
D. Only ili
E. All of these

Answer – C

Q111. Impeachment experts testified before the House judiciary committee on

Wednesday thatDonald Trump's misconduct offeredas prescribed by the constitution and
appliedover the course of US history.
i. the perfect example for impeachment
ii. the correct case
iii. a textbook case of impeachable offenses

A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and ii
D. Both i and iii
E. All of these

Answer – D

Q112. More energy intake than energy expenditure, will in the long-term lead to fat
deposition,insulin resistance and a fatty liverdiet composition.
i) regardless of the
ii) despite having a proper
iii) though a different
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both ii and iii
D. Both i and ii
E. All of these

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q113. Some eighty thousand years ago, hunters and gatherers ate fruit sporadically, since
thesewere
i) not widely available.
ii) not good hunting.
iii) competes with birds.
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and ili
D. Both i and ii
E. All of these

Answer – A

Q114. cloud based blockchain services on various platforms from start-up to

language platforms, experimentation is getting easier with time.
i) In the rise of
ii) Due to the emergence of
lil) With the use of

A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and ii
D. Both ii and ili
E. All of these

Answer – D

Direction (115 - 120): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
Most every job seeker has, at some point, either applied to or interviewed for a position
only to be met by radio silence. Follow-up emails go unanswered, and the once-promising
opportunity vanishes into the void. A few years ago, this might simply have been called part
of the job hunt. Today, this disappearing act is referred to as "ghosting," and it's a practice
that's becoming more prevalent among applicants. Now the tables have turned. It's
employees who more and more often are ghosting employers. With the unemployment rate
at a low 3.5%, job seekers are optimistic about the job market, so much so that 28% of job
seekers have backed out of an offer after accepting it, with 44%of those doing so for
another, more attractive proposition, according to a study. If multiple companies are
pursuing one candidate, he or she may accept the first offer, set a start date and then
receive and accept a second offer without letting the first company know. Research from
Indeed found that of the 83% of employers who report having been ghosted, 65% say the
candidate accepted their offer but failed to show up on day one. Some 27% ceased
communication after getting a counteroffer from their current employer and 19% after
hearing negative feedback about the company. And job seekers aren't only ghosting
employers after accepting offers, says McDonald, who has first-hand experience with this
phenomenon. Some are bailing on interviews, while others are completing several rounds of
interviews before shutting down the lines of communication. How can employers avoid this
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

fate? McDonald advises that companies stay in constant communication with candidates to
minimize the likelihood of them being a no-show. Once they accept, hiring managers should
continue correspondence, whether through emails, texts, phone calls or even in-person
meetings. At the end of the day, though, it's really up to the candidates. While Indeed found
that 94% of job seekers who have ghosted say they've not experienced many, if any,
negative repercussions, McDonald says it's only a matter of time before their actions catch
up to them. Once job seekers ghost, they burn bridges, ones that can be challenging to
repair, and with every future job search will come the chance of running into someone from
their past. He advises that candidates who are no longer interested in pursuing
opportunities communicate that to hiring managers, whether in the form of an email or a
phone call. When the average cost-per-hire is $4,425, the sooner, the better.

Q115. Which of the following statements can be correctly inferred from the passage?
I. The author states that nowadays, even though the unemployment rate is 3.5%, job
seekers do not get jobs easily and they have to stick to whatever jobs they get.
I. The culture of 'ghosting' is appreciated by big companies.
Ill. The author states that the potential employees should not ghost the companies they
get selected in as there will be consequences, if not today, but in future.
A. Only I
B. Only I!
C. Only III
D. Both I and Il
E. Both Il and III

Answer – C

Q116. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the passage?
A. Out of 83 percent of the employers who were ghosted, research from Indeed found
that 35% of the candidates who accepted their offer and showed up on day one.
B. 6 percent of the job seekers who have ghosted might have faced negative
repercussions.
C. Companies can avoid ghosting of employees by using their hiring managers to be in
constant touch with the employee whether through emails, texts, phone calls or
even in-person meetings.
D. According to the passage, since the unemployment rate is low, it gives more power
to employees when it comes to selecting a job.
E. A person who is ghosting after accepting the job keep in touch in the form of an
email or a phone call.

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q117. According to the author, what is the central theme of the passage?
A. Sudden vanishing of employees after accepting the job
B. Bad treatment of the employers
C. Proper jobs in the market
D. Growth in jobs market due to a boost in the economy
E. Reading habits of company employees

Answer - A

Q118. Out of the given options, choose the most similar meaning to the phrase marked in
bold in the passage 'vanishes into the void'.
A. as smooth as butter
B. vanishing into the ocean
C. over the moon
D. fat chance
E. vanishing into thin air

Answer – E

Q119. What determines the 'ghosting' as it is becoming more prevalent among applicants?
A. Lack of job opportunity in the market
B. Cost of application
C. Employers do not follow back
D. Rudeness of employers
E. Multiple opportunities in the job market

Answer – E

Q120. Which of the following correctly describes the tone of the passage?
A. Speculative
B. Grandiose
C. Factual
D. Reflective
E. Nostalgic

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Direction (121-126): In the following passage, there are blanks, each followed by a word
given in bold. All these bold words are jumbled and do not necessarily fit in the blank
against them. Find the appropriate fit for every blank and mark the answer accordingly.
There is a lot of academic (A) (unique) in Marketing on retailing and most of it looks at the
retailindustry in North American and European countries. The retail industry in (B)
(organised) economiessuch as India presents challenges that are typically not seen in these
contexts. The learning from thedeveloped world cannot be applied directly to the retail
industry in the emerging economies. TheIndian retail industry has certain key features that
make it (C) (requires). First, the retail space isdominated by traditional kirana stores. Walk
through a street and you will find more kirana stores than(D) (emerging) retail outlets like
Big Bazar or Reliance Fresh. Second, the government regulation (E) (printed) fast moving
consumer goods (FMCG) manufacturers to print the "Maximum Retail Price" orMRP on the
package of the product. In the US, the retailer (F) (relatively) the price paid by theconsumer
but here the MRP is (G) (decides) on the package. This anchors the final retail price for
aproduct. Third, you often see retailers offering extra price and quantity benefits at the
store level likediscounts or bundled products. Manufacturer-led promotions are (H)
(reshaping) infrequent. Veryrarely would you see Unilever India or a Proctor & Gamble
offering a 15% extra for their regular 180mlshampoo. Finally, we have the ( I) (research) of
rural areas and cities of different sizes spread acrossthe country. Increasing urbanisation,
increasing incomes, and rising aspirations for a better quality oflife are (J) (diversity) the
Indian retail space.

Q121. Which of the following fits in blank (A)?

A. Printed
B. Diversity
C. Requires
D. Reshaping
E. Research

Answer – E

Q122. Which of the following fits in blank (B)?

A. Printed
B. Reshaping
C. Unique
D. Research
E. Emerging

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q123. Which of the following fits in blank (C)?

A. Diversity
B. Decides
C. Printed
D. Reshaping
E. Unique

Answer – E

Q124. Which of the following fits in blank (D)?

A. Research
B. Diversity
C. Organised
D. Printed
E. Emerging

Answer - C

Q125. Which of the following fits in blank (F)?

A. Printed
B. Diversity
C. Requires
D. Organised
E. Decides

Answer - E
Q126. Which of the following fits in blank (H)?
A. Decides
B. Printed
C. Relatively
D. Organised
E. unique

Answer – C

Direction (127-133): Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.
Certain words areprinted in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
In the public's eye, military men are still the sole sufferers of PTSD. But research shows that
women are in some cases twice as likely to develop the disorder. Despite being far more
vulnerable, women are often misdiagnosed due to cultural stereotypes, and there's a huge
gap in research on which kinds of treatments work best for which kinds of people. Studies
and research programs have been designed, until recently, to understand men with PTSD.
The same is true for support systems and treatment centres. In the legal system, women
who report PTSD from rape are less likely to be believed than men who report PTSD from
combat. Research shows that women are at a higher risk of PTSD. While men experience
more traumatic events in their lives, women are, depending on which study you look at, as
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

much as twice as likely to develop PTSD, but no one really knows why. Pervasive male
prejudice against women is another factor that can diminish unit cohesion for female
soldiers. Because women are less likely than men to experience unit cohesion while serving
in the military, women are less likely to develop the social support structures that will help
prevent them from developing PTSD. For women, this hesitation to self-identify as a sufferer
of PTSD could be even greater; historically, female soldiers have struggled to be counted as
equals to men on the battlefield. Women, stereotypically considered to possess less
emotional fortitude than men, may be unwilling to admit that they are suffering from PTSD
lest they appear to conform to this stereotype. That domestic bit has another face too:
Where men who've experienced trauma might be able to take time off to recover, women
are expected to maintain their domestic, caregiving roles, which make it harder for women
to address symptoms of post-traumatic stress for fear of "failing" at their roles as mother,
daughter and wife. "Gendered social roles can compound the negative impact," said Dawne
Vogt, a research psychologist at the Women's Health Sciences Division of the National
Centre for PTSD. "So they might have additional stress when they're dealing with something.
"Technically, PTSD is largely the same for men and women, characterized by things like fear
based anxiety, sleep disturbance, flashbacks, feelings of detachment and more. And both
men and women often experience multiple conditions alongside PTSD. But they seem to
develop different sets of additional problems. Women tend to develop depression alongside
their PTSD, while men tend to tack on substance abuse. What that means is that men with
PTSD tend to show a different profile than women do. Men tend to lash out, showing anger,
hostility, explosiveness and unpredictability. Women, often because of their depression,
tend to do the opposite, becoming withdrawn and turning to self harm. What is clear is that
women who return from combat, with PTSD or not, often have a harder time returning to
their lives. According to a report by the Departments of Veterans Affairs, Defence, Labour
and Housing and Urban Development, "America's nearly 300,000 women veterans are put
at risk by a system designed for and dominated by male veterans." This includes lack of
access to peer support, group therapy and specialized mental health care for things like
PTSD. Recent changes made by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs have
improved treatment options for female veterans living with PTSD, but there is still more that
needs to be done. Women veterans are also more likely to be unemployed than male
veterans, and at least twice as likely to be homeless. On top of that, women veterans are
more likely to be single parents and come back to dependents. But Vogt says that nobody
knows how this might impact their PTSD, or which treatments might work best. And it's not
necessarily clear that what works for veterans will work for civilians either. Right now, for
example, most of the research on virtual reality uses for treating PTSD focuses on military
men. Another challenge is that until very recently, treatment for PTSD has been more
difficult for women than men to obtain. Before rule changes were enacted in 2010. Only
veterans who encountered direct combat experience qualified to receive disability
payments for PTSD. Because very few women are placed on the front lines, very few were
eligible to receive free treatment for PTSD. However, recent regulation changes have ended
these stipulations, allowing women who serve in any capacity to be eligible for benefits.
Even if female veterans are eligible for these benefits, the quality of the care a wartime
PTSD sufferer receives can vary widely. The United States Department of Veterans Affair
(VA) pays disability benefits to service men and women who have been diagnosed with
PTSD and also provides these individuals with free health care. But while mental health
counselling that comes directly from VA doctors is completely free to veterans, there are
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

often long waiting lists for those who need to be evaluated or treated. Therapy provided by
non-VA professionals may not be covered by health insurance. Access to mental health
professionals who have been specially trained to treat wartime PTSD is often difficult for
those not living near major urban centres. On both the research level and the policy level,
more must be done to help the women who have sacrificed so much for their country
Figuring out which treatment works best for PTSD is still an ongoing process for everybody,
men and women alike. But if researchers want to help treat people equally, they'll need to
include more women.

Q127. What is the style of the passage?

A. Argumentative
B. Descriptive
C. Narrative
D. Persuasive
E. Expository

Answer – E

Q128. Choose the word which is NOT the synonym for the word 'Traumatic' used in the
passage.
A. Daunting
B. Atrocious
C. Formidable
D. Petrifying
E. Inchoate

Answer - E

Q129. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that negative stereotypes
aboutwomen in the military contribute to their increased likelihood to develop PTSD in
which of thefollowing ways?
I. Some male members of the armed forces subscribe to negative stereotypes about
women; thisprejudice may prevent women from forming close bonds with their units.
Il. Women may be less likely than men to admit to suffering from PTSD because they do
not wantto conform to stereotypes that portray women as weak.
Ill. Women are aware of the negative stereotypes that pervade the military. This
awareness maylead to a reduction in self-esteem.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Both Il and III
E. None of these

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q130. According to the passage, what are the reasons that treatment for PTSD has been
more difficultfor women than men to obtain?
I. Most of the research on virtual reality uses for treating PTSD focuses on military men.
II. Because very few women are placed on the front lines, very few were eligible to receive
freetreatment for PTSD as per the previous rules which include that only veterans who
encountereddirect combat experience qualified to receive disability payments for PTSD.
IlI. Women do not follow the regularities properly that are needed in treatment of PTSD
and tendto recover slower than man.
A. Only I
B. Only lI
C. Both I and Il
D. Only III
E. All I, Il and Ill

Answer -C

Q131. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the passage?

A. To explain why military veterans are more likely than civilians to develop PTSD
B. To persuade government officials to increase funding for PTSD treatment centres in
non-urban areas for female veterans
C. To denounce the United States military for the way they have handled female
veterans' mental health problems
D. To educate readers about the problem of insufficient treatment available for female
veterans with PTSD
E. To inform readers about the likely warning signs of PTSD among military veterans

Answer – D

Q132. According to the passage, what makes PTSD harder for a female veteran as
compared to a male veteran?
I. Women also suffers from depression alongside their PTSD, because of their depression,
they self- harm themselves.
Il. Women are not able to take time off to recover from PTSD because females give more
importance and time in maintaining their domestic roles as compared to treatment of
their PTSD.
IlI. Most female veterans refuse to seek treatment
A. Only I
B. Only Il
C. Only III
D. Both I and II
E. All

Answer – D

Q133. Based on information in the passage, which of the following statements best
reflects the author's opinion about the mental health care provided for female veterans?
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

A. Although the VA has not done nearly enough, state and independent agencies have
made up for government deficiencies.
B. The government has done almost nothing to help; the way we treat our female
veterans is a national disgrace.
C. Because service women are more likely than service men to develop PTSD, mental
health care has been better for female veterans.
D. The VA and other government agencies have attempted to provide mental health
care for female veterans, but most of them refuse to seek treatment.
E. E. The amount of care provided has improved over the past few years, but it is still
insufficient
F.
Q134. Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing a connector
and three phrases each. In the first column, the phrases are A, B and C and in the second
column, the phrases are D, E and F. You have to make meaningful sentences using the
connectors in the starting and from the phrases of both the columns. There are five
options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases with the connectors
can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the
options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select 'none of these' as your
answer.

A. A-F & C-D

B. A-F, C-D & B-E
C. B-E
D. A-F
E. A-F & B-E

Answer - D

Q135. Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing a connector
and three phrases each. In the first column, the phrases are A, B and C and in the second
column, the phrases are D, E and F. You have to make meaningful sentences using the
connectors in the starting and from the phrases of both the columns. There are five
options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases with the connectors
can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the
options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select 'none of these' as your
answer.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

A. C-F
B. C-F & A-E
C. A-D
D. A-D & B-E
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q136. Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing a connector
and three phrases each. In the first column, the phrases are A, B and C and in the second
column, the phrases are D, E and F. You have to make meaningful sentences using the
connectors in the starting and from the phrases of both the columns. There are five
options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases with the connectors
can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the
options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select 'none of these' as your
answer.

A. A-E
B. A-E & B-F
C. B-D
D. A-E, B-D & B-F
E. A-D

Answer – C

Direction (137-141): The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of the
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

sentences from among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping
(6) as the last statement.
A) Arif Jamal, a New York Times correspondent, reported, "This time, India's victory was
nearly total:India accepted cease-fire only after it had occupied 740 square miles, though
Pakistan had mademarginal gains of 210 square miles of territory."
B) On September 22, it ended after the intervention of the UN and a ceasefire wasdeclared
the next day.
C) In the August of 1965, Pakistani forces infiltrated India-occupied Kashmir in what they
calledOperation Gibraltar.
D) While our textbooks taught us that we did, people from across the border believe that
they werevictorious.
E) Their troops carried extra-ammunition and entered posing as locals of the area and their
attack onIndian soil led to war without a formal declaration, disrupting peace in the valley.
F) Even though neutral assessments suggest our superiority in the war but technically it
remainsmilitarily inconclusive.

Q137. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
A. А
B. E
C. В
D. D
E. F

Answer – B

Q138. Which of the following can precede the FIFTH sentence of the passage?
A. Historian John Keay wrote this in his book 'India: A History': "Pakistan made gains in
the Rajasthan desert but its main push against India's Jammu-Srinagar road link was
repulsed and Indian tanks advanced to within a sight of Lahore."
B. Under the orders of then Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri, Indian forces had
marched on to Lahore and were in striking distance of the cantonment while denying
the enemy's attempt to capture Indian territory.
C. But if you think about it, Pakistan's aim was to conquer a large part of our territory
but they did not.
D. It is important to note that a ceasefire had been ordered at the Rann of Kutch after
ceasefire violations from April through June of the same year (1965).
E. Pakistani forces had managed to capture an area called Khemka ran, but they were
pushed back by Indian troops, who managed to reach the outskirts of Lahore.

Answer – A

Q139. Which of the following pairs form two consecutive statements after
rearrangement?
A. A-E
B. A-D
C. E-B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. B-C
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q140. Which of the following word would fill the blank given in statement B?
A. Eventually
B. Formally
C. Abruptly
D. Suddenly
E. Slowly

Answer – B

Q141. Which of the following word would fill the blank given in statement B?
A. Eventually
B. Abruptly
C. Suddenly
D. Formally
E. Slowly

Answer – D

Q142. Direction: A sentence with two blanks is given, each blank indicating that
something has beenomitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole.
The move to allow dumping of mercury an outcry from residents of the area
who that high levels of mercury will affect their health and destroy ecologically
sensitive forest area.

A. Resulted, Insisted
B. Provoked, Fear
C. Activated, Supported
D. Angered, Believed
E. Incited, Determined

Answer – E

Q143. Direction: A sentence with two blanks is given, each blank indicating that
something has beenomitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole.
The court had directed the directorate of education to that all schools that had
been allotted land on the condition that they would 25 percent of EWS students
fill theallotted seats.
A. Certify, Admitted
B. Confirmed, Receive
C. Ensure, Admit
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Ensured, Granted
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q144. Direction: A sentence with two blanks is given, each blank indicating that
something has been omitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole.
When building plans of these malls and hospitals are sanctioned, the parking area is not
taken into account. While they show parking as common areas, they get space
for parking and claim that the facility would be provided free of cost.
A. Spaces, Additional
B. Area, Necessary
C. Portion, More
D. Segment, Extra
E. None of these

Answer – A

Q145. Direction: A sentence with two blanks is given, each blank indicating that
something has beenomitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence
as a whole.
If a junior executive neglects his professional development and education, he can
easilyand quickly become obsolete in a world changing at rates.
A. higher, vulnerable
B. management, supreme
C. better, supreme
D. administrative, leading
E. continuing, dizzying

Answer – E

Q146. Direction: In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts. There are
errors in threeparts. Choose the part which doesn't have an error. If all the four parts are
correct, mark E, i.e. 'Allare correct' as the answer.
The roof besides them had a (A) great hole smashed through it, (B)/ and pieces of glass
was lying(C)/ scattered on every direction. (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. All are correct

Answer – B

Q147. Direction: In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts. There are
errors in three parts. Choose the part which doesn't have an error. If all the four parts are
correct, mark E, i.e. 'All are correct' as the answer.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

The Supreme Court has done (A)/ three weeks to the state government to (B)/ be
respondent to its directive and (C)/ file an affidavit citing all the detail. (D)
A. А
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. All are correct

Answer – B

Q148. Direction: In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts. There are
errors in three parts. Choose the part which doesn't have an error. If all the four parts are
correct, mark E, I.e. 'All are correct' as the answer.
Surely, she must feel bitter on (A)/ that fact, and yet neither her voice or (B)/ her
expression gaveany indication (C)/ that she felt antipathetic. (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. All are correct

Answer – C

Q149. Direction: In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts. There are
errors inthree parts. Choose the part which doesn't have an error. If all the four parts are
correct, mark E,I.e. 'All are correct' as the answer.
Aside by his solemn expression, (A)/ there were nothing in the way he acted (B)/ with the
childrenthat might indicate (C)/ anything was wrong among them. (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. All are correct

Answer – C

Q150. Direction: In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts. There are
errors in three parts. Choose the part which doesn't have an error. If all the four parts are
correct, mark E, i.e. 'All are correct' as the answer.
The number of acres (A)/ destroyed by wildfires (B)/ has increased dramatically (C)/ over
the past several years. (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. All are correct
Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

General Awareness:
Q1. Recently a declaration has been adopted by that aims to boost industry ties on
defenseand renewable energy, in the face of growing competition from the other
emerging countries,The above-mentioned Atlantic Declaration, was signed between which
two countries?
A. United States and United Kingdom
B. Australia & United Kingdom
C. France and United States
D. Australia and United Kingdom
E. Australia and France

Answer – A

Q2. United States will rejoin an organization in July, four years after it left it in 2019,
allegingthat it was biased against Israel. The move to rejoin will face a vote by
organisation’s memberstates and is expected to pass easily. Which of the following
organisation US is about to rejoin?
A. UNICEF
B. SCO
C. WHO
D. UNESCO
E. UNCTAD

Answer – D

Q3. What is the objective of the "Antardrishti Dashboard" which was launched recently by
RBI?
A. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of grievance
redressal mechanism.
B. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial
inclusion.
C. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of reducing
NPAs.
D. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of
strengtheningfinancial system.
E. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of digital
banking.

Answer – B

Q4. Recently, Indian-origin Climate Change researcher has been picked for the
SpinozaPrize 2023, which is the highest scientific honour in Netherlands and has a prize
money of .

A. Sheo Kumar, 1.5 million euros

B. Rajkumar Upadhyay, 2.5 million euros
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. K Rajaraman, 3.5 million euros

D. Navtej Bal, 1.5 million euros
E. Joyeeta Gupta, 1.5 million euros

Answer – E

Q5. Which country has achieved the gender parity according to the latest Global Gender
GapIndex?
A. Iceland
B. Finland
C. Denmark
D. Sweden
E. No one

Answer – E

Q6. Comptroller and Auditor General of India Girish Chandra Murmu has been re-elected
asthe external auditor of for a for a four-year term from .
A. UNICEF, 2023 to 2026
B. UNESCO, 2024 to 2027
C. WTO, 2023 to 2026
D. UNCTAD, 2024 to 2027
E. WHO, 2024 to 2027

Answer – E

Q7. The tropical cyclones forming over different Ocean basins are named by the
concernedregional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and regional Tropical
Cyclone WarningCentres (TCWCs). According to the 'List of North Indian Ocean Tropical
Cyclone Names', whatis the name of the next cyclone after cyclone 'Biparjoy' and the
name has been recommendedby which country?
A. Tej, India
B. Prahar, Bangladesh
C. Akhand, India
D. Bhanwar, Nepal
E. Prachand, Sri Lanka

Answer – A

Q8. Foreign Trade Policy (2023) is a policy document which is based on continuity of
timetested schemes facilitating exports as well as a document which is nimble and
responsive tothe requirements of trade. Which among the following is not part of the four
key pillars of theForeign Trade Policy 2023 announced recently?

A. Incentive to Remission
B. Export promotion through collaboration - Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Missions
C. Ease of doing business, reduction in transaction cost and e-initiatives
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Emerging Areas – E-Commerce Developing Districts as Export Hubs and

streamliningSCOMET policy
E. E-Governance

Answer – E

Q9. The Union government, in consultation with the RBI, fixes the inflation target for
thecentral bank every five years. The Upper Tolerance level of Inflation is
and incase of breach of the upper tolerance for quarters the report has to be
submittedby RBI.
A. 4.0%, three consecutive quarters
B. 5.0%, two consecutive quarters
C. 6.0%, two consecutive quarters
D. 6.0%, three consecutive quarters
E. 5.0%, three consecutive quarters

Answer – D

Q10. As per the survey of professional forecasters (SPF) by RBI, the real gross domestic
product(GDP) growth forecast for 2023-24 has been retained at , while it is
expected to grow by in 2024-25.
A. 5.7 per cent, 6.1 per cent
B. 5.9 per cent, 6.3 per cent
C. 6.0 per cent, 6.4 per cent
D. 6.1 per cent, 6.4 per cent
E. 6.2 per cent, 6.3 per cent

Answer – C

Q11. As per Annual Report of RBI, Commercial banks remained the largest holders of
government securities[including T-Bills and state government securities (SGSs)] accounting
for as at end-March 2023.
A. 27.5%
B. 37.5%
C. 25.5%
D. 31.5%
E. 28.5%

Answer – B

Q12. Which of the following States are among the top 3 States with highest mangrove
cover inIndia?
1. West Bengal
2. Gujarat
3. Andaman Nicobar
4. Tamil Nadu
A. 1, 2 & 3
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 1 & 4
D. Only 3 & 4
E. 2, 3 & 4

Answer – A

Q13. Group of Twenty (G20) is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and

theEuropean Union. India holds the Presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022 to
November30, 2023. Which of the following is not one of the guest countries invited in G20
summit underIndia’s presidency?
A. Bangladesh
B. Mauritius
C. Netherlands
D. Nigeria
E. Phillipines

Answer – E

Q14. India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations?

A. SCO
B. ADB
C. World Trade Organisation
D. OECD
E. World Bank

Answer – D

Q15. As per RBI Annual Report 2022-23, India has remained among the fastest growing
majoreconomies of the world, contributing more than to global growth on
averageduring the last five years.
A. 5.5%
B. 7.5%
C. 12%
D. 6.8%
E. 10.5%

Answer - C
Q16. As per the Financial Stability Report, SCBs’ gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio
continued its downtrend and fell to a year low in 3.9% in March 2023 and the
netnon-performing assets (NNPA) ratio declined to .
A. 8, 0.5%
B. 10, 1%
C. 13, 1.5%
D. 10, 1.5%
E. 8, 1%

Answer - B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q17. Despite prolonged geopolitical tensions and slowing global trade, India’s
merchandiseexports touched US$ 450.4 billion during 2022- 23, which is 6.7 per cent
above the previousyear’s record level. Which sector contributed the largest share in the
merchandise exportsfrom India?
A. Electronic Goods
B. Petroleum Products
C. Rice
D. Organic and Inorganic Chemicals
E. Iron Ore

Answer – B
Q18. The core theme of the 2025 Payments Vision document is E-Payments for
Everyone .
A. E-Payments for Elder
B. Everywhere, Everytime
C. Everywhere, Everything
D. Everything, Everytime
E. Everyone, Everything

Answer – B

Q19. Which among the following ASEAN countries are also the members of BIMSTEC?
1.Thailand
2. Singapore
3. Myanmar
4. Indonesia
5. Vietnam
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 4 and 5
E. All of the above

Answer – C

Q20. There has been great excitement and a rush of positive sentiment among members
of thefintech community (digital lenders), regulated lenders, and investors about the
recently (June2023) released Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital
Lending which wereissued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The Guidelines on Default
Loss Guarantee (DLG) inDigital Lending is not applicable on which of the following
entities?
A. Payment Banks
B. Small Finance Banks
C. State Co-operative Banks
D. NBFC
E. Commercial Banks
Answer - A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q21. The term of State Legislative Assemblies of which of the following State will not end
tillJan 2024?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Haryana
D. Chhattisgarh
E. Telangana

Answer – C

Q22. Which among the following small saving scheme will provide highest return in
JulySeptember 2023?
A. Kisan Vikas Patra
B. National Savings Certificate (NSC)
C. Sukanya Samriddhi
D. Monthly Income Scheme
E. Senior citizen savings Scheme

Answer – E

Q23. HS Prannoy ended a six-year long title drought with a three-game win over China's
WengHong Yang in a pulsating men's singles finals at the Malaysia Masters. This title is
known as .
A. Super 1000 title
B. Super 500 title
C. Super 300 title
D. Super 200 title
E. Super 100 title

Answer – B

Q24. For the first time in India, the share price of a company crossed the Rs 1 lakh mark.
Withthis, became the first stock in India to cross the Rs 1 lakh mark per share
in intraday trade after its share jumped 1.07 per cent in early trade recently in June 2023.
A. Honeywell
B. Page Industries
C. 3M India
D. Shree Cement
E. MRF Ltd

Answer – E

Q25. With classification of UCBs into four tiers, the prudential exposure limits for UCBs to
agroup of connected borrowers/parties will be how much of their tier-I capital?
A. ₹150 lakh
B. ₹120 lakh
C. ₹60 lakh
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. ₹50 lakh
E. ₹70 lakh

Answer – C

Q26. As per the recent (June 2023) data of Department for Promotion of Industry and
InternalTrade (DPIIT), United Arab Emirates (UAE), with which India implemented a
comprehensivefree trade agreement in May last year, has emerged as the fourth largest
investor in Indiaduring 2022-23. Which among the following countries are among the top
3 sources of FDI intoIndia?
A. UAE, Mauritius, US
B. Netherlands, Mauritius, US
C. Singapore, Mauritius, US
D. Singapore, Netherlands, US
E. Singapore, Mauritius, Australia

Answer - C

Q27. India’s overall exports (Merchandise and Services combined) in April 2023 is
estimated tobe USD 65.02 Billion, exhibiting a positive growth of 2.00 per cent over April
2022. Which oneof the following key sectors under merchandise exports exhibited highest
positive growth inApril 2023 as compared to the same period last year (April 2022)?
A. Oil Meals
B. Electronic Goods
C. Ceramic Products & Glassware
D. Drugs & Pharmaceuticals
E. Cereal Preparations & Miscellaneous Processed Items

Answer – A

Q28. Which of the following States are among the top 3 destination States for FDI in
India?
1. Maharashtra
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Delhi
5. Tamil Nadu
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2, 4 and 5
E. 1, 3 and 5

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q29. Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya unveiled the 5th State Food Safety Index (SFSI), which
evaluatesthe performance of states and union territories across six different aspects of
food safety.Which one of the following are the top-3 states in the large state category of
the State FoodSafety Index?
A. Kerala, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
B. Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Punjab
C. Kerala, Punjab and Tamil Nadu
D. Haryana, Kerala and Telangana
E. Haryana, Punjab and Tamil Nadu

Answer – C

Q30. Who has been recently appointed as the chair of B20 India which represents the
entireG20 business community?
A. Ajay Bhalla
B. Gautam Adani
C. Ratan Tata
D. Ravneet Kaur
E. N. Chandrasekaran

Answer – E

Q31. The headquarters of European Central Bank is located in and was established
in .
A. London, 1998
B. Brusells, 2002
C. Paris, 2000
D. Rome, 1998
E. Frankfurt, 1998

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q32. Which of the following statements is true regarding Call Money, Notice Money and
TermMoney?
A. Scheduled commercial banks (excluding Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits
for borrowing in call money and notice money markets, within the prescribed
prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
B. Scheduled commercial banks (including Small Finance Banks) cannot set their own
limits forborrowing in call money and notice money markets, within the prescribed
prudential limitsfor inter-bank liabilities
C. Scheduled commercial banks (excluding Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits
forborrowing in call money only but not in notice money markets, within the
prescribedprudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
D. Scheduled commercial banks (including Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits
forborrowing in call money only but not in notice money markets, within the
prescribedprudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q33. 50 years after the launch of Project Tiger on April 1, 1973, India's tiger population
todayranges from 2,500 to 3,000. When Project Tiger started, we had tiger reserves. In
2023,we have .
A. 9, 47
B. 9, 53
C. 9, 48
D. 9, 55
E. 9, 67

Answer - B

Q34. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Sovereign Gold Bonds?
A. Investment limit per fiscal year is 4 kg for individuals and Hindu Undivided Family
(HUF)
B. Investment limit per fiscal year is 20 Kg for Trusts and similar entities notified by
theGovernment from time to time
C. Bond is available both in demat and paper form
D. Total limit is excluding purchase from secondary market
E. Bond can be used as collateral for loans

Answer - D
Q35. Which among the following bank has launched corporate customer platform "fyn"?
A. Kotak Mahindra Bank
B. IndusInd Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. RBL Bank
E. Federal Bank

Answer - A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q36. Which of the following is one of the Payment System Operator in India?
A. Clearing Corporation of India
B. National Payments Corporation of India
C. Scheduled Commercial Banks
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q37. Recently, 40 years have been completed for the historic win of India in 1983 Cricket
World Cup final. India scored 183 runs batting first, what was the score of West Indies?
A. 128
B. 133
C. 110
D. 125
E. 140

Answer – E

Q38. The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Ayush, Shri Sarbananda
Sonowalflagged off the maiden International Cruise Vessel " ", India’s first
international cruisevessel, from Chennai to .
A. MV Empress, Bangladesh
B. MV Ganga Vilas, Bhutan
C. MV Empress, Sri Lanka
D. MV Ganga Vilas, Sri Lanka
E. MV Emperor, Sri Lanka

Answer – C

Q39. Which of the following institutes celebrate their foundation day on 1st July?
A. Indian Space Research Organisation
B. Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
C. Defence Research and Development Organisation
D. Border Roads Organisation
E. NITI Aayog

Answer – B

Q40. Brand Finance evaluates and values over 5,000 brands every year, across all sectors
andgeographies. Get instant access to the world's largest brand database, including brand
value,brand strength, research and competitive ranking data.According to brand finance
India,which among the following is not among the top 5 Indian brands?
A. Tata
B. Infosys
C. HDFC Bank
D. LIC
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

E. Reliance

Answer – C

Q41. The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was approved by the MHRD
andlaunched by Honourable Minister of Human Resource Development on 29th
September2015.As per the NIRF's "India Rankings 2023", which one of the following has
been matched
incorrectly:
1. Top performing University: IISc Bengaluru
2. Top performing College: ST Stephens
3. Top performing institute in Overall Category: IIT Madras
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 only
E. None of the above

Answer - D

Q42. El Nino is a cyclical environmental condition that occurs across the Equatorial
PacificOcean and is triggered by natural interactions between the ocean and atmosphere
with thedriving factors being the sea surface temperature, rainfall, air pressure, and
atmospheric andocean circulations. It occurs when the surface water in the equatorial
Pacific becomes warmerthan average and east winds blow weaker than normal. The
phenomenon is similar to whichof the following climatic anomaly?
A. Mavven Oscillation
B. Madden Jullian Oscillation
C. Western Disturbances
D. Monsoon
E. Indian Ocean Dipole

Answer – D

Q43. Which of the following is the mascots launched by RBI as a part of its financial
Awarenesscampaign?
A. Ms Money
B. Mr Money
C. Money Kumar
D. Mr Kumar
E. Money Raja

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q44. Which of the following is the initiative supported by NITI Aayog, aimed to finance
50,000electric vehicles for MSMEs?
A. ELECTRO
B. EVOLVE
C. EVPURE
D. EVWORLD
E. EVNITI

Answer – B

Q45. World Bank has scrapped Ease of Doing Business and announced a new
replacementannual series which will reflect a more balanced and transparent approach
toward evaluatinga country's business and investment climate. What is the name of the
new replacementannual series?
A. Ease Business
B. Business PRO
C. Easy Business
D. Business Ready
E. Business PORT

Answer – D

Q46. Food and Consumer Affairs Minister Piyush Goyal has announced that India will
achieveits target of ethanol blending with petrol by instead of 2030. He also
maintainedthat the maize crop will play an important role in implementation of the
programme.
A. 20%, 2024
B. 25%, 2025
C. 30%, 2030
D. 20%, 2025
E. 25%, 2023

Answer – D

Q47. Recently, Union Minister of Road Transport and Highway has informed about
theambitious India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway which connects Kolkata to
Bangkok. Itbelongs to which of which of the following organization?
A. BIMSTEC
B. ASEAN
C. SCO
D. G-7
E. G20

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q48. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched three flagship schemes for urban
revamp,including smart cities and housing for all on 25th June 2015, ensuring better
quality of life for40% of the country’s population that either live in urban areas or
dependent on them forlivelihood. Which one of the following are the 3-schemes
launched?
1. Smart Cities Mission
2. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)
3. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 & 2
E. All 1, 2 and 3

Answer – E

Q49. According to the Union Budget 2023, Government has decided to continue the 50 -
yearinterest free loan to state governments for one more year to spur
investment and,with a significantly enhanced outlay of Rs 1.3 lakh crore, from
.

A. Capital, 2021-22
B. Capital, 2025-26
C. Capital, 2024-25
D. Capital, 2022-23
E. Capital, 2023-24

Answer – E

Q50. Which one of the following statements are correct with respect to the Mission
forIntegrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) scheme?
1. It is Central Sector Scheme launched in 2015.
2. It provides financial assistance @35% of the project cost in general areas for setting up
postharvest management infrastructure.
3. It provides technical advice and administrative support to state
governments/statehorticulture missions for the saffron mission.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 2 & 3
D. Both 1 & 3
E. All 1, 2 & 3

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

xQ51. Progress has been sluggish in six sectors under Production-Linked Incentive
(PLI)schemes. A detailed analysis is being conducted by relevant ministries. Which among
thefollowing is not under non-performing sector of the scheme?
A. Information technology (IT) hardware
B. White Goods
C. ACC Battery
D. Textile
E. Speciality Steel

Answer – A

Q52. Which one of the following states was among the top-3 states in terms of highest
GST
revenues in June 2023?
1. Haryana
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Maharashtra
A. Only 2, 3 and 5
B. Only 1, 3 & 4
C. Only 1, 2 & 5
D. Only 3, 4 & 5
E. Only 2, 3 & 4

Answer – A

Q53. e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the

conveyancecarrying any consignment of goods of value exceeding as mandated by
theGovernment in terms of section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act read with rule
138 ofthe rules framed thereunder.
A. Rs 50,000
B. Rs 40,000
C. Rs 65,000
D. Rs 1,00,000
E. Rs 75,000

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q54. Name the country that conferred its highest civilian honour to President
DroupadiMurmu- The Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star, the first Indian to receive
this award.
A. Sudan
B. South Africa
C. Uganda
D. Suriname
E. Serbia

Answer – D

Q55. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, approved
theconstitution and empowerment of an Inter Ministerial Committee (IMC) for facilitation
of the“World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector” by convergence of
variousschemes of ministries. Which ministry does not belong to that group?
A. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
B. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
C. Ministry of Food Processing Industries
D. Ministry of Cooperation
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q56. The Reserve Bank releases a quarterly house price index (HPI) based on transaction-
leveldata received from housing registration authorities in ten major citie s. The cities are:

1. Bengaluru
2. Delhi
3. Jaipur
4. Kanpur
5. Kolkata
6. Mumbai
Remaining cities are:
A. Chandigarh, Kochi, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
B. Chennai, Shimla, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
C. Chennai, Kochi, Lucknow, Agra
D. Chennai, Surat, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
E. Chennai, Kochi, Lucknow, Ahmedabad

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q57. Which one of the following is/are the dimensions across which the states and
districtshave been assessed under the Social Progress Index (SPI) for States and Districts
made by theInstitute for Competitiveness and Social Progress Imperative?
1. Basic Human Needs
2. Innovation
3. Foundations of Wellbeing
4. Opportunity
5. Foundations of Healthy life
A. Only 1, 3 and 4
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 2, 3 and 4
D. Only 1 and 2
E. Only 2 and 3

Answer – A

Q58. NASA's MAVEN mission has released some new, mind-blowing images captivating
arrayof ultraviolet views of the red planet. What does "V" stands for in MAVEN Mission?
A. Velocity
B. Vacuum
C. Volatile
D. Valence
E. Vector

Answer – C

Q59. The Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) Code is a seven-digit code that is provided to
theregistered banks by the RBI. The first three digits in the code identify the bank, while
thefollowing four digits identify the bank branch. India’s Basic Statistical Returns (BSR)
systemrecently completed since its inception.
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 75 years
D. 25 years
E. 50 years

Answer – E

Q60. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has fixed the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) size
forhousing finance companies at . The housing finance companies (HFCs)
holding aCertificate of Registration (CoR) and having an NOF of less than will be
required toachieve NOF of Rs 15 crore by March 31, 2022 and by March 31,
2023.
A. Rs 5 crore
B. Rs 15 crore
C. Rs 25 crore
D. Rs 20 crore
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

E. Rs 35 crore

Answer – C

Q61. As per Foreign Trade Policy 2023, towns that produces goods worth at least
canbe recognized as towns of export excellence, based on their growth potential for
exports.
A. Rs 850 Crore
B. Rs 650 Crore
C. Rs 550 Crore
D. Rs 750 Crore
E. Rs 450 Crore

Answer – D

Q62. NTPC Limited, India's largest power generation company, has climbed 52 positions
tosecure the 433rd rank in Forbes' “The Global 2000” List for 2023. Which among the
followingis/are not the parameters taken into account for determining Forbes 2000
ranking of the toppublic companies in the world?
A. Goodwill
B. Sales
C. Profits
D. Assets
E. Market value

Answer –A

Q63. Recently (June 2023), Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), New Delhi
hassigned a MoU with Kisan to combine strengths and create synergy between
the twoorganizations for guiding the farmers on scientific cultivation of different crops for
optimumyield and income.
A. Snapdeal
B. Meesho
C. Amazon
D. Flipkart
E. CRED

Answer – C

Q64. Recently, Sebi has proposed to tweak the definition of unpublished price
sensitiveinformation (UPSI). It proposed changing the definition of UPSI as it currently
stands andbringing Regulation 30 of LODR, according to which the listed firms must notify
stockexchanges after the occurrence of any events or facts that are material. Which of the
followingoccurrences are included?
1. Any modification to securities
2. Revision to ratings
3. Initiation of CSR activities
4. Change in director
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

5. Fraud or default by promoters or key managerial people

A. Both 2 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4 and 5
C. Both 1 & 5
D. 3, 4 and 5
E. 1,2,4 and 5

Answer – E

Q65. As per data from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
releasedunder “Twenty Point Programme”, of the 14 parameters tracked quarterly, the
IndianGovernment achieved a more than target completion ("very good") in six
parameters.
A. 80%
B. 90%
C. 75%
D. 60%
E. 40%

Answer – B

Q66. Household financial savings refer to currency, bank deposits,

debtsecurities, mutual funds, pension funds, insurance, and investments in small savings
schemes.The total of these savings is referred to as gross household financial savings.
Once financialliabilities, including loans from banks, non-banking financial companies
(NBFCs), and housingfinance companies, are subtracted from gross savings, what remains
is referred to as nethousehold financial savings. As per the RBI Annual Report 2022-23,
which one of the followingFinancial Saving of Household Sector has the highest share in
2021-22?
A. Deposits
B. Currency
C. Shares and Debentures
D. Insurance Funds
E. Provident and Pension Funds

Answer – A

Q67. TRAI in its endeavor to curb menace of spams through Unsolicited

CommercialCommunication (UCC) has taken various measures in recent past. Recently
(June 2023), TRAIhas now issued a Direction to all the Access Providers to develop and
deploy the DCA facilityfor creating a unified platform and process to register customers
consent digitally across allservice providers and Principal Entities. What does “DCA”
stands for?
A. Digital Consent Acquisition
B. Data Consent Acquisition
C. Digital Content Acquisition
D. Data Content Acquisition
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

E. Digital Communication Acquisition

Answer – A

Q68. Taking forward digitization efforts announced in the Union Budget 2022-23, the
ReserveBank introduced its Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) in phases during the
year, with thelaunch of pilots for Digital Rupee (e`) in .
A. Wholesale segments only on December 1, 2022
B. Retail segments only November 1, 2022.
C. Wholesale and retail segments on December 1, 2022, and November 1, 2022
respectively.
D. Wholesale and retail segments on January 1, 2022, and December 1, 2022
respectively.
E. Wholesale and retail segments on November 1, 2022, and December 1, 2022
respectively.

Answer – E

Q69. As per the recent advance estimates of production of major crops for agricultural
year2022-23 released by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the production
of whichone of the following crops did not increase from the previous year?
A. Jawar
B. Rice
C. Wheat
D. Bajra
E. Maize

Answer – A

Q70. Which of the following Scheduled Commercial Banks have recorded the highest
numberof new branch additions in the financial year ended on 31st March 2023?
A. Yes Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Bank of Baroda
D. HDFC Bank
E. ICICI Bank

Answer – D

Q71. Under SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, Mutual Funds are permitted to
chargecertain operating expenses for managing a mutual fund scheme. All such costs for
running andmanaging a mutual fund scheme are collectively referred to as ‘Total Expense
Ratio’ (TER).TER is calculated as a percentage of the Scheme’s average .
A. Net Asset Value (NAV)
B. Absolute Returns
C. Simple Annualised Return
D. Total Investments
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

E. Redemption Amount

Answer – A

Q72. Which among the following metal was not used to make the commemorative '75
RupeeCoin' which was launched during the inauguration of new parliament?
A. Silver
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D. Gold
E. Zinc

Answer - D

Q73. As per IRDAI, which among the following is a criteria used to identify the
Domestic'Systemically Important Insurers?
A. Number of Branches
B. Market Share
C. Domestic and global interconnectedness
D. Public Sector
E. All of the above

Answer – E

Q74. Recently, the Prime Minister of India attended the 3rd summit of 3rd Summit of
theForum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) held at which of the following
locations?
A. Fiji
B. Papua New Guinea
C. Samoa
D. Solomon Islands
E. Niue

Answer – B

Q75. Recently, Indian security forces have been trained in “Krav Maga” to
counterChina's People Liberation Army (PLA) during patrolling along the Line of Actual
Control (LAC).
A. Russia
B. Caribbean Island
C. Israel
D. France
E. USA

Answer – C

Q76. The Centre has revised the threshold for GST e-invoicing, and has announced that it
willbe mandatory for all businesses with annual turnover of over to move to e-
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

invoicing forbusiness to business transaction under goods and services tax (GST) from
.
A. Rs 2 crore, Rs 10 Crore
B. Rs 3.5 crore, Rs 10 Crore
C. Rs 5 crore, Rs 10 Crore
D. Rs 10 crore, Rs 20 Crore
E. Rs 15 crore, Rs 20 Crore

Answer – C

Q77. According to the Union Budget 2023-24, the highest surcharge rate in personal
incometax has been reduced from 37% to in the new tax regime for income
above₹2 crore.
A. 15%
B. 36%
C. 17%
D. 25%
E. 30%

Answer – D

Q78. Which among the following player has courted controversy when he wrote “Kosovo
isthe heart of Serbia, depicting the ethnic tensions flared in the Balkan nation?
A. Casper Ruud
B. Carlos Alcaraz
C. Novak Djokovic
D. Rafael Nadal
E. Andrey Rublev

Answer – C

Q79. Government of India through Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Ltd. (ISPRL)
underPhase–1 has setup Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) at three locations
namelyVishakhapatnam, Mangalore and .
A. Varanasi
B. Padur
C. Raipur
D. Kolkata
E. Ranchi

Answer – B

Q80. Which one of the following statements are correct regarding the PM KUSUM
Scheme?
1. It seeks to increase the farmers income
2. The scheme comprises of 3- components.
3. It works towards decreasing the environmental pollution.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 & 2
E. All 1, 2 and 3

Answer – E

Q81. The Finance Ministry has extended the ‘Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme’
(ECLGS)to support MSMEs engaged in travel, tourism and hospitality sectors to overcome
the impact ofthe COVID-19 pandemic impact. The scheme will be expanded by to
₹5 lakh crore.
A. ₹50,000 crore
B. ₹25,000 crore
C. ₹30,000 crore
D. ₹35,000 crore
E. ₹45,000 crore

Answer –A

Q82. The Reserve Bank has announced a hike in cash reserve ratio (CRR) by 50 basis points
to 4.5per cent. It has been effective from .
A. May 05, 2022
B. May 14, 2022
C. May 18, 2022
D. May 21, 2022
E. May 23, 2022

Answer – D

Q83. National Coal Miner’s Day is observed on which date in India?

A. May 2nd
B. May 9th
C. May 4th
D. May 12th
E. May 15th

Answer – C
Q84. According to the National Education Policy 2020, government aims to increase the
publicinvestment in the education sector from the current 4.3 per cent to reach per
cent of GDPat the earliest.
A. 5.2
B. 5.5
C. 6.0
D. 6.5
E. 7.0
Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q85. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has tightened the rules for Nidhi
Companies,according to which company needs to have atleast 200 members and should
have a net ownedfund (NOF) of Rs .
A. 15 lakh
B. 18 lakh
C. 25lakh
D. 20lakh
E. 30 lakh

Answer – D

Q86. Where is Louvre Museum located?

A. Italy
B. Germany
C. France
D. Netherlands
E. Spain

Answer – C

Q87. How many member countries are there in the Organization for Economic
Cooperation andDevelopment (OECD)?
A. 36
B. 37
C. 38
D. 39
E. 40

Answer – C

Q88. ISRO has announced to launch a spacecraft to orbit Venus, which is scheduled
by .
A. December 2023
B. December 2024
C. November 2024
D. September 2023
E. August 2024

Answer – B
Q89. Interest rate on employees' provident fund deposits was cut to a four-decade low of
per cent for the 2021-22 fiscal from 8.5 per cent in the previous year.
A. 8.1%
B. 8.4%
C. 8.3%
D. 8.2%
E. 8.0%
Answer –A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q90. Presently, Debt Recovery Tribunals and 5 Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunals
arefunctioning across the country.

A. 33
B. 36
C. 39
D. 41
E. 47

Answer – C

Q91. As per data released by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of
India(IRDAI), insurance company consolidated its position as the second-largest
generalinsurance company with an 11% market share, up from 10% last year.
A. HDFC Life
B. ICICI Lombard
C. Max Life Insurance
D. PNB Metlife
E. Reliance General Insurance

Answer – B

Q92. Ministry of Social Justice has recently launched the DACE Scheme from BHU, Uttar
Pradesh.What does ‘E’ stand for in the acronym DACE?
A. Empowerment
B. Encouragement
C. Entrepreneurship
D. Employment
E. Excellence

Answer – E

Q93. Dabang Delhi KC beat to win the Pro Kabaddi League Season 8 Champions.
A. Telugu Titans
B. Puneri Paltan
C. Bengaluru Bulls
D. Bengal Warriors
E. Patna Pirates

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q94. The Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) is a Government coal mining
companyjointly owned by the Government of and Government of India on a
51:49 equity basis.
A. Telangana
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Odisha
E. Maharashtra

Answer – A

Q95. The Union Cabinet approved an additional subsidy of Rs. crore for phosphate-
basedfertilisers for the upcoming kharif season (April-September), seeking to shield
farmers from anyadditional burden due to a sharp increase in input costs globally.
A. Rs. 35,935
B. Rs. 38,938
C. Rs. 69,939
D. Rs. 45,945
E. Rs. 50,955

Answer – C

Q96. India’s monthly merchandise exports remained above US$ billion for the first
time,during FY 2021 – 2022.
A. 38
B. 40
C. 43
D. 47
E. 49

Answer – B

Q97. Centre has recently (April 2022) launched “Azadi Se Antyodaya Tak campaign”, which
is a day campaign, with a mission to saturate 75 districts.
A. 75
B. 90
C. 120
D. 130
E. 150

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

xQ98. Monthly Premium made by India citizen at 18 years of age, under Atal Pension
Yojana,opting for Rs. 5000 monthly pension after attaining 60 years of age, is Rs. .
A. 185
B. 200
C. 210
D. 225
E. 305

Answer – C

Q99. Which airport has bagged the 'Covid champion' award at Wings India 2022, which is
Asia'slargest event on civil aviation jointly organised by the Ministry of Civil Aviation and
FICCI?
A. Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL)
B. Cochin International Airport Limited (CIAL)
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport
D. Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport
E. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport

Answer – B

Q100. Which state won the final match of “Santosh Trophy”, one of India's oldest
footballtournaments, held recently at the ManjeriPayyanad Stadium?
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Meghalaya

Answer – B

Q101. According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) conducted in 2019-21,
India's sexratio in urban areas is females per every 1,000 males and females
per every 1,000males in rural areas.
A. 958, 984
B. 967, 997
C. 985, 1037
D. 979, 1019
E. 972, 1026

Answer –C

Q102. Recently, the State of the World's Forests 2022 (SOFO 2022) was released by
the .
A. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
B. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
C. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

E. United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

Answer – E

Q103. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has approved the setting up of the country's
first geopark at Lamheta village, in which state of India?
A. Rajasthan
B. Jharkhand
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. West Bengal
E. Madhya Pradesh

Answer – E

Q104. India's wave of unicorns reaches an all-time high with Open – a becoming the
100thunicorn in the country.
A. e-Commerce Platform
B. Fintech Neobank
C. Social Startup
D. Lifestyle brand
E. Online fashion brand

Answer – B

Q105. Federal Reserves System, also known as FED has recently got new chair of the
Board ofGovernors for a term ending May 15, 2026. Federal Reserve was created in the
year .
A. 1905
B. 1908
C. 1919
D. 1913
E. 1929

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q106. has recently expanded its strategic partnership with SBI Cards and
Payments
Services Ltd to power the company's next leg of digital transformation.
A. Infosys Ltd
B. Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
C. Wipro Ltd
D. HCL Technologies
E. Tech Mahindra

Answer – B

Q107. Consider the following statements about the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBS)
2016,and find out the correct statement –
1. These Regulations shall apply to the corporate insolvency resolution process.
2. An insolvency professional shall be eligible to be appointed as a resolution professional
for acorporate insolvency resolution process of a corporate debtor.
3. A resolution professional shall make disclosures at the time of his appointment and
thereafterin accordance with the Code of Conduct.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 2
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q108. Germany has recently committed to provide additional support worth Euro 10
billion toIndia by the year to support green growth initiatives.
A. 2026
B. 2027
C. 2028
D. 2029
E. 2030

Answer – E

Q109. RBI has recently decided to increase the repo rate by 40 basis points (bps) in an off-
cyclemeeting in May 2022, citing inflation concerns. This is followed by a reduction in the
policy reporate by basis points in March 2020, followed by reduction of 40 basis
points in .
A. 50, May 2020
B. 75, May 2020
C. 75, July 2020
D. 45, September 2020
E. 50, July 2020

Answer - B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q110. Consider the following statements about PMJDY, and find out the correct one –
1. Overdraft limit doubled from Rs 5,000/- to Rs 10,000/
2. Free accidental insurance cover on RuPay cards increased from Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 2 lakh
forPMJDY accounts.
3. The person should normally be head of the family or an earning member of the family
andshould be in the age group of 18 to 70.
A. Only 1 and 3
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Answer – C

Q111. What is the theme of World Water Day 2022?

A. Groundwater: making the invisible visible
B. Nature for Water
C. Leaving No One Behind
D. Water and Climate Change
E. Valuing Water

Answer – A

Q112. City of Guadalajara has been named World Book Capital for the year 2022. It
belongs towhich country?
A. Taiwan
B. Mexico
C. Brazil
D. Morocco
E. Indonesia

Answer – B

Q113. India's only BIS-approved national flag manufacturing unit is located in which of the
following state?
A. Telangana
B. Karnataka
C. Gujarat
D. Kerala
E. Tamil Nadu

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q114. The Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976 mainly provides for the incorporation,
regulation andwinding up of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). The Act mandates that of the
capital issued by a RRB, % shall be held by the central government, % by the
concerned state government and % by the sponsor bank.
A. 35:50:15
B. 35:15:50
C. 50:35:15
D. 15:35:50
E. 50:15:35

Answer – E

Q115. What is the full form of UNCED?

A. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
B. United Nations Convention on Environment and Development
C. United Nations Conference on Employment and Demographics
D. United Nations Convention on Empowerment and Development
E. United Nations Conference on Energy and Development

Answer – A

Q116. The government has allocated Rs for Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
(PMKisan) in the Union Budget 2022-23, which is higher than the Budget Estimates
of Rs65,000 crore for 2021-22?
A. 60,000 crore, 4.2%
B. 55,000 crore, 7.3%
C. 72,000 crore, 5.4%
D. 80,000 crore, 8.9%
E. 68,000 crore, 4.6%

Answer – E

Q117. India's Services exports for the first time has cross the targeted USD mark in
thefinancial year 2021-2022.
A. 200 Billion
B. 220 Billion
C. 230 Billion
D. 240 Billion
E. 250 Billion

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q118. Who among the following has recently been appointed as (May 2022) the Google
PolicyHead in India?
A. Archana Gulati
B. Avinash Saha
C. Rajeev Kumar
D. Sundar Arora
E. Girish Mathur

Answer – A

Q119. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to National
ApprenticeshipTraining Scheme.
1. It was launched in 2016.
2. It has been extended till 2026.
3. It comes under Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
4. It provides Rs 9000 per month allowance to graduates and diploma holders in
engineering,science and business.
A. Only 1, 2 and 4
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 2, 3 and 4
D. Only 1, 3 and 4
E. All of the above

Answer – A

Q120. Delimitation Commission for which of the following States/UTs has submitted its
final
report in May 2022?
A. Ladakh
B. Uttarakhand
C. Rajasthan
D. Arunachal Pradesh
E. Jammu and Kashmir

Answer – E

Q121. Which among the following statement is/are correct about the PM SVANidhi
scheme?
1. The Scheme has been extended till 2024.
2. The approval is expected to benefit nearly 1.2 crore citizens of Urban India.
3. The loan amount under the scheme has increased the loan amount to Rs. 10000 crore
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above
Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q122. Which of the following Oil and Marketing Companies (OMC) has recently (May,
2022) launched M15 petrol?

A. IOCL
B. BPCL
C. HPCL
D. Nayara Energy
E. Reliance Petroleum

Answer – A
Q123. Recently (April 2022), Indian Air Force in collaboration with which of the following
companies has taken a leap forward in fuel supply chain management by introducing a
‘FleetCard - Fuel on Move' for its varied fleet of vehicles?
A. Bharat Petroleum
B. Hindustan Petroleum
C. Indian Oil Corporation
D. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
E. Oil India Limited

Answer – C
Q124. Which among the following country will host World Environment Day 2022 in June
2022?
A. Switzerland
B. Finland
C. Norway
D. Italy
E. Sweden

Answer – E

Q125. Nand Mulchandani has been appointed as Chief Technology Officer of .

A. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
B. European Space Agency
C. National Investigation Agency (NIA)
D. Central Investigation Agency (CIA)
E. Interpol

Answer – D

Q126. According to Gold Monetization Schemes 2015, the Medium-Term Government

Deposit(MTGD) can be withdrawn after years.
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
E. 7 years

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q127. Which among the following state has opened the country's first Greenfield grain-
basedethanol plant?
A. Gujarat
B. Odisha
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Bihar
E. Telangana

Answer – D

Q128. “My Country My Life ” is an autobiography of .

A. Sheela Dixit
B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
C. Lal Krishna Advani
D. Jaswant Singh
E. Manmohan Singh

Answer – C

Q129. Which among the following is not among the top five sectors of National
MonetizationPipeline?
A. Roads
B. Railways
C. Power
D. Telecom
E. Solar Energy

Answer – E

Q130. According to National Infrastructure Pipeline, which among the following sector is
notamong the top 4 sectors as per the sector-wise annual projected capital expenditure?
A. Energy
B. Urban
C. Social Infrastructure
D. Railways
E. Roads

Answer – C

Q131. GST Revenue collection has crossed 1.5 lakh crore for the first time in .
A. March 2022
B. May 2022
C. April 2022
D. January 2022
E. February 2022

Answer - C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q132. Recently (March 2022), which among the following Automatic Train Protection
(ATP)
System has been developed by Indian Railway on its own?
A. Trishool
B. Dhaal
C. PRAHAR
D. KAVACH
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q133. ASEEM Portal is related to .

A. Livelihood and Employment
B. Prevention of Human Trafficking
C. Bootstrap startups
D. Rural Development
E. Promotion of MSMEs

Answer – A

Q134. The main objective of DESH Stack e Portal is to provide skilling, upskilling and
reskillingopportunities through API-based platforms. In DESH what does ‘E’ stands for?
A. Employment
B. Encouragement
C. Empowerment
D. Enlightenment
E. Ecosystem

Answer – E

Q135. The Reserve Bank of India and have announced the project to link Unified
PaymentsInterface and PayNow for faster transactions. The UPI-PayNow linkage is
targeted foroperationalisation by July 2022.
A. Myanmar
B. Maldives
C. Germany
D. Singapore
E. Vietnam

Answer – D

Q136. National Forensic Science University has been set up under which among the
followingministry?
A. Ministry of Science and Technology
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Prime Minister's Office

E. Ministry of Home Affairs

Answer – E

Q137. Cyclone Asani, which developed over southeast regions of Bay of Bengal and
intensifiedinto a 'severe cyclone' was named by .
A. Bangladesh
B. Myanmar
C. Thailand
D. Sri Lanka
E. Indonesia

Answer –D

Q138. Financial Stability Board represents which of the following organization?

A. SCO
B. G-7
C. G-20
D. ASEAN
E. BIMSTEC

Answer – C

Q139. Which of the following statement is/are correct about interest rate and bond price?
1. Interest rate is negatively related to bond prices.
2. If interest rate and yield is rising bond prices will fall.
3. Interest rate positively related to bond prices.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q140. India has recently become the only country to adopt the T+1 settlement system
after .
A. Russia
B. China
C. United States of America
D. Germany
E. Canada

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

xQ141. T Raja Kumar, a senior advisor at MHA, has been appointed as the president of the
FinancialAction Task Force (FATF), the global money laundering and terrorism financing
watchdog. He isfrom which country?
A. Nepal
B. Bhutan
C. Singapore
D. Sri Lanka
E. Thailand

Answer – C

Q142. The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Shipping
topromote port-led development in the country through of potentially navigable
waterwaysmaritime trade routes.
A. 7500 km
B. 8600 km
C. 12300 km
D. 13750 km
E. 14500 km

Answer – E
Q143. What is India’s Rank in Global Fisheries Protection?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
E. 5th

Answer – B

Q144. Which of the following has won the ‘Khelo India University Games 2021’?
A. JAIN University
B. Lovely Professional University
C. Punjab University
D. Shivaji University
E. University of Calicut

Answer – A

Q145. The World Forestry Congress (WFC) is held every six years since 1926 under the
auspicesof the , in association with the government of the host country.
A. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
B. Conservation International
C. Worldwide fund for Nature (WWF)
D. Greenpeace
E. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q146. When was BIMSTEC formed?

A. 1991
B. 1995
C. 1997
D. 2001
E. 2004

Answer – C

Q147. In India, the second largest provider of employment after agriculture is:
A. Textile Sector
B. Real Estate
C. Manufacturing
D. Services Sector
E. Railways

Answer – A

Q148. Ministry of Culture has organised PAN India Programme “Jharokha” in how many
States?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
E. 15

Answer –D

Q149. Which of the following has launched the first Exchange Traded ‘Bharat Bond’?
A. ICICI Prudential
B. Adtiya Birla Capital
C. HDFC Capital
D. National Stock Exchange
E. Edelweiss

Answer- E

Q150. According to Union Budget 2022-23, how much amount of Fund has been allocated
for JalJeevan Mission?
A. Rs. 40,000 crore
B. Rs. 50,000 crore
C. Rs. 35,000 crore
D. Rs. 60,000 crore
E. Rs. 68,000 crore

Answer –D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q151. Which of the following is part of the Memorandum of Company Act?

1. The objective of the Company
2. State in which the company is located
3. This clause states the liability of the members of the company. The Liability can be
limited orunlimited
4. The name of the company should be stated in this clause.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
E. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q152. Under which of the following conditions does the DICGC give money to the
liquidator?
1. If a bank goes into liquidation.
2. If a bank is reconstructed or amalgamated/merged with another bank
3. If the bank wishes to withdraw from the DICGC
A. Only 2 and 3
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Q153. An exchange rate system got implemented after World War 2. This system was
acceptedon the basis of which declaration?
A. Bretton Woods
B. Marrakesh Agreement
C. International Finance Agreement
D. Foreign Account Tax Compliance
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q154. Which of the following is not among the baseline assumptions of the monetary
policycommittee of April 2022?
1. Normal monsoon in 2022
2. Average crude oil price (Indian basket) of US$ 95 per barrel
3. Inflation at 5.7% in 2022-23
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Only 3
D. 1 and 3
E. 2 and 3

Answer -A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q155. Indian peacekeepers has been awarded UN medals for outstanding performance,
forserving in which of the following country?
A. Ghana
B. Caribbean Island
C. South Sudan
D. Syria
E. Mongolia

Answer – C

Q156. How many members in the monetary policy committee of Reserve Bank of India are
appointed by the Government of India?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Answer – C

Q157. National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE), a non profit organization was set up
underwhich section of the company act 2013?
A. Section 8
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q158. Government of India is selling 100% stake in AI, % stake in AI Express Limited
(AIXL)and all of the government’s % stake in AI-SATS, which is a joint venture with
Singaporebased ground handling company SATS Limited.
A. 75, 50
B. 75, 75
C. 100, 75
D. 100, 50
E. 100, 100

Answer – D

Q159. Which among the following telecommunication company has joined the SEA-ME-
WE-6undersea cable consortium to scale up its high-speed global network capacity and
serve India’sfast growing digital economy?
A. Reliance Jio
B. Bharti Airtel
C. Vodafone-Idea
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. BSNL
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Q160. As per State of World's Forests (SOFO) 2022, forests cover % of the global land
area.
A. 29%
B. 31%
C. 33%
D. 27%
E. 26%

Answer – B

161.Q1. In the recently released Global Innovation Index (GlI), India's rank has improved
to 48th inthe year 2020. Its rank in the year 2019 was
A. 50th
B. 54th
C. 56th
D. 52nd
E. 58th

Answer – D

Q162. International Energy Agency has recently released the report "India Energy
Outlook" for the year 2021. According to this report, at present, India is the largest global
energy consumer.
A. 1st
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 8th
E. 10th

Answer – C

Q163. Ministry of Labour and Employment has released 4 labour codes in the year 2020.
Thesecodes are aimed at protecting the interest of workers and will provide them social
security,protection, safe and working environment and effective conciliation, mechanism
for theirgrievances. Which one of the following is not one these four labour codes
released by the LabourMinistry?
A. Code on Wages, 2019
B. Code on Migrant Laborer's, 2020
C. Industrial Relations Code, 2020
D. Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
E. Code on Social Security, 2020

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q164. An integrated logistics and hyperscale data centre park called Green base and Yotta
is goingto be set up by Hiranandani Group companies, in which one of the following
states?
A. Gujarat
B. West Bengal
C. Telangana
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. None

Answer – B

Q165. India-Maldives joint military exercise 'Ex EKUVERIN - 2019' was held in which place?
A. Jodhpur
B. Vishakhapatnam
C. Pune
D. Dehradun
E. Balasore

Answer – C

Q166. Amazon's market value was $250 billion in the year 2015, Two decades after its
founding inthe year 1995. This major e-commerce company was started as which of the
following in itsearliest days?
A. Pantry
B. Apparel store
C. Courier store
D. Book store
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q167. Union Minister of State for Agriculture Shri ParshottamRupala has recently
launchedAYUSHMAN SAHAKAR. It is a unique scheme to assist cooperatives play an
important role in thecreation of infrastructure in the country, under National
CooperativeDevelopment Cooperation (NCDC).
A. Healthcare
B. Education
C. Banking
D. Employment
E. All of these

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q168. Indian Finance Minister Arun Jaitley launched a GIS-based Mobile App for Financial
Inclusionin the year 2018 during Annual Public Sector Banks meeting. This App assist to
the commonpeople in finding a financial service touch point at any location in the country.
What is the nameof this mobile app?
A. CSC
B. UMANG
C. BHIM
D. Jan Dhan Darshak
E. Aaykar Setu

Answer – D

Q169. was the first microlending bank in India to win a banking license from the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2014.
A. Equitas Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. Ashirvad Bank
D. Aarohan Bank
E. IDFC First Bank

Answer – B

Q170. Ranthambore National Park is located near which one of the following cities of
Rajasthan?
A. Jaipur
B. Udaipur
C. Sikar
D. Sawai Madhopur
E. Bhilwara

Answer – D

Q171. The Union budget for the year 2021-22 has allocated &1.1 trillion for the Indian
Railways,out of this amount how much amount will be utilized for capital expenditure for
2021-22 toexpand rail infrastructure in India?
A. 1.07 trillion
B. 1.02 trillion
C. 0.95 trillion
D. 1.04 trillion
E. 1.09 trillion

Answer –A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q172. Denmark has decided to build the world's first artificial island with the aim to
provide cleanenergy. The island will be located in the North Sea (located between England
and Scotland).Power will be generated from which of the following energies?
A. Solar
B. Tidal
C. Wind
D. Geothermal
E. Biomass

Answer – C

Q173. Which of the following festivals is celebrated by the Apatani, or Tanw, also known
by Apa,the tribal group living in the Ziro valley in the Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal
Pradesh inIndia?
A. Myoko
B. Gauchar Mela
C. Thisam Phanit
D. Tsukhenyie
E. None

Answer -A

Q174. Which of the following PSUs has featured on top of the list among "Indian PSUs" in
'World's Best Employer 2020 Report, published by Forbes in the month of October 2020?
A. ONGC
B. BHEL
C. NTPC
D. SAIL
E. IOCL

Answer – C

Q175. National Cadet Corps (NCC) of India, which is the largest uniformed youth
organisation inthe world, has celebrated its 72nd Raising Day on which of the following
dates, in the year 2020?
A. 22ndDecember
B. 22nd November
C. 23rd January
D. 22nd January
E. 23rd December

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q176. Identify the bank that has launched "Gram Sampark Abhiyan", a nation-wide
FinancialInclusion and Literacy Campaign on the occasion of the 151st birth anniversary of
MahatmaGandhi, in the year 2020?
A. SBI
B. PNB
C. HDFC
D. BOl
E. BOB

Answer – B

Q177. To achieve the vision of creating a financially aware and empowered India, the
ReserveBank of india has released the second edition of "National Strategy for Financial
Education"(NSFE) for 2020-2025. NSFE has recommended the adoption of a '_ C' approach
for thedissemination of financial education in India.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 4
E. 6

Answer – C

Q178. CRA is an agency registered under Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
Authority(PFRDA) to perform functions of record-keeping, accounting, administration, and
customerservice to Pension scheme subscribers. What does "R" stand for in CRA?
A. Registry
B. Record Keeping (Central Record Keeping Agency)
C. Resolution
D. Real-Time
E. Regulation

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q179. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system is primarily meant for large value
transactions.The minimum amount to initiate a transaction through RTGS iswith no upper
ormaximum ceiling.
A. Rs. 2 lakhs
B. Rs. 3 lakhs
C. Rs. 5 lakhs
D. Rs. 4 lakhs
E. Rs. 1 lakh

Answer – A

Q180. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has launched the scheme PM
KUSUM forfarmers with the aim to add solar and other renewable capacity of 25,750 MW
by 2022. Referto following given statements regarding this scheme and identify the one
which is not a featureof the same?
A. Subsidy would be provided on diesel for running diesel pump and thus provide
thefarmers a reliable source of irrigation
B. Individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar Agriculture pumps
C. The farmer will be able to use the generated solar power to meet the irrigation
needs andthe excess solar power will be sold to DISCOMs.
D. In case cultivated fields are chosen for setting up solar power project, the farmers
couldcontinue to grow crops as the solar panels are to be set up above a minimum
height.
E. The scheme would ensure that sufficient local solar/ other renewable energy-based
poweris available for feeding rural load centres and agriculture pump-set loads.

Answer –A

Q181. Cyclone Nivar made a landfall near which one of the following places, recently in
the monthof November 2020?
A. Mumbai
B. Hyderabad
C. Mysuru
D. Kochi
E. Puducherry

Answer – E

Q182. Recently in the month of October 2020, World Economic Forum (WEF) has
announced toset up India's first Advanced Manufacturing HUB or AMHUB in the state of?
A. Rajasthan
B. Odisha
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Chhattisgarh
E. Jharkhand

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q183. PM Kisan is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.
Whoamong the following are not eligible to avail the benefit of PM Kisan scheme?
A. Large landholding farmer families
B. Former and present holders of constitutional posts
C. All eligible landholding farmer families
D. Both A & B
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q184. In the recently released Union Budget 2021-22, what amount of fund has been
allocatedunder the revamped Post Matric Scholarship Scheme (PMSS) for the welfare of
Scheduled Castesfor 6 years, to benefit 4 crore SC students?
A. 35,219 crore
B. 25,219 crore
C. 32,117 crore
D. 22,117 crore
E. 27,115 crore

Answer – A

Q185. Recently in the month of February 2021, Puducherry Chief Minister V

Narayanasamy hassubmitted his resignation to Lieutenant Governor Tamilisal
Soundararajan, after losingconfidence vote in Legislative Assemble. The Puducherry
Legislative Assembly has seats.
A. 27
B. 35
C. 28
D. 33
E. 36

Answer – D

Q186. Recently in Feb 2021, Ngozi Okonjo-weala has been appointed as the seventh
Director-General of the World Trade Organization, becoming the first woman head of the
body. Shebelongs to which of the following countries?
A. Ethiopia
B. Nigeria
C. Kenya
D. Eritrea
E. Algeria

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q187. Reserve Bank of India has constructed a composite Digital Payments Index (DPI) to
capturethe extent of digitisation of payments across the country. Which one of the
following is not aparameter that enables the measurement of deepening and penetration
of digital payments inthe country?
A. Payment Enabler
B. Payment Infrastructure
C. Payment Analysis
D. Payment Performance
E. Consumer Centricity

Answer –C

Q188. is the art and science of making maps and charts.

A. Demography
B. Calligraphy
C. Cartography
D. Orthography
E. Cacography

Answer – C

Q189. HCL Technologies has announced to roll out a one-time special bonus of Rs 700
crore to itsemployees globally, in recognition of its recent milestone of crossing themark
inrevenue for 2020.
A. $15 billion
B. $10 billion
C. $20 billion
D. $25 billion
E. $30 billion

Answer – B

Q190. What is the current ceiling of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) set by the Reserve Bank of
India?
A. 5%
B. 3%
C. 6%
D. 2.5%
E. None of these

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q191. Recently in the month of Jan 2021, A certification course "NAVRITIH" was launched
byPrime Minister Narendra Modi. It is related to which of the following sectors?
A. Education Technology
B. Construction Technology
C. Food Processing and Technology
D. Financial Technology
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q192. Recently in the month of Dec 2020, Government of India has announced to set up a
Multi-Modal Logistics Hub & Multi-Modal Transport Hub (MMTH), with the aim of making
India astrong part of Global Value Chain. In which state will it be set up?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
E. Tamil Nadu

Answer – A

Q193. Recently in the month of February 2021, been handed over to Indian Navy
by Mazagon Dock Limited.INS Karanj– a Scorpene class submarine has
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Fifth

Answer – C

Q194. Which of the Small Finance Banks has got the permission from SEBI to launch its IPO
in themonth of December 2020?
A. Suryodaya Small Finance Bank
B. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
C. Janalakshmi Small Finance Bank
D. Capital Small Finance Bank.
E. Equitas Small Finance Bank

Answer – A
Q195. ATMs that are owned and operated by non-bank entities are called as
A. Blue Label ATMs
B. White Label ATMs
C. Brown Label ATMs
D. Black Label ATMs
E. Red Label ATMs
Answer - B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q196. Good Governance Day in India is observed on December 25th. This day is observed
tocommemorate the birth anniversary of which of the following Indian personalities?
A. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
C. Swami Vivekananda
D. Madan Mohan Malviya
E. Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya

Answer – B

Q197. Which of the following is NOT a policy rate that is changed by Reserve Bank of India
(RBI)from time to time?
A. Repo Rate
B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. Marginal Standing Facility Rate
D. Bank Rate
E. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Answer – E

Q198. Recently in the month of Dec 2020, "iMobile app" was launched by ICICI Bank with
the aimto strengthen financial ecosystem of the country. Read below given statements
and identifywhich of the following is NOT correct regarding the features of this app?
A. It enables users to pre-set limits on their credit and debit cards for domestic as well
as
A. international transactions.
B. It allows customers to link multiple bank accounts.
C. It allows customers to scan a QR Code of any payment app and send money money
to any UPH ID, Bank account, self-etc.
D. It can be used only by the customers of ICICI
E. It lets its customers open (and renew) Life Insurance and General Insurance policies,
directly from your phone.

Answer – D

Q199. Government has launched New National Education Policy 2020, According to it
% isthe target Gross enrolment ration (GER) for pre-school to secondary level by the year
2030 and% is the target GER of higher education by 2035.
A. 75, 50
B. 50, 100
C. 50, 75
D. 75,100
E. 100, 50

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q200. State of Maharashtra has topped the list of states is terms of MSME registration in
Udyam Portal. Which of the following states is second after Maharashtra as per a
newspaper report, released recently in February 2021?
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Haryana

Answer –C

Q201. Recently in the month of Oct 2020, Government has notified that a "National
Authority ofShip Recycling" will be set up to look after the sustainable development of the
Ship Recyclingindustry, monitoring the compliance to environment-friendly norms. In
which of the followingstates will it be located?
A. Gujarat
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Kerala
D. Maharashtra
E. Goa

Answer – A

Q202. According to the recently released guidelines by RBI in October 2020, Non-deposit-
takingHFCs with an asset size of 85,000 crore and above, but less than €10,000 crore will
have to reacha minimum LCR ofby December 1, 2021 andby December 1, 2025.
A. 20%, 40%
B. 30%, 60%
C. 30%, 100%
D. 50%, 100%
E. 25%, 50%

Answer –C

Q203. Which of the following state is set to be home to the country's first sand dune park
undera project funded by The World Bank, which has accepted the proposal of the
Biodiversity Boardof the state, recently in Oct 2020?
A. Goa
B. Kerala
C. Odisha
D. Gujarat
E. Maharashtra

Answer –A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q204. What is the current Marginal Standing Facility Rate, in the month of Feb 2021?
A. 4.75%
B. 3.50%
C. 3.25%
D. 4.50%
E. 4.25%

Answer – E

Q205. A women's Self-Help Group (SHG), coming together on the basis of mutual affinity
is theprimary building block of community institutional design of which of the schemes,
being run theGovt of India?
A. MGNREGA
B. DAY - NRLM
C. PMGSY
D. Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q206. India's First Fire Park has been inaugurated in which of the following states in the
month ofJanuary 2021?
A. Odisha
B. Assam
C. Haryana
D. Karnataka
E. Kerala

Answer – A

Q207. The Reserve Bank of India has proposed to increase the minimum Net Owned Fund
(NOF)for Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) from the current requirement of Rs to Rs
20crore.
A. 5 crore
B. 10crore
C. 15crore
D. 20crore
E. 12 crore

Answer –B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q208. The year 2021 commemorates anniversary of the signing of the

RamsarConvention on Wetlands on 2nd February in Ramsar, Iran, celebrated annually as
WorldWetlands Day.
A. 45th
B. 70th
C. 50th
D. 75th
E. 100th

Answer – C

Q209. World's longest highway tunnel named as "Atal Tunnel" has been recently
inaugurated byPrime Minister Narendra Modi in the month of Oct 2020, it connects which
of the following twoplaces?
A. Manali-Leh
B. Jammu-Baramullah
C. Srinagar-Jammu
D. Srinagar-Kargil
E. Kullu-Manali

Answer – A

Q210. Recently in the month Feb 2020, which of the following companies has announced
tolaunch online engineering courses that will focus on three areas — employability
assessmentand recruitment, reinforced learning, reskilling and vocational skills training?
A. Larson & Toubro
B. Bharti Airtel
C. Reliance
D. Infosys
E. Wipro

Answer – A

Q211. Recently (Sept 2020), Bayer's Better Life Farming initiative has announced
partnership withwhich of the following banks in india to provide holistic financial
solutions to smallholder farmersand rural farming communities?
A. Axis Bank
B. HDFC Bank
C. RBL Bank
D. ICICI Bank
E. IDFC First Bank

Answer –A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q212. What is the Bank Credit to GDP ratio in India, as on March 2020?
A. 75%
B. 100%
C. 50%
D. 60%
E. 85%

Answer – C

Q213. The WHO Foundation has appointed Indian-origin global health expert Anil Soni as
its firstin the month of January 2021.
A. Chief Medical Advisor
B. Chief Executive Officer
C. Chief Health Expert
D. Chief Operations Officer
E. Chief Research Scientist

Answer – B

Q214. Tata Steel has recently (in Feb 20201) announced the plan to double its steel
producingcapacity from the current tomillion tonnes, in consideration of the expanding
steeldemand.
A. 40
B. 20
C. 60
D. 50
E. 25

Answer – A

Q215. India's largest Public Sector Bank SBI is expecting its home loan portfolio to touch
Rs 7 lakhcrore by the year where demand is being driven by an increased desire
among theyouth to own homes early in life, rising incomes, and government policies like
the cuts in stampduty and subsidy.
A. 2020-23
B. 2029-30
C. 2030-31
D. 2023-24
E. 2021-22

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q216. Recently in the month of Feb 2021, West Indies has recently defeated Bangladesh in
a testmatch after chasing a target of 395 runs. This washighest run chase in the history of
testmatches.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 4th
D. 5th
E. 6th

Answer –D

Q217. Japanese government is going to join the 'Five Eyes' intelligence-sharing alliance.
The islandnation is on its way to become the 'sixth eye'. Which one of the following
countries is not a partof the 'Five Eyes' group?
A. China
B. Australia
C. Britain
D. Canada
E. New Zealand

Answer – A

Q218. In the month of December 2020, The Olympic Council of Asia has announced that
Doha,Qatar will host the 2030 Asian Games whilewill host the 2034 edition.
A. Beijing, China
B. Tokyo, Japan
C. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
D. Abu Dhabi, UAE
E. New Delhi, India

Answer – C

Q219. India's first digital asset management platform called , has been formally
launched in Tamil Nadu under Centre's ambitious "Atmanirbhar" initiative, in Dec 2020.
A. Assetboxx
B. DigiPal
C. Digiboxx
D. SUNIDHI
E. SUVIDHA

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q220. RBI has released the Annual Report "Ombudsman Schemes of the Reserve Bank for
theyear 2019-20, in the month of Feb 2021. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme (BOS) was
firstnotified by the Reserve Bank in the year under Section 35 A of the Banking
Regulation Act,1949.
A. 1948
B. 2005
C. 2010
D. 1995
E. 2000

Answer –D

Q221. Which of the following banks has emerged as the top player among the 100
Banking,Financial Services and Insurance (BFSI) companies in India, as per the recently
released report inthe month of Dec 2020?
A. Axis Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. ICICI Bank
E. Yes Bank

Answer – C

Q222. Government of India has decided to extend the benefit of the Scheme for
"Remission ofDuties and Taxes on Exported Products" (RoDTEP) to all export goods with
effect from 1stJanuary, 2021. This scheme will replace
A. Export Promotion Capital Goods Schemes
B. Service Exports From India Scheme (SEIS)
C. Merchandise Exports From India Scheme (MEIS)
D. Both B & C
E. All of the above

Answer – C

Q223. Cairn Energy, a firm has filed a case in a district court of USA (in Feb 2021)
toenforce $1.2 billion arbitration award that was by it in a tax dispute against India.
A. Russia
B. Swedish
C. Chinese
D. Canadian
E. British

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q224. The Reserve Bank of India had constituted an Internal Working Group (IWG) in June
2020to review the extant ownership guidelines and corporate structure for Indian private
sectorbanks. Refer to the statements given below and identify which od the following
is/are therecommendations of this IWG, as per its report submitted in Nov 2020.
i. Large corporate/industrial houses may be allowed as promoters of banks only after
necessary amendments to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and strengthening of the
supervisory mechanism for large conglomerates, including consolidated supervision.
II.For Payments Banks intending to convert to a Small Finance Bank, track record of 3
years
of experience as Payments Bank may be considered as sufficient.
ill. The cap on promoters' stake in the long run (15 years) may be raised from the current
level of 15 per cent to 26 per cent of the paid-up voting equity share capital of the bank.
A. Only i & li
B. Only ii &IIi
C. Only i & iii
D. Only i
E. All of the above

Answer – E

Q225. Consider the following statements regarding the features of Senior Citizen Saving
Scheme(SCSS) and identify the correct answer out of the options given below -
A. Deposits in SCSS qualify for deduction u/s 80-C of Income Tax Act.
B. A retired Personnel of Defence Services (Excluding Civilian Defence Employees), who
hasattained the age of 50 years can subscribe to the scheme subject to fulfilment of
otherspecified conditions.
C. A depositor may open an account individually or jointly with spouse.
D. Both A & B
E. All of the above

Answer – E

Q226. The Tso Kar is a Salt Lake which is also a high-altitude wetland complex; it is
situated in theRupshu Plateau located in which of the following places?
A. Sikkim
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Manipur
D. Ladakh
E. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer – D

Q227. Recently in the month of Dec 2020, The Cabinet has cleared the PM-WANI scheme.
It aimsto provide which of the following services?
A. Mobile Banking
B. Radio
C. Wi-Fi
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Digital Education
E. Mobile Networks

Answer – C

Q228. Jigmet Dolma, an SPO of Ladakh Police has recently securedDhaka Marathon 2021,
organised in the month of January 2021.position in the
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Fifth

Answer – D

Q229. The Spices Board of India has set an ambitious target, in the month of Feb 2021,
ofachieving an export value of $5 billion by 2025 and $.billion by the year 2030.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 9
D. 50
E. 20

Answer – A

Q230. In the month of Feb 2021, Seychelles has become the first country to welcome the
touriststhat have been vaccinated against COVID-19. Seychelles is located in Indian Ocean,
nearest towhich of the following countries?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Maldives
C. Malaysia
D. Madagascar
E. South Africa

Answer - D

Q231. International Tea Day is observed globally on which of the following dates?
A. 25th Jan
B. 21st May
C. 21st Jan
D. 25th May
E. 28th June

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q232. UNDP has notified 17 Sustainable Goals (SDGs) to be attained by the year 2030.
SDG 5 isrelated to which of the following?
A. No Poverty
B. Zero Hunger
C. Quality Education
D. Gender Equality
E. Clean Water and Sanitation

Answer – D

Q233. International Olympic Committee (IOC) has its headquarters located in which of the
following places?
A. Rome, Italy
B. Paris, France
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. Lausanne, Switzerland
E. Bern, Switzerland

Answer – D

Q234. Recently in the month of Jan 2021, NITI Aayog has released the Second Edition of
IndiaInnovation Index. Which of the following has topped in the category of major states?
A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Gujarat
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. None of these

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q235. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?

A. Italy
B. Switzerland
C. Belgium
D. France
E. UK

Answer – B

Q236. Section 80-C of the Income Tax Act allows a maximum deduction of Rs
everyyear from the taxpayer's total income. The benefit of this deduction can be
availed by Individualsand HUFs. Companies, partnership firms, LLPs cannot avail the
benefit of this deduction.
A. Rs. 1 lakh
B. Rs. 2.5 lakh
C. Rs. 5 lakh
D. Rs. 3.5 lakh
E. Rs. 1.5 lakh

Answer – E

Q237. Government of India has decided to celebrate Subhash Chandra Bose's birthday on
theevery year as "PARAKRAM DIWAS", starting from the year 2021.
A. 25th day of February
B. 23rd day of January
C. 23rd day of February
D. 25th day of January
E. 2nd day of March

Answer – B

Q238. Recently in the month of Oct 2020, Andorra has become member of
International Monetary Fund.
A. 185th
B. 190th
C. 195th
D. 191st
E. 193rd

Answer – B

Q239. Recently, The Reserve Bank has come out with a five-pillared strategic approach
'GUARD'to deal with cybersecurity threats being faced by urban cooperative banks (UCBs).
What does Ain GUARD stands for?
A. Automatic regulation
B. Agency
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Appropriate Regulation (Governance Oversight, Utile Technology Investment,

AppropriateRegulation and Supervision, Robust Collaboration and Developing
necessary IT & cybersecurityskills set)
D. Authorisation
E. Autonomous

Answer – C

Q240. Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya is a scheme launched by the Govt of India for the
schoolsgirls of SC, ST, OBC and minority communities, from the classes of
A. 1st to 5th
B. 6th to 12th
C. 6th to 10th
D. 11th & 12th
E. 9th to 12th

Answer – C

Q241. Where is the headquarters of Credit Saison India, which has received a nonbanking
financialcompany (NBFC) licence from the Reserve Bank of India?
A. Mumbai
B. Kolkata
C. Chennai
D. Bengaluru
E. New Delhi

Answer – D

Q242. Lalji Tandon is an Indian politician serving as the 22nd and current Governor of
which state?
A. Rajasthan
B. Odisha
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Gujarat
E. Bihar

Answer – C

Q243. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2019 was given for the development of
A. Work on the structure of protein and insulin
B. Lithium-Ion Battery
C. Structure of atom
D. Radioactivity
E. None of the above

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q244. The World Economic Forum Meeting in the Year 2020 will be held in which city?
A. Davos, Switzerland
B. Madrid, Spain
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. Paris, France
E. Berlin, Germany

Answer – A

Q245. India-Maldives joint military exercise 'Ex EKUVERIN - 2019' was held in which one of
thefollowing places?
A. Jodhpur
B. Vishakhapatnam
C. Pune
D. Dehradun
E. Balasore

Answer – C

Q246. Indian cricketer Rohit Sharma has launched the 'Rohit4Rhinos' campaign in
partnership withWWF India and which of the following organization to create awareness
about conservation of theIndian Rhino?
A. World Animal Protection India
B. Animal Welfare Board of India
C. International Fund for Animal Welfare
D. Animal Planet
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q247. Which organization has announced relaxation in norms for 'Muni Bonds' to help
smart cities?
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. IRDAI
D. TRAI
E. NONE

Answer – B
Q248. Which organization has constituted a working group on Social Stock Exchanges
(SSE) underthe chairmanship of Ishaat Hussain?
A. RBI
B. Finance Ministry
C. IRDAI
D. TRAI
E. SEBI
Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q249. The Minister of Railways and Minister of Commerce, Piyush Goyal is Rajya Sabha
MP fromwhich constituency?

A. Karnataka
B. Maharashtra
C. Delhi
D. Rajasthan
E. Gujarat

Answer – B

Q250. Who is the director of the Indian movie 'Gully Boy'?

A. Frahan Akhtar
B. Karan Johar
C. Rohit Shetty
D. Zoya Akhtar
E. Ranvir Singh

Answer – D

Q251. Which of the following organizations has launched the "Project Netra"?
A. DRDO
B. ISRO
C. Google India
D. Microsoft
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q252. The National Unity Day was celebrated on 31st October in the remembrance of who
amongthe following?
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Chaudhari Charan Singh
E. Rajiv Gandhi

Answer –C

Q253. What was the theme of the 'World Teacher's Day 2019'?
A. Youth: the Next Wave for Change
B. Young Teacher: The future of the profession
C. Education for betterment
D. Educating Young collective responsibility
E. None of these

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q254. Kamlang tiger reserve is located in which state?

A. Manipur
B. Meghalaya
C. Assam
D. Arunachal Pradesh
E. Mizoram

Answer – D

Q255. The Largest Solar Park in India is located in which state?

A. Gujarat
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Rajasthan
D. Karnataka
E. Maharashtra

Answer – D

Q256. The railway minister has made an association with which Indian institute of
technology, on aproject of 'Industry 4.0'?
A. IT Delhi
B. IIT Kanpur
C. IIT Bombay
D. IIT Kharagpur
E. IIT Guwahati

Answer – B

Q257. Sarah Taylor, who recently announced her retirement from cricket, belongs to
which country?
A. Australia
B. New Zealand
C. England
D. South Africa
E. West Indies

Answer – C

Q258. Indian Government has recently approved the infusion of Rs 9300 Crore in which of
thefollowing banks?
A. IDBI Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. Axis Bank
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q259. The first-ever world cotton day was observed on October 7, in which one of the
following cities?
A. New York, USA
B. Ahmedabad, India
C. London, England
D. Paris, France
E. Geneva, Switzerland

Answer – E

Q260. Who held Women's World record in 400 meter race?

A. Marita Koch
B. Shelly-Ann
C. Jarmila Kratochvilová
D. Salwa Eid Naser
E. Marie-José Pérec

Answer – A

Q261. Which one of the following banks have been merged with the Punjab National
Bank?
A. Union Bank
B. United Bank of India
C. Canara Bank
D. Punjab and Sindh bank
E. Bank of India

Answer – B

Q262. Ratapani Tiger Reserve is located in which state of India?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Odisha
E. Jharkhand

Answer – A

Q263. In a bid to raise awareness about the importance of Life Insurance, the industry has
cometogether with which tagline as a part of its media campaign?
A. Sabse Pehle Life Insurance
B. Jindagikesathbhijindagike bad bhi
C. SabseAchha Jeevan Beema
D. SabsePahleApni Suraksha
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q264. Which country has recently taken the presidency of the "UN convention to combat
desertification", from China for next 2 years?
A. Japan
B. India
C. Philippines
D. Australia
E. South Africa

Answer – B

Q265. PLA is the name of the Army of which country?

A. USA
B. Japan
C. North Korea
D. China
E. Pakistan

Answer – D

Q266. India's first ever Comprehensive National Nutrition Survey has been conducted by
theministry of health & family welfare (MOHFW) in collaboration with
A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. UNICEF
D. FAO
E. WTO

Answer – C

Q267. Padma Shri Awardee Shri Dr HargovindLaxmishanker Trivedi who passed away
recently wasveteran .
A. Geologist
B. Neurologist
C. Journalist
D. Nephrologist
E. Environmentalist

Answer – D

Q268. The 5th World Parliament of Science Religion & Philosophy was held in
A. Mumbai
B. Nagpur
C. Ahmedabad
D. Jaipur
E. Pune

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q269. The courage in journalism award is a prize awarded by which of the following
organizations?
A. World Media Foundation
B. Interactive Media Foundation
C. New Media Foundation
D. International Women's Media Foundation
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q,270. Recently, INS Khanderi was commissioned into the Indian Navy at which Port?
A. Mormugao Dockyard, Goa
B. Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
C. Paradip Dockyard, Odisha
D. Mazagaon Docks, Mumbai
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q271. Who among the following has recently won the "Peter Mackler Award" which is
given forcourageous and ethical journalism?
A. Robert Fisk
B. Kate Adie
C. Christiane Amanpour
D. Bob Woodward
E. Paolo Borrometi

Answer – E

Q272. Which one of the following exercises has been conducted by India near the China
border ineastern Ladakh?
A. Vajra Prahar
B. Hand-in-Hand
C. Yudha Abhyas
D. Chang Thang
E. Surya Kiran

Answer – D
Q273. Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Lakshmi Vilas
BankParthasarathi Mukherjee has announced his resignation citing personal reasons. The
headquarterof the Lakshmi Vilas Bank is situated in?
A. Mumbai
B. Madurai
C. Chennai
D. Delhi
E. Mangalore
Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q274. Which of the following Southeast Asian countries has inaugurated Southeast Asia's
largest solar power farm which has the capacity to produce 688 million kWh of electricity
per year?
A. Thailand
B. Laos
C. Cambodia
D. Vietnam
E. Malaysia

Answer – D

Q275. Where is the headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency located?
A. Manila
B. Vienna
C. Paris
D. Washington DC
E. London

Answer – B

Q276. Reserve Bank of India comes out with draft norms for 'on-tap' licensing of Small
Finance Banks(SFBs). In the draft guidelines, the RBI has proposed the minimum paid-up
equity capital offor the SFBs.
A. 100 crore
B. 200 crore
C. 300 crore
D. 400 crore
E. 500 crore

Answer – B

Q277. Where is the headquarters of UN Habitat located?

A. Rome, France
B. Austria, Vienna
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. New York, US
E. Nairobi, Kenya

Answer – E
Q278. James Peebles, Michel Mayor and Didier queloz have won the Nobel Prize 2019 in
which oneof the following categories?
A. Medicine
B. Chemistry
C. Economics
D. Peace
E. Physics
Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q279. Pakyong Airport is located in _

A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Mizoram
D. Sikkim
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q280. On 1" and 2"d of November, 2019, two day meeting of the council of heads of
government(CHG) of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was held in
A. Beijing, China
B. Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan
C. Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan
D. Dushanbe, Tajikistan
E. Tashkent, Uzbekistan

Answer – E

Q281. Who is the author of the book 'The Third Pillar-How Markets and the State leave
theCommunity Behind'?
A. Anita Desai
B. Chetan Bhagat
C. Arundhati Roy
D. Ravinder Singh
E. Raghuram Rajan

Answer – E

Q282. Which of the following global payment technology company has signed up newly
crownedWorld Champion P.V. Sindhu as an athlete member for the 2020 Tokyo Olympic
Games?
A. Mastercard
B. Global payments
C. Heartland
D. VISA
E. PayPros
Answer – D

Q283. The Ramsar wetland Rudrasagar lake is located in which of the following state in
India?
A. Assam
B. Meghalaya
C. Tripura
D. Manipur
E. Mizoram
Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q284. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Lieutenant (Lt) Governors
ofLadakh, the newly created Union Territories of India?

A. Radha Krishna Mathur

B. Dineshwar Sharma
C. Girish Chandra Murmu
D. Satya Pal Malik
E. P S Sreedharan Pillai

Answer – A

Q285. Which of the following countries will host the G20 summit in 2020?
A. Japan
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Canada
D. India
E. Indonesia

Answer – B

Q286. Lessons Life Taught Me, Unknowingly' is the autobiography of _

A. Lal Krishna Advani
B. Pranab Mukherjee
C. Amitabh Bachchan
D. Sanjay Dutt
E. Anupam Kher

Answer – E

Q287. Helsinki is the capital of which of the following country?

A. Norway
B. Sweden
C. Croatia
D. Belgium
E. Finland

Answer – E

Q288. Recently, RBI has turned down Lakshmi Vilas Bank's proposal to merged with which
of thefollowing companies?
A. Indiabulls Housing Finance Ltd
B. PNB Housing Finance Limited
C. LIC Housing Finance Limited
D. ICICI Housing Finance
E. None of these

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q289. IAAF World Athletics Championships 2019 was held in which country?
A. UAE
B. Iran
C. Saudi Arabia
D. Qatar
E. Turkey

Answer – D

Q290. Which of the following Mutual Fund has been renamed as 'Nippon India Mutual
Fund'?
A. Bharti AXA Mutual Fund
B. Reliance Mutual Fund
C. HSBC Mutual Fund
D. ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund
E. Religare Mutual Fund

Answer – B

Q291. Recently, Edgar Chagwa Lungu visited New Delhi, he is the President of which of the
followingcountry?
A. Jamaica
B. Zimbabwe
C. Zambia
D. Kenya
E. Kongo

Answer – C

Q292. Which of the following banks has recently announced the launch of 'Express FD', a
digitalfixed deposit (FD) product that allows the customer to open an FD account in three
minutes throughthe digital mode without opening a savings account with the bank?
A. ICICI Bank
B. HDFC Bank
C. Yes Bank
D. Kotak Mahindra Bank
E. Axis Bank

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q293. According to the 'Swachh Rail, Swachh Bharat 2019' report, which railway station
topped thelist of the cleanest railway station in India?
A. Jaipur
B. Jhansi
C. Kharagpur
D. Bhopal
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q294. What is the theme of the International Day of the Girl Child (IDGC) for the year
2019?
A. Innovating for girl's education
B. Empowering Adolescent Girls: Ending the Cycle of Violence
C. EmPOWER Girls: Before, during and after crises
D. Girls' Progress = Goals
E. GirlForce: Unscripted and Unstoppable

Answer – E

Q295. Which country has launched the World's Biggest Transport Spaceship, Kounotori-8
for SpaceStation in September 2019?
A. China
B. Russia
C. USA
D. Japan
E. Israel

Answer – D

Q296. The 7th annual World Hindu Economic Forum (WHEF) 2019 held in
A. Chicago, USA
B. Paris, France
C. London, UK
D. Kathmandu, Nepal
E. Mumbai, India
Answer –E

Q297. During the UN Climate Change Summit, 2019 the 16-year-old environmental activist
GretaThunberg shook world leaders with her speech at the United Nations, accusing world
leaders offailing to take action on climate change. She belongs to which country?
A. Sweden
B. Norway
C. Denmark
D. Finland
E. Austria
Answer - A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q298. Who among the following has won the 2019 Japan Open single title in Tokyo,
Japan?
A. Roger Federer
B. Rafael Nadal
C. John Millman
D. Daniil Medvedev
E. Novak Djokovic

Answer – E

Q299. Which of the following cities has hosted the first-ever India International
Cooperatives TradeFair (ICTF)?
A. Ahmedabad
B. Lucknow
C. Patna
D. Indore
E. New Delhi

Answer – E

Q300. Which among the following countries had decided to withdraw its membership
fromOrganisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) effective from January
2019?
A. Qatar
B. Iran
C. Venezuela
D. Iraq
E. United Arab Emirates

Answer – A

Q301. The joint military exercise 'Vajra Prahar' was held between India and which
country?
A. Japan
B. China
C. USA
D. Russia
E. Israel

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q302. On October 11, 2019, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) came up with a new reporting
systemcalled Central Information System for Banking Infrastructure (CISBI) for.
A. all commercial banks
B. all regional rural banks
C. all cooperative banks
D. all NBFCs
E. all foreign banks

Answer – C

Q303. Jagdeep Dhankar has been appointed the new Governor of which state?
A. Bihar
B. Jharkhand
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. West Bengal

Answer – E

Q304. Which among the following countries has recently abolished the most controversial
laboursystem called "Kafala"?
A. Qatar
B. Kuwait
C. Saudi Arabia
D. Bahrain
E. None of these

Answer - A

Q305. The new version of Bharat Interface for Money app, BHIM 2.0 will now support how
manyadditional languages with existing 13 languages?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

Answer – A

Q306. Which of the following Ministry has launched Pradhan Mantri Innovative
LearningProgramme (PMILP) 'DHRUV' from ISRO Headquarters Bengaluru?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Food Processing Industries
C. Ministry of Environment
D. Ministry of Human Resource Development
E. None of the Above
Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q307. Which company has become the ist Indian company to hit Rs. 9 lakh crore
marketcapitalization?
A. Tata
B. Wipro
C. Reliance
D. Infosys
E. None of the Above

Answer – C

Q308. Which of the following banks has announced to launch a new Fixed Deposit (FD)
scheme 'FDHealth' that will offer the dual benefit of a fixed deposit along with free critical
illness coverage witha sum assured of Rs 1 lakh?
A. HDFC Bank
B. Yes Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. Kotak Mahindra Bank
E. ICICI Bank

Answer – E

Q309. Which state has smallest land area?

A. Goa
B. Nagaland
C. Sikkim
D. Tripura
E. Mizoram

Answer – A

Q310. Bernardine Evaristo has won the 2019 Booker Prize for which of the following
novel?
A. Girl, Woman, Other
B. The Testaments
C. Quichote
D. The Handmaid's Tale
E. None of these

Answer - A
Q311. Kuchipudi is a folk dance of...............
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Mizoram
C. Jammu & Kashmir
D. Maharashtra
E. Tamil Nadu

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q312. The 2020 Summer Olympics is scheduled to take place in —

A. Beijing, China
B. Pyeongchang, South Korea
C. Jakarta, Indonesia
D. Gold Coast, Australia
E. Tokyo, Japan

Answer – E

Q313. Which Payment Bank has recently (July 2019) announced to shut down all its
bankingoperations?
A. Paytm Payments Bank
B. Fino Payments Bank
C. Airtel Payments Bank
D. Jio Payments Bank
E. Aditya Birla Payments Bank

Answer – E

Q314. The headquarters of the International Solar Alliance (ISA)is located in which city in
India?
A. Chandigarh
B. Mysuru
C. Surat
D. Gurgaon
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q315. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?

A. Italy
B. Switzerland
C. Belgium
D. France
E. U.K

Answer – B

Q316. Which country will host the 46th G7 summit which is scheduled to be held from 10
to 12thJune 2020?
A. USA
B. Canada
C. England
D. Italy
E. France

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q317. The India arm of Netherlands-based Home Credit Group has tied up with which
bank for jointlending to tap the large unbanked customer base across ?
A. Yes Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. HDFC Bank
E. Karur Vysya Bank

Answer – E

Q318. Which of the following banks has launched Digi Smart credit card?
A. ABN Amro Bank
B. Deutsche Bank
C. HSBC Bank
D. Federal Bank
E. Standard Chartered Bank

Answer – E

Q319. In which of the following cities India's first e-waste clinic will be set up?
A. Indore
B. Jabalpur
C. Bhopal
D. Raipur
E. New Delhi

Answer – C

Q320. Which of the following British cricketers has been named as the players' player of
the year atthe Professional Cricketers' Association awards.?
A. Joe Root
B. Eoin Morgan
C. Jos Buttler
D. Tom Curran
E. Ben Stokes

Answer -E

Q321. The headquarters of the Arab League is located in?

A. Cairo, Egypt
B. Abu Dhabi, UAE
C. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
D. Doha, Qatar
E. Muscat, Oman

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q322. Which of the following organ have the capacity to regenerate?

A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Intestine
D. Pancreas
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q323. Under the chairmanship of which of the following committees, a five-pronged

strategy Project'SASHAKT' was recommended to deal with non-performing assets in the
country's banking system?
A. E Sridharan committee
B. Rajesh Bindal committee
C. Sunil Mehta committee
D. Subhash Chandra Garg committee
E. N Gopala swami committee

Answer – C

Q324. Vidyadhar Bhattacharya was the chief architect of which city?

A. Pushkar
B. Ajmer
C. Jaipur
D. Jodhpur
E. Agra

Answer – C

Q325. Rohingya tribe belong to which of the following countries?

A. Thailand
B. Bangladesh
C. Myanmar
D. Afghanistan
E. Pakistan

Answer – C

Q326. Kyllan Mbappe Is related to which of the following sports?

A. Cricket
B. Basketball
C. Football
D. Badminton
E. None of these

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q327. What is the current Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)?

A. 20.25%
B. 19.75%
C. 19.25%
D. 21.25%
E. 19.50%

Answer – C

Q328. Which of the following countries is the global host nation for the 43rd edition of
WorldEnvironment Day-2018?
A. China
B. USA
C. India
D. Iran
E. Japan

Answer – C

Q329. The UN Micro, Small and Medium-sized Enterprises (MSME) Day is celebrated on
A. June 13
B. June 16
C. June 27
D. June 15
E. June 17

Answer – C

Q330. Which one of the following committees has recommended the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) toset up Public Credit Registry (PCR) to check loan defaults?
A. AK Bhuchar Committee
B. B Venkatappaiah Committee
C. Goiporia Committee
D. L K Jha Committee
E. YM Deosthalee committee

Answer – E

Q331. Which Indian sportsperson has been named as the Sports Ambassador of Assam?
A. Mary Kom
B. Hima Das
C. Dutee Chand
D. Saina Nehwal
E. Rahul Dravid

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q332. The headquarters of The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AlIB) is located in?
A. Beijing
B. Shanghai
C. Xinijiang
D. Hong Kong
E. Xian

Answer – A

Q333. In June 2018, the Reserve Bank of India conducted a Financial Literacy Week with
the focuson creating banking awareness. What was the theme of the Financial Literacy
Week?
A. 'Know Your Customer'
B. 'Customer Protection'
C. 'Know Your Bank'
D. 'Safe Banking'
E. Other than the given options

Answer – B

Q334. On August 6, 1945, the first nuclear bomb was dropped in which Japanese city?
A. Hiroshima
B. Tokyo
C. Nagasaki
D. Yakohama
E. Sendai

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q335. Where is the headquarters of INTERPOL?

A. Paris
B. London
C. Lyon
D. Geneva
E. Rome

Answer – C

Q336. India and Russia have concluded price negotiations for the procurement of which
one of thefollowing missiles?
A. S-300
B. Strela-3
C. S-400
D. S-125
E. UR-100

Answer – C

Q337. Which of the following bank has been listed as the Best bank in the private sector?
A. ICICI Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Yes Bank
D. HDFC Bank
E. Kotak Mahindra Bank

Answer – D

Q338. 'Jallikattu' is typically practised in the which Indian state as a part of Pongal
celebrations?
A. Kerala
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Manipur
E. Assam

Answer – C

Q339. Kishori amonkar died recently. He was associated with which of the following
fields?
A. Classical Vocalist
B. Classical Dancer
C. Sports
D. Politician
E. Painter

Answer - A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q340. Which one of the following engines has been developed and used by ISRO?
A. AI-01
B. GS-10
C. BE-21
D. CE-20
E. CD-2.0

Answer – D

Q341. "Banglore Tiger" book is based on which one of the following Indian IT companies?
A. Infosys
B. TCS
C. Wipro
D. HCL
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q342. Which of the following personalities is also known as "Metro Man"?

A. PV Chandran
B. Elattuvalapil Sreedharan
C. Tessy Thomas
D. Man Mohan Sharma
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q343. The Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to the International Campaign to Abolish
NuclearWeapons (ICAN) for drawing attention to the "catastrophic humanitarian
consequences" of usingnuclear weapons and for its efforts in a nuclear treaty. The
headquarters of International Campaignto Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN) is located in _
A. Vienna, Austria
B. Rome, Italy
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. Melbourne, Australia
E. Paris, France

Answer - C

Q344. What is the full form of CVV?

A. Credit Verification Value
B. Currency Verification Variable
C. Customer Verification Value
D. Card Verification Value
E. None of these

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q345. The initiative, 'Livelihood and Water Security' for the states of Haryana and
Rajasthan is tobe launched under the aegis of which of the following banks?
A. Dena Bank
B. HDFC Bank
C. ICICl Bank
D. YES Bank
E. Kotak Mahindra Bank

Answer – D

Q346. Which of the following country is the last to join BRICS association in 2010?
A. Indonesia
B. Bangladesh
C. South Africa
D. China
E. Argentina

Answer – C

Q347. National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) was incorporated in the year 2005.
Theorganisation was set up under the supervision of
A. State Bank of India
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
D. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
E. Securities and Exchange Board of India

Answer – B

Q348. A new scheme by the name of 'RISE' was introduced in the budget 2017 -18. RISE
stands for
A. Rejuvenating Intermediate and Small-scale Enterprises
B. Renewing Institutional and Societal Establishments
C. Revitalising Infrastructure and Systems in Education
D. Reforming Infrastructure and Systems in Evaluation
E. Relocating Internal and Sub divisional Establishments

Answer – C

Q349. Corporation Bank is a public-sector banking company headquartered in _

A. Kolkata
B. Mangalore
C. Chennai
D. Bengaluru
E. Mumbai

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q350. Who among the following has been appointed as the first CFO of the Reserve Bank
of India?
A. M.K. Jain
B. Sudha Balakrishnan
C. Amitabh Kant
D. HR Khan
E. S.S. Mundra

Answer – B

Q351. Who among the following is presently serving as the President of South Korea?
A. Roh Tae-woo
B. Tshering Tobgay
C. Moon Jae-in
D. Park Geun-hye
E. Sangay Ngedup

Answer – C

Q352. In which one of the following states the Patratu Thermal Power Plant has been
proposed tobe set up?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Jharkhand
D. West Bengal
E. Kerala

Answer – C

Q353. Which one of the following is the official mascot of Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games?
A. Soohorang
B. Vinicius de Moraes
C. The Hare, the Polar Bear and the Leopard
D. Miraitowa
E. Bandabi

Answer – D

Q354. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank (ADB) located?

A. Berlin, China
B. Tokyo, Japan
C. Moscow, Russia
D. Shenzhen, China
E. Mandaluyong, Philippines

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q355. What is the minimum amount required to open an account under the Sukanya
SamriddhiYojana (SSY)?
A. Rs. 250
B. Rs 550
C. Rs. 450
D. Rs. 750
E. Rs. 1000

Answer – A

Q356. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated India's longest rail-road bridge over
theBrahmaputra river at Bogibeel in which state?
A. Tripura
B. Sikkim
C. Assam
D. Arunachal Pradesh
E. Manipur

Answer – C

Q357. "Rani ki vav" is an intricately constructed stepwell situated in

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Gujarat
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. West Bengal

Answer – C

Q358. The headquarter of Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development

(OECD) is in
A. London, UK
B. Vienna, Austria
C. Paris, France
D. Beijing, China
E. Rome, Italy

Answer – C

Q359. Where is Nokrek national park situated?

A. Odisha
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Meghalaya
E. Assam
Answer –D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q360. "Lusaka" is the capital of which one of the following countries?

A. Yemen
B. Uganda
C. Somalia
D. Zambia
E. None of these

Answer – D

Q361. Which of the following indirect taxes are not subsumed under GST?
A. Service tax
B. Octroi
C. VAT
D. Stamp duty
E. Luxury tax

Answer - D

Q362. Which city of India has recently been declared as the cleanest city as per the
Swachh Bharat Survey?
A. Bhopal
B. Surat
C. Indore
D. Vadodara
E. Jaipur

Answer – C

Q363. Which one of the following cities has recently been accorded the status of India's
first WorldHeritage City by UNESCO?
A. Chennai
B. Varanasi
C. Hyderabad
D. Agra
E. Ahmedabad

Answer – E

Q364. The Salar Jung Museum is an art museum located in

A. Telangana
B. Tamil Nadu
C. West Bengal
D. Bihar
E. Madhya Pradesh

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q365. In May 2018, India dragged the US to the World Trade Organisation's dispute
settlementmechanism over the imposition of import duties on
A. crude oil
B. steel & aluminium
C. automobiles
D. electronics product
E. machinery

Answer – B

Q366. The Union Minister 'Harsh Vardhan' has launched a first-ever Industry-Academia
mission'National Biopharma Mission'. What is the objective of the 'National Biopharma
Mission'?
A. To understand the potential of wind energy in different parts of India.
B. To accelerate biopharmaceutical development in India
C. To promote bamboo production and the manufacturing of items
D. To develop rural areas by providing economic, social and physical infrastructure
facilities
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q367. What is the maximum insurance cover per family under the Ayushman Bharat
NationalHealth Protection Mission?
A. Rs. 1 lakh
B. Rs. 3 lakh
C. Rs. 2 lakh
D. Rs. 5 lakh
E. Rs. 4 lakh

Answer – D

Q368. Sai Praneeth is associated with which of the following sports?

A. Hockey
B. Badminton
C. Chess
D. Boxing
E. Football

Answer – B

Q369. India had signed an Open Skies agreement with which country which will allow
designatedairlines of both signatory countries to operate freely?
A. Singapore
B. Russia
C. France
D. Germany
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

E. Japan

Answer – E

Q370. Pitch Black Exercise is an air exercise held between

A. India and Australia
B. India and Japan
C. India and France
D. India and Nepal
E. India and USA

Answer – A

Q371. Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the first ever All India
Institute ofAyurveda (AlIA). It has been set up in which one of the following cities?
A. Ahmedabad
B. New Delhi
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Himachal Pradesh
E. None of these

Answer – B

Q372. is the world's first woman to scale Mount Everest twice.

A. Suma Shirur
B. Santosh Yadav
C. Surja Lata Devi
D. Jyoti Randhawa
E. Premlata Agarwal

Answer – B

Q,373. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit 2018 was held in

A. Astana, Kazakhstan
B. Chelyabinsk, Russia
C. Xiamen, China
D. Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan
E. Qingdao, China

Answer - E
Q374. Which one of the following banks has launched 'Social Pay' for NRIs?
A. Doha Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. HDFC bank
E. None of the above

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q375. Which of the following section of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 was
amended toinclude the definition of an electronic cheque and that of a truncated cheque?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 2
D. 5
E. 6

Answer - E

Q376. As per the Public Affairs Index (PAI) for 2018, which state has topped in the list of
best-governed large states in India?
A. Punjab
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Kerala
E. Karnataka

Answer – D

Q377. What do you understand by Marginal Standing Facility?

A. Rate of interest which is levied on Short-Term loans taken by commercial banks from
RBI.
B. Rate at which commercial banks charge on their surplus funds with RBI.
C. The amount a commercial bank needs to maintain in the form of cash, or gold or
government approved securities (Bonds) before providing credit to its customers.
D. Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve
Bank of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up
completely.
E. It is defined in Sec 49 of RBI Act 1934 as the 'standard rate at which RBI is prepared
to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers eligible for
purchase under this act'.

Answer – D

Q378. Commerce Minister has recently approved 15 projects for infrastructure under TIES.
TIES isrelated to which of the following fields?
A. MSME
B. Agriculture
C. Industry
D. Education
E. Export

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q379. When a group of lenders fund various portions of a loan to a single borrower, it is
called
A. Subsidized loan
B. Commercial loans
C. Retail trade loans
D. Bridge Loan
E. Syndicated Loan

Answer – E

Q380. Sonam Wangchuk andMagsaysay Award 2018., are the two Indians who have won
the Ramon
A. Youk Chhang
B. Barry Barish
C. Vaishali Dev
D. Howard Dee
E. Bharat Vatwani

Answer – E

Q381. Which of the following committees has been constituted to suggest laws against
mob lynchingand violence?
A. AK Bhuchar Committee
B. B Venkatappaiah Committee
C. Rajiv Gauba Committee
D. L K Jha Committee
E. YM Deosthalee committee

Answer – C

Q382. Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill, 2018 will empower authorities to attach and
confiscateproperties and assets of economic offenders. For which of the following
amounts is the term'fugitive offender' applicable in the domestic territory of India?
A. Rs. 500 crores
B. Rs. 1000 crores
C. Rs. 100 crores
D. Rs. 200 crores
E. Rs. 5000 crores

Answer – C
Q383. Who is the author of the book "Why I Am a Hindu'?
A. Shashi Tharoor
B. Renuka Chowdhury
C. Kapil Sibal
D. Praful Patel
E. None of these
Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q384. A banking outlet which does not provide delivery of service for a minimum of
per day and for at least 5 days a week will be considered a 'Part-time Banking
Outlet'.

A. two hours
B. five hours
C. four hours
D. three
E. six hours

Answer – C

Q385. Section 22 of Banking Regulations Act, 1949 deals with .

A. Prohibits a banking company from creating a charge upon any unpaid capital of the
company
B. Provides that the subscribed capital of a banking company should not be less than
one-half of its authorised capital
C. To allow Banks to open branches
D. Contains a system of licensing of banks by the RBI
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q,386. Which of the following activities cannot be performed by Payment banks?

1) Give loans
2) Issue credit cards
3) Accept Deposit
A. 1 only
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. NONE

Answer –B

Q387. The Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Bansagar canal project in which
state?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
E. Uttarakhand

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q388. Reserve Bank of India controls inflation by increasing the Repo rate. What is the
present RepoRate?

A. 5.50%
B. 6.0%
C. 6.25%
D. 6.50%
E. 6.75%

Answer – C

Q389. Who among the following has won the FIFA World Cup 2018 Golden Ball award for
being thebest player of the tournament?
A. Harry Kane
B. Thibaut Courtois
C. Kylian Mbappé
D. Lionel Messi
E. Luka Modric

Answer – E

Q390. Which of the following city will host the Commonwealth Games in 2022?
A. Baltimore, USA
B. Alabama, USA
C. Birmingham, England
D. Birmingham, USA
E. None of these

Answer – C

Q391. M.A. Chidambaram Stadium is situated in which one of the following Indian states?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Telangana
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Madhya Pradesh

Answer – D

Q392. Hirakud dam is located in which of the following states?

A. Jharkhand
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Odisha
D. West Bengal
E. Karnataka

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q393. Haldia Refinery is located in which one of the following Indian states?
A. Assam
B. Jharkhand
C. Odisha
D. Bihar
E. West Bengal

Answer – E

Q394. Where is the headquarter of Jana Small Finance Bank?

A. Ahmedabad
B. Kolkata
C. Mumbai
D. Bengaluru
E. Chennai

Answer – D

Q395. Who among the following has authored the book 'Hit Refresh'?
A. Tim Cook
B. Mark Zuckerberg
C. Bill Gates
D. Sundar Pichai
E. Satya Nadella

Answer – E

Q396. Suez Canal connects which of the following two seas?

A. Red Sea and Arabian Sea
B. Arabian Sea and Mediterranean Sea
C. Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
D. North Sea and Baltic Sea
E. None of the above

Answer –C

Q397. Who has been named as the 2017 All India Football Federation (AIFF) mens Player
of the Year?
A. Bhaichung Bhutia
B. V. P. Sathyan
C. Subrata Pal
D. Sandesh Jhingan
E. Sunil Chhetri

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q398. Guru Shikhar, the highest peak in the Aravalli Range at 5650 feet (1722 meters) is
located inwhich state?
A. Haryana
B. Gujarat
C. Bihar
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Rajasthan

Answer – E

Q399. The book 'Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra' is authored by

A. Arvind Adige
B. Neel Mukherjee
C. Ruskin Bond
D. A PJ Abdul Kalam
E. Shashi Tharoor

Answer – C

Q,400. What is Repo Rate?

A. It is a rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market
B. It is a rate at which RBI lends funds to commercial banks
C. It is a rate at which RBI buys Government securities from banks
D. It is a rate which is offered by banks to their most valued customers or prime
customers
E. None of these
Answer – B
RBI Grade B: Phase 2

Finance and Management:

Section: Objective (Note – 1 to 10 number question is 1 marker& 11 to 30 number
question is 2 marker)
Q.1) The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Bill, 2021 was
introducedin Lok Sabha on March 22, 2021. The Bill seeks to establish the National Bank
for FinancingInfrastructure and Development (NaBFID) as the principal development
financial institution (DFIs)for sector.
A. Finance
B. Railway
C. Roadways
D. Infrastructure
E. Export

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.2) From the following details calculate the return to assets ratio.
• Income = 100 Lakh
• Assets = 500 Lakh
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 50%

Answer – B

Q.3) As per OCEAN model, if a person is organized, self-disciplined and he or she is

achievementoriented, then which of the following personality trait can be associated to
him or her?
A. Openness
B. Extraversion
C. Agreeableness
D. Neuroticism
E. Conscientiousness

Answer - E

Q.4) In the field of Management, describes the difference

between trueand exposed emotions.
A. Perception Défense
B. Emotional Intelligence
C. Cognitive Dissonance
D. Emotional Management
E. Emotional dissonance

Answer – E

Q.5) Which of the following theories of ethics, focusses on consequences of greater good
and evil?
A. Deontological Theory of Ethics
B. Virtue Ethics
C. Teleological Theory of Ethics
D. Ethics-Justice Theory
E. None of the above

Answer – C

Q.6) Generally, is the principle which focusses on the kind of value which
displaces concerns of others
A. Care
B. Distribution
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Justice
D. Right
E. Entitlements

Answer – A

Q.7) Under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors,
areallowed to freely remit up to per financial year (April – March) for
anypermissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.
A. USD 2,50,000
B. INR 2,50,000
C. USD 50,000
D. INR 50,000
E. INR 15,000

Answer - A

Q.8) In the field of Finance, which of the following is an example of Alternative Sources
ofFinance?
A. Overdraft Credit
B. G-secs
C. Bonds
D. Forfaiting
E. Bank Loan

Answer – D

Q.9) In general context, which of the following is type of non-Tax revenue?

A. GST
B. Custom Duties
C. Production Duties
D. Interest
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q.10) Ramesh lent Rupees 25000 to Suresh for 3 months. After three months Ramesh had
to payrupees 25000 to Rajesh so he underwrote an instrument obliging Suresh to pay
rupees 25000directly to Rajesh and thus absolving himself from the liability. What kind of
negotiableinstrument will they use?
A. Line of Credit
B. Promissory Note
C. Bill of Landing
D. Bill of Exchange
E. Commercial Paper

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (11-15): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows.
Indian Government is committed to provide financial inclusiveness and support to the
marginalizedand hitherto socio-economically neglected classes. Financial Inclusion is a
national priority of theGovernment as it is an enabler for inclusive growth. It is important
as it provides an avenue to thepoor for bringing their savings into the formal financial
system, an avenue to remit money to theirfamilies in villages besides taking them out of
the clutches of the usurious money lenders.
In the same regard, one such ”X” scheme to promote financial inclusion,
waslaunched by the government on 15th August 2014, which is one of the biggest
financial inclusioninitiatives in the world.
Moving forward, in order to move towards creating a universal social security system for
all Indians,especially the poor and the under-privileged, three ambitious Jan Suraksha
Schemes or SocialSecurity Schemes pertaining to Insurance and Pension Sector were
announced by the Governmentin the Budget for 2015-16. The schemes were launched on
9th May 2015, for providing life &accident risk insurance and social security at a very
affordable cost namely (a) Pradhan MantriSuraksha Bima Yojana (b) Pradhan Mantri
Jeevan Jyoti Yojana and (C) Atal Pension Yojana(This is a recreated passage and not the
exact one asked in the exam)

Q11) Read the above passage carefully, and identify “ X ” scheme launched by the
government on 15th August 2014.
A. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Kalyan Yojana
B. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
C. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
D. Pradhan Mantri Jan Manthan Yojana
E. Pradhan Mantri Jan Yojana

Answer – B

Q12. What is the insurance limit under Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana. (2
Marks)
A. 1,00,000
B. 2,00,000
C. 3,00,000
D. 4,00,000
E. None of Above

Answer – B
Q13. With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, what is the Age limit to join the
PradhanMantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana.
A. 55 Years
B. 60 Years
C. 65 Years
D. 40 Years
E. 50 Years

Answer - E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.14. With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, what is the maximum pension
receivedunder PM-Atal Pension Yojana.
A. 2000
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 5000
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q.15) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, what is the premium paid under
PradhanMantri Suraksha Bima Yojana?
A. Rs. 10
B. Rs. 12
C. Rs. 40
D. Rs. 20
E. Rs. 25

Answer – D

Directions (16-18): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows.
Motivation is the driving force that compels individuals to act and pursue goals, stemming
frominternal desires or external incentives. It energizes behavior, directing efforts toward
achievingobjectives and satisfying needs, influencing performance and satisfaction in
various aspects of life.Two eminent contributors to the field of motivation are Abraham
Maslow and David McClelland.They have identified specific workplace motivational
needs. In this context, David McClellandproposed ”X” motivating elements,
while Maslow presented the hierarchicalstructure of the need pyramid. Their seminal
work has significantly advanced the understanding ofhuman motivation in organizational
settings.(This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)

Q.16) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, Identify “X” from the following
givenoptions.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of the above

Answer – C

Q.17) With regards of the above paragraph, if an employee is currently at the

Physiological needs,then what will be the highest level as per Maslow motivational
theory.
A. Safety Needs
B. Security Needs
C. Belonginess Needs
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Self Esteem Needs

E. Self-Actualization Needs

Answer - E

Q.18) Managers' perceptions of employees can vary significantly. Some may view
certainemployees as lazy and disliking work, while others may perceive them as
enthusiastic andenjoying their job. Identify the theory of motivation which explains such
different Managers'perceptions of employees.
A. Adam Equity Theory
B. Vroom Expectancy Theory
C. ERG theory
D. Theory X and Theory Y
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Directions (19-20): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows.
Leadership is the process of guiding and influencing individuals or a group to achieve
shared goals.Effective leaders inspire and motivate others, foster collaboration, and make
strategic decisions.Leadership involves traits like communication, empathy, vision, and
adaptability, empoweringpeople to realize their potential and achieve collective
success.Kurt Lewin, a psychologist, made significant contributions to the study of
leadership through hisresearch on group dynamics and social psychology.
(Note – this was not the exact one asked in the exam, its recreated)

Q.19) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, which of the following are the
threeleadership styles introduced by the Kurt Lewin in 1930?
A. Autocratic, Democratic, and Equity
B. Autocratic, Delegative, and Equity
C. Power, Democratic, and Equity
D. Autocratic, Democratic, and Supportive
E. Autocratic, Democratic, and Laissez-faire.

Answer – E

Q.20) There are multiple leadership styles which a leader can follow, in the same regard,
whichof the following is/are the examples of contingency theory of leadership.
A. Fielder Contingency Theory
B. House path Goal Theory
C. Blake and Mouton Managerial Grid
D. Both Option A and C
E. Both Option A and B

Answer - E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Directions (21-25): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows.
A Discussion Paper on ‘Governance in Commercial Banks in India’ was issued by the
Reserve Bankon June 11, 2021 to review the framework for governance in the commercial
banks. In order toaddress a few operative aspects received through such feedback, it has
been decided to issueinstructions with regard to the Chair and meetings of the board,
composition of certain committeesof the board, age, tenure and remuneration of
directors, and appointment of the whole-timedirectors (WTDs).Under the revised
guidelines for Appointment of Directors and Constitution of Committees of theBoard, The
Chair of the board shall be an independent director. In the absence of the Chair of
theboard, the meetings of the board shall be chaired by an independent director. The
quorum for theboard meetings shall be ”X” of the total strength of the
board or three directors,whichever is higher. At least half of the directors attending the
meetings of the board shall beindependent directors.Moreover, banks are required to
form, Audit Committee of Board (ACB) and RiskManagementCommittee of the Board
(RMCB).The revised instructions would be applicable to all the Private Sector Banks
including Small FinanceBanks (SFBs) and wholly owned subsidiaries of Foreign Banks. In
respect of State Bank of India andNationalized Banks
(Note – this was not the exact one asked in the exam, its recreated)

Q.21) Which part of the of the banking is being addressed by RBI in the above-
mentionedpassage?
A. Corporate Management
B. Corporate Governance
C. Risk Management
D. Outsourcing the IT process
E. Outsourcing the KYC Process

Answer – B
Q.22) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, The Audit Committee of the Board
(ACB)shall be constituted with only .
A. Independent Directors
B. Non-Independent Directors
C. Non-executive directors (NEDs)
D. Promoters
E. None of the above

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.23) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, Under Risk Management

Committee ofthe Board (RMCB), The board shall constitute an RMCB with a majority of
NEDs. The RMCB shallmeet with a quorum of three members. Meetings of RMCB shall be
chaired by an .

A. Independent Directors
B. Non-Independent Directors
C. Non-executive directors (NEDs)
D. Promoters
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q.24) With regard to the above-mentioned paragraph, Identify “X”.

A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 3/2
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Q.25) The Chair of the board may be a member of the RMCB only if he/she has the
requisite expertise.
A. Finance Expertise
B. Risk management Expertise
C. Audit Expertise
D. Corporate Expertise
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Directions (26-28): Read the following Paragraph and answer the questions that follows.
Rohan's career journey was full of changes, trying out different roles. However,
poorcommunication always held him back. Despite his skills, he felt the need to conquer
this obstaclefor true success. Like Rohan, many people face multiple barriers to the
communication process,some of the them are listed below –
A. Misunderstanding due to translation error caused due to lack of proficiency of
translator inboth languages.
B. Lack of confidence of subordinate to communicate and give feedback to superior.
C. Rules and regulations hindering the communication and Complexity in
Organizationalstructure
D. Lack of time due to pre-occupied mindLastly, Rohan can improve his communication
skills through several steps. Firstly, he should activelylisten to others and be open to
feedback. Practicing clear and concise expression will help himarticulate his ideas better.
(Note – this was not the exact one asked in the exam, its recreated)
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.26) With regards to the above-mentioned passage, which of the following is/are
example ofpersonal barriers in the communication process.
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C and B
D. Only A, B and C
E. Only B and D

Answer – E

Q.27) Identify the barriers of communication, wherein the person (Sender or Receiver) is
unableto translate the language in the required manner.
A. Personal Barriers
B. Semantic Barriers
C. Organizational Barriers
D. Emotional Barriers
E. Psychological barriers

Answer – B

Q.28) Which of the following is an example of Non-Verbal Communication

A. Writing letter
B. Memos
C. Body Language and Gestures
D. Flyers and posters
E. Infographics

Answer – C

Q.29) Power is the capacity to exert authority, influence decisions, direct actions, or
commandresources, often to attain specific objectives or maintain control. There are
different types or basisof power. Raven has identified power bases of two broad
categories: Positional and personal, inthe same regards, identify the correct option from
below –
A. Positional (legitimate, reward, Coercive) , Personal (knowledge, referent)
B. Personal (legitimate, reward, Coercive), Positional (knowledge, referent)
C. Personal (Charismatic power), Positional (knowledge, referent power)
D. Positional (Coercive power), Personal (Reward Power)
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q.30) Identify the theory of corporate governance, which is based on the perception that
acorporation for its effective function has to forge a number of relations with
differentpeople/institutions including suppliers, consumers, employees, government.
A. Steward Ship Theory
B. Agency Theory
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Feedback Theory
D. Stakeholder Theory
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q31) The PIDF Scheme as operationalized by the Reserve Bank from 1* January
2021,subsidizes deployment of Points of Sale (POS) infrastructure (physical and
digitalmodes) in tier-3 to tier-6 centers and northeastern states of the country. In the
sameregard, RBI envisages creatinglakh new touch points every year fordigital payments.
A. 50 Lakhs
B. 40 Lakhs
C. 30 Lakhs
D. 20 Lakhs
E. 10 Lakhs

Answer: C

Q.2) is a 20-character alpha-numeric code used to uniquelyidentify parties to

financial transactions worldwide.
A. Bank Identifier Code (BIC)
B. Legal Identify Identifier (LEI)
C. SWIFT code
D. IFSC Code
E. None of Above

Answer: B

Q.33) Under which method, the communication flows from top to bottom in an
Organisation?
A. Vertical command
B. Line of Authority
C. Communication line
D. Scalar Chain
E. None of Above

Answer: D

Q.34) MSME plays a very crucial role in the development of the Indian economy. In the
same regard, what is the small-scale Industries Limit investment wise and turnover
wise ?
A. 10 Crore and 50 Crore
B. 50 Crore and 10 Crore
C. 1 Croreand 5 Crore
D. 5 Croreand 1 Crore
E. None of the above

Answer: A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.35) xIn which stage of the Lewin Change Management Model, we

see reinforcementstrategies practiced by the management?
A. Change
B. Un-freezing
C. Dynamic
D. Re-Freezing
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.36) In an Organisation, an employee is reliable, dependable, goal-oriented,

andcooperative. Which of the following personality of the employee is reflected as per
BigFive Personality Model?
A. Agreeableness
B. Conscientiousness
C. Emotional Stability
D. Extroversion
E. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.37) As per the recent development in the financial markets, what is the FPI limit onthe
corporate bonds?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 15%
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

Answer: D

Q.38) In the most general language, blaming of one's un-ethical behaviour on others
iscalled as?
A. Euphemistic Labelling
B. Displacement of responsibility
C. Diffusion
D. Ethical Delusion
E. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.39) Identify the form of communication when messages flow through all level
oforganization and under such form of communication messages cross all the levels
ofhierarchy present in the organization.
A. Vertical Communication
B. Downward Communication
C. Diagonal Communication
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. xHorizontal Communication
E. None of the above

Answer – C

Q.40) Import and Export Code (IEC) is mandatory and applicable to which of thefollowing
institutions ?
A. Sole Proprietor
B. LLPs
C. Partnerships
D. HUF
E. All of the above

Answer: E

(Direction - 41-43)A passage on Organizational Behavior was given and it was followedby
3 questions
Organization is the mechanism which determines the relationship of variouspersons. With
the help of a well-defined organization management is able toperform the functions of
direction, co-ordination and control. An ill-definedorganization plan will not enable the
management to make an effectiveexhibition of its managerial talents to realize business
goals.Proper understanding of organizational behaviour can result in many positiveeffects
on the organization and its employees. It also studies how peoplebehave in and around
the workplace, which will be the organization.
(Note – this was not the exact one asked in the exam, its recreated)

Q.41) How many Levels are there in organisational behavior?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.42) Identify the level of organisational behaviour, wherein an employee's motivation,

personality aspect, and job interest are studied.
A. Organisational Level
B. Individual Level
C. Team Level
D. Group
E. None of Above

Answer: B

Q.43) With regards to the above-mentioned paragraph, from the following

options,identify the concept which explains the heterogeneous composition of employees
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

of anorganization in terms of age, gender, language, ethnic origin, education and

maritalstatus.
A. Employee varsity
B. Workplace Diversity
C. Organisation dynamics
D. Organisation teamwork
E. None of Above

Answer: B

(Direction - Q.44 - Q.47)A passage on Corporate social responsibility (CSR) was given and
itwas followed by 4 questions
Corporate social responsibility (CSR) is a self-regulating business model that helps
acompany be socially accountable to itself, its stakeholders, and the public. By
practicingcorporate social responsibility, also called corporate citizenship, companies can
beconscious of the kind of impact they are having on all aspects of society,
includingeconomic, social, and environmental.To engage in CSR means that, in the
ordinary course of business, a company is operatingin ways that enhance society and the
environment instead of contributing negatively tothem.
(Note – this was not the exact one asked in the exam, its recreated)

Q.44) As per section 135 of the companies Act, every company having net worth
ofRupees crore or more will be eligible for CSR activities?
A. 50 Crore
B. 500 Crore
C. 10 Crore
D. 100 Crore
E. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.45) As per section 135 of the companies Act, every company having net profit of
Rupees crore or more will be eligible for CSR?
A. 5 Crore
B. 10 Crore
C. 15 Crore
D. 20 Crore
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.46) According to SEBI, Companies eligible for CSR shall constitute a Corporate
SocialResponsibility Committee of the Board consisting of A or more directors,
out of which at least B shall be an independent director.
Identify “A” from the following option
A. 1
B. 2
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. 3
D. 4
E. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.47) According to SEBI, Companies eligible for CSR shall constitute a Corporate
SocialResponsibility Committee of the Board consisting of A or more directors,
out of which at least B shall be an independent director.
Identify “B” from the following option
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

Answer: A

(Direction - Q.48 - Q.51). A passage on Commercial Paper was given and it was followed by
4questions
Commercial paper is an unsecured, short-term loan taken by a corporation, typically
forfinancing accounts receivable and inventories. It is usually issued at a discount,
reflectingcurrent market interest rates. It is also called unsecured promissory note since in
thisissuer makes a promise to pay back the face value after the maturity period, but
thatpromise is unsecured in the sense there is no guarantee that your money will come
back.For the most part, commercial paper is a very safe investment because the
financialsituation of a company can easily be predicted over a few months. Furthermore,
typicallyonly companies with high credit ratings and credit worthiness issue commercial
paper.
(Note – this was not the exact one asked in the exam, its recreated)

Q.48) Commercial Paper can be issued for a minimum of number of days

A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 Days
D. 14 Days
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

Answer: B

Q.49) Commercial Paper can be issued for a maximum duration of- days?
A. 366 Days
B. 365 Days
C. 150 Days
D. 225 Days
E. None of the above

Answer: B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.50) In India commercial paper are issued in denominations of Rs. lakh

ormultiples.
A. 1 Lakh
B. 2 Lakh
C. 3 Lakh
D. 4 Lakh
E. 5 Lakh
Answer: E

Q.51) Commercial paper are issued in India in which of the following forms?
A. Participatory Notes
B. Promissory Note
C. Debt bills
D. Equity Bills
E. None of the above
Answer: B

(Direction -. Q.52 - Q.54) A passage on Outsourcing of Financial Services by banks

was givenand it was followed by 3 questions
The world over, banks are increasingly using outsourcing, as a means of both
reducingcost and accessing specialist expertise, not available internally and
achieving strategicaims.
Outsourcing' may be defined as a bank's use of a third party (either an affiliated
entitywithin a corporate group or an entity that is external to the corporate group)
to performactivities on a continuing basis that would normally be undertaken by
the bank itself,now or in the future.

Q.52) Typically outsourced financial services include applications processing,

loanorigination, credit card and ?
A. Investment management
B. Supervision of loans
C. Data processing
D. Document processing
E. All of the above
Answer: E

Q.53) There are certain activities which cannot be outsourced by bank, some of
themAre "A" and "B"
Identify A from the following option?
A. Investment management
B. Core management functions
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Marketing and research

D. Supervision of loans
E. None of the above
Answer: B

Q.54) There are certain activities which cannot be outsourced by bank, some of
themAre "A" and "B"
Identify B from the following option?
A. Investment management,
B. Data processing
C. Determining compliance with KYC norms
D. Document processing
E. None of the above
Answer:C

(Direction Q.55 - Q.57)A passage on regarding different needs of an individual and

it wasfollowed by 3 questions --
Ram is currently working in the XYZ company, and he is employed in company for a
longperiod of time. Another company which is very much in the news is ABC
company. ABCcompany is operating on small scale, and it has huge growth
potential. Ram gotfascinated by the growth prospectus of the ABC company and
thereby he decided to jointhe ABC company.
ABC company offered a high reputed job position to Ram and thereby Ram
accepted thejob offer.Soon after joining the ABC company, the colleagues of his
ABC company was not happywith Ram, because Ram was directly recruited from
outside and straight away, he waspromoted to the senior most position.
Moreover, after some time Ram complained about poor working conditions of the
AirConditioner (AC), Desk and chair in the office, but the office authorities didn't
pay anyattention to the Ram's complain and after getting frustrated Ram decided
to leave ABCcompany and he decided to start his own venture.
(Note - This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)

Q.55) As Ram complained about poor working conditions of the Air conditioners,
desk,and chair. As per clayton Herzberg theory, which of the following need of Ram
is notmet?
A. Satisfiers needs
B. Hygiene needs
C. Motivating needs
D. Growth needs
E. None of the above
Answer: B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.56) As Ram shifted from XYZ company to the ABC company, this change of job
can beexplained by which of the following Theory of motivation ?
A. Existence needs - Alderfer Theory of motivation
B. Achievement needs - David McClelland Theory of motivation
C. Belonginess Needs - Maslow Theory of Motivation
D. Growth Needs - Alderfer Theory of motivation
E. None of the above
Answer: D

Q.57) As Ram is very talented employee, what could ABC company could have
providedto Ram, so that Ram can be retained back in the Organisation?
A. Interpersonal relationships
B. Autonomy
C. Higher pay
D. Social Environment
E. None of the above
Answer: D

(Direction Q.58 - Q.60)A passage on regarding communication was given and it was
followed by 3 questions-
Communication is one of the main principles of organization. It has been
considered asan effective tool for achieving the goals of an organization. All
organizations may be smallor big, simple, or complex, general, or technical, have
the necessity of communicationnetwork. It plays a vital role, as functioning of all
other Important principles of theorganization depends upon its availability and
effectivity. Effective Communication isconsidered ass foundation of sound
management. Chester Barnard a famous Americanexecutive once remarked "The
first executive function is to develop and maintain asystem of communication".The
communication cycle refers to the steps through which communication takes
placebetween the sender and the receiver. This process starts with conceptualizing
of an ideaor A by the sender and then encoding of message
takes place, thensender selects the medium of the channel and then sender
transmits the message to the receiver
At the receiver's end the decoding of the message takes place and at last, a loop
isformed wherein the receiver shares "B" with the sender.
(Note - This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)

Q.58) The above-mentioned passage indicates which of the following aspect

ofcommunication?
A. Communication dynamics
B. Communication Process
C. Communication terminology
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Communication physiology
E. None of the above
Answer: B

Q.59) Read the above-mentioned passage and identify " A from

the following options.
A. Key element of communication
B. Message
C. Encoding
D. Feedback
E. None of the above
Answer: B

Q.60) Read the above-mentioned passage and identify " B from

the following options.
A. Key element of communication
B. Message
C. Encoding
D. Feedback
E. None of the above
Answer: D

(Direction - Q. 61-63)A passage on Organizational Behavior was given which was

followedby 3 questions --
The economic, political, and social frameworks that each society has - its laws,institutions,
policies, etc. - result in different distributions of benefits andburdens across members of
the society. These frameworks are the result ofhuman political processes and they
constantly change both across societies andwithin societies over time. The structure of
these frameworks is importantbecause the distributions of benefits and burdens resulting
from themfundamentally affect people’s lives.
(Note - This is a recreated passage and not the exact passage asked in the exam)

Q.61) Which type of justice relates to employees input to appropriate Rewards/Output?(2

marks)
A. Integrative Justice
B. Procedural Justice
C. Social Justice
D. Economic Justice
E. Distributive Justice

Answer: E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.62) Which of the following will involve the study of psychological aspects?
A. Mental Intelligence
B. Merit Rating
C. 360-degree appraisal
D. Personality and Motivation
E. None of Above

Answer: D

Q.63) Which subject deals with formation and management of team?

A. Sociology
B. Anthropology
C. Psychology
D. Archaeology
E. None of Above

Answer: A

(Q. 64-65.)A passage on Electronic Toll Collection was given which was followedby 2
questions --
has developed the program to meet the electronic tolling requirements
ofthe Indian market. It offers an interoperable nationwide toll payment solution
includingclearing house services for settlement and dispute management.
Interoperability, as itapplies to system, encompasses a common set of processes,
business rules andtechnical specifications which enable a customer to use their
accounts as paymentmode on any of the toll plazas irrespective of who has acquired the
toll plaza.
(Note - This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)

Q.64) The paragraph is talking about the system and account (2 marks)
A. NFS; Bank
B. NETC; FASTag
C. NHAI; Bank
D. NFS; FASTag
E. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.65) Who introduced National E-Toll Collection (NETC) system to meet the
electronictolling requirements of the Indian market?
A. RBI
B. NPCI
C. SEBI
D. SBI
E. SIDBI

Answer: B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

(Q. 66-68.) A passage on Capital Market was given which was followed by thefollowing 3
questions –

Q.66) Which of the following is true?

I. SEBI is the regulator of commodity markets
II. RBI is the regulator of NBFCs
III. SEBI is the regulator of Capital Market
A. Only I
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.67) According to a circular released by SEBI in 2018, apart from ASBA process,
applicantscan also apply for an IPO through .
A. NACH
B. IMPS
C. NEFT
D. UPI
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

Answer: D

Q.68) ASBA applications can be made through

A. POST OFFICE
B. SCSBs
C. Any Commercial Bank
D. (d)Only through RBI
E. None of the above

Answer: B

(Q. 69-71.) A passage on Infrastructure and PPP was given which was followed by3
questions --
Introduced in January 2016 to revive investments in road infrastructure projects,
hasseen good initial success. It is a mix of the EPC (engineering, procurement,
andconstruction) and BOT (build, operate, transfer) models. Under the EPC model, NHAI
paysprivate players to lay roads. The private player has no role in the road’s ownership,
tollcollection or maintenance (it is taken care of by the government). Under the BOT
modelthough, private players have an active role — they build, operate, and maintain the
roadfor a specified number of years — say 10-15 years — before transferring the asset
back tothe government.
(Note - This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.69) Which model is described in the passage? (2 marks)

A. BOT
B. BOOT
C. HAM
D. DBFO
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

Answer: C

Q.70) In the above model the support provided by the govt during the construction
phaseand later in annuities during the operation phase will be in the ratio of . What
willcome in the place of the blank?
A. 20:80
B. 40:60
C. 50:50
D. 70:30
E. 10:90

Answer: B

Q.71) In which sector the PPP model is majorly used?

A. Manufacturing
B. Infrastructure
C. Textiles
D. Food Processing
E. None of the above

Answer: B

(Q. 72-73) A passage on Organizational change was given which was followed by2
questions
refers to the actions in which a company or business alters a major
componentof its organization, such as its culture, the underlying technologies or
infrastructure it usesto operate, or its internal processes.
(Note - This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)
Q.72) What the paragraph is talking about?
A. Organizational Change
B. Organizational Structure
C. Organizational Conflict
D. Organizational Justice
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.73) What is the name of the second stage of the Lewin Model?
A. Change
B. Development
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. Resistance
D. Compliance
E. None of the above

Answer: A

(Q. 74-76) A passage on Financial Markets was given which was followed by thefollowing
3 questions
Q.74) Which of the following is the regulator of Capital Market?
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. NPCI
D. SBI
E. NSE

Answer: B

Q.75) Which of the following are depositories?

I. NSDL
II. CDSL
III. CCIL
IV. CRISIL

A. I, II and III only

B. II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I and II only
E. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.76) Name of the Payment Regulator formed in 2007?

A. NPCI
B. CCIL
C. Paytm
D. BBPS
E. None of the above

Answer: A

(Q. 77-79)A passage on language translation was given which was followed by 3questions-
-
Bhashantra, an event addressing Indian Languages was organized by FICCI,
TechnologyDevelopment for Indian Languages (TDIL), Ministry of Electronics and IT, Govt.
of India, andIndian Cellular Association (ICA) in New Delhi under the joint sponsorship of
Google andDevnagri. The event took place on 30th July 2018 and it had a direct concern
about theIndian language usage and its real-time translation for Indic Lingula’s.
Moving a step ahead the IT ministry introduced , a software that can
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

makeediting of text printed on scanned documents happen. The software was made free
forIndian language users, they can format the text & can keep it in a separate file as well.
(Note - This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)

Q.77) The event highlighted in the passage will try to address what type of barrier
incommunication?
A. Linguistic
B. Psychological
C. Emotional Barriers.
D. Physical Barriers.
E. Cultural Barriers

Answer: A

Q.78 Which of the following is the software as highlighted in above passage, has
beenlaunched by the government to overcome the barriers in communication in
locallanguages?
A. SWAYAM
B. E-ShodhSindhu
C. Swayam Prabha
D. E- shiksha
E. E-aksharayan

Answer: E

Q.79) What is the name of the mission announced by the government in the union
budget2021 to provide big boost to regional languages?
A. National Linguistic Mission
B. National Language Mission
C. National Mission for Manuscripts
D. National Language Translation Mission
E. None of Above

Answer: D

Q.80) Recently, RBI has released second with the theme “Cross Border
Payments”under the for live testing of new products or services in a controlled/test
regulatoryenvironment.
A. Seminar, Regulatory Sanddunes
B. Coverage, Reserve Box
C. Statement, Reserve Platform
D. Cohort, Regulatory Sandbox
E. None of the above

Answer: D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.81) Which of the following is a Revenue expenditure?

I. Subsidies
II. Interest Payments
III. Loan to State Government
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only I and II
D. Only II and III
E. All of the above

Answer: C

Q.82) Which type of perceptual error sees an Individual as a part of a group?

A. Illusion
B. Hallucination
C. Halo Effect
D. Stereotyping
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.83) Which of the following is a process theory?

A. Vroom’s Expectancy theory
B. Maslow’s hierarchy of Needs
C. McClelland theory of Learned Needs
D. Theory X and Theory Y
E. None of the above

Answer: A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.84) According to Johari Window, Quadrant known to self but not known to others
iscalled as
A. Open
B. Blind
C. Hidden
D. Unknown
E. None of above

Answer: C

Q.85) What is maximum limit of FDI in under government approved mechanism in

PublicSector Banks, Maximum permissible FDI in Private Banks and maximum individual
stakein bank?
A. 40:100:10
B. 26:49:26
C. 20:74:10
D. 74:100:26
E. None of Above

Answer: C

Q.86) Two banks Fuddy and Guddy has the same number of outstanding shares,
equitycapital, dividend and earning. But the Market price of Fuddy is 1800 and of Guddy is
600.Which of the following is true?
A. P/E of one is Higher than the other
B. EPS of one is Higher than other
C. Book value of one is Higher than other
D. Dividend of one is Higher than other
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.87) If a translator is not proficient in 2 language, what type of barrier it creates

incommunication? (1 mark)
A. Physical
B. System
C. Semantic
D. Psychological
E. None of Above

Answer: C

Q.88) Which of the following theory suggests making communication in an

organizationbased on Hierarchy, highly structured, and formalized?
A. Frederick Taylor – Theory of Scientific Management.
B. Henri Fayol – Administrative Management Theory.
C. Max Weber - Bureaucratic Theory of Management.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Elton Mayo – Behavioral Theory of Management

E. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.89) During Merger and Acquisitions, which of the following are relevant to
ChangeManagement: (1 mark)
I. Digital Transformation
II. Smooth Transition
III. Restructuring
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above

Answer: A

Q.90) Low employee turnover in a company indicates which of the following? (1 mark)

A. High number of Employees Leaving the Organization

B. Employees are committed towards the Organization
C. Low Morale of Employees with the Organization
D. All of the Above
E. None of the above

Answer: B

2024:Management

91. Communication topology where people can communicate with people on their either
side(left or right) called .
A. Chain Network
B. Star Network
C. Wheel Network
D. Circle Network
E. All-Channel Network

Answer – C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

92. Identify the quadrant in the Johari windows, wherein the information is Known to self
and notknown to others.
A. Open Quadrant
B. Blind Quadrant
C. Hidden Quadrant
D. Unknown Quadrant
E. Public Quadrant

Answer – C

93. Johari Window model primarily focus on .

A. Improving personal productivity
B. Enhancing interpersonal communication
C. Analyzing financial risks
D. Assessing market competition
E. Developing leadership skills

Answer – B

94. In the content of leadership, who among the following has given Managerial Grid?
A. Peter Drucker
B. Kurt Lewin
C. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton
D. Fiedler
E. Henry Mintzberg

Answer – C

95. A statement was given regarding that the efforts linking to the desired performance?
A. Valence
B. Instrumentality
C. Motivation
D. Achievement
E. Expectancy

Answer –E

96. Model on organizational change?(there were a paragraph on the basis of 4 questions

are there – we did not have the exact paragraph with us )
97. Impact of culture on human behavior and development.(there were a paragraph on the
basis of 4 questions are there – we did not have the exact paragraph with us – and also
culture is not part of the syllabus)
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

2024: Finance

98. What is the minimum asset value required for Small and Medium REITs (SM REITs) in
India underthe new framework?
A. 30 crore
B. 35 crore
C. 40 crore
D. 45 crore
E. 50 crore

Answer – E

SM REITs are fully regulated by SEBI, with units of each scheme listed on the stock
exchangesThe size of the asset to be acquired must be between RS.50 crore and RS.500
crore, with a minimum of 200 investorsexcluding certain related parties.
99. Number of people to whom Delegation can be made in UPI circle by primary user?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five

Answer – E

A primary user can delegate to up to 5 secondary users and a secondary user can accept
delegation from only one primary user.”Existing UPI limits shall be applicable in case of
partial delegation.
(100-103). (There was a passage on Debt Securities, based on four questions were asked.)-
(All the four questions asked from SEBI Circular which was released on 24th September
with subject line –Usageof UPI by individual investors for making an application in public
issue of securities through intermediaries)
100. What is the medium of blocking funds for investing in debt securities for retail
investor?
A. UPI
B. Credit Card
C. Debit Card
D. Cheque
E. None

Answer – A

Capital markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)has directed that all
individual investors applying for public issues of debt securities through intermediaries for
amounts up to ₹5 lakh should only use UPI for blocking the required funds.
101. What is the limit of blocking funds for investing in debt securities for retail investor?
A. 2 lakh
B. 3 lakh
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. 4 lakh
D. 5 lakh
E. 5.5 lakh

Answer – D

102. The circular was applicable from which date?

A. 1st October 2024
B. 1st November 2024
C. 1st December 2024
D. 1st January 2025
E. 31st March 2025

Answer – B

103. The circular was released by which regulatory body?

A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. SIDBI
D. PFRDA
E. IRDAI

Answer – B

104. What was on the limit of WMA for second half of the Financial year 2024-25?
A. ₹50,000 crore.
B. ₹40,000 crore.
C. ₹30,000 crore.
D. ₹20,000 crore.
E. ₹10,000 crore.

Answer – A

To take care of temporary mismatches in Government accounts, the Reserve Bank of India
has fixed the Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit for H2 of FY 2024-25 at ₹50,000
crore.(The question was coming from 26th September PIB release)
(105-106).There waspassage on SDG, based on two questions were as

105. what are the Predecessor of SDG?

A. Millennium Development Goals(MDG)
B. Paris Climate Agreement
C. Universal Declaration Human Rights
D. RIO + 20 Summit Goals
E. None

Answer – A

The SDGs replaced the Millennium Development Goals(MDG). The SDGs are broader in
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

scope than their predecessor and reflect the view that development needs to be
economically, socially, and environmentally sustainable.

106. Which of the following refers to an economic model that aims to

reduceenvironmental risks and ecological scarcities while promoting sustainable
development?
A. Sustainable Economy
B. Circular Economy
C. Green Economy
D. Low Carbon Economy
E. None of the above

Answer – C

107. The timeline for listing in the case of a public issue of debt securities and preference
shares is to be reduced to working days from the current timeline of T+6 working
days.
A. T+1 days
B. T+2 days
C. T+3 days
D. T+5 days
E. T+0 days

Answer – C

108. Commercial banks primarily deal with credit risk, market risk, and operational risk.
Which of the following risk factors are relevant to Non-Banking Financial Companies
(NBFCs)?(We did not have the exact statement with us)
A. Credit Risk, Liquidity Risk
B. Liquidity Risk, Market Risk
C. Market Risk, Operational Risk
D. Operational Risk
E. All of the above

Answer – E

109. The targets of the goals mentioned in the above passage ranged from to
eliminating HIV/AIDS. (We did not have the exact passage with us)
A. Women's empowerment
B. Climate Change
C. Environment
D. Clean City
E. Halving the poverty

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

110. There was passage based on Small Finance Bank:based on two questions were asked
which bank started niche banking in 2014 with basic banking services, including
acceptance of deposits and lending.
A. Small Finance Banks
B. Urban Cooperative Banks
C. Payment Banks
D. Neo Banks
E. None

Answer – A

111. The Banks created in 2013-14 cater to which particular sector?

Answer - Differentiated Banking

113. There was a passage on Planetary boundaries framework – based on 4 questions

were asked.(we did not have the exact question and paragraph with us )

Section– Descriptive Writing

1. What is a code of conduct? How it is implemented in an organization (400 words,
10marks)
2. What are Long Term Repo Operation? (400 words, 10 marks)
3. What is Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)? How it will beat other e-
commerce giants like Amazon and Flipkart (400 words, 10 marks)
4. Describe India's response in 2008 Global Financial Crisis (400 words, 10marks)
5. RBI has Allowed Pre-Sanctioned Credit Lines Via UPI. How is it a step towards
financialinclusion? (400 words, 10 marks)
6. Describe Manager's role in encouraging ethical behavior in an Organisation(400
words, 10 marks)
7. Discuss 5 announcements of Union Budget 2021? (400 words, 10 marks)
8. What is Transformational leadership and Transactional Leadership? State the
difference in transactional leader and transformational leader. (400 words, 10
marks)
9. What is Behavioural Reinforcement? Discuss the Positive and negativeBehaviour
reinforcements in brief. (400 words, 10 marks)
10. Discuss the big-five model of personality. (600 words, 15 marks)
11. What is Corporate Governance. Define it’s need and Principles. (600 words,15
marks)
12. Briefly explain the Retail direct scheme of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? (600
words,15 marks)
13. What is the contribution of Henry Fayol in the field of management? Also, explain
fourteen principles of management as given by him? (600 words, 15 marks)
14. People and organisation are resistant to change. Describe measures to eradicate it
(600 words, 15 marks)
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

15. Identify barriers to impersonal or interpersonal communication and how a

manager can reduce it? (600 words, 15 marks)
16. Will block-chain disrupt banking? (600 words, 15 marks)
17. Discuss -SIDBI, NHB, NABARD, RRB and EXIM. (600 words, 15 marks)
18. What are Basel Norms? Discuss major pillars of Basel III. (600 words, 15marks)

2024
19. What are derivatives? Different types, key market participants inderivative market,
risks associated? (Finance syllabus-2024-15 marks)
20. Difference between trait and behavioral approaches of leadership(Management
syllabus-2024-15 marks)
21. Discuss different types of communication channels. Also discuss theirimportance in
an organization. (Management syllabus –2024-15 marks)
22. What are the key factors that influence ethics in business? (Management syllabus-
2024-10 Marks)
23. What are Additional Tier 1 (AT1) bonds? Discuss their features and explain how
they differfrom other types of bonds? (Finance syallbus-2024-10 Marks)
24. What is the Difference between growth investing and value investing?What should
an investor know before investing?(10 marks-2024)

Economic and Social Issues:

(Question- 1 to 4) An initiative was launched by Hon’ble Prime Minister on 20 October
2022 at Kevadia, Gujarat, whichfocuses on bringing about behaviour changes in
individuals for combatting climate change. Theobjective is a global movement for
transitioning from a model of destructive and mindlessconsumption to deliberate and
mindful utilization of resources.
In order to further catalyze pan-India advocacy and awareness about this initiative, the
MoEFCC hasinitiated a month-long mass mobilisation drive, which culminated on 5 June
2023 in a megacelebration of World Environment Day. With a view to amplify all efforts to
promote its messageand to make the drive a success, MoEFCC has included all 99
Ministries and 36 States/UTs, alongwith their divisions, subordinate organizations, and
field offices, to undertake the related activitiesbeginning 5 May 2023.

Q.1) Which one of the following initiatives has been mentioned in the above paragraph?
A. Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)
B. Swachh Bharat Mission
C. Namami Gange Programme
D. Green Skill Development Programme
E. Sulabh International Social Movement

Answer – A

Q.2) Which of the following is not included in the 7-categories of Mission LiFE?
A. Save water
B. Save energy
C. Reduce waste
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Healthy lifestyle
E. Plant trees

Answer – E

Q.3) Match the following:

A. Phase I 1. Change in policy
B. Phase II 2. Change in supply
C Phase III 3. Change in demand
A. A-1, B-2, C-3
B. A-2, B-3, C-1
C. A-1, B-3, C-2
D. A-3, B-1, C-2
E. A-3, B-2, C-1

Answer – E

Q.4) The above-mentioned initiative was announced by Prime Minister at which of the
followingevents?
A. G20- Environment and Climate Ministers' Meet
B. Rio Summit
C. Paris Environment Conclave
D. G7 Ministers' Meeting on Climate
E. COP26

Answer – E

(Question – 5 to 8 )It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of
trade between nations. Atits heart are its agreements, which have been negotiated and
signed by the bulk of the world’strading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal
is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly,predictably and freely as possible. Its Secretariat
is located in Geneva, Switzerland, and has anannual budget of approximately CHF 200
million.From the early days of the Silk Road to the creation of the General Agreement on
Tariffs and Trade(GATT) and the birth of this organisation, trade has played an important
role in supporting economicdevelopment and promoting peaceful relations among
nations. Decisions in the organisation aregenerally taken by consensus of the entire
membership.

Q.5) Which round of talks has resulted into the creation of the organisation mentioned in
thegiven passage?
A. Uruguay round
B. Geneva Round
C. Doha Round
D. Bretton Woods Round
E. Paris Round

Answer – A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.6) What is the establishment year of the organisation mentioned in the given passage?
A. 1st January 1995
B. 1st October 1995
C. 1st March 1985
D. 1st July 1944
E. 15th January 1975

Answer – A

Q.7) Who among the following is the Director-General of the organisation mentioned in
the givenpassage?
A. Roy Santana
B. Arthur Dunkel
C. Catherine Russell
D. Audrey Azoulay
E. Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala

Answer – E

Q.8) Which of the following is the topmost decision-making body of the organisation,
whichusually meets every two years?
A. Board of Directors
B. Ministerial Conference
C. Director General
D. General Council
E. Members Committee

Answer – B

(Question – 9 to 12) The report’s database contains selected macroeconomic data series,
presenting the organisations’staff's analysis and projections of economic developments at
the global level, in major countrygroups and in many individual countries. The analysis
and projections contained in the report areintegral elements of the organisation’s
surveillance of economic developments and policies in itsmember countries, of
developments in international financial markets, and of the global economicsystem. The
reports’ database is created during the biannual exercise, which begins in
and of each year and results in the April and September/October publication.In the
latest edition of the report, the baseline forecast is for growth to fall from 3.4 percent in
2022to 2.8 percent in 2023, before settling at 3.0 percent in 2024. Advanced economies
are expected tosee an especially pronounced growth slowdown, from 2.7 percent in 2022
to in 2023.

Q.9) Which one of the following report has been mentioned in the above passage?
A. OECD Economic Outlook
B. World Bank’s Global Economic Prospects Report
C. United Nations’ World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) Report
D. IMF's World Economic Outlook
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q.10) As per the report mentioned in the passage, advanced economies are expected to
see anespecially pronounced growth slowdown, from 2.7 percent in 2022 to percent
in 2023.
A. 1.3%
B. 1.8%
C. 2.3%
D. 2.0%
E. 1.5%

Answer – A

Q.11) The database for the above report is created during the biannual exercise, which
begins in and of each year and results in the April and September/October.
A. May and October
B. April and September
C. March and August
D. July and December
E. January and June

Answer – E

Q.12) Which of the following are the 3 critical missions of IMF?

1. Furthering international monetary cooperation
2. Encouraging the expansion of trade and economic growth
3. Discouraging policies that would harm prosperity
A. Both 1 and 3
B. Both 2 and 3
C. Only 3
D. Only 1
E. 1, 2 and 3

Answer – E

(Question – 13 to 16 )Government has focused on developing tribal human resource with

a holistic approach over thelast 9 years. Government has launched a mission which will
saturate PVTG families and habitationswith basic facilities and stressed on education for
PVTG's. A fund of Rs 15,000 crore for the nextthree years has been allocated for the socio-
economic development of the group.Tribal communities are often identified by some
specific signs such as primitive traits, distinctiveculture, geographical isolation, shyness to
contact with the community at large and backwardness.PVTGs are more vulnerable
among the tribal groups. Due to this factor, more developed andassertive tribal groups
take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGsneed more
funds directed for their development.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.13) Which one of the following schemes has been mentioned in the above passage?
A. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna
B. Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission
C. Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission
D. Van Dhan Yojana
E. SwadharGreh Scheme

Answer – B

Q.14) The developmental work for PVTGs are being taken under which one of the
followingpriorities under Saptarishi (7 priorities) mentioned under the Union Budget
2023-24?
A. Inclusive development
B. Unleashing the potential
C. Reaching the last mile
D. Financial sector
E. Youth power

Answer – C

Q.15) Which of the following states does not belong to the group of 18 states that
haveParticularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups?
1. Assam
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Gujarat
4. Maharashtra
5. Odisha
A. Only 1
B. Only 5
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 2, 3 and 4
E. Both 1 and 4

Answer – A

Q.16) Government of India follows which of the following criteria for the identification of
PVTGs?
1. Pre-agricultural level of technology
2. Low level of literacy
3. Economic backwardness
4. A declining or stagnant population.
A. Only 1
B. Both 1 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
E. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer - E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

(Question – 17 to 20) Ministry of Labour & Employment has launched a portal, which is a
National Database of theUnorganised Workers (NDUW) aged between 16-59 seeded with
Aadhaar. A total of Rs. 704.01crores was allocated for NDUW for the period FY 2019-20 to
FY 2024-25 and funds to the tune ofaround Rs. 418 Crores has been utilized as on 24th
March, 2023.To further improve the utilization of fund Ministry has taken several steps to
increase registrationon e-Shram is providing multi-channel registration facility to
unorganised workers across country.CSC-SPV along with its more than 4 lakh Village Level
Entrepreneurs (VLEs) have been on boardedto provide registration facilities at village
level.

Q.17) As per the latest data, how many workers have enrolled on the portal mentioned in
theabove passage?
A. 179 million
B. 329 million
C. 160 million
D. 419 million
E. 289 million

Answer – E

Q.18) Recently, the NDUW has been integrated with an application, which is developed
byMinistry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and .
A. NITI Aayog
B. National Informatics Centre
C. Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
D. Government e Marketplace (GeM)
E. National e-Governance Division (NeGD)

Answer – E

Q.19) Which of the following services can be accessed through the application mentioned
in theabove passage?
1. Income tax filing
2. Aadhar and provident fund services
3. Gas cylinder booking
4. Passport Seva
A. Only 1
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. Both 1 and 4
E. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.20) Which of the following states has exceeded the registration target as on 27th March
2023?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Odisha
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Uttarakhand
5. West Bengal
A. Only 1
B. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. Both 1 and 4
E. Only 5

Answer – C

Q.21) Mr. X who is an artisan, has a family consisting of 6 members is trying to get benefit
underPradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), which is the largest health assurance
scheme in theworld.
Which of the following conditions is/are correct with respect to benefits under Pradhan
MantriJan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)?
1. Only 5 members of the family will be eligible for health insurance
2. He will not be eligible due to nature of his job
3. Only Mr. X is eligible for benefit under the scheme while his family is not eligible for
prehospitalisation
A. Only 1
B. Only 3
C. Both 2 & 3
D. Both 1 & 3
E. None of the above

Answer – E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.22) Who among the following are eligible to avail the benefit under the Stand Up India
Scheme?
1. 20 years old women planning to set up her own venture
2. Person "A" is planning to set up his second Greenfield project
3. Person "Y", a wilful defaulter is planning to set up his first greenfield project
A. Only 1
B. Only 3
C. Both 2 & 3
D. Both 1 & 3
E. None of the above

Answer – A

Q.23) It is a small deposit scheme of the Government of India meant exclusively for a girl
child. Itplayed a vital role in improving the lives of women by ensuring their financial
independence andcreating a secure future for them. If a girl child's date of birth is
1/10/2003, which of the followingis/are correct with respect to the scheme?
1. Account can be opened for her till 30/09/2013
2. Minimum deposit of ₹ 250/- and maximum deposit of ₹ 2.5 Lakh can be done in a
financial year.
3. The account can be transferred anywhere in India from one Post office/Bank to
another.
A. Only 1
B. Only 3
C. Both 2 & 3
D. Both 1 & 3
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Q.24) Identify the correct statement with respect to the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
1. Investors compensated at a fixed rate of 2.50% per annum payable semi-annually on
nominalvalue and last interest payable on maturity along with principal
2. Issue price to be less by ₹50 per gram for investors who subscribe online and pay
through digitalmode
3. Tenor of SGB will be for a period of 8 years with an option of premature redemption.
4. Bonds are not sold through offices or branches of Scheduled Foreign Banks.
A. Only 1
B. 2 & 3
C. 3 & 4
D. 1, 2 & 3
E. None of the above

Answer – D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.25) Which of the following will be eligible to avail the benefits as per the Prime
Minister’sScholarship Scheme (PMSS)?
1. A widow who wanted to study MSc and have 60% in graduation.
2. Widow has completed diploma with 55% and want to pursue higher education.
3. Child's 12th marks were given as 58%.
A. Only 1& 2
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Both 1 & 3
D. Only 1
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q.26) A women aged 45 years having 2 daughters aged 12 and 8 years is staying in
SwadharGreh.Which of the following statement is correct:
1. A daughter with age 12 to be shifted from SwadharGreh.
2. Women upto 45 years of age can stay there .
3. A daughter with age 8 years can stay with her mother for 5 years in SwadharGreh.
A. Only 1
B. Only 3
C. Both 2 & 3
D. Both 1 & 3
E. None of the above

Answer – B

Q.27) A person wants to open "Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya JanaushadiPariyojana" store,

which ofthe following statement is true?
1. He would get 20% margin on the MRP
2. He would get a special financial assistance of Rs 2 lakh from Government
3. Normal incentive to Kendra’s owners has been enhanced from ₹2.5 lakhs to ₹5 lakhs, to
begiven @15% of monthly purchase made, subject to a ceiling of ₹12,000 per month
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Only 3
E. None of the above

Answer – C

Q.28) Recently PM Kisan Mobile App with Face Authentication Feature was launched and
it willbenefit farmers comprehensively with innovative scheme and technology of Kisan
Samman Nidhi.Which one of the following services are provided under the app:
1. Status of landseeding
2. Linking of Aadhaar with bank accounts
3. e-KYC by scanning face without OTP or fingerprint
A. Only 1
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

B. Both 2 & 3
C. Both 1 & 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above

Answer – D

Q.29) India is a young country brimming with youthful enthusiasm and aspirations. In
order toprovide a fertile ground for sowing the seeds of India’s development it is very
important toharness this innovative zeal of young India which can provide new age
solutions to existing gapsin the economic ecosystem of the country. Understanding the
need to harness the latent potentialof entrepreneurship in India, the Union Government
had launched this scheme for developmentand refinancing of micro unit enterprises. It
provides loans up to 10 lakh to non-corporate, nonfarm, small/micro enterprises.Identify
the statement(s) which is/are correct with respect to above scheme?
1. Loan proposal should be only for setting up of new Micro business enterprises.
2. There is no processing fee for loans up to ₹50,000/-.
3. Life insurance is mandatory for availing loans under the scheme.
4. Loans available for purchase of Transport Vehicle / Tractors, tillers as well as two
wheelers, incase applicant intends to use vehicle for commercial purposes.
A. Only 1
B. Both 1& 4
C. Both 3 & 4
D. Both 2& 4
E. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer – D

Q.30) Mahila Samman Savings Certificate Scheme was announced in the 2023-24 Union
Budgetby Finance Minister Smt Nirmala Sitharaman to commemorate ‘Azadi Ka Amrit
Mahotsav’ and isa significant step towards financial inclusion and empowerment of the
women including the girls.Which statement(s) among the following is/are correct with
respect to Mahila Samman SavingsCertificates, 2023?
1. Account can be closed before maturity only on the death of the account holder.
2. In case of premature closure of account, the interest rate will be reduced by 2%.
3. Partial withdrawal is allowed after 6 months from date of account opening but before
account'smaturity.
4. In case of partial withdrawal account holder can withdraw a maximum of 50% of the
balance.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 3 & 4
D. Both 1 & 4
E. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer – B
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

(Question – 31 to 34) The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) was started initially in 4
States inAugust 2019. Since then, progressively in a phase-wise manner, the ONROC plan
ispresently covering nearly 77 Crore beneficiaries (almost 96.8% of NFSA population) in
thecountry.During the last two years of COVID-19 pandemic, ONORC plan has
significantlycontributed in ensuring subsidized foodgrains to NFSA (National Food Security
Act)beneficiaries, especially migrant beneficiaries. This is one-of-its-kind Citizen
Centricinitiative in the country, which is swiftly implemented in a short-span of time
coveringabout 80 Crore beneficiaries, after being initiated in August 2019.

Q.31) The scheme mentioned in the passage has been awarded with Prime
Minister’sAward for Excellence in Public Administration, 2020 on which of the following
day?
A. 75th Independence Day
B. International Women's Day
C. 73rd Republic Day
D. 15th Civil Services Day
E. Good Governance Day

Answer: D

Q.32) The scheme mentioned in the passage has been implemented for the nation-
wideportability of ration cards under which of the following Act? (2 marks)
A. National Food Security Act 2013
B. Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
C. Food Corporations Act, 1964
D. National Institute of Food Technology Bill, 2019
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.33) In case of non-supply of the entitled quantities of foodgrains or meals to

entitledpersons under the scheme mentioned in the passage, such persons shall be
entitled toreceive such food security allowance from the concerned State Government to
be paidto each person, within such time and manner as may be prescribed by the
CentralGovernment. These allowances are governed with which among the following act?
A. Food Security Act 2013
B. Right to Food Act 2010
C. Food Incorporations Act, 1955
D. Food Security Allowance Rules, 2015
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.34) As on February 2022, the scheme mentioned in the passage has been
implementedin how many Indian states and UTs? (2 marks)
A. 28
B. 27
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

C. 33
D. 35
E. None of the above

Answer: D

(Question – 35 to 37) The Department of Social Justice & Empowerment is launching the
Central Sectorscheme, is designed to provide welfare measures to the Transgender
community and thepeople engaged in the act of begging. Under this includes two sub-
schemes, whichstrengthens and expands the reach of the Rights that give the targeted
group thenecessary legal protection and a promise to a secured life. It keeps in mind the
socialsecurity that is needed through multiple dimensions of identity, medical care,
education,occupational opportunities and shelter.

Q.35) Under the scheme, Shelter Homes where food, clothing, recreational facilities,
skilldevelopment opportunities, recreational activities, medical support etc. will be
providedunder .
A. Shanti Nivas
B. Nirmaya Nivas
C. ParopkarGreh
D. Garima Greh
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.36) Which among the following statement is/are correct:

Statements:
1. Skill Development and Livelihood is provided under PM-DAKSH scheme of
theDepartment
2. Setting up of Beggar Protection Cell.
3. It provides scholarships for students studying in IX and till post-graduation to
enablethem to complete their education
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Both 1 & 3
D. Only 3
E. All 1, 2 & 3

Answer: C
Q.37) The ministry has allocated Rs.______ Crore for the scheme from 2021-22
to .
A. Rs. 275 Crore, 2025-26
B. Rs. 225 Crore, 2024-25
C. Rs. 405 Crore, 2023-24
D. Rs. 365 Crore, 2024-25
E. Rs. 365 Crore, 2025-26

Answer: E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

(Question – 38 to 40): The X is India’s flagship conference on geopolitics and

geoeconomics, held annuallysince 2016. It is organized by the Ministry of External Affairs.
The 2022 Edition will haveover 100 sessions with over 210 speakers from more than 90
countries and multilateralorganisations. A large audience is also likely to join the Dialogue
across various socialmedia platforms. The theme for the year is "Terra Nova: Impassioned,
Impatient, andImperiled”In the past seven years, the X has grown in stature and
profile to emerge as a leadingglobal conference on international affairs. It attracts
prominent thought leaders fromthe global strategic and policy-making community to
discuss key geopoliticaldevelopments and strategic issues facing the world.

Q.38) Which of the following refers to (X) in the mentioned passage?

A. UN Ocean Conference
B. G-7 Summit
C. ASEAN Summit
D. BRICS Summit
E. Raisina Dialogue

Answer: E

Q.39) The side events for (X) has taken place in which among the following places:
1. Los Angeles
2. Berlin
3. Washington DC
A. Only 1
B. Only 3
C. All 1, 2 & 3
D. Both 1 & 3
E. Both 2 & 3

Answer: E

Q.40) Which of the following statements are true about the X?

Statements:
1. President of the European Commission, Ursula von der Leyen, joined the
InauguralSession of event as Chief Guest.
2. One of the six thematic pillar is Rethinking Democracy: Trade, Tech and Ideology.
3. This event is exclusively attended by Quad group.
A. Only 1
B. Only 3
C. Both 1 & 2
D. All 1, 2 & 3
E. Both 1 & 3

Answer: C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

(Question – 41 to 44 )India has recently signed the Economic Co-operation and Trade
Agreement (ECTA) witha developed country. The Agreement encompasses cooperation
across the entire gamutof bilateral economic and commercial relations between the two
friendly countries, andcovers areas like Trade in Goods, Rules of Origin, Trade in Services,
Technical Barriers toTrade (TBT), Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures, Dispute
Settlement, Movementof Natural Persons, Telecom, Customs Procedures, Pharmaceutical
products, andCooperation in other Areas. Eight subject specific side letters covering
various aspects ofbilateral economic cooperation were also concluded as part of the
Agreement.ECTA provides for an institutional mechanism to encourage and improve trade
betweenthe two countries. The ECTA covers almost all the tariff lines dealt in by the two
countriesrespectively.

Q.41) The above-mentioned passage is discussing about which among the

followingagreements?
A. India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
B. India-UK Free Trade Agreement
C. India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
D. India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.42) After the signing of the trade agreement mentioned in the paragraph, so far
howmany Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) have been signed by India?
A. 19
B. 21
C. 28
D. 16
E. 13

Answer: E

Q.43) Consider the following statements on the signed agreement, and identify thecorrect
statements:
Statements
1. It will enhance the economic cooperation between the two countries.
2. It is the first trade agreement of India with a developed country after more than
adecade.
3. Both the countries are part of the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI).
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 & 3
E. All 1, 2 & 3

Answer: E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.44) xUnder the agreement mentioned in the paragraph, India will be

offeringpreferential access on over 70% of its tariff lines which will be provided under
which ofthe following Act?
Statements:
1. Customs Tariff Act
2. IGST
3. Custom and Excise Act
A. Only 1
B. Both 1 & 2
C. Only 3
D. All 1, 2 & 3
E. Both 1 & 3

Answer: A

(Question - 45 to 47 ) : Human capital—the knowledge, skills, and health that people

accumulate over theirlives—is a central driver of sustainable growth and poverty
reduction. More humancapital is associated with higher earnings for people, higher
income for countries, andstronger cohesion in societies.The X is an international
metric that benchmarks the key components of humancapital across economies. It was
launched in 2018 as part of the Human Capital Project,a global effort to accelerate
progress toward a world where all children can achieve theirfull potential. The new data—
collected before the global onset of COVID-19—can act asa baseline to track its effects on
health and education outcomes.World Bank President David Malpass said that the
coronavirus has deepened inequalityglobally, in addition to increasing poverty and
distress. “We’re working with countries totry to protect people during the crisis and also
invest in them so that we can see therecovery and lay a foundation for future inclusive
growth,” he said.

Q.45) India has been ranked at the 1 position in the latest edition of the
WorldBank’s (X) report, after increase in score to 2 from 0.44 in 2018.What will
come in the blank 1 and 2 respectively?
A. 115th, 0.52
B. 116th, 0.49
C. 109th, 0.51
D. 136th, 0.46
E. 86th, 0.49

Answer: B

Q.46) The (X) includes which of the following data for 174 countries — covering 98 percent
of the world’s population, up to March 2020 to assess the countries?
Statements:
1. Survival
2. Health
3. Education
A. Only 1
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

B. Only 3
C. Both 2 & 3
D. All 1, 2 & 3
E. Both 1 & 3

Answer: C

Q.47) As of February 2022, how many countries have joined the World Bank’s
HumanCapital Project, participating and taking action in three distinct areas? (2 marks)
A. 71
B. 76
C. 63
D. 83
E. 89

Answer: D

(Question –48 to 50)The centrally sponsored scheme of Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram
Yojana (PMAGY) isbeing implemented since 2009-10 for integrated development of
Scheduled Castes (SCs)majority villages. Since 2018-19, the scheme implementation
guidelines werecomprehensively revised. During 2021-22, this scheme has been merged
with two otherexisting schemes of this Department to be known as Pradhan Mantri
AnusuchitJaatiAbhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY), for which an amount of Rs.1800.00 cr. has
been allocatedfor the financial year 2021-22.The principal objective of the ‘Adarsh Gram’
component of the merged scheme of PMAJAY is integrated development of SC majority
villages through convergentimplementation of the relevant Central and State Schemes.
The scheme was started onpilot basis wherein 1000 such villages were selected. In 2014 -
15, the scheme was furtherexpanded to 1500 more villages.

Q.48 Which among the following states was not included in the initial pilot phase of
thescheme?
A. Rajasthan
B. Assam
C. Bihar
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.49 As per the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana, to capture the Gaps in criticalsocio-
economic ‘Monitorable Indicators’ as part of various sectors/domains, how manysocio-
economic monitorable indicators have been identified for saturation in selectedvillages?
A. 60
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30
E. 20

Answer: B

Q.50 Which of the following districts won the “best district award” for theimplementation
of PM Adarsh Gram Yojana?
A. Raipur, Chhattisgarh
B. Hamirpur, Himachal Pradesh
C. Churu, Rajasthan
D. Yadgir, Karnataka
E. Cachar, Assam

Answer: B

Q.51) In Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme, there is pre-redemption period after 5 years
fromissuance. After this, there is a 20 day window to apply for redemption. Following
3persons applied for the pre-redemption in 2022, whose application will be accepted?
Statements:
1. Lady from HUF who has invested 12 kg in SGB in “2017 Series 1.”
2. Lady who has bought bonds in the name of her minor daughter in “2017 Series2.”
3. Lady who has bought 50 gram in “2016 Series 2.”
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. All 1, 2 & 3
E. Both 1 & 3

Answer: B

Q.52) Who among the following is/are eligible to receive the benefits under the
‘PradhanMantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana’?
Statements:
1. Anil is 46 years old, having 5-hectares of cultivable land and has recently applied
underthe scheme.
2. Harsh is 35 year old, applies for the scheme with an expectation of receiving a
minimumassured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
3. Sahil is 36 year old and smart, enrolled himself in NPS.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 2 & 3
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. Only 3
E. All 1, 2 & 3

Answer: B

Q.53) Match the following, and find the correct pairs: (1 mark)
Pairs:
A. Ram wants to increase the breed of his D. One Stop Centre
milch cattle
B. She is the member from SC community E. Rashtriya Gokul Mission
and wantsto set up greenfield project
C. A married woman, recently shifted to F. Stand Up India
city withhusband & they both need shelter

A. A-F, B-E
B. B-E, A-D
C. A-E, C-F
D. A-F, C-E
E. A-E, B-F

Answer: E

Q.54) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the ‘Bhoomi
RashiPortal’?
Statements:
1. Government has started transferring compensation directly to the beneficiaryaccounts.
2. It is now integrated with the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) platform.
3. The Portal has been made mandatory for all the Project Implementing Agencies.
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. Only 2
E. All 1, 2 & 3

Answer: E

Q.55) Rahul has recently completed his graduation with a professional degree. He
isinterested in doing an internship, and has been sent to the National
CooperativeDevelopment Corporation (NCDC) for the same. Under which one of the
followingschemes, Rahul will be enrolled to gain experience of working in the field to be
selfreliant?
A. YUVA Sahakar Scheme
B. Ayushman Sahakar Scheme
C. Sahakar Mitra: Scheme on Internship Programme
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.56) Which one of the following is not the objective of the Pradhan Mantri
MatsyaSampada Yojana (PMMSY)?
A. Enhancement of Production and Productivity
B. Doubling of incomes of fishers and fish farmers
C. Strengthen the infrastructure and Post-Harvest Management
D. Free education to the children of fishers under PMMSY
E. Providing social, physical and economic security to fishers and fish farmers

Answer: E

Q.57) Consider the following statements on PM Vaya Vandana Yojana, and identify
thecorrect statements as per scheme: (1 mark)
Statements:
1. The tenure of policy is set at 10 years.
2. One can invest a maximum amount of Rs. 70,000 under PMVVY scheme.
3. Pension will be payable as per the frequency of monthly, quarterly, half-yearly, yearlyas
per the preference given by the pensioner at the time of purchase.
A. Only 1
B. Only 3
C. Both 1 & 3
D. All 1, 2 & 3
E. Both 2 & 3

Answer: C

Q.58) Consider the following statements on PM e-VIDYA, and identify the

correctstatements:
Statements:
1. It will enable digital/online/on-air access to education.
2. It includes extensive use of Radio, Community radio and Podcasts.
3. Special e-content for Children with Special Needs especially for the Visually andHearing
impaired learners.
A. Only 1
B. Both 1 & 3
C. Only 3
D. Both 2 & 3
E. All 1, 2 & 3

Answer: E

Q.59) Consider the following statements on Stand-Up India Scheme, and identify
thecorrect statements:
Statements:
1. It facilitates bank loans between Rs 10 lakh and Rs 1 crore to at least 1 SC or
STborrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch.
2. The loan shall be repayable in up to 7 years with a moratorium period of up to 36 -
months.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

3. The rate of interest applicable on the loan would be the lowest applicable rate ofbank
for that category not exceeding MCLR+ 4%+ tenor premium.
A. Only 1
B. Both 1 & 3
C. Only 3
D. All 1, 2 & 3
E. Both 2 & 3

Answer: A

Q.60) The benefits under the PM CARES for Children Scheme have been
announcedrecently. Identify the correct statements about the scheme:
Statements:
1. Children who have lost both the parents or legal guardian or adoptive parents
orsurviving parent to COVID-19 Pandemic are eligible to apply for the scheme.
2. A portal has been launched to register the children under the scheme and alsofacilitates
approval process and all other assistance for children.
3. All eligible children will be added as a beneficiary under Ayushman Bharat Schemewith
a health insurance cover of Rs. 1 lakh.
A. Only 1
B. Only 3
C. Both 1 & 2
D. All 1, 2 & 3
E. Both 2 & 3

Answer: C

(Question – 61 to 64): An organisation which is headquartered in Paris, has collaborated

and joinedhands with an organisation headquartered in Washington, D.C.One question on
Interim Report released by OECD in March 2021 with title “Strengthening the recovery:
The need for speed”. This Interim Report provides updates for global and G20 country
projections made in the December 2020 issue of the OECD Economic Outlook (Number
108).

Q.61) Which one of the following organisations has released the report mentioned in the
passage?
A. World Bank – Global Economic Prospects
B. IMF – World Economic Outlook
C. WEF – Global Competitiveness Report
D. WTO – World Trade Monitoring Report
E. OECD – OECD Economic Outlook

Answer: E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.62) What has been the most common measure taken by governments around the world
to help alleviate the stress on cash-strapped small businesses, which was taken by 77% of
the governments?
A. Moratorium in loan payments
B. Decrease in interest rate
C. Public loan guarantee
D. Cash Flow Loans
E. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.63) As per the report mentioned in the passage, what is the GDP projection of India for
fiscal year 2021-22? (2 marks)
A. 12.6%
B. 14.2%
C. 10%
D. 8%
E. 9.5%

Answer: A

Q.64) As per the passage, growing global economic interdependence means that the
socio-economic prospects of OECD countries will be ever more tightly linked to that of
A. Benefit of developing and transition economies
B. Benefit of developed economies only
C. Benefit on on-developed economies only
D. Benefit of volatile economies only
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.65) Which of the following country will be a major contributor in controlling population
and environmental stress?
A. Mexico
B. USA
C. UK
D. Canada
E. China

Answer: E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.66) What is the full form of SAAP under the AMRUT scheme? (Note – we did not have
exact passage with us but the passage discuss about the AMRUT &JNNURM Scheme)
A. Sovereign Annual Action Plan
B. State Annual Action Plan
C. State Augmented Action Plan
D. Scheme Action Annual Plan
E. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.67) Which of the following is not correct regarding the purpose of the scheme referred
to in the paragraph?
A. Ensure that every household has access to a tap with assured supply of water and a
sewerage connection.
B. Increase the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and well maintained
open spaces (parks).
C. Reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-
motorized transport.
D. Preserve character of the soul of heritage city and facilitate inclusive heritage linked
urban development by exploring various avenues including involving private sector.
E. None of the above

Answer –D

Q.68) Financial sharing basis of Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(AMRUT) scheme between Centre and State is done on. (2 marks)
A. 60:40 basis
B. 50:50 basis
C. 70:30 basis
D. 80:20 basis
E. None of these

Answer: B

Q.69) Which scheme has replaced the scheme mentioned in passage?

A. PMAY
B. HRIDAY
C. AMRUT
D. Smart City Mission
E. None of the above

Answer: C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.70) By how many years has the AMRUT scheme been extended?
A. 4 Years
B. 3 Years
C. 1 Years
D. 2 Years
E. None of these

Answer: D

Q.71) In December 2020, how much money was credited into the accounts of beneficiary
farmers under this scheme?
(Note – we did not have exact passage with us but the passage discuss about the PM Kisan
Scheme)
A. Rs 10,000 crore
B. Rs 35,000 crore
C. Rs 13,000 crore
D. Rs 18,000 crore
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.72) A fixed amount benefit is given to farmers after every 4 months under this scheme.
How much do they get annually?
A. Rs 10000
B. Rs 12000
C. Rs 8000
D. Rs 6000
E. None of the above

Answer: D
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.73) All landholder farmers’ families in the country are eligible for the PM-KisanScheme,
except
Statements:
1. All Institutional Land holders
2. Former and present holders of constitutional posts
3. All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries
/Offices/Departments
4. All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year.
5. Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects
registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practices.
Choose the correct option
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
E. All of the above

Answer: B

(Question – 14 to 17) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) adopted a new liquidity
management framework in which there would be no fixed daily liquidity injection
operations, but the central bank would act whenever the banking system requires money.
The will remain the operating target of the monetary policy, the RBI said, which
means it will ensure enough liquidity to anchor the call rate at around the repo rate.

Q.74) Which new liquidity management initiative has been adopted by RBI and also
discussed in the passage?
A. Open Market Operation
B. Long Term Repo Operation
C. FX Swaps
D. Long Term Reverse Repo Operation
E. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.75) The operation discussed above is going to be linked to for operations

A. Call Money Rate
B. Repo Rate
C. Reverse Repo Rate
D. Weighted average call rate
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.76) What is the meaning of the italicized line in the passage? (2 marks)
Statements:
1. RBI will adopt Accommodative monetary policy.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

2. RBI will adopt expansionary monetary policy.

3. RBI will adopt contractionary monetary policy.
4. The call rate inches above the repo rate, it would signal liquidity deficit and the central
bank will bring its tools to infuse liquidity
5. If the call rate is below the repo rate, that would mean the banking system has surplus
liquidity
Options:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 4 and 5 only
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.77) While getting rid of the 14 day fixed repo, the RBI said it will operate a 14-day term
repo/reverse repo operation at a variable rate that would be conducted to coincide with
the……… maintenance cycle:
A. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
B. Cash Deposit Ratio
C. Cash Reserve Ratio
D. Credit-Deposit Ratio
E. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.78) 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals which has been agreed upon by all
193 member states was organised by? (2 Marks)
A. United Nations General Assembly
B. United Nations Economic and Social Council
C. United Nations Security Council
D. United Nations Secretariat
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.79) As per Economic Survey 2020-21, India’s real GDP to record a 11.0% growth in
FY2021-22 and nominal GDP to grow by 15.4% – the highest since independence due to:
A. continued normalization in economic activities as the rollout of Covid-19 vaccines
gathers traction
B. subdued retail inflation in India, which will give the Reserve Bank of India the room
to drop the policy rates and engender conditions to stimulate economic growth.
C. low fuel and energy prices that will give an edge to Indian industry.
D. record high consumer sentiments among Indian households.
E. All the above

Answer: A
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.80 Which of the following are the advantages of foreign trade and investment?
Statements:
1. It stimulates competition.
2. It improves resource allocation.
3. It facilitates international distribution of technology.
4. It enhances environmental protection.
Options:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
E. All of the above

Answer: E

Q.81) has recently provided amount of funding for the

implementation of Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) project
of Ministry of Education.
A. New Development Bank, US $ 500 Million
B. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank, US $ 500 Million
C. Asian Development Bank, US $ 500 Million
D. International Monetary Fund, US $ 500 Million
E. World Bank, US $ 500 Million

Answer: E

Q.82) Under One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme additional borrowing limit of
0.25 percent of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) is allowed to the States only on
completion of both of the following actions: (i) Aadhar Seeding of all the ration cards and
beneficiaries in the State (ii) Automation of all the FPSs in the State. Which of the
following statements are correct regarding ONORC scheme?
Statements:
1. Enables the States in better targeting of beneficiaries.
2. Elimination of bogus/ duplicate/ineligible card holders resulting in enhanced welfare
and reduced leakage.
3. To ensure seamless inter-state portability of a ration card, Aadhar seeding of all ration
cards as well as biometric authentication of beneficiaries through automation of all Fair
Price Shops (FPSs) with installation of electronic point of sale (e-PoS) devices are essential.
4. The reform especially empowers the migratory population mostly labourers.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
E. All of the above

Answer: E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.83) Recently at Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Council of

WTO, India and South Africa proposed
A. that Geographical Indication framework should be further strengthened to protect
the livelihoods of traditional artisans.
B. a waiver for domestic market requirement for developing country exports to
developed countries.
C. a waiver to help more countries get access to medicines and vaccines during the
pandemic.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.84) With reference to Sovereign Gold Bonds, which of the following statements are
correct?
Statements:
1. Minors will not be allotted even if guardians apply on their behalf.
2. Discount of Rs 50 is applicable when person is applying online.
3. There is a risk of capital loss if price of gold declines.
4. SGB can be used as collateral for borrowing loans.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
E. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.85) Which of the following is an omnibus mobile app developed to help farmers by
providing relevant information to them quickly. With click of a button, they can get the
information on weather of current day and next 5 days, dealers, market prices,
agroadvisories, plant protection, IPM Practices etc. (1 mark)
A. mKisan
B. eSuvidha
C. Farmer’s Help
D. Kisan Suvidha
E. None of the above

Answer: D
Q.86) How many of these apps are part of Digital India mission in health care. (1 mark)
A. NIKSHAY
B. Kilkari
C. ANMOL
D. e-sanjeevani
E. All of the above

Answer: E
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Q.87) Which of the following benefits have been announced in Union Budget 2021 -22 for
Startups?
Statements:
1. Residency limit for an Indian to set up one person company has been reduced from 182
days to 120 days.
2. Loans ranging from Rs 10 lakhs to Rs 50 lakhs will be given to women / SC / ST for
brownfield projects
3. In order to incentivize startups it is proposed to extend eligibility period to claim tax
holiday by one more year till 31st March 2022.
4. Government has announced revision in definition of small companies by increasing
their threshold for paid up capital from not exceeding Rs 50 lakh to not exceeding Rs 2
crore and turnover from not exceeding Rs 2 crore to not exceeding 10 crore.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
E. 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

Q.88) Match the following objectives to their respective schemes:

Objective Scheme
A. Mr. X, a street vendor wants Rs 1. SVAMITVA
10000 as working capital for
upgradation of his business.
B. GoI has started surveying and 2. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan
Mapping with Improvised Yojana
Technology in Mumbai’s Dharavi to
resolve property related disputes
C. GoI will pay the EPF contribution 3. SVANIDHI
for both employer and employee
for employees with salary less than
Rs 12500.

A. A-1, B-3
B. A-3, B-1
C. A-2, B-1. C-3
D. A-1, B-2, C-3
E. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.89) Regarding ‘Operation Greens’, consider the following statements:

Statements:
1. Operations green is subsumed under Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana
2. This scheme will be extended only to only tomato and potato.
3. Establishment of Mega Food Parks in North East India.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

4. It will help promote agri-exports from India.

Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 2 & 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 3 & 4 only
D. 1 & 4 only
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.90) Which of the following are correct regarding the objectives of the recently enacted
Labour Codes in India?
Statements:
1. Remunerating contract workers at the same rate as regular workers for similar work.
2. Protect the interests of gig workers and migrant workers.
3. Promote gender equality by allowing women workers to work at night subject to
obtaining their consent
4. Delegitmise strikes in India.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
E. None of the above

Answer: D

2024: ESI

(91-94)There was paragraph on World Development Report :On the basis of 4 questions
wereasked.
91. Who is the Director of the Report?
A. Somik V. Lall
B. Xavier Devictor
C. Leora Klapper
D. Davida Connon
E. None

Answer: A

92. The 3i Strategy mentioned in the report is related to?

A. Financial Inclusion
B. Digital Inclusion
C. To overcome the middle income trap
D. To overcome the environmental crisis
E. None

Answer: C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

93. According to World Development Report 2024, many countries are stuck in which trap?
A. Poverty Trap
B. Employment Trap
C. Middle Income Trap
D. Digital Inclusion Trap
E. None

Answer: C

94. Which of the following steps taken by India to come out from the middle income trap,
As per World Development Report?
Answer: Focus on enhancing economic diversification, addressing income inequality, and
fostering sustained growth.

(95-98).There was paragraph based on two reports - WEF's Global RiskReport and IMF's
World Economic Report-merged together (based on 4 Questionswereasked)
95. What is the global GDP growth rate for 2024 as per the report mentioned inabove
passage?(basically these question asked question from world economic outlook
prediction)
A. 3.1%
B. 3.2%
C. 3.6%
D. 3.7%
E. 4%

Answer:B

96. The World Economic Forum's Alliance for Global Good - Gender Equity and Equality
was launched during the 54th Annual Meeting held at ?
A. Davos
B. Paris
C. Oslo
D. Stockholm
E. Copenhagen

Answer – A

97. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the "Alliance for Global Good - Gender Equity and
Equality":
A. It is supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
B. The implementing agency is the CII Centre for Women and Leadership.
C. PM Modi played a significant role in the formation of this alliance.
D. A&B
E. A&C
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Answer – C

98. Which of the following terms denotes contagion effect of crisis as mention in the
paragraph?
Answer - 'Polycrisis'(options are not available with us)
(99-102).There was paragraph on Economic Survey :based on4 questions wereasked.

99. As per the Economic Survey 2023-24, India is a major agriculture producer, being the
second largest producer in and the largest producer of
Answer- Second largest producer in rice, wheat, cotton among the other crops and the
largest producer of milk, pulses and spices (options are not available with us)

100. Agriculture growth rate over the last 5 years is .

A. 5%
B. 5.8%
C. 4%
D. 4.18%
E. 6%

Answer – D

101. As per the Economic Survey, India needs to generate 78.51 lakh job annually in which
sector?
Answer – Non Farm Sector (options are not available with us)

102. Indian economy has transitioned from agrarian to .

A. Service Economy
B. Manufacture Economy
C. IT Economy
D. A&B
E. B&C

Answer – A

(103-104).There was Paragraph on SDG Report:

103. In how many SDG indicators India is performing well?

Answer – India has taken significant strides in accelerating progress on the SDGs between
the 2020-21 and 2023-24 editions of the Index. Noteworthy advancements have been
observed in Goals 1 (No Poverty), 8 (Decent work and Economic Growth), 13 (Climate
Action)

104. India has fallen behind on of 33 indicators.

A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. 18
E. 19

Answer – E

(105-10).There was Paragraph on Global Gender Gap Report:

105. which organisation releases these report ?

A. WEF
B. IMF
C. World Bank
D. UNGA
E. UNICEF

Answer – A

106. In which factor according to the report, highest reduction wasobserved?

Answer –Educational Attainment

107. Who among the following can avail the benefits under MissionVatsalya? (we did not
have exact option with us)
Mission Vatsalya
Nodal Ministry- Ministry of Women and Child Development
Type Of Scheme- Centrally Sponsored Scheme
Aims-
• Support and sustain Children in difficult circumstances;
• Develop context-based solutions for holistic development of children from
variedbackgrounds;
• Provide scope for encouraging innovative solutions

Objectives
• Ensuring Children's right to Survival, Development, Protection and ParticipationTo
establish essential services andstrengthen emergency outreach at thenational,
regional, state and district levelsby providing.
o Institutional care counselling and support services
o non-institutional care within family and community
• Encourage private sector partnerships and interventions to support children within
lawParticipation of Panchayats and Municipal Local Bodies at the village level and at
ward and theurban cluster level within the urban municipal ward, for sustained
assessment of issues deservingattention

108.- National Career Service Portal (NCS) is a mission mode project under Ministry
ofLabour and Employment that provides a host of career-related services. Who among
thefollowing will be able to receive the benefit of the scheme?
A. An ex-servicemen has applied
B. Seeta is doing job abroad.
C. Apprenticeship
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

D. A & B
E. All are correct

Answer – E

109. The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund aims to mobilize medium to long-term debt
financing for investment in viable projects related to post-harvest management
infrastructure and community farming assets. It provides incentives and financial support
to enhance agricultural infrastructure in the country.
Who among the following is eligible to receive funds under the AIF scheme?(Options are
not available with us)
About scheme:
• Launch year – 2020

• Ministry of Agriculture and Family Welfare

• Total corpus – Rs.1 Lakh Crores

▪ First year – 10,000 Crores

▪ Next three years – 30,000 Crores each

• Implementation Period:

▪ Financing facility from 2020-21 to 2025-26 (6 years)

▪ Overall period – 2020-21 to 2032-33 (13 Years)

• Moratorium for repayment

▪ Minimum – 6 months; Maximum – 2 years

• Objective –

▪ Provide funding to farmers and agriculture development organizations for

infrastructure

▪ To achieve a multiplier effect in generating investments ensuring that

benefits reach small and marginal farmers.

• Eligible Beneficiaries –

▪ Primary Agricultural Credit Societies

▪ Marketing Cooperative Societies

▪ Farmer Producers Organizations

▪ Self Help Group

▪ Farmers

▪ Joint Liability Groups

RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

▪ Multipurpose Cooperative Societies

▪ Agri-entrepreneurs

▪ Start-Ups

▪ Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored PPP National and state

federations of cooperatives

• Participating Institutions

▪ Scheduled Commercial Banks

▪ Scheduled co-operative banks

▪ Regional rural banks

▪ Small finance banks

▪ NBFCs

▪ National Cooperative Development Corporation

• Participating Institutions

▪ National Level Monitoring Committee

▪ State Level Monitoring Committee

▪ District Level Monitoring Committee

• Funding Support

▪ Interest Subvention Cost

o 3% per annum up to a limit of Rs. 2 Crore.

o Maximum period of 7 years.

o Loans beyond Rs.2 crore, interest subvention will be limited up to 2

crore

▪ Credit Guarantee Cost

o For a loan up to Rs.2 Crore under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for
Micro and Small Enterprises

o The fee for this coverage will be paid by the government

o 24% of total grants – in – aid should be utilized for SC (16%) and ST

(8%)

o Lending institutions will ensure adequate coverage of entrepreneurs

belonging to women and other weaker segments of society.

▪
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

110. Stand Up India Scheme: Which one of the following in one of the reasons of rejection
of his application?(We did not have the exact option or statement with us.)
Answer –
Eligibility
• SC/ST and/or Women entrepreneurs above 18 years of age
• Loans only for greenfield projects (1st time venture of beneficiary)
• For non-individual entreprises, 51% of shareholding and controlling stake should be
heldby either SC/ST and/or Women Entrepreneur
• Borrower should not be in default to any bank/financial institution

Financial Allocation :
• Government does not allocate funds for loans under Scheme
• Scheme operated by all branches of Scheduled Commercial Banks in India
• Refinance window through Small Industries Development Bank of India(SIDBI) with
initial amount of Rs.10,000 crore
• SIDBI & NABARD offices designated as Stand-Up Connect Centres &will arrange for
support required

111. Which of the following is not key feature/s of the Prime MinisterNational Relief Fund?
[Options are not available]
112. Who among the following are eligible to receive benefits under the Pradban Mantri
KisarMaandhan Yoiana?
A. Person is aged 17.5 years
B. Person is aged 42 years
C. Person has 1.75 acres of land
D. A & C
E. B & C

Answer - C

About Scheme:
→ Launch Year: 2019

→ This old-age pension scheme is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme

Eligibility Criteria
→ It is for Small and Marginal Farmers (SMF)

→ Entry age between 18 to 40 years

→ Cultivable land up to 2 hectares as per land records of the concerned State/UT

Not Eligible
→ Farmers covered under any other statuary social security schemes such as the
National Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation scheme,
Employees’ Fund Organization Scheme etc.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

→ Farmers who have opted for Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana and
Pradhan Mantri Vyapari Maandhan administered by the Ministry of Labour &
Employment.

→ Further, the following categories of beneficiaries of higher economic status

• All Institutional Landholders

• Former and present holders of constitutional posts

• Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers.

• All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government

Ministries/ Local Bodies (Excluding Multi Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D
employees).

• All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year

• Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered

• Accountants, and Architects registered with Professional bodies and carrying out
profession by undertaking practice.

Key Benefits
→ Minimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber to the scheme is guaranteed a minimum
pension of Rs. 3000 per month upon reaching the age of 60 years

→ Family Pension: If a subscriber passes away while receiving their pension, their
spouse will be entitled to a family pension equal to 50% of the amount the
subscriber was receiving i.e. Rs.1500 per month as Family Pension.

→ This is only applicable if the spouse is not already a beneficiary of the scheme.

→ The family pension benefit is exclusively for the spouse.

→ SMFs can choose to use their PM-KISAN benefits to make voluntary contributions to
the scheme.

→ For this, eligible SMFs must sign and submit an enrolment-cum-autodebit-mandate

form.

→ This will authorize automatic debit of their contributions from the bank account
where their PM-KISAN benefits are credited.

→ Monthly Contributions: Eligible farmers have to contribute between Rs. 55 to Rs.

200 per month until they turn 60 based on the farmer's age at the time of entry into
the Scheme to the Pension Fund, with matching contributions from the central
government.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

Descriptive Questions:
1. 15th finance commission - Horizontal and Vertical transfers (600 words, 15 Marks)
2. Define various measures of poverty estimation and their demerits and merits in
terms of per capita income, inflation and consumption and safety net. (600 words,
15 Marks)
3. What are the changes/trends in globalisation after global financial crisis 2008? (600
words, 15 Marks)
4. Budgetary recommendations on strategic and non strategic disinvestments, its (i)
Rationale and (ii) Impact (400 words, 10 Marks)
5. Role of demography in India's economic transition. (400 words, 10 Marks)
6. Climate change commitment of India in light of socio- economic, development and
health factors. (400 words, 10 Marks)
7. Explain three government schemes related to poverty alleviation and
employmentgeneration. (400 words, 10 Marks)
8. Discuss Monetary Policy and mention in brief at least eight Monetary Policy
Instruments.(400 words, 10 Marks)
9. What are the problems being faced by Startup entrepreneurs in tier 2 and 3 cities
in India?(400 words, 10 Marks)
10. In the context of UNDP’s Gender Equality Strategy 2022-25 and Gender Social
Norms Indexfor promoting gender equality, what actions can India take toward
gender sensitization? (600words, 15 Marks)
11. “Better migration policies for a prospering World”. Elaborate the statement in light
of therecently released World Development Report 2023: Migrants, Refugees and
Societies by theWorld Bank. Also, discuss key recommendations of the Report.
(600 words, 15 Marks)

12. In the light of the Report on Currency and Finance released by the RBI, explain:

A) Macroeconomic Effect of Climate Change

B) Three landmark global collaborations on climate change (600 words, 15 Marks)
13. Although Urbanization has been spreading to the hinterlands,Caste, and gender
discrimination is rampant. In this opinion, how will youjustify the protective
discriminatory policy? (600 words, 15 Marks)
14. What is meant by economic reforms? Explain all the types ofreform in economic
policies in India from the 1990s till now. (600 words, 15Marks)
15. Financial resilience is essential to any financial institution /Business. Discuss in
light of a) Financial Stability Report by RBI December 2021b) Challenges faced by
the Indian economy and Economic Reforms taken inview of the outbreak of Covid-
19 in India. (600 words, 15 Marks)
16. Rural entrepreneurship: How the hinterland’s young enterprisescan solve India’s
social challenges? (400 words, 10 Marks)

17. Write a short note on the current monetary policyframework in India. (400 words,
10 Marks)
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

18. What is NBFC? How is it different from a bank? Mentionfive types of NBFCs
registered with RBI. (400 words, 10 Marks)

2024
19. Discuss the tussle between sustainable development and economicgrowth. How can
we create the right balance between them?(15 marks)
20. Discuss the challenges of Youth unemployment? How it can be mitigate(15 marks)
21. (a) Discuss the Five Key Digital Initiatives Introduced in the Union Budget and Their
Potential Impact on India's Digital Economy (7.5 Marks).
(b) Explain the Transformational Journey of the Digital India Initiative (7.5 Marks)
22. Pros and Cons Of AI in Banking Sector (10 marks)
23. Discuss how rural India can give Priority to women led development. (10 marks)
24. Explain theObjectives and significance of National Industrial Corridor
DevelopmentProgram in boosting India's Industrial growth and Infrastructure
development (10marks)

English:
1. Essay (600 words )
I. Climate Change and its economic impacts on developing countries. (ESI Topic)
II. India’s own digital currency: E-rupee. (Finance topic)
III. 3. Innovative motivation methods for modern employees aligned with organisation
growth. (Management topic)
IV. Multi-linguistic Social Media account for businesses – need? (Current Affairs)
V. Advantages & Disadvantages of Renewable Sources of Energy.Discuss how Green
Grid Initiative under OSOWOG initiative will solve these disadvantages.
VI. Role of Women Entrepreneurship in Economic Growth in India.
VII. “Peace cannot be kept by force; it can only be achieved by understanding.” – Albert
Einstein. Elaborate.
VIII. India has become Medical destination of the world. Comment.
IX. Pros and Cons of teaching Coding/Computer Languages to School Students.
X. Future of BPO Industries in India.
XI. Importance of Creative thinking in Business.
XII. An ounce of Prevention is pound worth of Cure

2024
XIII. Effect of Migration Due To Climate Change(2024)
XIV. Well-Being Of Employees At Workplace(2024)
XV. Discuss the social, economic, and environmental impacts of hosting the Olympics in
India.(2024)
XVI. "Anyone who stops learning is old, whether at twenty or eighty. Anyone who keeps
learning stays young. The greatest thing in life is to keep your mind young." - 'Henry
Ford'. Elaborate
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

2. Precise Writing(Passage)
I. Topic Related ToDraining Sand.
II. Topic RelatedTo A leap of Faith
III. Topic Related To Bridging the gender gap through technology
IV. Can AI Replace CEO in an organisation?(2024)

3. Reading Comprehension
1.(Read the passage carefully and solve the following question on basis of passage in your
own words)
Some economists argue that businesses are using the cost of living crisis as an opportunity
to generateexcessive profits. This isn't just an idle theory. Economists at the European
Central Bank (ECB) actuallyhave some statistical evidence to back it up.
You can only learn so much by breaking down the consumer price index, the traditional
measure of risingprices (inflation, let's not forget, is simply the rate at which the prices of
the average goods and serviceswe spend most of our money on change each year). That
might tell you how much is down to food priceinflation but it can't give you a sense of how
much of that given increase in food prices is benefitingworkers versus their employers.
Basic economic theory teaches that charging what the market can bear will prompt
companies to producemore, constraining prices and ensuring that more people have access
to the good that’s in short supply.Say you make empanadas, and enough people want to
buy them that you can charge $5 each even thoughthey cost only $3 to produce. That might
allow you to invest in another oven so you can make moreempanadas — perhaps so many
that you can lower the price to $4 and sell enough that your net income.
Tempting as it is to blame businesses for what we're suffering through, there's not an
enormous amountof evidence from these figures that they are the main culprit. Actually,
taxes (in other words thegovernment) contributed much more to inflation in 2021 and into
2022 than business profits.
Now, with Britain facing double-digit inflation, a miserable cost of living crisis and rising
interest rates, theabove might not be of much consolation. And it's quite possible the
numbers may well shift - note thatthese figures are a little slow to be updated, so we don't
know the picture as of the early part of this year.There is not much disagreement that many
companies have marked up goods in excess of their own risingcosts. This is especially
evident in industries such as shipping, which had record profits as soaring demandfor goods
filled up boats, driving up costs for all traded goods. Across the economy, profit margins
surgedduring the pandemic and remained elevated.Even so, it's a reminder that the data
sometimes tells a subtly different story to the mainstream narrative

I. How are businesses using the cost-of-living crisis to generate excessive profits?

Answer - Some economists suggest that businesses may be exploiting the cost of living crisis
to boost prices and enhance their profits. According to economic theory, pricing goods
based on market demand can stimulate increased production, potentially stabilizing prices
and improving access to scarce goods. While measures like food price inflation reveal rising
costs, they don't indicate how much of the price hike benefits workers versus employers.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

II. What is the traditional measure of rising prices?

Answer - The consumer price index serves as the conventional gauge of price escalation,
reflecting the average fluctuation in prices of goods and services over a period. Inflation, as
traditionally measured, denotes the annual rate of change in prices for the typical goods and
services constituting a significant portion of household expenditures.

III. Why is the consumer price index not sufficient to understand the impact on
workers and employers?

Answer - The consumer price index may capture food price inflation but lacks the ability to
delineate the distribution of benefits between workers and employers resulting from the
rise in food prices. Basic economic principles suggest that companies, by charging prices
commensurate with market demand, stimulate increased production, thereby moderating
prices and expanding access to goods in short supply.

IV. What has contributed more to inflation in recent years, business profits or taxes?

Answer - The data indicates that taxes, rather than business profits, have made a larger
contribution to inflation in 2021 and 2022. Despite this, with the West experiencing double-
digit inflation, compounded by a dire cost of living crisis and escalating interest rates, this
revelation may offer little solace. It's conceivable that these statistics could evolve,
considering their lag in updating, leaving the current situation uncertain.

V. In which industries have companies marked up goods in excess of their rising

costs?

Answer - Companies, particularly in industries like shipping, have increased the prices of
goods beyond their actual rising costs, buoyed by the heightened demand for goods during
the pandemic. This trend of marking up prices beyond cost increases was prevalent across
various sectors, with shipping being a notable example. During the pandemic, industries like
shipping experienced record profits due to surging demand, leading to increased costs for
traded goods. As a result, profit margins across the economy surged during this period and
have remained elevated.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

2.(Read the passage carefully and solve the following question on basis of passage in your
own words)
The merger of the Forward Markets Commission(FMC) with Securities and Exchange Board
of India(SEBI) is a major milestone for the commodity futures market in India. This idea is
not new; it was floated seriously at least 12 years back when the commodity market was
revived and three national-level exchanges were in the field. At that time it was felt the FMC
should remain a separate entity, given the unique nature of this market.
The commodity market came under the regulation of the FMC and was guided by the FCRA
of 1952 with the FMC being a division of the ministry of consumer affairs (MCA). The
argument put forward was that the market was young and needed attention and expertise.
It could not be treated as a financial instrument since it involved the physical delivery of
goods, which in turn had a bearing on spot markets and prices. Therefore, the MCA would
have regulated by the APMC Acts, which fall within the jurisdiction of State governments.
Over the years, the market has matured. In between there was a dent to the credibility of
commodity markets with the NSEL failure, but the futures markets have carried on through
this turmoil and emerged more resilient.
There have also been controversies regarding their links with inflation, which has led to the
banning of futures trading in specific commodities. Conditions have stabilized since, and
there is evidently a need to take this market to a different level.
On way of looking at commodity derivatives is like is like any other financial instrument as is
the case in several markets, including the US. Since India has separate regulatory
structurethe FCRA and SCRA Acts dealing with commodities and securities – integration
would berequired. The first step taken earlier was to bring the commodity futures market
under theMinistry of Finance and, as an extension, merge the FMC with SEBI.
What would this mean for the market? Commodity derivatives can now be looked upon
asafinancial instrument analogous to equity or debt. This will bring all derivatives under a
singleregulator just like in the US, where the CFTC controls and regulates them.
This will be good news for brokers if there is integration of the two trading
platforms.Therewill be some housekeeping to be done as all brokers need to register with
SEBI. Exchangestoo have to comply with the net-worth norms.
It is not known if the stock exchanges will be allowed to deal with commodities and vice
versafor commodity exchanges. If permitted, there would be further competition in both
markets,leading to consolidation at some point of time, which is always the case for
financialinfrastructure. The major consideration is to ensure that risk from one market does
not spillinto the other. This was the primary reason for commodities being separated from
securities.
The consequence, however, was that the same broker firm would open a commodity
outfitand then trade from the same office space under two banners. With a single regulator
nowfor both the markets, and hence also for the exchanges, this need to need
separatecompanies trading in two segments with separate risk capital.
The existing exchanges will definitely see a shakeout as stock exchanges venture into
thisspace. It is unlikely, however, that in the absence of consolidation they can make a
usefuldent in the business of existing players. This is so because historically it has been
observedthat exchanges tend to get specialized in specific products and generate liquidity to
the extentthat it is difficult to wean away business. Hence MCX retains primacy in bullion
and energywhile NCDEX dominates the agricultural spectrum. New exchanges have come
and barelysurvived, and more often than not been marginalized by market forces.
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

I. Why was the commodity market put under the regulation of theForward Market
Commission (FMC)?

Answer - The commodity market fell under the regulation of the Forward Markets
Commission (FMC) and was overseen by the Forward Contracts Regulation Act (FCRA) of
1952, with the FMC operating as a division of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs (MCA).
Advocates argued that due to its nascent stage, the market required attention and
specialized expertise. Unlike financial instruments, commodities involved the physical
delivery of goods, which directly impacted spot markets and prices. Therefore, regulation
fell under the purview of the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Acts, which
were under the jurisdiction of state governments.

II. What will be the impact of the merger of FMC with SEBI?

Answer - The initial step taken was to transfer the commodity futures market under the
Ministry of Finance and subsequently merge the Forward Markets Commission (FMC) with
the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
With this transition, commodity derivatives are now viewed as financial instruments akin to
equity or debt. This consolidation places all derivatives under a unified regulator, similar to
the system in the US where the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) oversees
them.
This development is favourable for brokers, particularly if there is integration between the
two trading platforms. However, there are administrative tasks ahead, such as all brokers
needing to register with SEBI, and exchanges having to adhere to net-worth requirements.
The possibility of stock exchanges handling commodities and vice versa remains uncertain. If
permitted, it could intensify competition in both markets, potentially leading to eventual
consolidation, a common occurrence in financial infrastructure.

III. Why was decision for separating commodities from securities taken?

Answer - The potential integration of stock exchanges with commodities and vice versa
remains uncertain. If authorized, it could intensify competition in both markets, eventually
leading to consolidation, a common occurrence in financial infrastructure.
However, a crucial consideration is to prevent risks from one market from affecting the
other. This was the primary rationale for separating commodities from securities in the first
place.

IV. What was/were the consequences of separating commodities fromsecurities?

Answer - With a unified regulator overseeing both markets, brokers will need to register
with SEBI, and exchanges must adhere to net-worth requirements.
Previously, broker firms would operate commodity and securities trading from the same
office, leading to potential conflicts. However, with the integration, separate entities for
trading in different segments with distinct risk capital may become necessary to ensure
regulatory compliance.

V. What will be the impact of existing changes on stock exchanges?

Answer - The entry of stock exchanges into the commodity market is expected to disrupt
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

existing exchanges. However, without consolidation, it may be challenging for them to

significantly impact the business of established players.
Historical trends show that exchanges tend to specialize in specific products, generating
substantial liquidity that makes it difficult for competitors to attract business.
For instance, MCX excels in bullion and energy, while NCDEX leads in agricultural
commodities. New exchanges have struggled to survive and have often been marginalized
by prevailing market dynamics.

3.(Read the passage carefully and solve the following question on basis of passage in your
own words)
Agorism, a doctrine, which claims that people want to do all the things which at that time
are prohibited by the state. They think that the state is committing theft (taxes) and are
mass murderers (wars). For them Profit need not have a monetary value rather a perceived
value.
Agorism is the practice of counter-economics and the ideas associated with that practice.
Agorist ideas assert that Libertarian philosophy occurs in practice, in the real world, as
Counter-Economics.The Counter-Economy is the sum of all non-aggressive Human
Actionwhich is forbidden by the State. Counter-economics is the study of theCounter-
Economy and its practices. The Counter-Economy includesthe free market, the Black
Market, the "underground economy," allacts of civil and social disobedience, all acts of
forbidden association(sexual, racial, cross-religious), and anything else the State, at anyplace
or time, chooses to prohibit, control, regulate, tax, or tariff. TheCounter-Economy excludes
all State-approved action (the "WhiteMarket") and the Red Market (violence and theft not
approved by theState).
Counter-economics is an economic theory and revolutionary methodconsisting of direct
action carried out through the black market or thegrey market.Counter-economics applies
two basic strategies to liberate peoplefrom the state. The first recipe provides instructions
for how to breakfree vertically through building a decentralized infrastructure for
freecommunities avoiding the State and its centralized "solutions"altogether. The other
recipe advocates breaking free horizontallythrough making use of one's personal network of
friends andcolleagues and doing business out of the State's reach. One might alsocall these
recipes or strategies the introvert and extrovert solutions toour methodological problem.
The vertical or introverted strategy is aimed towards individualsconcentrating on
decentralized local infrastructure as opposed toexpansive state foundations.What this
means in real terms is to createlocal or neighbourhood networks for self-reliance, where
people in thevicinity get together to find ways to produce whatever is necessary forsurvival
and a good life. It means creating local production facilitiesand markets with no effective
State regulations and without theState's knowledge.The horizontal or extroverted strategy
applies individuals activelycreating black market networks and structures which can be
stretchedbeyond neighbourhood communities focus on the vertical strategy.
What it basically proposes is to trade with people you know and peoplewho are
recommended to you. This can all be done at whatever scaleone finds appropriate, using
available technology such as the Internetand e.g., Amazon for logistics and money
transactions.A first step could be to hire the children next-door to mow the lawn orbaby-sit.
It does not have to be very sophisticated at first. Thisapproach should come naturally to
libertarians since it simply meansexercising trade without bothering with State regulations
or payingtaxes. Most people are willing to exchange goods and services withoutregistering
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

the sales tax, which is a good start. Some of them will alsofind it in their interest to do this
on a larger scale, producing anddistributing goods and services without ever paying taxes or
followingunnecessary government regulations and controls. And most peopledo not really
care about government standards if they trust theirsupplier.

I. What does doctrine of Agorism mean in the passage?

Answer - Agorism is a political philosophy rooted in free-market anarchism, aiming to

establish a society where all interactions among individuals are voluntary exchanges within
a free market.
In Agorist theory, society is divided into two categories: those who sustain themselves
through market activities (referred to as the "economic class") and those who derive their
livelihood from coercive means (known as the "political class").
Agorists advocate for a peaceful transition whereby the economic class peacefully
undermines the influence of the political class through activities in the black market and
grey market, a practice known as counter-economics.

II. Briefly explain the difference between Counter economy and Counter economics?

Answer - The Counter-Economy encompasses all non-violent human activities that are
prohibited by the State. Counter-economics, on the other hand, is the examination of the
Counter-Economy and its practices.
It includes various elements such as the free market, the Black Market, the underground
economy, acts of civil disobedience, forbidden associations (including those based on sex,
race, or religion), and any other actions that the State chooses to restrict, regulate, tax, or
tariff.
The Counter-Economy excludes State-approved actions (referred to as the "White Market")
as well as violent and thieving actions not sanctioned by the State (known as the Red
Market).

III. What are the two pillars of Counter economics.

Answer - Counter-economics employs two fundamental strategies to emancipate

individuals from the state.
The first approach involves vertical liberation, which entails constructing a decentralized
infrastructure for free communities, thereby circumventing the State and its centralized
interventions entirely.
The second strategy, known as horizontal liberation, involves leveraging one's personal
network of friends and colleagues to conduct business beyond the State's jurisdiction. These
strategies can also be referred to as the introvert and extrovert solutions to the
methodological challenge posed by state intervention.

IV. What does the doctrine of Agorism claim?

Answer - The doctrine of Agorism asserts that the most effective means of establishing a
voluntary society is by promoting and expanding the underground economy or "black
market" - also known as the "counter-economy."
This process continues until the perceived moral authority and coercive power of the State
are sufficiently undermined. At this juncture, revolutionary market anarchist legal and
RBI Grade B Previous Year Questions With Answers Free e-book

security enterprises can emerge from the underground, ultimately dismantling government
as a criminal entity. This approach involves treating taxation as theft and war as mass
murder, among other actions deemed oppressive by the State.

V. Differentiate between Vertical and Horizontal theories of the doctrine.

Answer - The vertical or introverted strategy focuses on individuals building decentralized

local infrastructure, emphasizing self-reliance by establishing local production facilities and
markets without effective state regulations and outside the knowledge of the State.
Conversely, the horizontal or extroverted strategy involves individuals actively creating black
market networks and structures that extend beyond neighbourhood communities, diverging
from the vertical strategy's localized focus. It suggests trading with acquaintances and
trusted connections, leveraging available technology such as the Internet, and conducting
transactions at a scale deemed suitable by the participants.