UPSC Question :100

Time : 120 Min

Marks :200
MOCK TEST – 22 (GENERAL STUDIES) Date: 14-05-2025
1. With reference to the concept of Rita in the Early Vedic period, consider the
following statements:
1. Rita represented the immutable cosmic and moral order governing the universe,
gods, and humans.
2. The god Varuna was considered the primary guardian and upholder of Rita.
3. Violation of Rita was believed to directly cause natural calamities like floods and
droughts.
4. The concept of Rita was later completely replaced by the doctrine of Karma in the
Upanishad period.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Which of the following philosophical viewpoints accurately reflects a core tenet
distinguishing Ajivika philosophy from orthodox Brahmanical schools?
A. Belief in the cyclical nature of time and cosmic dissolution.
B. Acceptance of the authority of the Vedas as revealed scripture.
C. Adherence to the doctrine of Niyati (determinism or fate), negating free will and
karma. D. Emphasis on extreme asceticism and self-mortification to achieve
liberation.
3. Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhara School of Art:
1. It primarily used local red sandstone as its medium.
2. The themes were exclusively Buddhist, depicting only Jataka tales.
3. It shows strong influence from Greco-Roman artistic traditions in depicting
anatomical accuracy and drapery.
4. The main centers of this art form were located in the Mathura region.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. None

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4. With reference to the administrative term 'Brahmadeya' in ancient and early
medieval South India, which statement best captures its primary significance?
A. It referred to a special tax levied on Brahmanas for temple maintenance.
B. It denoted land grants made exclusively to warrior chiefs for military service.
C. It signified tax-free land grants, predominantly given to Brahmanas, often
conferring significant local autonomy.
D. It was a category of wasteland allocated by the king for settlement by new
agricultural
communities.
5. Consider the following statements about the economic conditions during the Gupta
period:
1. The Gupta rulers issued the largest number of gold coins, known as dinaras,
indicating unprecedented economic prosperity throughout the empire.
2. There was a marked decline in long-distance trade compared to the Post-Mauryan
(Kushana- Satavahana) period.
3. The practice of land grants (agrahara and brahmadeya) increased significantly,
leading to the rise of feudal tendencies.
4. The guild system (shreni) completely collapsed due to the decentralization
resulting from land grants.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only
6. Consider the following statements regarding the role and status of women during
the Later Vedic Period (c.1000 - 600 BCE):
1. Women were completely barred from participating in any Vedic sacrifices or
rituals.
2. The practice of Sati became widespread and socially mandated during this period.
3. Women generally lost the right to attend assemblies like the Sabha.
4. Female scholars like Gargi and Maitreyi, known for philosophical debates,
flourished exclusively in this era

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 How many of the above statements are generally considered correct by historians?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. None
7. Consider the following statements regarding the Nayankara system under the
Vijayanagara Empire:
1. The Nayakas were military chiefs who were granted territories called amaram in
lieu of fixed salaries, from which they maintained troops for the king.
2. The Nayankara system was largely inspired by and almost identical to the Iqta
system of the Delhi Sultanate.
3. The Nayakas possessed significant judicial and administrative powers within their
amaram, including the right to impose taxes and maintain law and order.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
8. Consider the following statements regarding the Bahmani Sultanate and its
administration:
1. The Tarafdars, governors of the provinces (tarafs), initially held extensive powers
but were later subjected to greater central control under Mahmud Gawan.
2. The Bahmani kingdom maintained a consistently hostile relationship with the
Vijayanagara Empire, primarily driven by religious antagonism.
3. The influx of Afaqis (foreigners, mainly Persians and Turks) into the Bahmani
nobility led to significant internal conflict with the established Deccani nobles.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
9. The term 'Paibaqi' in the context of Mughal land revenue administration referred to:
A. Land revenue assigned in lieu of salary to Mansabdars (jagirs).
B. Land reserved for the income of the imperial household (khalisa).
C. Revenue collected in kind (crop share) rather than cash.
D. Land earmarked for assignment as jagir but not yet assigned.
10. With reference to the cultural history of Medieval India, the term 'Ganj-i-Sawai' is
associated with:

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 A. A treatise on music composed during the reign of Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin of Kashmir.
B. The largest imperial library established by Emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri.
C. A heavily armed Mughal treasure ship belonging to Aurangzeb that was captured
by pirates.
D. The collective body of court historians responsible for compiling the official
chronicles (waqai) during Shah Jahan's reign.
11. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The scheme of an All-India Federation proposed under the Government
of India Act, 1935,never materialized.
Reason (R): The Indian National Congress rejected the federal scheme outright due to
the inadequate representation granted to British Indian provinces compared to the
Princely States.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
12. Arrange the following tribal uprisings against British rule in chronological order of
their commencement:
1. Santhal Rebellion
2. Kol Mutiny
3. Rampa Rebellion (led by Alluri Sitarama Raju)
4. Munda Ulgulan (led by Birsa Munda)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2-1-4-3 B. 1-2-3-4
C. 2-1-3-4 D. 1-2-4-3
13. Consider the following statements regarding the Vernacular Press Act, 1878:
1. It was enacted during the viceroyalty of Lord Ripon, known for his liberal policies.

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 2. The Act exclusively targeted newspapers published in Indian languages, exempting
the English-language press.
3. It empowered magistrates to demand security deposits from printers and
publishers, which could be forfeited if they published content deemed seditious or
objectionable by the government.
4. The Act provided for an appeal to the High Courts against the magistrate's order.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
14. Consider the following statements regarding the police reforms implemented during
the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon (1899-1905):
1. A Police Commission was appointed in 1902 under the chairmanship of Sir Andrew
Fraser to review the police system.
2. The reforms aimed primarily at decentralizing police administration by
strengthening local control over provincial police forces.
3. The establishment of provincial Criminal Investigation Departments (CIDs) and a
central Intelligence Bureau (IB) were key outcomes of these reforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
15. With reference to the Ryotwari system of land revenue introduced by the British,
consider the following statements:
1. Unlike the Permanent Settlement, the revenue demand under Ryotwari was fixed
in perpetuity for individual cultivators
2. The system aimed to establish direct relations between the state and the cultivator
(ryot), theoretically eliminating intermediaries.
3. In practice, the revenue assessments under Ryotwari were often moderate and
flexible, adapting easily to fluctuations in agricultural output.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
16. Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of British Famine Policy in
India during the latter half of the 19th century:

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 1. The Orissa Famine of 1866-67 prompted the first systematic government inquiry
into famine causes and relief, leading to the Campbell Commission.
2. The Strachey Commission (1880) recommended the formulation of a Famine Code,
emphasizing state responsibility for relief and advocating for employment generation
through public works.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
17. Consider the following proposals related to the transfer of power in India during
1945-1946:
1. The Wavell Plan (Simla Conference, 1945) proposed an Executive Council where all
members, except the Viceroy and the Commander-in-Chief, would be Indians, with
equal representation for 'caste Hindus' and Muslims.
2. The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) recommended the partition of India into two
sovereign states, India and Pakistan, based on religious demographics.
3. Both the Wavell Plan and the Cabinet Mission Plan explicitly rejected the idea of a
separate Constituent Assembly for Pakistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. None
18. With reference to the evolution of Buddhist thought, consider the following
statements:
1. The concept of 'Trikaya' (Three Bodies of Buddha) is primarily elaborated within
the Pali Canon, forming a core doctrine of the Sthaviravada school.
2. The Prajnaparamita Sutras emphasize 'Sunyata' (emptiness) and are foundational
texts exclusively for the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana, rejected by Yogacara
followers.
3. The ideal of the 'Arhat' emphasizes self-liberation and is central to Theravada,
while the 'Bodhisattva' ideal, prioritizing universal liberation, is characteristic of
Mahayana schools.
4. The Lokottaravadin school, an early Mahasanghika branch, posited a
supramundane (lokottara) nature of the Buddha, influencing later Mahayana
concepts of Buddhahood.

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 How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
19. Assertion (A): The Brihadeeswarar Temple at Thanjavur, built by Rajaraja Chola I,
represents the culmination of the Dravidian temple architectural style, characterized
by its massive Vimana and Nandi statue.
Reason (R): Chola architecture uniquely synthesized earlier Pallava rock-cut traditions
with Chalukyan structural innovations, focusing entirely on verticality and neglecting
the horizontal expansion seen in later Vijayanagara temple complexes. In the context
of the above two statements,
Which one of the following is correct?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
20. Consider the following statements regarding the transition in Mughal painting from
Jahangir's reign to Shah
Jahan's reign:
1. Jahangir's atelier prioritized naturalistic depiction of flora and fauna and
individualised portraiture, often with psychological depth.
2. Shah Jahan's era saw a shift towards greater formalism, idealized representations,
increased use of gold, and elaborate border decorations in paintings.
3. The technique of 'Siyahi Qalam' (black ink drawing) gained prominence primarily
during Shah Jahan's reign, replacing the vibrant colour palettes favoured by Jahangir.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
21. Consider the following pairs:
Intangible Cultural Heritage Primary Associated State/Region
1. Koodiyattam Kerala
2. Ramlila Uttar Pradesh

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 3. Chhau Dance Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal
4. Kalbelia Rajasthan
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. Only one pair B. Only two pairs C. Only three pairs
D. All four pairs
22. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in India is collectively responsible to the Lok
Sabha.
Reason (R): A motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers can be
introduced and passed only in the Lok Sabha.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
23. Consider the following situations:
1. Parliament legislating on a matter in the State List because Rajya Sabha passed a
resolution under Article 249.
2. Imposition of President's Rule in a state under Article 356.
3. Establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263.
4. Implementation of Goods and Services Tax (GST) requiring constitutional
amendment affecting Centre-State financial relations.
Which of the above situations reflect unitary features or biases within the Indian
federal structure, potentially overriding state autonomy under specific
circumstances?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship between
Fundamental Rights (FRs) and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) as
interpreted by the Supreme Court?

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 1. DPSPs have always been held to be subordinate to FRs, and any law implementing
a DPSP must necessarily yield if it conflicts with any FR.
2. Article 31C, as amended by the 42nd Amendment Act, gave precedence to all
DPSPs over Articles 14, 19, and 31, but this blanket precedence was struck down by
the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme Court has advocated for a 'harmonious construction' between FRs
and DPSPs, viewing them as complementary and supplementary to each other.
4. Fundamental Rights represent negative obligations on the State, while DPSPs
represent positive obligations, making them inherently contradictory in nature.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
25. Consider the procedure for amending the Constitution under Article 368:
1. An amendment bill can be initiated only by a Minister in either House of
Parliament.
2. If a bill seeks to amend federal provisions, it requires ratification by the legislatures
of all the states before being presented to the President for assent.
3. The President is bound to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill duly
passed by both Houses (and ratified by states where required).
4. Disagreement between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over a Constitution
Amendment Bill is resolved through a joint sitting of both Houses.
How many of the above statements regarding the amendment procedure are
correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. None
26. Consider the following distinctions between the administration of Scheduled Areas
under the Fifth Schedule and Tribal Areas under the Sixth Schedule:
1. The Fifth Schedule applies to administration and control of Scheduled Areas and
Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram,
whereas the Sixth Schedule applies specifically to these four states.
2. Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with significant legislative, judicial, and
financial powers are constituted only under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule.

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 3. The Governor's power to modify or exclude the application of Parliamentary or
State laws is more extensive and direct in Fifth Schedule areas compared to Sixth
Schedule areas where ADCs have primary legislative competence on specified
matters.
4. Tribes Advisory Councils (TACs) are mandatory for every state having Scheduled
Areas under the Fifth Schedule, while the Sixth Schedule mandates the establishment
of District Councils and Regional Councils.
How many of the above statements accurately highlight a distinction?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
27. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the legal status and
significance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution as interpreted by the
Supreme Court?
A. The Preamble is merely an introduction and holds no legal significance in the
interpretation of the Constitution.
B. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended, subject to the
condition that the 'basic features' in the Preamble cannot be altered.
C. The Preamble is the ultimate source of power for both the legislature and the
executive, overriding the specific provisions of the Constitution in case of conflict.
D. The Preamble is not considered part of the Constitution and therefore cannot be
amended under Article 368.
28. Consider the following statements regarding the powers and functions of the Speaker
of the Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker's decision on whether a Bill is a Money Bill is final and cannot be
questioned in any court of law or either House of Parliament.
2. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament convened
to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill.
3. The Speaker's power to disqualify a member under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-
Defection Law) is subject to judicial review.
4. The Speaker does not vote in the first instance but exercises a casting vote in the
case of a tie.
How many of the above statements are correct?

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 A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
29. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of financial resources
between the Union and the
States:
1. The Finance Commission, a constitutional body under Article 280, primarily makes
recommendations on respective shares.
2. Grants-in-aid provided to the states by the Centre under Article 275 (statutory
grants) are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and require the
recommendation of the Finance Commission.
3. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, established under Article 279A, is
empowered to make recommendations on the taxes, cesses, and surcharges to be
subsumed in GST, but its recommendations are not binding on the Union and State
governments.
4. Corporation tax is levied and collected by the Union but its proceeds are
compulsorily shared with the States based on the Finance Commission's formula.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
30. Consider the following statements regarding the powers and functions of the
President of India:
1. The President can promulgate Ordinances under Article 123 only when both
Houses of Parliament are not in session.
2. The satisfaction of the President regarding the necessity to promulgate an
Ordinance is subject to judicial review on the ground of mala fide.
3. Every proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 must be laid before each
House of Parliament and ceases to operate at the expiration of one month unless
approved by resolutions of both Houses.
4. The President's power to grant pardon under Article 72 extends to sentences by
Court Martial, but this power is co-extensive with the Governor's power under Article
161 for offences against state laws.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four

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31. Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary procedures and
committees in India:
1. The Rules Committee of Lok Sabha, chaired by the Speaker, includes members
nominated by the Speaker from both the ruling party and the opposition.
2. A motion seeking discussion on a matter of definite public importance can be
admitted under Rule 193 of the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha, and it involves a
formal vote at the end of the discussion.
3. Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) examine demands for
grants of the concerned ministries/departments but are constitutionally barred from
suggesting alternatives or cut motions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
32. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):
1. The Constitution lays down the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative, or
judicial) for the members of the Election Commission.
2. The Constitution specifies the term of the members of the Election Commission
and debars retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the
government.
3. The power to decide disputes regarding disqualification of Members of Parliament
rests solely with the President, who must act according to the opinion tendered by
the Election Commission.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
33. Assertion (A): The Governor of a State possesses wider discretionary powers
compared to the President of India.
Reason (R): The Constitution explicitly mentions certain situations where the
Governor is required to act in his/her discretion, independent of the aid and advice of
the Council of Ministers, a parallel provision for which is less defined for the
President.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

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 A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
34. Consider the following statements regarding Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in
India after the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
1. The Act mandates the establishment of a three-tier system of panchayats at the
village, intermediate, and district levels in every State, irrespective of its population
size.
2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in every
Panchayat is provided in proportion to their population in the Panchayat area, but
reservation for women is fixed at one-third, not linked to population.
3. The State Election Commission, constituted under Article 243K, is responsible for
the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for,
and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats and the State Legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
35. Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Council (Vidhan
Parishad) of a State:
1. The Parliament can abolish a Legislative Council or create it, if the Legislative
Assembly of the concerned State passes a resolution to that effect by a simple
majority.
2. One-third of the members of the Legislative Council are elected by the members of
the
Legislative Assembly from amongst persons who are not members of the Assembly.
3. The Legislative Council possesses equal powers with the Legislative Assembly in
the matter of passing Ordinary Bills that do not originate in the Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

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36. Consider the following statements regarding Writ Jurisdiction in India:
1. The writ jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 226 is wider than that of the
Supreme Court under Article 32, as the High Court can issue writs for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for 'any other purpose'.
2. The Parliament can empower any other court, besides the Supreme Court and High
Courts, to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
3. The writ of 'Quo Warranto' can be sought only by a person whose legal right has
been infringed by the usurpation of a public office.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
37. Consider the following pairs regarding the Schedules of the Indian Constitution:
1. Third Schedule : Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for Union Ministers and Members
of Parliament.
2. Fifth Schedule : Provisions relating to the administration and control of Scheduled
Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and
Mizoram.
3. Seventh Schedule : Allocation of powers between the Union and the States,
containing Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
4. Tenth Schedule : Provisions relating to allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the
States and Union Territories.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
38. Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges in India:
1. The Constitution explicitly codifies all privileges available to the Houses of
Parliament, their members, and committees.
2. Parliamentary privileges extend to the President of India when addressing either
House of Parliament or their joint sitting.
3. Breach of privilege and contempt of the House are synonymous terms, and the
power to punish for contempt is derived solely from Article 105.

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 How many of the above statements are incorrect?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
39. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor of a State can promulgate an ordinance only on the advice
of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
Statement II: The ordinance-making power of the Governor under Article 213 is co-
extensive with the legislative power of the State Legislature.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement I.
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct
explanation for Statement I.
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
40. Consider the following provisions intended to ensure the independence of the
Judiciary in India:
1. Salaries and allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of the State
respectively, and are not subject to the vote of the legislature.
2. Parliament can curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court with
respect to matters in the Union List.
Which of the statements given above contribute(s) to the independence of the
Judiciary?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
41. Assertion (A): The FRBM Act, 2003 allows for deviations from fiscal deficit targets
under specific circumstances, such as a national security threat or a sharp decline in
real output growth.
Reason (R): The escape clause mechanism was introduced primarily to provide the
government with unrestricted fiscal space during any unforeseen event, prioritizing
immediate needs over long-term fiscal consolidation.

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 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Assertion (A) and
Reason (R)?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
42. Consider the following statements regarding the application of Basel III norms in
India:
1. Basel III norms mandate identical Minimum Capital Adequacy Ratios (CAR) for all
types of commercial banks operating in India, irrespective of their systemic
importance.
2. The computation of Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs) under Basel III strictly prohibits
the use of internal models by banks, requiring exclusive reliance on the standardized
approach prescribed by the RBI.
3. The Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) under Basel III aims to ensure banks hold
sufficient high- quality liquid assets (HQLA) to survive a significant stress scenario
lasting for 60 days.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
43. Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be considered a significant
impediment to the effective transmission of monetary policy rate changes to lending
rates by commercial banks in India?
A. High proportion of fixed-rate deposits with long maturities in the banking system's
liability structure.
B. Persistence of high Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) on banks' balance sheets,
affecting their risk appetite and lending capacity.
C. Significant competition from Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in certain
lending segments.
D. The prevalence of administered interest rates on certain government-sponsored
small savings schemes.

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44. Consider the following activities:
1. A homemaker providing unpaid domestic services.
2. Production of vegetables in a kitchen garden for self-consumption.
3. Capital gains realized from the sale of shares.
4. Income generated through illegal activities like smuggling.
Which of the above activities are typically excluded from the estimation of India's
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) using standard national accounting conventions?
A. 1 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
45 . Assertion (A): A high tax buoyancy indicates that tax revenues increase more than
proportionately to the increase in the national income (GDP).
Reason (R): Tax buoyancy reflects the responsiveness of tax revenue to changes in
GDP, encompassing the effects of both economic growth and discretionary changes
in tax policy (like changes in tax rates or base).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Assertion (A) and
Reason (R)?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
46. Consider the following statements regarding financial inclusion initiatives in India:
1. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) primarily focused on opening basic
savings bank deposit accounts but did not include provisions for overdraft facilities or
insurance cover.
2. Business Correspondents (BCs) are permitted to offer only deposit and withdrawal
services and are legally barred from providing credit or insurance products at the last
mile.
3. Payment Banks are authorized to accept demand deposits and issue debit cards
but are prohibited from undertaking any lending activities.
How many of the above statements are correct?

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 A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
47. Consider the following statements regarding the regulation of Non-Banking
Financial Companies (NBFCs) in
India:
1. All entities engaged in the business of financial activities automatically fall under
the regulatory purview of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as NBFCs.
2. The RBI employs a scale-based regulatory framework for NBFCs, categorizing them
into different layers based on size, activity, and perceived riskiness, with
progressively stricter regulations for upper layers.
3. Deposit-taking NBFCs are subject to prudential norms regarding capital adequacy
and liquidity that are identical to those applicable to scheduled commercial banks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
48. Consider the following:
1. Discovery of new oil reserves within the country's territory.
2. Increased efficiency in tax collection leading to higher net indirect tax revenue for
the government, with production levels remaining constant.
3. A multinational corporation setting up a new manufacturing plant within India.
4. A successful skill development program leading to higher productivity of the
existing workforce.
Which of the above would lead to an increase in India's Gross Value Added (GVA) at
basic prices?
A. 3 and 4 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
49. The Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework imposed by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) on banks is primarily triggered based on which of the following
parameters?
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)
2. Asset Quality (Net NPA ratio)
3. Profitability (Return on Assets)

18
 4. Leverage Ratio
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
50. The Mahalanobis strategy, which heavily influenced India's Second Five-Year Plan
(1956-61), prioritized which of the following?
A. Maximizing agricultural output through land reforms and community
development programs.
B. Achieving rapid industrialization with a strong emphasis on the development of
heavy industries and capital goods sector.
C. Promoting export-oriented growth by liberalizing trade and attracting foreign
direct investment.
D. Focusing on poverty alleviation and employment generation through large-scale
rural works programs.
51. Which of the following statements accurately describes a key regulatory
requirement or characteristic specific to Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
A. SFBs are required to allocate at least 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit
(ANBC) towards Priority Sector Lending (PSL).
B. SFBs are permitted to establish subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial
activities without prior RBI approval.
C. There is no minimum paid-up voting equity capital requirement for setting up an
SFB.
D. SFBs are restricted from accepting deposits from Non-Resident Indians (NRIs).
52. Consider the following statements regarding the monetary policy transmission
mechanism in India, particularly in the context of the External Benchmark Lending
Rate (EBLR) regime:
1. The primary objective of mandating the EBLR system was to reduce the volatility in
lending rates faced by borrowers compared to the previous MCLR regime.
2. Under the EBLR framework, banks are mandated to reset the interest rates for
applicable loans at least once every financial year.

19
 3. One of the persistent challenges affecting monetary transmission, even under
EBLR, is the significant share of fixed-rate deposits in the banking system's liability
structure.
4. The pass-through from policy repo rate changes to bank lending rates under EBLR
has been observed to be significantly faster for new loans compared to the
outstanding loan portfolio linked to earlier benchmark regimes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
53. Consider the following statements regarding India's capital market:
1. An Initial Public Offering (IPO) where a company issues shares to the public for the
first time occurs in the secondary market.
2. Trading of existing shares between investors on stock exchanges like BSE and NSE
takes place in the primary market.
3. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) primarily regulates the activities
in the secondary market, while the primary market issuances are mainly governed by
the Companies Act.
4. The primary market facilitates capital formation for companies, while the
secondary market provides liquidity to investors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 4 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only
54. Consider the following money market instruments in India:
1. Treasury Bills (T-Bills) 2. Commercial Paper (CP)
3. Certificate of Deposit (CD) 4. Call Money
Which of the above are typically issued at a discount to face value and redeemed at
par?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
55. With reference to the role of Depositories (NSDL and CDSL) in the Indian securities
market, consider the following statements:

20
 1. Depositories hold securities like shares and bonds in electronic (dematerialized)
form on behalf of investors.
2. An investor can directly open a Demat account with NSDL or CDSL without
involving an intermediary.
3. Dematerialization is the process of converting electronic securities back into
physical certificates.
4. Both NSDL and CDSL are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
56. Consider the following financial institutions in India:
1. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
2. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
3. Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
4. National Housing Bank (NHB)
5. National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID)
Which of the above are classified as All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs) regulated
by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and primarily function as Development Financial
Institutions (DFIs)?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 D. 5 only
57. Which of the following conditions and consequences are most accurately associated
with the formation and persistence of an Omega Block in the mid-latitude Northern
Hemisphere?
1. A strong, meridionally amplified (wavy) jet stream pattern.
2. Rapid eastward progression of surface weather systems (lows and highs).
3. Prolonged periods of settled, dry weather beneath the high-pressure core and
potentially stormy conditions on its flanks.
4. Typically forms over oceanic regions due to differential heating, rarely persisting
over large continental landmasses.

21
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only
58. Consider the following statements regarding the mechanisms of ocean acidification:
1. Increased atmospheric CO2 directly decreases the pH of surface ocean waters by
forming carbonic acid (H2CO3).
2. Ocean acidification leads to an increase in the concentration of carbonate ions
(CO32−) available for calcifying organisms.
3. Waters in polar regions are generally acidifying faster than tropical waters partly
due to the higher solubility of CO2 in colder water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
59. With reference to Rare Earth Elements (REEs), consider the following statements:
1. Despite their name, REEs are relatively abundant in the Earth's crust, but
economically viable concentrations are geographically restricted.
2. China currently dominates global REE production, primarily due to its large
reserves and historically lower environmental regulation costs associated with
extraction and processing.
3. REEs are critical components primarily for heavy industries like steel
manufacturing and construction, with limited use in high-technology applications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
60. The El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) phenomenon in the tropical Pacific has far-
reaching global impacts (teleconnections). Which of the following patterns are
typically associated with the El Niño phase?
1. Suppressed monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent.
2. Increased likelihood of drought conditions in Southern Africa and
Indonesia/Australia.

22
 3. Wetter-than-average conditions along the Gulf Coast of the United States and in
Peru/Ecuador.
4. Stronger-than-average Atlantic hurricane activity due to warmer Atlantic sea
surface temperatures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
61. Statement-I: Regions formerly covered by thick continental ice sheets, like
Scandinavia and parts of Canada, are currently experiencing significant land uplift.
Statement-II: This uplift is primarily caused by ongoing tectonic compression along
active plate boundaries in these regions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is NOT the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
62. Consider the following statements regarding the geological and structural
complexities of the Peninsular
Plateau of India:
1. The Rajmahal Hills represent the northeasternmost projection of the Peninsular
block, primarily composed of Jurassic-era basaltic lava flows.
2. The Narmada-Son lineament represents a major graben structure formed due to
tensional forces, separating the Vindhyan block from the Satpura block.
3. The Dharwar Craton, predominantly located in Karnataka, consists mainly of
Archaean granites and gneisses, making it significantly younger than the Aravalli
Range.
4. The Deccan Traps were formed by fissure eruptions during the Cretaceous period,
coinciding with the northward drift of the Indian plate over the Reunion hotspot.

23
 How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
63. With reference to inter-state river water linkages and disputes in India, consider the
following pairs:
1. Ken-Betwa Link Project : Primarily involves water transfer from a Ganga basin
tributary to another Ganga basin tributary.
2. Polavaram Project : Primarily involves water transfer from the Godavari River to
the Krishna River basin.
3. Cauvery Water Dispute : Involves riparian states including Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil
Nadu, and Telangana.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
64. Consider the following statements regarding 'Shola' forests in India:
1. They are tropical montane forests found exclusively in the valleys and depressions
of the higher altitudes of the Himalayas.
2. The vegetation is characterized by stunted evergreen trees forming dense patches
interspersed with extensive grasslands.
3. Species diversity within Shola patches is typically very high, often exceeding that of
adjacent grasslands.
4. These ecosystems play a crucial role in hydrological regulation, acting as 'water
towers' for peninsular rivers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
65. With reference to the role of Jet Streams in influencing Indian weather, consider the
following statements:
1. The Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream (STWJ) prevails over northern India during
the winter season and plays a role in steering Western Disturbances.
2. The Tropical Easterly Jet Stream (TEJ) develops during the summer monsoon
season over peninsular India and is associated with the burst of the monsoon.

24
 3. The position and strength of the STWJ's southward shift in winter directly correlate
with the intensity of cold waves experienced in North India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
66. Consider the following pairs:
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve Garo Hills
2. Similipal Biosphere Reserve Chota Nagpur Plateau
3. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve Satpura Range
4. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve Cardamom Hills
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
67. The Durand Line, often mentioned in the context of regional geopolitics, defines the
international border between:
A. India and Pakistan B. India and Afghanistan
C. Pakistan and Afghanistan D. Pakistan and Iran
68. Match the communication device with its functionality and security feature:
Device Functionality Security Feature
A. Pager 1. Internet and voice service i. High encryption
standards
B. Satellite Phone 2. One-way message ii. Easy
reception triangulation risk
C. Mobile Phone 3. Two-way voice iii. Minimal active
communication signal footprint
Select the correct answer code:
A. A-1-iii, B-2-i, C-3-ii B. A-2-iii, B-3-i, C-1-ii
C. A-2-ii, B-3-i, C-1-iii D. A-3-i, B-2-ii, C-1-iii

25
69. Which one of the following best describes the objective of the Indian Development
and Economic Assistance Scheme (IDEAS)?
A. to provide concessional funding mainly for India's domestic rural projects
B. to fund emergency humanitarian relief during natural disasters
C. to facilitate direct private sector investments in India's infrastructure sector
D. to extend concessional Lines of Credit to developing countries for development
assistance
70. Consider the following biosphere reserve with the state:
Biosphere Reserve State
A. Nokrek 1. Meghalaya
B. Dibru-Saikhowa 2. Assam
C. Dehang-Dibang 3. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Achanakamar-Amarkantak 4. Chhattisgarh
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
71. Consider the following statements regarding India's supercomputers
Statement-I: India's supercomputers are primarily designed for space exploration
purposes.
Statement-II: The indigenous development of supercomputers was a strategic move
after technology denial by foreign countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
72. Which one of the following best describes the main working principle of a
haemodialysis (HD) machine?

26
 A. active filtration of blood using high-pressure pumps to mechanically force waste
removal
B. osmotic absorption of waste directly through natural body membranes
C. chemical reaction between toxins and neutralizing agents in the bloodstream
D. diffusion of waste products across a semi-permeable membrane into a cleansing
fluid
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Landslides are classified under hydro-meteorological disasters in India's disaster
framework.
2. Overgrazing by cattle reduces landslide risks by maintaining low vegetation cover.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
74. Consider the following statements regarding Notifiable Diseases in India:
1. All notifiable diseases must also be declared Public Health Emergencies of
International Concern (PHEIC).
2. Early declaration of a notifiable disease assists in outbreak prediction and control.
3. Dengue and tuberculosis are currently listed as notifiable diseases in India.
4. WHO enforces mandatory reporting of national notifiable diseases directly on
member states.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
75. Consider the following statements regarding International Conventions on Refugees.
Statement-I: India is obligated to follow non-refoulement even though it has not
signed the 1951 Refugee Convention.
Statement-II: Non-refoulement is a binding principle under customary international
law, irrespective of treaty ratification.
Which one of the following is correct?
A. both statement-i and statement-ii are correct and statement-ii is the correct
explanation for statement-i

27
 B. both statement-i and statement-ii are correct and statement-ii is not the correct
explanation for statement-i
C. statement-i is correct but statement-ii is incorrect
D. statement-i is incorrect but statement-ii is correct
76. Which of the following best distinguishes fungi from flora and fauna in the context of
ecological function?
A. Fungi are secondary producers like animals but consume only dead plant material
B. Fungi act as both primary producers and consumers depending on their habitat
C. Fungi require sunlight for photosynthesis, just like flora, but consume prey like
fauna
D. Fungi function as decomposers and nutrient cyclers, unlike flora (producers) and
fauna (consumers)
77. Consider the following statements regarding Solar paraboloid technology, which is
emerging as a promising renewable energy solution.
Statement-I: Solar paraboloid concentrators primarily aim to reduce the land
footprint per unit of electricity generated compared to traditional solar PV systems.
Statement-II: Higher solar energy concentration by paraboloid mirrors leads to
significantly reduced surface area requirements.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
78. Match the following types of winds with their role in dust storm formation:
Wind Type Role in Dust Storms
A. Westerlies 1. Uplift dry soil in northwestern India
B. Local convection 2. Transports dust from Sahara to India

28
 C. Tropical easterlies 3. Initiates surface turbulence
Select the correct answer code:
A. A-2, B-1, C-3 B. A-1, B-3, C-2
C. A-2, B-3, C-1 D. A-3, B-1, C-2
79. Consider the following statements regarding the Most Favoured Nation (MFN)
principle:
1. MFN status guarantees the highest level of trade barriers to prevent dumping.
2. Regional Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) are exceptions allowed under the MFN
framework.
3. A WTO member can remove MFN status from another member without notifying
the WTO.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
80. Consider the following statements regarding Electroencephalography (EEG), recently
in news.
Statement-I: EEG is preferred over MRI for real-time brain monitoring during
surgeries.
Statement-II: EEG can instantly detect rapid changes in brain electrical activity, unlike
MRI which captures static images.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
81. Consider the following statements regarding Hybrid paddy varieties.
Statement-I: The cultivation of hybrid paddy has been linked to reduced stubble
burning incidents in northern India.

29
 Statement-II: Hybrid paddy varieties produce greater biomass than traditional ones,
which is easier to decompose.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
82. Which one of the following UN agencies is responsible specifically for coordinating
humanitarian aid during emergencies?
A. UNHCR B. UNRWA C. UN Human Rights Council D. OCHA
83. Consider the following statements regarding Proba-3 mission.
Statement-I: Proba-3 will allow scientists to study the solar corona for much longer
durations than natural eclipses permit.
Statement-II: Artificial eclipses created by the mission enable continuous and
extended observations without waiting for rare celestial alignments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
84. The appearance of golden tigers in Kaziranga National Park is best explained by which
of the following?
A. Adaptation to wetland grassland camouflage
B. Geographic isolation creating a new subspecies of Panthera tigris
C. Melanism leading to light fur due to albinism

30
 D. Mutation in the wideband gene affecting pigment production
85. Consider the following statements regarding African Continental Free Trade Area
(AfCFTA).
1. AfCFTA was launched to accelerate Africa's industrialization and intra-Africa trade.
2. AfCFTA aims to create a single continental market.
3. AfCFTA restricts free movement of services across African countries.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
86. Match the component of Human Rated Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (HLVM-3) with its
function:
Component Function
A. Solid stage 1. Final orbital insertion
B. Liquid stage 2. Provides initial thrust at lift-off
C. Cryogenic stage 3. Controls trajectory mid-flight
Select the correct answer:
A. A-1, B-2, C-3 B. A-2, B-3, C-1
C. A-3, B-1, C-2 D. A-2, B-1, C-3
87. Which of the following best explains the environmental role of Flue Gas
Desulphurisation (FGD) technology?
A. Enhances combustion efficiency in coal-fired boilers by increasing pressure.
B. Captures carbon monoxide emissions and converts them into methane.
C. Removes sulphur dioxide from flue gases, thereby reducing acid rain potential.
D. Converts nitrogen oxides into fertilizers for agricultural reuse.
88. Consider the following statements regarding the UN General Assembly (UNGA):
1. UNGA resolutions override decisions of the UN Security Council.
2. The President of the UNGA has veto power.
3. Each UNGA member has voting rights proportional to its GDP contribution.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

31
 A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
89. Consider the following statements regarding Axiom-4 mission.
Statement-I: India’s participation in Axiom-4 strengthens its preparedness for
independent human spaceflight missions like Gaganyaan.
Statement-II: Axiom-4 will allow Indian astronauts to gain operational experience in a
real microgravity environment aboard the ISS.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
90. Consider the following statements regarding Phosphorus and the Phosphorus Cycle:
1. The Phosphorus cycle is primarily atmospheric, with phosphorus easily dissolving in
water from the air.
2. Phosphorus occurs as a mineral in phosphate rocks and enters the Phosphorus
cycle through erosion and mining activities.
3. Phosphorus contributes to the excessive growth of rooted and free-floating
microscopic plants in water bodies.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
91. Consider the following statements regarding Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB):
1. AIIB's voting rights are distributed equally among all member countries.
2. AIIB focuses on building sustainable infrastructure projects like energy, transport,
and urban development.
3. AIIB’s headquarters are located in Shanghai.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

32
 A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
92. Consider the following statements regarding luminescent nanomaterials:
1. They lose effectiveness after a few weeks when exposed to air.
2. They provide multiple distinct colors depending on light wavelength.
3. They are primarily used in superconducting materials.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
93. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of ecosystems in the
order of decreasing productivity?
A. mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes B. oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
C. mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans D. oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
94. Consider the following statements regarding UN Summit of the Future 2024
Statement-I: The UN Summit of the Future 2024 aimed at accelerating progress
toward the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Statement-II: The Global Digital Compact created during the Summit mandates
internet shutdowns in cases of national security.
Which one of the following is correct?
A. both statement-i and statement-ii are correct and statement-ii is the correct
explanation for statement-i
B. both statement-i and statement-ii are correct and statement-ii is not the correct
explanation for statement-i
C. statement-i is correct but statement-ii is incorrect
D. statement-i is incorrect but statement-ii is correct
95. Which one of the following best describes the purpose of gene therapy for
Haemophilia A?
A. to surgically remove the defective gene responsible for clotting deficiency
B. to introduce functional copies of the Factor VIII gene into the patient’s body
C. to enhance the immune system’s ability to compensate for missing clotting factors
D. to permanently prevent bruising without addressing clotting mechanisms

33
96. Increased snow cover on a water body can lead to which of the following effects?
1. A sudden increase in phytoplankton populations that do not rely on
photosynthesis
2. Enhanced oxygen exchange and nutrient recycling in the lake
3. Development of a winterkill condition causing large-scale death of fishes and
aquatic organisms
Select the correct answer code:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
97. Consider the following nuclear treaty or organization with its primary focus:
Treaty/Organization Focus Area
A. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty 1. Promote safe, peaceful nuclear
(NPT) technology and safeguards
B. Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban 2. Prohibit all nuclear test explosions
Treaty (CTBT)
C. International Atomic Energy 3. Prevent spread of nuclear
Agency (IAEA) weapons
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
98. Consider the following statements regarding Uranium enrichment.
Statement-I: Uranium enrichment is critical for maintaining a sustained nuclear
fission chain reaction in most commercial reactors.
Statement-II: U-238 isotope naturally sustains a chain reaction more efficiently than
U-235.
Which one of the following is correct?
A. both statement-I and statement-II are correct and statement-II is the correct
explanation for statement-I
B. both statement-I and statement-II are correct and statement-II is not the correct
explanation for statement-I
C. statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

34
 D. statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
99. The coastal ecosystems of mangroves, tidal marshes, and seagrass meadows provide
various benefits and services. Which of the following are among them?
1. Sequestration and storage of coastal blue carbon from the atmosphere
2. Regulation of coastal water quality
3. Protection from storms and sea level rise
4. Food security for many coastal communities
5. Provision of habitat for commercially important fisheries
Select the correct answer code:
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
100. Consider the following statements regarding Abraham Accords.
1. The Abraham Accords were brokered by the European Union as a regional peace
initiative.
2. The accords have helped expand India’s engagement into newer areas like food
security and digital innovation through Middle Eastern cooperation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

35