Radiology Exam
1. Differential diagnosis of an anterior mediastinal mass is/are:
A. Retrosternal goitre
B. Thymic tumour, thymic cyst
C. Lymphadenopathy, aneurysm of descending aorta
D. Correct A and B
2. The main advantages of MRI, select FALSE:
A. Excellent soft tissue contrast and characterisation
B. Lack of artefact from adjacent bones
C. Single plane imaging
D. Lack of ionising radiation
3. Chest X-ray sign/s of an anterior mediastinal mass is/are:
A. Merge with cardiac border
B. Hilar structures can be seen through the mass
C. Correct A and B
D. False A and B
4. When expiratory film is performed?
A. In regular CXR
B. In patients too ill to stand
C. In detection of small pneumothorax
D. In traumatised patients and patients in intensive care and coronary care units
5. Which parts of heart are forming the posterior cardiac border on lateral view
(CHR)?
A. Left atrium superiorly, left ventricle inferiorly
B. Right atrium superiorly, left ventricle inferiorly
C. Right atrium superiorly, right ventricle inferiorly
D. Left atrium superiorly, right ventricle inferiorly
6. Cause/s of spontaneous pneumothorax is/are:
A. Tall, thin males and smokers
B. Short, thin males and smokers
C. Short, thin males and non-smokers
D. Tall, thin males and non-smokers
7. Flat diaphragms lying below sixth rib anteriorly are a sign of:
A. Emphysema
B. Plate (discoid) atelectasis
C. Pleural effusion
D. Diaphragmatic paralysis
8. Ultrasound is the initial investigation of choice for assessment of a renal mass,
followed by:
A. IVU (intravenous urogram)
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Renal scintigraphy
Radiology Exam
9. Antegrade insertion of ureteric stent is done via:
A. Cystoscopy
B. A puncture of the renal collecting system
C. A puncture of the ureter
D. A puncture of the bladder
10. Chemical shift MRI is routinely used in differential diagnosis of:
A. Adrenal masses
B. Complex renal cysts
C. Renal stones
D. Glomerulonephritis
11. Cobb angle is:
A. the angle formed by a line tangential to the superior extra-articular portion of the
calcaneus and a line tangential to the superior intra-articular portion of the calcaneus
B. the angle formed by a line parallel to the superior vertebral endplate of the most
tilted vertebral body at the upper end of the curve and a line drawn parallel to the
lower vertebral endplate of the lower most tilted vertebral body
C. another name of the costophrenic angle
D. a pathognomonic sign of Colles’ fracture
12. Chemical shift imaging:
A. mammographic technique
B. magnetic resonance imaging technique
C. biochemical technique
D. chromatographic technique
13. The accuracy of ultrasound in detection of a hepatic lesion may be reduced in case
of:
A. fatty infiltration of the liver parenchyma
B. lesions lying high in the liver near the diaphragmatic surface
C. obesity of the patient
D. all answers (A, B, and C) are correct
14. Which of the following is NOT true:
A. most varicoceles occur on the left side
B. a varicocele may cause infertility
C. ultrasound with colour Doppler is the imaging method of choice if a varicocele is
suspected
D. d. varicocele is seen on ultrasound as anechoic fluid surrounding the testicle
15. Multiple angiomyolipomas occur in association with:
A. Bourneville disease (tuberous sclerosis)
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease (retinocerebellar angiomatosis)
C. von Recklinghausen disease (peripheral neurofibromatosis)
D. neurofibromatosis type 2
Radiology Exam
16. Which of the following is the most sensitive investigation of the presence of
gallstones?
A. abdomen X-ray
B. computed tomography
C. magnetic resonance
D. ultrasound
17. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic stunt shunting (TIPSS) procedure is
performed in patients with:
A. portal hypertension for recurrent variceal haemorrhage not amenable to
sclerotherapy
B. distal biliary obstruction not amenable to basket retrieval of stones
C. proximal biliary obstruction not amenable to percutaneous transhepatic
cholangiography
D. patients with hypervascular hepatic metastases not amenable to contrast-enhanced
computed tomography
18. The plaques of multiple sclerosis usually occur in the:
A. dura mater of the brain and spinal cord
B. gray mater of the brain and spinal cord
C. pia mater of the brain and spinal cord
D. white mater of the brain and spinal cord
19. Fluoroscopy is:
A. a synonym of fluorine deoxyglucose-PET examination
B. a technique of examination in which fluorine-based contrast media are injected
intravenously
C. a technique of examination of the anatomy and motion of tissues by a contrast
stream of X-rays
D. a technique used in dentistic radiography to assess caries extent
20. Which of the following is the imaging modality of choice in staging of bronchogenic
carcinoma:
A. chest X-ray
B. computed tomography
C. high-resolution computed tomography
D. magnetic resonance imaging
21. A honeycomb pattern in a lung is a sign of:
A. an alveolar process
B. an interstitial process
C. a pleural process
D. a mediastinal process
22. The Seldinger technique is used for:
A. catheter insertion
B. catheter removal
C. local anaesthesia of the puncture site
D. management of post-embolization syndrome
Radiology Exam
23. In pulmonary vascular redistribution (as seen in cardiac failure):
A. the left pulmonary vessels are larger than the right ones
B. the lower lobe blood vessels are larger than the upper lobe vessels
C. the right pulmonary vessels are larger than the left ones
D. the upper lobe blood vessels are larger than the lower lobe vessels
24. Extradural hematoma is usually caused by:
A. tearing of meningeal blood vessels
B. rupture of cerebral aneurysm
C. tearing of the internal carotid artery
D. tearing of bridging veins
25. How many cervical vertebrae should be visible on a lateral cervical spine
radiograph?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
26. Boehler’s angle is:
A. the angle formed by a line tangential to the superior extra-articular portion of the
calcaneus and a line tangential to the superior intra-articular portion of the calcaneus
B. the angle formed by a line parallel to the superior vertebral endplate of the most
tilted vertebral body at the upper end of the curve and a line drawn parallel to the
lower vertebral endplate of the lower most tilted vertebral body
C. another name of the costophrenic angle
D. a pathognomonic sign of Colles’ fracture
27. Gd-DTPA is a:
A. contrast medium commonly used in MRI
B. contrast medium commonly used in CT
C. tracer used in nuclear medicine
D. sonographic contrast medium
28. Elevated cardiac apex is a sign of enlargement of the:
A. right atrium
B. right ventricle
C. left atrium
D. left ventricle
29. Fractures of the clavicle usually:
A. involve the medial third of the clavicle, the outer fragment usually lies at a lower
level than the inner fragment
B. involve the lateral third of the clavicle, the outer fragment usually lies at a lower level
than the inner fragment
C. involve the medial third of the clavicle, the outer fragment usually lies at a higher
level than the inner fragment
Radiology Exam
D. involve the lateral third of the clavicle, the outer fragment usually lies at a higher
level than the inner fragment
30. A soft tissue mass associated with a renal cyst usually Implies:
A. a cystic renal cell carcinoma
B. a transitional cell carcinoma
C. an angiomyolipoma
D. an oncocytoma
31. Air bronchogram is a sign of:
A. an alveolar process
B. an interstitial process
C. a pleural process
D. a mediastinal process
32. …
A. …
B. compression (crush) fracture
C. teardrop fracture
D. Chance fracture
33. Oligohydramnios seen on ultrasound mat be a sign of:
A. maternal diabetes
B. oesophageal atresia in the foetus
C. renal agenesis in the foetus
D. neural tube defect in the foetus
34. Kerley B lines a sign of:
A. interstitial oedema
B. alveolar oedema
C. pleural effusion
D. pulmonary vascular redistribution
35. Which of the following is the most common cause of cervical spinal cord
compression:
A. osteoarthritis
B. syrinx
C. spinal cord tumours
D. vertebral body tumours
36. Osteochondritis dissecans:
A. affects females more commonly than males
B. affects most commonly children younger than 10 years
C. is seen most commonly in the medial femoral condyle
D. is a non-traumatic condition
37. Which vessel is most commonly occluded in acute mesenteric ischemia?
A. superior mesenteric artery
B. inferior mesenteric artery
Radiology Exam
C. descending aorta
D. superior mesenteric vein
38. Which of the following is the investigation of choice for diagnosis and
quantification of coronary stenosis in g=high risk or symptomatic patients:
A. echocardiography
B. computed tomography
C. coronary angiography
D. magnetic resonance imaging
39. Which of the following is the imaging investigation of choice for staging of
squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx?
A. computed tomography
B. CT angiography
C. positron emission tomography
D. ultrasound
40. The Bosniak system is used to classify:
A. congenital anomalies of the kidneys
B. cystic renal lesions
C. renal cell carcinomas
D. transitional cell carcinomas
41. The primary diagnostic consideration in a patient with large bowel construction is:
A. colorectal carcinoma
B. cecal volvulus
C. Zencker’s diverticulum
D. achalasia
42. How many lobes are there in the right lung?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 9
D. 10
43. Radiographic signs of large bowel obstruction are the following, except:
A. Tend to be central
B. Few in number
C. Large, above 5 cm in diameter
D. Haustra seen as thick lines that are widely separated
44. The standard plain film abdominal series performed e.g. in a case of perforation,
consists of:
A. 3 films: supine anteroposterior, erect anteroposterior, and erect chest
B. 2 films: supine anteroposterior, erect anteroposterior
C. 1 film: supine anteroposterior
D. None form the listed above
45. Radiographic signs of small bowel obstruction are the following, except:
Radiology Exam
A. Dilated small bowel loops
B. Multiple fluid levels on the erect AXR
C. Tend to be peripheral
D. Absent or little air in the large bowel
46. Acute scrotal pain:
A. Testicular torsion
B. Epididymo-orchitis
C. Torsion of the appendage
D. All of the above
47. Features of simple cyst on ultrasound:
A. Anechoic
B. Sharply margined thin capsule
C. Acoustic posterior enhancement
D. All of the above
48. The threshold for adenomas on non-enhanced CT:
A. 100 HU
B. 10 HU
C. 10 HU
D. 50 HU
49. Routine evaluation of leakage of breast silicone implant with:
A. Ultrasound
B. MRI with USPIO contrast agent
C. AT
D. All of the above
50. Sentinel lymph nodes detection:
A. Blue dye
B. Scintigraphy
C. During surgery of breast cancer
D. All of the above
51. Patients at risk of testicular malignancy:
A. Epididymo-orchitis
B. Testicular torsion
C. Undescended testis
D. All of the above
52. Basic types of weighting of MR images:
A. PD-weighted
B. T1-weighted
C. T2-weighted
D. All of the above
53. Method for imaging of spleen:
A. Ultrasound
Radiology Exam
B. CT
C. MRI
D. All of the above
54. The most common cause of adrenal hypofunction in developed countries:
A. Massive metastases
B. Bilateral hematoma
C. Bilateral tuberculosis
D. Idiopathic/Autoimmune
55. Adrenal pheochromocytoma is the source of excess of:
A. mineralocorticoids
B. corticosteroids
C. sex hormones
D. catecholamines
56. Complication of angioplasty:
A. Local dissection
B. Embolization
C. Arterial perforation
D. All of the above
57. Evaluation of lymph nodes with ultrasound:
A. Neck
B. Axilla
C. Groin
D. All of the above
58. To visualise the upper gastrointestinal tract, the contrast materials are:
A. Swallowed or inhaled
B. Swallowed or injected into the nasal cavity
C. Swallowed or introduced via an enema
D. Swallowed or injected via nasogastric tube
59. The renal arteries can be visualised directly by:
A. Conventional angiography, MR radiography, CT angiography, US
B. Conventional angiography, MR radiography, CT angiography, intravenous urography
C. Conventional angiography, MR radiography, CT angiography, dynamic renal
scintigraphy
D. Conventional angiography, MR radiography, CT angiography, US, dynamic renal
scintigraphy
60. Numerous ‘punched out’ defects throughout the skull are a typical finding in:
A. Glioma multiforme
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Osteoid osteoma
61. A 7-10 days-old subdural hematoma:
Radiology Exam
A. Is usually very conspicuous, especially if present bilaterally
B. May be difficult to see because its attenuation is similar to the attenuation of the
adjacent bone
C. May be difficult to see because its attenuation is similar to the attenuation of the
adjacent brain tissue
D. May be difficult to see because its attenuation is similar to the attenuation of the
cerebrospinal fluid
62. A complex ovarian cyst seen on ultrasound in a postmenopausal woman:
A. Is a normal finding
B. Should raise a suspicion of an ovarian carcinoma
C. Is a sign of an ectopic pregnancy
D. Is pathognomonic for endometriosis
63. How many intratesticular masses are malignant:
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 90%
64. Oligohydramnios seen on ultrasound may be a sign of:
A. Maternal diabetes
B. Oesophageal atresia in the foetus
C. Renal agenesis in the foetus
D. Neural tube defect in the foetus
65. Mesothelioma presents usually as:
A. Ground-glass pattern
B. Miliary pattern
C. Diffuse or localised pleural mass
D. Interstitial opacification
66. The initial diagnostic test for a neck mass is:
A. US
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Scintigraphy
67. The primary investigation of choice in suspected small bowel obstruction is:
A. Abdomen X-ray
B. Barium enema
C. Barium swallow
D. Chest X-ray
68. A simple fracture is a fracture:
A. Without an open wound
B. Without dislocation of fragments
C. With 2 fragments only
D. In which the fracture line is straight
Radiology Exam
69. Increased apparent density of the lower thoracic vertebral bodies visible on lateral
chest radiography is a sign of:
A. Lytic vertebral metastases
B. Consolidation in the posterior basal segments of the lower lobes
C. Emphysema
D. Goitre
70. Post-embolization syndrome is:
A. Swelling and recurrent bleeding from the embolization puncture site
B. Headache, diplopia, neck rigidity 3-5 days post embolization
C. Fever, malaise, leucocytosis 3-5 days post embolization
D. Chest pain and tightness radiating to the left arm immediately after embolization
71. Which portion of the orbit is usually damaged in a blow-out fracture:
A. Superior
B. Lateral
C. Medial
D. Inferior
72. Bending on the concave side of a bone combined with an incomplete fracture on
the convex side is called:
A. Bowing fracture
B. Torus fracture
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Nightstick fracture
73. In the diagnostic imaging of painless haematuria, the method of choice is:
A. Ultrasound
B. Dynamic renal scintigraphy
C. Non contrast computed tomography
D. CT urography
74. The most sensitive imaging method for the detection of prostate cancer is:
A. transrectal ultrasound
B. shear wave elastography
C. multiparametric MRI
D. multi detector CT
75. Most typical feature of testicular torsion in ultrasound is:
A. surrounding fluid / hydrocele
B. decreased spermatic cord Doppler signal and lack of blood flow in the testis
C. hypoechoic enlarged epididymis with increased blood flow
D. enlarged hypoechoic testis with increased blood flow
76. Which of below given sentences is FALSE:
A. Abscess usually occurs in close relation to the airway in the parapharyngeal or
retropharyngeal spaces and presents in imaging as a dense fluid mass with peripheral
enhancement
Radiology Exam
B. Second branchial cleft cysts belong to common neck masses and present as a mass of
the upper neck anterior to the sternomastoid muscle
C. For initial localisation and characterisation of a neck mass we should apply
ultrasound
D. For initial localisation and characterisation of a neck mass we should apply
computer tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
77. Common causes of a neck mass DO NOT include:
A. lymphoma
B. abcess
C. endometriosis
D. lateral neck cyst (second branchial cleft cyst)
78. The most common cause of a diffuse submandibular salivary gland swelling is:
A. Inflammation
B. Malignant neoplasm
C. Benign neoplasm
D. Autoimmune disease (e.g. Sjögren syndrome)
79. The term “echogenicity”:
A. Describes level of sound wave reflection in ultrasound imaging
B. Refers to generating shockwaves during lithotripsy
C. Is connected with gamma rays
D. Forms an absolute scale in sonographic imaging
80. In case of choledocholithiasis suspicion:
A. Ultrasound imaging is superior than other methods
B. Usually X-ray is enough for a diagnosis
C. MR cholangiopancreatography or ERCP are good diagnostic choices
D. Ultrasound contrast agents play an important role
81. Rick factors predisposing to adverse reaction to iodinated contrast media are:
A. History of asthma
B. History of atopy
C. History of previous anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast media
D. All of the above is true
82. There are following contradictions for the use of iodinated contrast media except
for:
A. History of previous anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast media
B. Renal failure
C. Liver failure
D. History of atopy
83. Barium and iodine are used in radiographic studies because:
A. They are high atomic number elements and they strongly absorb X-rays
B. They are low atomic number material and they strongly absorb X-rays
C. They are high atomic number material and they do not absorb X-rays
D. All of the above statements are false
Radiology Exam
84. Contrast studies of gastrointestinal tract mainly use:
A. Not-water soluble substances based on barium
B. Water-soluble solution of BaSO4 (barium sulphate)
C. Not-water soluble substance based on iodine
D. Not-water soluble substance based on gadolinium
85. Double contrast barium study:
A. Means the study of gastrointestinal tract in double projection
B. Means the study that uses barium and gas together
C. Can show mucosal surface of examined bowel
D. True B and C
86. Contrast materials are used in different imaging techniques to:
A. Enhance organs or structures of human body
B. Enhance pathological findings
C. Help in differentiation of some pathological, focal lesions
D. All of the above are true
87. Ultrasound imaging mode:
A. A
B. B
C. M
D. All answers
88. B-mode in ultrasound stands for:
A. biplanar
B. broad structure
C. brightness
D. bulimia
89. Method of spleen trauma imaging:
A. ultrasound
B. computed tomography
C. contrast enhanced ultrasound
D. all of the answers are correct
90. Sentinel lymph node detection:
A. mammography
B. scintigraphy
C. angiography
D. computed tomography
91. Method of lymph nodes imaging:
A. ultrasound
B. computed tomography
C. magnetic resonance imaging
D. all of the answers are correct
Radiology Exam
92. Tc-labelled sulphur colloid of free Tc (pertechnetate) taken orally (swollen) are used
to evaluate following functions except for:
A. oesophageal transit
B. gastric transit
C. bile reflux
D. gastric reflux
E.
93. Tc-labelled iminodiacetic acid (IDA) scintigraphy is used to assess:
A. The biliary system
B. Parenchyma of spleen
C. Gastrointestinal motility
D. Meckel diverticulum
94. In case of right upper quadrant pain resulting from acute pancreatitis all the
answers are correct, except:
A. CT is the method of choice
B. Ultrasound is very sensitive for the presence of gallstones and thickening of the
gallbladder wall
C. Scintigraphy is more accurate than ultrasound and additionally may show inflamed
fat tissue
D. MR is a method of choice for the diagnosis of biliary obstruction
95. Radiographic signs of large bowel obstruction are the following, except:
A. Tend to be central
B. Few in number
C. Large, above 5cm in diameter
D. Haustra seen as a thick lined that are widely separated
96. All of the following sentences regarding gastrointestinal (GIT) bleeding are correct,
except:
A. Lower GIT bleeding is investigated by sigmoidoscopy
B. Barium studies are indicated when sigmoidoscopy is negative
C. Scintigraphy is performed as a second-choice examination
D. Angiography is performed to localise a bleeding point and make embolization
97. Advantages of digital radiography over conventional one:
A. Magnification of areas of interest
B. Alteration of density
C. Measurements of distances and angles
D. All of the above
98. Advantages of MRI in clinical practice include:
A. Excellent soft tissue contrast and characterisation
B. Evaluation of density of the tissues
C. Patient movements do not deteriorate the MR images
D. Examination lasts shorter than CT
99. Preparation for the abdominal ultrasound examination does NOT include:
A. fasting
Radiology Exam
B. taking antispasmodic drugs
C. not smoking
D. drinking water
100. Accessory spleen:
A. is an extremely rare anatomical variation (less than 0.1% of the population)
B. cannot increase its size after splenectomy
C. can only be found in women
D. none of the above
