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Cisco
Exam Questions 200-301
Cisco Certified Network Associate

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 3)
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A. router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast
B. router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point
C. router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0
D. router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15 interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 3)
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A. The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.
B. The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.
C. The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 3)
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A. WPA3
B. WPA
C. WEP
D. WPA2

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

A. 192.168.0.7
B. 192.168.0.4
C. 192.168.0.40
D. 192.168.3.5

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP - (Topic 3)
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

A. Mastered

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B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 3)
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the
VLANs?

A. VLAN numbering
B. VLAN DSCP
C. VLAN tagging
D. VLAN marking

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 3)
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)

B)

C)

D)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 3)
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

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A. SYIM flood
B. reflection
C. teardrop
D. amplification

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 3)
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

A. VLANID
B. SSID
C. RFID
D. WLANID

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A. R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B. R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100
C. R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1
D. R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 3)
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. SSH

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP - (Topic 3)
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP - (Topic 3)
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 19
- (Topic 3)
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss
Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)

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B)

C)

D)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A. transport input telnet

B. crypto key generate rsa
C. ip ssh pubkey-chain
D. login console
E. username cisco password 0 Cisco

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 26
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

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The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth.
Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)

B)

C)

D)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 28
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A. ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B. ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125
C. ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100
D. ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 31
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

A. heavy traffic congestion

B. a duplex incompatibility
C. a speed conflict
D. queuing drops

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 34
- (Topic 3)
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

A. shaping
B. classification
C. policing
D. marking

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 37
FILL IN THE BLANK - (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the prefix lengths from the left onto the corresponding prefixes on the right Not all prefixes are used

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Diagram Description automatically generated with low confidence

NEW QUESTION 40
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

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An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for
now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)

B)

C)

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D)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 41
- (Topic 3)
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A. IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration
B. IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration
C. An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple
nodes.
D. Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 46
- (Topic 3)
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A. A distributed management plane must be used.

B. Software upgrades are performed from a central controller
C. Complexity increases when new device configurations are added
D. Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 48
- (Topic 3)
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

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A. to increase security and encrypt management frames

B. to provide link redundancy and load balancing
C. to allow for stateful and link-state failover
D. to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 50
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

A. via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B. via next-hop 10 0 1.4
C. via next-hop 10.0 1.50
D. via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 51
- (Topic 3)
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A. makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B. serves as a controller within a controller-based network
C. integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules
D. correlates user activity with network events

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 55
DRAG DROP - (Topic 3)
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

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NEW QUESTION 58
DRAG DROP - (Topic 3)
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The
port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence
on the right Not all commands are used.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 62
FILL IN THE BLANK - (Topic 3)
Drag and drop the functions of SNMP fault-management from the left onto the definitions on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Table Description automatically generated

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NEW QUESTION 65
- (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

A. username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B. ip ssh version 2
C. line vty 0 4
D. crypto key generate rsa 1024
E. transport input ssh

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 68
- (Topic 3)
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

A. dynamic
B. static
C. active
D. auto

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 69
- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11
C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1
D. The frame is dropped

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 74
- (Topic 2)
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to
the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

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A. The packets fail to match any permit statement

B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test
C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
D. The ACL is empty
E. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 77
- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

A. 192.168.12.2
B. 192.168.13.3
C. 192.168.14.4
D. 192.168.15.5

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 82
- (Topic 2)
Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

A. Internet Group Management Protocol

B. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 86
DRAG DROP - (Topic 2)
Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 91
- (Topic 2)
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use
5GH2 access points?

A. Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B. 11ac MU-MIMO
C. OEAP Split Tunnel
D. Client Band Select

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 94
- (Topic 2)
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

A. TKiP encryption
B. AES encryption
C. scrambled encryption key
D. SAE encryption

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 98
- (Topic 2)
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which
configuration should be used?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 101

- (Topic 2)
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )

A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. HTTPS
E. TFTP

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 105

- (Topic 2)
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
C. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
D. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 110

- (Topic 2)

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Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the
administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

A. 20
B. 90
C. 110
D. 115

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Administrative distance (AD) of EIGRP is 90 while the AD of OSPF is 110 so EIGRP route will be chosen to install into the routing table.

NEW QUESTION 115

- (Topic 2)
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A. sniffer
B. mesh
C. flexconnect
D. local

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/flexconnect.html

NEW QUESTION 119

- (Topic 2)
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

A. management-plane
B. control-plane
C. data-plane
D. services-plane

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 121

- (Topic 2)
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops

B. It provides variable latency
C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 126

- (Topic 2)
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

A. The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B. The source MAC address of the frame is unknown
C. The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same
D. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 129

- (Topic 2)
When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A. backup
B. standby
C. listening
D. forwarding

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 133

- (Topic 2)
Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

A. between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

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B. between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network
C. between the SON controller and services and applications on the network
D. between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 136

- (Topic 2)
Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

A. ip helper-address
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip dhcp relay

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 139

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

A. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp
C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet
D. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 140

- (Topic 2)
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

A. The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.
B. The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.
C. The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.
D. The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 144

- (Topic 2)
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

A. Enable NTP authentication.

B. Verify the time zone.
C. Disable NTP broadcasts
D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server
E. Set the NTP server private key

Answer: AD

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4000/8-2glx/configuration/guide/ntp.html
To configure authentication, perform this task in privileged mode:Step 1: Configure an authentication key pair for NTP and specify whether the key will be trusted
or untrusted.Step 2: Set the IP address of the NTP server and the public key.Step 3: Enable NTP client mode.Step 4: Enable NTP authentication.Step 5: Verify the
NTP configuration.

NEW QUESTION 145

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

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Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)

B)

C)

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D)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

Explanation:
ipv6 unicast-routing statement included (IPv6 is enabled on the router).Compared to the exhibit, Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 have correct configurations.The route to subnet
2001:db8:4::/64 points to R18’s Fa1/0 (correct next-hop).

NEW QUESTION 150

DRAG DROP - (Topic 2)
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 154

- (Topic 2)
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

A. It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization
C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration
D. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 155

- (Topic 2)
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down
B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet
C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails
D. to support load balancing via static routing
E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 157

- (Topic 2)
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

A. Unicode
B. base64
C. decimal
D. ASCII

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 162

- (Topic 2)
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

A. DTP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. TFTP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 163

- (Topic 2)
Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The trunk still forms with mismatched native VLANs and the traffic can actually flow between mismatched switches. But it is absolutely necessary that the native
VLANs on both ends of a trunk link match; otherwise a native VLAN mismatch occurs, causing the two VLANs to effectively merge.
For example with the above configuration, SW1 would send untagged frames for VLAN 999. SW2 receives them but would think they are for VLAN 99 so we can
say these two VLANs are merged.

NEW QUESTION 167

- (Topic 2)
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

A. IKEv2
B. IKEv1
C. IPsec
D. MD5

Answer: C

Explanation:
A site-to-site VPN allows offices in multiple fixed locations to establish secure connections with each other over a public network such as the Internet. A site-to-site
VPN means that two sites create a VPN tunnel by encrypting and sending data between two devices. One set of rules for creating a siteto-site VPN is defined by
IPsec.

NEW QUESTION 169

DRAG DROP - (Topic 2)
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 173

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

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Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

A. Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B. Change the LACP mode to active
C. Change the LACP mode to desirable
D. Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 177

DRAG DROP - (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the
left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

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NEW QUESTION 179

- (Topic 2)
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated
B. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused
C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects
D. Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/power_over_ethernet.pdf
PoE monitoring and policing compares the power consumption on ports with the administrative maximum value (either a configured maximum value or the port’s
default value). If the power consumption on a monitored port exceeds the administrative maximum value, the following actions occur:– A syslog message is
issued.– The monitored port is shut down and error-disabled.– The allocated power is freed.

NEW QUESTION 180

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.
C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.
D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 183

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

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Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

A. 192.168.16.0/21
B. 192.168.16.0/24
C. 192.168 26.0/26
D. 192.168.16.0/27

Answer: D

Explanation:
The destination IP addresses match all four entries in the routing table but the 192.168.16.0/27 has the longest prefix so it will be chosen. This is called the
“longest prefix match” rule.

NEW QUESTION 185

- (Topic 2)
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space
efficiently?

A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128
D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 186

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

A. 192.168.1.17
B. 192.168.1.61
C. 192.168.1.64
D. 192.168.1.127
E. 192.168.1.254

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 190

- (Topic 2)
What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

A. DTP
B. STP
C. VTP
D. 802.10

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 194

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

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What is the effect of this configuration?

A. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch

B. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.
C. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted
D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 196

- (Topic 2)
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number
C. composed of up to 65.536 available addresses
D. used without tracking or registration

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 199

- (Topic 2)
What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

A. It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.
B. It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.
C. It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.
D. It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.
E. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately- owned virtual resources

Answer: CE

Explanation:
Private cloud is cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization, whether managed internally or by a third party, and hosted either internally or
externally. Most public-cloud providers offer direct-connection services that allow customers to securely link their legacy data centers to their cloud-resident
applications.

NEW QUESTION 204

- (Topic 2)
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

A. Ansible
B. Python
C. Puppet
D. Chef

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 205

- (Topic 2)
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

A. Configure the version of SSH

B. Configure VTY access.
C. Create a user with a password.
D. Assign a DNS domain name

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 206

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

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A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server
Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 209

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

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The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

A. The interface is not participating in OSPF

B. A point-to-point network type is configured
C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use
D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first- ospf/13689-17.html

NEW QUESTION 210

- (Topic 2)
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link
B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device
C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen
D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is an example of how two-factor authentication (2FA) works:1. The user logs in to the website or service with their username and password.2. The password
is validated by an authentication server and, if correct, the user becomes eligible for the second factor.3. The authentication server sends a unique code to the
user’s second-factor method (such as a smartphone app).4. The user confirms their identity by providing the additional authentication for their second-factor
method.

NEW QUESTION 214

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta
and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

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A. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B. ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0
C. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0
D. ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0
E. ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 215

- (Topic 2)
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be
taken to meet the requirement?

A. enable AAA override

B. enable RX-SOP
C. enable DTIM
D. enable Band Select

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 219

- (Topic 2)
When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Syslog

NEW QUESTION 224

- (Topic 2)
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.
B. The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent
C. The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval
D. The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 227

- (Topic 2)
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B. It drops the traffic
C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN
D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/15-0_2_EX/vlan/configuration_guide/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg/b_vlan_152ex_2960-
x_cg_chapter_0110.pdf
Untagged traffic from the device attached to the Cisco IP Phone passes through the phone unchanged, regardless of the trust state of the access port on the
phone.

NEW QUESTION 229

- (Topic 2)
Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

A. northbound API
B. REST API
C. SOAP API
D. southbound API

Answer: D

Explanation:
Cisco overview doc for SDN here: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/SDN/SDN. html

NEW QUESTION 230

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- (Topic 2)
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B. switchport trunk native vlan 10
C. switchport mode trunk
D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 231

DRAG DROP - (Topic 2)
Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
1-1, 2-4, 3-3, 4-2

NEW QUESTION 235

- (Topic 2)
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

A. DHCP relay agent

B. DHCP server
C. DHCPDISCOVER
D. DHCPOFFER

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 236

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2
C. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 238

- (Topic 2)
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and
force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

A. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10
B. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10
C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10
D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 242

- (Topic 2)
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

A. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
B. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop
C. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 247

- (Topic 2)
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

A. moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B. provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks
C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port
D. combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 249

- (Topic 2)
Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

A. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.
B. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports
C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.
D. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558-21.html
The VTP mode of SW2 is transparent so it only forwards the VTP updates it receives to its trunk links without processing them.

NEW QUESTION 251

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

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Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

A. between zones 1 and 2

B. between zones 2 and 5
C. between zones 3 and 4
D. between zones 3 and 6

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 256

- (Topic 2)
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

A. policy plane
B. management plane
C. control plane
D. data plane

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 259

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

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To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A. Router2
B. Router3
C. Router4
D. Router5

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 261

- (Topic 2)
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A. Eliminating training needs

B. Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing
C. Policy-derived provisioning of resources
D. Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning
E. Reducing hardware footprint

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 262

- (Topic 2)
What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

A. access - core - distribution - access

B. access - distribution - distribution - access
C. access - core - access
D. access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 265

- (Topic 2)
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

A. IP SLA
B. syslog
C. NetFlow
D. SNMPv3

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 267

- (Topic 2)

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A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter
increments?

A. collision
B. CRC
C. runt
D. late collision

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/interfaces-modules/port-adapters/12768-eth-collisions.html

NEW QUESTION 271

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

A. internal BGP route

B. /24 route of a locally configured IP
C. statically assigned route
D. route learned through EIGRP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 276

- (Topic 2)
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

A. cost
B. adminstrative distance
C. metric
D. as-path

Answer: C

Explanation:
If a router learns two different paths for the same network from the same routing protocol, it has to decide which route is better and will be placed in the routing
table. Metric is the measure used to decide which route is better (lower number is better). Each routing protocol uses its own metric.For example, RIP uses hop
counts as a metric, while OSPF uses cost.

NEW QUESTION 277

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

A. 207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1
C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0
D. 207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 281

- (Topic 2)
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

A. array
B. string

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C. object
D. Boolean

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 286

- (Topic 2)
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers
C. It moves the control plane to a central point.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions
E. It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 291

- (Topic 2)
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points
B. It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.
C. It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.
D. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 293

- (Topic 2)
What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

A. move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B. transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively
C. forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses
D. flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 296

- (Topic 2)
What is the purpose of an SSID?

A. It provides network security

B. It differentiates traffic entering access posits
C. It identities an individual access point on a WLAN
D. It identifies a WLAN

Answer: D

Explanation:
“In IEEE 802.11 wireless local area networking standards (including Wi-Fi), a service set is a group of wireless network devices which share a service set
identifier (SSID)… A service set forms a logical network of nodes operating with shared link-layer networking parameters; they form one logical network segment.“

NEW QUESTION 298

- (Topic 2)
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly thantraditional campus device management
B. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management
C. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options
D. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 302

- (Topic 2)
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the
case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

A. The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.
C. The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.
D. The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 307

- (Topic 2)
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

A. enable the PortFast feature on ports

B. implement port-based authentication
C. configure static ARP entries
D. configure ports to a fixed speed
E. shut down unused ports

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 312

- (Topic 2)
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

A. global unicast
B. unique local
C. link-local
D. multicast

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 314

- (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which
two sets of
commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

A. R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B. R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100
C. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp R1(config-if)# no shutdown
D. R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp
E. R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 317

- (Topic 1)
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

A. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422
C. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0
D. spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 322

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

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Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 325

- (Topic 1)
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to
achieve the desired result?

A. logging trap 5
B. logging trap 2
C. logging trap 4
D. logging trap 3

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 326

- (Topic 1)
Which network action occurs within the data plane?

A. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)
C. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC
D. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 327

- (Topic 1)
Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

A. management
B. protected frame
C. control
D. action

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/802.11_Frame_Types

NEW QUESTION 330

- (Topic 1)
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?

A. The link is in a down state.

B. The link is in an error disables state
C. The link is becomes an access port.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 333

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

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Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 v2ia R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is
installed in the routing table of R4?

A. the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110
B. the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200
C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20
D. the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 337

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

A. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B. It is unreachable and discards the traffic.
C. It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.
D. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 339

- (Topic 1)
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

A. ipv6 address dhcp

B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Answer: C

Explanation:
The “ipv6 address autoconfig” command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add
the EUI-64 based addresses to theinterface.Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA)messages.The device will
listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCPServer).This RA message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from:+ Its

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interface identifier (EUI- 64 address)+ Link Prefix (obtained via RA)Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address

NEW QUESTION 341

- (Topic 1)
What are network endpoints?

A. act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network

B. a threat to the network if they are compromised
C. support inter-VLAN connectivity
D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 342

- (Topic 1)
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

A. it enables BPDU messages

B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded
D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/3560_scg/swstpopt.html

NEW QUESTION 346

- (Topic 1)
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

A. OSPF area
B. OSPF MD5 authentication key
C. iPv6 address
D. OSPf process ID
E. OSPf stub flag

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 349

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
The focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast, and to require no node agent installation.
Thus, Ansible performs all functions over SSH. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby foundation of Puppet and Chef.
TCP port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file .

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This port allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server. Puppet is an open-source configuration management solution, which is
built with Ruby and offers custom Domain Specific Language (DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom Puppet language files, offering a
declarative-paradigm programming approach.
A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest, and is a file with .pp extension.

NEW QUESTION 350

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

A. Switch 1
B. Switch 2
C. Switch 3
D. Switch 4

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 354

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

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If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.
C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25
D. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

Answer: C

Explanation:
Router2 does not have an entry for the subnet 10.10.13.128/25. It only has an entry for 10.10.13.0/25, which ranges from 10.10.13.0 to 10.10.13.127.
https://study-ccna.com/administrative-distance-metric/

NEW QUESTION 358

- (Topic 1)
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

A. 0050.0c05.ad81
B. 0007.c061.bc01
C. 0000.5E00.0101
D. 0500.3976.6401

Answer: C

Explanation:
The virtual router MAC address associated with a virtual router is an IEEE 802 MAC Address in the following format:
00-00-5E-00-01-{VRID} (in hex in internet standard bit-order)

NEW QUESTION 359

- (Topic 1)
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN
C. moves packets within a VLAN
D. moves packets between different VLANs
E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 361

- (Topic 1)
in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

Answer: D

Explanation:
Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies
provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-to-server connectivity.
Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack.
Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches.
Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In
spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh.

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Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to
other spine switches.

NEW QUESTION 363

- (Topic 1)
Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

A. read
B. update
C. create
D. delete

Answer: A

Explanation:
GET: This method retrieves the information identified by the request URI. In the context of the RESTful web services, this method is used to retrieve resources.
This is the method used for read operations (the R in CRUD).
https://hub.packtpub.com/crud-operations-rest/

NEW QUESTION 364

- (Topic 1)
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method
C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs
D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 366

- (Topic 1)
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

A. Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs
C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
D. Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 371

- (Topic 1)
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third- party SDKs.
B. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.
C. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.
D. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 372

- (Topic 1)
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

A. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port
B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table.
C. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 376

- (Topic 1)
Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

A. worm
B. malware
C. DDoS
D. man-in-the-middle

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 378

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- (Topic 1)
What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

A. It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B. It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required
C. It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.
D. It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 382

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 384

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://ns1.com/resources/dns-types-records-servers-and-
queries#:~:text=Address%20Mapping%20record%20(A%20Record,a%20hostname%20to%20another%20hostname.

NEW QUESTION 389

- (Topic 1)
What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

A. group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B. configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11
C. include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing
D. assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 394

- (Topic 1)
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

Answer: BD

Explanation:
Cisco DNA Center offers 360-degree extensibility through four distinct types of platform capabilities:+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller and enable
business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation.+ Process adapters, built on
integration APIs, allow integration with other IT and network systems to streamline IT operations and processes.+ Domain adapters, built on integration APIs, allow
integration with other infrastructure domains such as data center, WAN, and security to deliver a consistent intent-based infrastructure across the entire IT
environment.+ SDKs allow management to be extended to third-party vendor’s network devices to offer support for diverse environments.

NEW QUESTION 398

- (Topic 1)
What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

A. allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites.

B. provides direct connections between subscribers
C. supports Layer 2 VPNs
D. supports application optimization

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 401

- (Topic 1)
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

A. on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization
C. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
D. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 402

- (Topic 1)
Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

A. role-based access control

B. biometrics
C. multifactor authentication
D. physical access control

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 407

- (Topic 1)
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B. It centralizes the data plane for the network.
C. It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.
D. It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 408

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

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What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

A. 10.0.1.3
B. 10.0.1.50
C. 10.0.1.4
D. Loopback D

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 412

- (Topic 1)
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.
Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B. Administratively shut down the ports
C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99
D. Configure the ports as trunk ports
E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 415

- (Topic 1)
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

A. firewall
B. switch
C. access point
D. wireless controller

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 417

- (Topic 1)
A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment
the security- violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

A. switchport port-security violation access

B. switchport port-security violation protect
C. switchport port-security violation restrict
D. switchport port-security violation shutdown

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/25ew/configuration/guide/conf/port_sec.html

NEW QUESTION 418

- (Topic 1)
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3711.0975
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070/AB01

Answer: A

Explanation:
With VRRP, the virtual router’s MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx , in which xx is the VRRP group.

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NEW QUESTION 421

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

A. SW1
B. SW2
C. SW3
D. SW4

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 423

- (Topic 1)
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

A. builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B. encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default
C. improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
D. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address
E. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 428

- (Topic 1)
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for
easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B
C. ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B
D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 432

- (Topic 1)
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoveriapping channels.

B. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.
C. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
E. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoveriapping channels.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 435

- (Topic 1)
Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

A. alert
B. critical
C. notice
D. debug

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 436

- (Topic 1)
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol
D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 438

- (Topic 1)
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

A. 1729.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24

Answer: B

Explanation:
The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:
Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP
address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).

NEW QUESTION 441

- (Topic 1)
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2.048 Mbps
C. 34.368 Mbps
D. 43.7 Mbps

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://www.bsimplify.com/what-is-point-to-point-t1/#:~:text=A%20Point%20to%20Point%20T1,data%20speeds%20(1.54Mbps).
Point to Point T1
A Point to Point T1 service is a private data connection securely connecting two or more locations with T1 data speeds (1.54Mbps).

NEW QUESTION 442

- (Topic 1)
What is the benefit of using FHRP?

A. reduced management overhead on network routers

B. balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads
C. higher degree of availability
D. reduced ARP traffic on the network

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 446

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

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A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command
must be configured?

A. Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B. Switchport trunk allowed vlan none
C. Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13
D. Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 448

- (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which
command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 449

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router
where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all
commands are used

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 453

- (Topic 1)
Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

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A. asynchronous routing
B. single-homed branches
C. dual-homed branches
D. static routing
E. dynamic routing

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 455

- (Topic 1)
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

A. It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.
B. It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.
C. It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.
D. It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti- malware functionality
E. It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 459

- (Topic 1)
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused
remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

A. configure port in the native VLAN

B. configure ports in a black hole VLAN
C. configure in a nondefault native VLAN
D. configure ports as access ports

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 463

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

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Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 464

- (Topic 1)
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

A. overlay
B. northbound
C. underlay
D. southbound

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 465

- (Topic 1)
What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

A. It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B. It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.
C. It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.
D. It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 467

- (Topic 1)
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

A. wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B. a cable connected to a physical switch on the network
C. a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network
D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 468

- (Topic 1)
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet- forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing
information?

A. data plane
B. control plane
C. policy plane
D. management plane

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 472

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

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NEW QUESTION 473

- (Topic 1)
What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

A. local port ID
B. lowest path cost to the root bridge
C. lowest neighbor's bridge ID
D. lowest neighbor's port ID

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 478

- (Topic 1)
What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

A. to mitigate delays over slow links

B. to provide fair queuing for buffered flows
C. to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to
D. be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

Answer: B

Explanation:
Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time.

NEW QUESTION 480

- (Topic 1)
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

A. CPU ACL
B. TACACS
C. Flex ACL
D. RADIUS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/71978-acl-wlc.html

NEW QUESTION 481

- (Topic 1)
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network
C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing
D. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 486

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

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PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

A. It forwards it out G0/3 only

B. It is flooded out every port except G0/0.
C. It drops the frame.
D. It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 490

- (Topic 1)
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685

B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary
C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440
D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

Answer: D

Explanation:
Although the spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary command will ensure a switch will have a bridge priority value lower than other bridges introduced to the network,
the spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 command ensures the bridge priority takes precedence over all other priorities.

NEW QUESTION 495

- (Topic 1)
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

A. different nonoverlapping channels

B. different overlapping channels
C. one overlapping channel
D. one nonoverlapping channel

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 498

- (Topic 1)
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

A. WSA
B. Firepower
C. ASA
D. FireSIGHT

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 502

- (Topic 1)
Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software- defined architecture?

A. control layer and the infrastructure layer

B. application layer and the infrastructure layer
C. control layer and the application layer
D. application layer and the management layer

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 503

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 504

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 509

- (Topic 1)
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A. autonomous
B. lightweight
C. bridge
D. mobility express

Answer: B

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/aironet-1200- series/70278-lap-faq.html
A Lightweight Access Point (LAP) is an AP that is designed to be connected to a wireless LAN (WLAN) controller (WLC). APs are “lightweight,” which means that
they cannot act independently of a wireless LAN controller (WLC). The WLC manages the AP configurations and firmware. The APs are “zero touch” deployed,
and individual configuration of APs is not necessary.

NEW QUESTION 510

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

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Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 513

- (Topic 1)
In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

A. management plane
B. control plane
C. policy plane
D. data plane

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 516

- (Topic 1)
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet deliver

B. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.
C. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting dat
D. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.
E. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communicatio
F. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.
G. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting dat
H. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 520

- (Topic 1)
Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

A. listening
B. blocking
C. forwarding
D. learning
E. speaking

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 521

- (Topic 1)
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

A. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network
B. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.
C. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes
D. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort
E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 522

- (Topic 1)
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity
C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets
D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

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E. it supports protocol discovery

Answer: AD

Explanation:
Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers
assign IP precedences to packets as they enter the network. When a packet arrives, the following events occur:
* 1. The average queue size is calculated.2. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued.3. If the average is between
the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet
drop probability for that type of traffic.4. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped. WRED reduces the chances of
tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can
mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up). By dropping some packets early rather than waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping
large numbers of packets at once and minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be usedfully at all times.
WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower
precedence. Thus, the higher the priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered

NEW QUESTION 523

- (Topic 1)
What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

A. connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
C. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users
D. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 526

- (Topic 1)
What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

A. Layer 2 forwarding
B. coordinating VTNs
C. tracking hosts
D. managing the topology
E. protecting against DDoS attacks

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 530

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?

A. 10.4.4.4
B. 10.4.4.5
C. 172.23.103.10
D. 172.23.104.4

Answer: D

Explanation:
NAT is used to send a packet to the outside network, using a public IP address to make it routable. The NAT logic is "inside-to-outside" FIRST and "outside-to-
inside" THEN. This way, configuring NAT means "choosing a public IP address" for any outbound packet" IN THE FIRST PLACE, where "public IP address"
translates to "inside global address". Among the given answers, the only inside global address is 172.123.104.4.

NEW QUESTION 535

- (Topic 1)
What is a function of a remote access VPN?

A. used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously
B. used exclusively when a user is connected to a company's internal network
C. establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites
D. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 536

- (Topic 1)

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Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN
Which command set
establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 539

- (Topic 1)
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

A. outside global
B. outsdwde local
C. inside global
D. insride local
E. outside public
F. inside public

Answer: C

Explanation:
NAT use four types of addresses:* Inside local address – The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. The address is usually not an IP address
assigned by the Internet Network Information Center (InterNIC) or service provider.This address is likely to be an RFC 1918 private address.* Inside global
address – A legitimate IP address assigned by the InterNIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.* Outside
local address – The IP address of an outside host as it is known to the hosts on the inside network.* Outside global address – The IP address assigned to a host
on the outside network. The owner of the host assigns
this address.

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NEW QUESTION 543

- (Topic 1)
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

A. Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B. Sends the default route to the hosts on a network
C. ensures a loop-free physical topology
D. forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Answer: D

Explanation:
FHRP is layer 3 protocol whose purpose is to protect the default gateway by offering redundancy of the gateway in a subnet. This is achieved by allowing two or
more routers to provide a backup for the first-hop IP router address. If a failure of an active router occurs, the backup router will take over the address. The routers
negotiate their roles (Active/Standby) with each other by multicast hello messages to share the VIP (virtual IP address) between the FHRP routers. The terms
Active/Standby vary between the different types of FHRP. The active router will act as the default gateway and the standby router acts as a backup the active
router.

NEW QUESTION 545

- (Topic 1)
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

A. asychronous routing
B. single-homed branches
C. dual-homed branches
D. static routing
E. dynamic routing

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 548

- (Topic 1)
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B. Both have a 9 micron core diameter
C. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter
D. Both have a 100 micron core diameter

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 553

- (Topic 1)
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

A. wireless access point

B. firewall
C. wireless LAN controller
D. router

Answer: B

Explanation:
Stateful inspection, also known as dynamic packet filtering, is a firewall technology that monitors the state of active connections and uses this information to
determine which network packets to allow through the firewall.

NEW QUESTION 558

- (Topic 1)
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which
configuration accomplishes this task?

A. Option A

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B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 560

- (Topic 1)
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

A. SNMP
B. DNS lookup
C. syslog
D. NTP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 561

- (Topic 1)
Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and
immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

A. BPDUfilter
B. PortFast
C. Backbonefast
D. BPDUguard

Answer: B

Explanation:
PortFast
Spanning Tree Portfast causes layer 2 switch interfaces to enter forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening and learning states. It should be used on
ports connected directly to end hosts like servers or workstations. Note: If portfast isn’t enabled, DHCP timeouts can occur while STP converges, causing more
problems.
https://skminhaj.wordpress.com/2015/03/04/spanning-tree-stp-rstp-mst-enhancements/

NEW QUESTION 563

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 564

- (Topic 1)
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

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A. intrusion detection
B. user awareness
C. physical access control
D. network authorization

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 567

- (Topic 1)
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

A. latency
B. port security violation
C. shutdown command issued on the port
D. nothing plugged into the port

Answer: B

Explanation:
This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode, the switch will automatically force the switchport into an error disabled (err-disable) state when a
violation occurs. While in this state, the switchport forwards no traffic. The switchport can be brought out of this error disabled state by issuing the errdisable
recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and reenabling the switchport.

NEW QUESTION 570

- (Topic 1)
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. TCP
D. FTP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 574

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

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NEW QUESTION 577

- (Topic 1)
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?

A. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10
C. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
Forward time : Determines how long each of the listening and learning states last before the port begins forwarding.
Switch(config)# [ no ] spanning-tree vlan vlan_ID forward-time forward_timeConfigures the forward time of a VLAN. The forward_time value can be from 4 to 30
seconds. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/15-02SG/configuration/guide/config/spantree.html#56177

NEW QUESTION 579

- (Topic 1)
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

A. enable dynamic ARP inspection

B. manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP
C. activate all ports and place in the default VLAN
D. configure extended VLANs

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 580

- (Topic 1)
Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

A. OpenFlow
B. REST API
C. NETCONF
D. Southbound API

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 585

- (Topic 1)
On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

A. DHCP
B. STP
C. SNMP
D. DNS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 590

- (Topic 1)
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

A. configure IEEE 802.1p

B. configure IEEE 802.1q
C. configure ISL
D. configure DSCP

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Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 593

- (Topic 1)
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A. Bronze
B. Platinum
C. Silver
D. Gold

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/81831-qos-wlc-lap.html
Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution WLANs support four levels of QoS: Platinum/Voice, Gold/Video, Silver/Best Effort (default), and Bronze/Background.

NEW QUESTION 598

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
B. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
C. it load-balances traffic between all three routes
D. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 600

- (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which
command will accomplish this task?

A. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B. no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22
C. access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22
D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Answer: D

Explanation:
Note : Already a statement is there in last to allow SSH Traffic for network 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127, but Second statement says deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255, so
how it will work once it is denied. So the right answer is remove the --- no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255.

NEW QUESTION 603

- (Topic 1)
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the
server?

A. a DHCP Relay Agent

B. DHCP Binding
C. a DHCP Pool
D. DHCP Snooping

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 605

DRAG DROP - (Topic 1)
A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all
parameters are used

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 607

SIMULATION - (Topic 5)

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Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks
assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
* 1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of
Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not
use NVI NAT configuration.
* 2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for
midnight on January 1, 2019.
* 3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range.
Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
* 4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be
set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify
console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Answer as below configuration:
conf t
R1(config)#ntp master 1
R2(config)#ntp server 10.1.2.1
Exit
Router#clock set 00:00:00 jan 1 2019 ip dhcp pool TEST
network 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0
ip dhcp exluded-address 10.1.3.1 10.1.3.10 R3(config)#int e0/3
R3(config)#int e0/2 ip address dhcp no shut
crypto key generate RSA 1024
Copy run start

NEW QUESTION 611

SIMULATION - (Topic 5)

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IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses
connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be
established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
* 1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
* 2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
* 3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT
allowed in router R2.
* 4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be
through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Answer as below configuration:
On R2:
Enable Conf t

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Ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.31.1

On R1:
Enable Conf t
Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.13.3
On R2
Ip route 172.20.20.128 255.255.255.128 e0/2
Ip route 172.20.20.128 255.255.255.128 e0/1
On R1
Ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 e0/1
Ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.12.2 3
Save all configurations after every router from anyone of these command Do wr
Or
Copy run start

NEW QUESTION 615

SIMULATION - (Topic 5)
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic
routing protocols are included.
* 1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
* 2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
* 3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Answer as below configuration:
* 1.- on R3
config terminal
ip route 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255 209.165.200.229

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end
copy running start
* 2.- on R2
config terminal
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.130
end
copy running start
* 3.- on R2
config terminal
ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:abcd::2 end
copy running start

NEW QUESTION 620

SIMULATION - (Topic 5)

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and
permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
* 1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
* 2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
* 3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Answer as below configuration:
Sw1 enbale config t Vlan 210
Name FINANCE
Inter e0/1
Switchport access vlan 210 do wr
Sw2 Enable config t Vlan 110
Name MARKITING
Int e0/1
Switchport acees vlan 110 do wr
Sw3 Enable config t
Vlan 110
Name MARKITING
Vlan 210
Name FINANCE
Int e0/0
Switchport access vlan 110 Int e0/1
Switchport access vlan 210
Sw1
Int e0/1
Switchport allowed vlan 210
Sw2

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Int e0/2
Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210
Sw3
Int e0/3
Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210 Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210,110

NEW QUESTION 624

SIMULATION - (Topic 5)
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end. 1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to reach only PCI on
R4's LAN
* 2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along the primary path
* 3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
? To configure static routing on R1 to ensure that it prefers the path through R2 to reach only PC1 on R4’s LAN, you need to create a static route for the host
10.0.0.100/8 with a next-hop address of 20.0.0.2, which is the IP address of R2’s interface connected to R1. You also need to assign a lower administrative
distance (AD) to this route than the default AD of 1 for static routes, so that it has a higher preference over other possible routes. For example, you can use an AD
of 10 for this route. To create this static route, you need to enter the following commands on R1’s console:
R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.100 255.0.0.0 20.0.0.2 10 R1(config)#end
? To configure static routing on R1 that ensures that traffic sourced from R1 will take an alternate path through R3 to PC1 in the event of an outage along the
primary path, you need to create another static route for the host 10.0.0.100/8 with a next- hop address of 40.0.0.2, which is the IP address of R3’s interface
connected to R1. You also need to assign a higher AD to this route than the AD of the primary route, so that it has a lower preference and acts as a backup route.
For example, you can use an AD of 20 for this route. This type of static route is also known as a floating static route. To create this static route, you need to enter
the following commands on R1’s console:
R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.100 255.0.0.0 40.0.0.2 20 R1(config)#end
? To configure default routes on R1 and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops, you need to create a static route for the network 0.0.0.0/0 with a next-
hop address of the ISP’s interface connected to each router respectively. A default route is a special type of static route that matches any destination address and
is used when no other specific route is available. The ISP’s interface connected to R1 has an IP address of 10.0.0.4, and the ISP’s interface connected to R3 has
an IP address of 50.0.0.4. To create these default routes, you need to enter the following commands on each router’s console:

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On R1: R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.4 R1(config)#end On R3: R3#configure terminal R3(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
50.0.0.4 R3(config)#end

NEW QUESTION 625

SIMULATION - (Topic 5)
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
* 1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both
sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
* 2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
* 3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
* 4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Answer as below configuration:
On SW1:
conf terminal vlan 15
exit
interface range eth0/0 - 1 channel-group 1 mode active exit
interface port-channel 1
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 15 end
copy run start
on SW2:
conf terminal
vlan 15 exit
interface range eth0/0 - 1 channel-group 1 mode active exit
interface port-channel 1
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 15 end
copy run start

NEW QUESTION 630

SIMULATION - (Topic 5)
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites. The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
* 1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
* 2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier on eO/O on swi02

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Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
? To subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize the number of hosts, you need to determine how many bits you need to borrow from the
host portion of the address to create enough subnets for 32 sites. Since 32 is 2^5, you need to borrow 5 bits, which means your new subnet mask will be /21 or
255.255.248.0. To find the second subnet, you need to add the value of the fifth bit
(32) to the third octet of the network address (0), which gives you 172.25.32.0/21 as the second subnet. The first usable IP address in this subnet is 172.25.32.1,
and the last usable IP address is 172.25.39.254.
? To assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw101, you need to enter the
following commands on the device console:
Sw101#configure terminal Sw101(config)#interface e0/0 Sw101(config-if)#ip address 172.25.32.1 255.255.248.0 Sw101(config-if)#no shutdown Sw101(config-
if)#end
? To assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102, you need to enter the
following commands on the device console:
Sw102#configure terminal Sw102(config)#interface e0/0 Sw102(config-if)#ip address 172.25.39.254 255.255.248.0 Sw102(config-if)#no shutdown Sw102(config-
if)#end
? To subnet an IPv6 GUA to meet the subnet requirements and maximize the
number of hosts, you need to determine how many bits you need to borrow from the interface identifier portion of the address to create enough subnets for 32
sites. Since 32 is 2^5, you need to borrow 5 bits, which means your new prefix length will be /69 or ffff:ffff:ffff:fff8::/69 (assuming that your IPv6 GUA has a /64
prefix by default). To find the second subnet, you need to add the value of the fifth bit (32) to the fourth hextet of the network address (0000), which gives you
xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0020::/69 as the second subnet (where xxxx:xxxx:xxxx is your IPv6 GUA prefix). The first and last IPv6 addresses in this subnet are
xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0020::1 and xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0027:ffff:ffff:ffff:fffe respectively.
? To assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-bit interface identifier on e0/0 on
Sw101, you need to enter the following commands on the device console (assuming that your IPv6 GUA prefix is 2001:db8::/64):
Sw101#configure terminal Sw101(config)#interface e0/0 Sw101(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8::20::1/69 Sw101(config-if)#no shutdown Sw101(config-if)#end
? To assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-bit interface identifier on e0/0 on
Sw102, you need to enter the following commands on the device console (assuming that your IPv6 GUA prefix is 2001:db8::/64):
Sw102#configure terminal Sw102(config)#interface e0/0 Sw102(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8::27::fffe/69 Sw102(config-if)#no shutdown Sw102(config-if)#end

NEW QUESTION 635

- (Topic 4)
Which encryption method is used by WPA3?

A. PSK
B. TKIP
C. SAE
D. AES

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 639

- (Topic 4)
What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A. Increase the available throughput on the link.

B. Increase security by encrypting management frames
C. Allow for stateful failover between WLCs
D. Enable the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations

Answer: A

Explanation:

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Link Aggregation Group (LAG) is a feature that allows you to bundle multiple physical Ethernet links into a single logical link, and is used to increase the available
throughput on the link. LAG is supported on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) and the connected switch ports [1], and can be used to provide greater
bandwidth and increased redundancy. It also enables the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations, such as Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
and Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP).

NEW QUESTION 641

......

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