4 th

Premium
Colored
Edition

Authors
Muthuvenkatachalam Srinivasan Foreword
MSc (AIIMS), D Pharm, PhD (INC Consortium), RN (NMBA Australia) Indarjit Walia
Lecturer
College of Nursing
All India Institute of Medical Sciences
Patna
Ambili M Venugopal
BSc (Hons) Nursing (AIIMS), MSc Pediatric Nursing (AIIMS)
Nursing Officer
All India Institute of Medical Sciences
New Delhi

Recommended By
� Usha Ukande � Ratna Prakash � Sandhya Ghai � B V Kathyayni
� Harinderjeet Goyal � Indarjit Walia � B Valli � Jeyaseelan M Devadason
� Sr Rojamma � Sr Mary Lucita � Shyamala D Manivannan � Sunita Lawrence
� Jacintha D’Souza � Radha Saini � H C Rawat � Rashmi E John

CBS Publishers & Distributors Pvt Ltd

• New Delhi • Bengaluru • Chennai • Kochi • Mumbai • Kolkata
• Hyderabad • Pune • Nagpur • Patna • Vijayawada

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.
 Special Thanks to all the Contributors

Amrita lenka Adlin Shinija

(MSc) Medical Surgical Nursing (MSc) Community Health Nursing Amar Kumar
Principal Hospital Management Nursing Tutor
Kalinga Institute of Nursing Principal Govt college of Nursing
Bhubaneswar Annammal College, Kuzhithurai Rajasthan

Anju Dhir Binu Joe

(PhD) Microbiology (MSc) Community Health Nursing C. Kulanthaiammal
Former Lecturer Child Health Nursing (MSc) Obs and Gyne
Shivalik Institute of Nursing Principal Principal
Himachal Pradesh CU Shah University Bhai Gurdas Inst. of Nursing
Gujarat Sangur, Punjab

Hari Krishna
Deepesh Swami Eenu
(MSc) Nursing Administration/Mental
(MSc) Community Health Nursing (MSc) Community Health Nursing
Health Nursing
Lecturer Maharishi Markandeskwar Assistant Professor & In-Service Education
Bikaner college of Nursing Deemed to be University Coordinator
Bikaner, Rajasthan Haryana Sree Gokulam Nursing College, Kerala

Jitendra Singh
Harish Kumar Nair (MSc) Medical Surgical Nursing Jyoti
Department of Mental Health Principal (MSc) OBG
(Psychiatric) Nursing College of Nursing Nursing Officer
SLM Global Nursing College Kishtwar, J & K Lady Hardinge Medical College and
Abu road, Rajasthan Smt. Sucheta kriplani Hospital,New Delhi

Contributors names are arranged in Alphabetical Order

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 Khemchand Krishnaveni Murugesh Lolita Dsouza
(MSc) Community Health Nursing
(MSc) Community Health Nursing (MSc) Obs and Gyne
Health Nursing
Lecturer Principal
Principal
AIIMS, SCS College Of Nursing Sciences
Sri Sai School College of Nursing
Patna Mangalore
Himachal Pradesh

Manglam kumari
Nursing Foundation & Nursing Research
BSC Nursing Tutor Monika Thakur Mansi Midha
Shyamlal Chandrasekhar Nursing College (Msc) Mental Health Nursing Biochemistry & Nutrition/ Anatomy &
Parmanandpur Nursing Editor (Consultant) Physiology
CBS Nursing Division Nursing Editorial Board member
New Delhi CBS Nursing Division
New Delhi

Mrinalini Bakshi Navneet Mudgal

(MSc) Community Health Nursing Naveena. J.H
GK/Reasoning (MSc) Community Health Nursing
Obs & Gyne and Pediatric Nursing
Nursing Editorial Board Head Associate Professor
Assistant Professor
CBS Nursing Division Amity College of Nursing,
Veena Vadini Institute of NSG
New Delhi Amity University
Rajasthan
Gurgaon, Haryana

Prakash Lalitha Priyanka Randhir

Poonam Sharma
(MSc) Mental Health Nursing (MSc) Pediatric Nursing
(MSc) Obs and Gyne
Nursing Lecturer Nursing tutor
Vice Principal
College of Nursing, Pondicherry Institute of SMLD school of Nursing, Amritsar
HIMCAPES College of Nursing
Medical Sciences Punjab
Una Tamil Nadu

Contributors names are arranged in Alphabetical Order

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 Pratiti Haldar Reena Govindraja
Priyanka Malhotra (Msc) Pediatric Nursing (MSc) Community Health Nursing
(MSc) Mental Health Nursing Lecturer Principal
Nursing Tutor Pal College of Nursing & Medical Sciences Sai Krupa College of Nursing AP
AIIMS Rishikesh Uttarakhand

Rohit Yadav
Nursing Tutor Renu Nagar Shubhangi Dumbray
Government College of nursing (MSc) Obs & Gyne (MSc) Psychiatric Nursing
Udaipur, Rajasthan Asst. Professor Principal
AGM New Bombay College of Nursing Tehmi Grant Inst. of Nursing
Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra Pune, Maharashtra

Sukhwinder Kaur
Soney Toppo S Rajeswari (MSc) Community Health Nursing
(MSc) Obs and Gyne and Sociology (MSc) Community Health Nursing Lecturer Department of Nursing
Principal Principal Govt medical college
Career College of nursing Vrundavan Institute of Nursing Education Patiala, Punjab
Bhopal, MP Goa

Sanjay Mittal Semant Prashar Suresh Krishniya

(MSc) Community Health Nursing (MSc) Mental Health Nursing BSC Nursing Tutor
Mental Health Nursing Associate professor Mahatma Gandhi B.Sc. Nursing College Sikar
Former Asst.lecturer SAM College of nursing Rajasthan
Upchar College of Nursing Bhopal, MP
Rajasthan

Contributors names are arranged in Alphabetical Order

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 Shakti Soni Shailaja Mathews Swati Mehra
(MSc) Nursing Research (MSc) Obs and Gyne Microbiology
Assistant professor Assistant Professor Nursing Editorial Board member
Birla (Girls) college of nursing Smt Bakul Tambat Institute of Nursing CBS Nursing Division
Rajasthan Nursing Education New Delhi
Maharashtra

Sushma Pandey Varinder Kaur

T. Sivabalan (MSc) Community Health nursing
(MSc)Fundamental of Nursing/Medical (MSc) Nursing Research
Surgical Nursing Principal
Dean HIMCAPES college of Nursing
Assistant Professor Pravara Institute of Medical sciences
Somaiya College of Nursing Himachal Pradesh
(deemed to be University) College of Nursing
Maharashtra Maharashtra

V. Sujatha Virendra Chaudhary Vijayasanthi

(MSc) Community Health nursing (MSc) Community Health Nursing (MSc) Community Health nursing
Principal Medical Surgical Nursing Professor cum Vice Principal
SNCON Dasmesh College of Nursing CIMS college of Nursing
Tamil Nadu Professor cum Vice Principal Dehradun
Faridkot

Vasantha Chitre Yogesh Gulati Prakash Mahala

(MSc) Medical Surgical Nursing (MSc) Pharmacology (MSc) MSN
Former Reader Nursing Global Pharmacovigilance Leader Nurse Educator/Senior Nursing Officer
College of Nursing, Institute of Liver and King George Medical College, Lucknow AIIMS Rishikesh
Biliary Sciences Uttar Pradesh Uttarakhand
New Delhi

Contributors names are arranged in Alphabetical Order

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 List of Reviewers
Total 250+ Contributors/Reviewers from 23 States & 2 Union Territories from India
We, the authors and the publisher, are grateful to all the reviewers
who spend some time from their busy schedules and invested it in reviewing
the book, making it most authentic and unique quality compendium.
ASSAM
Ramya Vasanth Mukesh Malav
Lecturer PGI, Chandigarh
College of Nursing
AIIMS Patna
Gitumoni
Bihar
Regional College of Nursing
Guwahati, Assam
P Thulasiammal
Visanth. V.S
PGI, Chandigarh
Nursing officer
AIIMS Patna
Krishna Das Bihar
Professor & HOD
(Pediatric Nursing)
Regional CON Parmees Kaur
Guwahati, Assam MSc (Pediatric Nursing)
Govt. College of Nursing,

Manashi Sengupta
CHANDIGARH Chandigarh

Dean I/C
Faculty of Nursing
Avinash Kaur Rana
Assam down Town Rajbeer Kaur
PhD, MSc(N)
University MSc (Psychiatric Nursing)
Lecturer
Assam Clinical Instructor
NINE, PGIMER,
PGI NINE, Chandigarh
Chandigarh, Punjab
BIHAR
Chander K Sarin
PhD (Psychology) Sushma Kumari Saini
Hansmukh Jain
MSc (Psychiatric Nursing), PhD, MSc(N)
(Principal I/C, CON),
Principal Lecturer
Nursing Superintendent,
Rayat Bahra CON NINE, PGIMER
AIIMS, Patna
Chandigarh Chandigarh, Punjab
Bihar

Sukhpal Kaur
K Lakshmi Prasanna
MSc (N), PhD
Lecturer Kaushal Kishore Lecturer
College of Nursing PGI, Chandigarh NINE, PGIMER,
AIIMS Patna
Chandigarh, Punjab
Bihar

Naveen Kumar Sharma Sarita Rawat

Lecturer Kirandeep Kaur Parmar
MSc OBG, RGI MSc (Pediatric Nursing),
College of Nursing
Chandigarh Clinical Instructor
AIIMS, Patna, Bihar
PGI NINE
Chandigarh

Prahlad Devenda
Manju Dhandapani Yogita Kumari Shringi
Nursing Officer
MSc (N) PGI Chandigarh
AIIMS Patna
Lecturer , NINE, PGIMER
Bihar
Chandigarh , Punjab

Reviewers names are arranged State-wise in Alphabetical Order

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 CHHATTISGARH Mallika Vhora HIMACHAL PRADESH
I/C Principal
Knowledge Institute of Indu Rathor
Shweta Patras Nursing, Anand
MSc (OBG) Assistant Professor
Gujarat Community Health Nursing
Prinicpal
Hardik College of Nursing Murari Lal Memorial School
Raipur, Chattisgarh
Narendra Kumar & College of Nursing, Solan
Sharma Himachal Pradesh
Principal
Chitrini Nursing College
Vandna chansoriya Gujarat Joginder Pathania
Principal MD Pharmacology
Govt Nursing College Raipur IGMC, Shimla,
Madhya Pradesh Navin Kumar Himachal Pradesh
Principal
HN Shukla college of
Nursing, Rajkot Krishna Dhawan
GUJARAT Gujarat Prinicipal
Dr Y S Parmar School of Nsg
Pratima Mali Solan, Himachal Pradesh
Anil Sharma
PhD (Clinical Research) Principal
MSc (MSN) SKUM college of Nursing,
Principal Ahmedabad Monika Sharma
Manikaka Topawala Gujarat Msc (CHN),
Institute of Nursing Principal
Anand, Gujarat Guru Dronacharya CON
Ravindra JH Himachal Pradesh
Principal
Sumandeep College of
Dayal D. Patidar Nursing
Principal Prabha Kashyap
Gujarat
Jyotibai College of Nursing PhD (Pediatric Nursing)
Gujarat Lecturer
Sanjay Dixit Sister Nivedita Govt. Nursing
Principal College
Pioneer Nursing College Indira Gandhi Medical
Ghodasara Jalpaben C Gujarat college, Shimla HP
Principal
Govt.Nursing College Rajkot Pushpa Panwar
Gujarat Vipin Vageriya Sister Nivedita Govt Nursing
PhD MSc (Pediatric Nsg. College (SNGNC) IGMC,
Asst. Professor cum Head of Shimla, (HP)
Department Child Health
Nursing
Indravati
Manikaka Topawala
Principal Rupindra A Bharathi
Institute of Nursing
Govt. College of Nursing MD Pharmacology (Std.),
Anand, Gujarat
Gujarat IGMC, Shimla
Himachal Pradesh
HARYANA

Jeenath Justin Doss K Jaideep Herbert

Principal PhD, Msc (MSN) Siyad Farook
Shri Anand Institute of Director - Clinical Training Principal
Nursing, Rajkot & Development Satyam College of Nursing
Gujarat Vidyanta Skills Institute, Himachal Pradesh
Medical Simulation Center,
Haryana Vikas Sood
Judith Margret Morris MSc, PhD
Principal Lecturer
Victoria Jubille Nursing
Kamini Chauhan
Shivalik Institute of Nursing
Amity College of Nursing,
College, Ahmedabad and Shimla Nursing of
Gurgoan
Gujarat College, Shimla
Haryana
Himachal Pradesh

Reviewers names are arranged State-wise in Alphabetical Order

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 JAMMU & KASHMIR Dakshayini K P Jyothi
PhD, MSc Principal
Department of MSN (Govt) VIMS College
Anjum Khurshid Govt. College of Nursing, of Nursing, Bangalore
Assistant Professor Mysore, Karnataka Karnataka
Smmcon Iust
Jammu & Kashmir Elsa Sanatombi
PhD (MSN) Kodimalar P
Manipal CON MSc (N)
Haseeb Ali Manipal University, Principal
Faculty Karnataka Department of CHN
Bibi Halima College of Abhaya College of Nursing
Medical Technology, Bengaluru, Karnataka
Srinagar
Jammu & Kahmir Elizabeth Chinadore
Assistant Professor Lakshmi A
Haskote Mission Institute of PhD, MSc (N)
Iqbal Majid Dar Nursing, Bangalore Principal
Tutor Karnataka Sarvodaya CON
Government College of Bengaluru, Karnataka
Nursing M A Road, Srinagar
Jammu & Kashmir Firdose Fathima
Principal Mangala v
Government College of Principal
Shazia Afroze Sofia College of nursing,
Tutor nursing MMC& RI, MYSORE
Karnataka Bangalore
Bibi Halima College Karnataka
of Nursing & Medical
Technology, Srinagar
Jammu & Kashmir Gowri N T Aruna Devi
Department of OBG PhD
Fortis College of Nursing Principal
Sameer Ahmad Dar Bengaluru, Karnataka BG Inst. for Health Sciences
Faculty Mysore, Karnataka
College of Nursing M A
Road, Srinagar Gracy V C
Jammu & Kahmir PhD, Msc P. Muniyasamy
Principal Principal
Department of CHN Sri Basavaraj College of
St Joseph CON Nursing, Chitradurga,
Shazia Nabi Mysore, Karnataka Karnataka
Nursing Tutor
AMT , Srinagar Helena D'silva
Jammu & Kahmir Principal Reena George
Government school of MSc (MSN)
nursing Principal
Mysore medical college Florence CON
KARNATAKA campus, Mysore Bengaluru, Karnataka
Karnataka

S F Bilali
Amudha K Hemavathy S Principal
Vice Principal MSc (N) Deptt. of MSN
Florence College of Nursing Principal Bapuji College of Nursing
Bengaluru, Karnataka Govt College of Nursing Devangere
Bengaluru, Karnataka

Christin Anil Kumari D Sumathy.S

MSc MHRM Jeeva Subramaniam Principal
Principal Lecturer Sri Krishna Ruckmani
Department of MSN College of Nursing. College of nursing,
Hoskote Mission Inst. of Nsg. NIMHANS Bangalore
Hoskote, Karnataka Karnataka Karnataka

Reviewers names are arranged State-wise in Alphabetical Order

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Shivamma Yogendra Garg Sunita Choubey
Principal and GNM Board Nursing Officer Associate Professor
Secretary GTB Hospital Phd (Scholar)
Government school of Rajiv Gandhi University Peoples CON 7 Research
nursing, Bangalore Karnataka Center, Bhopal
Karnataka Madhya Pradesh

Sujatha
Principal KERALA MAHARASHTRA
Sri Siddhartha College of
nursing, Tumkur
Karnataka Manikuttan n Anita Yuvraj Nawale
Student Reviewer Assistant Professor
BSc Nursing (72%) BVDUCON
Siya Ram
Kerala University Bishop Pune, Maharashtra
Student Reviewer
Benziger College of Nursing
PGI Chandigarh
Kerala
Nursing Officer
Unity health school of
Avani Oke
nursing Sheela Shenai PhD (Pursing)Em
Karnataka Principal
(MSc CHN)
MOSC College of Nursing
Principal
Sofiarani Kolenchery, Ernakulam K J Somaiya CON
Principal Mumbai, Maharashtra
Viswa Sai College of nursing,
Bangalore
Karnataka MADHYA PRADESH Jyotsna R Deshpande
PhD, MSc (OBG Nursing)
Assistant Professor
Thressiamma P.M
Manju Joshi BVDUCON, Pune
Principal
HOD Deptt. of MSN Maharashtra
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar institute
of nursing , Bangalore Choithram CON
Karnataka Indore, Madhya Pradesh
Lily Podder
PhD, MSc (OBG Nursing)
Vidya Raju Saliyan Associate Professor
Principal Nisha Sharma BVDUCON, Pune,
Bowring Lady Curzon Student Reviewer Maharashtra
School of Nursing, Bangalore BSc Nursing (75%)
Karnataka Academy of Nursing and
Health Science Mangalam Sriram
Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) Director Academics
Vanmathisaravanan Chaitanyam institute
Principal for Human Excellence in
Rakhi Phandse Healthcare Thane
Gayathri College of Nursing,
Deptt. of Child Health Nsg. Maharashtra
Bangalore
Choithram CON
Karnataka
Indore, Madhya Pradesh
Nisha S Naik
Assistant Professor
Vinayak I Patil Dr. DY Patil CON
Shweta Pattnaik Pune , Maharashtra
Principal
Asst. Professor
KLES Institute of nursing
Choithram CON
sciences
Indore, Madhya Pradesh
Karnataka
Prachi H.Dharap
Principal
Veerendra Patel Sau Minatai Thakre Institute
Shreeja Vijayan
Nursing Tutor of Nursing Education,
Hod Dep Of Child Health
Bapuji School of Nursing T.M.C.Thane
Nursing
Davangere Maharashtra
Choithram CON
Indore, Madhya Pradesh

Reviewers names are arranged State-wise in Alphabetical Order

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Sadhna U Adhyapak L Gopichandran Sandhya C
PhD, MSc (MSN) PhD (Scholar) Nursing Officer
Dr D Y Patil CON MSc (N), ACCN, ATCN AIIMS, New Delhi
Pune, Maharashtra AIIMS, New Delhi

Mahaveer Singh ODISHA

Shweta Joshi
Director
Dr D Y Patil CON
Nursing Experts Coaching
Pune, Maharashtra Aswani Kumar Behera
Centre
Student Reviewer
New Delhi
2nd Year MSc Student
Sneha A Pitre Kalinga Institute of Nursing
PhD, MSc (CHN) Science
Dean & Principal Odisha
Molly Babu
BVDUCON, Pune, MSc (OBG)
Maharashtra RAKCON, New Delhi
Dharitri Swain
Suresh Ray MSc (OBG)
PhD, MSc (CHN) Associate Professor
Assistant Professor College of Nursing, AIIMS
BVDUCON, Pune, Rachna Sharma Bhubaneswar, Odisha
Maharashtra CON ILBS
New Delhi
Niyati Das
Vice Pricinpal & HOD (Child
Vijayreddy Vandali Health Nursing)
Vice- Principal Kalinga Inst. Nsg Sciences
SND College of Nursing, KIIT University,
Ranjan Patel
Nashik Bhubaneswar, Odisha
MD Pharmacology
Maharashtra
New Delhi

Sasmita Das
NEW DELHI Associate Dean
SUM Nursing College. SOA
Sarita Nadiya Ahwal (DTU), Bhubaneswar
Lecturer Odisha
Ankush Jain ILBS, New Delhi
Nursing Officer
GTB Hospital Faculty Subhatra
New Delhi College of Nursing
AIIMS, Bhubaneshwar,
Sarita Mehta Odisha
Retd- Chief Nursing Officer
Dhanasekar AIIMS, New Delhi
Nursing Officer
AIIMS PUNJAB
New Delhi

Shivraj Singh Meena Alka Saxena

Director Principal
Kanika Rai Delhi Nursing Competition Adesh College of Nursing
Associate Professor Classes Mukatsar
MM CON, Mullana New Delhi Punjab
Ambala, Delhi

Swati Tiwari Bakshi

Karthikeyan MD Anatomy Anupinder Dhaliwal
Pethuswamy MAMC, New Delhi MD Physiology, GMC
MD Biochemistry Patiala, Punjab
AIIMS, New Delhi

Reviewers names are arranged State-wise in Alphabetical Order

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Bandana Bisht Maninder Kaur Santosh Kumar
MSc (Psychiatric Nursing), MSc (MHN) Associate Professor
Chitkara College, Rajpura Sri Sukhmani CON Bhai Gurdas Institute of
Punjab Punjab Nursing, Sangrur
Punjab

Bhupinder Kaur S K Maheshwari

MSc (OBG) Prabhjot Kaur
Nursing Tutor PhD, MSc (N)
University CON Faridkot
SMLD school of Nursing, Professor
Punjab
Amritsar University CON, BFUHS,
Punjab Faridkot, Punjab,

Darshan Kaur Sohi

Principal Rizwan Khan Talwinder Kaur
CKD International Nursing tutor MSc (OBG)
Amritsar, Punjab University institute of Sri Sukhmani CON
nursing, Jalalabaad Punjab
Punjab

Davinder Kaur
MSc (MSN)
Rupinder Kaur Usha Behl
Principal
Nursing Tutor Principal
Gian Sagar CON, Punjab
SMLD school of Nursing, Gursewa College of Nursing
Amritsar Hoshiarpur, Punjab
Punjab
Deepak Shandilya
Msc (Psychiatry N)
Vishaldeep Singh Batth
Vice Principal
Ram Lakhan Mali Assistant Professor
Desh Bhagat CON
Associate Prof cum Vice S.P.H.E College of Nursing,
Mandi Gobindgarh, Punjab
Principal Gharuan
Sri Sukhmani College of Punjab
Nursing, Dera Basi
Kartar Singh
Punjab
Assistant professor Vandana
SSS institute of nursing, Lecturer
Gurdaspur University College of
Punjab Raghunandan Singh
Nursing,
MSc (MSN)
BFUHS Faridkot
Swift Institute of Nursing
Punjab
College
Kirandeep Dhaliwal
Punjab
Phd (Psychiatry Nursing)
Govt. College of Nursing, RAJASTHAN
Patiala , Punjab

Sunil Kumar Garg Arjun Chaudhary

Associate Professor Student Reviewer
State institute of Nursing AIIMS Rishikesh (395)
Liza Sharma and paramedical Sciences, Nursing Officer
PhD, MA (Eng), EdD, MBA Badal. Muktsar RGM College
Gian Sagar CON, Punjab Punjab Rajasthan

Bheru Singh Jodha

Assistant professor
Madhuri Kashyap Suman Bodh
Government College of
MSc (CHN) GNM Training School
Nursing, Bikaner
Sri Sukhmani College, Dr. RPGMC Tanda
Rajasthan
Punjab Punjab

Reviewers names are arranged State-wise in Alphabetical Order

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Bhupendra Jain Kailash Das Rinku Chaudhary
Principal Student Reviewer Student Reviewer
Rawat Nursing College, AIIMS Delhi (125) Aligarh University
Jaipur Nursing Officer (Ranked 92)
Rajasthan School of nursing Matsya Nursing School
A.G.Hospital Bikaner Rajasthan
Rajasthan Rajasthan
Dinesh Sharma
Lecturer Laxhman Yadav Rajesh K Bhaira
Govt College of Nursing, Student Reviewer MSc (CHN)
Kota PGIMER (AIR–230) Lecturer
Rajasthan Nursing Officer Arawali CON
Annapurna medical training Sikar, Rajasthan
Devi Shankar Saini institute
Student Reviewer Rajasthan
AIIMS Rishikesh AIR -114 Sanwal Chand
Nursing Officer Student Reviewer
Rawat Nursing College AIIMS Jodhpur – 700
Lakshman Chaudhary Nursing Officer
Rajasthan Student Reviewer
Vmou Kota
AIIMS Delhi (250)
Rajasthan
Dinesh Rewar Nursing Officer
Student Reviewer Jai Durga College of Nursing
BSc Nursing (75.5%) Rajasthan Surendra Saini
Morang Ram Dayanand Student Reviewer
Bhusang Nursing College BSc Nursing (74%)
Rajasthan Gl Saini Mamorial College
Manish Saraswat of nursing
Dheeraj Aggarwal Principal Rajasthan
Student Reviewer Vyas College of Nursing,
BSc Nursing (67.5%) Jodhpur
Sunil Saharan
Govt. College of nursing, Rajasthan
Student Reviewer
M.B.S. hospital AIIMS Delhi (623)
Rajasthan Nursing Officer
Mahendra Banta S.N. College of Nursing
Ganesh Prabhu Dayal Jodhpur, Rajasthan Rajasthan
Student Reviewer
AIIMS Rishikesh (433)
Surender Moond
Nursing Officer
Lecturer
Shivaji College of Nursing
CCC College of Nursing
Rajasthan
Narsee Kumar Meena Sikar, Rajasthan
Student Reviewer
BSc Nursing (70%)
Hemant Singh
Shahnaj College of Nursing,
Student Reviewer
Jaipur Suresh Kumar
BSc Nursing (79.05%)
Rajasthan BSc (N)
Imperial College, Jaipur
Rajasthan Govt. CON, Jaipur
Rajasthan
Prahalad choudhary
Student Reviewer
Jitendra Kumar Nagar AIIMS Delhi (134)
Principal Nursing Officer Samta Soni
laganshah Memorial Lecturer
Daswani Nursing College
Nursing College Government CON
Rajasthan
Rajasthan Jaipur, Rajasthan

Kapil Goel
Student Reviewer Ravi Prakash Jangid Yogeshwar Puri
Aiims Jodhpur (AIR 189) Nursing Tutor Principal
Nursing Officer Rami devi college of Nursing Geetanjali College of
AII Jaipur Hospital College Deoli {Tonk} nursing, Udaipur
of nursing Rajasthan Rajasthan
Rajasthan

Reviewers names are arranged State-wise in Alphabetical Order

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Yogesh Bhati UTTARAKHAND
S. Queen Mary
Student Reviewer
Principal
DGHS Central
Global Kasturba College of
Government (156) Anil Parashar
nursing, Hyderabad
AIIMS Rishikesh (105) MSc (MSN),
Telanagana
Nursing Officer Pal CON Haldwani
Shree Balaji School of Uttarakhand
nursing Jodhpur
Rajasthan UTTAR PRADESH

SIKKIM Alka Chauhan Gomathi Mahalingam

MSc (Psychiatric Nursing) Himalayan College
Lecturer Dehradun, Uttarakhand
St. Mary’s CON
Reshma Tamang
Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
MSc (Pediatric Nursing)
Associate Professor
Sikkim Manipal CON Jagdish Kumar
Sikkim G Srinivasan BSc (N), PGDHHM
KGMU, Lucknow Nursing Tutor
Uttar Pradesh AIIMS. Rishikesh,
Uttarakhand
TAMIL NADU

Jyoti Godhiyal
M P Saraswathy Lecturer Rajesh Kumar Kataria
MD Microbiology St. Mary CON Assistant Professor
ESIC Medical College Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh AIIMS Rishikesh
Chennai, Tamil Nadu Uttarakhand

Keerthi Mohannan
V Hemavathy KGMU, Lucknow
Uttar Pradesh WEST BENGAL
Principal
Sree Balaji College of
Nursing
Chennai, Tamil Nadu Antara Roy
Demonstrator
Shelly
College Of Nursing Nrs
KGMU, Lucknow,
Veena M Joseph Uttar Pradesh
Medical College, Kolkata
Vice - Principal & HOD, West Bengal
OBG (N) Dept
Chettinad College of Nursing
Tamil Nadu
Mamita Dey
Sunu Anna Punnoose
Assistant Professor
KGMU, Lucknow,
Peerless College of Nursing,
Uttar Pradesh
TELANGANA Kolkata
West Bengal

Beulah Philips
Kothapally Urvashi Soumyasree Sarkar
Principal
KGMU, Lucknow Assistant Professor
Malla Reddy College of
Uttar Pradesh Peerless CON
Nursing, Hyderabad
Kolkata, West Bengal
Telangana

Reviewers names are arranged State-wise in Alphabetical Order

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 Contents

Preliminary Pages Various Positions 22 Inflammation 98

Hot Application 22 Infection 98
Foreword, v
Cold Application 23 Fluid Imbalances 98
From Authors’ Desk, vi
Drug Administration 23 Perioperative Nursing Care 99
From Publisher’s Desk, vii
Fluid and Electrolyte 24 Respiratory System Disorders 99
Acknowledgements, ix
Acid-Base Balance 25 Gastrointestinal Disorders 102
How to Crack CBT Examination, x
Basic and Advanced Life Support 26 Cardiovascular Disorders 104
Recommendation by Luminaries in
Nursing, xvi Nurses Role In Important Genitourinary Problems 109
Procedures 26 Endocrine Disorders 110
List of Contributors, xviii
Suture 29 Skin Disorders 113
List of Reviewers, xxii
Grieving Process 29 Disorders of Musculoskeletal
Contents, xxxi
Triage 30 System 114
Description of Various Immunological Disorder 116
Extra Edge Immunoglobulins 30 Disorder of Eye 117
Appendices E-1 Hemoglobin 30 Disorders of ENT 118
Guide for Skill Test E-83 Coagulation Studies 31 Pain 119
Renal Function 31 Neurological Disorders 119
Section A Liver Function Test (Normal Values) 31 Types of Anesthesia 122
Pulmonary Function Tests 31 Hematological Disorders 122
Subject-wise Synopsis, Endocrine Function 31 Oncology 125
IBQs, Explained Questions & Blood Sugar Profile 31
Image-Based Questions 133
Practice Questions Cardiac Markers 32
Urine Routine and Microscopy 32 MCQS with Explanations 154
Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) 32 Practice Questions 197
Fundamentals of Neurological Values 32
Nursing Arterial Blood Gas Values (ABG) 32 Pharmacology
Synopsis Image-Based Questions 33 Synopsis
Introduction 4 MCQS with Explanations 40
Key Terminologies 276
Nursing in India 4 Practice Questions 70 Prodrugs 277
Code of Ethics for Nurses 4 Therapeutic Index (TI) 277
Professional Values 5 Medical Surgical Different Routes of Administration, Its
Nursing Theories 5 Nursing Advantages and Disadvantages 277
Nursing Process 6 Conversion Equivalence of Weight 278
Types of Nursing Modalities 7 Synopsis
Conversion Equivalence of Volume 278
Medical and Surgical Asepsis 8 Adult Growth and Development 96 Drug Calculation 278
Preparation of Client’s Environment 12 Stages of Death and Dying (Kubbler Ross Chemotherapeutic Agents 279
Health Assessment 13 Stages of Dying) 96 Cardiac Drugs 280
Specimen Collection 16 Therapeutic Communication 96 Drugs Acting on Central Nervous
Personal Hygiene 19 Wound Care 97 System 282
Vital Signs 20 Homeostasis 97 Sedative and Hypnotics 282
Comfort Devices 21 Anaphylaxis 98 Antipsychotic Drugs 283

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Prelims

Antidepressants 283 Concept of Well–Being 321 Defense Mechanism 413

Mood Stabilizers 284 Indicators of Health (Health Index Therapeutic Communication 414
Deaddiction Drugs 285 Indices) 321 Neurotransmitters 414
Anticonvulsants 285 Levels of Healthcare 322 Alternative Therapeutic Modalities 415
Analgesics 285 Health For All 322 Organic Mental Disorders 415
Anti-Gout Agents 286 Millennium Development Goal 322 Substance Use Disorders 416
Sympathomimetic (Adrenergic) Sustainable Development Goals Schizophrenia 418
Drugs 286 (SDG) 322
Delusions 418
Cholinergic Drugs 286 Concept of Prevention 323
Hallucinations 419
Levels of Prevention 323
Drugs Affecting the Respiratory Personality Disorders 419
System 287 Epidemiology 323
Mood Disorders 419
Drugs Acting on Gastrointestinal Incidence and Prevalence of
Somatoform Disorders 420
Tract 287 Disease 325
Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) 421
Insulin 288 Epidemiological Method 326
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Oral Hypoglycemic (Antidiabetic) Ice Berg Phenomenon 328
(PTSD) 421
Agents 288 Immunity 328
Phobia 421
Adrenocorticosteroids and Communicable Diseases 333
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Analogues 289 Arthropod-Borne Infections 337 (OCD) 421
Posterior Pituitary Hormones 289 Zoonoses 339 Adjustment Disorder 421
Calcitonin and Calcium Salts 289 Tetanus 340 Eating Disorders 421
Thyroid Drugs 289 Sexually Transmitted Diseases Seasonal Affective Disorder 422
Antithyroid Drugs 290 (STDs) 340
Sexual Disorder 422
Diuretics 290 Noncommunicable Disease 340
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) 422
Antitubercular Drugs 290 Health Programs in India 343
Childhood Psychiatric Disorders 422
Anticancer Drugs 291 Demographic Trends in India 344
Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder
Anticoagulants 291 National Population Policy 2000 345 (ADHD) 423
Thrombolytic Medications 291 Antenatal Care 345 Mental Retardation (MR) 423
Antiplatelet Drug 291 Mother and Child Health (MCH) 346 Psychopharmacology 423
Specific Antidotes Against Reproductive Child Health Programme Antidepressants 424
Poisoning 291 (RCH) 346
Mood Stabilizers 425
Disease and Drug of Choices 292 Nutrition and Health 347
Glossary of Common
Adverse Effects of Some Common Biomedical Waste Management 349 Terminologies 425
Drugs 293 Disaster Management 350
Occupational Hazards 350 Image-Based Questions 426
Drugs that are Safe and That are
Contraindicated in Pregnancy 293 Health Policy and Planning 351 MCQS with Explanations 428
Drugs Contraindicated During Health Care of the Community 353 Practice Questions 450
Breastfeeding 294 Healthcare System 353
Image-Based Questions 295 Image-Based Questions 355 Obstetric and
MCQS with Explanations 297 MCQS with Explanations 361 Gynecological Nursing
Practice Questions 308 Practice Questions 382 Synopsis
Overview of Anatomy of Female
Community Health Psychiatric Nursing Reproductive System 476
Nursing Synopsis Menstrual Cycle 477
Synopsis Fertilization 478
Introduction 410 Embryonic Period 478
Concept of Health 320 Mental Health 410 Fetal Circulation 479
Dimensions of Health 320 Mental Illness 410 Types of Pelvis 479
Concept of Disease 320 Development of Personality 410 Pelvic Diameter 479
Determinants of Health 320 Theories of Personality Fetal Skull 480
Development 411
xxxii

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Contents

Assessment 481 Congenital Anomalies of Nervous Sample and Sampling Technique 685
Prenatal Period 482 System 585 Ethics in Research 687
Intranatal Period (Intrapartum) 483 Pituitary Gland 586 Data Analysis and Interpretation 687
Different Positions and Presentations of Thyroid Gland 587 Application of Inferential Statistics 690
Fetus 485 Disorders of the Parathyroid
Stages of Labor 486 Glands 587 Image-Based Questions 693
Nursing Care During Postpartum Period The Adrenal Glands 588 Practice Questions 694
(Important Points to Remember) 487 Gonadal Hormone Disorders 590
Common Disorders of Pregnancy 489 Diabetes Mellitus 590 Nursing
Common Gynecological Disorders 491 Care of Challenged Child 591 Administration and
HIV and Pregnancy 492 Disorders of Renal System 592
Gonorrhea 492
Management
Integrated Management of Childhood
Syphilis 492 Illness 598 Synopsis
Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases
Image-Based Questions 601 Organization 712
(PID) 492
Cervical Cancer Screening 492 MCQS with Explanations 607 Management 712
Review Points 492 Practice Questions 639 Leadership 714
Material Management 714
Image-Based Questions 497 Inventory Control 715
MCQS with Explanations 505
Nursing Education
Staff Development 716
Practice Questions 529 Synopsis Quality Management 716
Nursing Audit 717
Education 664
Pediatric Nursing Indian Nursing Council 665
Norms of Staffing (SIU—Staff Inspection
Unit) 717
Synopsis Nursing Programs in India 666
Norms of (As Per Inc and TNAI) 717
Nursing Education in India 666
Teacher-Student Ratio For Nursing
Growth and Development 566 International Council of Nurses Programs As Per Indian Nursing Council
Theoretical Foundations of Personality (ICN) 666 (INC) 717
Development 569 State Nursing Councils in India 666
Neonatal Reflexes 570 Trained Nurses Association of India Practice Questions 718
Immunization Schedule 571 (TNAI) 666
Feeding In Children 572 Curriculum 666 Anatomy and
Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) Educational Objectives 666 Physiology
Procedure 573 Audio-Visual Aid 667
Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative Evaluation 670
Synopsis
(BFHI) 573
Continuing Education 671 Skeletal System 726
Behavioral Problems In Children 573
In-Service Education 671 Muscular System 728
Nursing Care of Children with Blood
Disorders 576 Nervous System 731
Image-Based Questions 672
Nursing Care of Children With Cardiovascular System 734
Practice Questions 673
Gastrointestinal Disorders 577 Hormones Secreted by Glands 738
Lymphoma 580 Hormone and Deficiency Disease 738
Care of A Child With Respiratory Nursing Research
Image-Based Questions 740
Disorders 580 Introduction 680
Acute Lower Respiratory Tract Definition 680 Practice Questions 741
Infections 580 Steps in the Quantitative Research
Care of Child with Trauma 582 Process 680 Microbiology
Burns 583 Steps in the Qualitative Research
Rule of Nines 584 Process 680 Synopsis
Childhood Poisoning 584 Research Process 680 The Normal Bacterial Flora of Human
Child Abuse 584 Research Designs 682 Body 770
Congenital Cardiac Diseases 585 Mixed Method Research 684 Staining Techniques 770

xxxiii

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Prelims

Types of Microscope 771 Commonly Used MS-Excel Shortcut 27. Tamil Nadu PSC for Maternal
Culture Media 771 Keys 816 and Child Health Officer Nursing
Biochemical Reactions 771 Common File Extensions 816 2015 959
Classification of Bacteria 772 Computer Networking 816 28. RRB Secunderabad Staff Nurse
Review Points 774 Practice Questions 819 Examination 2015 969
29. JIPMER 2013 973
Image-Based Questions 776
Practice Questions 777 Section - B 30. ESIC Chennai May 2012 978

Biochemistry and Section - C

Previous Year Papers
Nutrition 1. AIIMS New Delhi Nursing Officer Miscellaneous
Synopsis 2018 (September) (Memory Based) 827
2. AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nursing Officer General English and
Biochemistry 788 (Grade-I) 2018 (August) 831 Comprehension 985
Introduction 788 3. AIIMS Bhopal Nursing Officer 2018 General Knowledge 1007
The Cell 788 (Shift I) (Memory Based) 840 Current Affairs of 2017 1016
Transport Mechanisms 789 4. AIIMS Bhopal Nursing Officer 2018
General Intelligence and Reasoning
PH, Buffers and Acid-Base Balance 789 (Shift II) 845
Ability 1046
Enzymes and Coenzymes 790 5. AIIMS Bhopal Senior Nursing Officer
2018 851 Arithmetical and Numerical
Carbohydrates 791
6. AIIMS Bhubaneswar Nursing Officer Ability 1052
Lipids 793
2018 857
Proteins 793
7. Banaras Hindu University 2018 863
Amino Acids 793 Section D
8. Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam
Vitamins, Minerals and Electrolytes 795 Daman and Diu 2018 867
Nutrition 797 9. RUHS MSc Nursing Entrance
How to Prepare for an
Calorie 797 Examination 2018 871 Interview?
Metabolism 797 10. RAK MSc Nursing Entrance
2018 876 Interview Preparation 1061
Classification of Foods 797
11. AIIMS Raipur Nursing Officer 2017 Introduction 1061
Food Preservation Methods 798
(Shift I) 883 Significance of Interview as a Part of
Common Adulterants used in Food
Materials 799 12. AIIMS Raipur Nursing Officer 2017 Selection Process 1061
(Shift II) 887
Tests to Detect Common What Interviewers Look for and Criteria
Adulteration 799 13. AIIMS Raipur Nursing Officer 2017 of Selection in an Interview? 1061
(Shift III) 892
Practice Questions 800 Criteria of Assessment in
14. AIIMS Raipur Senior Nursing Officer
2017 897 Interviews 1062

Introduction to 15. AIIMS Raipur Nursing Tutor Essential Preparation Required to Face an
2017 901 Interview 1062
Computer and Nursing 16. Rakcon New Delhi MSc Nursing Facing an Interview 1063
Informatics Entrance Exam 2017 906
Do’s and Don’ts of an Interview 1064
Synopsis 17. Kerala PSC 2017 913
Ten Smart Tips for Managing Interview
18. AIIMS Jodhpur & Rishikesh
Basic Key Terms 812 2017 917 Stress 1064
History of Computers 812 19. PGIMER 2016 925 Interview Preparation for Nursing
Generations of Computers 812 20. AIIMS Bhopal 2016 929 Tutor/Clinical Instructor/Faculty
Classification of Computers 813 21. ESIC Delhi 2016 934 Positions 1064
Hardware and Software 813 22. GMCH Chandigarh 2016 939 Feedback Form 1066
Commonly Used Windows Shortcut 23. Banaras Hindu University 2016 944
Keys 815 Other Useful Books 1070
24. ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 (Set I) 947
Commonly Used Ms-Word Shortcut 25. ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 (Set II) 952 Nursing Next
Keys 815
26. AIIMS Staff Nurse 2016 956 Advertisement 1072
xxxiv

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Extra
EDGE

 Appendices

 Guide for Skill Test

Reviewers
The complete text of this chapter has undergone rigorous quality check by the subject experts at
several stages in order to provide you the most authentic and accurate content. Every single line
has gone through the eagle’s eye view of all the reviewers. Their names have been enlisted in the
Reviewers’ List in the initial pages of the book.

Student’s Feedback
An amazing book for all competitive examinations! Nearly 80% questions come from the book in every
examination directly or indirectly. Five stars for the content.
 —Habahook Raja D (amazon)

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Appendices

List of Appendices
1. R
ecent updates on community health Cerebrospinal fluid
20. 
nursing 21. 
Positions
2. 
Slings and splints 22. 
Instruments
Immunization
3.  Tubes and catheters
23. 
4. 
Equipments/instruments 24. 
Normal values
5. 
Acts and legislations 25. D
isease, causative organism, incubation
Decontamination of equipment and unit
6.  period, mode of transmission and clinical
7. S ome disease condition and its primary sign/ features
symptoms 26. N
orms for health personnel/centre in
8. Complications of hypertension: 5 CS community

9. 
Management of myocardial infarctions (MI) 27. 
Levels of prevention

10. 
Blood supply of heart 28. 
National immunization schedule (NIS)

11. 
Lobes of brain and their functions 29. 
Cold chain methods and equipments

12. 
Radiating pain/referred pain 30. Vaccine used to prevent diseases

13. 
Quadrants of abdomen 31. 
Demography in India

14. 
Fetal circulation and its postnatal changes 32. 
Community nutrition program

15. 
Fetal skull 33. R
eview of health programs in India, launch
year and objectives
16. 
Cranial nerves, their types and functions
34. V
itamins, functions, sources and deficiency
17. 
Types of joints in human body diseases
18. 
Endocrine glands and hormones 35. 
Health planning in India
19. 
Systemic and pulmonary circulation Frye’s ABCDE cascade for prioritizing care
36. 

Contd...


Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

37. 
Arterial blood gas 50. 
Stages of personality development
38. 
Shock: Management and solutions 51. 
EGO defense mechanisms with examples
39. 
Skeletal and skin traction 52. 
Drugs and their actions
40. 
Types of insulin 53. 
Interpretation of BMI
41. A
cute coronary syndromes and its 54. 
Neurotransmitters chart
treatment 55. 
Phases of wound healing process
42. ECG wave forms and pathological findings 56. C
onversion from celsius (°C) to
43. Glasgow coma scale fahrenheit (°F)
44. Level of spinal cord injury and associated 57. 
Classification of mental retardation
motor loss Specific antidotes against poisoning
58. 
Burns
45.  59. 
Abbreviations
46. 
Lung volumes and capacities 60. 
Drug storage temperature
47. 
Immunoglobulins and its characteristics 61. P
ositions and presentations of fetus during
48. 
Growth and development labour
49. C
omparison of components for adults,
children, and infants BLS/CPR

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Appendices

Appendices
“Words are the most powerful drug used by the mankind.”
—Rudyard Kipling

RECENT UPDATES ON COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

Update Topic Remarks
First Dengue vaccine Dengvaxia (CYD-TDV) is a live recombinant tetravalent dengue vaccine developed by Sanofi Pasteur.
It was first approved in Mexico for marketing in December 2015.
Till date (Sep 2018), India has not approved Dengvaxia for marketing in the country pending clinical trials
Mission Parivar Vikas Family planning services
(MPV) There are 145 high fertility districts (TFR ≥3) spread over 7 states in India (UP, Bihar, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh,
Jharkhand and Assam).
MPV is a strategy approach to substantially increase the access to contraceptives and family planning services in
these 145 districts.
Key points:
•• Antara program: injectable contraceptives at subcentre level in 145 focus districts
•• Incentivizing ASHAs @ Rs. 100/dose and beneficiary @ Rs. 100/dose
CHHAYA Ormeloxifene (Centchroman) is a non-hormonal, non-steroidal oral contraceptive. It is one of the selective
(Centchroman) estrogen receptor modulators.
Available in 30 mg tablet.
A single table should be taken twice a week (Sunday and Wednesday) for first 3 months and then once a weekly
(every Sunday).
First pill is taken on the 1st day of the period (or the first Sunday after first day of period).
Other barrier methods (e.g. Condom) should be used for the first month.
Pradhan Mantri PMSMA was launched on June 9, 2016.
Surakshit Matritva The objective of the program is to boost the health care facilities for pregnant women, especially the poor women.
Abhiyan (PMSMA) Women will be provided free health check-up and treatment for free on 9th day of every month. These facilities
were made available at all Government hospitals.
Mother’s Absolute MAA was launched in August 2016.
Affection (MAA) Efforts on promotion, protection and support of breast feeding practices through health services.
Components of MAA include
•• Community level interventions: capacity building
•• Health facility strengthening
•• Monitoring
Pneumonia vaccine Single largest infectious cause of death among under-five children worldwide
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in children
Hib is the second common cause of pneumonia
The recommended vaccine for pneumonia is Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV-13)
PCV is frozen sensitive vaccine. Discard if frozen.
New PCV for pneumonia was launched by Minister of Health and Family Welfare, J P Nadda at Mandi of Himachal
Pradesh in May 2017.
Measles-Rubella Intensification of 1st and 2nd dose of measles vaccination coverage was undertaken under Mission Indradhanush
Campaign from the year 2015
Measles-Rubella vaccination campaign was launched at Bangalore, Karnataka in February 2017. Started in 5 states
(Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Goa and Lakshadweep).
Rotavirus vaccine Rotavirus is the leading cause of acute severe diarrhoea in under-five children worldwide.
Rota virus vaccine was launched under Universal Immunization Programme on March 26, 2016
Launched in four states (Odisha, Himachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Haryana) in the first phase.
HPV vaccines Prevention of cervical cancer is best achieved through immunization of girls, prior to sexual debut.
3 types of HPV vaccine: Bivalent, Quadrivalent, Nonavalent HPV vaccine
New TB Drugs BEDAQUILINE and DELAMANID
Drugs Controller General (India) approved Bedaquiline 10 mg tablet (14.1.2015) and Delamanid 50 mg tablet
(2.8.2017) for the treatment of Tuberculosis under RNTCP program for treatment of TB patients with specific
indications.
E-5

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 List of Procedures
 Handwashing
Using personal protective equipments
 
 Vital signs
 Bandaging
 Basic Life Support
 Electrocardiogram (ECG)
 Oral medication
 Intradermal injection
 Intravenous cannulation (IV cannulation)
 Intramuscular injection
 Instillation of eye drops
 Instillation of ear drops
 Nasogastric tube (NG) insertion
 Nasogastric tube feeding (NG tube feeding)
 Catheter care
 Wound dressing
 Kangaroo mother care

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Guide
for
SKILL
TEST

As a recent development in recruitment of nursing officers, some yy Patient or mannequin should be in comfortable position during
hospitals including AIIMS have implemented Skill test as a qualifying and after the procedure
test to evaluate the skills of candidates on nursing procedures. yy Never expose patient more than absolutely necessary
Usually, candidates who get shortlisted after written examination are yy After each procedure clean and disinfect the articles and store
called to undergo a skill test. Since skill test is qualifying in nature, it for next use in the utility room. (This step can be stated to the
is mandatory to pass this test in order to secure appointment. examiner/observer at the end of procedure even if you are not
Skill tests are planned to evaluate the candidates on selected going to clean or disinfect)
nursing procedures on OSCE model (Objective Structured Clinical yy Demonstrate that you are communicating with patient/
Examination). Candidates are expected to perform the selected mannequin while doing the procedure
nursing procedures on mannequin or in a simulated environment.
This section describes steps of some of the common nursing
procedures which are most likely to be evaluated in skill tests. The HANDWASHING
following nursing procedures are described in this chapter.
yy Handwashing
yy Using personal protective equipments (PPE) including gowning, HANDWASHING TECHNIQUE
gloving and masking and googgles and capping Handwashing is important in every setting including hospitals.
yy Vital signs (Temperature, Pulse, Respiration, Blood Pressure) It is effective infection control measure, as it prevents spread of
yy Bandaging microorganisms.
yy Basic Life Support (BLS/CPR)
yy Electrocardiogram (ECG)
yy Oral Medication PURPOSES
yy Intradermal injection yy To remove transient and resident microorganism from fingers,
yy Intravenous injection hands and forearms.
yy Intramuscular injection yy To prevent risk of transmission of infection to patients.
yy Instillation of Eye drops yy To reduce the risk of infection to oneself.
yy Instillation of Ear drops yy To prevent cross infection among clients.
yy Nasogastric tube insertion (NG tube insertion)
yy Nasogastric tube feeding (NG tube feeding) PREPARATION OF ARTICLES AND THEIR
yy Catheter care
yy Wound dressing PURPOSES
yy Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)
Some important instructions for all procedures: Articles Purposes
yy Perform handwashing before and after each procedure. Even if Soap in soap Soap contains antibacterial agent and has a
the skill station does not have the facility for handwashing, you dish lasting bacteriostatic effect
must state that handwashing to be performed before doing this
procedure and at the end of the procedure. Nail brush To clean nails
yy Arrange all articles required for the procedure, check it is in good
working condition before start performing the procedure. Running To rinse soap and thoroughly wash hands
yy Explain the procedure, purpose and ask willingness of patient water
to cooperate even when the procedure is being performed with Towel To dry hands
mannequin.
yy Patent’s mental and physical comfort is always to be considered

This section is the compilation of Important Procedures which have been taken from the books National Institute of Nursing Education (NINE’s) Clinical
Nursing Procedures and Principles and Procedures of Nursing Foundations by Sushma Pandey. For details of these books refer page no 1070 and 1071
We sincerely acknowledge them for their contribution.

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Skill Test

STEPS OF PROCEDURE AND RATIONALE

Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

Steps Rationale
File the nails short. Ensure that the nails are free of nail polish Short nails are less likely to harbor resident and transient
microorganisms
Remove all jewellery and wrist watch Microorganisms can be inside the watch or jewelry. Removal
facilitates proper cleaning of hands and arms
Turn on the water to adjust the flow so that water is lukewarm Warm water removes less of the protective oil of the skin than hot
water
Medical asepsis: Wet the hands thoroughly by holding the hands To allow water to flow from least contaminated area to most
lower than the elbows so that the water flows from arms to the contaminated area
finger tips
Surgical hand washing: Wet hands and forearms liberally, keeping To allow water to flow from least contaminated area to most
arms and hands above elbow level during the entire procedure contaminated area. Water runs by gravity from finger tips to
elbows
Apply liberal amounts of soap into hands and lather hands and Soap emulsifies the oil and lowers surface tension of water,
arms using hand brushes facilitates removal of dust, microorganisms and oil
Thoroughly wash and rinse the hands using firm rubbing and The circular action helps to remove the microorganism
circular movements to wash the palm, back and wrist of each mechanically
hand
Turn off the water tap using a paper towel or using the elbow Handle is contaminated. Use of paper towel or an elbow prevents
contamination of washed hands
Dry arms from fingers to wrist to forearms Drying helps to remove moisture. Drying from cleaner to least
clean area prevents contamination

Seven Steps of Handwashing is Depicted below in Figure 1

Fig. 1: Seven steps of handwashing

E-86
This section is the compilation of Important Procedures which have been taken from the books National Institute of Nursing Education (NINE’s) Clinical
Nursing Procedures and Principles and Procedures of Nursing Foundations by Sushma Pandey. For details of these books refer page no 1070 and 1071
We sincerely acknowledge them for their contribution.

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Skill Test

USING PERSONAL PROTECTIVE INDICATIONS FOR DONNING FACE MASK

Guide for Skill Test

EQUIPMENTS (FIG. 4)
yy To minimize the risk for splashes/sprays of blood or body fluids
INTRODUCTION into face and eye of health care personnel.
yy To prevent transmission of air borne and droplet diseases.
Personal protective equipment (PPE) as defined by the Occupational
yy To prevent transmission of respiratory tract infection.
Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is “specialized clothing or
equipment, worn by an employee for protection against infectious
materials”.
PPE includes:
yy Disposable gowns
yy Disposable gloves
yy Eye protection device
yy Face masks
yy Shoe cover

PURPOSES
yy To prevent dispersal of droplets from wearer to environment and
patient. Fig. 4: Face mask
yy To prevent contamination of sterile field.
yy To enhance easy handling of sterile equipments.
INDICATIONS FOR DONNING SURGICAL
INDICATIONS FOR DONNING SURGICAL GLOVES (FIG. 5)
CAP (FIGS 2A AND B) yy Before surgery.
yy Before wound dressing.
To minimize the risk of hair falling into the sterile area during yy While dealing with IV fluids.
surgery. yy While suctioning.
yy Before any invasive procedure.
yy While handling medical waste.
yy When cleaning up spills of blood or body fluids.
yy When using chemicals.

A B

Figs 2A and B: Surgical cap

INDICATIONS FOR DONNING GOGGLES

(FIG. 3)
To prevent blood or any body fluid spillage into eyes.

Fig. 5: Surgical gloves

INDICATIONS FOR DONNING SURGICAL

GOWN (FIG. 6)
yy To maintain aseptic condition by blocking the transfer of harmful
microorganisms and chemicals to and from the patient.
yy To reduce the transfer of bacteria from the skin of health care
personnel to the air in the working unit.
yy To reduce the transfer of bacteria from the skin of patient to
Fig. 3: Goggles health care personnel.

E-87
This section is the compilation of Important Procedures which have been taken from the books National Institute of Nursing Education (NINE’s) Clinical
Nursing Procedures and Principles and Procedures of Nursing Foundations by Sushma Pandey. For details of these books refer page no 1070 and 1071
We sincerely acknowledge them for their contribution.

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

A Section
SUBJECT-WISE SYNOPSIS, IBQs,
EXPLAINED QUESTIONS &
PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1 Fundamentals of Nursing
2 Medical Surgical Nursing
3 Pharmacology
4 Community Health Nursing
5 Psychiatric Nursing
6 Obstetric and Gynecological Nursing
7 Pediatric Nursing
8 Nursing Education
9 Nursing Research
10 Nursing Administration and Management
11 Anatomy and Physiology
12 Microbiology
13 Biochemistry and Nutrition
14 Introduction to Computer and Nursing Informatics

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 1
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING

Reviewers
The complete text of this chapter has undergone rigorous quality check by the subject experts at
several stages in order to provide you the most authentic and accurate content. Every single line
has gone through the eagle’s eye view of all the reviewers. Their names have been enlisted in the
Reviewers’ List in the initial pages of the book.

Subject Outline
Synopsis : 38 (3 New Topics Added)
Image-Based Questions with Explanations (O) : 34
MCQs with Explanations : 296 Qs (90 New Qs Added)
Practice Questions : 590 Qs (109 New Qs Added)

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Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “Nurses are the heart of health care.”
—Donn Wilk Caudill

Fundamentals of Nursing

SYNOPSIS
INTRODUCTION yy The fundamental responsibility of the nurse is in four areas
namely, to promote health, to prevent illness, to restore health,
yy Florence Nightingale, also known as the “Lady with the lamp,” and to alleviate suffering.
was a philosopher and founder of modern nursing.
yy She was born in Florence, Italy on May 12, 1820 and died on
August 13, 1910.
LEGAL AND ETHICAL ASPECTS IN
yy Every year, International Nurses Day is celebrated on 12th May. NURSING PRACTICE
Torts
NURSING IN INDIA yy It is a wrongful act committed against a person or property. Torts
yy 1908, The Trained Nurses Association of India (TNAI) was formed. may be classified as Intentional and Unintentional torts.
yy In 1871, the first School of Nursing was started in Government
General Hospital, Madras (now Chennai) with 6 months Diploma Intentional Torts
in Midwives program. A purposeful act that violate another person’s rights
yy In 1926, Madras State (now Tamil Nadu) formed the first yy Assault: It is an act of unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily
registration council to provide basic standards in education and injury to another. E.g. Threaten to give injection without consent.
training. yy Battery: It is any unlawful or intentional touching of a person
yy In 1946, the first four year bachelor’s degree program was without consent that may or may not cause harm.
established at the RAK College of Nursing in Delhi and Christian yy Invasion of privacy: It is a unwanted intrusion into person’s
Medical College (CMC), Vellore. private affairs.
yy The Indian Nursing Council Act was passed by ordinance on yy Defamation of character: It is communication of false statements
December 31, 1947. that result in damage to the reputation of a person. There are two
yy Nursing Council Act came to existence in 1948 to constitute a types of defamation. It includes:
council of nurses.  Libel: This type of defamation can take place in the form of
yy In 1960, the first master’s degree course, a two-year postgraduate print, writing or picture
program was started at the RAK College of Nursing, Delhi.  Slander (Oral): Defamation occurs in the form of spoken
words or false words.
yy Fraud: It is a deliberate deception intended to secure unfair or
CODE OF ETHICS FOR NURSES unlawful gain.
yy Code of ethics serves as a means of self-regulation and set the yy Intrusion: It is an act of invasion into another person’s private
standard of individual behaviour for the profession. Professional affairs.
codes of ethics are a system of rules and principles for its members yy Public disclosure: It is an act of revealing or some information
and adhere to the professional practice standards. about a person’s private life.
yy The Nurses code was first established by the International yy Malice: person knows information is false and still publish it.
Council of Nurses Codes in 1953. The ICN code of ethics for yy Appropriation: It refers use of a person’s name or image for
nurses, most recently revised in the year 2012. unauthorized commercial use without his/her knowledge.
yy Four principle elements of ICN code of ethics:
Unintentional Torts
1. Nurses and people
2. Nurses and practice yy Negligence: It is an act or conduct that falls below the standard
3. Nurses and the profession of care. The standard is established by law for the protection of
4. Nurses and co-workers. others against an unreasonably great risk of harm.

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 IBQs

Image-Based Questions

Chapter 1  Fundamentals of Nursing

1. The response shown by the adult in the following picture 4. Name the maneuver
is

a. Flexor planter reflex b. Babinski reflex a. Semont maneuver b. Heimlich maneuver

c. Ankle reflex d. Tow reflex c. Epley maneuver d. Chock maneuver

2. The response shown by the adult in the following picture 5. The patient is being assessed for
is

Ans.
a. Extensor plantar reflex 1. a
b. Babinski reflex a. Radial pulse b. Femoral pulse
c. Carotid pulse d. Tibial pulse 2. c
c. Both a and b are correct
d. Flexor plantar reflex 3. c
4. b
5. c
3. The physician is examining the patient’s abdomen to 6. Name the instrument in the following image 6. b
diagnose possible ________

a. Cullen’s sign b. Ulcerative colitis a. Patient sling b. Patient hoist

c. Appendicitis d. Diverticulitis c. Recline lift d. Patient Walker

33

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “Confidence and hope do more than the physician.”
—Galen

MCQs with Explanations

1. Following are clinical features of organophosphorus Management for SIU recommended nurse-patient ratio for all the
poisoning, except (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) areas.
a. Hyperventilation b. Salivation
c. Pinpoint pupil d. Bronchospasms 5. Time limit for registering birth is within:
(AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
Explanation: The typical toxidrome in organophosphate (OP) a. 21 days
poisoning comprises of the Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, b. 10 days
Defecation, Gastric cramps, Emesis (SLUDGE) symptoms. c. 14 days
The organophosphorus poisoning compounds cause an acute d. 7 days
cholinergic syndrome by inhibit esterase enzyme; in particular
acetylcholinesterase (AChE) that results in excessive acetylcholine Explanation: The registration of births and deaths act passed in
and cholinergic overstimulation which is characterized by respiratory 1969, for the regulation of registration of births and deaths and for
depression (hypoventilation, respiratory failure), unconsciousness, matters connected therewith. The normal period of 21 days (from the
sweating, pin point pupil and many other symptoms. date of occurrence) has been prescribed for reporting the birth, death
and still birth events.
2. Nursing audit is used to: (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Assess quality of nursing care 6. The method used for administering medication into the ear
b. Plan for nursing staff is called: (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
c. Assess money transactions for nursing care a. Instillation
d. Assess cost-effective care b. Injection
c. Inhalation
Explanation: Nursing audit is a method which systematically d. Infiltration
examine the quality of nursing care (Elison).
Explanation: Instillation is the terms used for administration of
3. Which of the following is NOT included in the features of medication into the ear. Injection refers to parenteral administration
collective bargaining? (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) of medication using a needle. Inhalation refers to administration of
a. Group activity b. Building relationship drugs that are gases or those are dispersed in an aerosol. Infiltration
c. Staff appraisal d. Flexibility refers to administration of drugs that results in drugs passing into
tissue spaces or into cells
Explanation: Collective bargaining is a process of negotiation
between employer and group of employees for an agreement regulate 7. Your patient says that he “urinates at night” and it is
working salaries, rights, conditions and other aspects of work. So, affecting his daytime alertness. You would document this as:
collective bargaining is a flexible group activity. Staff appraisal is the (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
different terminology which is used for a regular review of employee’s a. Oliguria
job performance. b. Nocturia
c. Dysuria
4. Ideal ratio of nurse to patient in an ICU is:
d. Polyuria
(AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. 2: 1 b. 1: 2 Explanation: Nocturia or nocturnal polyuria is defined as the need
c. 1: 1 d. 1:3 to wake (one or more times) and pass urine at night. It should be
distinguished from enuresis, where urine is passed unintentionally
Explanation: As per the INC and SIU norms, the nurse to patient
during sleep.
ratio in ICU should be 1:1. Refer to the synopsis of Nursing

Answer
46.
1. a.
c. Mature pincer grasp
Hyperventilation 47.
2. a. Assess
Atrial Septal
quality
defect
of 48.
3. c. Staff appraisal
Sitting
49.
4. a.
c. Erikson
1: 1 50.
5. a.
c. 21
Metabolic
days acidosis 51.
6. d.
a. If baby is not satisfied .........
Instillation
52.
7. b. Toddler
Nocturia 53. b. Parallel play 54. d. All of the above
55. c. Hypocalcaemia 56. a. Phenobarbitone 57. b. Grade 2
40

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 MCQs
with Expl...

8. Yellow colour code is used for which type of hospital waste? 11. Regarding the request of organ and tissue donation at the

Chapter 1  Fundamentals of Nursing

(AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) time of death, the nurse needs to be aware that
a. Body parts (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
b. Glassware a. Requests are usually made by the nurse who case for the
c. Plastic patient at time of death
d. Sharps b. Professionals need to be very selective in whom they ask
for organ and tissue donation
Explanation: According to Indian Society of Hospital waste c. Specially educated personnel make requests
management (ISHWM- July, 2018), Yellow color coded container is d. only patients who have given prior instruction regarding
used to dispose the Cat 1, 2, 3 and cat 6 waste (Human and animal donation become donors
waste, microbial and biological waste, and soiled waste).
Explanation: Regarding the request of organ and tissue donation
9. A positive tuberculin test is indicated by induration of:
at the time of death, Individuals specially trained in requesting
a. 1-3 mm in diameter
organ donations facilitate the process. They are skilled in taking
b. 10 mm or more in diameter
compassionately to people who are suffered a tragic, sudden loss
c. 7-9 mm in diameter
and have answers to many questions that people have regarding the
d. 4-6 mm in diameter
donation process.
Explanation: Tuberculin skin test is one of the important and widely 12. Which among the following is a complication of spinal
used test for the diagnosis of Tuberculosis (TB). One ml of Purified anesthesia? (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
Protein Derivative (PPD) will be injected intradermally and will read a. Tachycardia b. Hypotension
48 to 72 hours later. The result will be depending upon the medical c. Hypertension d. Dyspnea
risk factors and sites of induration.
5 mm or more is positive in Explanation: The most common neurological complications after
yy HIV positive person spinal anesthesia are postural puncture headache and hypotension.
yy Recent contact with active TB cases Hypotension after spinal anesthesia is a physiological consequence
yy Person with nodular or fibrotic changes in chest x-ray of sympathetic blockade
yy Organ transplant recipients and other immunosuppressed 13. An immunologic reaction to a drug to which a person has
patients.
already been sensitized is known as:
yy Patient on long term systemic corticosteroid therapy.  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
yy End Stage Renal Disease a. Drug tolerance b. Drug allergy
10 mm is positive in
c. Drug toxicity d. Drug intolerance
yy Recent arrival from high prevalence country
yy IV drug abusers Explanation: A drug allergy is the abnormal reaction of the immune
yy Residence and employers of high risk congregate settings. system to a medication.
yy Mycobacterial lab personnel
Drug tolerance refers to patient’s reduced reaction to a drug
yy Person with clinical conditions that place them high risk. eg.
following its repeated use. Drug intolerance or drug sensitivity refers
diabetes, leukemia, LBW, ESRD.
to an inability to tolerate the adverse effects of a medication.
yy Children less than 4 years of age.
15 mm or more is positive in Drug toxicity refers to gradual accumulation of too much of a drug
yy Person with no known risk for TB in the blood stream.

10. An example of an objective data is: 14. Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) leadership? (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Feeling of worry a. In autocratic leadership style, there is centralized decision
b. Discoloration of the skin making
c. Itching b. Leaders always do things right and can’t do the right thing
d. Nausea c. Suggestion boxes are considered for downward
communication
Explanation: Objective data are measurable and overt data (“signs”) d. Decision is made, and then choose a preferred course of
obtained through observations, physical examination and diagnostic action
examinations. Whereas subjective data are the information from
patient’s point of views (“symptoms”) including feelings, perceptions Explanation: Autocratic leadership also known as authoritarian
and concerns obtained through interview. leadership is a leadership style characterized by individual control
over all decisions and on the group members.

Answer
8. a. Body parts 9. b. 10 mm or more... 10. b. Discoloration of the skin
11. c. Specially educated personnel.. 12. b. Hypotension 13. b. Drug allergy
14. a. In autocratic leadership style..

41

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “Fasting is a natural method of Healing.”
—Paramahansa Yogananda

Practice Questions

1. In triage, yellow color indicates:  (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 12. The color of bag in which the infectious solid wastes are
a. Emergent b. Urgent disposed is: (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
c. Nonurgent d. Dead a. Red b. Black
2. An intentional touching of the patient’s body without consent c. Blue d. Yellow
is termed:  (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 13. The compression to ventilation ratio in CPR in case of single
a. Negligence b. Assault rescuer is: (DSSSB PHN, 2015; LNJP H D 2012)
c. Battery d. Malpractice a. 5:2 b. 15:2
3. Abnormal lateral deviation of vertebral column is:  c. 30:2 d. 2:30
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 14. One tablespoon is equal to: (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
a. Lordosis b. Kyphosis a. 5 ml b. 15 ml
c. Scoliosis d. Osteoporosis c. 30 ml d. 20 ml
4. The paralysis of both upper and lower extremities is known 15. The preferred site for giving IM injection to infants is:
as: (DSSSB PHN, 2015)  (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
Ans.
a. Hemiplegia b. Paraplegia a. Gluteal
1. b c. Monoplegia d. Quadriplegia b. Deltoid
2. c 5. Chvostek’s sign is an indication of: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) c. Vastus Lateralis
3. c a. Hypernatremia b. Hypercalcemia d. Umbilicus
c. Hyponatremia d. Hypocalcemia
4. d 16. What should be the temperature of water used for cold
6. The position to be maintained for a patient with increased sponging? (RRB SSNE 2015)
5. d
ICP is:  (DSSSB PHN, 2015) a. 98° F b. 105° F
6. a a. Fowler’s position b. Trendelenburg’s position c. 70° F d. 0°F
7. a c. Side lying d. Supine position
17. An agent which kills pathogenic bacteria is called:
8. a 7. The pressure set in autoclave for sterilization is:  (RRB SSNE 2015)
9. c  (DSSSB PHN, 2015) a. Asepsis b. Disinfectant
a. 15 lb b. 5 lb
10. a c. Fomite d. Bacteriostat
c. 10 lb d. 20 lb
11. d 18. The symptoms of severe dehydration in an adult include all
8. In lumbar puncture, the needle is inserted between:
12. d of the following except: (Banaras HU 2015)
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
a. Decreased thirst b. Dizziness
13. c a. L3-L4 b. Ll-L2
c. Weakness d. Palpitations
14. b c. L4-L5 d. L2-L3
19. Which of the following nursing intervention can prevent
15. c 9. The apex beat is felt at which intercostal space?
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015) increase of intracranial pressure (ICP) in an unconscious a
16. c child? (Banaras HU 2015)
a. 3rd b. 4th
17. b c. 5th d. 6th a. Avoid activities that cause pain or crying
18. a b. Lower the position of head (Trendelenburg position)
10. The fasting blood sugar value is: (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
c. Provide environmental stimulation
19. a a. 70-110 mg% b. 50-90 mg%
d. Turn head side to side every hour
20. c c. 120-180 mg% d. 180-200 mg%
20. Inoculating loop is sterilized by: (Banaras HU 2015)
11. Bleeding from the nose is termed: (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
a. Hot air oven
a. Hyperemesis
b. Autoclave
b. Hemoptysis
c. Flaming
c. Hematemesis
d. Epistaxis d. Radiation

70

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 2
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING

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Subject Outline
Synopsis : 25 (3 New Topics Added)
Image-Based Questions with Explanations (O) : 34
MCQs with Explanations : 397 Qs (73 New Qs Added)
Practice Questions : 1890 Qs (107 New Qs Added)

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Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “Food that is good for the heart is likely to be good for the brain.”
—Hipprocrates

Medical Surgical Nursing

SYNOPSIS
ADULT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION
yy Theories of growth and development: According to Erik yy A therapeutic communication facilitates nursing care based on
Erikson’s psychosocial theory, developmental stages of human are patient needs
 Trust versus Mistrust (birth to 18 months) yy It enhances patient’s coping skills by helping patient to actively
 Autonomy versus Shame and doubt (18 months to 3 years) participate towards recovery from illness.
 Initiative versus Guilt (3–5 years) yy It can promote healing.
 Industry versus Inferiority (5–12 years)
 Identity versus Role confusion (12–18 years)
 Intimacy versus Isolation (18 to 25 years)
THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION
 Generativity versus Stagnation (25–60 years) TECHNIQUES
 Ego integrity versus Despair (above 60 years of age).
Technique Description
Broad opening Broad opening statements facilitate the
STAGES OF DEATH AND DYING patient to talk about and focus on whatever
is the priority at the moment.
(KUBBLER ROSS STAGES OF DYING) Clarifying Seeking clarification when the nurse is in
doubt as to the client’s statement
STAGES (DABDA) Concreteness Seeking more information from the client by
yy Denial: Shock, doubt and disbelief about the loss are the primary asking additional questions (For example,
response. what, why, how, where, etc.) to make the
yy Anger: Characterized by anger often towards others. This stage is client aware of the situation.
often very short-lived.
Confrontation Notifying the clients about the discrepancies
yy Bargaining: When denial and anger fail to work, people make
in their communication. For example,
an effort to bargain for a better outcome rather than a current
patient says “I am feeling happy”. The
situation.
nurse confronts saying that “you say you
yy Depression: When it becomes obvious that the loss/death is
feel happy but your expressions shows
obvious, people feel depressed characterized by persistent sadness.
otherwise”
This stage is important one to go through. If a person is able to
complete the stage of depression successfully, the acceptance will Empathy Nurse understands the feelings of client
follow. by putting herself temporarily in client’s
yy Acceptance: In this stage, the person gradually and peacefully position.
accepts death. He quietly expects the arrival of death. Focusing Assist the client direct his/her attention to
particular point or goal.
NURSING MANAGEMENT Reflection Paraphrasing what the patient has said
yy Assist the client make final plans towards death. something.
yy Encourage reminiscence Silence Be silent and allow a pause in the
yy Help the client in validation of self-image. communication to gather information.
yy Use touch as a communication tool if it is acceptable to the client. Silence also facilitates the client to speak
yy Provide spiritual support. when they are ready.

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 IBQs

Image-Based Questions

Chapter 2  Medical Surgical Nursing

1. Identify this instrument 4. Identify the following instrument

a. Jolly’s retractor
a. Laryngeal mask airway
b. Morris retractor
b. Nasal pranx
c. Langenback retractor
c. Endotracheal tube
d. Thompson liver retractor
d. Single lumen airway

2. Identify the name of the tube 5. Identify the PR interval in the given ECG strip

a. Freka tube a. 0.12

b. 0.18 Ans.
b. Nasogastric tube
c. Sengstaken Blakemore tube c. 0.24 1. b
d. Linton Blackmore tube d. 0.40 2. c
3. a
4. a
5. c
3. Identify the equipment 6. What is the name of this catheter? 6. d

‘
a. Foley b. Mallecots
a. Chest tube drainage system
c. Seldinger d. Fogarty
b. Penrose drainage system
c. Surgery wound drainage
d. Tru-close drainage system
133

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “He who laughs, lasts.”
—Victor Borge

MCQs with Explanations

NERVOUS SYSTEM by radial nerve, ulnar nerve and median nerve. PS: The question is
1. Which of the following signs in a child with meningitis is about muscle innervations (not cutaneous innervations). Cutaneous
characterised by pain or resistance on extending the legs at innervations of forearm is supplied by musculocutaneous nerve.
the knee when the child is lying supine? 
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) Nerve Origin Muscle Cutaneous
a. Brudzinski innervation Innervation
b. Kernig’s Radial nerve Brachial Plexus: Posterior arm Posterior arm
c. Macewen Posterior Cord Posterior fore- and forearm;
d. Chovstek’s (C5-C8, T1) arm dorsal aspect
of hand ex-
Explanation: Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, is a life cept the last
threatening illness. Kernig’s sign (flexing the patient’s hip 90 degree two digits,
then extending the patients knee causes pain) and Brudzinski’s sign central dorsal
(flexing the patient’s neck causes flexion of the patient’s hips and forearm
knees) are clinical signs facilitate the diagnosis of meningitis.
Ulnar nerve Brachial Plexus: The flexor car- Medial 1/3 of
2. All of the following measures are used to decrease brain Medial Cord pi ulnaris and hand, both
edema, Except  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) (C8-T1, C7) medial half dorsal and
a. Hydrocortisone of the flexor palmer
b. Hyperventilation digitorum pro-
c. Dextrose infusion fundus
d. Mannitol infusion
Median Brachial Plexus: Anterior fore- Lateral 2/3 of
Explanation: Movement of the water between the brain and nerve Lateral / Me- arm, Thenar palm and fin-
intravascular space is dependent on osmotic gradients. Mannitol, a dial Cords (C6- muscles gertips, parts
hypertonic crystalloid solution is commonly used to reduce the ICP. T1, C5) of anterior
But the hypo-osmolar solutions like 5% dextrose in water reduce forearm
serum sodium, and increases brain water and ICP. Musculo- Brachial Plexus: Anterior up- Anteriolateral
cutaneous Lateral Cord perarm forarm
3. The following nerves supply to the muscles of the forearm
nerve (C5-C7)
EXCEPT :
a. Musculocutaneous nerve 4. The plexus that supply nerves to the skin and muscles of the
b. Redial nerve upper limbs and some of the chest muscles is: 
c. Median nerve  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
d. Ulnar nerve a. Cervical plexus b. Brachial plexus
c. Lumbar plexus d. Sacral plexus
Explanation: The major peripheral nerve of upper arm is
musculocutaneous nerve which innervates the anterior compartment Explanation: Cervical plexus supply nerves to the back of the head
muscles (brachialis, bicep brachii and coracobrachialis) of upper arm and some neck muscles. Lumbar plexus supply nerves to the vascular
and gives rise to lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm which innervate lacuna near the saphenous hiatus and supplies the skin below the
lateral surfaces of the forearm. But the muscles of forearm ( Flexor inguinal ligament. Sacral plexus supply nerves to the skin and
carpi ulnaris, Flexor carpi radialis, pronator teres etc. ) innervated muscles of the pelvis and lower limb.
Answer
1. b. Kernig’s 2. 2.
1. c. Dextrose infusion 3. a.3. Musculocutaneous nerve
4.4. b. Brachial plexus 5. 6.
7. 8. 9.

154

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 MCQs
with Expl...

5. Malformation of the spine in which the posterior portion

Chapter 2  Medical Surgical Nursing

Explanation: Based on GCS table,
of the lamina of one or more vertebrae fails to fuse, with or yy Eye opening on painful stimuli- 2 points
without defective development of the spinal cord is called:- yy Inappropriate words- 3 points
 (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017) yy Obeys commands to motor response- 6 points
a. Rachischisis b. Encephalocele
c. Spina bifida d. Anencephaly
10. Uncoordinated movement of the extremities in a patient
Explanation: Rachischisis is a developmental birth defect with a traumatic brain injury is termed as
involving the neural tube which occurs in utero, when the a. Ataxia
posterior neuropore of the neural tube fails to close by the 27th b. Apraxia
intrauterine day. Encephalocele/cranium bifidum are neural c. Dystonia
tube defect characterized by sac-like protrusions of the brain d. Dyskinesia
and the membranes that cover it through openings in the skull.
Anencephaly is the absence of a major portion of the brain, Explanation: The word ‘ataxia’ means without coordination.
skull, and scalp which occurs during embryonic development. The ataxia is often used to describe symptoms of incoordination
In spina bifida, vertebral column is incompletely formed or absent. which can be associated with infections, injuries, other diseases, or
It can be of two types, spina bifida occulta and spina bifida cystica. degenerative changes in the central nervous system. Clients with
In occulta, skin is intact and there is overlying sac but there is a bony ataxia have problems with coordination because parts of the nervous
vertebral arch defect. Rachischisis is a severe form of spina bifida system that control movement and balance are affected. Ataxia may
cystica. In spina bifida cystica, both vertebral defect and a visible sac affect the fingers, hands, arms, legs, body, speech, and eye movements.
on the back will be there.
11. Which of the following function will be affected due to an
6. Inability to carryout normal activities despite intact motor obstruction of the anterior cerebral arteries
function is:-  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017) a. Auditory perception.
a. Anhedonia b. Apraxia b. Judgement, insight, and reasoning
c. Apathy d. Amnesia c. Balance and coordination
d. Visual integration from language comprehension
Explanation: Anhedonia is inability to experience pleasure.
Apathy is a state of indifference or suppression of emotions. Explanation: The medial and anterior portions of the frontal
Amnesia is deficit in memory caused by brain damage or disease lobes are supplied by the anterior cerebral arteries. The anterior
and psychological trauma. Apraxia is inability to execute complete portion of the frontal lobe controls higher mental functions such as
coordinated movement without muscular or sensory impairment. It
judgement, insight and reasoning. Hence, the obstruction of blood
occurs because of the underlying brain damage.
supply to anterior portion of the frontal lobe results in impairment of
7. What should be the initial action of a medical-surgical nurse judgement, insight and reasoning.
if a patient develops ‘slurred speech and disorientation to
12. Which of the following score indicates coma in an adult
time and place’ who sustained a head injury 24 hours ago?
patient as per Glasgow Coma Scale
a. Recheck the patient’s neurologic status in 15 minutes
a. 0
b. Prepare the patient for emergency surgery
b. 5
c. Continue to hourly neurologic assessments
c. 9
d. Inform the neurosurgeon of the patient’s status
d. 12
Explanation: Change in the level of consciousness need to be
informed the concerned doctor first. Explanation: A score below 8 in Glasgow Coma Scale indicates
Coma. 15 is the maximum score and 3 is the minimum achievable
8. What should the nurse do first when a male client is having a score. Zero score is not applicable as per GCS.
tonic-clonic seizure?  (AIIMS Bhopal Nursing officer, 2018)
a. Restrain the client’s arms and legs 13. Depolarization of axolemma during nerve conduction takes
b. Elevate the head of the bed place because (DSSSB 2010)
c. Place a tongue blade in the client’s mouth a. More Na+ outside
d. Take measures to prevent injury b. Equal amount of Na+ and K+ move out across axolemma
c. Na+ move inside and K+ move more outside
Explanation: If any person is experiencing tonic clonic seizure most d. None of the above
appropriate nursing intervention is to ensure measures to prevent injury.
Explanation: The axolemma is the cell membrane surrounding an
9. A person present in emergency. On examination he is found axon. Sodium channels open when the threshold potential is reached,
to open eyes only on painful stimuli, he says inappropriate facilitating a rapid influx of sodium into the axolemma interior and
words and moves his limbs on commands. His GCS is producing depolarization. Option C refers to sodium influx (move
a. 11 b. 10
inside).
c. 9 d. 13
Answer
5. a. Rachischisis
1. 6. b. Apraxia
2. 7. d. Inform the neurosurgeon
3.
4.
8. d. Take measures to prevent... 5.
9. a. 11 10.
6.
a. Ataxia
11.
7.
b. Judgment, insight, and.... 12.
8.
b. 5 13.
9.
c. Na+ move inside and...

155

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 “Nature, time and patience are the three great physicians.”
—HG Bohn

Practice Questions

9. History and physical examination of a client will help the

HEALTH ASSESSMENT
nurse in …………….
1. The reason why lipstick and nail-polish is removed before a. Evaluation of the therapy
surgery is: (RRB SSNE 2015) b. Health teaching
a. Surgery becomes easier c. Assessment
b. Surgery becomes more successful d. Nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems
c. Psychological benefits to the patient
10. Patient’s health is determined based upon ……………..
d. Cyanosis is checked
a. Behavior b. Family support
2. Blood drawn for complete blood count (CBC) is collected in: c. Knowledge d. Education
 (Banaras HU 2015)
11. Characteristic of a chronic illness is ……………………
a. EDTA vial b. Plain vial
a. Has reversible pathologic changes.
c. Citrate vial d. Chloride vial
b. Has a predictable clinical course and prognosis.
3. Mantoux test is the sensitivity test for: c. Results in permanent deviation from normal.
 (Staff Nurse G II 2014) Ans.
d. Always starts with an acute illness and then gradually
a. AIDS b. Bronchial asthma deteriorates 1. d
c. Allergic disorders d. Tuberculosis 2. a
12. Health promotion in the older adult are primarily focused
4. Electroencephalogram is: (ESIC Chennai May 2012) on ……………… 3. d
a. Recording of brain wave activity a. Adherence to medication 4. a
b. Recording of peristalsis 5. b
b. Avoid smoking
c. Recording of heart activity 6. d
c. Teaching positive health behaviors
d. None of the above 7. b
d. Talking to others
5. All of the following scales are used to assess risk for pressures 8. b
13. Stress is always ………………... of the client 9. d
sore in patients EXCEPT
a. Adaptation b. Life style 10. a
a. Waterlow scale b. Broset scale
c. Perception d. Tolerance 11. c
c. Norton scale d. Braden’s scale
14. Xerostomia means 12. c
6. Tonometry is the method of measuring (ISRO)
a. Dryness of conjunctiva 13. c
a. Blood pressure in children
b. Dry mouth 14. b
b. Blood pressure in elderly
c. Foot pressure c. Yellowish plaques that occur most commonly near the inner 15. a
d. Intraocular pressure canthus of the eyelid 16. c
d. Fatty growths develop underneath the skin
7. When an elderly patient complains of pain, the attending
nurse should be careful because  (ISRO) 15. Xerophthalmia refers to
a. Elderly patients are expected to experience chronic pain a. Dryness of conjunctiva
b. Elderly patients experience reduced sensory perception b. Dry mouth
c. Elderly patients have indifferent pain threshold c. Yellowish plaques that occur most commonly near the inner
d. Elderly patients have altered mental function canthus of the eyelid
d. Fatty growths develop underneath the skin
8. The most important finding which causes concern during
examination of a patient in the emergency department 16. Xanthelasma refers to
 (ISRO) a. Dryness of conjunctiva
a. Difficulty in arousing the patient b. Dry mouth
b. Oxygen saturation at room air of 93% c. Yellowish plaques that occur most commonly near the inner
c. Respiratory rate of 12/minute canthus of the eyelid
d. Peripheral cyanosis d. Fatty growths develop underneath the skin

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 3
PHARMACOLOGY

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 “Wherever the art of medicine is loved, there is also a love of humanity.”
—Hippocrates

Pharmacology

SYNOPSIS
KEY TERMINOLOGIES yy The time of the onset of drug action is determined by the time
taken by the drug to reach to the site of action. It is largely
yy Pharmacology: It is derived from Greek word ‘pharmacon’ which controlled by:
means drugs and ‘logos’ which means study or knowledge. It is  Route of administration
the scientific study of the origin, nature, chemistry, effects and  Rate of absorption
uses of drugs.  Manner of distribution
yy Drug/Medications: Any chemical substance which affects yy Bioavailability: It is a measure of fraction of administered drug
living systems. French word ‘drogue’ means ‘dry herb.’ – used for that reaches the systemic circulation in the unchanged form.
treatment of disease, for the prevention of illness of pathologic yy First Pass Metabolism: It is the metabolism of a drug at the site
states and for diagnosing disease condition. of absorption during its passage from the site of absorption into
yy Chemotherapy: Therapeutic treatment of various local or the systemic circulation. All orally administered drugs undergo
systemic infections or malignancies by using various drugs or first pass metabolism. Drugs administered through sublingual,
chemicals is called chemotherapy. transdermal and parenteral routes does not undergo firstpass
yy Pharmacognosy: The branch of pharmacology dealing with the metabolism (bypasses portal circulation)
economic, biological and chemical aspects of natural drugs and yy Agonist: These are the drugs which bind to the receptor and
their constituents. Study of the sources of drugs and the physical produce same biological effect as that of the receptor.
characteristics of crude or unrefined drugs. E.g. Plants. yy Antagonist: These are the drugs which oppose the action of the
yy Pharmacodynamics is the effect that drugs have on the body receptor or an agonists.
(what drug does to the body). yy Antidote: A drug which can counteract a form of poisoning. E.g.
yy Pharmacokinetics is the study of the way in which drugs move Atropine is an antidote to organophosphorus poisoning.
through the body during absorption, distribution, metabolism yy Lethal Dose 50 (LD50): Standard measure of the toxicity of a
and excretion (what body does to the drug). drug/substance that will kill half of the sample population of a
yy Absorption specific test animal in a specific period.
 Physiological considerations in absorption: Blood flow, total yy Pharmacovigilance: The science and activities relating to the
surface area, time of arrival of the drug and time of drug at detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse
absorption site. effects or any other drug related problem.
 Other considerations for absorption: Solubility, chemical yy Teratogenicity: It is the ability of a drug to produce harmful effect
stability and solubility of drug in lipids. of drugs on fetus when administered during pregnancy.
yy Distribution yy Anaphylaxis: It is a severe allergic reaction (hypersensitive
 Drugs are distributed into major body fluids (e.g. plasma). reaction), which occurs due to ingestion of drugs or any foreign
 Drug distribution is affected by the extent that the drug binds protein material.
to plasma proteins and barriers. yy Antidote: A drug or chemical substance which counteracts the
yy Biotransformation harmful effects of other drug or chemical.
 It is a process of metabolizing drugs in the body. yy Contraindication: Any condition or factor, which prevents or
 Occurs mainly in liver. withholds the use of a medicine or drug.
 Prodrugs are only activated by the hepatic metabolism. E.g. yy Emulsion: It is the mixture of two or more liquids that are
Levodopa. normally immiscible (E.g. Mixture of water and oil). Milk is a
yy Excretion natural emulsion.
 Excretion includes renal (by active glomerular filtration and yy Half-life: It is the period of time required for the concentration
fecal elimination). of drug in body (usually plasma) to be reduced to one-half. It is
one of the major factor influences the duration of action of a drug.

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “Medicine is a science of uncertainty and art of probability.”
—William Osler

MCQs with Explanations

1. The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and 6. Atropine is commonly used prior to administration of
excretion of drugs is referred as: inhalant anesthetics to reduce
a. Pharmacology b. Pharmacokinetics a. Muscle tone b. Secretions
c. Pharmacodynamics d. Pharmaceutics c. Nausea and vomiting d. All of the above

Explanation: Pharmacokinetics refers to what body does to the Explanation: Atropine is an anticholinergic agent which reduces
drug. It facilitates the movement of drug in the body. secretions in respiratory tract.
2. Which of the following route of drug administration is most 7. Phenytoin is used in the treatment of
likely to lead to the first-pass effect? a. Petit mal epilepsy b. Grand mal epilepsy
a. Sublingual b. Oral c. Myoclonic seizures d. All of the above
c. Intravenous d. Intramuscular
Explanation: Phenytoin is the drug of choice for Grand mal epilepsy.
Explanation: Orally administered drugs are absorbed in the 8. Antidote for overdose of Warfarin is  (AIIMS, 2010)
intestine and enter portal circulation. This leads to first-pass effect a. Protamine sulphate b. Heparin
in the liver. c. Atropine sulphate d. Vitamin K
3. Digoxin is not given when heart rate is (AIIMS 2011)
a. Below 50 b. Below 60 Explanation: Vitamin K is an antidote of warfarin. Protamine
c. Above 70 d. Above 80 sulphate is an antidote to heparin. Atropine sulphate is an anti-
cholinergic agent.
Explanation: Digoxin should not be given if the heart rate is below 9. Which of the following analgesic is preferred in elderly
60 beats per minute because digoxin further reduces the heart rate patients? (AIIMS-2011)
and it could be dangerous. a. Aspirin b. Morphine
4. Which of the following local anesthetic agent has shorter c. Diclofenac sodium d. Ampicillin
duration of action?
a. Lidocaine b. Procaine Explanation: Diclofenac sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflamm-
c. Bupivacaine d. Ropivacaine atory drug (NSAID). It is recommended for old age people because
of its analgesic effect with less side effects. Ampicillin (option d) is
Explanation: Procaine exerts shorter local anesthetic action. an antibiotic, so not correct. Aspirin is risky in old age people as it
Procaine is preferred local anesthetic agent in patient with liver increases the chances of gastric ulcer.
disease. It is not used these days. 10. The drug that increases both systolic and diastolic blood
5. The local anesthetic which also acts as an antiarrythmic pressure for prolonged period is
agent a. Dopamine b. Ephedrine
a. Cocaine c. Epinephrine d. Dobutamine
b. Lidocaine
c. Bupivacaine Explanation: The mechanism of action of ephedrine relies on its
d. Ropivacaine indirect stimulation of the adrenergic receptor system by increasing
the activity of norepinephrine at the postsynaptic α and β receptors.
Explanation: Lidocaine acts as local anesthetic as well as It increases BP by direct and indirect action and has longer duration
antiarrythmic agent. of action than epinephrine.

Answer
1. b. Pharmacokinetics 2. b. B. Oral 3. b. Below 60
4. b. Procaine 5. b. Lidocaine 6. b. Secretions
7. b. Grand mal epilepsy 8. d. Vitamin K 9. c. Diclofenac sodium
10. b. Ephedrine
297

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 Section A

11. The drug administered during acute anaphylactic reaction is 17. Teratogenicity refers to
Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

 (AIIMS 2011) a. Toxic action on the liver

a. Adrenaline b. Aminophylline b. Toxic action on fetus
c. Atropine d. Furusemide c. Toxic action on blood system
d. Toxic action on kidneys
Explanation: Injection of epinephrine (Adrenaline) is the first-
aid medication of choice for anaphylaxis, as recommended in all Explanation: Teratogenic drugs crosses placental barrier and cause
anaphylaxis guidelines. Adrenaline helps to relieve the symptoms of damage to the growth and development of fetus.
anaphylaxis by causing vasoconstriction, and opening up airways.
18. Which of the following drug is an example of proton pump
This prevents the blood pressure from dropping and makes breathing
inhibitor?
easier.
a. Pantoprazole
12. Which of the following is NOT an osmotic diuretic b. Famotidine
a. Furusemide b. Glycerol c. Ranitidine
c. Isosorbide d. Mannitol d. Sucralfate

Explanation: Furusemide is a loop diuretic. All other drugs given Explanation: Pantoprazole and omeprazole are proton pump
above are osmotic diuretics. inhibitors (PPI) which inhibits the production of hydrochloric acid
in the stomach.
13. The diuretics should be administered early in the morning to
a. Prevent drug-food interaction 19. Morphine is contraindicated in which of the following
b. Prevent nausea and vomiting condition? (ESI 2010)
c. To avoid nocturia a. Angina
d. To promote absorption b. Bronchial asthma
c. Pancreatitis
Explanation: Diuretics increases the urine excretion. If the drug is d. Myocardial infarction
administered in the evening/night, it may result in nocturia. Nocturia
is a condition in which the patient need to get up many times during Explanation: Morphine is a opioid derivative that causes respiratory
the night to urinate. So it is recommended to administer diuretics depression. So it is contraindicated in patients with Bronchial asthma.
early in the morning.
20. Paracetamol is an (RPSC NG-II, 2010)
14. Which of the following drug is used to prevent blood clotting a. Antipyretic b. Antitussives
during hemodialysis procedure? c. Antibiotic d. Antiemetic
a. Aspirin b. Heparin
c. Protamine sulfate d. Coumadin Explanation: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is an antipyretic
(reduce fever) and analgesic (reduce pain) agent.
Explanation: Anticoagulation in routine hemodialysis consists 21. Which of the following drug may cause “Gray baby
of a standard dose of heparin given as a bolus at the start of the
syndrome”? (ESI 2009)
dialysis treatment with a mid-treatment dose to maintain suitable
a. Chloramphenicol b. Penicillin
anticoagulation.
c. Doxycycline d. Kanamycin
15. Increased suicidal tendency is associated with
a. Low levels of serotonin Explanation: Gray baby syndrome is a rare but serious side effect
b. High levels of serotonin that occurs in newborn infants (especially premature infants)
c. Low levels of dopamine following the intravenous administration of chloramphenicol, an
d. High levels of dopamine antimicrobial agent.
22. Which of the following statement is NOT correct about
Explanation: Low levels of serotonin (5-HT) in brain are associated cephalosporins
with depression and suicidal behavior. High level of serotonin is
a. They are bacteriostatics
associated with anxiety.
b. They are β-lactam group of antibiotics
16. The drug of choice for partial seizures is c. They have wider spectrum of activity than penicillins
a. Carbamazepine b. Barbiturates d. None of the above
c. Diazepam d. Lamotrigine
Explanation: Cephalosporins are bacteriocidals. They belongs
Explanation: Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for the treatment to β-lactam group of antibiotics and are having wider antibacterial
of partial seizures. It is also used as an antimanic drug. spectrum than penicillins.

Answer
11. a. Adrenaline 12. a. Furusemide 13. c. To avoid nocturia
14. b. Heparin 15. a. Low levels of serotonin 16. a. Carbamazepine
17. b. Toxic action on fetus 18. a. Pantoprazole 19. b. Bronchial asthma
20. a. Antipyretic 21. a. Chloramphenicol 22. a. They are bacteriostatics
298

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 “Love cures people–both the ones who give it and the ones who receive it.”
–Karl Meninger

Practice Questions

PHARMACOKINETICS AND 11. Administration of a drug in liquid form into a body cavity or
PHARMACODYNAMICS body orifice is known as
a. Inhalation b. Infiltration
1. A drug can:  (ESIC Chennai May 2012) c. Insertion d. Instillation
a. Diagnose disease b. Cure disease 12. The most important route of excretion of drugs:
c. Prevent disease d. All of the above a. Through kidney b. Saliva and sweat
2. The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and c. Exhaled air d. Faeces
excretion of drug is referred as 13. Which of the following is excreted is saliva?
a. Pharmacopia a. Tetracycline b. Ampicillin
b. Pharmacokinetics c. Lithium d. Choloramphenicol
c. Pharmacodynamics
14. Loading dose of a drug is given:
d. Pharmacognosy
a. To achieve high concentration in short time
3. Pharmacodynamic includes b. Rapid onset of action
Ans. a. Drug elimination b. Drug excretion c. Less complication
c. Drug absorption d. Mechanism of action d. All
1. d
4. All are local routes of drug administration EXCEPT 15. The maximum effect of a drug is defined by:
2. b
a. Topical b. Intra-articular a. Therapeutic index b. Potency
3. d
c. Oral d. Intra-arterial c. Efficacy d. Adversity
4. c
5. d 5. Which is the following is the most preferred route adminis- 16. The reason for deep IM injection of iron preparation is to
6. b tration in an unconscious patient? a. Enhance absorption of the medication
7. a a. Inhalation route b. Enteral route b. Ensure higher bioavailability
8. d c. Oral route d. Parenteral route c. Provide more even distribution of the drug.
9. b 6. The maximum volume of a drug that can be injected through d. Prevent the drug from tissue irritation
10. d intramuscular injection is
11. d a. 2 ml b. 5 ml ABBREVIATIONS AND UNITS OF MEASUREMENTS
12. a c. 10 ml d. 20 ml USED FOR DRUG ADMINISTRATION
13. c
7. Injection of a drug directly into joints is termed as 17. The abbreviation h.s. means
14. a
15. c a. Intra-articular b. Intra-arterial a. At bed time b. Early morning
16. d c. Intra-ossicular d. Intramedullary c. After meals d. Before meals
17. a 8. Administration of drug into the spinal cavity is termed as 18. ‘gtt’ means
18. a ______ route a. A drop b. ml
19. b a. Intraarticular b. Intra medullary c. An ounce d. gallon
20. b c. Intra osseous d. Intrathecal 19. One tablespoon is equal to
21. c 9. Which of the following route of administration refers to a. 5 ml b. 15 ml
introduction of drug directly into the bone marrow? c. 25 ml d. 30 ml
 [ESI staff nurse exam 2010] 20. Two teaspoonful is equal to
a. Intra articular b. Intramedullary a. 6 ml b. 10 ml
c. Intra peritoneal d. Intrathecal c. 20 ml d. 30 ml
10. Application of a drug on the skin with friction is known as 21. One pint =
a. Inhalation b. Infiltration a. 250 ml b. 300 ml
c. Infusion d. Inunction c. 500 ml d. 750 ml

308

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 4
COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

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Subject Outline
Synopsis : 35 (12 New Topics Added)
Image-Based Questions with Explanations (O) : 28
MCQs with Explanations : 211 Qs (13 New Qs Added)
Practice Questions : 697 Qs (80 New Qs Added)

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“A good physician treats the disease, the great physician treats the patient who
has the disease.”
—William Osler

Community Health Nursing

SYNOPSIS
CONCEPT OF HEALTH Disease: Biological concept -physiological/psychological dysfunction
Illness: Socio–pathological concept - subjective feeling of not being
Health: It is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, well.
and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity (WHO 1948). Sickness: Biological concept of social dysfunction
The following are the changing concepts of health:
yy Biomedical concept: This has been viewed that health is an
absence of disease and if one was free from disease then the DETERMINANTS OF HEALTH
person was considered as healthy. This concept has its basis in
germ theory. Determinants Factors
yy Ecological concept: This has been viewed that health is a dynamic Biological Genetic make-up, Growth and Development
equilibrium between man and his environment and disease is Behavioral and Life style, personal habit (smoking, drinking),
maladjustment of the human being to the environment. sociocultural nutritional status, sleep pattern, physical
yy Psychosocial concept: According to this concept health is conditions activity
influenced by social, psychological, cultural, economic and the
Environment Internal environment: Each and every body
political factors.
tissue and its functioning
yy Holistic concept: This model is a synthesis of all the above
External environment (macro environment):
concepts. It recognizes the strength of social, economic, political
All that external to the individual and can be
and environmental influences on health. This approach implies
divided as physical, biological, chemical and
that all sectors of society have an impact on health.
psychosocial
Domestic environment (micro environment):
DIMENSIONS OF HEALTH Way of living and lifestyle such as eating habit,
smoking, drinking, use of drugs, etc.
yy Physical dimension
yy Mental dimension Socioeconomic Per capita GNP, education, nutrition,
yy Social dimension conditions employment, housing, political system of
yy Spiritual dimension country and occupation
Health services Affordability, Accessibility, and Availability
of health care services. E.g. Access to and
CONCEPT OF DISEASE availability of vaccination
yy A condition in which body function is impaired. Aging of the Major concern of rapid population aging is the
yy A maladjustment of human organism to the environment. population increased prevalence of chronic diseases and
disabilities
CAUSES Gender For female health empowerment a lot of
yy Supernatural causes and karma programs have been established that focus
yy Theory of humors (fluid) on nutritional and reproductive health among
yy Theory of contagion females
yy Germ theory Other factors Factors such as revolution in information and
yy Epidemiological triad communication also help us to access good
yy Multi-factorial causation health
yy Web of causation

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “Never forget that it is not a pneumonia, but a pneumonic man who is your
patient.”
—William Withey Gull

MCQs with Explanations

1. The following diseases can be transmitted by water and food, 4. The following are the data collection techniques used in the
Except: (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) community assessment, EXCEPT
a. Hepatitis C b. Hepatitis A  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
c. Cholera d. Poliomyelitis a. Making appropriate judgements
b. Organization and comparisons of problem
Explanation: Cholera is a bacterial infection that causes diarrhea. c. Effective communication
The cholera bacterium (vibrio Cholerae) is usually found in water d. Investigation and measurements
or food that has been contaminated with feces. Polio virus and
hepatitis-A virus also transmitted through water and food via feco- Explanation: There are various techniques used in community
oral route. Hepatitis-C is transmitted through blood and blood assessment for collection of data includes questionnaires, focus
products. group, interviews, case studies, observations. Organization and
comparisons of problems is not a data collection technique but a
2. The concept of health which emphasizes that health is a
method of analysis.
‘sound mind in a sound body in a sound family in a sound
environment’ is (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) 5. Providing health education about the environmental hygiene
a. Ecological concept b. Physical concept to the community people is an example of
c. Psychological concept d. Holistic concept  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
a. Social communication
Explanation: The health has been described by various scientists b. Structural communication
according to their concept of viewing the health. The ecologist viewed c. Therapeutic communication
health as a harmonious equilibrium between man and environment. d. Formal communication
The physical concept of health describes health as a state of well-
functioning of the body and psychological concept describes health Explanation: Social communication or pragmatics is the way in
as absence of mental illness. The Holistic concept of health is viewed which children uses language with social situations. Structural
as a multidimensional process involving wellbeing of the whole communication is an instructional approach which provides a
person in the context of his environment stimulated dialogue between author of instructional materials and
students. Therapeutic communication is the face to face process
3. The agent factor responsible for the occurrence of a disease
of interacting that focuses on advancing physical and emotional
includes: (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
wellbeing of patient. Formal communication is exchange of official
A. Biological and physical agents
information vertically or horizontally.
B. Mechanical and chemical agents
C. Vertical and inoculation agents 6. The functions of community are
D. Nutrient and living agents  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
a. A, B, C b. B, C, D A. It provides space for socialize and recreation
c. A, B, D d. A, C, D B. It provides safety and security
C. Socialization and Education for its members
Explanation: According to Beings theory factors responsible for D. Provides opportunity for interaction among members
occurrence of disease are Biological factors, behavioural factors, a. A, B, C b. B, C, D
environmental factors as physical, chemical and biological aspects c. A, C, D d. A, B, C, D
of environment, immunological factors, nutritional factors, Genetic
factors, social factors, spiritual factors, service factors related to Explanation: The functions of community include socialization,
various aspects of health services. social control, social participation and mutual support

Answer
1. a. Hepatitis C 2. d. Holistic concept 3. c. A, B, D
4. b. Organization and comparisons... 5. b. Structural communication 6. d. A, B, C, D

361

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 Section A

7. The principles of primary health care includes 11. ‘Chickungunya’ species belongs to which family?
Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

 (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)  (AIIMS Bhopal Nursing officer, 2018)

A. Equitable distribution a. Flaviviridae b. Togaviridae
B. Community participation c. Bunyaviridae d. Reoviridae
C. Coverage and accessability
D. Appropriatenes and continuity Explanation: 'Chickungunya’ species belongs to Togaviridae family.
a. A, B, C b. B, C, D Dengue and yellow fever species belongs to Flaviviridae family.
c. A, C, D c. A, B, C, D 12. Which of the following is not a content of Drug Kit A
provided at sub-centre?
Explanation: The principles of primary health care include  (AIIMS Bhopal Nursing officer, 2018)
intersectoral coordination, Appropriate technology, equitable distri-
a. Oral rehydration salt b. Tab cotrimoxazole
bution and community participation.
c. Tablet paracetamol d. Vitamin A solution
8. The following are the functions of Male health workers as a
Health Team member "Except" Explanation:
 (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
a. Conduct survey of the Sub centre and maintain record of Kit A Kit b
all families ORS T. methylergometrine maleate
b. Provide nutrition advice and Immunization to mothers Iron folic acid laege and T. paracetamol
and Children small tablets Inj. methylergometrine maleate
c. Maintain information of all vital events Vit A solution T.mebandazole
d. Promote health education activities T. cotrimoxazole T. dicyclomine HCl
Oinment povidone iodine
Explanation: The functions of health worker include community Cetrimide powder
service provider, facilitator, health counselor, co-researcher, member Cotton bandage
of a team and health educator Absorbant cotton
9. In India, which one is the following is the first referral unit?
 (AIIMS Raipur Staff-nurse Grade I-2018) 13. Scabies is a/an
a. Sub centre a. Non-communicable disease
b. Primary health centres b. Contagious disease
c. Community health centers c. Bacterial infection
d.Regional hospital d. Fungal infection

Explanation: As per RCH, first referral unit is a community health Explanation: Scabies is a contagious (communicable) disease
centre which has the facilities for obstetric surgery, blood transfusion, caused by itch mite. It is capable of spreading rapidly from one
anaesthesia, specialist pediatric care, operation theatre and required person to another by contact or close proximity.
equipment. This centre also has the facilities for MTP, tubectomy, 14. The obligate refers to the…………………………..
vasectomy and pediatric care for high risk neonates and other severe a. Host in which the parasite remain asexual
problems of early childhood. b. Temporary host
10. Which of the following infection of animals primarily can be c. Only host
transmitted through milk? d. Multiple hosts
 (AIIMS Raipur staff nurse grade I-2018)
Explanation: An obligate host means the single host in which
a. Tuberculosis
complete life cycle of infecting agent completes. Without this host
b. Dengue
life cycle of the parasite will not complete.
c. Plague
d. Leptospirosis 15. Transport host is one in which…………………
a. Parasite passes its sexual stage
Explanation: The infection which transmitted via animal milk b. Parasite remain asexual
is tuberculosis. Dengue fever is spread by aedes aegypti mosquito c. Organism remain alive but does not undergo development
which is caused by virus. Plague is a bacterial infection caused by d. Life cycle is not complete.
Yersinis pestis transmitted by fleas. Leptospirosis is a bacterial
infection spread via urine of the infected animal Explanation: Transport host is also known as paratenic host. In this
the parasite will infect the host but not undergo any development.
One that is used until the appropriate definitive host is reached, but is
not necessary to completion of the life cycle of the parasite.

Answer
7. a. A, B, C 8. b. Provide nutrition advice and.... 9. c. Community health centers
10. a. Tuberculosis 11. b. Togaviridae 12. c. Tablet paracetamol
13. b. Contagious disease 14. c. Only host 15. c. Organism remain.........

362

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 “The human brain starts working the moment you are born and never stops
until you stand upto speak in public.”
—George Jessel

Practice Questions

1. The infection which is acquired from animals to human is:  11. Still birth rate includes fetus dies after: (RRB SSNE 2015)
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015) a. 20 weeks b. 24 weeks
a. Plague b. Polio c. 28 weeks d. 32 weeks
c. Pertussis d. Malaria 12. Entomology is the science that studies: (RRB SSNE 2015)
2. Syphilis is caused by: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) a. Behaviour of human beings
a. HIV b. Papilloma b. Insects
c. Neisseria d. Treponema c. Behaviour of ants
3. Malaria infection can be transmitted by:  d. Formation of rocks
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 13. Commonest cause of neonatal morbidity in India is:
a. Blood transfusion  (RRB SSNE 2015)
b. Bite of infected female anopheles mosquito a. Diarrhoeal diseases
c. Vertical transmission through placental defect b. Birth injuries
d. All of the above c. Congenital anomalies
Ans.
4. The most common cause of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) in d. Prematurity and low birthweight
1. a community is: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 14. Which of the following is a main side effect of an Intrauterine
2. d a. E. coli b. Klebsiella Device?  (RRB SSNE 2015)
3. d c. Citrobacter d. Proteus Vulgaris a. Vaginal Bleeding
4. a 5. Hookworm penetrates into the body by penetrating the skin b. Pelvic Inflammatory disease
5. b of: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) c. Uterine perforation
6. a a. Hand b. Foot d. Ectopic pregnancy
7. b c. Ear d. Head 15. The commonest cause of maternal morbidity in India is: 
8. d  (RRB SSNE 2015)
6. The metal which is commonly used for family planning is: 
9. c a. Anaemia b. Haemorrhage
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
10. a c. Abortion d. Sepsis
a. Copper b. Aluminum
11. c
c. Iron d. Silver 16. Which of the following method of contraception can prevent
12. b
13. d 7. One PHC covers a population of: sexually transmitted disease? (Banaras HU 2015)
14. b  (DSSSB PHN, 2015; RRB Feb 2012) a. Oral pills b. Condom
15. b a. 50,000 b. 30,000 c. Copper–T d. Cervical cap
16. b c. 10,000 d. One lakh 17. Filaria is caused by (Banaras HU 2015)
17. b 8. The Multipurpose Worker in general serves a rural a. Bacteria b. Protozoa
18. a population of: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) c. Fungus d. Virus
19. d a. < 500 b. 1000 18. Which of the following neoplasm has been associated with
c. 3000 d. 5000 the use of oral contraceptives? (Banaras HU 2015)
9. System of storage and transport of vaccines at low a. Breast cancer b. Ovarian cancer
temperature from the manufacturer to the vaccination site is c. Endometrial cancer d. Hepatic adenoma
called:  (LNJP H D 2012; DSSSB PHN, 2015) 19. Which one of the following is not an oral contraceptive pill?
a. Deep small freezers b. Cold room  (Banaras HU 2015)
c. Cold chain d. Deep freezers a. Estrogen only, mini pill
10. The polio vaccine should be preserved at: (LNJP H D 2012) b. Estrogen and progesterone, combined pill
a. 2 to 8°C b. Below 0°C c. Estrogen followed by progesterone, sequential pill
c. –2 to –8°C d. 0 to 4°C d. Cortisol only pill

382

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PSYCHIATRIC NURSING

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Synopsis : 33
Image-Based Questions with Explanations (O) : 6
MCQs with Explanations : 230 Qs (33 New Qs Added)
Practice Questions : 532 Qs (34 New Qs Added)

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 “A man who reads too much and uses his own brain too little, falls into lazy
habit of thinking.
—Albert Einstein

Psychiatric Nursing

SYNOPSIS
INTRODUCTION DEVELOPMENT OF PERSONALITY
yy Mental health nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice
that deals with promotion of mental health, prevention of mental FACTORS INFLUENCING PERSONALITY
illness, care and rehabilitation of mentally ill individuals both in DEVELOPMENT
hospital and community.
yy In1943 mental health nursing course was first started for male Biological Factors
nurses.
yy Heredity: Genetic characteristics such as height, color of the skin
yy In 1965 Indian Nursing Council included psychiatric nursing as
and appearance influence personality of a person.
a compulsory course in the BSc Nursing program.
yy Endocrine glands: Secretions of endocrine glands heavily
yy In 1967 TNAI, formed a separate committee for mental health
influences ones behavior. E.g. Male hormone, testosterone is
nursing to improve the perception of mental health nursing as
associated with aggression.
well as to set guidelines for nursing teachers to conduct theory
yy Physique: An individual’s physical characters such as height,
classes and clinical training in psychiatric nursing.
weight and general appearances determines the behavior towards
yy In 1976, Masters in Psychiatric Nursing was first started at
others.
RAK College of Nursing, New Delhi.
yy Nervous system: Nervous systems works in close coordination
with endocrine system. The behavior of an individual is managed
and controlled by the nervous system.
MENTAL HEALTH
yy Mental health is an adjustment of human beings to the world and Environmental/Social Factors
to each other with maximum effectiveness and happiness.
yy Family: Most important factor in molding personality among
yy Mental health is an equilibrium of body, mind and spirit with the
environmental factors.
environment.
yy School: Schools play a significant role in building personality of
a growing child.
yy Teacher: Desirable personalities of a teacher are often inculcated
MENTAL ILLNESS in student’s behavior. Undesirable and prejudicial treatment by
yy Mental illness is maladjustment in living. It produces a disharmony teachers often negatively affects student’s personality.
in the person’s ability to meet human needs comfortably or yy Peer group: Peer group plays a vital role in shaping the
effectively and to function within a culture. personalities of the children.
yy Mental illness is health condition involving changes in emotion,
thinking of behaviour (or a combination of these).

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “I wish you could realize that the destiny of our beloved land lies not with us
but in our children.”
—Mahatma Gandhi

MCQs with Explanations

1. The major neurotransmitter involved in the occurrence of c. Prolonged exposure to the sun
Obsessive compulsive disorder is: d. Ingesting wine and aged cheese
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Dopamine b. Acetylcholine Explanation: MAOIs relieve the depression by blocking the enzyme
c. Epinephrine d. Serotonin monoamine oxidase which breaks down the excess tyramine in the
body. Tyramine is an amino acid that helps to regulate the blood
Explanation: Serotonin neurotransmitter involved in core physical pressure. If the person takes MAOIs and also eat high tyramine
processes such as regulation of sleep, aggression, anxiety, mood, fear foods, this can cause a serious spike in Blood Pressure. So, when
etc. Low level of serotonin are linked to the repetitive thoughts or MAOIs are prescribed, tyramine rich foods (aged cheeses, alcohol
obsessions and initiating the disorder. So, serotonin is the primary beverages, cured meats etc. ) must be avoided or used cautiously.
neurotransmitter associated with the symptoms of OCD.
5. According to Kubler-Ross theory of grief, which among the
2. Which of the following is not a part of bleuler’s 4 A’s? following behavior is observed in stage II?
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Ambivalence a. Depression b. Anger
b. Avolition c. Bargaining d. Denial
c. Associative loosening
d. Autistic thinking Explanation: The Five stages of grief according to Kubler-Ross are
as follows
Explanation: Eugen bleuler’s gave the famous 4 A’s that he presumed 1. Denial: E.g. “This can’t be happening to me”
lied at the core of the schizophrenia and were fundamental aspects 2. Anger: E.g. “Why is this happening to me?” “Who is to blame for
of the disorder. These 4 A’s are: Affect, Autism, Ambivalence and this?”
Associative loosening. 3. Bargaining: Stage of false hope. E.g. “Make the loss less significant”
4. Depression: E.g. “I am too sad to do anything”
3. Services aimed at reducing the prevalence of psychiatric
5. Acceptance: E.g. “I am able to exist and adjust what happened to
illness by shortening the course of the illness is called as
me”
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Secondary prevention 6. The crisis that is precipitated by an unanticipated stressful
b. Primary prevention event that creates disequilibrium by threatening one’s sense
c. Tertiary prevention of biological, social or psychological integrity is called
d. Primordial prevention  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Situational crisis b. Adventitious crisis
Explanation: Disease prevention includes measures not only to c. Maturational crisis d. Social crisis
prevent the occurrence of disease (primary level prevention-reduce
risk, immunization) but also to arrest its progress (secondary level Explanation: Situational crisis is term given to a person whose
prevention- early diagnosis and prompt treatment) and reduce coping mechanisms are affected due to their circumstances
its consequences once established (tertiary level prevention- (situations). Circumstances include loss of a job, financial situation,
rehablitations). death of loved one, divorces, abortion or physical illness. It differs
from adventitious crisis (unplanned or accidental) which includes
4. When MAOIs are prescribed, the client should be cautioned
rape, flood, fire, earthquake, terrorist attack, murder, child abuse etc.
against:  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
Maturational crisis includes puberty, marriage etc.
a. Engaging in active physical activities
b. Use of medication with an elixir base
Answer
1. d. Serotonin
1. 2. b. Avolition
2. 3. a. Secondary prevention
3.
4.
d. Ingesting wine and aged cheese 5.
5.
b. Anger 6.
6. a. Situational crisis
7. 8. 9.

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 MCQs
with Expl...

7. Presenting the patient with a 'hypothetical situation’ helps in

Chapter 5  Psychiatric Nursing

Explanation: Autistic thinking comprises of inner thoughts and
the assessment of:  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) individual reality. Day dreaming and fantasies are elements of autistic
a. Abstractability b. Insight thinking. Critical thinking means making reasoned judgements that
c. Comprehension d. Judgment are logical and well thought out. Logical thinking is the process in
which one uses reasoning consistently to come to a conclusion.
Explanation: Judgment involves ability to understand the facts
and draw conclusions. Judgment can be evaluated by exploring the 12. According to DSM IV, the positive symptoms of Schizophrenia
patient’s involvement in hypothetical situations, relationships and includes: (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
vocational choices by the use of situational judgment test A. Hallucinations
B. Delusions
8. A person has run away from home adopting a new identify
C. Flat affect
with complete amnesia about his earlier life. This disorder is
D Bizarre behaviour
known as:  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. A, B, C
a. Dissociative fugue
b. B, C, D
b. Multiple personality disorder
c. A, C, D
c. Dissociative amnesia
d. A, B, D
d. Conversion disorder
Explanation: The positive symptoms of schizophrenia include
Explanation: Dissociative fugue or psychogenic fugue is a
delusions, thought disorder, disorganized behavior and movement
dissociative disorder characterized by reversible amnesia for
disorder(agitated or repeated movements). The negative symptoms
personal identity. The state can last for days, months or longer and is
include lack of emotion or small emotional range, reduced ability
sometimes accompanied by the establishment of new identity.
to plan and follow through the activities, neglect of personal
9. Temporary loss of muscle tone and weakness precipitated by hygiene, social withdrawal and decrease in talkativeness and loss of
a variety of emotional states is called: motivations
 (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
13. The hallucination in which the content is consistent with
a. Cataplexy b. Catharsis
either a depressed or manic mood is called:
c. Compulsion d. Confabulation
 (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
Explanation: Cataplexy is a sudden and transient episode of a. Somatic hallucination
muscle weakness accompanied by full conscious awareness which is b. Mood - congruent hallucination
precipitated or triggered by emotions as laughing, crying etc. Catharsis c. Mood - incongruent hallucination
is the process of releasing strong emotions through a particular d. Haptic hallucination
activity or experience. Compulsive behavior is a psychological
Explanation: Mood congruent hallucination refers to hallucination
condition in which a person does behavior compulsively having
whose content represents or reflects the mood state of the individual.
an overwhelming feeling that they must do so. Confabulation is a
Mood congruence is a psychotic symptom of bipolar disorder. Mood
symptom of various memory disorders in which made up stories fill
incongruence is a psychotic feature of the disease wherein the person's
in any gaps in memory.
belief or action, whether by hallucination or delusion, does not match
10. The techniques of psychoanalysis includes the following, with his or her mood. Haptic hallucination is the sensation of touch
EXCEPT: (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017) mostly seen in alcoholic delirium tremens. Somatic hallucination is
a. Exploration b. Free association the perception of a physical experience occurring within the body.
c. Clay association d. Transference
14. A state of diminished consciousness in which the patient
Explanation: Transference is psychological phenomenon in which remains mute and still with the eyes open is called as:
an individual redirects emotions and feelings, often unconsciously,  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
from one person to another. Free association refers to process of a. Catatonia
discovering thoughts, memories and feelings by freely sharing all the b. Stupor
seemingly random thoughts that pass through the mind. Exploration c. Panic
refers to action of exploring an unfamiliar area though examination d. Hysteria
of a subject.
Explanation: Catatonia is a state of psychomotor immobility and
11. Thinking containing erroneous conclusions and internal behavioural abnormality manifested by stupor. Panic is a sudden,
contradiction is called: (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017) strong feeling of anxiety or fear that prevents reasonable thought
a. Autistic thinking b. Critical thinking and actions and may spread to influence many people. Hysteria is
c. Illogical thinking d. Logical thinking exaggerated or uncontrollable emotion or excitement.

Answer
1.
7. d. Judgment 2.
8. a. Dissociative fugue 3.
9. a. Cataplexy
4.
10. c. Clay association 5.
11. c. Illogical thinking 6.
12. d. A,B,D
7.
13. 8.
b. Mood - congruent hallucination 14. b. Stupor 9.

429

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 “Children have more need of role models than of critics.”
—Joseph Jonbert

Practice Questions

INTRODUCTION, HISTORY AND BASIC 10. Mental Healthcare act 2017 bill received president assent on
PRINCIPLES OF PSYCHIATRIC NURSING a. April 7, 2017 b. April 15, 2017
c. July 7, 2017 d. July 15, 2017
1. Temporary discharge of the patient from the psychiatric
11. Which of the following is one of the general principles of
hospital is referred as: (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
mental health nursing?
a. Parole b. Abscond
a. Judgment of patient symptoms
c. Termination d. Escape
b. Use self understanding as a therapeutic tool
2. Temporary discharge of the patient from the psychiatric c. Repeated talking
hospital is referred as: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) d. Focus on symptoms of patients
a. Parole b. Abscond
12. According to Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development,
c. Termination d. Escape
Which of the following developmental task is associated with
3. Ego works based on the:  (DSSSB PHN, 2015) Infancy?
a. Reality b. Pleasure a. Trust Vs Mistrust b. Autonomy Vs Shame
Ans. c. Perfection d. Conscience c. Initiative Vs Guilt d. Intimacy Vs Isolation
1. a 4. Father of Intelligence test is:  (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 13. According to Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development,
a. Alfred Binet
2. a Which of the following developmental task is associated with
b. Erick Erickson
adolescence?
3. a c. Alfred Adler
a. Trust Vs Mistrust b. Identity Vs Role confusion
4. a d. Carl Jung
c. Industry Vs Inferiority d. Intimacy Vs Isolation
5. The stage which keeps an individual physically alert to face
5. d 14. With regard to diagnosis of mental disorders, the term DSM
the danger arising out of stress is termed: 
6. a stands for
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015)
a. Disease System Manual
7. c a. Adjustment reaction
b. Diagnostic System Manual
b. Stage of resistance
8. b c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
c. Exhaustion stage
9. b d. Alarm reaction d. Diagnostic System for Mental disorders

10. a 6. Psychoanalytic therapy was developed by:  15. DSM classification of mental disorders is published by
 (RRB SSNE 2015) a. World Health Organization
11. b b. American Psychiatric Association
a. Sigmund Freud b. Jacobson
12. a c. Franklin d. Aristotle c. International Psychiatric Association
13. b d. American Psychological Association
7. Another term for superego is: 
 (JIPMER 2012) 16. Which of the following statement about mental illness is
14. c
a. Self b. Ideal self true?
15. b a. Marriage can cure mental illness
c. Conscience d. Sub conscious
16. c b. Metal illness is connected to committing sin in the past
8. An attempt to integrate values learned from parents and
c. Mental illness is curable
17. a society is referred as
d. Mentally ill patients are dangerous for the society
a. The id b. Superego
c. Sublimation d. Projection 17. With regard to diagnosis of Mental disorders, the term ICD
stands for
9. Who is the first psychiatric nurse?
a. International Classification of Diseases
a. Hildegard Peplau b. Indian Classification of Diseases
b. Linda Richards c. International Criteria for Diagnoses
c. Sigmund Freud d. Indian Criteria for Diagnoses
d. Jean Watson
450

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 6
OBSTETRIC AND
GYNECOLOGICAL NURSING

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Subject Outline
Synopsis : 22 (2 New Topics Added)
Image-Based Questions with Explanations (O) : 40
MCQs with Explanations : 255 Qs (67 New Qs Added)
Practice Questions : 863 Qs (80 New Qs Added)

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 “I do not love him because he is good, but because he is my child.”
—Rabindranath Tagore

Obstetric and
Gynecological Nursing

SYNOPSIS
OVERVIEW OF ANATOMY OF FEMALE yy Ovulation: Expulsion of the matured ovum from graffian follicle
into the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube.
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM yy Secretion of hormones: Estrogens and progesterone.
yy Estrogen: Secreted under the influence of FSH and work promotes
EXTERNAL GENITALIA (VULVA) the development and maintenance of female reproductive
yy Mons pubis: Covers and protects the pubic bone. structures, feminine secondary characteristics and breasts. It also
yy Labia majora: Protects the introitus and urethral openings. increases protein anabolism and stimulate long bone calcification.
yy Labia minora: Made up of erectile connective tissue that darkens yy Progesterone: Secreted under the influence of LH and work with
and swells during sexual arousal. estrogen to prepare endometrium for implantation of fertilized
yy Clitoris: Located under the prepuce. Highly sensitive organ ovum. It inhibits uterine contraction during pregnancy and
composed of nerves, blood vessels and erectile tissue. prepares mammary glands to secrete milk.
yy Urethral opening: Located directly below clitoris
yy Vaginal opening: Opening may be covered by a thin sheath
called the hymen.
yy Perineum: Muscle and tissue located between the vaginal opening
and anal canal

INTERNAL GENITALIA
yy Vagina: Vagina connects the cervix to the external genital.
Located between rectum and bladder.
yy Cervix: Connects the uterus to the vagina.
yy Uterus: Made up of endometrium, myometrium and perimetrium.
yy Fallopian Tube: Pathway for the ovum to the uterus. Site of
Fig. 1: Anatomy of female reproductive system
fertilization.
yy Ovaries: The female gonads or sex glands. The follicles in the
ovaries produce the female sex hormones, progesterone and fallopian Tubes (Uterine Tubes)
estrogen. yy Fallopian (uterine) tubes are approximately 10 cm (usually 7 to
12 cm) in length, connecting the ovaries to the uterus.
yy Ova (egg cells) are carried to the uterus through the fallopian
Ovaries tubes following ovulation. Ampullary part of the tube is the site of
yy The female gonads consists of 2 ovaries, one on either side of the fertilization of ova with sperm.
uterus. yy Fallopian tubes are divided into four parts
yy Each ovary is approximately 3 to 5 cm long, 2 to 3 cm wide and 1  Interstitial portion (Intramural part): 1.25 cm long and lies
to 3 cm thick in the menstrual years. within the wall of the uterus. Its lumen is 1 mm wide.
yy The ovary is attached to the broad ligament by the mesovarium.  Isthmus (adjoins uterus): Extends for 2.5 cm from the uterus.
yy The ovary is composed of a medulla and cortex, covered with  Ampulla (central portion): Wider portion where fertilization
germinal epithelium usually occurs. It is 5 cm long. Ampulla is the largest and
longest portion of the tube.
Functions  Infundibulum: Funnel shaped lateral end of the fallopian tube

yy Oogenesis: Formation of mature ovum from the follicle into pelvic that overlies the ovary. Several finger-like processes elongated
cavity. to edge of the infundibulum is known as fimbriae.

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 “When I approach a child, he inspires in me two sentiments, tenderness for
what he is, and respect for what he may become.”
—Louis Pasteur

MCQs with Explanations

1. The abnormal condition in which the umbilicus is inserted while other drugs like atenolol has been associated with intrauterine
through the membranes of placenta is known as: growth retardation. Magnesium sulfate used to treat women with
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) pre-eclampsia. Diazepam is not an antihypertensive drug.
a. Succenturiate b. Battledore 5. The extreme softening of the cervix during the first trimester
c. Marginal d. Velamentous is known as: (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Chadwick’s sign b. Osiander’s sign
Explanation: During pregnancy, normally the umbilical cord inserts
c. Piskacek’s sign d. Goodell’s sign
into the middle of the placenta as it develops but in velamentous type,
the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes (choriamniotic Explanation: It is named after William Goodell. Goodell’s sign is
membranes) then travels within the membrane to the placenta. a significant softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix due to
2. The amount of elemental iron in one iron tablet for mother increased vascularization. This sign occurs at approximately four
is: (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) weeks’ gestation.
a. 60 mg b. 60 g 6. The perception of active fetal movement felt by the mother
c. 50 g d. 50 mg during pregnancy is known as:(AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Ballotment b. Engagement
Explanation: The equivalent of 60 mg of elemental iron is 300 mg c. Quickening d. Lightening
ferrous sulfate heptahydrate, 180 mg ferrous fumarate or 500 mg of
ferrous gluconate. Explanation: Quickening is the active fetal movement felt by the
3. Which of the following clinical presentation would a nurse mother during pregnancy. A woman who becomes pregnant for the
expect while assessing a patient with abruption placenta? first time typically feels fetal movements at around 18-20 weeks of
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) gestation, whereas multipara women feel fetal movements at around
a. Rigid, board-like abdomen 15-17 weeks of gestation.
b. Edema in legs 7. Which is the biochemical marker detected in a mother’s
c. Excessive vaginal bleeding blood in neural tube defect? (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
d. Premature rupture of membranes a. Alpha-feto protein
b. Ascorbic acid
Explanation: Placental abruption is the premature separation of a c. Alkaline phosphatase
normally located placenta from the uterine wall that occurs before d. Aminoacid
delivery of the fetus characterized by excessive vaginal bleeding,
uterine tenderness, rapid contractions, abdominal pain and fetal Explanation: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is the first protein marker
heart rate abnormalities. to be associated with fetal abnormalities that are easily detectable in
mother’s serum. High level of AFP in the mother’s serum is associated
4. Which of the following is a drug of choice for a pregnant
with neural tube defect and decreased AFP level in mother’s serum is
mother with chronic hypertension?
associated with Down’s syndrome
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Methyldopa b. Atenolol 8. Which of the following is a feature of false labor pain?
c. Diazepam d. Magnesium sulfate  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Not associated with the hardening of the uterus
Explanation: Methyldopa is drug of choice for pregnant mother b. Frequency of contraction increases
with chronic hypertension because this drug does not alter the c. Associated with ‘show’
maternal cardiac output or blood flow to the uterus or kidneys, d. Progressive dilation of uterus

Answer
1. d. Velamentous 2. a. 60 mg 3. c. Excessive vaginal bleeding
4. a. Methyldopa 5. d. Goodell’s sign 6. c. Quickening
7. a. Alpha-protein 8. a. Not associated with the...

505

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 Section A

Explanation: False labor pain referred to as Braxton Hicks Explanation: Uterine inversion occurs when the placenta fails to
Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

contractions that occur predominantly in the third trimester but not detach from the uterus as it exits, pulls on the inside surface, and
associated with hardening of uterus. These are typically less painful turns the organ inside out.
than those of true labor and also unpredictable, do not occur at
Uterine prolapse occurs when pelvic floor muscles and ligaments
regular interval and do not become more intense over time.
stretch and weaken and no longer provide enough support for the
9. The classical method used in bringing down an arm in breech uterus. As a result, theuterus slips down into or protrudes out of the
presentation is called: (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) vagina.
a. Retgen’s maneuver b. Lovset’s maneuver
Anteversion of the uterus refers to the position of the uterus
c. Crede’s maneuver d. Pinard’s maneuver
where the long axis of the uterus is bent forward on the long axis of
Explanation: During breech delivery there may be problem arise the vagina, against the urinary bladder.
due to the obstructed shoulders. This can occur when arms are A retroverted uterus means the uterus is tilted backwards towards
raised as the shoulders pass through the mother’s pelvis. So, Lovset’s the rectum.
maneuver is used for lowering the arm so that the shoulders can
14. Which of the following is the reason for the development of
descend.
hydramnios in a women with gestational diabetes?
10. The index for finding effectiveness of contraception is:  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) a. Hyperplasia of blood vessels
a. Pearl b. Ponderal b. Fetal diuresis
c. Lorentz d. Broca c. Absence of swallowing reflex in fetus
d. Increased transudation
Explanation: Contraceptive efficacy was measured by the pearl
index. Pearl index measures the number of pregnancies that occur Explanation: Hydramnios or polyhydramnios is a medical
for each contraceptive method if used by 100 women for one year( condition describing an excess of amniotic fluid in the amniotic sac.
where a women year is defined as 13 menstrual cycles). In most cases exact cause cannot be identified. Some of the maternal
11. A localised edema or collection of fluid on the fetal scalp that causes include cardiac problems, kidney problems and maternal
develops during labour is known as: diabetes mellitus. Gestational diabetes causes fetal hyperglycemia
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) and resulting polyuria (Fetal diuresis).
a. Caput succedaneum b. Crowing 15. The type of pelvis in which the features are heart shaped
c. Molding d. Cephalhematoma brim, narrow forepelvis and sciatic notch with prominent
ischial spines and suprapubic angle < 90°:
Explanation: Caput succedaneum is a neonatal condition involving  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
a serosanguinous, subcutaneous, extraperiosteal fluid collection with a. Gynacoid pelvis
poorly defined margins. Caput succedaneum presents as a scalp b. Android Pelvis
swelling that extends across the midline and over suture line and is c. Anthropoid pelvis
associated with head molding. It usually resolves over the first few d. Platypelloid pelvis
days.
12. The primary purpose of administering magnesium sulfate Explanation: Gynacoid pelvis also known as True pelvis is oval at
intravenously for a patient who has premature rupture of inlet, wide subpubic arch and pelvic brim which is transverse ellipse.
membrane and has contraction in every 10 minutes is to: Anthropoid pelvis iss oval at inlet, pelvic brim is anteroposterior
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) ellipse, suprapubic arch slightly narrowed. Platypoid pelvis is
a. Provide sedation flattened at inlet and has prominent sacrum, pelvic brim is transverse
b. Maintain blood pressure kidney shaped.
c. Inhibit contraction 16. In the fetal skull, the bregma is found:
d. Improve fetal lung function  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
a. At the junction of the sagittal, coronal and frontal sutures
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate act as a tocolytic agent which b. At the junction of the lambdoidal and sagittal sutures
are used to stop uterine contractions. Tocolytics have no effect on c. Between the two halves of the frontal bone
placental perfusion or fetal pulmonary system d. Between the frontal bones and parietal bones
13. The condition where the uterus turns inside out is known as:
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) Explanation: Posterior fontanelle/Lambda are situated at the
a. Retroversion b. Prolapse junction of Lambdoidal and saggital sutures. Frontal suture is
c. Anteversion d. Inversion situated between two halves of frontal bone. Coronal suture is found
between frontal and parietal bone.

Answer
9. b. Lovset’s maneuver 10. a. Pearl 11. a. Caput succedaneum
12. c. Inhibit contraction 13. d. Inversion 14. b. Fetal diuresis
15. b. Android Pelvis 16. a. At the junction of the sagittal, coronal and frontal sutures

506

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 “The child is father of the man.”
—William Wordsworth

Practice Questions

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF REPRODUCTIVE 10. Hormone responsible for hyperemesis gravidarum is:
SYSTEM AND THE FETUS  (Staff Nurse G II 2014)
a. Human chorionic gonadotropin
1. The hind milk is rich in------------ b. Human placental lactogen
a. Fat and vitamins b. Vitamin and minerals c. Progesterone
c. Fat and energy d. Proteins and energy d. Relaxin
2. The milk secreted, 2 weeks after delivery of the baby is known 11. The pituitary hormone that stimulates secretion of milk is:
as------------  (JIPMER 2012; RRB Feb 2012)
a. Colostrums b. Mature milk a. Prolactin b. Oxytocin
c. Transitional milk d. Fore milk c. Estrogen d. Progesterone
3. The first evidence of pubertal development in female is 12. The blood vessels in the umbilical cord consists of:
usually manifest as:  (Banaras HU 2015)  (LNJP H D 2012)
a. Onset of menarche a. Two veins and one artery b. Two arteries and two veins
b. Appearance of breast buds c. One artery and one vein d. Two arteries and one vein Ans.
c. Appearance of axillary and pubic hair 13. Menarche is:  (LNJP H D 2012) 1. c
d. Onset of growth spurt a. The entire span of the menstrual cycle from onset to 2. c
4. Lactose present in a milk is a :  (Banaras HU 2015) menopause 3. b
a. Polysaccharide b. Disaccharide b. A girl’s first menstruation 4. b
c. Heteropolysaccharide d. Monosaccharide c. The first year of menstruation which usually occurs without 5. c
5. Which one of the following is a major protein present in ovulation 6. b
human milk?  (Banaras HU 2015) d. The onset of uterine maturation 7. c
a. Lactalbumin b. Lactoglobulin 14. The outermost membrane of the placenta is: 8. b
c. Casein d. Lactoferrin  (LNJP H D 2012) 9. b
6. Characteristic hormone of the placenta is: a. Chorion b. Amnion 10. a
 (Kerala PSC, Nov 2014) c. Cotyledons d. Yolk sac 11. a
a. Oestrogen b. Chorionic gonadotropin 15. The fertilization of ovum in female takes place in the: 12. d
c. Corticotrophin d. Oxytocin  (LNJP H D 2012) 13. b
a. Vagina b. Cervix 14. a
7. After ovulation corpus luteum formed in the ovary releases:
c. Oviduct d. Uterus 15. c
 (Staff Nurse G II 2014)
16. b
a. Testosterone b. Aldosterone 16. How many pairs of chromosomes in man? (RRB Feb 2012) 17. c
c. Progesterone d. Estrogen a. 24 b. 23 18. d
8. Morbidly adherent placenta is called as: c. 22 d. None 19. d
 (Staff Nurse G II 2014) 17. Endometrium after conception is known as:
a. Battledore placenta  (RRB Feb 2012)
b. Placenta accreta a. Perimetrium b. Myometrium
c. Placenta succenturiata c. Decidua d. Prometrium
d. Placenta circumvallate 18. Site of fertilization in female reproductive system is:
9. Normal weight of placenta at term is:  (RRB Feb 2012)
 (Staff Nurse G II 2014) a. Ovary b. Cervix
a. 1/4th of baby weight c. Uterus d. Fallopian tube
b. 1/6th of baby weight 19. Corpus luteum is found in:  (RRB Feb 2012)
c. 500 g a. Foetus b. Placenta
d. 900 g c. Uterus d. Ovary
529

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MCQs with Explanations : 288 Qs (35 New Qs Added)
Practice Questions : 550 Qs (25 New Qs Added)

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 “Great is the man who has not lost his childlike heart.”
—Mencius

Pediatric Nursing

SYNOPSIS
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT yy Environmental factors (Infections,illness,trauma to growing part
of bones)
yy Social factors (Socioeconomic class, cultural habits, education of
GROWTH parents, education of child, psychological factors and psychosocial
It denotes the net increase in size or mass of tissue. It is a quantitative factors)
measurement.
PRINCIPLES OF GROWTH AND
DEVELOPMENT DEVELOPMENT
It specifies the maturation of function. It is a qualitative measurement.
yy Growth and development in children is a continuous orderly
process.
STAGES OF GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT yy Growth pattern of every individual is unique.
Prenatal Period yy Different body tissue grows at different rate
Ovum 0–14 days after conception yy Development is a continuous process.
Embryo 14 days to 8 weeks yy Development depends upon the maturation of nervous system.
Fetus 8 weeks to birth (8–40 weeks) yy The sequence of attainment of milestone is same in all children.
yy The process of development progresses in cephalocaudal
Postnatal Period direction and proximodistal direction.
Neonate/newborn 0–28 days yy Certain primitive reflexes have to be lost before attainment of
Infancy 28 days - 1 years relevant milestone.
Toddler 1-3 years yy The initial disorganized mass activity is gradually replaced by
Pre-school child 3–6 years specific and wilful actions.
School going child 6–10 years (girls) 6–12 years (boys) yy Development depends on maturation and learning.
Adolescent puberty–adulthood
Early adolescent 12–14 years
Middle adolescent 14–16 years WEIGHT
Late adolescent 16–20 years The average weight of a neonate is 3 kg. In Indian children 2.5–3.5 kg
is considered as normal.
In the first few days after birth newborn loses extracellular fluid
FACTORS AFFECTING GROWTH AND equivalent to 10% of the body weight. So, there will be slight decline
DEVELOPMENT in the Birthweight of the baby. The usual pattern of gaining weight is
yy Age shown in the table.
yy Sex
yy Race
Age of the baby* Weight of the baby*
yy Biorhythm Birth X
yy Genetic factors 5–6 months 2x
yy Seasonal variation
1 year 3x
yy Antenatal factors
yy Natal factors 2 years 4x
yy Nutritional factors 3 years 5x
yy Hormonal factors 5 years 6x
Contd...

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “It is a wise father that knows his own child.”
—William Shakespeare

MCQs with Explanations

1. According to Erickson’s psychosocial theory, what is the reflux and respiratory disorders. The dislodgement of the orogastric
developmental task of a toddler? tube increases the risk for developing the complications. So, this
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) should be reported to the Physician immediately.
a. Autonomy/shame and doubt 4. A 6-year-old child is admitted with nephrotic syndrome.
b. Trust/Mistrust Which is the significant nursing intervention to be done
c. Industry/Inferiority daily by a nurse? (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
d. Initiative/Guilt a. Checking temperature
b. Measuring mid arm circumference
Explanation: Toddlers are 1–3 years old children. In this age group
c. Checking capillary refill
the child is developing physically and become more mobile and
d. Monitoring intake output
discovering that he/she has many skills or abilities like putting on
clothes and shoes etc. If children in this stage are supported in their Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome is defined as a group of
increased independence, they develop a sense of autonomy and if symptoms characterized by number of renal or extra renal features,
they are criticized or not giving opportunity to assert themselves most prominent of which are proteinuria (>3. 5 gm/24hrs),
then they feel a sense of shame and doubt in their abilities. hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypercoagulability.
2. In a child with mild hemophilia A, the factor VIII level is: So, it is very important to maintain intake output chart to maintain
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) fluid and electrolyte balance and prevent dehydration
a. 5–50% b. <1% 5. A mother asks her two-year child, “Do you want to eat now?”
c. 50–60% d. 1–5% The child responds “No”. Which of the following behavioral
characteristics does the child elicit?
Explanation: The severity of Hemophilia has been defined by a  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
traditional classification into three forms: Mild form in which factor a. Egocentrism b. Negativism
VIII level is more than 5 to 40 % of normal (factor level: >0. 05 to 0. c. Egomania d. Ritualism
40 IU/mL), Moderate form in which factor VIII level is 1 to 5 % of the
normal (factor level: 0. 01 to 0. 05 IU/mL) and Severe form in which Explanation: Negativism is a behavior characterized by the
factor VIII level is <1 % of the normal (factor level is <0. 01 IU/mL). tendency to resist direction from others, and refusal to comply
with requests. This behavior is commonly encountered with young
3. A 2-days-old neonate underwent corrective surgery for
children (toddlers).
tracheoesophageal fistula two days back. Which of the
following needs to be reported by the nurse? 6. An 18-month-old child was brought to the well-baby clinic
 (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) for booster dose of DPT vaccine. Which among the following
a. Diminished bowel sounds muscle is preferred by the nurse to administer vaccine?
b. Excessive crying, irritability  (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
c. Pulse rate 130 beats/min a. Dorsogluteal b. Ventrogluteal
d. Dislodgement of orogastric tube c. Deltoid d. Vastuslateralis

Explanation: Esophageal atresia with or without Tracheoesophageal Explanation: Vastuslateralis is the best choice for IM injection
fistula is the most common congenital anomaly of the esophagus. The because in infants or younger children this muscle has an adequate
primary surgical correction is the best option in the absence of severe amount of muscle mass. If another muscle is used the delivery of
malformation. But the primary complications during postoperative vaccine could be compromised or needle may hit the bone which
period are leak and stenosis of the anastomosis, gastro- esophageal may cause severe pain.

Answer
1. a. Autonomy/shame and doubt 2. a. 5–50% 3. d. Dislodgement of orog...
4. d. Monitoring intake output 5. b. Negativism 6. d. Vastuslateralis

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 Section A

7. Tetralogy of fallot includes all the following conditions,

Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

Explanation: The roles of pediatric nurse are primary caregiver,

EXCEPT: (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) coordinator, collaborator, Advocate , Health educator, consultant.
a. Overriding aorta b. Pulmonic stenosis counsellor, case manager, recreationist, social worker and researcher.
c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. Ventricular septal defect
11. The premature closure of the sagittal suture is called:
Explanation: Tetralogy of fallot is congenital heart disease which  (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
includes four heart defects which are Overriding aorta, Pulmonic a. Scaphocephaly
stenosis, Ventricular Septal defect and Right ventricular hypertrophy b. Oxycephaly
c. Acrocephaly
8. A 10-year-old child with asthma is admitted to the ward.
d. Anencephaly
Which of the following observations needs immediate action
by the nurse? (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018) Explanation: Scaphocephaly is a type of cephalic disorder which
a. Breath rate 20/min occurs when there is a premature fusion of the sagittal suture.
b. Sitting upright and refusing to lie down yy Oxycephaly: Premature closure of coronal suture.
c. Refusing to eat food yy Acrocephaly: Premature closure of the lambdoid and coronal
d. Oxygen saturation 96% sutures.
yy Plagocephaly: Asymmetrical distortion (flattening of one side)
Explanation: In children Asthma Attack Scale is used to determine
of the skull.
the disease severity and it has four level i e. Mild (no SOB at rest, mild
yy Anencephaly: Absence of major portion of brain.
SOB with walking, can talk normally, can lay down normally, wheezes
not heard or mild), Moderate (SOB at rest, speaks in phrases, sitting 12. In the stages of growth and development, the infancy extends
upright and refusing to lie down, wheezing can be heard), Severe from: (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
(severe SOB at rest, can talk in single words, wheezing may be loud) a. Birth to 4 weeks
and Peak flow rate which tells how well a person can move air out of b. Birth to 1 year
the lungs. In above scenario nurses need to take immediate action c. 4 weeks to 1 year
because the child develops a moderate type of asthma attack. d. 1 to 3 years
9. Projectile vomiting is a characteristic of which of the Explanation:
following conditions? (AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018)
a. Pyloric stenosis b. Hernia 0–28 days - newborn
c. Imperforate anus d. Appendicitis 1 month-year: Infant
1–3 years: Toddlers
Explanation: Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the opening from 3–6 years: Preschoolers
the stomach to the first part of the small intestine characterized by 6–12 years: Schoolers
projectile vomiting without the presence of bile. This occurs due 12–18 years: Adolescents
to the hypertrophic pylorus muscles which obstructs the gastric 13. A 5-year-old child gets admitted to the hospital with the
pathway diagnosis of Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD). If
10. The primary role of the pediatric nurse is to provide nursing the child is at the third stage, what would be the clinical
care as: (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017) symptoms present?: (AIIMS Raipur Grade II 2017)
a. A collaborator, Care coordinator and consultant a. Profuse hyaline membranes and patchy mucosal cilia loss
b. An advocate, educator and manager b. Interstitial fibrosis and epithelial proliferation
c. An independent and autonomous practitioner c. Edema of the interstitium and necrosis of alveolar cells
d. Clinical specialist and case manager d. Alveolar collapse and difficulty in oxygenation

Explanation:

Stage 1 (1–3 days) Stage 2 (4–10 days) Stage 3 (11–20 days) Stage 4 (>1 month)
Presence of hyaline Lung destruction Hypertrophy of the remaining alveoli, Emphysematous alveoli are seen.
membranes, resulting in ischemic bronchial-wall muscle and glands, Pulmonary hypertension, cor pulmonale.
atelectasis, vascular necrosis of airways Airtrapping, pulmonary hyperinflation, Fibrosis, atelectasis, a cobblestone
hyperemia, and and bronchiolar tracheomegaly, tracheomalacia, interstitial appearance due to uneven lung aeration,
lymphatic dilatation obstruction edema, and ciliary dysfunction and pleural pseudofissures are seen.

Answer
7. c. Patent ductus arteriosus 8. b. Sitting upright and refusing... 9. a. Pyloric stenosis
10. b. An advocate, educator... 11. a. Scaphocephaly 12. c. 4 weeks to 1 year
13. d. Alveolar collapse and difficulty in oxygenation

608

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “Children are our most valuable resource.”
—Gore Vidal

Practice Questions

10. Which part of the brain controls and integrates activities of

GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
the autonomic nervous system? 
1. Crawling of an Infant occurs at:  a. Hypothalamus b. Epithalamus
a. 8 to 9 months b. 2 to 3 months c. Midbrain d. Thalamus
c. 4 to 5 months d. 6 to 8 months 11. Which of the following best describes typical annual growth
2. Closure of anterior fontanel takes place by: during the school age years? 
 a. Few physical differences are noticeable between age mates
a. 6 weeks b. 6 months throughout this period
c. 1½ year d. 2 years b. Fat pads increase in number and add to the normal “chubby”
3. An infant sits alone momentarily by about……month of age. appearance of the child
 c. Child grows an average of 2 inches (5.2 cm) per year
a. 2 b. 3 d. Child gain an average of 3 pounds (1.4 kg) per year
c. 4 d. 6 12. Popcorn and nuts should not be given to a toddler primarily
Ans.
4. A new born baby with the head circumference of 35 cm will because they:
be having an optimal head circumference of 45 cm will be at a. Will spoil the child’s appetite 1. a
…………age b. Can cause tooth decay 2. c
a. 4 months b. 6 months c. Are easily aspirated 3. d
c. 8 months d. 12 months d. Have very little food value
4. c
5. Taste perception of a baby develops at …………….. 13. The child has a complete set of deciduous teeth at the age of 5. a
a. Birth b. 3 months ……years.  6. c
c. 6 months d. 9 months a. 1 ½ year b. 2 years
7. a
c. 1 year d. 2 ½ years
6. Which among the following statement describe the parallel 8. a
play between two toddlers? 14. A nurse is assessing a one month old infant. Which of
9. d
a. Sharing crayons to color two different pictures the following findings should be reported by the nurse
10. a
b. Playing a board game with nurse immediately?
a. Heart rate of 140 beats per minute 11. c
c. Sitting near to each other and playing with own toys
d. Sharing their toys with two different nurse b. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute 12. c
c. Inspiratory grunt 13. d
7. All of the following informations are sought in the well-baby
d. Abdominal respirations 14. c
clinic except:  (Banaras HU 2015)
a. Schooling 15. The primary psychosocial task during adolescence is to 15. a
b. Breastfeeding establish 16. b
c. Sleep pattern a. Identity b. Intimacy 17. c
d. Child growth and development c. Autonomy d. None of the above
8. Typical type of play in a toddler is:  (Staff Nurse G II 2014) 16. A 3-year-old male child is likely to perform which of the
a. Parallel play following act
b. Cooperative play a. Tie the shoelaces
c. Associative play b. Pedaling a tricyle
d. Onlooker play c. Threading beads
9. During the first year after birth an infant’s birth weight d. Write letters
normally:  17. The average length of a normal newborn baby is
a. Quadruples b. Doubles a. 45 cm b. 43 cm
c. Remain stable d. Triples c. 50 cm d. 35 cm

639

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NURSING EDUCATION

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Subject Outline
Synopsis : 13 (8 New Topics Added)
Image-Based Questions with Explanations (O) : 3
Practice Questions : 135 Qs (3 New Qs Added)

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——Woody Allen

Nursing Education

SYNOPSIS
EDUCATION
yy It brings changes in behaviour of the individual in a desirable manner. It aims at all-round development of an individual.

PHILOSOPHIES OF EDUCATION
The term ‘Philosophy’ has been derived from two word. i.e. “philos” means ‘love’ and “Sophia” means ‘wisdom’. Philosophy means love for
wisdom.

Traditional Philosophies
Character Naturalism Idealism Pragmatism Realism
(Experimentalism)
Exponents •• Aristotle •• Plato is a father of •• William James is the •• J Friedrich Herbert
•• JJ Rousseau Idealism father of Pragmatism •• Herbert Spencer
•• Socrates, Kant, Hegel, •• John Dewey, S. Kil •• Franklin Bobbitt
Guru Nanak, Tagore, Patrick
Mahatma Gandhi, •• Margaret H and Mead
Dayananda, etc.
Fundamental •• Separates nature from •• Ideas or thoughts make •• It is the product of •• Correspondence and
principles God up fundamental reality practical experiences sensation (as we see it).
•• Human life is part of •• Ultimate reality is of life •• What is true and real in
nature spiritual rather than •• Based on practical utility. daily life is admissible
•• Emphasize on ‘matter physical, mental or •• The emphasize is on •• Opposes to idealism
and the physical world’ material action rather than on •• Against spiritualism
•• Ignores spirituality and •• The only real things thought
supernaturalism are mental entities, not •• Experimental method of
physical things science
Aims of Self-realization, Idealism emphasize on Creation of new values, Man leads a happy and
Education Self-expression, Self- the glory and grandeur of activity and experience, comfortable life through
preservation, Struggle for human life. personal and social education.
existence adjustment, reconstruction To develop memory of the
of experience, all-round child.
personality development

Contd...

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “The best way to make children good is to make them happy.”
—Oscar Wilde

Practice Questions

9. Communication is described as the “matrix for all thought

EVOLUTION OF NURSING EDUCATION IN INDIA
and relationships between persons” said by
1. The function of Indian Nursing Council is to a. William Scott
a. Arrange for university inspections of colleges in respective b Murray and Zentner
states c. GG Brown
b. Financial assistance to conferences and seminars conducted d. WH Newman
by nursing colleges 10. Mental processing of the message and understanding the
c. Make policies for Nursing Education and Practice senders’ message is ---------------
d. Recruit nursing personnel in hospitals a. Decode b. Encode
2. In India, first MSc Nursing programme was started in RAK c. Feedback d. Imagination
college in the year (Tutor Exam 2015, AIIMS, Rishikesh) 11. A technique whereby to repeats the main message the client
a. 1959 b. 1948 has expressed is ---------------
c. 1946 d. 1970 a. Listening b. Restating
Ans.
3. Trained Nurses Association of India (TNAI) was formed in c. Clarification d. Reflection
the year 12. If a person is communicating with his friend on telephone is
1. c
a. 1928 b. 1947 referred as
c. 1908 d. 1890 a. Intrapersonal communication 2. a
4. The International Council of Nurses (ICN) was established b. Interpersonal communication 3. c
in the year (Tutor Exam 2015, AIIMS, Rishikesh) c. Media communication 4. b
a. 1869 b. 1899 d. Mass communication
5. c
c. 1928 d. 1905 13. Special words or expressions used by a profession or group
6. a
5. In India, the first four year basic Bachelor Degree nursing that are difficult for others to understand is known as
program was established in a. Equivocal terms b. Jargon 7. a
a. 1920 b. 1940 c. Technical terms d. Code language 8. a
c. 1946 d. 1955 14. An automatic psychological process of receiving aural 9. b
6. The International Council of Nurses (ICN) is headquartered stimuli is known as
10. a
in: a. Listening b. Hearing
c. Understanding d. Speaking 11. b
a. Geneva, Switzerland
b. Washington, US 15. In the communication process to encode means to 12. b
c. New York, US a. Convert coded language into meaning 13. b
d. London, UK b. Translate ideas into a code 14. a
c. Infer the jargons
15. b
COMMUNICATION PROCESS d. Analyse the code
16. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal comm- 16. b
7. Aspects of verbal communication includes 17. b
unication?
a. Vocabulary a. Vernacular language
b. Postures b. Smile
c. Art and music c. Jargon
d. Messages within message d. Slang
8. Barriers of communication includes --------------- 17. The one who receive the message is known as
a. Information overload b. Exploring a. Encoder b. Decoder
c. Focusing d. Summarizing c. Communicator d. Mediator

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 9
NURSING RESEARCH

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Image-Based Questions with Explanations (O) : 2
Practice Questions : 365 Qs (27 New Qs Added)

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Nursing Research

SYNOPSIS
INTRODUCTION DISSEMINATION PHASE
yy Nursing research provides evidence used to support nursing yy Communicating results.
practices.

STEPS IN THE QUALITATIVE

DEFINITION RESEARCH PROCESS
yy Nursing research is a planned attempt to increase nursing yy Define/clarify broad topic
knowledge by the discovery of new facts through systematic yy Review of the literature
enquiry. yy Identify site/setting
yy Obtain access
yy Obtain and test equipment
STEPS IN THE QUANTITATIVE yy Begin data collection/analysis
yy Identify themes/categories
RESEARCH PROCESS yy Triangulation/saturation
yy Formulate hypotheses/theories
CONCEPTUAL PHASE yy Communicate findings
yy Formulating and delimiting the problem.
yy Reviewing the literature.
yy Developing a theoretical framework. RESEARCH PROCESS
yy Identifying the research variables.
yy Formulating hypotheses. RESEARCH PROBLEM
yy It is the first step in research process.
DESIGN AND PLANNING PHASE yy A research problem is a question that researcher wants to answer
or a problem that a researcher wants to solve.
yy Selecting a research design.
yy Specifying the population.
yy Operationalizing the variables. REVIEW OF LITERATURE
yy Conducting the pilot study/making revisions. Review of Literature (ROL) is a systematic way of presentation of
relevant references along with brief findings in the specific juncture
for the proposed study or research proposal.
EMPIRICAL PHASE
yy Selecting the sample.
yy Collecting the data. Sources of Review of Literature
yy Organizing data for analysis. yy Primary sources: A primary source provides direct or first-hand
evidence about an event, object, person, or work of art. Examples
include:
ANALYTIC PHASE  Historical and legal documents.
yy Analyzing the data.  Original research articles found in Scholarly journals.
yy Interpreting the results.  Published thesis.

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 “We have two ears and one tongue so that we would listen more and talk
less.”
—Diogenese

Practice Questions

1. Spread of dispersion is expressed by 11. Likert scale is:

 (AIIMS Jodhpur SNO 2018) a. Ordinal scale b. Normal scale
a. Mean b. SD c. Variance scale d. Categorical scale
c. Mode d. Median 12. Which of the following describes what a problem is?
2. Relationship between weight in kg and height in cm can be a. Usually a question that needs to be answered
showed in (AIIMS Jodhpur SNO 2018) b. The aim of the study
a. Bar diagram b. Scattered plot c. Direction and form of the study
c. Histogram d. Pie chart d. Predictor of relationship between two or more variable
3. Correlation is strongest (AIIMS Jodhpur SNO 2018) 13. PICO means _____________
a. – 1.00 b. – 0.95 a. Population, intervention, comparison, outcome
c. + 0.90 d. + 0.10 b. Prevalence, incidence, cohort, observation
4. The square root of the variance is c. Polio, influenza, chickenpox, ovulation
a. Standard deviation b. Standard error d. Patient, injection, catheterization, operation
Ans.
c. Z Score d. Variance 14. Discrepancy between what is known and what ought to be
1. b known is described as
5. Which of the following is not a measure of variability?
2. b a. Median b. Variance a. Research results b. Research phenomenon
3. a c. Standard deviation d. Range c. Research objective d. Research problem
6. The process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of 15. Which of the following is TRUE?
4. a
ideas is known as a. Problem statement is why study is being done
5. a a. Inductive reasoning b. Research purpose is what will be examined in the study
6. b b. Deductive reasoning c. Research questions provide greater focus to research
c. Idealism d. Research feasibility ignores the money aspect
7. c
d. Logical reasoning 16. The initial and one of the most significant steps in conducting
8. c
7. The first step of the Research Process is to : the research process is:
9. c a. Prepare the Research Design a. Defining the research variables
10. b b. Complete Data Collection and Analysis b. Identifying the research problem
c. Formulate the Research Questions c. Stating the research purposes.
11. a
d. Prepare the Report d. Determining the feasibility of the study
12. a 17. Which of the following is not the element of a research state-
8. As a professional, a nurse can do research for varied reason
13. a except: ment?
14. d a. Professional advancement a. Research design b. Research instrument
b. To validate the results of new nursing modalities. c. Population d. Setting
15. c c. For financial gains 18. Problem identification in the research process would be
16. b d. To improve nursing care equivalent to which step in the nursing process?
17. b 9. Who is the first nurse researcher? a. Nursing assessment b. Planning
a. Martha Rogers b. Dorethea Orem c. Implementation d. Evaluation
18. a
c. Florence Nightingale d. Sr. Callista Roy 19. The central concepts of conceptual models in nursing
19. c
10. Which of the following is not the purpose of pilot study? includes
a. Tool refinement a. Head, Heart and Hand
b. Fine tune the data collection process b. Human, Health, Disease and Environment
c. Help in sample size calculation c. Man, Health, Environment and Nursing
d. Drawing final inferences d. Agent, Host, Reservoir and Environment

694

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 10
NURSING ADMINISTRATION
AND MANAGEMENT

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“It is not the death or pain that is to be dreaded, but the fear of pain or death.”
—Epictetus

Nursing Administration
and Management

SYNOPSIS
ORGANIZATION yy Replaced the old rule-of-thumb method.
yy Believed in selecting, training, teaching and developing workers.
A systematic arrangement of people brought together to accomplish yy Used time study, standards planning, exception rule of
some specific purpose/goal. management, slide-rules, instruction cards, incentives, etc.

ADMINISTRATION Frank and Lillian Gilbreth

It is the organization and direction of human and material resources yy Reduced number of movements in bricklaying, resulting in
to achieve desired goals. (Pfiffner & Presthus) increased output of 200%

Henry Gantt
MANAGEMENT yy Developed other techniques, including the Gantt chart, to
improve working efficiency through planning/scheduling.
Process of getting things done efficiently and effectively through and
with other people. Administrative Management Theory
yy Focuses on managing the organization
LEVELS OF MANAGEMENT
� Top Managers Henri Fayol
� Middle Managers yy Wrote General and Industrial Management
� First-Line Managers yy Helped to systematize the practice of management
yy First to describe management as planning, organizing, leading
THEORIES OF MANAGEMENT and controlling.
1. Classical Management Perspective
2. Behavioral Management Perspective Fayol’s 14 Principles of Management
3. Quantitative Management Perspective yy Division of labor
yy Authority
1. Classical Management Perspective yy Discipline
yy Unity of command
It includes both scientific management and administrative manage-
yy Unity of direction
ment.
yy Subordination of individuals to the common good
yy Concerned with improving the performance of individual
yy Remuneration
workers (i.e., efficiency).
yy Centralization
yy A theory that focuses on managing the organization as a whole.
yy Scalar chain
yy Order
Scientific Management yy Equity
yy Stability
Frederick Taylor yy Initiative
yy Father of scientific management yy Esprit de corps

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “Most people dig their own graves with their knives and fork.”
—Parmahansa Yoganand

Practice Questions

1. Which of the following methods in health communication c. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating,
helps to perform a skill? (Kerala PSC, Nov 2014) Reporting, and Budgeting
a. Lecture b. Demonstration d. Preparation, Observation, Staffing, Directing, coordinating,
c. Seminar d. Symposium Reporting and Budgeting
2. The style of leadership that dominates and commands the 12. Which of the following is a characteristics of Theory X?
group is:  (DSSSB PHN, 2015) a. Highly motivated employees
a. Autocratic b. Democratic b. Employees will take their own responsibility and does not
c. Situational d. Laissez-faire need to be coerced to work
3. False harmful written report is called: c. Employees inherently dislikes work
 (Kerala PSC, Nov 2014) d. Employees will do his work no matter what
a. Libel b. Slander 13. Mr Anoop is a person who has natural dislike for work. He
c. Tort d. Felony avoids responsibility and has to be forced to do his work.
4. Checking the equipment and supplies periodically is known He also has ambition. Which of the following theory best
Ans. as explains this scenario his character?
a. Item analysis b. Investigation a. Theory X
1. b c. Inventory d. Indent b. Theory Y
2. a 5. Characteristics of good reporting includes c. Contingency theory
3. a a. Fact b. Accuracy d. Two factor theory
c. Legibility d. All of the above 14. Mrs Renuka, a CHC head nurse, is highly motivated to work.
4. c 6. Theory X and theory Y of management was proposed by She will take responsibility is also very open and will make
5. d a. William Ouchi b. Douglas McGregor changes if necessary. She needs very little or no direction and
6. b c. Mary Follett d. Frederick Taylor will work on her own. Which of the following theories best
7. Scientific Management Theory was developed by describes her character?
7. b a. Douglas McGregor b. Frederick Taylor a. Theory X b. Theory Y
8. a c. Adam Smith d. Max Weber c. Contingency theory d. System theory
9. b 8. Two-factor theory (Motivation-Hygiene theory) of manage- 15. Which type of leadership theories considers that the people
ment was proposed by inherit certain qualities that make them better suited to
10. b a. Frederick Herzberg b. W. Edwards Deming leadership?
11. c c. Frederick Taylor d. Elton Mayo a. Learning theories b. Trait Theories
9. Hawthorne experiments were conducted by c. Behavioral theories d. “Great Man” theory
12. c
a. Edwards Deming b. Elton Mayo 16. The process of linking each item of expenditure to its justified
13. a c. Henry Ford d. F.W Taylor purpose is known as
14. b 10. “When managers make a decision, they must take into a. Cost analysis b. Cost Saving
account all aspects of the current situation and act on those c. Cost Accounting d. Value Analysis
15. b
aspects that are key to the situation at hand”. This is stated by 17. The tendency to over-rate an employee’s performance is
16. c which of the following management theory? known as
17. b a. Theory X b. Contingency Theory a. Positive effect b. Halo Effect
c. Chaos Theory d. Frederick Taylor c. Hawthorn Effect d. Biasness
18. b
11. With reference to elements of administration, POSDCORB 18. In a health camp conducted in a rural area, the function of
stands for the nurse manager includes all of the following, EXCEPT
a. Planning, Observing, Staffing, Directing, Controlling, a. Maintaining Records and Reports
Reporting, and Budgeting b. Writing Prescriptions dictated by physicians
b. Preparation, organizing, staffing, Directing, Controlling, c. Organizing Physical Facilities
Reporting and Budgeting d. Conducting a health awareness programme

718

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 11
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

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Image-Based Questions with Explanations (O) : 2
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“The four points of a medical student’s compass are: Inspection, Palpation,
Percussion and Auscultation.”
—William Osler

Anatomy and Physiology

SYNOPSIS
SKELETAL SYSTEM

A B

Figs 1A and B: Skeletal system of human body: (A) Anterior view; (B) Posterior view

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “A good man never dies.”
—Callimachus

Practice Questions

CELL & TISSUES 12. Plasma membrane of eukaryotic organisms made up of ……

a. Phospholipid bilayer
1. Life span of RBC’s is: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) b. Phospholipid monolayer
a. 120 days b. 80 days c. Carbohydrate, protein and fat
c. 200 days d. 60 days d. Carbon, nitrogen and oxygen
2. Mitosis is a condition of  (Banaras HU 2015) 13. Structure and motility of the cell is maintained by ………….
a. Cell breakdown a. Cartilage b. Microtubules
b. Cell division without reduction c. Nucleus d. Golgi apparatus
c. Cell death 14. Power house of human body is …………
d. Cell division with half chromosomes a. Nucleus b. Ribosome
3. Antibodies are produced by: (JIPMER 2012) c. Mitochondria d. Lysosome
a. Plasma Cells b. Lymphocytes 15. Produced form of energy is ……………
c. Erythrocytes d. Basophills a. ATP b. ADP Ans.
4. Powerhouse of the cell is: (ESIC Chennai May 2012) c. GTP d. Actin
a. Mitochondria b. Nucleus 16. Cytoplasm refers to 1. a
c. Golgi bodies d. Cell wall a. Contents of the cell including nucleus 2. b
5. Chief components of a cell are…………….. b. Contents of the cell excluding nucleus 3. b
a. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen c. Nucleus of the cell 4. a
b. Hydrogen, nitrogen, sodium and potassium d. Nucleus and cytosol of the cell 5. a
c. Magnesium, potassium, carbon and hydrogen 17. Protein factory in human cell is 6. b
d. Helium, nitrogen, calcium and carbon a. Ribosome b. Nucleus 7. c
6. The aqueous component of the cell, within which various c. Cytoplasm d. Golgi apparatus 8. b
organelles and particles are suspended, is 18. ___________ has no nucleus 9. d
a. Cytosol b. Cytoplasm a. RBCs b. WBCs
c. Nucleus d. Cytoblast 10. b
c. Lymphocytes d. Monocytes 11. b
7. Number of mitochondria is less in ……… 19. Pinocytosis are ………….. 12. a
a. Red fibers b. Myosin a. Drinking b. Phagocyting
c. White fibers d. Actin 13. b
c. Moving d. RNA production 14. c
8. Storage house of iron in a cell is …………… 20. Which of the following mechanism facilitates transfer of 15. a
a. WBC large particles across cell membrane?
b. Reticulo-endothelial system 16. b
a. Active transport b. Facilitated transport 17. a
c. Platelet c. Passive diffusion d. Phagocytosis
d. Ribosome 18. a
21. Phagocytosis is the responsibility of ………………… 19. a
9. Cytokines are responsible for ………………. a. Eosinophil b. Neutrophils
a. Pain b. Touch 20. d
c. Monocyte d. Lymphocyte 21. b
c. Sensation d. Inflammation
22. Which of the following order is correct about phases of 22. d
10. Largest organelle of a cell is ……………. mitosis cell division?
a. Golgi apparatus b. Nucleus a. Prophase – Anaphase - Telophase - Metaphase
c. Ribosome d. Entoplasmic Reticulum b. Prophase - Anaphase - Metaphase - Telophase
11. Suicidal bag of cell is ……….. c. Prophase - Metaphase - Telophase - Anaphase
a. Ribosome b. Lysosomes d. Prophase - Metaphase - Anaphase - Telophase
c. Vacuole d. Nucleus

741

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 12
MICROBIOLOGY

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 “We don’t know life, how can me know death?
—Confucius

Microbiology

SYNOPSIS
THE NORMAL BACTERIAL FLORA OF STAINING TECHNIQUES
HUMAN BODY Simple stain: Methylene blue
Negative stain: In negative stain, produces uniformly colored back-
RESIDENT FLORA ground against which uncolored organism strands out. E.g. India
ink
These organisms are relatively fixed and regular type of organism
found at a given body site. They perform functions such as synthesis Impregnation stains: Cells and structures that are too thin to be
of vitamin K, absorption of nutrient, breakdown of nutrients, etc. visualized by the light microscope and can be rendered visible by
impregnation of silver on their surface.
TRANSIENT FLORA
These are nonpathogenic and potentially pathogenic organisms. DIFFERENTIAL STAIN
These microorganisms do not produce disease under normal yy Gram’s stain
circumstances. But if normal flora is destroyed then they may yy Acid-fast stain
produce disease. yy Albert’s stain

NORMAL FLORA Gram’s Stain

yy Found by Christian Gram in 1884
Body site Name of normal flora
yy Used to study morphology
Eye (conjunctiva) Corynebacterium xerosis, coagulase yy When bacteria is treated with basic dyes such as methyl violet,
negative staphylococci, nonhemolytic crystal violet or gentian violet and then with iodine, retain
streptococci, their color even after decolorization with alcohol/ acetone.
The microorganisms retain the color and appear violet in color
Mouth and upper Streptococcus viridans, diphtheroids are called as Gram-positive bacteria. On the other hand the
respiratory tract coagulase negative staphylococci, microorganism decolorized will be seen with the help of a counter
anaerobic cocci, anaerobic spirochaetes, stain that give them red/pink color and are called as Gram-
bacteroides, anaerobic cocci, negative.
fusobacterium sp.

Gastrointestinal Lactobacilli, anaerobic streptococci, Acid-Fast Stain

(GI) Clostridium, Bacteroides, Salmonella, yy Normal dyes will not be able to penetrate TB bacilli. So the dye
Shigella, Yersinia, contains phenol and application of heat made them to penetrate
TB bacilli. Once the bacteria stained then they will withstand the
Genitourinary Mycobacterium smegmatis, alpha
action of powerful decolorizing agent for a considerable duration
hemolytic streptococci, lactobacilli,
of time.
Gardnerella vaginalis, and Bacteroides spp,
yy Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) will be seen as bright-red structure
Chlamydia trachomatis , B-hemolytic
whereas tissue, other organism are seen as blue/green depending
streptococci, anaerobic streptococci,
upon the counter stain.
clostridia, Ureaplasma urealyticum

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “It is a natural to die, as to be born.”
—Bacon

Practice Questions

1. The pressure set in autoclave for sterilization is: 11. Biological pesticides are produced by:(Staff Nurse G II 2014)
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015) a. Bacillus thuringiensis
a. 15 lb b. 5 lb b. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
c. 10 lb d. 20 lb c. Pseudomonas
2. The immunoglobulin found in mother’s breast milk is: d. Bacillus anthracis
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 12. Infection with group A beta hemolytic streptococci can lead
a. lg A b. Ig M to:  (JIPMER 2012)
c. Ig D d. 1g E a. Hepatitis b. Meningitis
3. Widal test is performed for identifying: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Rheumatic fever
a. Clostridium b. Salmonella 13. ELISA test is used to detect:  (ESIC Chennai May 2012)
c. Staphylococcus d. Meningococcal a. HIV infection b. Malaria infection
4. Schick’s test indicates the infection of:  (DSSSB PHN, 2015) c. Lung infection d. Cholera infection
a. Measles b. Mumps 14. Viruses are  (ESIC Chennai May 2012) Ans.
c. Diphtheria d. Rubella a. One-cell microorganisms with a simple cellular organization
5. In majority of the cases the causative organism for sore whose nucleus lacks a membrane. 1. a
throat is:  (Banaras HU 2015) b. Pieces of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) wrapped in a thin coat 2. a
a. Gonococci b. Staphylococci of protein that replicate only within the cells of living hosts 3. b
c. Meningococci d. Streptococci c. Multicellular organisms that live in or on a host to obtain 4. c
nourishment without providing any benefit to the host 5. d
6. The vaccination was first performed by  (Banaras HU 2015)
d. None of the above 6. b
a. Jonas Salk b. Edward Jenner
15. The Widal test is positive if TO antigen titer is more than: 7. c
c. Louis Pasteur d. Alexander Fleming
 (ESIC Chennai May 2012) 8. d
7. The optimum temperature for the growth of most pathogenic 9. c
a. 1: 70 in an active infection
bacteria is:  (Banaras HU 2015) 10. a
b. 1: 160 in an infection
a. 25°C b. 30°C 11. a
c. 1: 80 in an active infection
c. 37°C d. 42°C 12. d
d. 1: 90 in an active infection
8. Which one of the disease is not caused by an acid fast bacilli 13. a
16. VDRL test is performed to diagnose
(AFB)? (Banaras HU 2015) 14. b
 (ESIC Chennai May 2012)
a. Leprosy b. Tuberculosis 15. b
a. Syphilis b. Pregnancy
c. Nocardiosis d. Typhoid 16. a
c. All the above d. Myasthenia gravis
9. All are parts of the light microscope except: 17. a
17. Common cold is caused by:  (ESIC Chennai May 2012) 18. a
 (Banaras HU 2015)
a. Rhinovirus b. Staphylococcus aureus 19. b
a. Condenser
c. Shigella d. Escherichia coil
b. Eye-piece
c. Slide with cover slip 18. The most common early symptom of hepatitis ‘A’ is:
d. Objective lens  (LNJP H D 2012)
a. Loss of appetite b. Abdominal distention
10. Electron microscope use electron for their which property:
c. Shortness of breath d. Ecchymosis
 (Kerala PSC, Nov 2014)
a. Wave nature 19. Example of acid fast bacilli? (RRB Feb 2012)
b. Spin a. E. coli
c. Negative charge of electron b. Mycobacterium
d. None c. Chlostridium
d. None

777

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 13
BIOCHEMISTRY AND NUTRITION

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—Woody Allen

Biochemistry and Nutrition

SYNOPSIS
BIOCHEMISTRY
INTRODUCTION
yy Biochemistry is the study of chemical processes within and
related to the living organisms
yy The first enzyme discovered was ‘diastase’ (now called as
‘amylase’) in the year 1833
yy James Watson, Francis Crick, Maurice Wilkins, and Rosalind
franklin (1950s) codiscovered the helix structure of DNA.

THE CELL
yy The cell is the structural and functional unit of life
yy Living cells are divided into two groups
 Prokaryotes. E.g. Bacteria (unicellular)
 Eukaryotic cells. E.g. Animal cells, plant cells, fungi and
Fig. 1: Animal cell structure
protozoa (unicellular or multicellular)
yy Difference between Prokaryotic cells and Eukaryotic cells.

Parameters Prokaryotic cells Eukaryotic cells Cell

Cell size Small (1 – 10 nm) Large (1 to 10000 Nucleus
times larger in size •• Nucleus is the largest component of the cell, containing DNA
than prokaryotic cells) organized into separate chromosomes
Overall Simple Complex •• Nucleus is surrounded by nuclear membrane. Nuclear
organization membrane consists of two layers
•• The intermembrane space between inner and outer
Cell wall Present Absent membrane is known as perinuclear space (cisterns)
Cell Present sometimes Present •• The nucleus is filled with nucleoplasm which contains
membrane surrounded by capsule nucleolus and chromatin.
•• Function of nucleus includes control of cell division (DNA
Nucleus Single nucleus which Well defined nucleus
replication), protein synthesis
contains double helix with a membrane and
•• DNA and DNA polymerase are the markers of the nucleus.
DNA that is present in multiple DNA double
Endoplasmic Reticulum
a poorly defined region helices organized into
•• Cisternae have a role in the exchange of materials between
called nucleoid chromatin
the cell and the extracellular fluid
Reproduction Asexual Sexual •• Rough Endoplasmic reticulum (RER): Also called granular
Examples Bacteria, Blue green Animal and plant cells type of endoplasmic reticulum. It contains ribosomes
algae

Contd...

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “It is not the death or pain that is to be dreaded, but the fear of pain or death.”
—Epictetus

Practice Questions

1. Differentiate the essential amino acid in the following: 12. Which one of the following sugar concentration is highest in
 (DSSSB PHN, 2015) honey?  (Banaras HU 2015)
a. Proline b. Tyrosine a. Lactose b. Maltose
c. Glycine d. Valine c. Glucose d. Fructose
2. Which one of the following is an essential amino acid? 13. Which of the following symptoms is most commonly
 (Banaras HU 2015) associated with Vitamin C deficiency?
a. Alanine b. Serine  (Kerala PSC, Nov 2014)
c. Tryptophan d. Glutamic acid a. Photophobia b. Bleeding gums
3. Synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate source is referred c. Muscular hypoxia d. Conjunctival xerosis
as: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 14. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes:  (Kerala PSC, Nov 2014)
a. Glycolysis b. Gluconeogenesis a. Beriberi b. Rickets
c. Glycogenolysis d. Glycogenesis c. Pellagra d. Xerophthalmia
4. BMI greater than 30 is considered as: (DSSSB PHN, 2015) 15. Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy?
Ans. a. Overweight b. Bulimia  (Staff Nurse G II 2014)
c. Obese d. Stout a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B
1. d 5. Which of the following vitamins is soluble in water? c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C
2. c  (RRB SSNE 2015) 16. How many calories does 1 gm of fat give? (JIPMER 2012)
3. b a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C a. 4 b. 8
4. c c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin D c. 10 d. 9
6. Which nutrient is not found in eggs? (RRB SSNE 2015) 17. The mineral element which is essential for synthesis of
5. b
a. Carbohydrate and Vitamin-C thyroxin is:  (JIPMER 2012)
6. a
b. Protein and calcium a. Sodium b. Iron
7. b c. Fat and Vitamin-D c. Iodine d. Chloride
8. b d. Protein and Iron 18. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes pellagra:
9. b 7. Vitamin B1 is also known as:  (RRB SSNE 2015)  (JIPMER 2012)
10. c a. Niacin b. Thiamine a. Folic acid b. Vit. D
11. c c. Riboflavin d. Pyridoxin c. Vit. B12 d. Niacin
12. d 8. In which organ does the maximum absorption of Iron take 19. Prolonged use of Khesari dal can lead to: (JIPMER 2012)
13. b place?  (RRB SSNE 2015) a. Lathyrism b. Gastric upset
14. a a. Stomach b. Small Intestine c. Gout d. Esophagitis
15. d c. Colon d. Liver 20. Vitamin E is otherwise known as:  (JIPMER 2012)
9. Select the pair which has the same relationship as the pair a. Retinoic acid b. Tocopherol
16. d
Iodine : Goitre.  (RRB SSNE 2015) c. Calciferol d. Pantothenic acid
17. c
a. Mango : Anaemia b. Insulin : Diabetes 21. Protein deficiency disease is known as:
18. d c. Hormones : Cancer d. Fat : Obesity  (ESIC Chennai May 2012; ESIC Chennai May 2012)
19. a 10. Which of the following is significantly different between a. Gaucher’s disease b. Kwashiorkor
20. b human and cow’s milk ?  (RRB SSNE 2015) c. Cushing’s disease d. None of these above
21. b a. Proteins and Fat b. Proteins and sugar 22. Disease kwashiorkor is caused due to deficiency of
22. d c. Proteins and Lactose d. Minerals  (LNJP H D 2012)
11. Which one of the following vitamins help in wound healing? a. Fats
 (Banaras HU 2015) b. Vitamin A
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Carbohydrates
c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D d. Proteins

800

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 14
INTRODUCTION TO COMPUTER
AND NURSING INFORMATICS

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Practice Questions : 130 Qs (77 New Qs Added)

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—Parmahansa Yoganand

Introduction to Computer
and Nursing Informatics

SYNOPSIS
BASIC KEY TERMS 1024 GB = 1 Terabyte (TB)
1000 TB = 1 Petabyte
yy Access: To gain entry to data or reading the data yy Cache: It is a hardware or software component that temporarily
yy Analog: Using signals or information represented by a stores data so future requests for that data can be served faster.
continuously variable physical quantity such as spatial position, yy CD ROM (Compact Disk Read Only Memory): From CD ROM,
voltage, etc. the data can only be read but not edited, manipulated, or deleted.
yy ASCII: American Standard Code for Information Interchange yy Chip: Chip is short form for ‘microchip’. It is a small piece of
yy Backup: Saving any data or information for future semiconducting material implanted with an integrated circuit.
yy Bios: Controls input and output operations yy Code: Language expressed or understood by the computer
yy Binary: A binary digit, or bit, is the smallest unit of data in yy DOS (Disk Operating System): It is a command based operating
computing. It is represented by a 0 or a 1. system that runs from a hard disk drive. Most commonly refers to
yy Bit: The smallest unit of data in binary. MS-DOS (Microsoft Disk Operating System).
 8 bits = 1 byte
 4 bits = 1 nibble
yy Byte: They are group of binary digits or bits (usually eight)
HISTORY OF COMPUTERS
operated on a single unit. A byte is considered as a unit of a yy Charles Babbage is considered as the "father of the computer".
memory size. He originated the concept of a programmable computer (between
8 bits = 1 byte 1833 and 1871).
1024 Bytes = 1 kilobyte (KB) yy Microprocessor was invented by Ted Hoff, Stanley Mazor and
1024 KB = 1 Megabyte (MB) Federico Faggin (at Intel Inc) in 1970.
1024 MB = 1 Gigabyte (GB) yy Microcomputer was invented by H Edward Roberts in 1975
GENERATIONS OF COMPUTERS
Generation Period Features Examples
First 1940-1955 Vacuum tubes and magnetic tapes ENIAC, EDVAC,
Generation Slow in speed UNIVAC 1
Very huge in size
Limited storage size
Punched cards were used to input the data Processing time for calculation was
milliseconds
Second 1955-1964 Used Transistor for electronic circuitry. Large in size, relatively slow and expensive IBM, 1401, RCA501,
Generation Needed air conditioned room as they get heated up very quickly Honeywell 200, etc.
Processing time was microseconds
Third 1964-1975 Used integrated circuits (ICs) IBM 360 series and 370
Generation Keyboards and monitors were invented for input and output series
Operating system (OS) was designed PASCAL (high level language) was developed
Processing time was nanoseconds
Fourth 1975-1980 Used Microprocessor IBM personal
Generation Several input devices were introduced. E.g. Mouse, scanners, microphones etc. computers, Apple
Magnetic disk was used as primary external storage device Macintosh, HP 3000
Graphical user Interface (GUI) was developed
Contd...

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “One cannot think well, love well, sleep well, if one has not dined well.”
—Virginia Woolf

Practice Questions

1. What is the process of starting the computer called? 11. Right-justified text is aligned on:
a. Booting b. Shut down a. Left margin
c. Restart d. Memory b. Between the Left and right margin
2. CPU stands for c. Right margin
a. Control of Power Unit b. Central Program Unit d. Center
c. Central Processing Unit d. Central Power Unit 12. The function of inserting the content of the clipboard at the
3. It is an excellent program for calculation insertion point is called:
a. M.S. Word b. M.S. Power Point a. Cut b. Copy
c. M.S. Excel d. M.S.DOS c. Paste d. Delete
4. The small graphical buttons in Windows, which represent 13. A document for storing and calculating numerical data
folders, data files, program files etc. mainly used for financial planning and accounting
a. Programs b. Orientation a. Accounts b. Spreadsheet
c. Presentation d. Icons c. Business d. Template
Ans.
5. What is the function of Slide Show Button? 14. The function of checking the spelling is called:
a Edit a side a. Grammar check b. Accessing 1. a
b. Insert a picture in the slide c. Formatting d. Spell-check
2. c
c. View the slide show 15. To Boot/Boot up a computer means:
3. c
d. Give animation effect to the slide a. Start the computer
b. Install a program 4. d
6. To create a folder on the desktop
c. Shut Down the computer 5. c
a Left click on your desktop, click folder, new
b. Open a Word processor, click file, new d. Restart the computer 6. c
c. Right click on your desktop, click new, folder 16. What is it called when you remove some information from a 7. b
d. Open my computer, control panel, click new folder file or remove a file from the disk? 8. b
7. Devices such as the monitor speaker and printer are known a. Save b. Edit 9. d
as: c. Delete d. Highlight
10. d
a. Input b. Output 17. What do you do to enlarge an area of a document for easy
11. c
c. Processing d. Storage viewing?
a. Flip b. Trash 12. c
8. What do the letters ROM stand for?
a. Random Organized Memory c. Zoom d. View 13. b
b. Read Only Memory 18. Which of the following is an input device? 14. d
c. Ready Only Memory a. Speaker b. Printer 15. a
d. Ready Optional Memory c. Mouse d. Monitor 16. c
9. Slides can have 19. Which one is a storage device? 17. c
a. Title, text, graphs a. Speaker b. Headphones
18. c
b. Drawn objects, shapes c. Compact Disk d. Modem
c. Clipart, drawn art, visual 19. c
20. Computer is an ________________ machine that works
d. All of the above 20. b
under the control of stored programs.
10. What is the function of the backspace key? a. Electrical b. Electronic 21. c
a. Deletes the previous Word c. Clinical d. Hydraulic
b. Deletes one character to the right of the cursor 21. ___________ designed the first modern computer.
c. Deletes the next character a. Abacus b. Bill Gates
d. Deletes one character to the left of the cursor c. Charles Babbage d. APJ Abdul Kalam

819

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

B Section
PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

1 AIIMS New Delhi Nursing Officer 2018 (September) (Memory Based)

2 AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nursing Officer (Grade-I) 2018 (August)
3 AIIMS Bhopal Nursing Officer 2018 (Shift I) (Memory Based)
4 AIIMS Bhopal Nursing Officer 2018 (Shift II)
5 AIIMS Bhopal Senior Nursing Officer 2018
6 AIIMS Bhubaneswar Nursing Officer 2018
7 Banaras Hindu University 2018
8 Staff Nurses Recruitment Daman and Diu 2018
9 RUHS MSC Entrance Examination 2018
10 RAK MSc Nursing Entrance 2018
11 AIIMS Raipur Nursing Officer 2017 (Shift I)
12 AIIMS Raipur Nursing Officer 2017 (Shift II)
13 AIIMS Raipur Nursing Officer 2017 (Shift III)
14 AIIMS Raipur Senior Nursing Officer 2017
15 AIIMS Raipur Nursing Tutor 2017
16 RAKCON New Delhi MSc Nursing Entrance Exam 2017
17 Kerala PSC 2017
18 AIIMS Jodhpur & Rishikesh 2017
19 PGIMER 2016
20 AIIMS Bhopal 2016
21 ESIC Delhi 2016
22 GMCH Chandigarh 2016
23 Banaras Hindu University 2016
24 ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 (Set I)
25 ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 (Set II)
26 AIIMS Staff Nurse 2016
27 Tamil Nadu PSC for Maternal and Child Health Officer Nursing 2015
28 RRB Secunderabad Staff Nurse Examination 2015
29 JIPMER 2013
30 ESIC Chennai May 2012
Below Listed Papers are Covered Under Practice Qs Subject Wise
31 DSSSB PHN 2015 (Segregated Subjects)  
32 Banaras Hindu University, 2015 (Segregated Subjects)  
33 Kerala PSC, 2014 (Segregated Subjects)  
34 Staff Nurse Grade II Nov 2014 (Segregated Subjects)  
35 DSSSB Staff Nurse 2013 (Segregated Subjects)  
36 JIPMER 2012 (Segregated Subjects)  
37 LNJP Hospital Delhi, 2012 (Segregated Subjects)  
38 Railway Recruitment Board, February 2012 (Segregated Subjects)  

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “I have found the paradox that if I love until it hurts, then there is no hurt, but
only more love.”
—Mother Teresa

AIIMS New Delhi Nursing Officer

2018 (September) (Memory Based)
Disclaimer: All the questions are memory-based recall questions 13. Which of the following electrolyte imbalance is associated
with input from candidates appeared in aforesaid examination. with Digoxin toxicity?
Stem and distractor of the items may not be same. a. Hypokalemia
1. A chronic alcoholic patient blames his family environment b. Hypernatremia
for his alcoholism; which of the following defense mechanism c. Hypernatremia
was used by the patient? d. Hypocalcemia
a. Denial b. Projection 14. Route of administration of Rota vaccine­
c. Rationalization d. Sublimation a. Oral b. IM
2. Moro reflex disappears at which age c. IV d. Subcutaneous
a. 6 months b. 4 months 15. Whitish discharge from vagina is seen in-
c. 3 months d. 8 months a. Trichomoniasis b. Syphilis
3. Minimum scrubbing time for surgical handwash? c. Gonorrhea d. Candidiasis
a. l min b. 2min 16. Coarse Rattling sound in large airway?
c. 3min d. 5 min a. Stridor b. Ranchi Ans.
4. Which drug is used for prophylaxis of manic-depressive c. Rale d. Wheezing
disorder? 17. Red color urine is seen in which antitubercular drug? 1. b
a. lithium b. Valproate a. Rifampicin b. Ethambutol 2. c
c. Haloperidol d. Phenytoin c. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin 3. d
5. Which electrolyte has to be maintained in lithium therapy? 18. Complication associated with massive blood transfusion is 4. a
a. Sodium b. Potassium a. Hypokalemia and hypercalcemia 5. a
c. Calcium d. Magnesium b. Hyponatremia 6. d
6. Highly heat resistance vaccine is­ c. Hypernatremia 7. b
a. BCG b. MMR d. Hyperkalemia and Hypocalcemia 8. a
c. OPV d. TT 19. Ramsay Scale is used for the assessment of 9. d
7. Which drug is RELATIVELY Contraindicated in breast a. Anxious Patient. b. Sedation 10. a
feeding- 11. a
c. Arousal d. Pain
a. Propranolol b. Sulfonylurea 12. a
20. Breast milk can be stored at room temperature for how many
c. Cephalosporine d. Zidovudine 13. a
hours?
8. Most Common site for central line catheterization? 14. a
a. 2 hrs b. 4 hrs
a. Internal jugular vein b. femoral vein 15. d
c. 6 hrs d. 8 hrs
c. radial vein d. Biracial vein 16. c
9. Which Syringe is used for flushing PICC? 21. If LMP is 25 June, 2018, then what is the EDD? 17. a
a. l ml. b. 2ml. a. 2 April, 2019 18. d
c. 3ml. d. 5 ml. b. 4 April, 2019 19. b
10. Delirium tremens are withdrawal symptoms of- c. 2 March, 2019 20. b
a. Alcoholism b. Cocaine d. 4 March, 2019 21. a
c. Opioid d. Cannabis 22. After a road traffic accident which cannula is used for fluid 22. c
11. Common complication after perforation of appendix? replacement in casualty for an adult patient? 23. a
a. Peritonitis b. Hemorrhage a. Orange b. Purple
c. Intestinal obstruction d. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease c. Green d. Gray
12. Tuft of hair are seen in which type of neural tube defect? 23. Oxygen flow rate of Nasal cannula?
a. Spina bifida occulta b. Spina bifida Cystica a. 1-4 liter b. 5-8 liter
c. Enterocele d. Hydrocephalus c. 1-8 liter d. 1-3 liter

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Section B

24. Chromic catgut absorption time of chromic catgut suture - 39. which position is given to a patient after Mastectomy?
Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

a. 7 days b. 14 days a. Side line of affected side

c. 21 days d. 90 days b. Elevate affected hand with a pillow
25. In laparoscopy procedures gases is used for inflation c. Left lateral position
abdominal wall is d. Prone Position
a. Nitrous oxide b. Oxygen 40. Which position provided to a client after spinal anesthesia?
c. Carbon Dioxide d. Helium a. Sim’s
26. Which of the following is not an input device in a computer? b. Supine with under head Pellow
a. Mouse. b. Keyboard c. Flat
c. Scanner. d. Printer d. High fowler
27. Bishops score is used for? 41. In Hypotension which fluid is provided
a. Induction of labor b. Fetal Monitoring
a. Normal Saline b. Dextrose 10%
c. Progress of labor d. Fetal wellbeing
c. NS 3% d. Ringer Lactate
28. In a primigravida mother, engagement occurs at
42. Which of the following condition is a medical emergency
approximately ______ of gestation
that can be fatal
a. 30 – 32 weeks b. 32 – 34 weeks
a. Acute epiglottitis b. laryngo pneumonitis
c. 34 – 36 weeks d. 38 – 40 weeks
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Chronic asthma
29. Oral pills can cause all, except
a. Decreased risk of ovarian cancer 43. ICD tube is attached to
b. Decreased risk of breast cancer a. Closed drainage b. Open drainage
c. Increased risk of breast cancer c. Water seal chamber d. Negative suction pressure
d. Increased risk of cervical caner 44. Which instruction is given to the patient while removing
30. Select the ODD one chest tube?
a. Bed sheets b. Shirt a. Deep breath, exhale and bear down
c. Tablecloth d. Curtain b. Hold breath
31. Which of the following nursing action is required before c. Perform pursed lip breathing
giving clear liquid fluid after anesthesia? d. Lie down calmly
a. Check for bowel sound b. Check urine output 45. Most important Nursing action for fracture healing?
Ans. c. Check weight d. Check gag reflex a. Immobilization b. Calcium supplement
24. d 32. Which of the following nursing action is required before c. Exercise d. Antibiotics
25. c giving solid food after anesthesia? 46. Which complication may be seen in burn patient?
26. d a. Check for bowel sound and passing flatus a. Contracture B. DVT
27. a b. Check urine output c. Pulmonary embolism d. Varicose vein
28. c c. Check weight 47. Sunder Pichai is CEO of
29. b d. Check gag reflex a. Google b. Microsoft
30. b 33. Drug of choice for Bipolar Affective Disorder is c. C. Apple d. Samsung
31. d a. Lithium carbonate 48. Confirmatory Diagnostic test of multiple pregnancy is
32. a b. Chlorpromazine a. hCG b. Palpation
33. a c. Bupropion c. Ultrasonogram d. AFP
34. a d. Benzodiazepines
35. c 49. Which of the following parameter, the nurse must observe in
34. Height measurement of 2 year old child is done by
36. a an infant with shock?
a. Stadiometer b. Infantometer
37. a a. Urine output b. HR
C. Goniometer d. Refractometer
38. c c. Weight d. Respiration
35. Current director of Delhi AIIMS?
39. b 50. Which value of HbAlc in a Diabetic patient is indication of
a. Dr. S Mishra b. Dr. CV Mishra
40. c good control of blood sugar level-
c. Dr. Randeep Guleria d. J.P. Nadda
41. d 36. Normal value of serum potassium is a. 1 - 3 b. 6 - 8
42. a a. 3 - 5 mEq/L b. 5 - 8 mEq/L c. 8 - 10 d. 10 - 12
43. c c. 1 - 3 meq/1 d. 135 - 145 meq/1 51. Following plaster cast the nurse should asses first-
44. a 37. Major intracellular cation is a. Color of extremities b. Temperature
45. a a. Potassium b. Chloride c. Movement of toe d. Pallor
46. a c. Sodium d. Magnesium 52. Normal color of colostomy stoma?
47. a 38. Foot drop occurs due to a. Pale pink b. Brick red
48. c a. Sciatic nerve c. Dark red d. Yellowish
49. a b. Superficial peroneal artery 53. Characteristic feature of pyloric stenosis?
50. a c. Deep peroneal nerve a. Watery diarrhea b. Jelly like stool
51. c d. Brachial plexus c. Projectile vomiting d. Constipation
52. a
53. c

828

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “As for me all I know is that I know nothing.”
—Socrates

AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nursing

Officer (Grade-I) 2018 (August)
1. Who is the ‘Father of psychoanalytical Theory’? 9. Eugenics means:
a. Lawrence kohlberg a. Improvement of genetic endowment
b. Jean piaget b. Genetic counseling
c. Abraham maslow c. Improvement of environment
d. Sigmund freud d. Genetic preventive measures
2. Twitching of facial muscles when the facial nerve is tapped 10. Parrot-like repetition of words spoken by another person is
anterior to the earlobe is called: known as:
a. Chvostek’s sign b. Trousseau’s sign a. Echolalia b. Neologism
c. Homans’ Sign d. Brudzinski’s sign c. Echopraxia d. Dyscalculia
3. In a lecture on sexual functioning, a nurse will include the 11. How should a nurse assess whether a patient with cirrhosis
fact that ovulation occurs when the: has asterixis?
a. Endometrial wall is sloughed off a. Ask the patient to extend the arms
b. Blood level of LH is too high b. Instruct the patient to lean forward
c. Oxytocin level is too high c. Dorsiflex the patient’s foot Ans.
d. Progesterone level is high d. Measure the abdominal girth
4. Which of the following is used for passive immunization? 1. d
12. Which of the following immunoglobulin will be high in a
a. Killed vaccine person with an allergy? 2. a
b. Human and animal sera a. Ig E b. Ig G 3. b
c. Toxoid c. Ig M d. Ig A 4. b
d. Live attenuated vaccine 13. If a chest drainage system line is broken or interrupted, the 5. d
5. Management of wernicke’s disease and Beriberi involves nurse’s first course of action should be to:
administration of: 6. c
a. Document findings
a. Iodine b. Vitamin A b. Notify the physician 7. c
c. Vitamin C d. Thiamine c. Check the patient’s vitals 8. c
6. When toddlers move around on their hands keeping their d. Clamp the tube immediately 9. a
abdomen off the floor, it is called: 14. Which part of the mind is associated with practical reality 10. a
a. Squirming b. Crawling principle?
c. Creeping d. Rolling 11. a
a. Hyper-ago b. Super-ego
7. ‘Do no harm’ is which ethical principle? 12. a
c. Ego d. Id
a. Veracity 15. A rare condition in which separate personalities exist in the 13. d
b. Beneficence same person is called 14. c
c. Non-maleficence a. Dissociative identity disorder: 15. a
d. Justice b. Delusion
8. A nurse receives an order to give a patient two puffs of 16. a
c. Schizophrenia
saometerol, and two puffs of beclomethasone dipropionate, d. Somatoform disorder
by a metered dose inhaler. The nurse should administer the 16. Painful spasms of the hamstring muscle and resistance to
medication by:
further extension of the leg at the knee while flexing the hip
a. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the
of a recumbent patient is called:
salmeterol
a. Kernig’s Sign
b. Giving the beclomethasone first and then the salmeterol
b. Brudzinski’s sign
c. Giving the salmeterol first and then the beclomethasone
c. Opisthotonus
d. alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the
d. Ankle clonus
beclomethasone

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Section B

17. Acid-fast bacilli are found positive in which of the following 29. Which of the following is a stage of the nursing process in
Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

conditions? which the nurse continuously collects data to identify a

a. Tuberculosis and Leprosy patient’s actual and potential health needs?
b. SARS and Diphtheria a. Planning b. Evaluation
c. Tuberculosis c. Implementation d. Assessment
d. Diphtheria 30. Which of the following is considered as an indication for
18. Which of the following hepatitis viruses spreads by fecal-oral administering serum albumin?
route? a. Formation of WBCs
a. Hepatitis D b. Hepatitis C b. Maintenance of oncotic pressure
c. Hepatitis A d. Hepatitis B c. Formation of RBCs
19. Validity of a data-collection instrument means: d. Clotting of blood
a. The degree to which two different forms of an instrument 31. In ECG, the P wave represents:
obtain the same results a. Atrial depolarisation
b. The consistency of data over time b. Ventricular depolarisation
c. The stability of data over time c. Ventricular repolarisation
d. The ability of the instrument of gather the data that it is d. Atrial repolarisation
intended to measure 32. Bleeding precautions like needle stick injury prevention
20. When performing an abdominal assessment, in which order should be followed in all of the following cases Except when
are the given steps followed? the patient is:
a. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation a. On cephalosporins
b. Palpation, inspection, percussion, auscultation b. Suffering from haemophilia
c. Percussion, auscultation, inspection, palpation c. Suffering from liver disease
d. Inspection, percussion, palpation, auscultation d. On anticoagulants
21. The maintenance provided by a husband to his divorced wife 33. The statements of beliefs and ideas, which are considered to
is called: be true, are known as:
a. Mehr b. Bride price a. Operational definitions
c. Alimony d. Dowry b. Assumptions
22. Infection that occurs as a result of a therapeutic or diagnostic c. Conceptual definitions
Ans. procedure is called a/an: d. Hypotheses
17. a a. Opportunistic infection 34. The borehole latrine was introduced in India by:
18. c b. Iatrogenic infection a. Rotary foundation
c. Cross infection b. Rockefeller foundation
19. d
d. Nosocomial infection c. UNICEF
20. a d. Melinda gates foundation
23. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for typhoid?
21. c a. ELISA b. Shick test 35. Hypertonicity and scissoring leg movements area expected
22. b c. Widal test d. Mantoux test clinical findings in:
23. c 24. A_______ is an elevation of skin filled with fluid and is less a. Autism
than 1 cm in diameter: b. Cerebral palsy
24. b c. Mental retardation
a. Wheal b. Vesicle
25. a c. Papule d. Macule d. Schizophrenia
26. b 25. The only class of immunoglobulin which is transported 36. The nurse administers heparin BD subcutaneously for a
27. b across the placenta is: patient in cardiogenic shock. The drug is expected to exhibit
a. Ig G b. Ig D _____ action.
28. d
c. Ig D d. Ig M a. Anticoagulant b. Antidysrhythmic
29. d c. Ionotrope d. Vasopressor
26. Tall-tented T waves and widened QRS are seen in:
30. b a. Hyperphosphatemia b. Hyperkalemia 37. The main difference between a prokaryotic cell and an
31. a c. Hyponatremia d. Hyperglycemia eukaryotic cell is the absence of:
32. a 27. The first action in case of a blood transfusion reaction is: a. Plasma membrane b. Mitochondria
a. Waiting for the symptoms to subside c. True nucleus d. Flagella
33. b 38. All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of
b. Stopping the blood
34. b HIV infection in a two-month-old child Except:
c. Informing a physician
35. b d. Maintaining the line with normal saline a. HIV ELISA b. DNA-PCR
36. a 28. Sharing responsibility and authority with others and holding c. p24 antigen assay d. Viral culture
them accountable for performance is termed as _____: 39. The normal range for pH of blood is:
37. c
a. Leading b. Organising a. 7.35-7.45 b. 7.47-7.57
38. a c. 7.11-7.22 d. 8.0-8.2
c. Controlling d. Delegation
39. a

832

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Section C

MISCELLANEOUS

Reviewers
The complete text of this section has undergone rigorous quality check by the subject experts at
several stages in order to provide you the most authentic and accurate content. Every single line
has gone through the eagle’s eye view of all the reviewers. Their names have been enlisted in the
Reviewers’ List in the initial pages of the book.

Subject Outline
 General English and Comprehension
 General Knowledge (Including Current Affairs Till May 2017)
 General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
 Arithmetical and Numerical Ability

Student’s Feedback
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Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “If you want to give your child only one gift, let it be enthusiasm.”
—Bruce Barton

General English
and Comprehension
This Chapter Contains Exception
1. The preposition can be placed at the end of a sentence:
•• Prepositions
i. When the object of a Preposition is a Relative Pronoun ‘that’
•• Sentence completion and correction
(The relative Pronouns could also be sometimes omitted).
•• Language test
For example, this is the book (that) I was searching for.
•• Comprehension
ii.  When the object of a Preposition is an interrogative
•• Antonyms and Synonyms
Pronoun for example, what are you looking at?
•• Ordering of sentences
Who(m) are you talking about?
2. The Preposition may be placed sometimes in the: beginning of a
sentence for example, about whom are you talking?
PREPOSITIONS In which box did you keep my purse?
Study the following sentences:
i. I am angry with you. KIND OF PREPOSITIONS
ii. I saw my teacher in the school. Prepositions are of five different kinds:
iii. He is very kind to us. i.  Simple Prepositions: In, of, an, off, to, up, with at, by, for, behind,
iv. We are sitting on the bench. besides, beneath, below, across, between, etc.
In sentence (i), the word ‘with’ shows the relation between the ii.  Compound Prepositions: Without, within, outside, inside, into,
adjective angry and the pronoun you. In sentence (ii), the word ‘in’ etc.
shows the relation between the noun teacher and the noun school. In iii. Double Propositions: Outside of, out of, from out, from behind,
sentence (iii), the word ‘to’ shows the relation between adjective kind from beneath, etc.
and the pronoun us. In sentence (iv), the word ‘on’ shows the relation iv.  Phrase Propositions: By means of, because of, on account of, in
between the verb are sitting and the noun bench. Such words, with, opposition to, with regards to, for the sake of, instead of, on behalf
in, to, on, that establish some relation between two words are called of, with a view to, in the event of, etc.
preposition. There are several words which can be used as prepositions as well
as adverbs. If the word is used as a preposition, it will have noun or
pronoun as its object. (Adverb modifies a verb, adjective or another
DEFINITION adverb).
A preposition is a word placed before a noun or a pronoun to show
the relation between a noun or pronoun and some other word in a Preposition Adverb
sentence. The lion is in the cage Please come in.
The noun or pronoun that is placed after the preposition object is
He stood before me. He came here before.
the, Objective Case. Object of the preposition is placed before it. A
preposition may have more than one object. Keep the book on the table Let us move on.
yy He gave some money to John, Jill and me. He will come after a month He arrived soon after.
Here John, Jill and me are objects of the preposition too.
Study the use of some prepositions given below:
about : I asked him about his health.
POSITION OF PREPOSITION above : The water came above his shoulders.
The word preposition (pre+position) means ‘that which is positioned His father is above fifty.
(placed) before’. Thus, a preposition is usually placed before the noun No book in the shop was above ` 80.
or pronoun it governs. This boy weighs above seventy pounds.

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Section C

across : ( from one side to the other side of): I Walked He was born in a village
Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

across the road (on the other side of): My school The children were playing in the street.
is just across the street. He has stick in his hand
after : I saw him after the meeting. I read it in a book.
B comes after A This happened in 1986.
against : We are against bad customs It is very cold in January.
He hits his head against the tree. He visited me in the morning.
Place the ladder against the wall. I shall be back in a few days.
along : We walked along the road. She was dressed in red.
among : He divided his property among his five sons. (= was wearing red clothes)
New Delhi is among the largest cities of India. into : She came into the room.
The teacher sat among his students. Throw it into the dustbin.
at : I met him at the railway station. The water changed into ice.
Look at the picture of : I bought a table of wood. (= a wooden table)
He came at 5 o’clock. He is a boy of eight years.
He went to school at (the age of) five He is the master of the house.
The boys are at play. A leg of the table is broken.
He drove at full speed. Give me a piece of paper.
I bought bananas at ` 8 a dozen. He is the best of all the boys.
before : The meeting took place before Monday. on : There is a jug on the table.
A comes before B. There is a picture on the wall.
We sat before/(in front of) the fire. They are sitting on the grass.
beside : (at the side of; close to) : She sat beside her I went there on Sunday.
children. He came here on first July.
besides : (in addition to) We were ten, besides Suresh. He hit me on the head.
between: The son sat between his father and mother. His house is on the main road.
I shall see him between 2 p.m. and 3 p.m. since : I have not seen him since 1980.
Its price is between `10 and `15. The two friends have not met since their school
Divide the mangoes between the two brothers. days.
(Between is used to connect two persons, things, till : I shall wait till 5 o’clock/next Sunday.
etc.) He worked from morning till night.
by : He sat by (near) the tree. to : He went from Chennai to Delhi.
Our examination begins on Monday, so we must She went from place to place.
finish the course by Sunday. The traffic light changed from red to green.
Oranges are sold by the dozen. He worked here from Sunday to Wednesday.
The work was completed by four laborers. We won by four goals to three.
We can travel by land/sea/air/train/car. with : This is a cup with a broken handle.
during : (throughout, the duration of) It rained during She is a girl with blue eyes.
the night. His pockets were filled with toffees.
 (at some point of time in the duration) : Cut the apple with a knife.
Somebody came to see me during my absence. I did it with the help of my brother.
for : Is there a train for Mumbai now? I went for a walk with my friends
There is a letter for you. He did not work with pleasure.
He is preparing for the examination. Leave the child with its nurse.
We have separate rooms for sleeping in. up to : What have you been up to (doing) recently?
Exercise is good for health. The children are always up to some kind of
The score is 150 for 6 wickets. mischief.
I paid ` 20 for the book. He lived here for two It is up to you to deal with the problem.
weeks. along : Jack is walking along the lake.
from : We travelled from Kolkata to Chennai. We sailed along the canal
I have started teaching him from the first of this The cinema is further along the street.
month. There are bookshelves all along the wall.
He stayed away from home for 3 years. among, : There is a boy among the girls.
I have received a letter from my mother. amongst She comes from a village high up among the
She drew water from a well. mountains.
Steel is made from iron. Amongst the guests was the new Mayor.
Its price has increased from ` 10 to ` 15 Amongst can be used interchangeably where
in : He lived in India for many years. members of group are involved:
Does she live in New Delhi? You can relax amongst (or among) your friends.

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 Section D
HOW TO PREPARE FOR
AN INTERVIEW?

Section Outline
 Introduction
 Significance of interview as a part of selection process
 What interviewers look for and criteria of selection in an interview?
 Criteria of assessment in interviews
 Essential preparation required to face an interview
 Facing an interview
 Do’s and Don’ts of an interview
 Ten smarts tips for managing interview stress
 Interview preparation for nursing tutor/clinical instructor/faculty positions

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Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 “One cannot think well, love well, sleep well, if one has not dined well.”
—Virginia Woolf

Interview Preparation
INTRODUCTION yy A written test mainly reveals a number of mental abilities of a
person, but interviewing a candidate brings out various behavioral
Getting interviewed by an interviewer or a group of interviewers aspects.
is both unusual and an unsettling experience. The very thought yy Inputs gathered from personal interview complement and
of getting interviewed and thus becoming a victim in the hands supplement the information that is obtained from other assess-
of interviewer(s) may put a person into a state of considerable ment tools/tests.
discomfort, often accompanied by anxiety and animated suspense. yy Like vibrant music is the mainstay of a dance party, interviews
Candidates complain that their throats go dry, voices choke and have now become the mainstay of an effective screening/selection
there is excessive sweating while they undergo an interview. This process.
is precisely so, since one is not quite familiar with the course of yy To bring in an element of stress during the interview, often
developments that he/she may encounter while facing an interview synthetic situations are posed. Synthetic situations may relate to
section. Fear of landing in an unknown and difficult situation grips the routine situations/activities of the job profile for which the
the person involved. Most certainly, interviewing is not merely interview has been scheduled.
talking or holding an informal conversation, but often a much
serious business, with lot at stake. If you do not perform well, you
may lose a chance of grabbing your desired job. WHAT INTERVIEWERS LOOK FOR
Owing to above uncertainties involved in an interview situation,
it makes tremendous sense for the interviewee to get acquainted AND CRITERIA OF SELECTION IN AN
with the process as well as content of an interview. It is now fairly INTERVIEW?
well established that facing an interview is an art, but to prepare
and subsequently appearing for an interview involves both art and A dozen of qualities interviewers look for are:
science. In this regard, intricacies of art and logical approach of yy Candidates who can express their ideas clearly and effectively
science come together. yy Candidates who are reasonably self-confident of themselves
yy Candidates who possess above-the-average academic
achievements and practical intelligence
yy Candidates who have a clear goal to achieve, be it for better career
SIGNIFICANCE OF INTERVIEW AS A prospects or becoming an entrepreneur, etc.
PART OF SELECTION PROCESS yy Candidates who are fairly motivated and enthusiastic to achieve
their goals
yy Even though interview has been widely used to gather all kinds of yy Candidates who can think and plan in a systematic manner
information about a person for varied purposes, yet, utilization of yy Candidates who are reasonably aware of their environment
interviewing technique as an integral part of a selection process, and happenings–especially about developments in the fields of
has been clearly noteworthy. business and economy
yy Selectors use interviews to gain crucial information about a yy Candidates who are inquisitive and keen to learn
candidate to assess his/her suitability to perform a job. An yy Candidates who can assert but can also willingly work in a team/
effective personal interview provides the much-needed data group
about the personality and competence aspects of the candidate. yy Candidates who display leadership qualities and possess a
yy A candidate who has performed well in a written entrance pleasing personality
examination, is not necessarily the best person to be selected yy Candidates who take initiative and show distinct dedication
and, that is where the significance of interview emerges, i.e., in towards tasks assigned to them
assessing a person’s finer qualities. yy Candidates who are willing to put in that extra bit of hard work
with a smile and shoulder responsibilities

Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

 Section D

CRITERIA OF ASSESSMENT IN handy to visit the website of the institute and read its brochure rather
Target High - Fourth Premium Edition

thoroughly to collect requisite information on the following aspects:

INTERVIEWS yy What is the location of the institute or various locations of the
Institute?
yy Interviewers ask a host of searching questions to assess a number
yy A brief history
of qualities and competencies of candidates. These qualities
yy Any special features
pertain to personality aspects as well as mental abilities of an
yy Some aspects of the institute or institute for which it is known
aspiring candidate.
yy Details of the institute in terms of business and corporate
yy Broadly, interviewers look for the following attributes in the
objectives, etc.
personality of the candidate:
yy Financial status and business prospects of the institute
 Physical appearance and bearing
 Self-confidence
 Grasp, imagination and mental alertness REFRESHING ACADEMIC ACHIEVEMENTS
 An eye for detail
 Inquisitiveness to learn more
OF GRADUATION/POSTGRADUATION
 Communication skills LEVEL
 Ability to analyse a problem/situation in a logical/systematic yy As interviewers cross-check the knowledge base of the candidate
manner in the area of his/her speciality in academic field, the candidate
 General awareness about things around should broadly brush up the important topics pertaining to
 Current affairs with special emphasis on developments in his/her academic qualifications or field or specialization.
various fields yy More often than not, questions based on practical application of
 Team spirit and cooperation certain fundamentals, rules or concepts are posed to check the
 Sense of responsibility
depth and clarity of thoughts of the candidate.
 Leadership skills
yy Do brush up your definitions, important formulas and principles,
 Decision making abilities
etc.
 Planning and organizing abilities
yy Questions are generally asked to assess the grasp, imagination and
 Cheerfulness and stress management
an eye for detail of the candidate and whether, he/she is able to
 Physical and mental stamina
apply theoretical knowledge in the practical field.
 Intellectual honesty
 Determination
 Overall impact of personality of the candidate EXPRESSING IDEAS EFFECTIVELY
yy Interviewers besides posing a series of questions, observe the yy Often, candidates are able to acquire requisite knowledge, but
candidates’ body language closely to assess the above-mentioned have problems with their power or expression–especially in
abilities of the candidate. English.
yy While, it is essential to acquire sufficient information as well as
communicate the same to the interviewer(s), it is equally desirable
ESSENTIAL PREPARATION REQUIRED that this information is conveyed in a simplistic yet effective
TO FACE AN INTERVIEW manner to leave the right impression on the interviewer(s).
yy ‘What’ you convey in an interview is significant but ‘how’ you
Most candidates find facing an interview far more intimidating than
convey is no less important.
appearing in a written examination. Three main factors are responsible
yy Improving communication skills is a time-consuming process
for this kind of a situation. Firstly, interview format remains typically
and cannot be undertaken in a jiffy.
subjective and does not have a set syllabus, therefore, despite putting
yy Reading on a variety of topics, listening, and practicing to speak
requisite hard work, the element of uncertainty keeps bothering the
over a reasonable time is considered mandatory.
candidate. Secondly, during an interview, the candidate is always
required to correctly answer questions instantly as there is hardly yy If your communication skills really bother you most of the time,
any time to brood or recall. Finally, owing to the close proximity then you must listen to TV/Radio news and discussions on a
of the interviewer, the entire personality of the candidate is fully regular basis. Undergoing a short course in spoken English from
exposed and the interviewer keenly observes the candidate in an a reputed institute would also not be a bad idea.
attempt to assess a host of qualities. All these three factors jointly yy Speaking in front of a mirror every day for a few days really helps.
put considerable pressure on the candidate and, therefore, effective
preparation, that is needed to face an interview, assumes increased ORGANIZING MOCK INTERVIEWS
significance. In this regard, focussed steps as explained further, must
yy Having taken the above-mentioned steps to adequately prepare
be initiated by the candidate keeping the time factor for each activity
yourself to face an interview, this is the right time to organize
in view. Sound preparation is essentially the key to get over those
pre-interview jitters. mock interview sessions to polish your skills.
yy This should be done in an institute in a formal setting, and in case
that is not feasible, having a mock interview session with your
KNOW YOUR INSTITUTE/ORGANIZATION friends or elderly family members would also be quite useful.
If you have selected an organization out of so many, it is logically yy Organizing at least two formal practice interview sessions is
expected that you know the background of that institute. It would be strongly recommended before facing the real interview.

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Glimpse of Target-High- 4th ed.

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