GENARAL COC QUESTION FOR LEVEL 4 NURSING PREPARATION

1. Which one of the following is the most accurate site to measure the core or central body
temperature?
A. Axillary
B. Oral
C. Radial
D. Rectal
2. Which one the following is the main purpose of intravenous fluid infusion?
A. To prevent round infection, post operatively
B. To provide gastric wash out(lavage)
C. To introduce medication
D. To asses patient physiological status
3. Which one the following is the main purpose of preoperative period nursing care?
A To provide NGT insertion
B . To secure IV line
C. To facilitate recovery from anesthesia
-D. None of the above
4. All are the nursing task during peri- operative period except?
A. Skin preparation
B. Monitor v/ s
C. Keep the patient NPO
D. Decide and make surgical procedure
5. Total effect of two similar drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effect.
A. Addictive effect
B. Allergy
C. Synergic effect
D. All
E. Except D All are correct answer
6. ______________A process of administration right medication to the right patient at the right time
with the right dose by the right route.
A. Right medication
B. Pharmacology
C. Drug D. Medication administration
7.____________It is a quantitative method of assessing the new born condition.
A. Nursing care
B. APGAR score
C. Breast feeding
D. None
8. Which form of the medication is possible to apply on the skin?
A. Syrup
B. Capsule
C. Pills
D. Cream
9. Which route of the medication administration has the fast action than others ?
A. Topical
B. Suppository
C. Parenteral
D. Enteral
10. What is the correct way to open air way?
A. Chin lift head lift
B. Head tilt chin lift
C. Head lift chin tilt
D. Chin tilt head lift
11. The total number of pregnancies is called_______________?
A. Gestation
B. Multi para
C. Gravida
D. Para
E. Pregnancy
12. When the blood leak in to the surrounding tissue is called___________
A . Hematoma D . Ai r embolism
B. Phlebitis
C. Hemostats
13. Which one the following is the best example of medication error?
A. A medication with similar name
B. Medication that requires testing to ensure proper
C. Given Medication is at wrong dose. Time and route
D. None of the above
E. ALL
14________Is a rate and amount of drug that absorbed from a given dosage form and reaches the
systemic circulation nonvascular administration.
A. Drug
B. Drug abuse
C. Bioavailability
D. Medication
15. The first milk of mother and very concentrated and high in protein is called_______
A. Baby care B. Powder C. Colostrum’s D. Cow milk E. Matured
milk
16__________ is a complication of wound.
A .Necrosis B. Cellulitis C. Scar D. None
17. Any lesion by unrelieved pressure that result in damage to underlying tissue formerly
called_______.
A. Decubitus ulcer B. Wound C. Bed sore D. Pressure ulcer E. Pressure sore F.
Except B, all are correct answer
18_________ are given for physical effect such as to soothe irritated skin or treat an area.
A. Complete beds bath B. Cleaning bath C. Sith bath D Therapeutic bath E. C and D
19_________occurs when there is an insufficient supply of blood to the brain for short period of time.
A. Stroke B. Fainting C. Epilepsy D. Seizure
20. If the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is suddenly blocked and becomes deprived of
oxygen and start to die ______occurs (developing).
A. Epilepsy B. Stroke C. Heart attack D. fainting
A. Poisons B. Stroke C. Malaria D. Lack of oxygen E. Severe dehydration F. None
21.___________is a common breathing emergency .it occurs when the person air way is partially or
completely blocked. A. Shock B. Bleeding C. Chocking D. Infection E. Except C all are---
One of the following are common cause of chocking.
A. Trying to swallow large pieces of food
B. Drinking alcohol before or during meals
 C. Wearing dentures
D. Eating too fast
E. All
22.IF the persons air way becomes blocked by any piece of food or others object . which an
emergency technique is appropriate?
A. Heimlich maneuver
B. Give plain water
C. Communication
D. Abdominal trusts
E. A and D
23. Which one is done first during emergency condition?
A. Ventilation B. Bleeding control C. Remove foreign body D. Compression
24.One of the following is viral infection.
A. Boils B. Tinea capites C. Impetigo D. Herpes simplex E. None of the above
25. Ato Kebede 45 years old terminally ill patient admitted to medical ward. He expresses hostility
and adopts a “why me?” And “why did this happen to me” he said which stage of dying
expressed by ato Kebede?
A. Denial
B. Depression []Anger
C. Bargaining
26. Cotrimoxazole 480mg is ordered for a 5 years old child having pneumonia ,the drug is supplied
in a liquid form containing 140mg in 5ml. how much does do you give?
A. 25 D. 17
B. 19 E. 35
C. 18
27. W/ro Helen came to your health center for ANC .She was amenorrhoeic for last six months,
while you are talking her obstetric history .she said she has three alive children ,one still birth
and one abortion .from this history what is her gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida four and para three
B. Gravida three and para five
C. Gravida six and para four
D. Para two and gravida five
E. Para six and gravida six
28. Ato Solomon a 45 years old man gets accidental burn with fire on his left side body(left leg and
hand, posterior trunk)is involved. Based on this information calculate total body surface area
burned?
A. 46 B. 63 C. 45 D. 36
E. 54
29. _________ Is a room in which only one patient be admitted.
A. Ward
B. Surgical ward
C. Private room
D. Semi_private room
30.______refelct the balance between the heat produced and the heat lost from the body.
A. Heat production
B. Heat lost
C. Temperature
D. Vital sign
 E. None of the above
31. A body temperature above the usual range is called__________
A. Hypothermia
B. Hyperpyrexia
C. pyrexia
D. fever
31. The difference between apical and radial pulse is called_______
A. pulse rate
B. pulse pressure
C. pulse deficit D. Pulse rhythm
32. ___________occurs when the amount of blood flow to the vital organ is insufficient (decrease).
A. Hypertension
B. Heart failure
C. Chocking
D. Shock
33. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure I formerly called_______.
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse pressure
C. Hypertension
D. Hypotension
E. Normal pressure
F. Effective pressure
G. None of the above
34. What is the aim of first aid?
A. To preserve life
B. To protect any unconscious person
C. To promote a safe environment
D. Expect D all are correct answer
35._____________ is any substance solid, liquid or gas that tends to impair health or cause death when
introduce in to the body or on to the skin surface.
Which one of the following is correct step in emergency action.
A. Check ______care ______call
B. Call _________care ______check
C. Care ________call _______check
D. Check _____ call _______ care
E. There is correct step for emergency action
36.Ato Bekele 35 years old driver gets car accident and losses his consciousness for the moment
and arrive to you by his partners .you are expected to provide first aid .what step that you follow to
assess the victim?
A. Air way, breathing and circulation
B. Breathing ,air way and circulation
C. Breathing ,circulation and air way
D. Circulation, breathing and air way
E. Circulation, air way and breathing
F. None of the above
37.Agastroinstestinal drug that suppress acid production and grouped as H2-receptor antagonist?
A. Lansoprazole
B. Omeprazole
 C. Sucralfate
D. Ranitidine
E. Cimetidine
38. One of the following is characteristics of nurse
A. Confidentiality
B. Privacy
C. Sympathy
D. Empathy
E. None
39. When unconscious patients head tilts forward the air way often will be obstructed by the
A. Tongue
B. Tonsils
C. Throat(pharynx)
D. Voice box
40. You find an unconscious patient and call out for first aider help .your next step is
A. Clear the mouth
B. Ensure an open-air way
C. Check for pulse
D. Provide ventilation
41. The first step to control bleeding is
A. Tourniquet
B. Pressure point
C. Direct pressure
D. Applying a dressing
42. Which comes first in adult cardio pulmonary resuscitation?
A. Ensure an open-air way
B. Call dispatch
C. Establish breathing
D. Establish unresponsiveness
43. A simple nose bleeding is best controlled by
A. Tilting head back
B. Packing nostrils with gauze
C. Using facial pressure point D. Pinching nostrils
44.. The main purpose of splinting is to
A. Set broken bones in their normal position
B. Realign broken bones
C. Immobilize the injured part
D. Apply tension to broken bone
45. Which of the following is symptom of a snake bite
A. Weakness
B. Nausea
C. Vision problem
D. All of the above
46. Which of the following is the purpose of first treatment?
A. To sustain life
B. To prevent the injured condition from becoming worse
C. To help him/her to recover
D. All of the above
47. Common cause of respiratory problems is/are
A. Drawing
B. Combustible
C. Inhalation of oxygen
D. A and B
48. Types of open wound includes
A. Abrasions, boil, incisions, puncture, and avulsions
B. Ulcerated, abrasions, punctures and avulsions
C. Avulsions, puncture, fracture, abrasions and incisions
D. All of the above
49. The common cause of wound
A. Falling
B. Accidents like motor vehicles
C. Mishandling of sharp objects
D. All of the above
50. All are the main aims of dealing with wound except one
A. To treat and prevent shock
B. To control the wound from contaminants
C. To facilitate complication
D. To control bleeding
51. The principles that should be followed during treatment of unconscious patient
A. Checking the air way, breathing and circulation
B. Assessing air way and checking appetite of the patient
C. Checking weather, he/she is waving or not
D. Checking bleeding and attempt to stop bleeding only
52. A cracked bone is called
A. Strain
B. Sprain
C. Fracture
D. Dislocation
53. The first aid management of fracture
A. Immobilize
B. Stop bleeding
C. Bandaging and application of splinting
D. All of the above
54. An injury which occurs at a joint when ligament and tissue around particular joint are
suddenly twisting or torn is
A. Sprain
B. Strain
C. Dislocation
D. Fracture
55. The first aid treatment of sprain includes
A. Rinse the limb, cold compress bandaging firmly and rest
B. Apply bandaging cold compress and support with a hard board
C. Raise the injured part ,cold compress, bandaging and advise the patient to move around the
bed
D. All of the above
56. All are the first aid management of burn except one
 A. Put off flame with cold water or instructing the victim lay down and roll on ground
B. Don’t attempt to remove any constricting items
C. Cover the area with a clean cloth or sheets
D. Do not handle the burned area
57. Which of the following is true about the first aid treatment of poisoning
A. Do not make patient vomit if the poison is kerosene and acid
B. Dilute the poison by giving plenty of fluid
C. If a known poisoning give antidote
D. All of the above
58. Dislocation is
A. Twisting of ligament C. cracked bone
B. Overstretching of muscles D. Separation of bone at a joint
59. _______is the result from an imbalance between cell- destructive (hydrochloric and pepsin)
and cell protective (mucus and bicarbonate).
A. Gastritis C. Peptic ulcer
B. Zollinger- elision syndrome D. Gastro esophageal reflex
60. _______are a drug that promote defecation or passage of stools .
A. Bismuth B. Metronidazole
C. Amoxicillin D. Purgative
61. __________is Abnormal frequent passage of loose stools or abnormal passage of stools with
increased frequency ,fluid and weight or with increased stool water excretion.
62. One of the following are non- pharmacological treatment of hypertension.
A. Cessation of smoking
B. Weight reduction
C. Dietary increased in saturated fats
D. increase sodium chloride diet
E. A and B
63. is the process by which the fetus ,placenta and membranes are expelled through the birth
canal.
A. labor C. ANC B.
Delivery D. Post natal
care
64. Which of the following is not characteristics of normal labor?
. A. Occurs at term B. Spontaneous in onset
C. The fetus presents by shoulder
D. It doesn’t exceed 18 hours
E. No complication arises
65. Not cause of labor
A. Hormonal
B. Biochemical
C. Mechanical
D. Prostaglandin
E. Inhibited the relies of oxytocin
66. Which one of the following not sign of the labor
A. Contraction occurs at irregular intervals
B. Intervals gradually shorten
C. Discomfort is not stopped by sedation
D. Cervix dilates
 E. Discomfort is in the back and abdomen
67. It is the stage of separation and expulsion of the placenta and membranes
A. First stage of labor
B. Second stage of labor
C. Fourth stage of labor
D. Third stage of labor
68. It is the time from onset of labor till fully dilatation of the cervix(10cm).
A. First stage of labor
B. Second stage of labor
C. Third stage of labor
D. Fourth stage of labor
69.____________if the placenta is remained undelivered after 30 minutes of times is called
A. _________________________________________
70. Which one of the following not sign of false labor
A. Contraction at irregular interval
B. Intensity remains unchanged
C. Discomfort is chiefly in the lower abdomen
D. Cervix dilates
E. Discomfort usually is relieved by sedation
71. Which one of the following is/are not premonitory signs of labor
A. Lightening
B. Frequency of micturition
C. False pains
D. Show
72. Not nursing care during first stage of labor except
A. Keep up the mother’s courage and morale
B. Prevention of infection
C. Empty bladder
D. Relief of pain
E. None of the above
73. Prophylactic eye treatment of the new born care ,protect the new become from
A. Gonorrhea conjunctivitis
B. Ophthalmic neonatorum
C. Tetanus
D. HIV
E. A and B
F. A and C
74. What is the purpose of vitamin K injection for new born
A. To prevent infection
B. To prevent hypothermia
C. For the formation of clothing factor
D. All of the above
75. Heat loss is resulted from exposure of a new born to direct source of air draft
A. Evaporation
B. Radiation
C. Convection
D. All of the above
E. None
76. Not the indication of resuscitation for the new born care
A. Not breath at all
B. Having trouble breathing (gasping)
C. Breath less than 30/mint
D. Breathing at least 30/mint
77. Is the stage of descent and delivery of the fetus
A. First stage of labor
B. Second stage of labor
C. Third stage of labor
D. Fourth stage of labor
78. Is the shortest but the dangerous stage of labor
A. Third stage of labor
B. Second stage of labor
C. Fourth stage of labor D. First stage of labor

79. ______a superficial wound in which the topmost layer of the skin(the epidermis) is scraped off.
A. puncture wound C. Penetration wound
B. Incised wound D. Abrasion wound
80. Write the danger sign of pregnancy?
81. what is the contraindication and complication of CPR?
82. Write the method of infection prevention?
83. what is high quality of CPR?
84. what is the difference between adult ,child ,infant CPR?
85. What is medication error? How ,when
RVU NEKEMTE TVET COLLEGE MODEL COC
1. Cause of U-5 mortality rate covers 50% is due to _______________.
A. Malnutrition B. Diarrhea C. Malaria D. Pneumonia
2. Among the following one is causes of malnutrition.
A. Inadequate dietary intake B. Infection
C. Inadequate house hold food security D.All are answers
3. During disease prevention focuses on detection of symptoms & support of positive
reaction to an illness is:-
A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C.Tertiary Prevention D. All
4. Communication is often described in ______________ :
A. Intrapersonal B. Interpersonal C.Mass communicationD.All is answers
5. Methods of communication which take place within a single person.
A.Interpersonal Communication B.Mass communication
C.Intrapersonal communication D.All
6. When a hemoglobin concentration of < 4 g.dl (or hematocrit <12%) is:-
A. Very severe anemiaB.Hypertension C.Malaria D.DM
7. If a 6-11months old child has corneal clouding and ulceration, the dose of vitamin A will
administer__
A. 50, 000 IU B.100, 000 IU C. 200, 000 IU D.75,000IU
8. W.ro Dadhitu comes to your health institution for ANC follow up with LNMP 25.9.2016
E.C. on 15.05.2016 E.C. Then calculate her gestational age (GA) and EDD.
A. 32weeks & 30/05/2016 E C respectively B. 33 weeks & 30/05/2016 E.C.
C. 33 +5 weeks &30/06/2016 E.C. D. 30 weeks & 30/06/2016 E.C.
9. On the above scenario the pregnant mother would be get prophylaxis for prevention of
anemia. What prophylaxis would be?
A.Anemia B.Malaria C.ITN D.Iron

10. During physical examination if you suspect hepatitis, which body part would indicate?
A.Eye B.Nose C.Hair D.Mouth
11. The equipment that uses to cover nose, lower face, jaw and all facial hair is called_______.
A.Masks B. Eye glass C.Mackintosh D.Gloves
12. The fourth step of Essential Newborn Care is____________?
A.Eye care by TTC eye ointment C. Weighing the baby
B.Cord tie and cutting D. Delivering the baby
13. Lalise was a 2 years old child and she comes to your health institution with diarrhea of
Five days, when you examine you find that, she has sunken eye balls, she was irritable and
restless, she drinks eagerly and skin pinch goes back slowly, what is the possible
classification for Lalise?
A.Dysentery B.Severe Dehydration C.Some DehydrationD.Sever persistent diarrhea
14. HIVcannot be transmitted through: A.Unsafesexualintercourse
B.Mothertochildtransmission C.Breastfeeding D.Mosquitobite
15. Which one of the following is NOT true about the active phase of first stage labour?
A. faster fetal descent begins B. Regular and strong uterine contractions
C. Cervix dilated 4–10 cm D.Cervix dilated less than 4 cm
16. Safety device used in preventing clients from falling out of bed.
A.Foot part of the bed B.Head part of the bed C.Side rails D.Foot board
17. Which of the following is true about third stage of labour?
A.Presenting part of fetus reaches pelvic floor B. Faster Fetal descent begins
C.Start from the delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta D.Cervix dilated 4–10 cm
18. The major function of the reproductive system is to:-
A. Digest foodB.Urinate C.Ensure survival of the species D. Make organ
19. ______ is a mosquito-borne infection that can cause seizures, yellow skin, coma and
death. A.Giardiasis B.Amoebiasis C.Malaria D. Intestinal parasites
20. Therapeutic communication is a collection of techniques that prioritize the:-
A. Physical B.Mental C. Emotional wellbeing of the patient D.All are answers
21. One is chemical barrier method of family planning is:-
A.Male condom, B.Condoms for women, C.Sponge D.Spermicide
22. Which of the following is NOT true about Characteristics normal labour?
A.Spontaneous onset B. Rhythmic and regular uterine contractions
C.Vertex presentation D. Have maternal or fetal complications
23. A patient who has been on anti TB treatment for at least four weeks and interrupted the
Treatment for eight or more consecutive weeks is
A. Transfer out B. Treatment failure C. Defaulter D. Treatment completed
24. The main objective of anti-TB treatments is:-
A.To cure TB patients by eliminating most of the bacteria B.To prevent relapse of TB-
by eliminating the inactive bacteria C. Importantly decrease TB transmission to others D.All
25. One is true regarding oral pillsA.Oral pills build up in a woman’s body
B. Oral contraceptives change women’s sexual Behavior C. oral contraceptive can make
fertile if taken during ovulation D. Pills can make infertile
26. Separation of wastes into their different types A. Collection B. Resource recovery
C. Handling D. Storage
27.Bula was born in the morning at that time he breaths 20 breath/minute, he has gasping,
and 3000gram birth weight, has no diarrhea what is the possible classification for Bula?
A. Severe Pneumonia B. Severe persistent diarrhea C. Low birth weight D. Birth
Asphyxia
28. Pre-mature separation of placenta is called?
A. Abruption placenta B. Placenta previa C. Retained placenta D. all
29. The waste management option which is more desirable.
A. Reuse B.Reduction C. Disposal D. Recovery
30. Anything that does not have value or does not add value.
A.Waste B. Muda C. A&B D. none
31._______ refers to the internal and external structures of the body and their physical
relationships.
A.Skeletal B.Digestive C.Circulatory D.Anatomy
32. Produce not more than is needed.
A. Muda of Inventory B. Muda of overproduction
C.Muda” of Waiting D. Muda” in Transporting
33. Preventive measure of body louse include all except
A.Crushing or killing the louse on the body or in the fingers
B.Exposing night closes to sun shine
C.Washing regular closes and ironing if possible
D.Using separate clothing for the day and night
34. One of the following vaccine is contraindicated for symptomatic HIV.AIDS positive child
A. Measles B.Penta C. BCG D. PCV
35. _____is the process of building Power through involving a constituency inidentifying
problems.
A. Health B. Community C. Community organizing D. All
36. Which type of managers is responsible for the daily management of health activities in
the community?
A. Middle level manager B. Front line manager C. Top level manager D. FMOH
37. What is the management function that you will use when influencing, motivating and
directing people in your team towards the achievement of your organizational goals?
A.Leading B.Monitoring C.Controlling D.Organizing
38. Second dose of tetanious toxoid (TT) immunization protect against tetanus for ?
A. 5 years B. 2years C. 3years D. 1year
39. Which of the following EPI target disease is not transmitted by droplet?
A.Measles B.Tetanus C.TB D.Pertussis E.All
40. The dose of Vitamin A given as part of routine EPI to infants of 9 to 11months age is
A.50,000IU B. 100,000IU C. 200,000IU D. None
41. A mother should receive a minimum of two doses of TT two weeks before birth
in order toprotect the new born. A.True B. False
42 The procedure of catheterization the purpose of injecting distilled water is?
A. To irrigate the bladder. C. To dilute urine
B. To secure the catheter D. To prevent infection
43. In nursing process assessing the client response reaction to nursing interventions
A. Assessment. B. Implementation. C. Diagnosis. D. Evaluation
44. Measure of blood pressure due to contraction of ventricle is
A. Systolic. B. Diastolic. C. Pulse pressure. D. Blood wave
45. The correct position for vaginal examination
A. Knee chest position. B. Semis position C. Prone position. D. Lithotomy position
46. Mola is 29 years old man coming to the bleeding fracture leg, air way obstruction &
vision problem as a result of car accident. which problem should be managed first?
A. Bleeding B. Air way obstruction C. Fracture. D. Vision problem
47. Which one of the following is nursing diagnosis?
A. Hepatitis B. Difficult breathing related to air way obstruction. C. Pneumonia. D.
HIV/AIDS
48. All are the measure to promote adolescent health except
A. Building big hospital for adolescent C. Ensuring community support
B. Providing information D. Establishing youth group
49. __________is not conservative of female genital mutilation.
A. Early marriage. B. Infection. C. Decreased productivity. D. Dyspareunia
50. Which one of the following is not the means we used to differentiate veins from
arteries?
A. Blood in veins is dark red whereas blood in arteries is red
B. Veins pulse & arteries not
C. Arteries are small sized than veins
D. Veins are visible than arteries
51. All of the following methods used to appreciate the correct placement of NGT stomach
except
A. Aspiration of stomach content. C. Auscultation
B. Injection of air D. Abdominal percussion
52. Which one of following is non-modifiable cardiovascular risk factory?
A. Elevated blood pressure. C. Stress
B. Positive family history D. Obesity
53. The normal umbilical cord is composed of
A. Two arteries & 1 veins C. Two veins & 1 vein
B. Two arteries & two veins D. None of the above
54. The cardiovascular diagnosis procedure that shows electrical activity of the heart is
A. Cardiac catheterization. C. Electro cardiogram
B. Chest x-ray D. Cardiac ultrasound
55. Which one of the following family planning methods has dual function?
A. CondomB. COC C. Voluntary surgical contraceptive D. A&B E. All
56. From the following Mal presentation Which One is common?
A. Shoulder. B. Breech. C. Face D. Brown
57. Any child with fever, red eyes and general rash within three or more days and history of
cough runny nose is considered has having
A. Measles B. Pertussis C. Neonatal tetanus D. Poliomyelitis
58. Maternal antibodies can be detected in infant blood until
A.1 yearB. 11/2 year C. 1/4 YearD. 1/2 year
59. In _________ type of sexual contact place a person more at risk of HIV/AIDS.
 A. Oral B. Vaginal C. Anal. D. self-masturbating
60. The primary goal of anti-retro vial therapy is
A. To kill the virus C. To prevent encephalopathy
B. To prolong the life of the patient D. To improve the Host immune response
61. Disease that occurs in a population in irregular interval is
A. Sporadic B. Pandemic C. Zoonosis D. Epidemic
62. Epidemic best defined as the occurrence of _____excess than expected in a given
geographical areas & periods.
A. Acute infectious disease only C. Chronic infectious disease only
B. Health illness & health related events. D. Non-infectious only
63. _____is most reliable site for measuring body temperature both blood pressure and
pulse rate
A. Rectal. B. Axilla. C. Oral. D. Tympanic membrane
64. One of the following arteries important to measure both blood pressure and pulse rate
A. Apical. B. Temporal. C. Brachial. D. Carotid
65. Which of the following shows the correct order of body parts to provide bed bath?
A. face - arm -chest - abdomen – perineum – leg -back
B. face - arm - chest - abdomen - leg - back -perineum
C. face -chest – arm - abdomen - leg - back - perineum
D. arm - face - chest - abdomen - leg- back - perineum
66. Immersion of the genital and rectal area in warm water solution is called
A. Perennial Care C. Shower
B. Sitiz bath D. Bed bath
67. A baby is two months of ages presenting with diarrhea, sunken eyes, drink eagerlyand
thirstily is classified under
A. Diarrhea + Severe dehydration. C. Diarrhea + sever present diarrhea
B. Diarrhea + dysentery D. Diarrhea + some dehydration
68. Which one of the following is not true statement related to type I diabetic mellitus?
A. Commonly prevent in those less 35 years
B. Usually client-have normal body weight
C. Oral antidiabetic is the primary choices
D. Control is usually difficult
69. Arrange type of locia with their chronological appearance.
A. lociaRubra - locia serosa - lociaalba
B. lociaRubra - lociaalba - locia serosa
C. lociaalba - locia serosa - lociaRubra
D. locia alba - lociaRubra- serosa
70. Which One is not characteristics of normal labor?
A. Begins spontaneously at term. C. Present with vertex
B. Fetus alive D. Last greater than 2 years
71. The investigation of one portions of intestine in to another
A. Volvulus. B. Hernia. C. Intususseption D. Adhesion
72. Which one of the following is most contagious disease?
A. Leprosy B. Hepatitis C. HIV D. Diabetic mellitus
73. Stone in gallbladder is called
A. Cholelithiasis. C. Cyctisis
 B. Urolithiasis D. Ureterolithiasis
74. Calculate drop rate to administer 1000ml N/s with 8 hours?
A.40drop/min B. 31drop/min C. 25drop/min. D. 20drop/min
75. From the following which one is the purpose of NGT insertion?
A. For aspiration. C. For gavage
B. For lavage. D. all
76. During NGT is insertion to exact marked measured should be
A. tip of nose - ear lobe - sternum
B. tip of nose - ear lobe - umbilical
C. earlobe – tip of nose - xiphoid process
D. None
77. One of the following is not correctly matched, which one is it?
A. Trendelenburg position -postural drainage
B. Lithotomy – delivery and rectal surgery
C. Supine position - renal biopsy
D. knee-chest position - Sigmoscopy
78. The correct position of enema
A. Right lateral C. prone position
B. Left lateral D. Supine position
79. Which one of the following is tertiary prevention?
A. Prevention disease before occurrence
B. Rehabilitation
C. Prevention disease by treatment
D. Prevent disability
80. Which one of the following eye disease leads to blindness?
A. Cataract. B. Glaucoma. C. Trachoma. D. All
81. Which One of the following upper respiratory infection
A. Sinusitis B. Bronchial asthma C. Pneumonia D. Labor pneumonia
82. Which of the following is the first step of Maslow hierarchy?
A. Love B. Oxygen C. Nutrition D. Elimination
83. Patient after surgery is highly susceptible to develop
A. Community acquired pneumonia
B. Hospital squared pneumonia
C. Aspiration pneumonia
D. Atypical pneumonia
84. In which of the following organ does exchange of gases take place
A. Heart B. Lung. C. Liver D. Kidney

85. _______is hormone secreted in pancreas.

A. Prostate glandB. Insulin C. Testosterone D. Hemoglobin
86. Whichdescribes the collection of people who share some attributes of their lives?
A. Illness B. Community C. Family D. Nursing
87. Ato Solomon was anemic patient his Hgl<7mg/dl what your diagnosis?
A. Sever anemia B. Mild anemia C. Mild Anemia D. normal
88. The normal MUAC
A. <12.5 cm B. 12.5--13.5cm
 C. < 11cmD..>14cm
89. Which One of the following shows the sequential steps for fracture management in the
hospital?
A. Reduction - rehabilitation-immobilization
B. Immobilization - redaction - rehabilitation
C. Redactions - immobilization- rehabilitation
D. Rehabilitation -immobilization---redaction
90. Which One of the following is most commonly used catheterization for size an adult
male?
A. #12 FR B. #10FR C. #18FR D.#24FR
91. Compress by ice what we call in medical terms
A. Cold compress B. Hot compress C. Sponge compress D. none
92. A types of shock caused by bleeding diarrhea vomiting burn and restore infusion?
A. Hypovolemic shock B. Septic shock C. Radio genetic shock D. Anaphylactic shock
93. The best solution of intravenous therapy for severe dehydration is
A. Ringer lactate B. Normal saline. C. Dextrose in water D. Oral dehydration therapy
94. Priority to resuscitation CPR we must do?
A. VentilationB. Removing foreign body from Air way
C. Cardiac compressionD. Control bleeding
95. The duration of TT 4 vaccine preventable time is
A. 10yrs B. 5yrs C. 2-3yrs D. Life long
96. All are management of fracture except:-
A. Immobilization B. Applying splint C. Cleaning wound D. Manipulating bone
97. All are topical medications except:-
A. Nasal medications. B. Ear drops C. Eyes. D. Oral
98. Which One of the following is not route of hepatitis B'' transmission
A. Blood contact B. Animal contact C. Prenatal transmission D. None
99. What would be the frist line emergency management of the patient with acute asthma?
A. Aminophylline B. Hydrocortisone C. Oxygen D. Salbutamol
100. All are immediate New born care except:-
A. Breast feeding B. Cord care. C. TTC apply D. Formula feeding
101. Among the following one is the way of cleaning septic wound
A. Crossly way B. Inside to outside. C. Outside to inside D. All
102. All are correct about aim of ANC care except:-
A. To provide contraceptive C. To prevent complications of pregnancy
B. To prevent fetal abnormalities D. To accept health neonate
103. Which one of the following is a worldwide of disease?
A. Pandemic B. Epidemic C. Sporadic D. Endemic
104. the most, effective and low cost type of infection control is
A. Antibiotics B. Catheterization C. Hand washing D. none
105. The pregnant woman should gain at least nutrition during her pregnancy how many
kg ?
A. 11kg. B. 1.2kg. C. 0.5kg. D. 2.5kg
106. From the types of infant formula the most convenient type is
A. Powdered formula B. Ready to use formula C. Concentrated liquid formula. D. All
107. All are disaccharides except which one is it?
 A. Maltose. B. Glucose. C. Lactose. D. Sucrose
108. Which of the following is correctly matched?
A. Intra-operative - within B. Post-operative – after C. Pre-operative -before D. all.
109. Which of the following types of liquid is not used for cleansing enema?
A. Sanitizer B. N/S C. Tape water D. Soap solution
110. Difficult breathing as defined as
A. Hypoxia. B. Asphyxia. C. Dyspnea. D. Pneumonia
111. Which of the following site of injection the most prefferd of young children?
A. Deltoid muscle B. Dorso gluteal C. Vestus lateral D. Ventro gluteal
112. Measuring of blood pressure relaxation of ventricle is
A. Diastolic. B. Systolic. C. Pulse pressure. D. Blood wave
113. In nursing process the response of the client and after nursing care interventions
A. Assessment B. Implementation C. Diagnosis D. Evaluation
114. Which one of the following is a not social concern about substance abuse?
A. Divorce B. Crime C. Acute toxicity D. Violence
115. Which One of the following not hormonal contraceptives methods
A. Norplant B. Implant C. Condom D. injectables contraceptive
116. Which One of the following sterile team members
A. Scrub nurse B. Staff C. Anesthesiologist D. Circulatory
117. Which One of the following protozoan infection
A. Ascariasis. B. Giardia lambia. C. Strongliadisis. D. Trichiasis
118. All are responsibility of nurse about tracheostomy care except:-
A. Removing and inserting tube B. Removing and inserting cannula
C. Wound care D. Tracheotomy care
119. One of the following give the end of 1 Year?
A. BCG. B. DPT. C. Measles. D. Poliomyelitis
120. During adult CPR how many chest compression and ventilation?
A. 15:1. B. 30:2. C. 15:30. D. 30:1
121. Which One of the following is or are the responsibilities scrub nurse?
A. Scrubbing for surgery B. Preparing sutures C. setting up sterile table D. All
122. One is not the aim of first aid?
A. to promote recovery B. to preserve life C. to enhance suffering D. to prevent
worsening
123. The initial assistance or support given to an injured person using whatever materials or
equipment available before he/she reach health facility is called?
A. Identification B. Assessment C. First aid D. CPR
124. CPR is preformed if and only if ______?
A. there is no pulse and breath B. there is pulse C. there is no breathe D. unconscious
patient
125. Which one is general principle of first aid?
A. Assessment of the situation and casualty B. Reaching the diagnosis
C. Prevent cross infection D. Arrangement for transport
126. The total ratio of chest compression to ventilation during algorism of CPR in all cycle is?
A. 10:30 B. 150:12 C. 30:2 D. 150:10
127. The step of controlling external bleeding is
A. Direct pressure-----Pressure point-----Elevation------Tourniquet
B. Pressure point----- Elevation----- Direct pressure ------Tourniquet
C. Direct pressure-----Elevation -----Pressure point ------Tourniquet
D. All
128. A type of wound that involve the under lying tissue without break to the skin is _____
A. Open wound B. Closed wound C. Complicated wound D. A&C
129. _______ is a pressure against arterial wall as blood ejected by the heart
A. Blood pressure B. Respiratory rate C. Pulse D. Temperature
130. _______ is a wave pressure created by the heartbeat during ventricular contraction
A. Pulse B. Blood point C. Respiratory rate D. Temperature
131. Which one is not feature sign and symptom of shock?
A. Cool clammy skin B. Rapid and weak pulse C. Raised B/PD. Unresponsive
132. A break in the continuity of bone of the patient as the result of injury is called
A. Strain B. Fracture C. Sprain D. Burn
133. An injury to ligament that is characterized by painful. swelling and tenderness is _____
A. Strain B. Sprain C. Dislocation D. Fracture
134. Best convenient& commonly used site of pulse taking from adult is_____
A. Carotid pulse B. Apical pulse C. Brachial pulse D. Radial pulse
135. An injury to muscle resulting from over stretching due to sudden or violent movement
A. Strain B. Sprain C. Dislocation D. Fracture
136. _______ is an injury to the body tissue caused by heat. chemical or radiation?
A. Burn B. Fracture C. Wound D. Bites
137. _______ is not the characteristics of nursing process
A. Dynamic B. Cyclic C. Client centeredness D.None
138. Which one of the following is/are subjective data?
A. Headache B. Vital sign C. Measuring weight D. Observation
139. ____ is the use of vision to distinguish the normal from the abnormal finding
A. Inspection B.Palpation C. Percussion D. Auscultation
140. Which one of the following is a term for nursing diagnosis?
A. Asthma B. Ineffective breathing pattern C. Appendicitis D. Pneumonia
141. Which disease condition is caused by bacteria?
A. Yellow fever B. FilariasisC. Malaria D. Tuberculosis and typhoid fever
142. Which of the following is promotion tool to develop marketing plan?
A. Slogans B. Advertising C. Marketing position D. Cost components
143. Which of the following technique involves the sense of sight?
A. Inspection B. Auscultation C. Palpation D. Percussion
144. One of the following is the phenomena of opposing action of two drugs on the same
physiology system
A. Additive effect B. Drug system C. Side effects D. Drug antagonism
145. In the level of resistance against a specific a communicable disease in the community as
the whole A. Artificial acquired active immunity B. Artificial acquired passive immunity
C. Herd immunity D. naturally acquired active immunity
146. One of the following methods is used for teambuilding in an organization
A. Applying safety policies procedure and program
B. Discouraging informal learning
C. Letting workers preform without supervisor
D. Evaluating their work activities at the end of work plan
147. How do you react when other become emotional around you
A. Try to make them laugh
B. Listen and try to comfort them
C. Notice. but prefer to keep out of it
D. Tell them what you think is best for them
148. Which of the following is intermittent checking of projector work environment?
A. Controlling B. Communication C. Supervision D. Information
149. The most common type of shock?
A. Obstructive shock B. Hypovolemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock
150. One of the following medications is best used for diagnosis of diseases
A. Insulin B. Amoxicillin C. Barium sulfate D. Pethidine
151. Which one of the following is tertiary prevention?
A. Early identification of the problem B. Rehabilitation C. Treat a disease D. Health
promotion
152. The nurse is caring for client with peripheral vascular disease to correctly access the
oxygen saturation level the monitor my passed on the
A. Hip B. Ankle C. Ear loop D. Chin
153. The nurse asked the client to read the Snellen chart which of the following tested
A. Optic B. Olfactory C. OcculomotorD. Trochlera
154. It is abnormal accumulation of air due to enlargement and destruction of the lungs many
tiny air sacs and formation of scar
A. Emphysema B. Empyema C. Pulmonary obstruction D. Hemothorax

155. Which one is the highly contagious disease?

A. Tuberculosis B. Measles C. Diabetic D. Hypertension
156. Management function focuses on division. coordination and control of tax is
A. Organizing B. Controlling C. Directing D. Planning
157. The nurse was giving health education on breast feeding so this is?
A. Primary prevention B. Seconder prevention C. Exclusive breast feeding d. Common
prevention
158. In the best descriptions a systemic rationale methods of planned and providing nursing
care for individuals, families, groups and community.
A. Assessment B. Nursing process C. Implementation D. Diagnosis
159. Whichis a social dysfunction?
A. Illness B. Wellness C. Sickness D. Health fullness
160. _______is a serious condition in which the heart doesn't pump blood as efficiently as it
shouldand the heart has literally failed or is about to stop working.
A. Rheumatic heart failure B. Acute rheumatic heart failure
C. Congestive heart failure D. Arrhythmia
161. Normal saline 1000ml in 8 hours administer
A. 42 B. 31 C. 35 D. 45
162. Which one of route of drug administration is best for child?
A. PO B. IV C. IM D. SC
163. The best fluid used to resuscitate hypovolemic shock is
A. Normal saline B. Ringer lactate C. Dextrose 5% D. Sugar
164. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous is nauseated and feels hot. These types of
data would be
A. Objective data B. Validation C. Subjective data D. Secondary data
165. After conducting health interview the nurse begins to measure the client’s vital signs the
nurse is collecting:-
A. Objective data B. Validation C. Subjective data D. Secondary data

166. Which dosage form would ensure the best bio-availability?

A. POB. IMC. IV D. SC
167. The most common cause of UTIis
A. E-coli B. KillebesalC. Streptococcus D. Virus
168. The passage of drug from sight of administration into the blood circulation is
A. Pharmacokinetics B. Distribution
C. Pharmacodynamics D. Absorption
169. The normal color of human body skin is
A. Yellowish B. Bluish C. Pinkish D. Black
170. Which medical equipment may need to be transported with a patient?
A. Oxygen tank b. IV pole c. IV fluid D. All
171. In an emergency situation a patient transporter should be able to:-
A. Preform CPR B. Preform first aid C. Preform both CPR and first aid
D. Call doctor and nurse for action
172. Universal percussion includes all except:-
A. Isolation B. Hand hygiene C. Personal protective equipment (PPE) D. None
173. Scurvy is deficiency of:-
A. Vitamin “D” B. Vitamin “C” C. Vitamin “A” D. Vitamin “E”
174. Marasmus is resulted due to deficiency of:-
A. Protein B. Calorie C. Fat D. Minerals
175.The first step in the management system is
A. Leading B. Organizing C. Planning D. Evaluation
176. Which one of the following is a correct step of 5s-?
A. Sorting - Set in order –Shine –Standardize – Sustain
B. Sustain – Sorting - Shine –Standardize - Set in order
C. Sorting - Set in order – Standardize – Shine- sustain
D. Sorting - Shine - Set in order – Standardize - Sustain
177. A more comfortable and safe workplace is ensured through?
A. Shine B. Sort C. Standardize D. Sustain
178. Remove all the unnecessary items from the workplace is?
A. Standardize B. Sort C. Set in order D. Shine
179. The maximum time needed for hand washing is?
A. 40-60 sec B.20-30sec C. 50sec D. 1 min
180. A type of bed making that prepared while the patient is in the bed is?
A. Open bed B. Closed bed C. Occupied bed D. Cardiac bed
181. The most common cause of small bowel obstruction is
A. Adhesions B. Hernia. C. Cancer D. Diverticulitis
182.A type of vaccine administered sub cuteness is ?
A.Measles B. PPV C. Rota D. OPV
183.What is the cause of Covid19?
A.SARS-CoV-2 B. SARS-CoV-1 C. HCVD. HIV virus
184. The clinical feature of right side heart failure is?
A. Jugular vein distension B. Cough C. Shortness of breath D. Cramping
185. Which one of the following is noninfectious disease?
A. Cholera B. Typhoid C.Hypertension D. Common cold
186. Which one of the following is water borne disease?
A.Typhoid B. Tuberculosis C. Common cold D. Cancer
187 The dose of vitamin k for new born child is?
A. 0.5mg B. 1mg C. 5mg D.2mg
188. Which type of bed should be prepared for adult person whose PR is 120bpm, respiration
28bpm. Temperature 37centigrade?
A. Cardiac B. Occupied C. Open D. Close
189.The best site for taking pulse of unconscious child is
A. Femoral B. Carotid C. Radial D. Apical
190.The natural method of family planning method ?
A.Condom B.Calendar C. IUCD D. Pills
191.The surgical insertion of tube/ needle into chest cavity is called-?
A.Thoracentesis B.Aminocenthesis C.Paracenthesis d. Trachostomy
192.The surgical insertion of tube/ needle into abdominal cavity is called?
A.Thoracentesis B.AminocenthesisC.ParacenthesisD. Trachostomy
193. Why infectious disease is common in Ethiopia?
A.Lack of nearby health facilityB.Gap between poor and rich C.High prevalence of malnutrition
194. What is the severe complication of thoracentesis?
A.Infection B. Bleeding C. Pneumothorax D.Hemothorax
195.The first aid management for trauma (dislocation) is “RICE” so “C” represents for?
A.Cold compression B.Cold C.Compression D.Convention
196. Which one of the following is danger sign of children?
A.Fever B.HeadacheC.Convulsion D.Vomiting
197.A single and most effective way of infection prevention technique is-?
A.Sterilization B.Hand washing C.Health education
198. Which vaccine is only given subcutaneously?
A. PCV B. Rota Vaccine C.Measles D. hepatitis vaccine
199.The third step of nursing process is-?
A. Diagnosis B.Planning C. Implementing D. Evaluation

II. CHOOSE THE BEST/ CORRECT ANSWER FROM THE GIVEN

ALTERNATIVES.
1. The best treatment for poisoned patient s are
A. Controlling vital sign
B. Decontamination
C. Antidote administration
D. Counsel
E. None
2. The best nursing care for a patient with carbon monoxide poison is
A. Wound care
B. Iv secure
C. Ventilation /using face mask/
D. Anti-pain administration
E. Bed making
3. Which of the following is distributive shock?
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Septic shock
D. All
E. None
4. Types of headache characterized vomit inducing effect.
A. Tension headache
B. Cluster headache
C. Migraine headache
D. Secondary headache
E. None
5. Upper UTI disease includes
A. Cystitis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Urethritis
D. All
E. None
6. Which is true about stable transmission of malaria?
A. It is common in hypo/ meso –endemic
B. The immunity is hard-won during childhood
C. They are asymptomatic during adulthood
D. All are incorrect.
E. None
7. The species of malaria known causing relapsing malaria are….
A. P. vivax
B. P.ovale
C. P.falciparum
D. All except, ’’C’’
E. None
8. The first common species of plasmodium in our country is …
A. P.falciparum
B. P.ovale
C. P.vivax
D. P.malarie
E. None
9. All incorrect about asthma except
A. It is acute inflammatory disease
B. It is infectious disease
C. Asthma is controlled, not only curable disease.
 D. Avoidance of triggering factor is not as such mandatory.
E. None
10. Based on syndrome approach if you have a case of painless genital ulcer with
shotty lymph node of two month durations, what is your first differential?
A. Chancroid
B. Herpes simplex
C. Syphilis
D. LGV
E. None
11. Which of the following is not noncommunicable disease?
A. Asthma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. None
12. One is correctly matched with its specific investigation
A. Candidiasis – 10% KOH
B. Gonorrhoea – wet mount
C. Syphilis – gram stain
D. Chancroid – biopsy
E. None
13. The best treatment for a rabid dog bite?
A. Post exposure prophylaxis
B. Intensive wound care
C. Both antibiotic and antiviral treatment
D. No need of treatment for rabies
E. None
14. The most killer types of anthrax is …
A. Cutaneous anthrax
B. Digestive anthrax
C. Inhalational anthrax
D. Vegetative anthrax
E. None
15. The gold standard investigation for malaria is
A. Random blood sugar
B. Liver function test
C. Blood film
D. Complete blood count
E. None
16. The non-infectious clinical stages of syphilis is/are..
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Congenital syphilis
E. None
17. Which of the following is not correctly matched
 A. Zidovudin{AZT}
B. Abacavir {ABC}
C. Lamivudine{3TC}
D. Efavirenze[EFZ}
E. NONE
18. ON ART medication which is NNRTI
A. NVP
B. AZT
C. 3TC
D. LPV
E. None
19. What is the eligible time to start ART medication?
A. Stage one and stage two WHO clinical stage
B. From stage two clinical stage irrespective CD4 cell count
C. Any time irrespective of clinical stage
D. Any time if CD4 < 200
E. None
20. Which statement is false about both paucibacillary leprosy {PBL} and multi
bacillary leprosy {MBL}?
A. PBL has skin lesion less than three
B. PBL have negative AFB ; whereas MBL has positive AFB
C. MBL have greater than five skin lesion
D. PBL are mostly treated by two drugs for around six month; whereas
MBL treated for greater one year.
E. None
21. During TB chemotherapeutic phases what is not the aim of continuous
phase?
A. They are the second phase after intensive
B. To make patient non infectious
C. To cure a patient
D. Patient must are not on DOT protocol
E. None
22. Definitive TB diagnosing lab.test
A. ESR
B. X-RAY
C. CULTURE
D. AFB
E. NONE
23. One is mismatched
A. Streptomycin { S}
B. Rifampicin {R}
C. Ethambutol{ E }
D. Pyrazinamide{ z}
E. None
24. What is the modes of transmission for Measles
A. Feco–oral transmission
 B. Aerosol droplet
C. Skin to skin contact
D. Genetic
E. None
25. The most common etiologic for neonatal meningitis
A. Pseudomonas
B. Listeria monocytogens
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Mumps
E. None
26. What is the secondary function of respiratory system?
A. Exchanging respiratory gases
B. Phonation
C. Olfaction
D. Acid base balance
E. All except ,’’A’
27. The functional unit of kidney is
A. tubules
B. loop henlee
C. glomerulus
D. nephron
E. none
28. ………is an inflammation of lung parenchyma.
A. Bronchitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Tissue
E. None
29. Which of the following is false about zone of respiratory system?
A. Conducting zone large airway that conduit the air.
B. Respiratory zone centre of gas exchange
C. Terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, and alveolar duct
serve as respiratory zone.
D. All are true
E. None
30. The commonest Risk factor for respiratory disease are
A. Overcrowding
B. Canteens
C. Public transportation
D. Good ventilation
E. None
31. It is true about TB
A. TB majorly affect lung
B. There is no organ that is do not affected by TB.
C. The most common types of TB is PTB.
D. It is both acute and chronic bacterial disease
 E. All
32. One is not etiologic agent for TB
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium avium
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Mycobacterium plasmodium
E. None
33. The given is not TB screening test
A. Mantoux test
B. Tuberculin skin test
C. AFB
D. ALL
E. None
34. What are the leading risk factors for MDR TB?
A. Improper anti TB drug consumption
B. Recurrent anti TB medication interruption
C. Contact/intimacy with patient of MDR TB.
D. All can lead to MDR TB.
E. None
35. Which of the following poison is not contra indicated for GI
decontaminations
A. Organophosphate
B. Caustics
C. Hydrocarbons
D. Naphtha
E. None
36. What is not true about HIV/AIDS
A. It is infectious disease with no cure but controlled
B. It is retrovirus disease that deficient.
C. AIDS is a disease that deficient immunity
D. HIV is both a disease and virus that deficient immunity
E. None
37. The given are not modes of GI decontamination
A. Activated charcoal
B. Ipecac syrup
C. Catharsis
D. Dilutions
E. Antacids
38. One is not the clinical triads of meningitis
A. Fever
B. Headache
C. Neck stiffness
D. Kerning/brudiniski sign positivity
E. None
39. Of the following which is not vaccine preventable disease?
A. Pertussis
 B. Diphtheria
C. Tetanus
D. Meningitis
E. none
40. The first common death causing complication of measles is
A. Acute gastro-enteritis
B. Pneumonia
C. Encephalitis
D. Shock
E. None
41. ……………………..are infective viral diseases.
A. Mumps
B. Rabies
C. Rota
D. All
E. None
42. During MTCT at which period does HIV/AIDS transmission is more?
A. Ante partum
B. Intrapartum
C. Postpartum
D. All
E. None
43. Which of the following indicate the correct life cycle of HIV during the first
exposure of human to its replications?
A. Uncoating > attachment > reversible transcription > assembly >
integration > release.
B. Attachment > uncoating > integration > reverse transcription >
assembly > release.
C. Attachment > uncoating > reverse transcription > assembly >
integration > release.
D. Attachment > uncoating > reverse transcription > integration >
assembly > release.
E. None
44. What is TB vaccination given for neonate at birth?
A. INH
B. BCG
C. TTC
D. ALL
E. NONE
45. ……………..Is the most common EPTB.
A. Lymph node TB
B. Skin TB
C. Genitourinary TB
D. Lung TB
E. NONE
46. Which of the following are not group of people at higher risk for active TB
development?
A. Children
B. Very old patient
C. Patient of chronic disease
D. Immunosuppressed patients
E. None
47. The most commonly used TB investigating modality is
A. CBC
B. Culture
C. AFB
D. Sputum
E. None
48. …………………are the most potent anti TB medications?
A. Rifampicin and ethambutol
B. Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
C. Rifampicin and isoniazid
D. Ethambutol and pyrazinamide
E. None
49. The known pathogen for leprosy is………
A. Unknown aetiology
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Mycobacterium avium
E. None
50. Who is the correct statement about Hansen`s disease?
A. It is chronic bacterial disease
B. It is genetic disease run through family
C. It chronic viral disease
D. It is also disease of unknown aetiology
E. None
51. One is false about leprosy modes of transmission.
A. Airborne through nasal discharge
B. Prolonged close contact
C. High intimacy
D. Genetically from family
E. None
52. Meningitis is an inflammation of meninges by…………
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Protozoan
D. Fungi
E. All
53. The common etiologic agent of meningitis in adult is/are
A. Group B Streptococcus
B. Neisseria meningitis
 C. Escherichia coli
D. mycobacterium
E. none
54. All are second line anti TB medication, except?
A. Streptomycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Norfloxacin
D. Capromycin
E. None
55. Based on WHO HIV/AIDS clinical stage, one indicates HIV stage two?
A. Angular chelilitis
B. Oesophageal candidiasis
C. Tracheal candidiasis
D. Vaginal candidiasis
E. None
56. During HIV testing process ,one is HIV antigen detecting test
A. Rapid HIV test
B. ELISA
C. Western blot test
D. P24 antigen test
E. None
57. On ART medication one is not NNRTI/ Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase
inhibitor/?
A. EFV
B. NVP
C. LPV
D. ALL
E. NONE
58. Which of the following syphilis is transmitted vertically?
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Congenital syphilis
E. None
59. The most commonly used investigation specific to syphilis?
A. RPR
B. VDRL
C. MOUNT
D. All, except ‘’C’’.
E. None
60. Gonorrhoea diagnosing investigation is……………
A. VDRL
B. Mount
C. Gram stain
D. Biopsy
E. None
61. Clinical stage of syphilis known as killer syphilis is
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. All
E. None
62. clinical stage of syphilis characterized by ‘’Gumma’’ like structure
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Tertiary stage
D. Congenital stage
E. None
63. Which of the following are HIV antibody detecting test?
A. P24 protein test
B. PCR TEST
C. Western blot
D. All, except ‘‘C’’
E. None
64. ……………………is disease transmitted from infected animal to person.
A. Botanic disease
B. zoological disease
C. Zoonotic disease
D. Non communicable disease
E. None
65. All are essential STI care management ,except
A. Contact tracing
B. Confidentiality
C. Compliances
D. Counselling
E. None
66. Except one, all zoonotic disease.
A. Rabies
B. Anthrax
C. Teaniasis
D. All
E. None
67. The most common types of anthrax?
A. Cutaneous anthrax
B. Respiratory anthrax
C. GI anthrax
D. Vegetative anthrax
E. None
68. Which is incorrect about food poison?
A. It is food borne disease
B. It is disease caused mostly by bacteria
 C. Most affected group are children, very old patient and pregnant
woman.
D. Antibiotic maybe required for treatment.
E. None
69. A male 25 years old patient comes to your adult OPD with a complain of
urethral discharge of two week. They also have Pain/ burning on micturition
and frequent urination since then. what could be your syndromes’ approach
diagnosis
A. Chancroid
B. Syphilis
C. Gonorrhoea
D. Herpes
E. None
70. Based on above question {Qu- 69} what investigation do you send to ensure
your empirical diagnosis?
A. VDRL
B. Gram stain
C. Biopsy
D. The syndrome approach enough
E. None
71. Which of the following are not major sign for clinical diagnosis of AIDS in
adults?
A. Diarrhoea greater than one month
B. Fever greater than one month
C. Weight loss greater than 10% of body weight
D. Persistent cough of greater than one month
E. None
72. Indication for severe pneumonia
A. Respiratory distress
B. Hypotension
C. Oxygen saturation decreased
D. All
E. None
73. It is protozoan disease
A. Malaria
B. Bacillary dysentery
C. Pertussis
D. Diphtheria
E. None
74. If disease transmitted transplacentally from mother to new-born baby, which
of the following are modes of transmission?
A. Direct transmission
B. Indirect transmission
C. Horizontal transmission
D. Vertical transmission
E. None
75. From the given choose, one is biological vector?
A. Flies
B. Anopheles’ mosquito
C. Lice
D. Mice
E. None
76. In nursing silence is not communication
A. True
B. False
C. Neither
D. Either
E. None
77. ……………….is amount of trust you have in others.
A. Empathy
B. Sympathy
C. Emotional bank account
D. Love
E. None
78. Communication is said to be effective communication if and only if
A. If the communication is barrier free communication
B. If communicator respect his/her listener.
C. If the sender changed by his/her information.
D. If the intended change comes in the receivers mind.
E. All are the correct
79. The process in which the information is converted into their understanding
by the listeners is called……..
A. Message
B. Decoding
C. Encoding
D. Feedback
E. None
80. As a nurse what is the communication skill that you do not need to have
A. Listening skill
B. Silence
C. Conversation skill
D. Interviewing skill
E. None
81. All are skills to improve communication but not
A. Becoming engaged listener
B. Paying attention to nonverbal signal
C. Keeping stress in check
D. Not to assert your self
E. None
82. The interpersonal skills for nurse to establish and promote good nurse –
client relationship are
A. Warm
 B. Openness
C. Friendliness
D. Competent
E. All
83. Listening includes all of the following except
A. Attention
B. Concentration
C. Hearing
D. all
E. none
84. All are characteristics of helping relationship, but not
A. Purposefulness
B. Dynamicity
C. Time limited
D. Care receiver assume dominant role
E. None
85. The most essential component during working phase is……
A. Respect
B. Having a goal
C. Interactions
D. Nursing
E. None
86. How do we remove communication barrier?
A. By removing audience barrier
B. Having relevant and applicable message
C. By understanding the background of audience
D. All
E. None
87. One is not component of physiological barrier?
A. Poor listening
B. Misreading body language
C. Sensory impairment
D. Communication apprehension
E. None
88. Which of the following is not true about non-verbal communication?
A. Communication by using body language
B. Most basic form of communication
C. Is the accurate form of communication
D. Nonverbal communication uses perceived sense and facial expression
E. None
89. From the following one called true communication
A. Verbal communication
B. Nonverbal communication
C. Formal communication
D. Informal communication
E. None
90. ALL are characteristics of communication, except
A. Continuity
B. Simultaneity
C. Reactions
D. Have reciprocal process
E. None
91. Communication is said to be defeated, if……………
A. The channel is informal
B. Information is not well encoded
C. Message is not well decoded
D. All
E. None
92. Which is false about one way communication?
A. No feedback
B. It is linear communication
C. It is simple and quicker
D. Meaning is controlled by the sender
E. None
93. What is the responsibility of nurse during informed consent?
A. Double check signed consent
B. Responding the patient for any question about consent
C. Providing ethical nursing care
D. All
E. None
94. Who is legally incompetent to sign informed consent?
A. Individual who is unable to understand the treatment.
B. Individual who cannot evaluate risk and benefit of procedure.
C. Who cannot appreciate the situation
D. All
E. None
95. From the ethical principle of nursing one is not correctly defined
A. Fidelity is telling the truth
B. Veracity is keeping promise
C. Justice treating unfairly
D. All
E. None
96. ………….is list of written professional value and conduct.
A. Ethics
B. Value
C. Code of ethics
D. Code of philosophy
E. None
97. As a nurse, what is your core value?
A. Accountability
B. Confidentiality
C. Fairness
 D. All
E. None
98. The intellectual acceptance of something correct/true is….
A. Value
B. Ethics
C. Philosophy
D. Belief
E. None
99. What is not the role of nursing
A. Nurses are care provider
B. They are teacher
C. Counsellor
D. May be leader
E. None
100. ‘’I care because am a nurse’’, what kind of belief it is?
A. Evaluative belief
B. Descriptive belief
C. Prescriptive belief
D. Proscriptive belief
E. None

Na v2
1……..Which one is not correct
a/DPT and BCG can be frozen
b/ BCG and Pertusis are live vaccine
c/Tetanus vaccine is attenuated
d/ Measles and polio can be frozen
2…..Which waste receiver is used for Pharmaceutical waste
a/ Red
b/ Black
c/ Blue
d/White
3………Which one is not the clinical manifestation of severe dehydration
a/ Unconscious
b/ Very Sunken eye
c/ Skin pinch go back slowly
d/ Lethargic
4……Which of the following is not an open wound?
a/ Puncture
b/ Abrasionqn
d/ Contusion
5……..Which one is the First stage of Dying patients
a/Depression
b/Denial
c/Accepting
d/ Bargaining
6….Ato Bezabih has injured with accident and suffers from a Puncture compound wound which
involves deeper structures, which could not be the management of the case?
a/ Excise damaged tissue and Cover with antibiotics
b/ Give Tetanus prophylaxis
c/ Evaluate the depth of damage
d/ Don’t Remove pricking or other foreign bodies
7…….Focused ANC emphasized on, Except
a/ Fewer but comprehensive visits
b/ Provide care by skilled health provider
c/ Individualized and patient centered care
d/ Disease detection and risk classification
8….An inflammatory & allergic condition of the skin caused by irritant substance which comes into
direct get in touch with the skin is
a/ Contact dermatitis
b/ Scabies
c/ Acne vulgaris
d/ Eczema
9…….Except one others do require notification to health authorities
a/ Schistosomiasis
b/ Yellow fever
c/ Malaria
10…..In developing countries a woman may not directly die from one of the following causes?
a/ Bleeding
b/ Anemia
c/ Abortion
d/Ectopic pregnancy
11….One of the following is the care given for disabled patient
a/ Home based care
b/ Secondary care
c/ Primary care
d/ Tertiary care
12…..Which one is not the manifestation of acute pharyngitis
a/ Marked persistent horsiness sound auscultator
b/ A fiery-red pharyngeal membrane and tonsils,
c/ Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
d/ Lymphoid follicles that is swollen and flecked with white-purple exudate.
13…….Which one is the longest vein
a/ Jugular Vein
b/ Pulmonary Vein
c/ Saphenous vein
d/ Carotid Vein
14…..Which one is not the desired characteristics of ideal anesthesia
a/Good anesthetic efficacy
b/ Rapid blood flow onset
c/ Low Toxicity
d/ Increase Blood flow
15……..Effective communication can lead to the following Except
a/ Decrease length of hospital stay
b/ Improve information flow
c/ Reduce patient and family satisfaction
d/ More effective for intervention
16…………..Acute bacterial inflammation without pus, wound with heavy contamination and
evidence of infection is
a/ Contaminated Wound
b/ Aseptic Wound
c/ Dirty and Infected Wound
d/ Clean Wound
17____ is an inflammation of parenchyma lung tissue
a/ Tuberculosis
b/ Pneumonia
c/ Laryngitis
d/ Bronchial Asthma
18……Which one is the leading cause of maternal death in Ethiopia
a/ Obstructed labour
b/Abortion
c/ Hemorrhage
d/ Sepsis
19……..All of the following are management of burn except
a/Irrigate chemical burn
b/ Unextinguished the flames
c/ Maintain ABC and if necessary provide Oxygen
d/ Cool the burn
20……..The reason that giving emphasis for maternal health is Except
a/ The effect on children due to poor maternal health, nutrition and care
b/Maternal mortality is largely preventable
c/ The problem of high maternal mortality and morbidity in developing countries
d/ Is not an issue of health sector
21……..Which part of the eye structure is helpful for about 75% of Refraction
a/ Conjunctiva
b/Cornea
c/ Sclera
d/ Lens
Part one: Knowledge Assessment
1. Normal urine output in adult is:-
A. 00-15000ml/24 C. >3000ml/24hr
B. 200-101000ml/12 D. <200ml/24hrs
2. All of the following are the reason for primary health care prevention except:-
A. Promotion C. Rehabilitation
B. Prevent disease D. Disease progression
3. One of the following is precaution of managing hepatitis:-
1. Preparing hole for secretion
2. Wearing personal protective equipment
3. Burning nasal waste
4. All
4. Which of the following is parasitic skin infection?
A. Pediculus C. Folliculitis
B. Tinea corporis D. Impetigo
5. Which therapeutic management to disease hypertension consequently
A. Sodium restriction C. Obesity
B. Smoking twice a day D. Avoid aerobic exercise
6. Which of the following is true about measurement of NGT in adult
A. From ear lobe to tip of nose to xiphoid process
B. From tip of nose to ear lobe to chin to umbilicus
C. From tip of nose to ear lab to xiphoid process to umbilicus
D. From tip of nose to ear lobe to umbilicus
7. A patient complains ear discharge for more than two weeks?
A. Acute ear infection C. Chromic ear infection
B. Otisis media D. None
8. A patient comes with 2nd degree burn which of the following solution if preferable for wound
cleaning
A. Dextrose normal saline (DNS) C. Iodine
B. Normal saline (NS) D. Alcohol
9. 23 years lady come to your ANC clinic and she take TT2 .how long protection she have?
A. For 3 years C. For 10 years
B. For 5 years D. For 4 weeks
10. The characteristics of fluid deficit are:-
A) Increase skin and tongue dryness C) Systolic BP increase in 15 while long
B) Increase HCT standing
D) Urine output is > 30 ml/hr
12. The following are Pre-operative management except:-
A. vital sign C. Air way exercise
B. Deep breathing D. NPO for 2 days before surgery
13. Except one is contraindication of rectal temperature
A. Diarrhea C. Hemorrhoid
B. Under 5 children D. Anal surgery
15. Which one of the following type of Dm is common among under 30 years
A. IDDM C. IDDM & NIDDM
B. NIDDM D. GDM
16. Which one of the following is live attenuated vaccine?
A. Polio & BCG C. DPT, Hep B & TT
B. Polio, BCG & measles D. Polio & pertusis
17. A patient who have septic wound on the leg, the correct method of cleaning is
A. Outside to center C. Less clean to clean
B. Center to outside D. Inner to outside
18. A pregnant lady comes for ANC visit, LMP 15/10/03 and expected date of delivery is:-
A. 25/07/04 C. 20/07/04
B. 20/06/04 D. 25/07/04
19. Ato Kebede Geda has injury to the right leg lacerations, the method of application of tourniquet
to stop bleeding is:-
A. Above the bleeding site C. Above and below the bleeding site
B. Below the bleeding site D. Outside of the bleeding site
20. Risk factor for bed sore is:-
A. Pressure, moisture and friction
B. Pressure, moisture, friction, wrinkles,
cramps in the bed & poor nursing
C. Poor nursing
D. Incontinency
Theory nursing new level four (IV)
1. Which of the ff feasibility of analysis information system collection called
a. Political feasibility c. finical feasibility
b. Operational feasibility d. economical feasibility
2. Which problem actual message transmission information
a. Under communication c. over communication
b. Selecting perception d. full telling
3. Which of the ff disease of gut
a. Stomach disease c. mycobacteriosis
b. Bactericidal d. chagas
4. The nurse patient vital sign weight and height where record
a. Assessment b. diagnosis c. evaluation d. implementation
5. Which site of iron injection your patient
a. Id b. im c. iv d. subcutaneous
6. which of the following is non modified cause hypertension
a. age b. sender c. channel d. receiver
7. which of the ff tropical disease infection
a. gene worm b. cholera c. burliest d. chages
8. which of the ff correct step functional management
a. organizing , planning ,starting
b. planning , organization , starting
c. starting , planning , organizing
d. organization , starting , planning
9. which of ff during assessment of drug femoral procedure
a. knee and hip dislocation
10. which of the ff malnutrition less than 11.5MUAC is
a. moderated under nutrition c. moderated severe nutrition
b. moderated acute malnutrition d. mild nutrition
11. which types of carriers the are who continue to harbor the agent after recovery from the illness
a. convalescent b. health asymptomatic c. incubatory disease
12. which of the non communicable disease
a. mental illness , cataract , cancer , hypertension
13. which flow the blood pressure is 120/80 ,130/70 , 130/80 is
a. HTN Stage 1 b. HTN Stage 3%2 c. prehypertension d. normal blood pressure
14. Which of the ff is chronic disease
A. mental illness b. cancer . c. heart failure d. none
15. Good management system is
a. Planning b. directing c. controlling d. organizing
16. Which of the is post anesthesia
a. 15 minute b. 10 minute c. every hours d. 30 minute
17. Which one the ff not element of communication with in the creation process cycle
a. Sender b. receiver c. channels d. time
18. Which stage of team development is characterized by conflict and disagreement between member
a. Performing b. norming c. storming d. forming
19. Which of the ff is verbal communication
a. Simple b. Gardens c. acronym d. technical
20. As the leader which one you should practice to increase the willing new subordinated to pull their
efforts in to achievement goal
a. Promotion b. disciple c. controlling d. motivation
21. Among the ff roles of manager which one describes thanking contrive action in non –routine situation
a. Resource allocator b. liaison c. disturbance d. spoke person
22. Which of the ff odds value to other
a. Risk management process c. control process
b. Governance process d. internal audit activities
23. Which function of the management process incudes selecting employee setting performance standard
and compensation
A. planning b. organizing c. staffing d. motivation
24. Which one is prevent micro nutrient deficiency disorder in highland area
 a. Iodine deficiency disorder c. zinc deficiency disorder
b. Iron deficiency disorder d. vitamin A. deficiency disorder
25. Infant develops jaundice after birth of 6 hours which the ff most know diagnosis
a. Umbilical sepsis c. neonatal hepatitis
b. Physiological jaundice d. haemolytic disease new born
26. Which of the ff is characteristics of leader ship
a. Focus of the know b. focus population c. focus the system d. detailing control
27. Which of the ff is the external environment unfavorable
a. Weakness b. strength c. threats d. opportunities
28. Which of the ff is enabling others to face challenge and creates the positive future of the people that
achieve envision is
a. Implementing b. managing c. leading d. organizing
29. Glunt percussion used
a. For infant throat b. for adult throat c. for face flank pain d. for child sinus
30. When Rh incompatibility
a. Negative mother carry positive child
31. Which of the ff communicable disease transmission objective to water
a. Air born b. direct c. vehicle d. vector
32. Which of the ff the act of taping the patient non dominant hand cares
a. Direct b. indirect percussion c. blunt percussion d. percussion
33. During blood transfusion reaction nursing intervention
a. Stop blood b. consult to physician c. advice pt d. search blood bank
34. Used to select of chart eye
a. Optic nerve
35. One the ff is the health human behavior’sthat prevent communicable disease
a. Health seeking behaviors c. unprotect sex
b. Alcohol and other substance use d. open field detection
36. Which one of the ff direct to administer of hypotonic intravenous solution is
a. 0.9 sodium chloride c. 5% dextrose with N/S
b. 5% dextrose in water d. ringer lactate
37. One supply instrument sterile team during surgical procedure
a. Scrub nurse b. circulatory nurse c. surgeon d. all team
38. Which the ability of the body to defend against scientific invading agent such as bacteria ,virus, fungi is
a. Gland b. immunity c. hormone d. secretion
39. Which of the ff is promotion tool to develop marketing
a. Adverting b. marketing position c. cost component d. slogan
40. The communication strategy that targets police making and decision to get communicate for public
a. Staff mobilization b. program communicate c. advocacy d. social mobilization
1……A term that refers to factors that relieve or reduce intensity of uncomfortable symptoms but not to
produce a cure.
A/ Predisposing
B/ Precipitating
C/ Palliative
D/ Contributing
2…..While obtaining a health history the nurse would expect a 78-year-old client admitted to the hospital
with chronic heart failure to report a:
A/ Tingling in the hands and arms.
B/Need to use extra pillows at night to sleep
C/ Swelling of the ankles more apparent in the morning than at night
D/Feeling of being “bloated” after eating.
3…….A 20 years old female Client came to the health institution with Burn on her upper arm epidermis and
dermis to variable extent the burn moist with blistered , painful .What is the degree of this burn?
A/2nd degree of burn
B/1st degree of burn
C/3rd degree of burn
D/4th degree of burn
4……………Supplementary food is given to the child at the age of:
A/2 year
B/ 1 year
C/6 month
 D/ month
5……-------- is a care provided to the woman and her baby during the 6 weeks period following delivery in
order to promote healthy behaviour and early identification and management of complications.
A/ anti natal care
B/ post mortem care
C/ post natal care
D/ delivery
6…….During breast feeding the baby is with audible sounds of swallowing, lower lip turned down, mouth
widely opened and more areola visible in the upper than the lower. These are signs of
A/ Good attachment
B/Bad position
C/Good positioning
D/ Satiety behavior
7………One of the following is not used for the Prevention of HIV infection.
A/Correct and consistent use of condoms
B/ Using of HIV testing and counseling services
C/ Having multiple sexual partners
D/ Communication for behavioral change
8……Which of the following statements regarding processing of contaminated instruments is false?
A/Cleaning an instrument precedes all sterilization and disinfection processes.
B/ Personnel should wear latex-free utility gloves.
C/ Instruments should be processed in an area separate where clean instruments are stored.
D/ Instruments only need cleaning if they have visible contamination.
9…..he activities usually performed in the course of a normal day in the person's
life, such as eating, toileting, dressing, washing, or brushing the teeth.
A/ Passive exercise
B/ Community services for the older / disabled person
C/ Instrumental Activity of Living
D/ Activity of Daily Living
10………..Factors affecting the achievement of work objectives may not include:
A/ Technology/equipment breakdowns
B/ uncontrolled work place hazard
C/ Budget constraints
D/Environmental factors such as time, weather, etc
10………Which one of the following microorganism is the most common cause of surgical infections?
A/ Virus
B/Fungal
C/ Bacteria
D/ Clostridia
11…..Which of the following is Monitoring and evaluation of nursing care include:
A/ Nurses should give care according to the patient need without focusing on the organizations rules and
regulations
B/monitoring and evaluating patients condition only by asking the physician.
C/Monitoring health of client in accordance with the care plan and as negotiated with the client and/or
career(s).
D/ensuring the health institution is well guarded.
12……….While performing back massage, the nurse demonstrates proper technique of:
A/ Continuing the massage for at least 15 minutes
B/ Using the fingertips to perform the stroking motions
C/Using firm, continuous pressure
D/Pouring lotion directly onto the client’s skin
13………w/ro Silas admitted to medical ward with the case of pulmonary tuberculosis. The physician ordered
anti TB oral medication to be given daily what is the important activity prior to administration of the
medication.
A/ check the drug either stored in the refrigerator or not.
B/ The process of medication administration is explained to the client and ensures their readiness.
C/Give the medication every twelve hours.
D/ give the medication when the patient is in flat position.
14………..the most effective mechanism for preventing the spread of infection is
A/ wearing a face masks
B/ using isolation precautions
C/ through hand washing
D/ wearing disposable glove
15………Pregnancy-related deaths are more likely caused by the following risk factors:
A/ excessive family support
B/being literate and wealthy
C/ Antenatal services are inaccessible
D/ being used focused antenatal care
16………Which of the following comes first in first aid care of an electrical burn victim?
A/ Opening airway
B/ Locating entrance and exit wounds
C/ Initiating CPR
D/ Separating the victim carefully from the electrical source
17……….The purpose of bandaging is to...............?
A/keep patient’s comfort
B/economize the adhesive tap
C/ faster the wound healing
D/ Immobilize the part
18……..Which of the following cause and effect is mismatched?
A/protozoa- amoebae
B/ virus –tuberculosis
C/ bacteria – clostridium tetani
D/ fungus – Tinea
19………..Strategies for the prevention and management of decubitus ulcers include:
A/ Putting the patient in the same position for long period of time
B/Wetting of the bed sheet
C/ Use of pressure relieving devices
D/ Lying the patient on wrinkled bed linen
20…….The physician prescribed an ophthalmic medication for a patient with severe pain and redness of the
eye. Which position should the client remain after the medication is administered?
A/ Fowler’s position for 10 minutes
B/Supine position for 5 minutes
C/Side lying position for 5 minute
D/ lithotomy position for 10 minutes
MATCHING
COLUMN A COLUMN B

1…J…….Normal range of pulse rate A. Visual inspection

2……P……Abed prepared when the patient is lying on the bed B. Extent of Burn
3……A…….Rule of nine C. Work place relation ship
4……D…Client right D. Privacy
5………A…..Quality check E. Business performance
6……R…Aseptic technique F. Work out put
7……K……Harm full traditional practice G. giving birth for more than five times
8…F…..Improve cost –benefit ratio H. management rule ABC
9……H…..Emergency care I. chlorine solution
10……C…..Promote cooperation b/n staffs J. 60-90 beats/ min
11………G……Grand multi Para K. Uvellectomy
12…………Performance issue L. hypoglycemic agent
13…L…….Glibenclamide M. Antibiotic
14…M…Amoxicillin N. 16-24 beats/min
15…I….Disinfectant O. open bed
P. Occupied bed making
Q. giving birth two times
R. surgical wound
NA VIII
1…….When caring for a resident who is dying, the nurse aide MUST:
A/ keep the room dark at all times
B/watch the resident and report any changes in his condition
C/ not allow more than one visitor in the room at a time
D/ wear gloves, mask, and shoe covers when giving personal care
2……..A technique in physical examination that is use to assess the movement of air through the
tracheobronchial tree:
A/ Auscultation
B/ Inspection
C/ Palpation
D/ Percussion
3………Hormones secreted by Islets of Langerhans
A/ Progesterone
B/ Hemoglobin
C/ Testosterone
D/ Insulin
4……..When giving a backrub to a resident, the nurse aide should:
A/ apply alcohol directly to the resident's back
B/ remove all sheets and blankets from the bed
C/rub bony areas of the back with a circular motion
D/ not touch bony areas of the resident's back
5…….Which of the following is not a measure used to prevent pressure sore
A/ Avoiding wrinkles and changing soiled bed
B/ Applying cotton ring or air ring
C/ Back care
D/ Restricting patient
6………mobility___________ may result when patients or residents ignore the urge to defecate.
A/ Constipation
B/ Hemorrhoids
C/ Incontinence
D/ Diarrhea
7……….Which type of communication is needed during patient care?
A/Keep silent
B/ Two way communication
C/ Intra communication
D/ One way communication
8……….The nurse in charge asks the nurse aide to encourage Mr. N to bathe himself. The nurse aide should:
A/ gives Mr. N his bathing supplies and stay with him to assist as necessary
B/ask Mr. N's room make to keep an eye on Mr. N while he is in the bathtub
C/helps Mr. N into the bathtub and leave Mr. N's room
D/put supplies beside the bathtub and leave Mr. N's room
9…..Immersion of the Genital and rectal area in warm water solution is called
A/Shower
B/ Perineal care
C/ Sitz bath
D/ Bed bath
10…….he nurse aide should report to the nurse in charge if the resident's urine is:
A/ clear
B/ Odorless
C/ red
D/ yellow
11…..Which of the following is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?
A/Subcutaneous
B/ Intradermal
C/ Intramuscular
D/ Intravenous
13,,,,,,,,,,,A muscular enlarges pouch or sac that lies slightly to the left which is used for temporary storage of
food…
A/Gallbladder
B/ Lungs
C/ Urinary bladder
D/ Stomach
14……Which of the following site is the most accurate for temperature measurement?
A/Axillary
B/ Oral
C/ Tympanic
D/ Rectal
15……A local application of moist cold liquid to cool the skin
A. Hot water bottle
B/ Ice cap
C/ Cold compress
D/Tepid sponge
16………….The chain of infection includes the ________________.
A/ Active natural, active artificial, passive natural and passive artificial
B/ intrinsic, extrinsic, internal and external transmission
C/ Opportunism, weakness, immunity, and colonization
D/ Germ, agent, reservoir, exit portal, mode of transmission, entry port, and susceptible host
17……….A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse document this
findings as:
a/ Tachycardia
b/ Arrhythmia
c/ Hyper pyrexia
d/ Tachypnea
18………using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse would wear gloves in what nursing
interventions?
a/ Providing oral hygiene
b/ Feeding a client
c/Providing hair care
d/ Providing a back massage
19……..The fist emergency measure with flame burn
a/ Removing the clothing
b/ Pouring water on the client
c/Stabbing with hand
d/ Rolling on the grassy ground
20……….When cleansing the genital area during perennial care, the nurse aide should______
a/ Use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.
b/cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip
c/ Replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
d/ cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient’s genital area
21…….Asepsis is defined as ________________.
a/ the absence of disease causing germs
b/ a pathogenic infection
c/ the absence of all microorganisms
d/ a urinary infection
22……..A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing a mouth care, the best
position of a client is:
A/ Fowler’s position
B/ Supine
C/ Side lying
D/Trendelenburg
23……….The first techniques used examining the abdomen of a client is:
a/ Palpation
B/ Auscultation
C/ Percussion
D/ Inspection
24………Components of the chain of infection includes, except
A/ Medication
B/ Portal of entry & portal of exit
C/ Infective agent
D/ Reservoir and susceptible host
25………The nurse is preparing to take vital sign in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration
secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the client’s temperature?
A/ Radial
B/Oral
C/Axillary
D/ Heat sensitive tape
NA V20
1……..A Geriatrics problem which is characterized by inability to recall remote information with no other
cognitive deficit is?
A/ Normal aging
B/Dementia
C/ Delirium
D/ Amnesia
2……Rahel is a 24 years old healthy women; she visit a clinic with a complain of abnormal heavy and
prolonged menstrual flow, which one is the possible diagnosis of Rahel?
A/ Metrorrhagia
B/Menorrhagia
C/ Amenorrhea
D/ Polymonorrhea
3…Which one is the most common cause of shock in emergency situation?
A/ Septicemia
B/Decrease arterial resistance
C/ Cardiac failure
D/ Hypovolmia
4…….A formal record of the financial activities of a business, person or other entity is?
A/ Balance sheet
B/Business plan sheet
C/ Sales planning sheet
D/ Financial statement
5……….One of the following is correct about rectal medication?
A/ Digestive enzymes destroy some drugs
B/ Useful if the drug induces vomiting
C/ Slow onset of action, irritant drugs are not advantageous
D/Not effective when there is vomiting & diarrhea
6…….Which one of the following is advantage of partnership in business?
A/ Unlimited liability
B/ Lack of continuity
C/ Easy to form
D/ Shared authority
7……Application of antiseptic chemical and glycerin over the hand to keep hand hygiene is?
A/ Hand antisepsis
B/Hand washing
C/Antiseptic hand-rub
D/ Surgical hand scrub
8………You are working as a team member of patient care unit and you are expected to perform instrument
processing by chlorine solution, prepare a 0.5% chlorine solution from 25% chlorine powder
A/ 200 gm/ liter
B/50 gm/liter
C/20 gm/ liter
D/ 50,000 gm/ liter
9…….Wasie is a 5 years old child who visit Z hospital for a complain of cough for a duration of two weeks, Dr
Markos ordered Amoxicillin three times per day for wasie which is 500 mg for adults. Based on the
scenario what will be the proper dose of Amoxicillin for wasie?
A/147 mg
B/ 125 mg
C/ 1470 mg
D/14.7 mg
10………..Meriem had hemorrhoid and she undergone anal surgery, you are responsible to classify and apply
wound care; In which type of wound you classify it?
A/ Septic wound
B/ Clean contaminated wound
C/Infected wound
D/ Clean wound
11………Which type of Shock is so sever, prolonged and cause multiple organ system failure?
A/ Compensatory Stage
B/Refractory Stage
C/Intermediate Stage
D/ Progressive Stage
12…………Which of the following is an Ideal anti TB drug used for treatment & prophylaxis of tuberculosis?
A/ Pyrazinmid
B/ INH
C/ Ethambutol
D/Rifampicin
13……A30 years old women came to your health center with complaint of amenorrhea, nausea and vomiting
and she perceived fetal movement; on examination, the midwife heard Fetal heart beat, positive urinary
HCG and uterine enlargement. Based on the scenario, which type of pregnancy sign is most categorized
as positive sign of pregnancy?
A/Nausea, vomiting & amenorrhea
B/ positive HCG & uterine enlargement
C/ Positive Fetal heart beat
D/ perceives fetal movement and positive HCG
14…….Which one is the most important role of quality control tools?
A/ Productivity and product
B/Cost reduction
C/ For delivery data improvement
D/ For problem solving
15……..W/ro Almaz visit ANC clinic on August 10/2006 and the health provider give TT-1 vaccine her. When
will be the next date of appointment for TT-2 vaccine and its protection period?
A/ 01/13/2006E.C & for three years duration
B/ 03/13/2006 E.C & for five years duration
C/01/01/2007E.C & for five years duration
D/ 03/01/2007 E.C & for three years duration
16…….Which of the following is the correct sequence of medical or nursing management of a patient who
experiences multiple injuries?
A/ Establish an air way, Control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries.
B/ prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries, establish an air way, control hemorrhage
C/ Control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, establish an air way, assess for head injuries.
D/ Assess for head injuries, control hemorrhage, establish an air way, prevent hypovolemic shock.
17……..A 3 years old child came to pediatrics OPD with a complain of right ear pain and fever; the physician
diagnosed external otitis media and ordered to apply Gentamycin ear drop 2 gtt BID for 7 days. Which
position is preferable to install this medication?
A/ Pull pina down and back ward in supine position
B/Pull pina upward and back ward with head turned to the left side
C/ Pull pina upward and back ward with head turned to the right side
D/ Pull pina down and back ward in prone position…..
18…….What is the initial nursing intervention to control hemorrhage caused by trauma?
A/ Apply a tourniquet
B/ Immobilization
C/ Apply firm pressure
D/ Elevate the injured part
19….An 11months old age child is injured on the right upper leg have a sign of blister formation, sever pain,
swelling, and red molted appearance with full thickness of burn. Based on the scenario, calculated total
body surface area burned & classify the degree of burn.
A/ 36% & 3rd degree burn
B/ 9% & 1st degree burn
C/ 14% & 2nd degree burn
D/ 18% & 1st degree burn
20……Sara has been taking several medications during her first trimester of pregnancy and she delivered a
male baby with a congenital abnormality. Based on the scenario which kind of adverse drug effect had
occurred?
A/ Side effects
B/ Allergic rxn effect
C/ Untoward effect
D/ Teratogenic effect
21……Kidus is a 7 years old child sustained fracture injury, the doctor detected as he has femoral bone
bending. Based on the case what kind of fracture does Kidus develop?
A/ Comminuted fracture
B/ Oblique fracture
C/ Green stick fracture
D/ Impacted fracture
NA V10
1………Ato Haile, a 35 years old man gets accidental burn with fire on his right side of body (right leg and
hand, anterior trunk) is involved. Based on this information calculate Total body surface area burned?
A/ 54 %
B/ 45 %
C/ 36 %
D/63%
2…….An element of communication process responsible for translating, information in to a message in the
form of symbols that represent ideas or concepts?
A/ Receiver
B/ Feedback
C/Sender
D/Channel
3……..Cotrimoxazole 480mg is ordered for a 5 years old child having pneumonia; the drug is supplied in a
liquid form containing 140 mg in 5 ml. How much dose do you give?
A/ 25 ml
B/17 ml
C/ 18 ml
D/ 15 ml
4……..W/roAlmaze, 75 year’s old elder patient admitted in geriatric care room. During assessment you found
impaired memory, acute confusion and chronic pain. By which functional health pattern did you identify
above findings?
A/ Self-perception-self-concept pattern
B/ Health perception and management pattern
C/ Copping –stress tolerance pattern
D/ Cognitive-perceptual pattern
5……..Ato Belay was admitted to surgical ward with hemorrhoid.You are assigned to provide care, which
method of bath is indicated?
A/Tub bath
B/Bed bath
C/Partial bath
D/ Sizth bath
6……..Arranging needed items, labeling in the way, making easy to use and used to better visual
management. Which types of kaizen principles is applied?
A/ Sorting
B/ Shine
C/Set -in -order
D/ Standardize
6……..Atokebede; 85 years old elder patient came to your institution .during cognitive examination he
doesn’t remember where he was born, has word finding difficulty, impaired perception and judgment of
6 months duration. Atokebede condition become progressive though time but his consciousness is clear.
Which mental health problem is AtoKebede developing?
A/Depression
B/ Dementia
C/Amnesia
D/Delirium
7……..Ato Mihiretie, a small industry worker suddenly gets an accidental that result an open wound with
ragged edges of tissue. Which type of wound is?
A/ Laceration
B/ Puncture
C/ Avulsion
D/ Abrasion
8…….AtoBeyene, a 65years old, admitted in’ Y’ hospital for the last 2 months. He is weak and chronically ill.
When you assess his skin; there is skin damage extended to dermal layer in to subcutaneous tissue,
pussy discharge, redness around wound, and possible necrosis.at what stage of bed sore do you classify?
A/ Stage IV
B/ Stage II
C/ Stage III
D/ Stage I
9……..AtoWondwosen,45 years old farmer gets sudden falling accident and losses his Consciousness for the
moment and arrive to you by his family .you are expected to provide first aid. What steps that you follow
to assess the victim?
A/Air way, breathing and circulation
B/ Circulation , breathing and air way
C/ Breathing, air way and circulation
D/Breathing, circulation and air way
10……..You are assigned in operation room; the physician ordered you to bring an oxygen cylinder. And you
are trying to lift cylinder with full of oxygen, then for which type of hazard do you exposed?
A/Ergonomic
B/ Chemical
C/ Physical
D/ Biological
11…..W/ro Fikrie came to your health center for antenatal care. She was Amenorrhoric for last five months,
while you are taking her obstetric history; she said she has three alive children, one still birth and one
abortion. From this history what is her gravidity and parity?
A/ Gravida six and Para four
B/ Gravida four and Para three
C/Gravida three and Para five
D/Para two and Gravida five
12…….W/ro Helen, 48 years old terminally ill patient admitted to medical ward. She expresses hostility and
adopts a “why me?” and “Why did this happen to me” she said? Which stage of dying expressed by w/r
Helen?
A/Denial
B/Anger
C/ Depression
D/Bargaining
13……..Which one of the following is not correct about nursing standard?
A/ Promote guide and direct professional practice
B/ Reflect desired and achievable level of performance
C/ Provision of appropriate treatment for client
D/Provide guide to knowledge, skill and judgment
14……..Agastrointestinal drug that suppresses acid production and grouped as H2-receptor antagonists?
A/Cimetidine
B/ Lansoprazole
C/ Sucralfate
D/ Omeprazole
15……..Type of team deliberately created by managers to carry out specific activities for achievement of
organizational objectives.
A/ Formal Team
B/Self-managed team
C/ Super team
D/ Informal team
16…………Twenty years old 45kg weigh burn patient came to your emergency room with a second degree
burn of 22% body surface area. What amount of fluid is expected to replace loss for 24hours and 1st 8
hours respectively? (Calculate by using 2ml/kg of consensus formula)
A/ 3960ml and 1980ml
B/ 1980ml and 3960ml
C/ 1980ml and 990ml
D/990ml and 1980ml.
17….In which steps of nursing process expected outcomes are achieved and meet patient’s health need?
A/ Nursing Evaluation
B/ Nursing planning
C/ Nursing diagnosis
D/Nursing implementation
18………Ato Yihun, 60 years old patient admitted to Adult ICU with diagnosis of heart failure.He needs
applications of comfort device.which comfort device is used?
A/ Bed cradle and back rest
B/ Fracture board and foot rest
C/ Back rest and foot rest
D/ Sand bag and bed cradle
19……..Which one is correct about oral drug administration when effective absorption in stomach is
required?
A/Taken 3 hours before and 2hours after meal
B/ Taken 1 hour before and 2 hours after meal
C/ Taken 2hours before and 3 hours after meal
D/ Taken 1 hour before and 1 hour after meal
20….Ato Girum is a 45 years old patient admitted to hospital with acute health problem and has high grade
fever. He needs oral care. Which type of oral solution is used?
A/ Hydrogen peroxide 6% IN 5-20 CC water
B/Hydrogen peroxide 3% IN 5-20 CC water
C/ Hydrogen peroxide 30% IN 5-20 CC water
D/Hydrogen peroxide 0.2% IN 5-20 CC water
1. Non communicable disease
A. Syphilis
B. Genital wart
C. Epilepsy
D. Malaria
2. Which factor most affects the stability of solid dosage forms?
A. Exposure to cool temperature
B. Exposure to humidity
C. Exposure to room temperature
D. Exposure to light
3. Identify a value not expected to be practiced by health professionals?
A. Compassion
B. Disclosure of confidential patient information
C. Responsiveness
D. Integrity
4. What position should the head be in during a nosebleed?
A. Head titled to side
B. Head forward
C. Head backwards
D. Head level
5. Which one is mismatched?
A. PO……….By mouth
B. Stat………Single dose
C. PRN……..As needed
D. PC……….Before meal
6. Being sensitive to the pain or suffering of others and a deep desire to alleviate the suffering is
A. Honest
B. Respectful
C. Caring
D. Compassion
7. In a prescription, RX MEANS:
A. Dispense
B. Take
C. Sale
D. Administer
8. Identify the dosage form which require shaking prior to usage
A. Emulsion
B. Syrup
C. Elixir
D. Tincture
9. Identify the vitamin which prevents bleeding.
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin A
10. The best ways to determine the storage conditions for a particular drug is to:
A. Refer to the united states pharmacopeia
B. Refer to the manufacturer`s label
C. Ask the pharmacist
D. Try different ways of storage
11. Which drug must be taken 30 minutes before meal?
A. Omeprazole
B. Cimetidine
C. Amoxicillin
D. Diclofenac
12. An order is written for 500ml of NS to be infused at 40gtt/min. How long would it take to infuse the NS if
the delivery is set at 10gtt/ml?
A. 40 minutes
B. 125 minutes
C. 50 minutes
D. 100 minutes
13. ________________ is the kind of care in any setting which supports and promotes, and does not undermine
person`s self-respect ,regardless of any differences:
A. Sympathy
B. Respect
C. Equity
D. Stigma
14. Color coding for medical glassware waste bin in a hospital is:
A. BLUE
B. RED
C. YELLOW
D. WHITE
15. The driving force of business that keeps the organization in the public`s eyes and that will ultimately be
the foundation of growth is:
A. Continuous improvement
B. Business planning
C. Customer service strategy
D. Marketing
16. Shake before use” is not necessary for
A. Amoxicillin powder for suspension
B. Antacid suspension
C. Castor oil emulsion
D. Liquid paraffin
17. Products and services prohibited at drug store level:
A. Dispensing
B. Patient counseling
C. Compounding of extemporaneous preparation
D. Selling cosmetics
18. Can be used safely as antiseptic in surgical wound:
A. Iodine solution
B. Ethanol
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Methanol
19. A sterilant and high-level disinfectant among the list below is:
A. Povidone –iodine
B. Benzalkonium chloride
C. Formaldehyde
D. Isopropanol
20. Establishing and maintaining a high ethical standard without making or rationalizing inconvenient
exceptions is:
 A. Ethically committed
B. Ethically consistent
C. Ethically conscious
D. Ethically competent
21. In the provision of first aid care for critical/emergency case, identify the one which is less important to
check.
A. Body temperature
B. Air way
C. Circulation
D. Breathing
22. What should your first action be when treating an electrical burn?
A. Ensure that causality is still breathing
B. Check the danger and ensure contact with the electrical source is broken
C. Wash the burn with cold water
D. Check for level of response
23. A fat-soluble vitamin:
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin A
24. A long – term contraceptive device that is placed in the uterus
A. Aqueous
B. Non-greasy
C. O/W
D. W/O
25. Which vitamin deficiency is implicated is greater morality rate(due to COVID-19) in Black Americans
related to their skin color
A. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin C
26. Deals with the structure of body organs:
A. Pharmacodymanics
B. Physiology
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Anatomy
27. Which of the following increases participation?
A. Point out dominating behavior to everyone
B. Ask the leader of the group to run the meeting and talk the most
C. Plan the meeting and share meeting agendas with people beforehand
D. Encourage everyone to talk whenever they have something to say, even if another person is
talking
28. Supplementation of which of the following vitamins is necessary to prevent peripheral neuropathy in
some patients taking isoniazid (INH)?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin B6
29. Team development stage where members start to accept the team.
A. Performing
B. Forming
C. Norming
D. Storming
30. Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin C
31. In what condition may working from home be necessary?
A. Epidemic from air borne disease
 B. Epidemic from water borne disease
C. Work long-related stress
D. Non-communicable disease
32. Given during pregnancy mainly to prevent Spinal Bifida and anencephaly
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin K
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin C
33. A business breaks even at the level of output where.
A. Variable costs=Fixed costs
B. Fixed costs=Total revenue
C. Total profits=Total costs
D. Total revenue=Total costs
34. What position should the head be in during a nosebleed?
A. Head tilted to side
B. Head forward
C. Head backwards
D. Head level
35. Identify a value not expected to be practiced by health professionals
A. Compassion
B. Disclosure of confidential patient information
C. Responsiveness
D. Integrity
36. Identify the role of amaranth solution in the preparation described below
Alkaline phenol
Ingredient formula
Liquefied phenol 30ml
Potassium hydroxide 5% 30ml
Amaranth solution 1ml
Water to 1000ml
Send 50ml
A. Active ingredient
B. Cleansing agent
C. Coloring agent
D. Solvent
Each of the items in this test is followed by four possible responses. For each item, choose ONE
correct answer. Indicate your answer by circling the letter of your choice. Each correct response
is worth one point

1. A 28 year-old man brought in to the hospital with a clinical sign and symptoms of polydypsia, polyphagia,
and polyuria and weight loss. After detailed diagnosis, the physician recommends lifelong insulin therapy.
Which type of diabetes mellitus is most likely diagnosed?
A. Gestational Diabetes Mellitus C. Secondary Diabetes Mellitus
B. Type I Diabetes Mellitus D. Type II Diabetes Mellitus
2. A 20 year-old man comes to a Hospital with Diabetes Mellitus. After arrival and detailed assessment, the
patients every organ system of the body become Affected. Which one of the following is macro vascular
complication?
A. Coronary artery disease C. Diabetic Nephropathy
B. Diabetic Neuropathy D. Diabetic retinopathy
3. Most people with newly discovered type II DM are overweight. The important management for such type
of patients is diet and exercise. In addition to this, which of the following Oral agent is recommending as
first line therapy?
A. Meglitinides B. Metformin C. Satagliptin D. Sulfonylureas
4. Which one of the following Insulin injection area has the greatest speed of absorption from its site?
A. Abdomen B. Arms (posterior surface) C. Hips D. Thighs(anterior surface)
5. You explain to the patient about hypothyroidism that the symptoms should resolve as the medication
reaches an appropriate level. Which of the Presenting signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include:
A. Fatigue and cold intolerance C. Polydypsia and polyphagia.
B. Tachycardia and diarrhea. D. Weight loss and hyperglycemia.
6. When there is a disorder over the musculoskeletal system, we have many options of diagnostic modalities.
Among those modalities,which of the following procedure is used for aspiration and examination of
synovial fluid from the joints?
A. Arthrocentesis B. Arthroplasty C. Arthroscopy D. Myelogram
7. A patient presents with abdominal pain that is initially periumbilical but over time moves to the right
lower quadrant area. Which of the following clinical condition is most likely suspected?
A. Appendicitis B. Cholecystitis C. PUD D. Diverticulitis
8. Which of the following problem is mostly associated with osteoporosis?
A. Infection in the bone C. Peripheral blood clot formation.
B. Fracture formation. D. Painful joint inflammation
9. Assume you are working in the emergency surgical OPD with an Orthopedician who is examining a patient
with facture. The Orthopedician found that the bone is broken into many fragments with crepitus and he
asks you to tell him the type of fracture that has occurred. What should be your answer from the given
alternatives?
A. Comminuted fracture B. Compressed fracture C. Impacted fracture D. Spiral fracture
10. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute Osteomyelitis?
A. S. aureus B. Gram negative rods C. H. Influenza D. Enterococci
11. Which one of the following shows the sequential steps of fracture management in the hospital?
A. Reduction----rehabilitation----immobilization
B. Immobilization----reduction----rehabilitation
C. Reduction----immobilization----rehabilitation
D. Rehabilitation----immobilization----reduction
12. Which of the following is the most common confirmatory diagnostic mechanism of fracture?
A. Physical examination B. History taking C. Laboratory tests D. X-ray/radiography
13. There are different factors that affect fracture healing process. Among those factors, which one of the
following enhances the fracture healing time?
A. Extensive local trauma
B. Metabolic bone disease
C. Prompt reduction of bone fragments
D. Space or tissue between bone fragments
14. What is the biological hallmark of Hyperuricemia in gout patients?
A. Increased uric acid excretion or uric acid overproduction or both.
B. Hyper production of uric acid or reduced uric acid excretion or both.
C. Reduced uric acid production or decreased uric acid excretion or both.
D. Idiopathic origins.
15. A Twenty eight-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus. After a week, the
patient complains progressive rise in blood glucose from bed time to morning. Which of the following
characteristics of morning hyperglycemia is described?
A. Dawn phenomenon relitevely normal C. Hypoglycemia
B. Insulin waning D. Somogyi effect increase or decrease
16. A 25 year-old man with known type I DM is brought to a hospital. He is also a known hypertensive patient.
His blood glucose level is 800 mg/dl, urine keton 3+, and PCO2 is 10mmHg. Which one of is the following
fluid is most appropriate to be given to this patient?
A. 0.45% sodium chloride solution C. 0.9% sodium chloride solution
B. DNS solution D. Dextrose 5% solution
17. A 55 year-old woman brought to a Hospital with a diagnosis of dehydration. After physical examination,
what initial assessment findings would you expect to see?
A. Bradycardia, slowed respirations, low body temperature, and weight gain.
B. Rales, peripheral edema, palpitations, and diaphoresis.
C. Tachycardia, hypotension, poor skin turgor, and decreased urinary output.
D. Malaise, lymphadenopathy, fever, shortness of breath, and nausea
18. What is the definitive treatment of the patients with appendicitis?
A. Bowel preparation for cleansing. C. Medications to lower pH within the stomach.
B. Surgical removal of appendix. D. Transfusion to replace blood loss.
19. What is the process of removing as many microorganisms as possible from the hands and arms by
mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis before participating in a surgical procedure?
A. Antiseptic Hand rub B. Hand antisepsis C. Hand washing D. Surgical scrub
20. What is the Process of removing soil and debris and reduce transient flora from the hands using plain soap
and water?
A. Antiseptic hand rub B. Hand antisepsis C. Hand washing D. Surgical scrub
21. A 25- year- old male patient is brought to a hospital and undergone abdominal surgery. After two days, the
patient’s internal organs were found protruded through the disrupted wound edge. Which of the following
term most likely describe this finding?
A. Keloid B. Hematoma C. Dehiscence D. Evisceration
22. Which of the following procedure require strict aseptic technique?
A. Catheterization B. Retention enema C. Cleansing enema D. NGT insertion
23. Which of the following ratio describes the correct alcohol to glycerin preparation for hand rub?
A. 1 : 100 ml B. 2 : 100 ml C. D. 100 : 2 ml
B. 200 : 1 ml
24. A 35- year- old man brought to a hospital with car accident on his lower leg. On physical examination, he
has open fracture on it. What is the preferred method to control bleeding on the site?
A. Direct pressure B. Indirect pressure C. Elevation of the affected limb D. Apply Tourniquet
25. Which one of the following diagnostic procedures is the direct inspection and examination of the larynx,
trachea, and lower structures through either a flexible or a rigid scope?
A. Bronchoscopy B. Endoscopy C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging D. Thoracoscopy
26. Which of the following is the most important risk factors for Respiratory Disease?
A. Occupation B. Family history of lung disease B. Smoking C. Allergens and environmental
pollutants
27. A -29-year old patient presented with an intermittent cough, dyspnea and wheezing. On P/E, he has
bilateral decreased air entry, rapid respiration and weakness. Which of the following is the most likely,
problem of the patient?
A. Bronchial Asthma C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis D. Pneumonia
28. A 42- year –old patient had surgery before two months and brought to a Hospital with crampy pain that is
wave like and colicky in nature. There is no passage of bowel contents and on physical examination the
abdomen is distended. Which one of the following is the probable cause for his obstruction?
A. Intussusception B. Adhesion C. Volvlus D. Tumors and neoplasm
29. Your patient is experiencing congestive heart failure. What medication would you expect to administer to
strengthen myocardial contractility?
A. Nitroprusside B. Digoxin C. Nitroglycerine D. Furosemide
30. A 35- year-old patient is brought to a Hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia following a recent
intrathoracic surgery. Which of the following drug is most likely prescribed?
A. Gentamycin B. Amoxacillin C. Levofloxacin D. Docycline
31. Which one of the following is true about prevention of pressure ulcer in comatose patient?
A. Positioning disturb patients in coma
B. Changing the position of a bed-ridden patient every 8 hours
C. Rub the skin vigorously with alcohol
D. Minimize pressure on the bony prominence of a bed-ridden patient
32. A-40- year old patient is brought to a Hospital with a diagnosis of nephrolithiasis and advised to increase
fluid intake. What is the importance of increasing fluid intake in this patient?
A. To concentrate the urine
B. To help flush the stones through the urinary tract
C.To crystallize the struvite from the renal tubules
D. Tobreak down the stones into smaller pieces that will more easily pass through the urinary tract
33. One of your patients is awaiting lab results for kidney function. The patient has recently recovered from a
streptococcal throat infection. Which one of the following kidney disorders might the patient have?
A. Chronic renal failure B. Glomerulonephritis C. Acute renal failure D. Pyelonephritis
34. Which of the following is an example of type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
A.Allergic rhinitis B. Asthma C. Atopic dermatitis D. Contact dermatitis
35. Which of the following is the first line drug of choice for a hospital acquired gram negative bacterial
pneumonia?
A. Metronidazole500mg po tid C. Gentamycin 80mg iv / im tid
B. Amoxicillin 500mg po/ iv tid D.Cloxacillin500mg po/ iv qid
36. Which one of the following vital sign is not affected by diurnal variations?
A. Blood pressure B. Body temperature C. Respiratory rate D. Pulse rate
37. A nursing care that begins when the patient is transferred to the operating table and ends when the
patient is admitted to the post anesthesia unit. Which one of the following term describes this phase of
nursing care?
A. Perioperative care B. Preoperative care C. Postoperative care D. Intraoperative
care
38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence from the slowest to fastest rate of absorption of drugs
at the sites of administration?
A. Sublingual, Oral, SC, IV, IM C. SC, oral, Sublingual, IV, IM
B. Oral, Sublingual, SC, IM, IV D. Oral, SC, Sublingual, IM, IV
39. Which one of the following is correct to manage sharp injury of the abdomen?
A. Removing the sharp object is helps to minimize further tissue damage
B. Give fluids by mouth to severely thirsted victims to counteract blood loss
C. Try to replace protruding organs & cover with dressings to prevent dryness
D. Place the victim on semi fowler’s position to avoid breathing difficulty
40. Even a single break in the chain of aseptic & sterile techniques in healthcare settings will result in
introduction of microorganisms in to our body. Which of the following statement describes an infection
acquired in such a way?
A. Opportunistic infection B. Nosocomial infection C. Medical asepsis D. Surgical
asepsis
41. What is the dose of TAT to be administered for an adult following an open wound?
A. 1500IM IM B. 1500IU SC C. 3000IU IM D. 3000IU ID
42. Which WHO clinical stage is suitable for an HIV positive patient with extra-pulmonary tuberculosis and
pneumocystis carinii pneumonia/PCP/?
A. Stage-1 B. Stage-2 C. Stage-3 D. Stage-4
43. A -24- year old woman is brought to a hospital with a diagnosis of blood disorder. On laboratory analysis
hematocrit become 55%. Which type of blood disorder will explain it?
A. Hemolytic anemia Iron deficiency anemia Aplastic anemia Polycythemia
44. Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of depression according to the DSM-IV criteria?
A. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure C. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day.
in all, D. Feelings of self-worthiness
B. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every
day.
45. A 30 years old daily laborer presented with a belief that people are talking about him, being prosecuted
and followed by others. On further history and P/E, he has no insight on the disease and feels anger
towards the nurse and his attendant. Which of the following would be the most likely problem of this
patient?
A. Schizoid psychosis B. Paranoid psychosis C. Manic depressive psychosis D. Hypomania
46. Which of the following is not a route of hepatitis B transmission?
A. Blood contact B. Sexual contact C. Animal contact D.Perinatal transmission
47. What is the first thing you should do for a patient having epileptic seizure?
A. Give diazepam C. Put him or her on the lateral position
B. Prevent tong biting by inserting oral air D. Restrains the patient
way
48. A patient in ICU has frequent oral and endotreachal tube secretion. One of the following statements is
correct about suctioning of a patient.
A. Sterility is mandatory C. Pre-oxygenation is not mandatory
B. Atelectasis is unlikely D. The time of suctioning exceeds 30 seconds
49. What would be the first line emergency management of a patient with acute asthma?
A. Aminophyline B. Hydrocortisone C. Oxygen D. Salbutamol
50. A -32- year old known RVI patient who has diarrhea for the past 1month with decrease intake came to the
ED with weakness and change in mentation of 1 day duration. On physical examination, Bp- un recordable,
PR 140 b/m, RR 36 b/m, T o 35oc, Oxygen saturation- 80%. What is your priority management for this
patient?
A. Check his airway, breathing and secure wide bore bilateral IV line
B. Secure bilateral IV line
C. Start warming up the patient because he is hypothermic
D. Take further history regarding the duration and the quality of the diarrhea
51. A -20-year old male patient who sustained car accident came to you with loss of consciousness of 5 hours
duration. On P/E, the patient is snoring with excessive secretions from his mouth. What will be the priority
nursing management for this patient?
A. Take vital signs C. Open airway and apply suctioning
B. Assess for presence of bleeding D. Secure bilateral IV lines to manage shock
52. What is the preferable position for female urinary catheterization?
A. Left lateral position B. Dorsal recumbent position C. Supine position D. Trendelenburg
position
53. Which of the following is the most commonly used catheter size for an adult male?
A. # 14fr B. # 16fr C. # 18fr D. #10fr
54. Which of the following routes of drug administration has fast onset of action?
A. Intramuscular route B. Intravenous route C. Oral route D. Subcutaneous route
55. Which of the following is safest, most convenient and least expensive route of medication administration?
A. Oral B. Intramuscular Subcutaneous Intradermal

56. Injection of drug in to the tissue just beneath the skin.

A. Intravenous B. Intramuscular C. Subcutaneous D. Intradermal
57. W/ro Almaz comes to your department with shock and she has no peripheral pulse. If venous cut down
would be an option to resuscitate her, which of the following is the most commonly used vein for the cut
down?
A.Basalic vein B. Cephalic vein C. Femoral vein D. Sephaneous vein
58. Which of the following is true about blood transfusion?
A. Immediate Transfusion reaction is likely after 24 hours
B. Skin rash is an immediate complication
C. The blood should be transfused within 30min of its removal from the blood bank
D. The transfusion usually takes 12 hours
59. Which one of the following statement is true?
A. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greater than 45mmHg indicates hyperventilation
B. Partial pressures of carbon dioxide is less than 35mmHg indicates hypoventilation
C.The normal Arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 35-45mmHg
D. The normal Arterial Partial pressure of oxygen is 70-90mmHg
60. W/ro Hanna is a known Chronic kidney disease patient with urine output of <300ml per day. How do you
report W/ro Hanna’s finding?
A. Anuria B. Nocturia C. Oliguria D. Polyuria
61. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of abdominal assessment?
A. Auscultation→Inspection→palpation →percussion
B. Inspection→Auscultation →palpation →percussion
C. Inspection→Auscultation→percussion → palpation
D. Inspection→Palpation→Percussion→ Auscultation
62. Which one of the following assessment is subjective data?
A. Tenderness B. Pain C .Fever D. BP=100/60mmhg
63. A patient has “Fluid volume deficit related to persistent nausea and vomiting as evidenced by Bp=70/40
mmHg”. What type of nursing diagnosis is it?
A. Actual nursing diagnosis C. Syndromic nursing diagnosis
B. Potential nursing diagnosis D. Well nursing diagnosis
64. A patient has “Fluid volume deficit related to persistent nausea and vomiting as evidenced by Bp=70/40
mmHg”. Which part of the statement is the etiology?
A. Bp=70/40mmHg D. Persistent nausea vomiting evidenced by
B. Fluid volume deficit BP
C. Persistent nausea vomiting
65. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient who has hypotension secondary to diarrhea and
vomiting?
A. Give medication B.Identify underline cause C. Resuscitate with fluid D. Taking detailed
history
66. A Physician ordered 1000ml of normal saline to run over 6 hours. What is the drop rate per minute to
administer the fluid?
A. 41 drop/min B. 42 drop/min C. 52 drop/min D. 56 drop/min
67. What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio of an adult patient receiving CPR, respectively?
A. 15:2 B. 2:30 C. 30:2 D. 60:2
68. M/r Alemu has cervical spine injury. What maneuver is recommended for air way management?
A. Head tilt and chin lift B. trust C. Chin lift D. Head tilt ,chin lift and jaw trust
69. W/ro Alemitu has metastasized uterine cancer and she is terminally ill. Up on assessment, She says ‘’ I feel
fine.’’ In which stage of death is W/ro Alemitu?
A. Bargaining B. Anger C. Depression D. Denial
70. Which one of the following is absorbable suturing material?
A. Catgut B. Nylon C. Silk D. Stainless steel
71. Which one of the following is a clean procedure?
A. Catheterization B. Endo-tracheal tube insertion C. Enema D. Opening IV line
72. Which of the following is the route of transmission of cholera?
A. Air borne B. Blood transfusion C. Vector borne D. Feco- oral
73. Which of the following is not true about the management of cholera?
A. Antibiotics B. Fluid resuscitation C. Immunization D. Screening and management of
contact
74. Which of the following is true about MDR TB?
A. Resistance to Ethambutol and Isonaizide C. Resistance to Refampcin
B. Resistance to Isonaizide D. Resistance to Refampcin and Isonazide
75. Which one of the following statement is correct about HIV/AIDS?
A. AIDS is curable diseases C. Everyone who is infected with HIV has AIDS.
B. AIDS is virus that causes HIV D.HIV is the virus that causes AIDS
76. Which one of the following wound should not be sutured?
A. Animal bit B . Car accident C. Fall down accident D. Stick/blow injury
77. Which one of the following statement is true about type 1 DM?
A. DKA is less likely than type 2 DM C. Necessarily needs insulin therapy
B. More common in old age than type 2 DM D. Nutritional management is mandatory than
type 2
78. Which one of the following feature characterize duodenal ulcer?
A. It is aggravated by food B. It is Relived by food C. Vomiting is common D. Wight loss is
common
79. Which of the following drug is used for managing non-cardiogenic anaphylactic shock?
A. Adrenaline B. Atropine C. Dopamine D. Doputamin
80. Which one of the following investigation is a golden standard test for TB?
A. A.X-ray B. AFB C. CT D. Culture
81. W/ro Abebech comes to your institution within an hour of ingestion of rat poison. What will be the
emergency management of this patient?
A. Cleansing Enema B. Decompression C. Gastric Gavage D.Gastric Lavage
82. Which one of the following is the major criterion for diagnosing acute rheumatic fever?
A. Arthlargia B. Carditis C. Fever D. Lab investigation
83. Which one of the following is positive clinical finding of meningitis?
A. Brudzinski sign B. Fever C. Headache D. Vomiting
84. Which one of the following is important for iron absorption after meal/food?
A. Coca cola B. Coffee C. Fruit juice D. Tea
85. Which one of the following is true about hypertensive emergency?
A. Bp>180/120mmhg and no organ failure D. Severe rise in blood pressure
B. Bp>180/120mmhg and organ failure (Bp>180/120mmhg)
C. Organ failure
86. What is the preferable site for administering pentavalent vaccine for an infant intramuscularly?
A. Deltoid B. Dorso gluteal C. Vastus laterals D. Ventro gluteal
87. Which of the following is isotonic solution?
A. 3% Normal saline B. 5% Normal saline C. 0.9% Normal saline D. 0.45% Normal saline
88. Which one of the following is the best manifestation of right side heart failure?
A. Cough B. Decreased urine production C. Difficulty of lying flat D. Jugular vein distention
89. A -35-year old patient comes to your health facility with BP=190/110mmhg, PR=72bpm,
RR=18breath/min and To=35oc. Which of the following is correct about this finding?
A. Stage I hypertension B. Stage II hypertension C. Systolic hypertension D. Stage III
hypertension
90. What makes the pain of myocardial infarction different from that of angina pectoris?
A. The pain is localized C. Pain is relieved by rest
B. The pain is sever and radiating D. The pain begin after vigorous exercise
91. Which one of the following is true about semi- fowler position of a patient with congestive heart failure?
A. Reduce venous return from the lower C. Enhance digestion
body D. Reduce jugular venous pressure
B. Enhance renal perfusion
92. Which one of the following anti- hypertensive drugs does not act by lowering vascular resistance?
A. Enala pril B. Hydralizine C. Nifidipine D. Nitro-prusside
93. A 24- year- old patient is brought to a hospital with a clinical manifestation of Dyspepsia, discomfort on
the epigastrium and burning sensation in the esophageal area. Upon Laboratory examination,Serologic test
revealed positive for H. pylori Ag.
Which of the following antimicrobial agent will not treat the bacteria?
A. Amoxacillin B. Claritromycin C. Metronidazole D. Omeprazole
94. Which of the following manifestation describes severe cerebral malaria?
A. Fever B. Chills C. Shiver D. Hypoglycemia
95. Which of the following situation will be contraindicated for digoxin treatment?
A. Heart rate >80 b/m B. Heart rate >90 b/m C. Heart rate <70 b/m D. Heart rate <60
b/m
96. Which of the following emergency situation demand priority intervention?
A. Dehydration B. Malnutrition /Marasmus C. Poisoning D. Burn
97. Which of the following are the leading causes of neonatal mortality in Ethiopia?
A. Pretem, jaundice and malnutrition C. Preterm, infections and asphyxia
B. Diarrhea, malnutrition and asphyxia D. Infections, sepsis and diarrhea
98. Which of the following is true about pathological jaundice?
A. Appear after 24 hours of life C. Serum of bilirubin <12 mg / dl
B. Appear within 24 hours of life D. Serum bilirubin <5 mg / dl/day
99. Which of the following is not the feature of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
A. Bluish discolouration of the mucous C. Flaring of the ala nasi
membrane D. Hyperventilation
B. Chest in drawing
100. What is the recommended time to begin complementary feeding to infants?
A. At 4 to 5 months of age C. When the birth weight has tripled
B. At 6 months of age D. When tooth eruption has started
101. Which of the following is a sign of good attachment?
A. Mouth wide open C. Whole body supported
B. Baby facing towards the mother D. Baby close to the mother
102. A nurse in the well-baby clinic is conducting an assessment on a 6-month-old infant. Which of these
observations would warrant further investigation?
A. Able to sit unsupported C. Rolls from abdomen to back only
B. Crying when the nurse approaches D. Absence of Moro reflex
103. A 2- year old child brought to you with history of labored breathing associated with barking cough and
inspiratory stridor. What will be the most likely problem of the child?
A. Pneumonia B. Croup C. Very severe disease D. Asthma
104. Betty” who is 16 month of age came to your clinic with vomiting everything, unable to drink and suck
breast, and has history of convulsion. During P/E you have found that she has severe chest-indrawing,
stridor and breathing rate is 53 breaths per minute. What is the possible classification of Betty?
A. Possible severe bacterial infection D. Severe pneumonia or very severe
B. Pneumonia diseases
C. No pneumonia: cough or cold
105. Which one is the first line drug for an infant presented with pneumonia?
A. Amoxicillin B. Ciprofloxacillin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Ceftriaxone
106. Which of the following fluid is preferred for a child presented with both dehydration and malnutrition
with edema?
A. Ringer lactate B. ORS C. ReSoMal D. Normal saline
107. A 14-month-old male infant is brought to the clinic for evaluation of diarrhea. The child has an area of
hair loss over the occiput. Ribs are prominent and the skin is loose, but muscle tone is increased. The child
weighs 5 kg. What is the BEST course of action?
A. Urgent outpatient referral to an endocrinologist
B. Admission, skeletal survey, and social service evaluation
C. Elimination diet for evaluation of food allergies
D. Stool culture and test for fecal leukocytes
108. Firew, aged 2 years is brought with diarrhea, fever and vomiting. On P/E, he is alert but irritable and
restless with T0=39 oC, eye-balls are not sunken and his skin pinch goes backquickly. Which of the
following statement is correct?
A. Firew has some dehydration C. Firew should be treated according to treatment
B. Firew should be given antibiotics plan “B”
D. Firew has no dehydration
109. A child with diarrhoea is assessed for all of the following except
A. Signs and/or symptoms of dehydration C. Duration of the diarrhoea
B. The presence or absence of blood in the D. Age of child
stool
 110. Sr. Yeshiwork was conducting a survey to assess to nutritional status of under five children in Bahir Dar
district. Based on water low classification, she found that more than 8.0% of children have, Height – for –
age > 95%, Weight – for – height < 70%. What is your interpretation of the finding in the district?
A. Stunted B. Underweight C. Wasted D. Stunted and wasted
111. Which of the following group as being most at risk for developing iron-deficiency anemia?
A. School-aged children B. Breast-fed infants under the age of 6 months
C. Children ages 6 months to 5 years of age D. 3- to 5-year-old children
112. Which of the following type of malnutrition is characterized by flag sign on hair?
A. Kwashiorkor B. Pellagra C. Marasmus D. Folate deficiency
113. Which of the following are the recommended immunizations for an infant coming in the second visit?
A. Polio 2, penata 2, PCV2, Rota 2 B. Polio 2, penata 2, PCV2, Rota 1
C. BCG, Polio 2, penata 2, PCV2 D. Polio 2, penata 2, PCV2, Rota 1
114. What would be the most likely diagnosis of a child presented fever, macculopapular rash and
conjunctivitis?
A. Rubella B. Measles C. Scabies D. Chiken pox
115. Which of the following is not true about acute rheumatic fever in children?
A. It is common cause of acquired heart disease in children.
B. Acute rheumatic fever is preventable
C. Proper treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis can eliminate its risk
D. Peak age for acute rheumatic fever is up to 3 years.
116. Which of the following classification is appropriate for an infant born to HIV positive woman?
A. Confirmed HIV infection B. HIV exposed infant C. HIV infection unlikely D. No HIV infection
117. According to WHO clinical staging HIV/ADS for infant and children, a child with esophageal candidiasis
(or candida of the trachea) and recurrent severe bacterial infections could be classified as
A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III D. Stage IV
118. Which the following is the most common malignancy in children?
A. Wilm's tumor B. CNS tumor C. Acute leukemia D. Neuroblastoma
119. Which of the following is not feature of Down syndrome?
A. Single simian crease B. Epicanthal fold C. General hypertonia D. Flat facial profile
120. Which of the following neuro-developmental problem causes impairment in socialization,
communication and behavioral domains of children?
A. Autistic spectrum disorder B. Down syndrome C. Mental retardation D. Cerebral palsy
121. What is the best indication to the nurse that antibiotic treatment for a urinary tract infection in a 6-year-
old girl is effective?
A. Symptoms have subsided within 24 hours.
B. The entire amount of prescribed antibiotic has been taken as ordered.
C. Follow-up urine culture within 72 hours is negative.
D. Mother states the child is voiding normally.
122. Which of the following diseases is most often associated with polyuria and polydipsia in a child?
A. Diabetes insipidus B. Nephritic syndrome C. Addison's disease D. Type I diabetes
mellitus
123. Which of the following is a predisposing factor for urinary tract infection in children?
A. Male sex B. Front to back anal cleaning C. Use of diaper D. Urinary tract
catheterization
124. Which of the following is the most common etiologic agent of urinary tract infection in children?
A. Escherichia-Coli B. Streptococcus Species C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Klebsiella
125. A 5 years old child came to your health center with generalized edema. Laboratory investigation of urine
showed gross proteinuria and blood test showed hypoprotieinemia and hypercholesterolemia. What
would be the possible diagnosis of this child?
A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Kwashiorkor C. Heart failure D. Acute glomerulonephritis
126. Which of the following are the most common causes of acute otitis media in children?
A. Strep. Pneumonia and H-influenza C. Strep. Pneumonia and staph.aureus
B. H-influenza and staph. aureus D. H-influenza and pseudomonas argunosa
127. Which of the following condition is the most common route of transmission of neonatal tetanus?
A. Injection sites B. Umbilical stamp C. Aseptic procedure D. Circumcision
128. When do you think a health care issue becomes an ethical dilemma?
A. A clients legal rights coexist with a health professionals obligation
B. Decisions must be made quickly, often under stressful conditions
C. Decisions must be made based on value systems
D. The choices involved do not appear to be clearly right or wrong
 129. Which of the following professional nursing value enhance nurses' cultural-competency skills to apply
sensitivity towards to others?
A. Autonomy C. Belief in the dignity and worth of each
B. Strong commitment to service person
D. Commitment to education
130. The nurse questions a physician order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis.
Which role of the nurse is described by this statement?
A. Change agent B. Client advocate C. Case manager D. Collaborator
131. Which of the following term is used to describe the ability of an agent to produce clinically apparent
infection?
A. Infectivity B. Virulence C. Pathogenicity D. Infection rate
132. Direct transmission includes which of the following modes of transmission?
A. Air born B. Trans-placental transmission C. Vehicle-borne transmission D. Vector-borne
transmission
133. Which of the following is the objective of PRIMARY PREVENTION?
A. To prevent exposure and prevent disease C. To limit the impact of damage
B. To stop or slow the progression of disease D. For early detection and treatment of disease
134. In one district schizophrenic patients taken to traditional medicine and spiritual places for treatment.
This makes difficult to know the magnitude of schizophrenia in the district. Manager of the district health
bureau wants to know “what is the prevalence of schizophrenia in the district”.Which method of study
design is most appropriate?
A. Cross sectional B. Case control C. Cohort D. Experimental
135. Researcher wants to check efficacy of new drug over the old drug for depression treatment. He recruited
patients and randomly assigned 150 patients to take the new drug and 120 patients on old drug. After
provision of the treatment for 3 months he measured the recovery rate from depression. Which method of
study design the investigator used?
A. Experimental B. Cohort C. Case control D. Cross sectional
136. Which one of the following is not correct about screening program?
A. Specificity is important when one is screening for rare diseases
B. Instituted when the disease has long period between first signs and overt disease
C. Sensitivity and Specificity are two measures of validity
D. Specificity should be increased at the expense of Sensitivity when the disease is serious
137. Which one of the following is not an action verb in writing specific objectives?
A. To determine B. To compare C. To verify D. To understand
138. The General Social Survey asked respondents to assess their own health as excellent, good, fair, or poor.
What is the level of measurement of this variable?
A. Nominal B. Ordinal. C. Interval D. Ratio.
139. Which one of the following is true about mode?
A. Is found only for discrete variables.
B. Is less than the mean?
C. Is the value of the most frequently occurring score?
D. Is less for ordinal than for interval variables?
140. Which of the following is a probability sampling technique?
A. Quota sampling technique C. Snowball sampling technique
B. Convenience sampling technique D. Cluster sampling technique
141. Which one of the following is correct measure of mortality for “the proportion of death from malaria out
of those adults who develop malaria in Bahir Dar town in the year 2008”?
A. Case fatality rate B. Proportionate mortality ratio C. Cause-specific mortality rate D.
Crude death rate
142. You are approached by a person in the street who asks you to participate in a study on life insurance by
answering a number of questions. What is the type of sampling method the person has used?
A. Random sampling B. Convenience sampling C. Stratified random sampling D. Systematic
sampling
143. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of substances that are not easily broken down into
harmless substances?
A. They are environmentally unfriendly C. They are water soluble
B. They travel long distance from their source D. They accumulate in fat
144. Which of the following is stationary type of pollution?
A. Water pollution B. Sound pollution C. Air pollution D. Soil pollution
145. Which one of the following is not used as an indicator of sanitation and hygiene coverage in our country?
 A. Latrine coverage B. Latrine utilization C. Accessibility to water D. Open defecation free
146. Which one of the following gas is greenhouse gas
A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. Nitrogen D. Nitrogen dioxide
147. Which one of the following behavioral change theories and Models assumes that the most important
determinants of people’s behaviours are their perceptions?
A. Health Belief Model C. The Trans‐theoretical Model
B. The Theory of Planned Behavior D. Precede-Proceed model
148. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of good message?
A. Epidemiologically correct B.Affordable C.Requires maximum effort D. Culturally
acceptable
149. What is the importance of the presence of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere?
A. It enhances the greenhouse effect D. It reduces the amount of acid rain and urban
B. It absorbs greenhouse gasses smog
C. It absorbs ultraviolet radiation
150. Which of the following gives more calories per gram than others?
A. Fat B. Carbohydrates C. Protein D. Alcohol
151. Which of the following vitamin is water soluble?
A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin K
152. Which of the following anthropometric index indicates chronic nutritional status?
A. Weight for Height B. Weight for age C. Body mass index D. Height for age
153. Which of the following is chronic complication of vitamin A deficiency?
A. Night blindness B. Xerophtalmia C. Double vision D. Conjunctivitis
154. Which One of the following is not component of Essential nutrition Actions (ENA) in Ethiopia?
A. Promoting optimal breastfeeding. C. Nutritional care of the sick child during and after
B. Promoting optimal complementary feeding at illness.
birth. D. Vitamin A deficiency control
155. What of the following is the smallest unite of proteins?
A. Amino acids B. Fatty acids C. Lipoproteins D. Triglyceride
156. Which One of the following is not direct cause of maternal death?
A. Hemorrhage B. Cardiovascular disease C. Infection D. Preeclampsia
157. Which one of the following is safe motherhood initiative strategy currently?
A. Accesses to risk assessment health facilities.
B. Promote use of traditional birth attendants for low risk women
C. Family planning to avoid unwanted pregnancies and unsafe abortion
D. Early detection of complication by local community health workers.
158. In counseling a woman about the advantages of the Cu T IUCD, What you inform her?
A. It is permanent B. It is highly effective C. It has no side effects D. It Is effective in preventing
anemia
159. Which of the following is not delivery services strategy?
A. All institutional deliveries should be monitored using partograph.
B. All women and birth attendants should be aware of the requirements of instrumental delivery
C. All women and their birth attendants should be aware of the need to refer prolonged labor
D. All health care providers should be trained and practice clean and safe delivery techniques
160. Which of the following is true about reproductive health in Ethiopia?
A. Quality reproductive health services C. Access to a range of health services to
B. High rate of gender based violence adolescents
D. Adequate contraceptive prevalence rates
161. Which component of care is very essential to asphyxiated new born?
A. Prevention and management of ophthalmic C. Early and exclusive breastfeeding
eonatorum D. Prevention and management of hypothermia
B. Resuscitation
162. Which service component is common in both basic and comprehensive essential obstetric care?
A. Parenteral anticonvulsants B. Surgical obstetrics C.Anesthesia D. Blood
transfusion
163. Which of the following leadership style is more concerned on team building and full participation?
A. Laissez-faire B. Autocrats C. Democrats D. Consultative
164. Which one of the following is not rational of motivation at work place?
A. Reduce absenteeism and tardiness C. Building of good relationship
B. Increase labor turn over D. Increase efficiency
165. Among the following which one is not characteristic of social insurance?
 A. Social insurance is not a right of all citizens but only those who have paid the contribution.
B. People perceive that they paid a premium contribution in exchange to specified benefits.
C. Contributions paid for social insurance programs are shared equally in the community.
D. Contribution rates and benefits cannot be unilaterally changed by executive government decision
166. Which one of the following is the process of attracting and selecting qualified job candidates to fill vacant
positions?
A. Profiling B. Recruitment C. Estimating D. Forecasting
167. Which communication channel is best to immediately announce disease outbreak?
A. Scientific journal B. Newspaper C. News media D. Lay health workers
168. Which of the following is not principle of health ethics?
A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Maleficence D. Justice
169. Which of the following is a relatively high risk factor for mother to child transmission of HIV infection?
A. Second infant in multiple birth C. Elective caesarean section delivery
B. Vaginal delivery D. Early infant cleaning and eye care
170. Which of the following is continuous function of management?
A. Planning B. Implementation C. Decision making D. Evaluation
171. Which of the following is the leading cause of maternal mortality in Ethiopia?
A. Preeclampsia/eclampsia B. Hemorrhage C. Obstructed labor D. Sepsis
172. Which of the following figure indicates the current maternal mortality ratio (MMR) in Ethiopia?
A. 420/100,000 live births B. 676/100,000 live births C. 353/100,000 live births D. 397/100,000
live births
173. A-30-year old pregnant woman came to your health facility for routine antenatal care (ANC). On history,
she had two abortions, two stillbirths, one neonatal death and three alive children. Based on the
information given, what will be her Gravida (G) and Para (P) respectively?
A. G-VIII and P-IV B. G-VIII and P-VI C. G-IX and P-III D. G-IX and P-VI
174. Which of the following is a classic signs of preeclampsia?
A. Hypertension B. Proteinuria C. Edema D. Convulsion
175. A-20-year-old Primigravida woman presented with a chief complaint of pushing down pain and rupture
of membranes (amniotic fluid). On physical examination, you found that she has strong urge to push, fully
dilated cervix and palpable presenting part. Based on your finding, which of the following signs observed
signals that she is on second stage of labor?
A. Strong urge to push B. Dilated cervix C. Palpable presenting part D. Rupture of
membranes
176. Which of the following is the first line emergency treatment of eclampsia?
A. Anticonvulsants B. Antihypertensive C.Maintaining ABC of life D. Termination of
pregnancy
177. A woman diagnosed to have severe preeclampsia has been on magnesium sulfate maintenance therapy.
As a nurse, which of the following drug toxicity warrants you to stop the drug in this patient?
A. Respiratory rate <16 breaths/minute
B. Urine output 30-50ml/minute
C. Minimal deep tendon reflex
D. Decreased level of consciousness
178. Based on the focused antenatal care (FANC) model, a woman is advised to have four visits; the
first visit to be conducted at about 16th weeks of gestation. Which of the following assessment does
not necessarily be done during the first ANC visit?
A. HIV testing B. Diagnosis of preeclampsia C. Syphilis screening D. Detection of
anemia
179. Delay in receiving appropriate care at the health facility is one of the three delays in care seeking
that affect the survival of both mothers and newborns. Which of the following finding/s
characterize presence if such delays?
A. Shortage of competent providers
B. Shortage of money to reach to the health facility
C. Lack of transportation
D. Lack of power to make decision and seek health care
180. A-31-weeks pregnant woman presented with abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding of 6
hours duration. The detailed history revealed that the bleeding begins after a fall down accident. On
P/E, you identified that the abdomen is tender and no fetal heart beat is detected. What would be
the most likely diagnosis of this woman?
A. Vasa prevea
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Placenta prevea
D. Mole pregnancy
181. Which of the following is a requirement for assisted instrumental delivery?
A. Cephalic presentation
B. Fully dilated cervix
C. Strong maternal effort
D. Alive fetus
182. Which of the following parameter identified on the partograph suggests satisfactory progress of
first stage of labor?
A. Regular and progressive uterine contraction
B. Steady decent of the fetus through the birth canal
C. Pattern of cervical dilatation goes to the right of the alert line
D. Fetal heart beat (FHB) <100 or >180 beat/minute
183. Which of the following is the most common cause of uterine rupture?
A. Obstructed labor
B. Previous CS scar
C. Twin pregnancy
D. Excessive use of oxytocin
184. Which of the following woman is more likely to develop atonic postpartum hemorrhage?
A. A woman who had breech delivery
B. A woman who had prolonged labor
C. A woman who had instrumental delivery
D. A woman who had cesarean section
185. Which of the following is not component of active management of third stage of labor?
A. Manual removal of placenta
B. Uterine massage
C. Administering uterotonic drugs
D. Giving appropriate IM/IV antibiotics
186. A pregnant woman at term presented with leakage of amniotic fluid, but she has no signs of labor.
On P/E, the nurse found that membranes are ruptured and feels a pulsating umbilical cord at the
pelvic floor. What is the diagnosis and immediate management of this client at health center level,
respectively?
 A. Cord presentation, immediate referral to hospital
B. Cord presentation, reassurance of the woman to stay calm
C. Cord prolapse, immediate referral to hospital
D. Cord prolapse, induce labor to save the life of the fetus
187. Which of the following drug is the first line treatment of choice for a woman with severe malaria
in Ethiopia?
A. Coartum
B. IV Quinine
C. Arthemeter
D. Artesunate
188. Which of the following newborn requires a special care with steroid supplement?
A. A fetus born at 32 weeks of gestation
B. A fetus born to a woman with diabetes mellitus
C. A fetus born with congenital abnormality
D. A fetus born to a woman with HIV
189. An 18 year old university student presented with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. On
history, she said that she has been sexually active and amenorhic over the last three months. On
vaginal examination, the cervix is open and has vaginal bleeding, but there is no expulsion of any
product of conception. Based on the given information, what would be the most likely diagnosis and
management of this patient, respectively?
A. Incomplete abortion, evacuation of the conceptus tissue
B. Inevitable abortion, evacuation of the conceptus tissue
C. Missed abortion, let the pregnancy ends by itself
D. Threatened abortion, let the pregnancy continues as the fetus is viable
190. Which of the following is necessarily a true sign of labor?
A. Engagement of the presenting part into the pelvic brim
B. Rupture of amniotic fluid membranes
C. Regular uterine contraction with progressive cervical dilation
D. Pushing down pain and back ache
191. Tocolysis is one of the management of pregnant woman. Which of the following woman requires
this treatment?
A. A woman with preterm labor
B. A woman with twin pregnancy
C. A woman with previous CS scar
D. A woman with preeclampsia
192. Ethiopia does not achieve the millennium development goal set to reduce neonatal mortality.
Which one of the following is the leading cause of neonatal mortality in the country?
A. Prematurity
B. Birth asphyxia
C. Neonatal sepsis
D. Congenital abnormality
193. Which of the following is normal finding in a woman on second stage of labor?
A. FHB < 100 or > 180 beat/minute
B. Vaginal bleeding
C. Shoulder dystocia
D. Spontaneous rotation of fetal head
194. Which of the following immediate newborn care needs to be done right after birth?
A. Dry baby’s body with dry towel
B. Wipe eyes
C. Assess breathing and color
 D. Tie and cut the cord
195. Which of the following vaccine prevents diarrhea among under-5 children?
A. Rota
B. PCV
C. Hib
D. HBV
196. Which one of the following is not key component of health sector transformation plan?
A. Availing caring, compassionate and respectful health professional
B. Quality and equity of health care
C. Ensuring access to health service
D. Woreda transformation
197. Which of the following modern contraceptive is not preferred to a breastfeeding woman?
A. DMPA (depo)
B. Implants
C. IUCD
D. COC
198. Which of the following woman has a lessor chance of cervical cancer?
A. A woman living with HIV
B. A woman having multiple sexual partners
C. A woman having a history of STI
D. A woman living in monogamous relation
199. The last normal menstrual period of a pregnant was on 22/07/2008. What will be her expected
date of delivery according to the Ethiopian calendar?
A. December 27, 2009
B. January 02, 20009
C. December 2, 2009
D. October 28, 2009
200. Which of the following is inappropriate while managing a newborn with birth asphyxia?
A. Position the newborn supine with neck slightly extended
B. Clear the mouth and nose with gauze or bulb syringe
C. Ventilate with appropriate size mask and self-inflating bag
D. Stop resuscitation after 10 minutes if there is no response
level 4 coc exam
1. How do you react when others become emotional around you?
A. Try to make them laugh.
B. Listen and try to comfort them.
C. Notice but prefer to keep out of it.
D. Tell them what you think is best for them
2. Which one is correctly ordered (secuenced) about abdominal physical examination?
A. Inspection----palpation----percession-----Auscultation
B. Inspection----percession---palpation-----Auscultation
C. Inspection----- Auscultation---- palpation--- percession
D. Auscultation---- Inspection---- palpation---- percession
3. When RH incmpalibility does occur?
A. A positive mother carry a positive child
B. A negetive mother carry a positive child
C. A positive mother carry a negative child
D. A negative mother carry a negative child
4. One supplies instruments to sterile team during surgical procedure?
 A. Scrub nurse
B. Circulating nurse
C. Surgeon
D. All team members
5. A example of a complete actual nursing diagnosis is
A. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction
B. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunctione exhibited by patient complant
C. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction related to decreased sensation evidenced by the
statement that my feel are lingling
D. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunctione exhibited by patient statement
6. Which one of the following characterstics used to measure service quality of health service delivery?
E. Presence of some infection __________________ ward
F. Less compliance with medication order
G. Increase costomer satisfaction per department service
H. Presence of drugs and supplies wasted
7. One of the following deases has direct transmission
A. Malaria
B. Tuberculosis
C. Yellow feber
D. ___________
8. One of the following is healthy human behavior that prevents cominicable diseases and promote
health
E. Unprotected sex
F. Alcohol and other substance
G. Healthy seeking behavior
H. Open field defection
9. Among the following choices that correctly consists non cominicable diseses
E. Cholera ,asthma ,leprosy ,Hypertension
F. Mental illiness ,hypertension, canser , diabetes,mellitus
G. Pneumonia,tuberculosis , epilepsy, dementia
H. Psychosis, tuberculosis , cronic obstractive
10. The drop rate of 1000ml of N/S to be administered for 8hrs
A. 42 drops
B. 38 drops
C. 28 drops
D. 20 drops
5. W/ro melkam come to helath center on the 3rd day after delivery with chif complain of fever ,sweating
and unpleasant vaginal discharge odor and pain sensation at the umbilicus besed on these complents
the probable diagnosis of the mother is
A. puerperal sepsis
B. sexually transmited infection
C. postpartum hemorrhage
D. urinary tract infection
6. Vitamin A is given for children from the age of 6 months-
A. every 6 weeks
B. every two weeks
C. every two months
D. every 6 months
7. The body mass index of the patient whose weight and height is 65 kg and 160cm respectively
E. 25.39
 F. 43.39
G. 29.39
H. 31.39
8. One of the following method is used for learn building in an organization
A. Letting workers perform without supervision
B. Evaluating their work activities at the end of work plan
C. Discourage informal learning
D. Applying safety policies,procedures and programs
9. One of the following is more used in solving business problems
E. Motivate and capacitate the human resource
F. Encourage the workers to solve any problems independently
G. Take disciplinary actions when any error occur
H. Act according to the usual work culture
10. Which one of the following is tertiary prevention
E. Early identification of the problem
F. Helthe promotion
G. Rehabilitation
H. Treat a disease
11. One of the following is non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension
A. Weight reduction
B. Exercise
C. Age
D. Cigarate smoking
12. Which of the following is the best time for a baby to start complimantary feeding
E. Sixth month
F. Three month
G. Four month
H. Five month
13. Which of the following is most preferable rout of drug administration for children
A. Intera venous
B. Intera muscular
C. Oral
D. Subcutaneous
14. Which one is the most common type of shock
A. Hypovolmic shock
B. Septic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Obstructive shock
15. How do you react when others become emotional around you
A. Try to make them laugh
B. Listen and try to comfort them
C. Notice ,but prefer to keep out of it
D. Tell them what you think is best for them
16. Which of the following is a feedback mechanism of revewing and evaluating work plans and activites
A. Survey
B. Occupational standard
C. Internal quality assurance
D. Work place assessment guidelines
17. Which of the following is false statement concerning evaluation of new or upgraded technology
performance
 E. Situations are identified where existing knowledge can be used
F. New or upgraded equipement are evaluated for performance
G. Feedback is sought from users where appropriate
H. Environmental considerations by detrmind for new or upgraded equpement
18. Which of the following is intermittent checking of project or work environment
A. Controlling
B. Information
C. Supervision
D. Communication
19. One of the following is effective group interaction
A. Fighting
B. Active listening
C. Bad time management
D. Absenteeism
20. Which of the following part of myometnum is responsible to control bleeding in stage of labour
E. Outer longitudinal fiber
F. Middle oblique fiber
G. Inner circular fiber
H. Up and down fiber
21. A transplacental transmission of syphilis is through HLTHES4 02 01 18
A. Direct horizontal
B. Vehicle born
C. Indirect transmission
D. Direct vertical
22. The most common cause of resparatory________________________________________________________________
A. Miconium aspiration syndrome
B. Congenital pneumonia
C. Neonatal sepsis
D. Hyaline membrane disease
23. The rate and ammout of drug that is absorbed from a given dosage form and reaches the systemic
circulation following non-vascular administrations said to be HLT NUR4 05 1218
A. Distribution
B. Elimination
C. Bioavalebility
D. Absorption
24. Blunt percussion is used HLTNUR4 04 1218
E. To elicit flank pain
F. To assess infant thorax
G. To assess adult thorax
H. To assess adult sinus
Part I choose the correct answer and put on the answer sheet only
_______1. Which one of the most important role of quality control tools?
A. Cost reduction B. Problem solving C. Productivity D. Data improvement
______2. Which one of the following indicates an abnormal pain ful menestration
A. Menorrhagia B. Metrorrhagia C. Amenorrhea D. Dysmenorrhea
_______3. Ato Abebe is 15yrs old farmer develop heary bleeding on injury by sharp object on the lower right leg
come to you for first is your first step of action to stop bleeding?
A. Apply direct pressure B. Apply indirect pressure C, Apply tourniguet D.Apply dressing
________4. Which of the following factor is not affecting normal integum entary
A. Nutration B. Rest and passive excerise C. Life style and habit D. Circulation
 _______5. Mohammed is a 2 yeares old child admitted pediatrics wards with persistent diarrhea & has high grode
fever. If you are assigned taking vital sign which site is most accurate route to take tempenature.
A.Rectal B. Axillary C. Oral D. Tympanic
_______6. Ato kebede 48 yeares old man who have 6 children come to family planning he told you as he dose not
want to have any more children and nurse counseling to prefer suitable method of f/p which nethod will
you him
A. Vasectomy B. Abstinence C. With drawal D. condom
______7. Which on of tetanus to xoid vaccine protects apers for 5 yrs duration to administration properly
A. TT2 B.TT3 C.TT4 D. TT5
______8. From the list which one is a person overall sense of self worth values?
A. Self-actualization B. Self-concept C. Self-esteem D. Self-confident
______9. Ato Abebe 48 yrs old terminally patient admitted to medical physical told his situation but kebede dose not
accept the stage of dyling expressed by ato abebe?
A. Denial B. Depression C. Anger D. Bargaining
______10. In which steps of nursing process possible patient problem detected
A. Nursing Assessment B. Nursing diagnosis C. planning D. Evaluation
______11. Henok is 4 years old child who come to hospital with a diaginoisis pneumonia the doctor order
Amoxicillin three time per day the preparation is 500 mg adult dose based on the above case what will
proper dose of amoxicillin for Henok?
A. 147mg B. 1470mg C. 14.7mg D. 125mg
_____12. You are working as a member of operation room team you are expect form instrumental processing after
surgery what are correct steps to instrument?
A. Decontaminating-cleaning-drying-packing and sterilization
B. Cleaning-decontamination –drying –packing and sterilization
C. Decontaminating –dry cleaning sterilization and packing
D. Decontaminating –pacing and sterilization –draying cleaning
_____13. Who Helen 32 years old gravid three para two mother come to ANC complaint of head ache.swelling on her leg
and had vision problem eye and under the right breast on physical examination her blood pressure
110/90mmhg pulse is 100 beat/min edema on both legs and hands fundal hight estimation indicate 27
wk based on the above case what is the problem?
A. Pre-eclampsin B. Eclampsion C. Severpre-eclampsia D. Gestational Hypertension

______1. Which one is shocking is affect or damage organs which type shock /stage of shock ?
A. Compensatory stage B. Progressive stage C. Refractory stage D. moderate stage
_____2. Which one of the following indication rectal medication except
A. Oral surgery B. diarrhea & effect
C. For vomiting & unconscious p,t D. Vomiting not effect
_____3. W/r hana she come in hospital she has pregnancy HCG is positive which type of positive sing of pregnancy
A. Morning sickness B. Abdominal enlargement C. FHB &HCG D. Nausea vomiting &fetal movement
_____4. 5 years old child become in hospital or order Amoxicillin 500mg adult dose How many dose for child age
based on adult dose calculate child dose
A. 147mg B.125 mg C. 14.7mg D. 2.80mg
_____5. 0.5 chlorine solution for use instrumental process for sterilization in chlorine is 25%contain calculate
solution liquid form prepared How its used
A. 20% B.50% C.200% D. 500%
_____7. Which of the following indicate abnormal heavy blood menustration follow
A. Amenorrhea B.Metrorrhagia C. Poly menorrhea D. Menorrhagia
______8. Which one is the most important rule quality control
A. Cost reduction B. Problem solving C. Data improvement C. Production
 _______9. W/r Helen 32 yrs old come in ANC ward complain Amenorrhea post month she is pregnancy she in her
LMP is 28/03/06 calculate Edd & genstational age
A.03/11/2007 E.C b.03/07/2007e.c C.01/01/2007 E.C d. 01/11/2007
______10. Seriously memory loss the p,t personal is not understanding and affected of the brain &not eggegiment
for education
A. Damentia B. Amnesia C. depression D. Sychological loss
_____11. Which of the business team of worked together which that rest business record
A. Bussiness sheet B.Sale sheet C. Planing sheet D. Officer sheet
_____12. W/c of the indicate/purpose of business team/participated group business cooperative department
business is which one of provide benefit
A. Improve community team B.Self team provide C. Effect group team D. member team
_____13.which of the indicate business team of the problem solving identification
A. Member team B. Manager of team C. self team D. Group team
____14. Which one of indicate needed emergency care
A. Cardial falture B.Hypovlomic shock C. Septic shock D. Travma p,t
____15. Which can correct stage of control life/emergency case management of period
A. Air way,breating &airway B.Managwoun breathing ,clear air way
C. Determine bleeding &air way D. Provide breathing &airway
______16. 5yrs old child become in emergency room effect with burn anterior leg.he has pain full blister
red How many degree and %of calculate TBSA this child the needed fluid take
A. 14% TBSA and 2nd degree B. 28%TBSA and 3rd degree
C.9%TBSA and paratial thickness D.36% TBSA and 1st deegre
_______17. 5yrs old chold is he has fracture become hospital which type of fracture
A. Green stick B. Impacted fracture C. Compete fracture D. Communited fracture
1. Ongoing collection, interpretation and utilization of health data for decision is:
E. Surveillance B. Survey C. Vital statistics D. Census
2. On hospital practice student nurse observe a patient at surgical ward, suffering from pain and
request the nurse to intervene. The action of the student nurse is:
E. Sympathy B. Compassion C. Empathy D. accountability
3. A child with measles presented to hospital X which precaution method is implemented to
prevent the infection from spreading
I. Placing the child in private room C. Keeping the child in emergency room
J. Wearing an N-95 face mask D. Giving measles immunization
4. In a patient suffering from car accident and bleeds profusely, the priority intervention is
A. Clearing air way C. Measuring vital sing
B. Controlling bleeding D. Securing IV
5. The nurse is working in the emergency room when client arrives with sever burn of the
left ,hands, faces, and neck. Which action is the highest priority?
A. Starting IV C. Obtaining blood sample
B. Applying oxygen D. Giving anti pain
6. A liaison officer informs the nursing assistance at medical ward that pt with breathing
difficulty will be admitted to the ward. The appropriate bed for the pt is:
A. Open bed B. Closed bed C. Cardiac bed D. Medical bed
7. Sterilized surgical instrument should be stored in:
E. Open dry space C. Dry and Ventilated space
F. Closed and dry space D. Closed and ventilated space
8. A nursing assistance asses that pulse rate of a 2 year old hospitalized girl is 120b/m.
What Should be the nursing assistance priority.
 I. Notify the comprehensive nurse
J. Applying oxygen by face mask
K. Document the girl’s pulse
L. Reassess the girl’s vital sign
9. The aim of palliative care is ----.
E. Improving the quality of life C. Preventing progress of disease
F. Improving the rate of cure D. Preventing death
10.All are necessary to transport critical patient from health center to hospital except?
a. Communicating the hospital liaison office C. Arranging ambulance
b. Send the patient with accompanying family D. Having a referral paper
11. Which of the following is the meaning of PRN?
E. When advised B. Immediately C. When necessary D. Now
12.The nurse assistance is caring for an adult who has herpes zoster. What medication is most
likely to be administered to this client?
A. Penicillin B. Clotrimazole C. Tetracycline D. Acyclovir
13. Ferrous sulfate has been prescribed for a woman who is pregnant. The nurse should advise
her to take the medication at which time?
E. Upon arising B. With meals C. Immediately following meals D. At bedtime
14. A type of shock due to multiplication of bacteria in the blood
A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiac C. Neurogenic D. Septic
15. Among the following one is about vital events registration of local community
a. Surveillance data register C. Diseases register
b. Birth data register D. Demographic register
16. Which type of open wound occurs when body tissue is cut on rough materials?
A. Abrased wound B. Incised wound C. Lacerated wound D. Avulsion wound
17. A contraception that should be avoided during breast feeding.
E. Intra uterine device C. Progesterone only pill
F. Combined oral contraceptive pill D. Implanon
18. The nursing assistance overhears the health care giver speaks harshly to the patient with
dementia. The nursing assistance should.
i. Change the health care giver
ii. Assess the interaction with the health care giver
iii. Discuss the matter with the patient family
iv. Initiate a group session with the health care giver
19. In to which container should a nurse assistance dispose a drainage bag with gastric fluid?
I. Injuries waste baskets C. Infectious waste baskets
J. Hazardous waste baskets D. waste basket in patient’s corridor
20. A type of communication between nurse and patient is -----.
i. Intra personal communication C. Mass communication
ii. Inter personal communication D. Verbal communication
21. An intervention that delegated to a second year nursing student is -----.
A. Bed making C. IM medication administration
B. IV fluid administration D. Oxygen administration
22. Physician orders to administer amoxicillin PO for 3 years old child but you have 500mg on
your hand. How much mg (dose) should you administer for the child?
A. 125 mg B. 100 mg C. 250 mg D. 10 mg
23. Inhalation of small piece of food or foreign body in to the wind pipe when eating is:
A. drowning
B. shocking
C. aspiration
D. choking
24. Which of the following is true about surface temperature?
A. is the temperature that we measure with thermometer
B. is the temperature of deep tissues of bodies like thoracic cavity
C. is the temperature of the skin, subcutaneous tissues and fat
D. it remains relatively constant
25. Inhalation and exhalation of large volume of air is termed as:
A. tachypnea B. shallow breathing C. bradypnea D. deep breathing
26. One of the following is the transfer of a drug from its site of administration to the blood
stream.
A. distribution B. absorption C. metabolism D. elimination
27. One of the following is false about guidelines for responding to the casualty’s condition
A. determine airway and breathing if the casualty is unconscious
B. approach the casualty even if it is unsafe to do so
C. don’t move the casualty if he/she is unconscious but can’t move
D. seek help as much as possible
28. The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The medication should be placed:
A. on the client’s skin C. between the client’s cheek and gum
B. under the client’s tongue D. on the client’s conjunctiva
29. One of the following medications is used to diagnose disease
A. barium sulphate B. Amoxicillin C. Pethedine D. Insulin
30. Which type of fracture is common in young children?
A. compressed B. spiral C. green stick D. Avulsion
31. The most common site to take pulse in adults:
A. radial B. Brachial C. carotid D. apical
32. One of the following is among secondary skin lesion
A. macule B. papule C. nodule D. crust
33. The difference between apical and radial pulse
A. pulse pressure B. pulse volume C. pulse rate D. pulse deficit
34. The widest part of fallopian tube where fertilization usually occurs:
A. ampulla B. infundibulum C. Isthmus D. fimbriae

35. One of the following characteristics belongs to focused antenatal care(FANC)

A. few but comprehensive C. risk classification of pregnancy
B. emphasis on number of visit D. minimal communication
36. A type of shock due to allergic reaction is said to be:
A. anaphylactic B. Septic C. hypovolemic D. neurogenic
37. Among the following one is about vital events registration of local community
E. A .Surveillance data register C. Diseases register
F. Birth data register D. Demographic register
1. Which one of the following is an immediately reportable disease?
A .Cholera B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pneumonia D. Hypertension
 39. When administering aural(ear) medication to an adult patient
A .Pulling upward and backward C. Pulling downward and forward
B .Pulling downward and backward D. Pulling upward and forward
40. Which of the following medication administration routes is the best for long term drug
users:-
A .Rectal B. Intramuscular C. Subcutaneous D. Oral
i. Cleaning of auxiliary thermometer after removal from the patient is
A .From bulb to stem C. Soaking in water
E. From stem to bulb D. Rinsing in soap solution
ii. Which is a continuous, systematic and critical review of project progress?
A .Monitoring B. Super vision C. Evaluation D. Implementation
iii. One of the following is true about team
A.Self interest B. Act independently B. Work together D.Blame others
iv. Smooth, comfortable and clean bed which prepared for newly admitted patient
A. Closed bed B. Open bed C. Occupied bed D. Anesthetic bed
v. Which one of the following is common fungal infection?
E. Herpes zoste B. Trachoma C. Conjunctivitis D. Tinea pedis
vi. The medication order is 2g po and the available dosage is 500mg per tab. How many tablets
should be administered?
E. 2tabs B. 3tabs C. 4tabs D. 5tabs
vii. One of the following is the function of computer technology
E. Used to insert any devices during the procedure
F. Used to enter patient information/data
G. Used to minimize health information management system
H. Serves as a substitute of health personnel
viii. The first action for a patient with profuse bleeding on the lower right arm
25. Apply a point pressure C. Immobilize the injured area
26. Elevate the injured area D. Apply direct pressure at the bleeding site
ix. One of the following is ensuring secret patient information
I. Politeness B. Confidentiality C. Dignity D. Honesty
x. Which one of the following are characteristics of effective team?
I. Interaction B. Privacy C. Confidentiality D. Compassionate
xi. One is safety devices among the following
11. Bed B. Linen C. Cotton ring D. Stretcher
xii. In the method of infection prevention, separation of highly infectious waste from
noninfectious waste is called
I. Setting in order B. Shining C. Standardization D. Sorting
xiii. Maintaining effective inventory requires
E. Verbal communication C. Manual documentation
F. Adoption of technology literacy D. Effective staff reaction
xiv. Among the following one is performed independently by the nurse
E. Vein cut down B. Thoracentesis C. Enema D. Tracheotomy
xv. Among the following one has double advantages
I. Oral contraceptive C. Condom
J. Inject able contraceptives D. Natural family planning methods
xvi. Among the following business activities, one limits organizational growth
 E. Lack of market principles C. Effective communication skill
F. Effective bench marking skill D. Conducting market research
xvii. One of the following best sequence of vital sign measurements
E. Rectal more accurate than oral than auxiliary
F. Oral more accurate than auxiliary than rectally
G. Auxiliary more accurate than rectal than oral
H. Rectal more accurate than auxiliary than oral
xviii. Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition for 2nd stage of labour?
A, onset of true labour to full dilatation of cervix
B, full dilatation of cervix to delivery of fetus (baby)
C, delivery of fetus (baby) to delivery of placenta
D, the 1st one hr after delivery of the baby
59. Contraindication for po(per mouth) medication
A. conscious patient B. Pneumonia Patient C. HIV patient D. continues vomiting
60. Which of the following is among sign of inflammation for septic wound?
A, pus drainage B. Erythematic C. localized heatness D. all of the above
Comprehensive nursing L IV
12. The clinical act of identifying problem is
G. Planning
H. Diagnosis
I. Implementation
J. Assessment
13. The immediate care of the post operative patient is
B. Take vital sign every hour
C. Maintain patent air way
D. Monitor the urine out put
E. Turn patient to side every 4 hours
14. Classical sign & symptoms of D.M are all Except
A. Polyphagia
B. Poly urea
C. Poly depsia
D. none

4 .which one the following is the responsibly of secondary level

a/provision of of specialized medical service
b/ monitoring of static or chronic condition
c/ prevention of disease
d/ promotion and maintains of health
5………..Anti malarial drugs used to safe for pregnant mother
A/Arthusunate c/couartem
b/ chloroquine d/none
6……………..the communication strategy that target policy decision maker
to get their commitment for public
a/ staff mobilization c/ advocacy
b/ program communication d/ social;
7……….which one of the following Statement s the best description of disease
a/ is process of experience of symptoms of physical illness
b/ high personal state in which the person feel unhealthy
c/ is state of social dysfunction
d/ is state disharmonious interaction b/n mind body ,sprit
8…. Which one of the following is most preventable route drug administration for children?
a/ intravenous d/ oral
b/ intramuscular c/subcutaneous
9…………management function focus of division ,coordination and control task
A/planning c/ controlling
b/ directing d/ organizing
10……………………one of the following is effective communication group interaction
A/active listening
B/bad time management
C/ abstenism d/ fighting
11……………which one the following focus on problem solving
a/ nursing process d/Controlling
B/assessment c/ diagnosis
12………………which one the following focus on problem
a/ planning b/ assessment
C/diagnosis d/ implementation
13……The occurrence of disease in given population
a/ Endemic b/ pandemic
c/ epidemic d/ sporadic
14…………….Blunt percussion used
a/ for infant thorax c/ for face flank pain
b/for adult thorax d/ child sinus

15………as leader which one you should practice to increase the willingness of subordinate to pull
their effort into achieving
a/ motivation b/discipline c/ promotion d/ controlling
16…………………………which one water soluble vitamin
a/ vit E c/ vit d
B/ Vit c d/ vit b
17……………vitamin A is given for children from the age of 6 month
a/ every 8 weeks c/ every 6 month
b/ every 2 month d/ every 6 weeks
18……………….which one the following the most common type of shock
a/ cardiogenic b/ hypovolumic
c/ septic d/ obstructive
19…………..the nurse ask the client to read the snellen chart which of the following was tested
A/ occulomotor B/optic
C/ olfactory d/ tracheolar
20…….it is client has weight 65 kg and height 160cm calculate BMI
A/31.39 C/35
B/25.31 D/45
21………..Which one the following high communicable disease
A/ meseals B/tetanus
C/whopping cough
23… which of the person the see the sight
a/inspection b/palpation
c/auscultation d/none
24…………one the following is healthy human behavior that prevent communicable disease and health
promotion
A/ healthy seeking behavior
B/unprotected sex’
C/alcohol and other substance use
D/ open field defecation
25…….the ability of the body to defend t self against scientific invading agent such as bacteria
Toxin viruses and fungus
a/ gland C/hormone
d/ secretion b/immunity
26…………….. The nurse is caring for client with peripheral vascular disease to correctly assesses the
oxygen saturation
A/ chin C/ankle
D/ ear lobe B/hip
27……. Which one the following is tertiary prevention
a/ health promotion c/ early identification of the provablem
b. / treatment of disease d/rehabilitation
28…………nursing process which is identify actual problem for patient
a/ Diagnoses B/ Asessement c/ implement d/ planning
29…….. The correct sequence of abdominal examination
a/Inspection …..Auscultation …. Percussion ………..palpation
30……….. 3 year child order 500mg adult dose calculate the dose administer child
A/ 100mg c/ 250mg
D/150mg b/125mg
31 ………penile dysfunction
a/Stenosis
32………….musical sound or drum sound produced by stomach during percussion
a/ Tympanic
33………..which one the following true about team
a/ self interest b/ work together
c/ blame other d/ act independent
34…………..drug administer opposing of the drug at the same physiological state
a/ synergetic
b/ drug antagonist
35……………. it is drug used relieve anxiety
A/ Anxiolytic
36…………. The physician ordered ringer lactate 1000 ml over 8 hours .calculate IV drop rate (Given 1ml
=15 gtts)
a/ 36 drop/minute b/ 31drop/minute
c/ 63 drop/minute d/48 drop/minute
37….. According to WHO recommendation on the number of focus antenatal care is:
a/3 b/ 5
c/ 4 d/6
38….Which of the following technique involves the sense of sight?
A/ Auscultation D/Palpation
B/ Percussion C/Inspection
40……….The simple & most effective measure for infection prevention
 B. Isolation
C. Sterilization
D. B. Double baggins
E. Hand washing
F. E, all
41........In operation room aperson constantly alert any intra operation
Danger
A/surgeon
B/ scrub nurse
C/ Runner Nurse
D/ Assistant to the suregeon
42......one supply instrument to surgical team during surgical procedure
A/scrub Nurse
B/ circulating Nurse
C/ surgeon
D/All team member
43.......trans placental transmission of syphilis through
A/ vehicle borne
B/ direct vertical
C/ direct horizontal
D/ indirect transmission
44........hypertension patient which one non reliable
A/age b/ sex c/excercise
45 ........mother who has been deliver 3 day back she has come to health center
With complains of , fever , lower abdominal pain , prulent discharege
Offensive oddour
A/ purperal sepsis
b/ post partum hemorrhage
46...... which one of the following is contaginous in EPI
A/ meseales
B/ TB
C/pertuosis
D/ poliomylitis
46.... which one disesease common found in high land of Ethiopia
A/ iodine deficiency or goitor
B/ Anemia
c/
47...
48.....during blood transfussion suudenly occur blood reaction or Allaregic reaction
What is nursing Nutervention
A/ stop blood and inform dictor
B/
49...... aclient has prescribed calcium carbonate
Compound to neutralize stomach Acid what is asses
Nurse
A/hyperphosphetemia
B/ Hypomagnesia
C/diharrea
D/ constipation
50....which one of the following Adminstration Hypotonic
intravenous solution looking at the following labeled solution
A/ 0.9 sodium chloride
B/Ringer Lactate
C/5% dextrose in Normal saline
D/5 % dextrose in water
51..... which one of the follwing is Hansen disease
A/ Leoparsy
b/ Tb
c/
NA V2
1……….One of the following is both preventive method for pregnancy and STI
A/ Depo-Provera
B/ IUCD
C/ Condom
D/Pills
2……..Immersion of the Genital and rectal area in warm water solution is called
A/ Bed bath
B/ Shower
C/Perineal care
D/ Sitz bath
3………Correct step of providing bed bath
A/Head, face, trunk, arm, leg ,perineum
B/Head, face, arm ,trunk, leg ,perineum
C/Head, face, arm, trunk, , perineum ,leg
D/ Head, face, trunk, arm, perineum, leg
4………Which type of communication is needed during patient care?
A/ One way communication
B/ Intra communication
C/ Two way communication
D/ Keep silent
5…….The first emergency measure with flame burn
A/ Stabbing with hand
B/ Removing the clothing
C/ Pouring water on the client
D/Rolling on the grassy ground
6…….Components of the chain of infection includes, except
A/Reservoir and susceptible host
B/ Portal of entry & portal of exit
C/Infective agent
D/Medication
7……….If the nurse draws 2 ml of amoxicillin syrup 250 mg/5 ml in to an oral dosing cup the
dose contain _____mg of Acetaminophen
A/ 50mg
B/240mg
C/ 100mg
D/ 48mg
8………..Correct way of cleaning infected /dirty wound
A/ Clean in crisscross way
B/ Clean from inside to our side
C/ Clean up and down stroke repeatedly
D/ Clean from outside to inside
9………..Aged people care is called
A/ Adolescent care
B/ Pediatric care
C/ Geriatric care
D/ Adult care
10…………One of the following is not a characteristic of ethical nurse
A/ Privacy
B/ Empathy
C/ Confidentiality
D/ Sympathy
11……Termination of pregnancy before 28 weeks is called
A/New born
B/Live birth
C/Still birth
D/ Abortion
12……….Which problem should be managed first
A/Bleeding
B/ Airway obstruction
C/ Vision problem
D/ Fracture
13………..Nursing responsibility during ambulance transportation includes all, except
A/ Leaving alone the client in the ambulance
B/ Use of communications equipment and systems
C/ Patient care and restraint during transportation
D/ Loading and unloading patients on stretcher and car
14…………Purpose of ante natal care includes, except
A/To provide contraception
B/ To identify the fetal condition
C/To prepare the mother for labor
D/ To detect high risk pregnancy
15……..A local application of moist cold liquid to cool the skin
A/ Tepid sponge
B/ Ice cap
C/ Hot water bottle
D/ Cold compress
16…………….One of the following is fungal skin infection
A/Boils
B/ Tinea pedis
C/ Genital herpes
D/ Orolabial herpes
17………..Which of the following is pandemic disease?
A/Tuberculosis
B/ Malaria
C/ Syphilis
D/HIV AIDs
18………..New born care includes the following, except
A/ Initiate formula feeding
B/ Immunization
C/ Eye care
D/ Cord care
19………..Which of the following is not a measure used to prevent pressure sore
A/ Restricting patient mobility
B/ Avoiding wrinkles and changing soiled bed
C/Back care
D/Applying cotton ring or air ring
20…..One of the following is contraindicated for a patient with fractured extremity
A/ Manipulation of the fractured bone
B/ Immobilization
C/ Wound cleaning
D/ Bandaging
21………..Which of the following site is the most accurate for temperature measurement?
A/ Oral
B/ Rectal
C/ Auxiliary
D/TympaniC
J. Which of the ff feasibility of analysis information system collection called
F. Political feasibility c. finical feasibility
G. Operational feasibility d. economical feasibility
K. Which problem actual message transmission information
F. Under communication c. over communication
G. Selecting perception d. full telling
L. Which of the ff disease of gut
F. Stomach disease c. mycobacteriosis
G. Bactericidal d. chagas
M. The nurse patient vital sign weight and height where record
F. Assessment b. diagnosis c. evaluation d. implementation
N. Which site of iron injection your patient
G. Id b. im c. iv d. subcutaneous
O. which of the following is non modified cause hypertension
M. age b. sender c. channel d. receiver
P. which of the ff tropical disease infection
I. gene worm b. cholera c. burliest d. chages
Q. which of the ff correct step functional management
J. organizing , planning ,starting
K. planning , organization , starting
L. starting , planning , organizing
M. organization , starting , planning
R. which of ff during assessment of drug femoral procedure
F. knee and hip dislocation
S. which of the ff malnutrition less than 11.5MUAC is
E) moderated under nutrition c. moderated severe nutrition
F) moderated acute malnutrition d. mild nutrition
T. which types of carriers the are who continue to harbor the agent after recovery from the illness
E. convalescent b. health asymptomatic c. incubatory disease
U. which of the non communicable disease
E. mental illness , cataract , cancer , hypertension
V. which flow the blood pressure is 120/80 ,130/70 , 130/80 is
B. HTN Stage 1 b. HTN Stage 3%2 c. prehypertension d. normal blood pressure
W. Which of the ff is chronic disease
A. mental illness b. cancer . c. heart failure d. none
X. Good management system is
F. Planning b. directing c. controlling d. organizing
Y. Which of the is post anesthesia
K. 15 minute b. 10 minute c. every hours d. 30 minute
Z. Which one the ff not element of communication with in the creation process cycle
F. Sender b. receiver c. channels d. time
AA. Which stage of team development is characterized by conflict and disagreement between member
E. Performing b. norming c. storming d. forming
BB. Which of the ff is verbal communication
I. Simple b. jardens c. acronym d. technical
CC. As the leader which one you should practice to increase the willing new subordinated to pull
their efforts in to achievement goal
E. Promotion b. disciple c. controlling d. motivation
DD. Among the ff roles of manager which one describes thanking contrive action in non –routine
situation
F. Resource allocator b. liaison c. disturbance d. spoke person
EE. Which of the ff odds value to other
9. Risk management process c. control process
10. Governance process d. internal audit activities
FF. Which function of the management process incudes selecting employee setting performance
standard and compensation
A. planning b. organizing c. staffing d. motivation
GG. Which one is prevent micro nutrient deficiency disorder in highland area
B. Iodine deficiency disorder c. zinc deficiency disorder
C. Iron deficiency disorder d. vitamin A. deficiency disorder
HH.Infant develops jaundice after birth of 6 hours which the ff most know diagnosis
E. Umbilical sepsis c. neonatal hepatitis
F. Physiological jaundice d. haemolytic disease new born
II. Which of the ff is characteristics of leader ship
F. Focus of the know b. focus population c. focus the system d. detailing control
JJ. Which of the ff is the external environment unfavorable
J. Weakness b. strength c. threats d. opportunities
KK. Which of the ff is enabling others to face challenge and creates the positive future of the people
that achieve envision is
I. Implementing b. managing c. leading d. organizing
LL. Glunt percussion used
K. For infant throat b. for adult throat c. for face flank pain d. for child sinus
MM. When Rh incompatibility
G. Negative mother carry positive child
H. Positive mother carry postive child
I. Negative mother carry negative child
J. Positive mother carry negative child
NN.Which of the ff communicable disease transmission objective to water
4 Air born b. direct c. vehicle d. vector
OO. Which of the ff the act of taping the patient non dominant hand cares
K. Direct b. indirect percussion c. blunt percussion d. percussion
PP. During blood transfusion reaction nursing intervention
G. Stop blood b. consult to physician c. advice pt d. search blood bank
 QQ. Used to select of chart eye
27. Optic nerve
RR. One the ff is the health human behavior’sthat prevent communicable disease
15. Health seeking behaviors c. unprotect sex
16. Alcohol and other substance use d. open field detection
SS. Which one of the ff direct to administer of hypotonic intravenous solution is
I. 0.9 sodium chloride c. 5% dextrose with N/S
J. 5% dextrose in water d. ringer lactate
TT. One supply instrument sterile team during surgical procedure
G. Scrub nurse b. circulatory nurse c. surgeon d. all team
UU. Which the ability of the body to defend against scientific invading agent such as bacteria ,virus,
fungi is
G. Gland b. immunity c. hormone d. secretion
VV. Which of the ff is promotion tool to develop marketing
I. Adverting b. marketing position c. cost component d. slogan
WW. The communication strategy that targets police making and decision to get communicate
for public
K. Staff mobilization b. program communicate c. advocacy d. social mobilization
Comprehensive Nursing care Coc exam
Level - IV
1. which component of nursing Process is the design of nursing strategies to resolve patient problem.
A. Planning C. Assessment/
B. Evaluation D. Nursing diagnosis
2. Which of the following is an objective data.
A. Dizziness C. Bluish discoloration of the skin/
B. Chest pain D. Anxiety
3. The body mass index of the patient whose height and weight is 160cm and 65kg respectively
A. 29.29 C. 31.39
B. 43.39 D. 25.39/
4. Which of the following is a feedback mechanism of receiving and evaluating work plan and activities?
A. Survey
B. Occupational standards
C. Internal quality assurance
D. Work place assessment guidelines
5.The most common cause of respiratory distress in preterm infant due to surfactant deficiency is known
as
A. Hayline membrane disease
B. Neonatal sepsis
C. Meconium aspiration syndrome
D. Congenital pneumonia
6. Which of the following types of assessment performed at the time the patient enters the health facility
A. Problem-focused C. Emergency
B. Time lapsed D. Initial
7. A transplacental transmission of syphilis is through
A. Indirect transmission
B. Direct horizontal
C. Direct vertical
D. Vehicle borne
8. Which one is the major intervention that used to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality
A. Effective referral system
B. Skilled attendant during pregnancy and child birth
C. Access to family planning
D. Access to emergency obstetric and newborn care
9. The nurse prepares IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. Which of the following is
the best action in order to prevent tracking of the medication
A. Apply ice on injection site
B. Administer at 45 degree angle
C. Use the 2-track techniques
D. Use small gauge needle
10. The client has prescription for a calcium carbonate compound to neutralized stomach acid. The nurse
should assess the client for
A. Hyperphosphatemia C. Diarrhea
B. Constipation D. Hypomagnsemia
11. Which one is a water soluble vitamin
A. Vitamin A C. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin K D. Vitamin E
12. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate safety need for school age children
A. Anxiety related to schooling
B. Risk for impaired skin integrity
C. Risk for injury
D. Risk for imbalance nutrition less than body requirements
13. An example of a complete actual nursing diagnosis
A. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction exhibited by patients compliant
B. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction
C. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction exhibited by patients statements
D. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction related to decrease sensation evidenced by the statement that
"my feet are tingling"
14. One supplies instruments to sterile team during surgical procedure
A. Scrub nurse C. All team members
B. Circulating nurse D. Surgeon
15. Among the tropical disease of malaria infection management, which one is the safest antimalarial
medication for pregnant women
A. Premaquine C. Chloroquine
B. Coartum D. Artusunate
16. In which condition bone becomes porous, brittle, fragile and break easily under stress
A. Osteoporosis C. Osteomyelitis
B. Osteomalacia D. Ankylosing spondylitis
17. One of the following disease has direct transmission
A. Yellow fever C. Filariasis
B. Malar/ia D. Tuberculosis
18. Which of the /following is promotion tool to develop marketing plan
A. Slogans C. Market position /
B. Advertising D. Cost components
19. Which of the following techniques involve the sense of sight
A. Inspection C. Palpation /
B. Auscultation D. Percussion
20. One of the following is the phenomenon of opposing action of two drugs on the same physiologic
system
A. Additive effect C. Side effects
B. Drug synergism D. Drug antagonism
21. In the level of resistance against a specific a communicable disease inthe community as whole
A. Artificial acquired active immunity
B. Artificial acquired passive immunity
C. Herd immunity
D. Naturally acquired active immunity
22. One of the following method is used for team building in an organization
A. Applying safety policies, procedures and program
B. Discouraging informal learning
C. Letting workers perform without supervision
D. Evaluating their work activities at the end of work plan
23. How do you react when others become emotional around you
A. Try to make them laugh
B. Listen and try to comfort them
C. Notice, but prefer to keep out of it
D. Tell them what you think is best for them
24. Which of the following is Intermittent checking of project or work environment
A. Controlling C. Supervision
B. Communication D. Information
25. Which one is the most common types of shock?
A. Obstructive shock C. Cardiogenic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock D. Septic shock
26. One of the following medication is used to diagnose disease
A. Insulin C. Amoxicillin
B. Barium sulfate D. Pethidine
27. Which one of the following is tertiary prevention
A. Early identification of the problem
B. Rehabilitation
C. Treat a disease
D. Health promotion
28. The nurse is caring for client with peripheral vascular disease to correctly assess the oxygen
saturation level the monitor my passed on the
A.Hip C. Ear lop
B. Ankle D. Chin
29.The nurse asked the client to read the snellen chart which of the following tested
A. Optc C. Occulomotor
B. Ol factory D. Trochlera
30. Its an abnormal accumulation of air due to enlargement and destruction of the lungs many tiny air
sacs and formation of sacr
A. Emphysema C. Pulmonary Obstruction
B. Empyema D. Hemothorax
31. Which one is the highly contagious disease
A. Tuberculosis C. Poliomyelitis
B. Measles D. Hypertension
32. Management function focus of division, coordination and control of task
A. Organizing C. Directing
B. Controlling D. Planning
33. Which one is true about the responsibility of secondary care level
A. Monitoring of stable chronic conditions
B. Promotion and maintenance of health
C. Provision of specialized medical services
D. Prevention of disease
34. Among proven intervention for maternal survival which one is major intervention
A. Active management of third stage management
B. Nutrition counseling for pregnant women
C. Magnesium sulfate provision for hypertensive
D. Post abortion care and family planning
35. Physician in ordered to administer Amoxicillin po for 3 years old child but you have 500mg on your
hand how much mg (dose) should you administer for the child?
A. 125mg C. 250mg
B. 100mg D. 120mg
36. In the best description as a systemic rationale method of planning and provide nursing care for
individuals, families, groups and community
A. Assessment C. Nursing Process
B. Diagnosis D. Implementation
37. Blunt percussion is used to
A. To assess adult sinus
B. To elicit flank pain
C. To assess adult thoracic
D. To assess infant thoracic
38. Which one is a social dysfunction
A. Illness C. Wellness
B. Sickness D. Health fulness
39. A contraction distributed heart failure rate rhythm and condition is said to be
A. Rheumatic heart failure
B. Acute Rheumatic heart failure
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Arrhythmia
40. Which one of the following parts of myometrium is responsible to control bleeding third stage labour
A. Up and down muscle fiber
B. Oblique muscle fiber
C. Longitudinal muscle fiber
41. In health center EPI program at 2012 E.c was a follow traget infant Artificial pentvalent P1 = 160
pentvalent P3 = 100 and measles = 80 what is pentvalent and measles
A. 37.5 and 50
B. 50 and 37.5
C. 80 and 50
D. 50 and 80
42. Normal saline 1000ml in 8 hours administer
A. 42 C 35
B. 31 D 45
43. Which is the most preferable medication administration of child
A. Po C. IV
B. IM D. SC
44.The best fluid used to resuscitate hypovolemic shock is
A. normal saline 0.9
B. ringer lactate
C. Dextrose 5%
D. Sugar
45. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, is nauseated, and feels hot. These types of data would
be:
A. Objective data
B. Validation of data
C. Subjective data
D. secondary data
46. After conducting health interview, the nurse begins to measure the clients vital signs. The nurse is
collecting :
A. Objective data
B. Secondary data
C. Subjective data
D. Primary data

47.Which one of the following Components of health history is sequentially developed and elaboration of
chief complaint?
A. biographic data
B. history of present illness
C. past history
D. family history of illness
48. During the physical assessment of the patient, the nurse observed that the patient skin color is pale,
the nurse expect that the patient has :
A. Jaundice
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Anemia
D. Heart failure
49. The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient depend on the
appropriateness of the------------- diagnosis.
A. Nursing
B. Medical
C. Admission
D. Collaborative
50. Which of the following is the preferred site of injection for children under 3years?
A. Deltoid
B. Vastus lateralis
C. Gluteus medius
D. None of the above
51. For all body systems except the abdomen, what is the preferred order for the nurse to perform the
following examination techniques
A. Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation, Inspection
B. Inspection,Auscultation ,Percussion,Palpation,
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpation
D. Palpation, Auscultation, Inspection , Percussion
52. The Passage of drug from site of administration to blood circulation is
A. Pharmacokinetics
C. Distribution
B. Pharmacodynamics
D. Absorption
53. Color, Size, Shape and Symmetry Can be assessed using :
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
54. The most common cause of UTI is
A. E-coli C. Streptococcus
B. Killebesal D. Viruse
55. which one of the ff is not include in work place management?
A. improve work place mg.t C. observing standard B.
establish work place rules D. quality assurance by each work
56. Which dosage form would ensure the best bio-availability ?
A. PO C. IV
B. IM D. SC
56.,Normal color of the skin is :
A. Yellowish
B. Bluish
C. Pinkish
D. Black

EAIC Comprehensive Nurse COC Preparation exam for 3rd year

students
Name _____________________________ ID. No. _________
PART I. Choose the best answer and write on the space provided
1. What is the most common from the infection pneumonia, which often cause emphysema?
A. Sterepococus pneumonia C. mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Chalamidia pneumonia D. staphylococcus pneumonia
2. After surgery Lemlem returns from the recovery room with a nasogastric tube in place
following bladder surgery. She continues to complain of nausea. What action would the nurse
task immediately?
A. Call the physician immediately C. Adminstrstrate the prescribed antiemetic
drug
B. Check the patency of the NG tube for any obstruction D. Change patents position
3. An accumulation of pressurized air in the pleural space is termed as
A. Tension pneumothorax C. Controls pulmonary edema
B. Cardic tamponade D. Heart attack
4. When teaching a client about the drug therapy for gonorrhea the nurse should state that
A. Cures the infection C. Controls its transmission
B. Prevents complications D. Reverses pathological change
5. A 39 years old potent comes to the emergency OPD with episode of asthma, in difficulty of
breathing which of the following action should you take first?
A. Take full medical history C. Apply cardiac monitor to the patient
B. Give bronchodilator D. Provide emotional support
6. The best positioning used to aid berating for the pwatent with acute pulmonary edema?
A. Supine positioning C. High folwer s postion
B. Left lateral position D. Prone position
7. Sign and symptoms of 3 degree burn
rd

A. Development of blisters C. Excessive pain

B. Redness of discoloration of the affected area D. Complete loss of all layers of the skin
8. Puncture wound is
A. A wound which displays irregular or blunt breaking of soft tissue
 B. A wound which is produce by a object puiercing skin layers & creating a small hole in the
tissues
C. A wound which results when tissue is forcely separated from the victim body
D. It is characterized by cuts & excessive bleeding
9. The immediate care of the post operative patient is
A. Take vital sign every hour C. Maintain patent air way
B. Monitor the urine out put D. Turn patient to side every 4 hours
10. An injury to the capsule & ligaments of a joint that result in displacement of a bone end at the
joint
A. Sprain B. Dislocation C. Fracture D. Strain
11. Ato Alemu postoperative vital signs are a BP-80/50mmhg, PR-140, RR-32 you suspect he is
in shock, one of the following should not be given for the patient
A. put the client in a modified trendelenburg postion C. monitor urine output every
hour
B. Administer oxygen at 100% D. Administer a narcotice analgesics
12. One of the following is not included in 1st aid management principle of fracture
A. maintain an open airway & apply artificial respiration if indicate
B. control hemorrhage by applying pressure in cause of open fracture
C. Replaced bone fragments if bone ends protruded
D. Apply splints
13. The oral drug that is most likely to be prescribed for the treatment of trichomoniasis
vaginalis is:-
A. Penicillin B. Genitain violate C. Nystatin D. Metronidazole
14. When copunselling a client after vasectory the nurse should advise the client
A. Recanalization of the vasedeferens is imposibble
B. Some importancy is to be expected for several weeks
C. Unprotected coitus is possible with in a week to 10 days
D. It requires at least 15 ejaculations to clear the tract of sperm
15. A routine urinalysis ti ordered for a client if the specimen cannot be sent immediate to the
laboratory. The nurse should
A. Take no special action C. Refrigerate the specimen
B. store on the dirty side of the utility room D. Discard and collect a new specimen
16. Following surgery, Ato Abebe complains of mild incision, pain while performing deep
breathing and coughing exercise. The nurse best response would be
A. pain will become less each day C. This is a normal reaction ager surgery
B. With a pillow, apply pressure against the incision D. Providing analegesic
17. All are true about 2 stage of labor except
nd

A. Uterine contraction is longer and weak C. No cervical rim is felt on per vaginal
examination
B. Gaping of anus vulva and bulging of perinieum D. Mother feels urge to push
18. A 35 yr old women came to your health center for antenatal follow up she told you that she
has:-two abortion on still birth her gravid and para will be and respectively
A. 7&6 B. 4&6 C.7&4 D.6&4

19. Professional misconduct causing harm or injury to a person from lock of experience skill
knowledge or judgment is called
 A. Lung B. Spleen C. Bowel D. Kidney
20. An information give to professional nurse which is forbidden by low from disclosing the
information in a count with out to consent of the person who provided it is known as
A. Witnes B. Nurse practice act C. Previlaged communication D. Will
21. IF 1000ml of normal saline is orderd for dehydrate patient for 24hrs how many drops/
minute should be it run? Df =15 drop/m
A. 10 B .20 C. 30 D. 40
22. The emergency treatment of a back injury involves one basic rule
A. Turn the victim by long rolling
B. Do not move the victim until emergency medical assistance arrives
C. Move the victim head so it aligned with the back
D. Elevate the victim’s
23. The clinical act of identifying problem is
A. Planning B. Implementation C. Diagnosis D. Assessment
24. Health is normally as the absence of signs and symptoms’ according to
A. Holistic health model C. Health believe mode
B. High level wellness model D. Clinical model
25. One of the following affect effective communication except
A. Age B. Cognitive impairment C. None verbal communication D.
Culture
26. A child with gray hair bilateral pitting edema.loss od subcutaneous tissue and muscle and
weight for age <60% of the standared is considers to have
A. Marasmus B. Kwashiorkor C. Marasmic –Kwashiorkor D. Under weight
27. Kebed is a four old baby who came to the health center where you are working with acute
respiratory tract infection (ARI)for the first time ,what is the dose of vitamin A you will give
him?
A. 100,000IU on the 1st ,2nd and 14th days C. 100,000IU on the 1st day
B. 200,000 IU on the 1 2 14 days
st nd th
D. 200,000IU on the 1st day
28. Its acute bacteria disease characterized by rapid on set of profound watery diarrhea,
vomiting rapid pulse, dehydration circulatory collapse &death
A. Typhoid fever B. Gastro enteritis C. Cholera D. Food poison
29. The site of IM (intra muscular) that provides the slowest absorption present the highest risk
for injury to nerves and blood vessels
A. Ventrogluteals B. Dorsogluteal C. Quadriceps femurs D. Mid deltoid

30. Benefits of breast feeding for other except

A. Efficient contraceptive C. Increase the risk of hemorrhage
B. Stimulate uterine contraction D. Stimulate bond between mother and baby
31. One of the activities is not true of taking patient’s blood pressure
A. Take the blood pressure over the radial artery
B. Make the patient comfortable during the procedure
C. Use the stethoscope to locate the trongest area pulsation in the artery
D. Pump the manometer bulb until the mercury rises to ablout 20mm/HG above a systolic
pressure
32. He most common mode of transmission of HIV/Aids in Ethiopia is
A. Mother to child transmission C. Homosexual rectal
 B. Heterosexual vaginal D. Heterosexual oral
33. The causative organism for cholera
A. E*coil B. Staphylo cocus aures C. Kelbsella D. Vibro cholera
34. A species that transmits malaria from one person to another person
A. Anopheles mosquito B. Sand files C. Testes files D. Culex
35. The best fluid used to resuscitate hypovolomic shock is
A. Normal saline B. Ringer lactate C. Dextrose 5% D. Sugar
36. One of the following is not important is drug administration
A. The right dose B. The right patent C. The right physician D. The right
time
37. The preferable position to administer IV therapy
A. Outer part of the lower arm C. Inner part of the upper arm
B. Inner part of the lower arm D. outer part of the lower leg
38. The simple & most effective measure for infection prevention
A. Isolation B. Double baggins C. Sterilization D. Hand washing
39. The type of isolation technique used for patient with contagious skin disease
A. Strict isolation B. Enteric isolation C. Contact isolation D. Blood &fluid
isolation
40. The most important person in a hospital
A. Physician B. Nurse C. Patient D. Pharmacist
41. A pregnant women comes for ANC she has one still birth one a live birth & one abortion then
what is gravid & para
A) Gravid a 3 para -2 C. Giavid a 4 apara-2
B) Giavid a 4 apara-1 D. Giavid a 3 apara-1
42. Which is true about vaccine?
A. BCG, measles are freezing sensitive C. DPV & TT are light sensitive
B. DPT & TT are in second compartment in refrigerator D. All are true
43. Which of the following is tertiary prevention?
A. Rehabilitation C. Immunization
B. Health education D. Early detection & Rx of cases
44. All are preoperative care except
A. NGT insertion B. Conscent C. Counsel the pt D. All
45. Puropse of cleansing enema are all except
A. Await abdominal pain B. Abdominal surgery C. Colon examination D.
Constipation
46. Which of the following are protozoal diseases?
A. Salmonella B. Chol;era C. Guardia elambillia D. All
47. Which of the following have familiar tendency?
A.TB B. Diabetes milatus C. Pneumonia
48. Which of the following are second degree burn but
A. Pain B. Epidermis & dermis C. Blister D. Muscle
49. Which of the following are Nsg diagnoses?
A. Fever B. Hypotension C. Hypertension D. Asthma
50. Which of the following are effect of STL except
A. Obesity B. Infertility C. Urethral cancer D. Still birth
51. 100 ml of RK to be run for 8hr how many drops per minute is run (DF=1ml=15) drop
 A. 25 B. 31 C. 41.6 D. 42
52. Which one of our upper respiratory infection
A. Sinusitis B. Asthma C. TB D. pneumonia
53. Which s true about 2 stage of labour except
nd

A. Contraction every 30 second B. Cervical dilation C. Effesement D. None

54. General danger sign of baby include all except
A. Not breast feeding C. Lathergy
B. Vomit every things D. Skin pinch goes batch slowly
55. Recommended WHO antenatal visit are ______
A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 D.8
56. One of the following shock occur a result of excessive bleeding
A. Cardiogenic shock B. Hypovolomic shock C. Neurogenic shock D. Septic
shock
57. Which of the following are not responsibilities of scrub nurse?
A. Scrubbing & growing the physician C. Protect sterile field
B. Suturing wound D. Counting item
58. IV fluid which are used in hypovolomic shock
A. N/s B. R/L C. DNS D. D/W
59. Purpose of infection of 10cc of distilled water for end welling catheter is
A. To secure B. To prevent infection C. To defilate the tube D. To keep
sterility
60. Classical sign &symptoms of D.M are all except
A. Polyphagia B. Poly urea C. Poly depsia D. Convulse
61. Position used in gynecological purpose are ___
A. Littomy B. Knee chest C. Dorsal recumbent D. All
62. Which is not sterile procedure?
A. Injection C. wound dressing
B. Eye installation D. Catheterization cost application
63. Which of the following are live atunoted vaccines?
A. BCG B. Polio C. Measel D. DPT
64. Vitamins stored in the liver
A. A B. D C. E D. C
65. Vitamin which is not stored in the liver
A. A B. E C. D D. C
1. Step of 5s 1) Sort; (2) Set in Order; (3) Shine; (4) Standardize; (5) Sustain.
2. sign of right side heart failure jagular vein distension
3. Site for child im injection vastes lateralis
4. The most common cause of urinary tract infection Eshercia coli
5. Purpose of palliative care improve quality of care
6. Which one of the following burn have severe pain 2nd degree burns
7. the most effective mechanism for preventing the spread of infection hand wash
8. the main cause of stomach cancer[ smoking,alcoholism,h.pylori]
9. which vaccine is given at 1month pcv
10. diarrhea for 16 days persistent diarrhea
11. types of fracture common among children greenstick
12. treatment of herpeszoster acyclovir
13. complication of thoracentesis pneumothorax
 14. site of fertilization ampulla
15. indication of mouthcare
16. The nurse is working in the emergency room when client arrives with sever burn of the
left ,hands, faces, and neck. Which action is the highest priority? Oxygen adminstration
17. Among the following one is about vital events registration of local community
18. One of the following is the function of computer technology
J. Used to insert any devices during the procedure
K. Used to enter patient information/data
L. Used to minimize health information management system
M. Serves as a substitute of health personnel
19. Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition for 2nd stage of labour?
A, onset of true labour to full dilatation of cervix
B, full dilatation of cervix to delivery of fetus (baby)
C, delivery of fetus (baby) to delivery of placenta
D, the 1st one hr after delivery of the baby
20. which steps of nursing process possible patient problem is determined? .
A/ Nursing planning
B/ Nursing Assessment
C/ Nursing Evaluation
D/ Nursing diagnosis
21. largest part of brain cerebrem
22. method of preventing constipation during pregnancy eating fiber diet
23. Kebede 30-years old man came to your health center with complaints of greenish yellow
productive cough, fever, shaking chills, shortness of breath, pleuritic chestpain, headaches, sweaty
and clammy (moist) skin, fatigue, blueness of the skin, nausea and vomiting. Kebede also told you
no history of recent admission to hospital. The type of pneumonia that Kebede suffered from is:
A.
B. Hospital acquired
C. Community acquired
D. Aspiration pneumonia
24. Types of immunity get after attack by measel activeimmunity
25. The total body surface area of burned [anterior trunk& perinium] 19%
26. Difference between systolic and diastolic Pulse pressure
27. Types of family planning used to prevent both pregnancy and sti condom
28. [mean,median,mode,]
29. Best position for patient have difficulty of breathing fowlerposition
30. Privacy of information confidentiality
31. Ethambutol side effect vision problem
32. Isoniazid side effect pheripheral nerve damage
33. Treatment for isoniazid side effect vitamin B6
34. Scrub nurse was counting item before surgery then count after surgery for second time
35. Which of the following is executory organ [liver,kidney,lung]
36. Measel is what Types of immunization
37. When bp cuff is too loose and bp measurement will be incorrect
38. WHO definition of health
39. Holistic definition of health
40. During percussion which sound was heard on liver Dull sound
41. To examine internal organ of abdomen which method we used deep palpation/ bimanual
42. Which group is vernurable for violence
43. Which of the following is route of transmission of Covid-19 air borne droplet
44. Causative agent of tuberculosis is mycobacterium tuberclosis
45. Period when person feel general body malaise
46. Site of lumbar puncture b/n L3&L4
47. Basic initial step for preparing plan
48. Which order we expect from physician pt loss of blood 25%
49. Hormone that used for milk production prolactin
50. 2 years old child Bp 85/60 rr 30 temp 38 what you find
51. Education given for adolescence girl
52. Solution used for mouth care Hydrogen peroxide
53. Which one is different [hesitance drippling consistency in-continency]
54. Which blood type is universal donor O
55. How many bone of fetal skull 6