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Christian Homo

The discussion revolves around the significance of homosexuality in modern Christianity, noting its relative infrequency in biblical texts compared to its prominence in contemporary church discourse. The inquiry seeks to understand historical reasons for this disparity, highlighting that many churches either oppose or embrace LGBTQ+ identities as core values. The conversation also touches on historical prohibitions against homosexual acts within the clergy from the late antique period to the Middle Ages.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
20 views8 pages

Christian Homo

The discussion revolves around the significance of homosexuality in modern Christianity, noting its relative infrequency in biblical texts compared to its prominence in contemporary church discourse. The inquiry seeks to understand historical reasons for this disparity, highlighting that many churches either oppose or embrace LGBTQ+ identities as core values. The conversation also touches on historical prohibitions against homosexual acts within the clergy from the late antique period to the Middle Ages.

Uploaded by

twofork006
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as TXT, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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2 days ago
B-RapShoeStrap

NSFW
Why is homosexuality a big subject of modern Christianity?
I am somewhat familiar with the Bible and do study it on a regular basis, but am
not a member of a church or anything. Although circumcision (Abraham's covenant) is
somewhat sexual (reproductive) in nature, homosexuality is far from a major theme
of the Bible (from my understanding).

Yet, many churches are greatly opposed, or are proudly "open," as a core
foundationaly value that they aspouse.

Is there a historical reason for the significance of homosexuality in modern


Christianity (because based on my self-education, it seems fairly infrequently
discussed compared to many other major themes/principles in the Bible)?

Edit: please comment if you think NSFW tag is appropriate here. I honestly don't
know, and added it just to be safe.

Edit2: by "Christianity" I'm referring to Protestant, Catholic, and Orthodox (and


any others I'm missing), of which I'm only aware of Protest churches/denominations
that are "open" (or indifferent). My question is based on (via my observation) the
relative low importance in the Bible, and relative high importance in modern
Christian discussion, on homosexuality (Contrary to, for example, the relative high
importance on food laws in the Bible and relative low importance of food laws in
modern Christian discussion).

Edit3: one of the best answers (that got deleted) referenced the book of "Jesus and
John Wayne." Her theory requires first a distinction between political movements
that use religion and the religions themselves, and the focus on homosexuality
comes from the political movement. Here's the link to the author (professor)
discussing it. https://youtu.be/d9-0cxfmPHs?si=hPJ8Gi72YYaCUaQ0
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2d ago

u/amsterdam_sniffr avatar
amsterdam_sniffr

2d ago
Talondearg's answer in this thread is relevant to your question.

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u/bedrooms-ds avatar
bedrooms-ds

2d ago
What I find missing in that thread (although I'm enjoying reading it) is how
scholars regard the bible's treatment of homosexuality, which seemingly is only
implicit.

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5 more replies
u/ProfoundMysteries avatar
ProfoundMysteries

23h ago
I mean, yeah, but their answer is also 11 years old. Given the 20 year rule of this
subreddit, and updates in historical scholarship, its very well possible that
plenty more that could be said.

Also, we generally mention the author with the /u/ in case they are still active
and might be pinged. u/talondearg

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[deleted]

2d ago

[deleted]

2d ago
RundownViewer

4h ago
I want to push back a little on the idea that it's entirely modern. We do see in
law during the late antique period and the Middle Ages a prohibition on homosexual
acts. These laws were almost exclusively about people within the clergy of the
church.

There are different types of prohibitions depending on when/where they are


announced. The Council of Nicea I (325 CE) is pretty clear about sexual behavior in
general, but it also tells us why:

Canon II. Concerning those who admitted to the clergy immediately after baptism

Since, either through necessity or through the importunate demands of certain


individuals, there have been many breaches of the church's canon, with the result
that men who have recently come from a pagan life to the faith after a short
catechumenate have been admitted at once to the spiritual washing, and at the same
time as their baptism have been promoted to the episcopate or the presbyterate, it
is agreed that it would be well for nothing of the kind to occur in the future. For
a catechumen needs time and further probation after baptism for the apostle's words
are clear: "Not a recent convert, or he may be puffed up and fall into the
condemnation and the snare of the devil." But if with the passage of time some sin
of sensuality is discovered with regard to the person and he is convicted by two or
three witnesses, such a one will be suspended from the clergy. If anyone
contravenes these regulations, he will be liable to forfeit his clerical status for
acting in defiance of this great synod.

Subsequent synods and councils mention sexual activity, but it is specifically


toward married priests. As marriage had not been outright banned for the clergy,
and the transition was still taking place, well into the 500's we see laws that say
something along the lines of "he shall not live with his wife" etc.

In the Penitential of Columbian (c. 600 CE) we see mention of homosexuality. (Note:
I do not have the original Latin, so I am not sure what is used for "sodomy" in
this instance.)

A. Offenses of Monks

3. But if anyone, his sins getting the better of him, actually commits sin, if he
commits homicide or the sin of sodomy, he shall do penance for ten years; if he
commits fornication only once, a monk shall do penance for three years; if more
often, seven years. If he deserts an violates his vows and then promptly returns to
penance, he shall do penance for the three forty-day periods, but if he returns
after some years, for three years.

We see it again in the Penitential of Theodore (668-690 CE)

Book One, II. Of Fornication

2. He judged that he who often commits fornication with a man or with a beast
should do penance for ten years.

4. He who after his twentieth year defiles himself with a male shall do penance for
fifteen years.

5. A male who commits fornication with a male shall do penance for ten years.

6. Sodomites shall do penance for seven years, an the effeminate man as an


adulteress.

12. If a woman practices vice with a woman, she shall do penance for three years.

13. If she practices solitary vice, she shall do penance for the same period.

15. "Qui semen in os miserit" shall do penance for seven years: this is the worst
of evils. Elsewhere it was his judgment that both [participants in this offense]
shall do penance to the end of life; or twelve years; or as above seven.

We see much more of this in Charlemagne's Capitulary (c 800) and Louis the Pious.
It extends all the way to Louis the IX (St. Louis). As I said, these are almost
exclusively regarding the clergy. Secular and religious law weren't totally
separate until well past the Investiture controversy, and Innocent III's Papal
Monarchy with the Lateran IV.

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