Preparation Course

(Microbiology,
Immunology)
1. cephalosporin mechanism of action may include
a) Inhabit protein synthesis.
b) inhibit cell wall synthesis.
c) inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites.
d) alter the function of cell membrane permeability.

2. the bacteriostatic effect of Sulphamethoxazole may be

increased by:
a- Penicillin
b- sulbactam
c- clavulanic acid
d- trimethoprim

3. Correct statements regarding penicillin V may include

which of the following?
a- probenecid decrease penicillin’s activity
b- Beta lactamase sensitive antibiotic -acid stable
c- Broad spectrum antibiotic
d- active against MRSA

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4. The only antibiotic available as chewable tablets
includes:
a. penicillin
b. amoxycillin
c. ampicillin
d. erythromycin

5 Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all the

following except:
a. penicillin's
b. cephalosporins
c. gentamicin
d. streptomycin

6. Examples of antibiotic that is an acid stable penicillinase

resistant include:
a. amoxicillin
b. oxacillin
c. penicillin V
d. carbenicillin

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7. All the following penicillins are acid labile penicillins
except:
a. Penicillin V
b. methicillin
c. Penicillin G
d. carbenicillin

8. Which of the following describes the mechanism of

action of Sulphamethoxazole:
a. Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism
with folic acid synthesis
b. inhibit protein synthesis
c. inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites
d. alter the function of cell membrane permeability
e. inhibit translation of genetic information

9. Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic

of all the following except:
a. Aminoglycosides.
b. Tetracyclins.
c. Cephalosporins.
d. Chloramphenicol.

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10. which of the following is not antifungal drug?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Metronidazole.
c. Griseofulvin.
d. Nystatin.

11. An example of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may

include:
a. Gentamicin
b. Ceftriaxone.
c. Norfloxacin.
d. Penicillin.

12. Which of the following agents may best treat

meningococcal encephalitis?
a. Sulphamethoxazole.
b. Erythromycin.
c. Penicillin.
d. Tetracyclin.

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13. Otitis media is an ear infection normally caused by
streptococcus pneumonia and may be best treated by:
a. Amoxycillin
b. Penicillin V
c. Amoxicillin clavulanate
d. Oxacillin.

14. First line treatment of UTI may include:

a. Sulphamethoxazole + trimethoprim
b. Amoxicillin clavulanate
c. Penicillin procaine.
d. Erythromycin.

15. Colitis associated with antibiotic use can be treated

by:
a. Cephalosporins.
b. Macrolides.
c. Aminoglycosides.
d. Vancomycin.

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16. Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include:
a. Drugs derived from synthetic substances that can
kill or inhibit bacterial growth.
b. Drugs derived from natural sources that can kill or
inhibit bacterial growth.
c. Drug with ability only to kill bacteria
d. drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth

17. Antiviral drugs act in many ways they can be classified

in
a. RNA inhibitors.
b. DNA inhibitors.
c. protease inhibitors
d. All the above

18. Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include

all the following except:
a. Amoxicillin.
b. Naficillin.
c. Methicillin.
d. Oxacillin.

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19. Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may
include:
a. Amoxicillin.
b. Ampicillin.
c. Cloxacillin.
d. Carbenicillin.

20. Example of 4th generation cephalosporin includes:

a. Ceftriaxone.
b. Cefepime.
c. Cefixime.
d. Cefotaxime.

21. Correct statement regarding the mechanism of action

of Vancomycin may include:
a. inhibit release of tRNA bond to peptyl site after
peptide bond formation.
b. Inhibit peptide bond formation between acyl
amino acid bond to the peptyl and acceptor site.
c. Inhibit stage two of cell wall synthesis preventing
polymerization of linear peptidoglycan.
d. inhabit DNA gyrase in the bacteria.

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22. Which of the following is the most common side effect
of Vancomycin?
a. Ototoxicity.
b. Disulfiram like side effects
c. Diarrhoea.
d. Weight gain

23. Which of the following is not side effect of

tetracycline?
a. Alteration of gut flora
b. disulfiram like reactions
c. teeth permanent discoloration
d. hyperchromic metabolic acidosis
____________________________________________________

24. Wrong statement regarding macrolides include:

a. used in both gram positive and gram-negative
infections
b. used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has
allergy to penicillins
c. inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms
d. very safe for children

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25. Which of the following anti-infective agent with
lowest therapeutic index?
a. Macrolide.
b. Cephalosporin.
c. Chloramphenicol.
d. Aminoglycosides.

26. drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood

infection schistosomiasis may include:
a. Nicotinamide.
b. Praziquantel.
c. Mebendazole.
d. Dapsone.

27. Which of the following conditions are Quinolones

antibiotic drugs mainly used?
a. respiratory tract infections
b. urinary tract infections
c. gastrointestinal tract infections
d. endocarditis.

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28. Will a 14-year-old boy develops a bad case of otitis
media a few days after swimming in Hideaway Lake the
previous medical history is unremarkable except for
having had a minor skin rash two years ago after being
treated with amoxicillin for a sore throat, which of the
following shares a common mechanism but would be very
unlikely to produce a similar allergic reaction?
a. Ampicillin
b. Cefaclor.
c. Clindamycin.
d. Gentamycin.

29. Roxanne, a 23-year-old medical student arrives in the

student health clinic complaining of difficulty in swallowing,
sore throat, and chills. Upon examination, she is found to be
running a fever, and has white patches on her tonsils. A
throat swab is positive for Streptococcus pyogenes (group A).
A diagnosis of acute pharyngitis is made. Her past medical
history is unremarkable except for an anaphylactic reaction
to cefaclor two years ago. Which of the following would be a
safe alternative treatment?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Cephalexin.
c. Clindamycin.
d. Meropenem.

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30. A 47-year-old patient with a severe bacterial infection
is given a drug by IV. infusion. Because the drug is
administered too rapidly, the patient develops
hypotension, as well as marked flushing & itching over the
upper portion of his chest, neck and face. The antibiotic
most likely responsible for producing this reaction is:
a. Amoxicillin
b. Vancomycin
c. Linezolid
d. aztreonam

31. Amongst those antibiotics that act by inhibiting

protein synthesis, several members this drug class are
known to produce side effects related to both drug
interactions caused by inhibition of P-450 and cardiac
effects (QT prolongation/Torsade de pointes). Which drug
class is this?
Bad tasting
a. Aminoglycosides
b. Fluoroquinolones
c. Macrolides
d. Rifamycins

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32. DNA is made up of repeating subunits called-
a. RNA
b. Nucleotides
c. Gene
d. Bases

33. In cells, long pieces of DNA are organized into

individual units called-
a. Microtubule
b. RNA
c. Nuclei
d. Chromosome

34. Which immune cell is responsible for the quickest

release of histamine that causes the red itchy welts
associated with allergies?
a. Mast cell
b. lymphocytes
c. Eosinophil
d. Chlorobutanol
e. Basophil

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35. When human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attaches
to a host cell what genetic material is released into the
cell’s cytoplasm?
a. Chromosome
b. RNA
c. DNA
d. Ligand

36. The basic Ig unit is composed of:

a. 2 identical heavy and 2 identical light chains.
b. 2 identical heavy and 2 different light chains.
c. 2 different heavy and 2 identical light chains.
d. 2 different heavy and 2 different light chains.

37. A Fab fragment:

a. Is produced by pepsin treatment.
b. Is produced by separation of heavy and light chains.
c. Binds antigen.
d. Lacks light chains.

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 38. Which of the following statements does not apply to
IgG?
a. Appears early in the primary immune response.
b. Neutralizes bacterial toxins.
c. Can fix complement.
d. Crosses the human placenta.
e. Opsonizes bacteria.

39. IgM
a. Is most commonly tetrameric
b. Has the same number as IgG
c. Is a weak bacterial agglutinator.
d. Is the main class of the natural antibodies

40. IgE
a. Is abundant in saliva
b. Bind strongly to mast cell
c. Cannot bind to macrophages
d. Activates the complement cascade

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41. The circulation of a 2-month-old breast fed baby will
contain maternal:
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM

42. BCG is used to protect against:

a. Tuberculosis
b. Rabies
c. Hepatitis B
d. Influenza

43. To which one of the following groups would it be

acceptable to give a live attenuated viral vaccine?
a. Children under eight years of age
b. Patients treated with steroids
c. Pregnant mothers
d. Patient with leukaemia
e. Patients treated with radiotherapy

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44. Teratogenic Virus causing cataract, heart failure?
a. rubella
b. papilloma
c. Hepatitis B
d. Varicella zoster virus

45. Which organ is having gram positive bacteria

colonization
a. GI
b. urinary tract
c. skin
d. pharynges

46. Vitamin that have been given to patients on INH

a. thiamine
b. riboflavin
c. pyridoxin
d. cyanocobalamin

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47. Which of the following vaccine is alive attenuated
bacterial vaccine
a. Varicella
b. Rubella
c. BCG tuberculosis
d. Oral polio

48. Which one of the following is not an organ specific

autoimmunity?
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Sjogren syndrome
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. multiple sclerosis

49. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction are due to:

a. anaphylaxis
b. cytotoxicity
c. immune complex
d. none of this

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50. Which of the following is /are non-nucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitor
a. Delaverdine
b. Efaverinz
c. Nevirapine
d. all of them

1 b 26 b
2 d 27 b
3 b 28 b
4 b 29 c
5 d 30 b
6 b 31 c
7 c 32 b
8 a 33 d
9 c 34 a
10 b 35 b
11 c 36 a
12 c 37 c
13 c 38 a
14 a 39 d
15 d 40 b
16 b 41 d
17 d 42 a
18 a 43 a
19 d 44 a
20 b 45 c
21 c 46 c
22 a 47 c
23 b 48 b
24 c 49 b
25 d 50 d

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