Question Paper 2009—Part—2
1[Q] Which of the following is a scoring system for severity of wound infection, and is particularly useful
for surveillance and research?
(a) Apgar score
(b) Glasgow scoring system
(c) Southampton grading system
(d) ASA classification
[ANS] c
[SOL]
2[Q] Following the immunotherapy, in patients undergoing renal transplantation, the skin cancer most commonly
seen is
(a) Skin tumors
(b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(c) Hepatomas
(d) Mycosis fungoides
[ANS] a
[SOL]
3[Q] The causes of hypokalemia include the following except
(a) Tamoxifen therapy
(b) ACTH producing tumors
(c) Non‐bilious vomiting
(d) Diabetic ketoacidosis
[ANS] a
[SOL]
4Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding Raynaud’s disease?
(a) It is idiopathic
(b) It commonly affects women
(c) Exposure to cold precipitates vasoconstriction
(d) The lower extremity involvement is symmetrical
[ANS] d
[SOL]
5[Q] Which one of the following statements is correct in case of squamous cell carcinoma of the lip?
(a) Lymph node metastases occur early
(b) More than 90 per cent of cases occur on the upper lip
(c) Lesion often arises in the areas of persistent hyperkeratosis
(d) Radiotherapy is considered inappropriate treatment for these lesions
[ANS] c
[SOL]
6[Q] In a patient of carcinoma tongue, the infiltration of which muscle causes ankyloglossia?
(a) Styloglossus muscle
(b) Genioglossus muscle
(c) Mylohyoid muscle
(d) Palatoglossus muscle
[ANS] b
[SOL]
7[Q] What is the best and most sensitive investigation for hypothyroidism?
(a) TSH levels
(b) TRH levels
(c) T₃, T₄ levels
(d) Radioactive I₂ uptake
[ANS] a
[SOL]
8[Q] Which one of the following is not a correct statement with reference to locally advanced carcinoma breast?
(a) It constitutes the bulk of patients of carcinoma breast in India
(b) Patients are staged as T₃ or T₄ with any N, without distant metastasis (M₀)
(c) Neoadjuvant chemotherapy downgrades the disease
(d) Radical Mastectomy is the treatment of choice
[ANS] d
[SOL]
9[Q] In a patient with breast cancer, the following are poor prognostic factors except:
(a) High grade
(b) Absence of epidermal growth factor receptor
(c) Aneuploid status
(d) Age less than 35 years
[ANS] b
[SOL]
10[Q] Consider the following statements regarding splenectomy:
1. It corrects anemia in congenital hereditary spherocytosis.
2. Postponed until the age of 4 years if possible.
3. Polyvalent pneumococcal vaccine to be administered to all before the surgery.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
[ANS] a
[SOL]
11[Q] Which one of the following is not a common feature of bile duct stone?
(a) Obstructive jaundice
(b) Itching
(c) Clay colored stools
(d) Distended gall bladder
[ANS] d
[SOL]
12[Q] A young patient develops high grade fever with chills and rigors, mild jaundice and acute pain in the upper
abdomen following cholecystectomy. On examination she was jaundiced, toxic, haemodynamically stable and having
vague fullness upper abdomen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Localised collection of bile in peritoneal cavity
(b) Iatrogenic ligation of common bile duct
(c) Duodenal injury
(d) Acute Pancreatitis
[ANS] a
[SOL]
13[Q] Consider the following with reference to the management of portal hypertension in massive variceal bleeding:
1. Infusion of vasopressin
2. General resuscitation
3. Devascularisation procedure
4. Endoscopic sclerotherapy
What is the appropriate sequence in the event of massive variceal bleeding in portal hypertension?
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 4, 2, 1, 3
(d) 3, 2, 1,4
[ANS] b
[SOL]
14[Q] The following are complications of gall stone except
(a) Haemobilia
(b) Cholangitis
(c) Biliary enteric fistula
(d) Acute pancreatitis
[ANS] a
[SOL]
15[Q] Consider the following:
1. Cholesterosis
2. Adenomyomatosis
3. Polyposis
4. Cholelithiasis
To which of the above does cholecystoses refer to?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
[ANS] a
[SOL]
16[Q] A 50 year old diabetic patient with asymptomatic gall stone (3 cm) will be best treated by
(a) Early surgery
(b) Bile‐salt treatment
(c) ESWL
(d) Waiting till it becomes symptomatic
[ANS] a
[SOL]
17[Q] Consider the following prognostic parameters of acute pancreatitis:
1. Rise in blood urea nitrogen over 5 mg/dl
2. Hematocrit decrease over 10%
3. Base deficit more than 4 mmol/Lit
4. Blood glucose over 10 mmol/Lit
Which of the above parameters are important during initial 48 hours?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
[ANS] c
[SOL]
18[Q] Which of the following is not an indication for surgical intervention in acute pancreatitis?
(a) Acute fluid collection
(b) Pancreatic necrosis
(c) Pancreatic abscess
(d) Diagnostic dilemma
[ANS] a
[SOL]
19[Q] The following disorders are predisposing conditions for carcinoma of the colon except
(a) Ulcerative colitis
(b) Villous adenoma
(c) Familial polyposis coli
(d) Peutz‐Jeghers syndrome
[ANS] d
[SOL]
20[Q] To which lymph nodes, the lymph from the umbilicus drain?
(a) Axillary and inguinal
(b) External and inter†al iliac
(c) Pre and para‐aortic
(d) Inter aortocaval
[ANS] a
[SOL]
21[Q] The most common intra peritoneal abscess following peritonitis is
(a) Subphrenic
(b) Pelvic
(c) Para colic
(d) Interloop
[ANS] a
[SOL]
22[Q] The following statements are correct about burst abdomen (abdominal dehiscence) except
(a) Peak incidence is between 6th and 8th post operative day
(b) Manage with nasogastric aspiration and intravenous fluids
(c) Cover the wound with sterile towel and perform emergency surgery
(d) Second dehiscence is very common
[ANS] d
[SOL]
23[Q] A patient presents to the emergency department with pain and distension of abdomen and absolute
constipation. What is the investigation of choice?
(a) Plain X‐ray abdomen (Erect)
(b) Ultrasonography
(c) Barium meal follow‐through
(d) Colonoscopy
[ANS] a
[SOL]
24[Q] What is the investigation of choice in a patient with blunt abdominal trauma with hematuria?
(a) Ultrasonography of abdomen
(b) Contrast enhanced computed tomography
(c) Intravenous urogram
(d) Retrograde urogram
[ANS] b
[SOL]
25[Q] An entity of pneumothorax which leads to build up of positive pressure within the hemithorax, leading to
collapse of lung, flattened diaphragm, mediastinal shift to contralateral side and eventually the venous return to the
right side of heart is compromised — is known as
(a) Primary spontaneous pneumothorax
(b) Tension pneumothorax
(c) Haemo‐pneumothorax
(d) Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax
[ANS] b
[SOL]
26[Q] The commonly seen depression deformity of the chest wall is known as
(a) Pectus excavatum
(b) Pectus carinatum
(c) Manubrial gladiolar prominence
(d) Kyphosis
[ANS] a
[SOL]
27[Q] Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for lower ureteric stone?
(a) Endoscopic removal
(b) Diuretics
(c) Drug dissolution
(d) Laser
[ANS] a
[SOL]
28[Q] Which one of the following is the treatment of choice in a child with inguinal hernia?
(a) Bassini’s repair
(b) Shouldice operation
(c) Herniotomy alone
(d) Lichtenstein repair
[ANS] c
[SOL]
29[Q] Motility disorders of the oesophagus are best diagnosed by
(a) Barium meal
(b) Manometry
(c) Radiography
(d) Endoscopy
[ANS] b
[SOL]
30[Q] Which one of the following organism is not associated with synergistic gangrene?
(a) Escherichia
(b) Staphylococcus
(c) Clostridium
(d) Peptostreptococcus
[ANS] b
[SOL]
31[Q] Clinical signs and symptoms in tetanus are a result of
(a) Endotoxins
(b) Exotoxins fixed to motor nerve endplates
(c) Circulating exotoxins
(d) Both endotoxins and exotoxins
[ANS] b
[SOL]
32[Q] O₂ (Oxygen) dissociation curve is shifted to the right in the following except
(a) Rise in temperature
(b) Hypercapnia
(c) Raised 2,3 DPG level
(d) Metabolic alkalosis
[ANS] d
[SOL]
33[Q] Wasting of the intrinsic muscles of the hand can be expected to follow injury of the
(a) Ulnar nerve
(b) Radial nerve
(c) Brachial nerve
(d) Axillary nerve
[ANS] a
[SOL]
34[Q] Consider the following statements: Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome is characterised by
1. Temperature either above 38°C or below 36°C.
2. Heart rate less than 80/minute.
3. Tachypnoea 20/min.
4. Leucocyte count 4 × 10⁹/L.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
[ANS] d
[SOL]
35[Q] Which type of breast cancer is most likely to be bilateral?
(a) Infiltrating duct carcinoma
(b) Paget’s disease of breast
(c) Lobular carcinoma of breast
(d) Medullary carcinoma of breast
[ANS] c
[SOL]
36[Q] Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Characteristic feature) List II (Scar type)
A Not familial 1 Burn scar
B Outgrows wound area 2 Hypertrophic scar
C Contractures 3 Tattooed scar
D Particles of dirt, soot implanted in wound 4 Keloid scar
(a) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(b) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
(c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
[ANS] b
[SOL]
37[Q] Which one of the following is the best indicator of prognosis of soft tissue sarcoma?
(a) Tumour size
(b) Histological type
(c) Nodal metastasis
(d) Tumour grade
[ANS] d
[SOL]
38[Q] Lympho‐venous anastomosis is done for
(a) Filarial lymphoedema
(b) Lymphoid cyst
(c) Cystic hygroma
(d) Malignant lymphoedema
[ANS] a
[SOL]
39[Q] Which one of the following investigations is considered to be Gold standard technique for diagnosis of arterial
occlusive disease?
(a) Doppler ultrasound blood flow detection
(b) Duplex imaging
(c) Treadmill
(d) Digital Subtraction Angiography (DSA)
[ANS] d
[SOL]
40[Q] Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding thoracic inlet syndrome?
(a) Radial nerve is involved
(b) Resection of First rib is effective treatment
(c) Physiotherapy and position exercises relieve symptoms
(d) Neurological signs and symptoms are common
[ANS] a
[SOL]
41[Q] Haemodynamic changes in pregnancy include the following except
(a) Increase in cardiac output
(b) Increase in heart rate
(c) Decrease in vascular resistance
(d) Increase in mean arterial pressure
[ANS] d
[SOL]
42[Q] The maximum chances of HIV infection being transmitted to the fetus/infant in an HIV infected mother are
during
(a) First trimester
(b) Third trimester
(c) During labour
(d) During breast feeding
[ANS] c
[SOL]
43[Q] Which one of the following statements is not correct about obstetric cholestasis?
(a) It results in pruritis without rash
(b) Associated with markedly high bilirubin and raised liver enzymes
(c) It is an indication of termination of pregnancy at 37 weeks
(d) Risk of recurrence is high in future pregnancies
[ANS] b
[SOL]
44[Q] What is the most commonly observed fetal effect in women receiving magnesium sulphate therapy for pre‐
eclampsia/eclampsia?
(a) Respiratory depression
(b) Variability in fetal heart rate pattern
(c) Cerebral palsy
(d) Intestinal obstruction
[ANS] b
[SOL]
45[Q] Spiegelberg’s criteria for diagnosis of ovarian pregnancy include the following except
(a) Tube on the affected side must be intact
(b) Gestational sac must occupy the position of ovary
(c) Gestational sac is connected with infundibulopelvic ligament
(d) Ovarian tissue should be present in the wall of gestational sac on histopathology
[ANS] c
[SOL]
46[Q] Consider the following markers:
1. Nuchal translucency
2. P A P P – A
3. G T T
4. Inhibin A
Which of the above markers are included in the first trimester screening of Down’s syndrome.?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
[ANS] a
[SOL]
47[Q] The following changes may be seen in pre‐eclampsia except
(a) Decreased anti thrombin III
(b) Hemodilution
(c) Thrombocytopenia
(d) Elevated uric acid
[ANS] b
[SOL]
48[Q] The most common karyotype of a partial mole is
(a) Diploid 46 XX
(b) Diploid 46 XY
(c) Triploid
(d) Haploid
[ANS] c
[SOL]
49[Q] Contraindications to epidural analgesia include the following except
(a) Raised intracranial pressure
(b) Coagulopathy
(c) Infection over the back
(d) Hypertension
[ANS] d
[SOL]
50[Q] Post coital contraception is achieved by all except
(a) High degree of progesterone
(b) By administration of RU 486
(c) Gn Rh agonist
(d) Administration of prostaglandins
[ANS] c
[SOL]
51[Q] Variable decelerations on an electronic fetal heart rate monitor imply
(a) Umbilical cord compression
(b) Fetal head compression
(c) Fetal anemia
(d) Utero‐placental insufficiency
[ANS] a
[SOL]
52[Q] What is the maternal risk of using misoprostol for ripening of cervix during induction of labour?
(a) Tachycardia
(b) Hypotension
(c) Tachysystole/hyperstimulation of uterus
(d) Bradycardia
[ANS] c
[SOL]
53[Q] A 25 year old patient who has had an abortion four months ago has come with the history of profuse vaginal
bleeding. On examination uterus is bulky, both the ovaries are enlarged, pregnancy test is positive. What is the
probable clinical diagnosis.?
(a) Incomplete abortion
(b) Chorio carcinoma
(c) Malignant ovarian tumor
(d) Ectopic pregnancy
[ANS] b
[SOL]
54[Q] Most common newborn rash which presents at 24–48 hours of life is
(a) Erythematous papular pustular lesions
(b) Milia
(c) Transient neonatal pustular melanosis
(d) Haemangioma
[ANS] a
[SOL]
55[Q] Rupture uterus is most commonly encountered after which one of the following surgeries?
(a) Classical cesarean
(b) Metroplasty
(c) Myomectomy
(d) Hysterotomy
[ANS] a
[SOL]
56[Q] Neural tube defects have which one of the following inheritance patterns?
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) X‐linked recessive
(d) Multi‐factorial
[ANS] d
[SOL]
57[Q] The fern pattern of cervical mucus seen in the first half of menstrual cycle is because of
(a) High mucoprotein level
(b) Low mucoprotein level
(c) High sodium chloride level
(d) Low sodium chloride level
[ANS] c
[SOL]
58[Q] Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Abnormality in the fetomaternal unit in placenta) List II (Condition caused/Etiological effect)
A Absence of Nitabuch’s layer 1 Increased exchange of nutrients
B Absence of secondary invasion of trophoblast 2 Adherent placenta
C Thinning of cytotrophoblasts 3 Vasospasm & PIH
D Future of body stalk 4 Umbilical cord
Code :
(a) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
(b) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
(c) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
(d) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
[ANS] b
[SOL]
59[Q] Polycystic ovarian syndrome is associated with the following except
(a) Ovarian carcinoma
(b) Endometrial hyperplasia
(c) Impaired glucose tolerance
(d) Dyslipidemia
[ANS] a
[SOL]
60[Q] Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Syndrome)
A. Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
B. Mayer‐Rokitansky‐Kuster‐Hauser syndrome
C. Swyer’s syndrome
D. Kallman syndrome
List II (Conditions)
1. Mullerian agenesis with 46 XX
2. Female phenotype, 46 XY with absent Mullerian system
3. Hypogonadotrophic Hypogonadism with Anosmia
4. Female phenotype with 46 XY gonadal dysgenesis with patent Mullerian system
Code :
(a) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(b) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
(c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
[ANS] d
[SOL]
61[Q] Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Condition/ endometrial pathology) List II (Choice of treatment)
A Simple hyperplasia 1 Reassurance
B Ovulatory menorrhagia 2 Progestins for 6 months
C Puberty menorrhagia 3 Oral contraceptive pills
D Irregular shedding 4 Hematinics
Code:
(a) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
(b) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
(c) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
(d) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
[ANS] a
[SOL]
62[Q] Which of these can be used for uterine artery embolization for fibroid uterus?
(a) Polyglactin
(b) Ethacridine lactate
(c) Polyvinyl alcohol
(d) Methylene blue
[ANS] c
[SOL]
63[Q] The most appropriate management of a 32 weeks pregnant lady with carcinoma cervix stage 2 b is
(a) Chemo‐radiation followed by labour induction and vaginal delivery
(b) Labour induction, vaginal delivery followed by radio‐therapy
(c) Lower segment caesarean section followed by radio‐therapy
(d) Classical caesarean section followed by radiotherapy
[ANS] d
[SOL]
64[Q] Which one of the following histological types is the most virulent carcinoma of cervix?
(a) Small cell keratinizing
(b) Large cell keratinizing
(c) Small cell non‐keratinizing
(d) Large cell non‐keratinizing
[ANS] c
[SOL]
65[Q] Which of the following is not related to the use of Levonorgestrel releasing intra‐uterine contraceptive device?
(a) Reduction of blood loss
(b) Reduction of pain and dysmenorrhea in endometriosis and adenomyosis
(c) Inhibition of ovulation
(d) Amenorrhea in 50% of cases
[ANS] c
[SOL]
66[Q] Combined oral pills protect the woman against all except
(a) Menorrhagia
(b) Benign breast disease
(c) Pelvic inflammatory disease
(d) Venous thromboembolism
[ANS] d
[SOL]
67[Q] Following statements are correct about levonorgestrel containing intra‐uterine contraceptive device (Mirena)
except
(a) It releases 20 μg/day of levonorgestrel
(b) It increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy
(c) It increases the risk of ovarian cyst formation
(d) It reduces the risk of pelvic inflammatory Disease
[ANS] b
[SOL]
68[Q] Hormonal contraceptive of choice in a lactating woman is
(a) Combined Pill
(b) Multiphasic Pill
(c) Mini Pill
(d) Centchroman
[ANS] c
[SOL]
69[Q] After how many hours of LH surge does the ovulation occur?
(a) 12–24 hours
(b) 24–36 hours
(c) 12–36 hours
(d) 24–48 hours
[ANS] b
[SOL]
70[Q] What is the drug of choice for emergency contraception?
(a) Yuzpe regimen (combined oral pill)
(b) High dose oestrogen alone
(c) Levonorgestrel only pill
(d) Danazol
[ANS] c
[SOL]
71[Q] Which one of the following is not a third generation progestogen used in combined oral contraceptive pills?
(a) Levonorgestrel
(b) Desogestrel
(c) Gestodene
(d) Norgestimate
[ANS] a
[SOL]
72[Q] Minipill containing 75 μg of desogestrel is used for contraception. Which of the following is its schedule of
administration?
(a) Taken once a day pill for 3 months with 7 days pill free interval
(b) Taken once a day pill for 2 months with 7 days pill free interval
(c) Taken for 21 days with 7 days pill free interval
(d) Taken for 28 days with no pill free interval
[ANS] d
[SOL]
73[Q] What is the most common cause of vault prolapse following hysterectomy?
(a) Chronic cough
(b) Obesity
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Failure to identify and repair enterocele
[ANS] d
[SOL]
74[Q] Safe period is calculated by
(a) Length of menstrual cycle
(b) Duration of menstrual flow
(c) Date of ovulation
(d) Length of luteal phase
[ANS] c
[SOL]
75[Q] What is the IUCD of choice in women with menorrhagia?
(a) Lippe’s loop
(b) Copper‐T 200
(c) Copper‐T 380A
(d) Progesterone containing IUCD
[ANS] d
[SOL]
76[Q] Consider the following list of cancers :
1. Ovarian cancer
2. Colon cancer
3. Endometrial cancer
4. Breast cancer
What is the effect of combined oral contraceptive pills on the above?
(a) Protection against 1, 2 and 3
(b) Increased risk of 3 and 4 only
(c) Decreased risk of 1 and 2 only
(d) Increased risk of 2 and 3 only
[ANS] a
[SOL]
77[Q] What is the content of ethinyl estradiol in very low dose oral contraceptives?
(a) 30 μg
(b) 25 μg
(c) 20 μg
(d) 15 μg
[ANS] c
[SOL]
78[Q] Following which of the tubectomy procedures listed below, best result is achieved for reversal sterilization
(recanalization procedure)?
(a) Fallop ring occlusion
(b) Pomeroy ligation
(c) Electrocoagulation
(d) Transvaginal tubectomy
[ANS] a
[SOL]
79[Q] Folic acid deficiency is characterized by the following features except
(a) Macropolycytes
(b) Hyperpigmentation of neutrophils
(c) Microcytes
(d) Howell‐Jolly bodies
[ANS] c
[SOL]
80[Q] Vaccines that can be safely given during pregnancy are the following except
(a) Tetanus
(b) Influenza
(c) Rubella
(d) Pneumococcus
[ANS] c
[SOL]
81[Q] For a screening test, 90% specificity means that 90% of non‐diseased persons will give a
(a) True negative result
(b) True positive result
(c) False negative result
(d) False positive result
[ANS] a
[SOL]
82[Q] Berksonian bias is a selection bias which occurs in
(a) Community based studies
(b) Hospital based studies
(c) Laboratory based studies
(d) Natural exposure studies
[ANS] b
[SOL]
83[Q] The gap in time between the onset of the primary case and the secondary case is called as
(a) Latent period
(b) Generation time
(c) Serial interval
(d) Communicable period
[ANS] c
[SOL]
84[Q] The milk of which of the following contains the least amount of calcium?
(a) Human
(b) Cow
(c) Buffalo
(d) Goat
[ANS] a
[SOL]
85[Q] Among the following, which has the highest quantity of retinol per 100 g of fruit?
(a) Papaya
(b) Orange
(c) Ripe Mango
(d) Tomato
[ANS] c
[SOL]
86[Q] Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication for insertion of intrauterine device (IUD)?
(a) Endometrial cancer
(b) Severe dysmenorrhea
(c) Pelvic tuberculosis
(d) Puerperal sepsis
[ANS] b
[SOL]
87[Q] According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of yellow fever if the Aedes aegypti
index is kept at
(a) below 1%
(b) 2–4%
(c) 5–7%
(d) 8–10%
[ANS] a
[SOL]
88[Q] During the process of chlorination of water, the disinfecting action of chlorine is due to the formation of
(a) Hydrochloric acid only
(b) Hypochlorous acid only
(c) Hydrochloric acid and hypochlorite ions
(d) Hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ions
[ANS] d
[SOL]
89[Q] Kata thermometer is used for recording :
(a) Maximum and minimum temperature
(b) Low air velocities
(c) Relative humidity of the air
(d) Mean radiant temperature
[ANS] b
[SOL]
90[Q] Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Name of disease) List II (Animal host)
A Anthrax 1 Rats
B Leptospirosis 2 Monkeys
C Yellow fever 3 Sheep
D Japanese encephalitis 4 Pigs
Code :
(a) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
(b) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
(c) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
(d) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
[ANS] d
[SOL]
91[Q] Consider the following :
1. Land filling for source reduction.
2. Vaccination of pigs in the risk area.
3. Immunization of children in risk area.
Which of the above are the recommended control strategies for Japanese Encephalitis?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[ANS] c
[SOL]
92[Q] In a community with one lakh population, 20,000 slides were examined in a particular year. Out of these
100 were positive for malarial parasite. What is the Annual Parasite Incidence (API) in this community?
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0.5
[ANS] c
[SOL]
93[Q] The period of time required for the development of the parasite from the gametocyte to sporozoite stage
in the body of the mosquito is about 10–20 days. This period is also referred to as
(a) Asexual cycle
(b) Schizogony
(c) Erythrocytic cycle
(d) Extrinsic incubation period
[ANS] d
[SOL]
94[Q] Which one of the following is a characteristic of Human‐Immune‐deficiency virus?
(a) It cannot cross blood brain barrier
(b) It is resistant to acetone
(c) It is easily killed by heat
(d) It is easily killed by T₄ lymphocytes
[ANS] c
[SOL]
95[Q] With reference to lepromin test, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lepromin test is strongly positive in tuberculoid Leprosy
(b) It is not affected by BCG vaccine
(c) It can be used as a diagnostic test
(d) Its interpretation is done within 24 hours
[ANS] a
[SOL]
96[Q] Amniocentesis in early pregnancy for genetic disorders is a kind of
(a) primordial prevention
(b) primary prevention
(c) secondary prevention
(d) tertiary prevention
[ANS] c
[SOL]
97[Q] Which of the following correctly describes gene therapy?
(a) Synthesis of DNA probes with specific sequence
(b) Mapping and isolation of gene sequence
(c) Introduction of gene sequence into a cell
(d) Use of polymerase chain reaction technique
[ANS] c
[SOL]
98[Q] Which one of the following is a correct combination regarding Indian population?
(a) Blood group AB 20%; Rh negative 15%
(b) Blood group A 40%; Rh positive 80%
(c) Blood group O 40%; Rh negative 7%
(d) Blood group B 33%; Rh positive 99%
[ANS] c
[SOL]
99[Q] The law stating that the relative frequencies of each gene allele tend to remain constant from generation
to generation is known as
(a) Mendel’s Law
(b) Hardy‐Weinberg Law
(c) David‐Morgan’s Law
(d) Lamarck’s Law
[ANS] b
[SOL]
100[Q] Consider the following:
1. Right to be informed
2. Right to choose
3. Right to seek redressal
Which of the above is/are the rights included in the Consumer Protection Act?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[ANS] d
[SOL]
101[Q] Other than cataract, which one among the following is the highest prevalent cause of blindness in the world?
(a) Corneal opacity
(b) Diabetic retinopathy
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Trachoma
[ANS] c
[SOL]
102[Q] Consider the following statements:
1. The deficiency of thiamine leads to the accumulation of pyruvic and lactic acids in the body.
2. Riboflavin deficiency impairs the optimal utilization of pyridoxine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
[ANS] c
[SOL]
103[Q] The ability of a screening test to detect True positives is known as
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Specificity
(c) Positive predictive value
(d) Negative predictive value
[ANS] a
[SOL]
104[Q] In a programme, results analyzed in comparison to cost is known as
(a) Cost benefit analysis
(b) Management by objectives
(c) Cost effective analysis
(d) Cost utility study
[ANS] c
[SOL]
105[Q] The degree to which a specific health care intervention achieves its objectives, when applied in a given
population, is termed as its
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Effectiveness
(c) Efficiency
(d) Impact
[ANS] b
[SOL]
106[Q] ICDS Scheme does not include
(a) Children in the age group of 0–6 years
(b) Primary school children
(c) Pregnant women
(d) Lactating women
[ANS] b
[SOL]
107[Q] Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which the national programs were
launched in India for the given diseases? (Anemia, Filaria, TB, Malaria)
(a) Anemia, Filaria, TB, Malaria
(b) Anemia, TB, Malaria, Filaria
(c) Malaria, Filaria, TB, Anemia
(d) Malaria, Anemia, Filaria, TB
[ANS] c
[SOL]
108[Q] To understand the relationship between weight and height of a group of school children, the data can
graphically be best depicted through
(a) Bar diagram
(b) Histogram
(c) Pictogram
(d) Scatter diagram
[ANS] d
[SOL]
109[Q] In a normal curve, the area of one standard deviation around the mean includes which of the following per
cent of values in a distribution?
(a) 48.6%
(b) 68.3%
(c) 95.4%
(d) 99.7%
[ANS] b
[SOL]
110[Q] A continuous quantitative data can be depicted by
(a) Pictograms
(b) Pie chart
(c) Histograms
(d) Bar diagrams
[ANS] c
[SOL]
111[Q] In which system, continuous enumeration of births and deaths by enumerator and an independent survey by
investigator supervisor is done?
(a) Decadal census enumeration
(b) Sample Registration System
(c) Model Registration System
(d) National Family Health Survey
[ANS] b
[SOL]
112[Q] The following are all residual insecticides except
(a) Pyrethrum
(b) DDT
(c) Gamma BHC
(d) Malathion
[ANS] a
[SOL]
113[Q] Secular trends of diseases refer to
(a) Variation in occurrence across various social Strata
(b) Changes in incidence as per climate
(c) Differences in incidence across different religions
(d) Changes in occurrence over long period of time
[ANS] d
[SOL]
114[Q] Which of the following countries was the first to institute compulsory sickness insurance?
(a) USA
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Germany
[ANS] d
[SOL]
115[Q] Which one of the following statements regarding international classification of diseases, 10th revision (ICD‐
10) is not correct?
(a) It has twenty one major chapters
(b) Each chapter has three character categories
(c) First character of a code is a ‘letter’
(d) It has four volumes
[ANS] d
[SOL]
116[Q] Which of the following fats has the highest concentration of saturated fatty acids?
(a) Butter
(b) Palm oil
(c) Coconut oil
(d) Margarine
[ANS] c
[SOL]
117[Q] The germ theory of disease was propounded by
(a) Robert Koch
(b) Hippocrates
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) August Weismann
[ANS] c
[SOL]
118[Q] Which one of the following is not a utilization rate?
(a) Population bed ratio
(b) Bed occupancy rate
(c) Bed turnover ratio
(d) Average length of stay
[ANS] a
[SOL]
119[Q] Virulence of a biological agent is defined as
(a) Ability of the agent to invade and multiply in a host
(b) Proportion of clinical cases resulting in severe clinical manifestation
(c) Ability of the agent to induce a clinically apparent illness
(d) Proportion of clinical cases in a virgin Population
[ANS] b
[SOL]
120[Q] Which one of the following modes of intervention covers the process of advising a patient to change
his lifestyle in order to prevent any risk factor for a disease?
(a) Health Promotion
(b) Specific Protection
(c) Disability Limitation
(d) Rehabilitation
[ANS] a
[SOL]
