NEET -2025 BIOLOGY

Questions arranged in Chapter-wise & Topic-wise

No. of questions asked

NEET NEET NEET
Chapter

+1
2025 2024 2023
1. Liv. World 0 0 0
2. Bio. Class. 1 2 0
3. Plant King 5 1 4
4. Ani. King 4 4 4
5. Morpholgy 3 5 2 Chapter-1 THE LIVING WORLD
6. Anatomy 1 3 4
7. Str. Org 4 4 4
8. Cell 6 4 4 Chapter-2 BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
9. Biomole. 4 6 4 1. Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom
10. Cell Cycle 1 4 6 proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing
. Trans. in plants -- -- 3 order of complexity of body organization.
. Mineral nut. -- -- 2 A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
11. Photosyn. 2 3 3 B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body
12. Respirat. 1 2 2 organization.
13. Plant Gro 2 3 3 C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino
. Digestion -- -- 2 acids.
14. Breathing 0 2 1 D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body
15. Body flu 1 2 2 organization.
1 E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
16. Excretn 1 2 2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
17. Lc. & Mo 0 3 2
(1) A, C, E, B, D (2) C, E, A, D, B
18. Neural 0 2 2
(3) A, C, E, D, B (4) C, E, A, B, D
19. Chem. Co 4 3 2
Chapter-3 PLANT KINGDOM
NEET NEET NEET 1. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
Chapters
2025 2024 2023 A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
. Rep in Org. -- -- 1 B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
1. Sex. Rep 5 3 3 C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
2. Human Rep. 6 5 2 D. Formation of sporophyte.
3. Rep. Health 1 2 3 E. Release of antherozoids into water.
4. Principles… 3 6 5 Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
5. Molecular bas. 7 6 8 (1) D, E, A, C, B (2) B, E, A, C, D
6. Evolution 1 4 1 (3) B, E, A, D, C (4) D, E, A, B, C
7. Health & Dis 5 6 3
. Strategies.. -- -- 1 2. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the
8. Microbes 4 1 0 following?
9. Biotech-1 6 5 5 (1) Sexual reproduction
10. Biotech app.-2 4 4 1 (2) Asexual reproduction
11. Org. & Ppln 3 2 4 (3) Nutrient absorption
12. Ecosystem 4 1 2 (4) Gaseous exchange
13. Biodiversity 2 5 2
. Evnt issues -- -- 4 3. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes.
NEET 2025 – Biology Analysis Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
Total no. of questions-100 A. Prothallus stage
Grade wise: +1 – 41 , +2 – 51 B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
Difficulty level: Easy – 39, Moderate – 31 , Difficult – 20 C. Fertilisation
Beyond NCERT- D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
❖ MCQ Single correct- 45 E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of
❖ Statement I & II type- 7 water.
❖ Assertion & reason type- 6 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
❖ Multiple statement- 18 (1) B, A, D, E, C
❖ Matrix Matching type- 11 (2) B, A, E, C, D
❖ Diagram based- 3 (3) D, E, C, A, B
(4) E, D, C, B, A

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4. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of Chapter-5 MOPRPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
gymnosperms? 1. Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic
(1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits flower?
(2) Seeds are naked (1) Petunia (2) Datura
(3) Seeds are absent (3) Pea (4) Chilli
(4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction
2. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm
5. Match List-I with List-II. separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:
List-I List-II (1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorhiza
A. Pteridophyte I. Salvia (3) Integument (4) Aleurone layer
B. Bryophyte II. Ginkgo
C. Angiosperm III. Polytrichum 3. Given below are two statements:
D. Gymnosperm IV. Salvinia Statement I: In a floral formula  stands for zygomorphic nature
Choose the option with all correct matches. of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I Statement II: In a floral formula  stands for actinomorphic
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II nature of the flower, and G stands for superior ovary.
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Chapter-4 ANIMAL KINGDOM
1. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards
the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards Chapter-6 ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of 1. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the
that animal? structure of monocot stem.
(1) Acoelomate (2) Pseudocoelomate (1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
(3) Schizocoelomate (4) Spongocoelomate (2) Vascular bundles are scattered.
(3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
2. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is: (4) Phloem parenchyma is absent.
A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion Chapter-7 STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
C. Capture and transport of food 1. Which of the following statement is correct about location of
D. Digestion and Respiration the male frog copulatory pad?
E. Digestion and Excretion (1) First and Second digit of fore limb
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (2) First digit of hind limb
(1) A and B Only (3) Second digit of fore limb
(2) A and C Only (4) First digit of the fore limb
(3) B and C Only
(4) B, D and E Only 2. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by
skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from
3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion the following:
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). (1) The statement is true for water but false for land
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are (2) The statement is true for both the environment
not vertebrate. (3) The statement is false for water but true for land
Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess (4) The statement is false for both the environment
notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced
by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults. 3. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
from the options given below: (1) Aorta (2) Pulmonary artery
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (3) Pulmonary vein (4) Vena cava
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A) 4. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false that acts to link:
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (1) Liver and intestine
(2) Liver and kidney
4. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are: (3) Kidney and intestine
(1) Free living (2) Endoparasite (4) Kidney and lower part of body
(3) Symbiotic (4) Ectoparasite

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Chapter-8 CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE Chapter-9 BIOMOLECULES
1. Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist 1. Match List I with List II:
Biology? List-I List-II
(1) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living A. Adenosine I. Nitrogen base
organisms B. Adenylic acid II. Nucleotide
(2) Physiological approach to study and understand living C. Adenine III. Nucleoside
organisms D. Alanine IV. Amino acid
(3) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms Choose the option with all correct matches.
(4) Behavioural approach to study and understand living (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
organisms (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2. A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
which helps in cell well wall formation, DNA replication and
respiration is 2. The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
(1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophores (1) Cofactor (2) Coenzyme
(3) Cristae (4) Endoplasmic Reticulum (3) Apoenzyme (4) Prosthetic group
3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion
(A), and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 3. Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the
Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to prosthetic group?
package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and (1) RuBisCo (2) Carbonic anhydrase
deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. (3) Succinate dehydrogenase (4) Catalase
Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the
endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi 4. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following
apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face reaction:
of the Golgi apparatus. S – G + S# → S + S# – G
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
from the options given below: S → a substrate
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A S # → another substrate
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (1) Hydrolase (2) Lyase
(3) A is true but R is false (3) Transferase (4) Ligase
(4) A is false but R is true Chapter-10 CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION
1. What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
4. From the statements given below choose the correct option: (1) To separate the chromosomes
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes (2) To synthesize new DNA
are 70S. (3) To repair damaged DNA
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. (4) To regulate cell growth
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that
of 70S are 50S and 30S. Chapter-11 PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 1. Match List I with List II:
70S are 50S and 20S. List-I List-II
E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are A. Chlorophyll a I. Yellow-green
50S and 30S. B. Chlorophyll b II. Yellow
(1) A, B, C are true (2) A, B, D are true C. Xanthophylls III. Blue-green
(3) A, B, E are true (4) B, D, E are true D. Carotenoids IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange
Choose the option with all correct matches.
5. Match List-I with List- II. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
List-I List-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A. Centromere I. Mitochondrion (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
B. Cilium II. Cell division (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
C. Cristae III. Cell movement
D. Cell membrane IV. Phospholipid Bilayer 2. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) It is active only in the dark
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Chapter-12 RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
6. What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis? 1. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is
(1) To separate the chromosomes also known as
(2) To synthesize new DNA (1) Cytochrome bc1 (2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) To repair damaged DNA (3) Cytochrome c oxidase (4) NADH dehydrogenase
(4) To regulate cell growth
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Chapter-13 PLANT GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT Chapter-16 EXCRETORY PRODUCTS & THEIR ELIMINATION
1. Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient 1. Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the
mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.
plants? (1)
(1) Ethylene (2) Abscisic acid
(3) Gibberellin (4) Cytokinin

2. Read the following statements on plant growth and

development.
(A) Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. (2)
(B) Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well
as inhibition of growth.
(C) Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
(D) Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
(E) Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
(3)
Choose the option with all correct statements.
(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, C, E only
(3) A, D, E only
(4) B, D, E only
(4)
Chapter-14 BREATHING & EXCHANGE OF GASES
1. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low
A. Emphysema
Ca++ in body fluid
II. Damaged alveolar walls and
B. Angina Pectoris
decreased respiratory surface 2. Match List-I with List-II.
III. Acute chest pain when not enough List-I List-II
C. Glomerulonephritis
oxygen is reaching to heart muscle I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low
D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney A. Emphysema
Ca++ in body fluid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: II. Damaged alveolar walls and
B. Angina Pectoris
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II decreased respiratory surface
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV III. Acute chest pain when not enough
C. Glomerulonephritis
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Chapter-15 BODY FLUIDS & CIRCULATION
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
1. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A. Nodal tissue
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones Chapter-17 LOCOMOTION & MOVEMENT
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) A, B and C Only (2) A, B, C and D List-I List-II
(3) A, C and D Only (4) A, B and D Only I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low
A. Emphysema
Ca++ in body fluid
2. Match List-I with List-II. II. Damaged alveolar walls and
List-I List-II B. Angina Pectoris
decreased respiratory surface
I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low III. Acute chest pain when not enough
A. Emphysema C. Glomerulonephritis
Ca++ in body fluid oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
II. Damaged alveolar walls and D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
B. Angina Pectoris
decreased respiratory surface
III. Acute chest pain when not enough Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
C. Glomerulonephritis (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV Chapter-18 NEURAL CONTROL & COORDINATION
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
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Chapter-19 CHEMICAL COORDINATION & INTEGRATION
1. Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary
is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
+2
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Chapter-1 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
1. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion
2. Consider the following statements regarding function of (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
adrenal medullary hormones: Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and
(A) It causes pupilary constriction. generally have more than one nucleus.
(B) It is a hyperglycemic hormone. Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum
(C) It causes piloerection. increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore
(D) It increases strength of heart contraction. mother cells.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
(1) C and D only answer from the options given below:
(2) B, C and D only (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A, C and D only (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) D only (3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
3. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II 2. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the
A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia development of a mature female gametophyte from the
B. Relaxin II. Ovary megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
C. Melanocyte (1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
stimulating hormone III. Adrenal Medulla (2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum (3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (4) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 3. Given below are two statements:
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I Assertion (A): A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at
maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
4. Match List-I with List-II. Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.
List-I List-II In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
A. Heart I. Erythropoietin from the options given below:
B. Kidney II. Aldosterone (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
C. Gastro-intestinal tract III. Atrial natriuretic factor (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin (3) A is true but R is false
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (4) A is false but R is true
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4. Given below are two statements:
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not
very colourful and do not produce nectar.
Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen
grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

5. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus
B. Non-albuminous seed II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed
C. Epiblast III. Groundnut
D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon
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Choose the option with all correct matches. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B- III, C-IV, D-I (1) A and E only
(2) A-IV, B- III, C-II, D-I (2) B and C only
(3) A-IV, B- III, C-I, D-II (3) B, C, D and E only
(4) A-II, B- IV, C-III, D-I (4) A, C, D and E only
Chapter-2 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
6. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The
1. Match List - I with List - II.
twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
List - I List - II
(1) They are monozygotic twins.
A. Head I. Enzymes
(2) They are fraternal twins.
B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility
(3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
C. Acrosome III. Energy (4) They have 75% identical genetic content.
D. Tail IV. Genetic material
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Chapter-3 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 1. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I method?
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A. High fatality risk to mother
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
2. Consider the following: D. Less adoption of orphans
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis E. Not available in India
starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to (1) B, D, F only
females. (2) A, C, D, F only
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the (3) A, B, C, D only
primary oocyte. (4) A, B, C, E, F only
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the
endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding. Chapter-4 PRINCIPLE OF INHERITANCE & VARIATION
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY
(1) A and B are true produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green
(2) A and C are true seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
(3) B and D are true (1) Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
(4) B and C are true (2) Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
(3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
3. The first menstruation is called: (4) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7
(1) Menopause (2) Menarche
(3) Diapause (4) Ovulation 2. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
4. Match List-I with List-II. (1) Mendelian inheritance pattern
List-I List-II (2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia (3) Autosomal dominant pattern
B. Relaxin II. Ovary (4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
C. Melanocyte 3. With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for
stimulating hormone III. Adrenal Medulla the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the
D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

5. Find the correct statement:

(A) In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at
the end of 12 weeks. (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2
(B) In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at (3) 1/8 (4) Zero
the end of 8 weeks.
(C) In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of
gestation.
(D) In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of
second month.
(E) In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed
in the fifth month.
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Chapter-5 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 7. Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest
1. Match List I with List II: number of genes?
List-I List-II (1) Chromosome X (2) Chromosome Y
A. Alfred Hershey and (3) Chromosome 1 (4) Chromosome 10
I. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Martha Chase
Chapter-6 EVOLUTION
B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed and dark-stained
1. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of
C. Frederick Griffith III. Loosely packed and light-stained
evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the
IV. DNA as genetic material
D. Heterochromatin evolution.
confirmation
(1) Analogy, convergent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(2) Homology, divergent
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) Homology, convergent
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) Analogy, divergent
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I Chapter-7 HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASE
1. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the
2. Given below are two statements: lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary
Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like
material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as A. thymus B. bone marrow
a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important C. spleen D. lymph nodes
biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is E. Peyer’s patches
unstable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic (1) B, C, D only
material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist (2) A, B, C only
changes by evolving repairing mechanism. (3) E, A, B only
(4) C, D, E only
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
2. Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) Acquired Immunity
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Innate Immunity
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Cell-mediated Immunity
(4) Humoral Immunity
3. Histones are enriched with-
(1) Lysine & Arginine
3. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
(2) Leucine & Lysine
(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
(3) Phenylalanine & Leucine
(2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide
(4) Phenylalanine & Arginine
bonds.
(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody
4. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
molecules.
(1)  (alpha) (2)  (sigma)
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-
(3)  (rho) (4)  (gamma)
terminus of antibody molecules
5. Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in
4. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:
an eukaryotic cell?
A. A mass of proliferating cell
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Rapid growth of cells
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA.
D. Those confined to original location
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
(1) A, B only
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(2) A, B, C only
(1) A, B, C only
(3) A, B, D only
(2) B, C, D only
(4) B, C, D only
(3) B, C, E only
(4) C, D, E only
5. Which are correct:
A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect
6. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be
cancers of internal organs.
made up of three nucleotides?
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. -
(1) George Gamow (2) Francis Crick
C. -interferon activate the cancer patients’ immune system and
(3) Jacque Monod (4) Franklin Stahl
helps in destroying the tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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(1) B and D only Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(2) D and E only (1) C and D only
(3) C and D only (2) A and B only
(4) A and C only (3) D and E only
(4) B and C only
Chapter-8 MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1. Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic
4.
beverage produced by yeast?
(1) Whisky (2) Brandy
(3) Beer (4) Rum

2. Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

(1) Curd production
(2) Ethanol production
(3) Liver disease treatment
(4) Removing clots from blood vessels
In the above represented plasmid, an alien piece of DNA is
3. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be
preparation of household products? chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
A. Aspergillus niger (1) Using ampicillin & tetracycline containing medium plate.
B. Lactobacillus (2) Blue color colonies will be selected.
C. Trichoderma polysporum (3) White color colonies will be selected.
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 5. The blue and white selectable markers have been developed
(1) A and B only (2) A and C only which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant
(3) C and D only (4) C and E only colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the
presence of a chromogenic substrate.
4. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? Given below are two statements about this method:
A. Azotobacter Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the
B. Oscillatoria plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.
C. Anabaena Statement II: The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in
D. Volvox the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
E. Nostoc In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: answer from the options given below:
(1) A only (2) D only (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) B only (4) E only (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Chapter-9 BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES & PROCESSES (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
1. Given below are two statements: (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel
electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. 6. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam
Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near braker from the given figure.
anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an
agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

2. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the (1) A (2) B
equation. (3) D (4) C
(1) N2 (2) 2n Chapter-10 BIOTECHNOLOGY & ITS APPLICATION
(3) 2n + 1 (4) 2N2 1. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of
(1) Complementary dsRNA
3. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene (2) Inhibitory ssRNA
cloning? (3) Complementary tRNA
A. Restriction enzymes (4) Non-complementary ssRNA
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
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2. Given below are two statements: 3. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is
with mRNA. solar energy.
Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during
organisms as a method of cellular defence. photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate (NPP).
answer from the options given below:
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
answer from the options given below:
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3. Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
(1) Human body will elicit strong immune response
4. Given below are two statements:
(2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy
(3) Because of structural variation
of sun from producers to consumers.
(4) Its bioavailability will be increased
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of
thermodynamics.
4. Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
answer from the options given below:
(1) Bacterium (2) Yeast
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Virus (4) Phage
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Chapter-11 ORGANISM & POPULATION (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
1. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst- (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
Chapter-13 BIODIVERSITY
(1) (2)
1. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ
conservation?
(1) National Park (2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) (4)
(3) Zoos and botanical gardens (4) Protected areas

2. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
2. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example A. The Evil Quartet I. Cryopreservation
of which of the following? B. Ex situ conservation II. Alien species invasion
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism C. Lantana camara III. Causes of biodiversity losses
(3) Predation (4) Amensalism D. Dodo IV. Extinction
Choose the option with all correct matches.
3. Given below are two statements:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
wasps in it.
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets
pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Courtesy:
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Chapter-12 ECOSYSTEM
1. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
(1) S.R. Kashyap (2) Ramdeo Misra
(3) Ram Udar (4) Birbal Sahni

2. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an

Ecosystem?
(1) gm–2 (2) KCal m–2
(3) KCal m–3 (4) (KCal m–2)yr–1

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