1.

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a. The airport is temporarily closed, con nue circling.
b. Give way to other aircra in emergency.
c. The airport is unsafe, do not land.
d. Con nue circling and wait for further instruc ons.

2. An aircra is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircra from the rear on
a line forming an angle of less than:
a. 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the la er.
b. 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the la er.
c. 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the la er.
d. 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the la er.

3. 4mm of rain is covering a runway. It is:

a. Flooded
b. Damp
c. Wet
d. Contaminated

4. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircra
flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
a. 1000 above the highest obstacle within 8 nau cal miles of course.
b. 2000 above the highest obstacle within 8km of course.
c. 1000 above the highest obstacle within 8km of the es mated posi on of the aircra .
d. 2000 above the highest obstacle within 8 nau cal miles of course.

5. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be
informed in case:
a. It is a devia on from the track.
b. The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS no fied in the flight plan.
c. The es mated me is in error by more than 10 minutes.
d. Of an emergency.

6. An aircra is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the
survivors of an aircra accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in a form of “X”. This indicates:
a. Need medical assistance.
b. Need mechanical assistance.
c. None of the other op ons.
d. Need food and water.
7. Which does ATC term “radar contact” signify?
a. Your aircra has been iden fied on the radar display and radar flight instruc ons will be
provided un l radar iden fica on is terminated.
b. Your aircra has been iden fied and you will receive separa on from all aircra while in
contact with this radar facility.
c. ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories un l you are
advised that contact has been lost.
d. You will be given traffic advisories un l advised that the service has been terminated or that
radar contact has been lost.

8. The sensi vity of a direct reading magne c compass is:

a. Inversely propor onal to the horizontal component of earth’s magne c field.
b. inversely propor onal to the ver cal component of earth's magne c field.
c. inversely propor onal to the ver cal and horizontal components of the earth's magne c
field.
d. Propor onal to the horizontal component of the earth's magne c field.

9. An accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000psi and the hydraulic pressure is pressurized to
1500psi. The accumulator gauge will read:
a. 1500psi
b. 2500psi
c. 500psi
d. 1000psi

10. Given: True track is 348deg, dri 17deg le , varia on 32deg W, devia on 4deg E. What is the
compass heading?
a. 033deg
b. 359deg
c. 337deg
d. 007deg

11. The earth may be referred to as:

a. An oblate spheroid
b. Ellip cal
c. A globe
d. Round

12. On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the:
a. Parallel of origin
 b. North and south limits of the chart
c. Standard parallels
d. Equator

13. On a direct Mercator projec on, at la tude 45deg North, a certain length represents 70nm. At
la tude 30deg North, the same length represents approximately:
a. 86NM
b. 81NM
c. 57NM
d. 70NM

14. On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5deg apart along la tude 37deg
North is 9cm. The scale of the chart at the parallel approximates:
a. 1:2 000 000
b. 1:6 000 000
c. 1:5 000 000
d. 1:3 750 000

15. Safety is o en improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.:

a. Absten on from any sugges on which may be un mely.
b. Unques oned obedience to all the captain’s decisions.
c. The avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew’s synergy.
d. Expression of one’s self doubt or different opinion for as long as this doubt cannot be
rejected on the base of evidence.

16. Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli:
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen

17. The following ac ons are appropriate when face with symptoms of decompression sickness:
1. Climb to a higher level.
2. Descent to the higher of 10,000 or MSA and land as soon as possible.
3. Breathe 100% oxygen
4. Get medical advice about recompression a er landing.

The combina on of correct statements is:

a. 1, 2, 3
 b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3

18. What is understood by airsickness?

a. An illness caused by an infec on of the middle ear.
b. An illness caused by evapora on of gasses in the blood.
c. An illness caused by reduced air pressure.
d. A sensory conflict within the ves bular system accompanied by nausea, vomi ng, and
dizziness.

19. The metabolism of alcohol:

a. Can be accelerated more by coffee.
b. Can be influenced by easy to get medica on.
c. Is quicker when used to it.
d. Is a ques on of me.

20. In flight, when the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball is on the le ,
the aircra is:
a. Turning to the right with too much bank.
b. Turning to the right with not enough bank.
c. turning to the le with not enough bank.
d. Turning to the le with too much bank.

21. The purpose of the Annunciator unit of Remote Indica ng compass is to:
a. Show whether the compass is opera ng either in the GYRO or COMPASS mode.
b. Indicate that the gyro is synchronized with the detector unit.
c. Advise if the gyro is subject to excessive wander.
d. Display the serviceability of the compass.

22. When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA condi ons, the
calibrated airspeed (CAS) will:
a. Increase at an exponen al rate.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase at a linear rate.
d. Remain constant.
23. The pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the sta c port open causes
the airspeed indicator to:
a. Freeze at zero.
b. Read a li le high.
c. React like an al meter.
d. Read a li le low.

24. A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:

a. 2 degrees of freedom
b. 1 degree of freedom
c. 3 degrees of freedom
d. 0 degree of freedom

25. The aircra radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400mhz is the:
a. Weather radar
b. Primary radar
c. High al tude radio al meter
d. Radio al meter

26. When otherwise clear and calm condi ons exist a sta on on the shore of a large body of water
will experience wind:
a. From the land in the day me and from the water at night.
b. From the water in the day me and from the land at night.
c. Con nually from water to the land.
d. Con nually from land to water.

27. The atmosphere is heated primarily by:

a. Shortwave terrestrial radia on from the earth.
b. Longwave terrestrial radia on released by the earth.
c. The sun’s insola on.
d. Earth bound electromagne c radia on.

28. Which constant pressure al tude chart is standard for a 4781 pressure level (FL50)
a. 700 hPa
b. 850 hpa
c. 500 hPa
d. 300 hPa
29. In the following METAR: METAR YUDO 1630Z 24015KMH 0600 R12/1000U FG DZ SCT010 17/16
Q1018:
a. W/V is 240deg (T) at 15 kilometer per hour, cloud is 4/8 at 100 , QNH is 1018 hPa.
b. Airfield visibility is 600m, runway visual range is maximum of 1000m on touchdown R/W 12,
weather is fog and drizzle.
c. W/V is 240 (T) at 15 kilometers per hour, airfield visibility is 600m, runway visual range at
touchdown in R/W 12 is 1000m showing a tendency to improve in the last 10 minutes, QNH
is 1018 hPa.
d. W/V is 240deg (M) at 15 kt, runway visual range at touchdown on R/W 12 is 1000m showing
a tendency to improve in the last 10 minutes, dewpoint is +16deg C.

30. Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG
VV001. What does abbrevia on PROB30 means?
a. The cloud ceiling should li to 3000 .
b. Probability of 30%.
c. Condi ons will last for at least 30 minutes.
d. Change expected in less than 30 minutes.

31. During a flight over the sea at FL100 from Aga (QNH 1016 hPa) to Kochi (QNH 1016 hPa), the
true al tude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this?
a. The al meter is faulty.
b. The air at Aga is warmer than that at Kochi.
c. The air at Kochi is warmer than that at Aga .
d. One of the QNH values must be wrong.

32. The rate of climb:

a. Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.
b. Is the angle of climb mul plied by the true airspeed.
c. Is approximately climb gradient mul plied by the true airspeed divided by 100.
d. Is the downhill component of the true airspeed.

33. The C of G is:

a. The point on the aircra where the li acts through.
b. The point on the aircra through which gravity appears to act.
c. The point on the aircra where the datum is located.
d. The point on the aircra from where the dihedral angle is measured.

34. A lower airspeed at constant mass and al tude requires:

a. A higher coefficient of li .
 b. Less thrust and lower coefficient of li .
c. More thrust and lower coefficient of li .
d. More thrust and lower coefficient of drag.

35. The cri cal engine inopera ve:

a. Does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
b. Increase the power required and decrease the total drag due to the windmilling engine.
c. decrease the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine.
d. increase the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine
and the compensa on for the yaw effect.

36. The frangible obstacle is classed as:

a. An obstruc on in the take off path that is a minimum hazard to an aircra .
b. An obstruc on that must be removed from any part of the maneuvering.
c. An obstruc on in the take off path that limits the length of the stopway.
d. An obstruc on that must be taken into account for performance calcula ons.

37. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. VTH is the maximum speed for se ng approach flaps.
b. VTH is the correct speed when crossing the Runway threshold.
c. VTH is the maximum speed for an aborted takeoff.
d. VTH is the correct touchdown speed.

38. Lateral stability can be increased using:

a. Wing dihedral
b. Frise ailerons
c. Spoilers
d. Wing anhedral

39. The formula of Mach number is?

a. M= TAS * Speed of sound
b. M= TAS / Speed of sound
c. M= Speed of sound / TAS
d. M= IAS / Speed of sound

40. Which of the following devices is used to counter adverse yaw on rolling into and out of a turn?
a. Differen al ailerons
b. Vortex generators
 c. A yaw damper
d. A dorsal fin

41. The direc on of drag is:

a. Perpendicular to the free steam flow.
b. Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the aircra .
c. Parallel to the free steam airflow.
d. Parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircra .

42. Weight acts:

a. Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis.
b. Perpendicular to the rela ve airflow.
c. Parallel to the gravita onal force.
d. Perpendicular to the chord line.

43. Bernoulli’s equa on states that:

a. The sum of center of pressure and dynamic pressure is total pressure.
b. Dynamic pressure equals stagna on pressure.
c. Sta c pressure equals stagna on pressure.
d. The sum of sta c pressure and dynamic pressure equals stagna on pressure.

44. An aircra DME receiver does not lock on its own transmissions reflected from the ground
because:
a. DME transmits twin pulses.
b. They are not on the receiver frequency.
c. DME uses UHF band.
d. The pulse recurrence rates are varied.

45. Which of the following does NOT affect the accuracy of VDF bearings:
a. Synchronous transmissions
b. Duct propaga on
c. Sky waves
d. Ground reflec ons

46. On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a par cular flight will be
shown:
a. Squawk code, flight level, true heading, airplane callsign
b. Des na on, flight level, ground speed, airplane callsign
 c. Squawk code, flight level, ground speed, airplane callsign.
d. Squawk code, magne c heading, ground speed, airplane callsign.

47. The indicator of the ground VDF equipment responds to:

a. The voice modulated signal transmi ed by the aircra .
b. The carrier wave received.
c. The iden fica on transmi ed from the aircra .
d. The signal being reflected from the aircra .

48. Signal recep on is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate eleva on
and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Naviga on System (GPS) to carry out
independent three-dimensional opera on without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity
Monitoring (RAIM) func on. The number of satellites is:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6

49. The selec on of code 7700 on aircra SSR transponder indicates:

a. Unlawful interference with the planned opera on of the flight.
b. Radio communica on failure
c. And emergency
d. Transponder malfunc on