GUJARAT JUDICIAL PRELIMINARY EXAM 2019

Sr. No Subject Question No.

1 Constitution 41, 60, 79, 92, 94
2 CPC 21, 30-31, 36, 53, 56
3 CRPC 1, 11, 125, 35, 81, 93, 99
4 IPC 5-8, 17, 37, 74-75, 82
5 Evidence Act 4, 25, 28, 32, 59, 88, 96
6 NI Act 55, 73, 90
7 Limitation Act 19, 50, 72, 76, 98
8 Contract Act 2, 16, 49, 80
9 Gujarat Prohibition Act 9
10 General Knowledge 10, 18, 66, 69
11 Reasoning, Numerical, mental ability 22, 38, 63, 77
12 English Language 26-27, 29, 33-34, 43, 48, 61, 64, 68, 85, 91
13 Gujarat Language 3, 13-14, 23-24, 39-40, 42, 100, 44-45, 47, 51-52,
57, 62, 65, 67, 70-71, 83-84, 86, 89, 95
14 Computer 12, 15, 46, 54, 58, 78, 87, 97

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 (B) the burden of proof is on B
1. Which of the following deals with the (C) the burden of proof is on C
period of detention undergone by the (D) none of these
accused to be set off against the sentence Ans. (A)
of imprisonment?
(A) Section 286 of the Criminal Procedure 5. A police officer, tortures Z in order to
Code induce Z to confess that he committed a
(B) Section 428 of the Criminal Procedure crime.
Code (A) A has committed an offence under
(C) Section 588 of the Criminal Procedure Section 322 of the Indian Penal Code
Code (B) A has committed an offence under
(D) Section 289 of the Criminal Procedure Section 328 of the Indian Penal Code
Code (C) A has committed an offence under
Ans. (B) Section 330 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) A has committed an offence under
2. A agrees to sell to B the goods which are Section 334 of the Indian Penal Code
on their way to Chennai from Oman by a Ans. (C)
ship. But before the agreement between
the parties, the ship had sunk and the 6. A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a
goods to be sold to B, were lost. Neither murder. A, in the exercise to the best of
party is aware of this happening. The his judgment exerted in good faith, of the
agreement is: power which the law gives to all persons
(A) Void of apprehending murderers in the act,
(B) Voidable seizes Z, in order to bring z before the
(C) Valid proper authorities.
(D) Enforcement (A) A has committed an offence, while Z
Ans. (A) was acting in self-defence
(B) Both A and Z committed an offence
3. (C) A has committed no offence, though it
may turn out that Z was acting in self
? defence
(A) 234 (D) none of these
(B) 233 Ans. (C)
(C) 233
(D) 235 7. Using as true any such declaration known
Ans. (B) to be false is dealt under
(A) Section 199 of the Indian Penal Code
4. A sues B for land of which Bis in (B) Section 200 of the Indian Penal Code
possession, and which , as A asserts, was (C) Section 201 of the Indian Penal Code
left to A by the will of C, B's father. If no (D) Section 202 of the Indian Penal Code
evidence were given on either side, B Ans. (A)
would be entitled to retain his possession.
Applying Section 102 of the Indian 8. To prove both the parts of the offence
Evidence Act: contemplated in Section 116 of the Indian
(A) the burden of proof is on A

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 Penal Code, which of the following must 11. F.I.R. suggests that
be proved by the prosecution? (A) it is the earliest and the first
(I) to prove the first part, the accused did information of a cognizable offence
abet the offence either by instigation or prevented by an officer in charge of a
by conspiracy or by intentional aiding or police station
by illegal omission. (B) it is the earliest and the first
(II) to prove the first part, the offence was information of a cognizable offence
such which is punishable with recorded by an officer in charge of a
imprisonment. police station
(III) to prove the second part, the person (C) it is the earliest and the first
abetted was a public servant during the information of a cognizable offence
period he was abetted. committed by an officer in charge of a
(IV) to prove the second part, it was the police station
duty of such public servant to prevent the (D) none of these
commission of such an offence. Ans. (B)
(A) (I) and (III)
(B) (1) and (IV) 12. The use of computer work stations to
(C) (II) and (IV) send
(D) (1), (11), (III), (IV) and receive messages is known as:
Ans. (D) (A) Electronic funds transfer
(B) Electronic message switching
9. Which section of the Gujarat Prohibition (C) Electronic mail
Act provides for procedure in (D) Electronic publishing
confiscation? Ans. (B)
(A) Section 99
(B) Section 100 13.
(C) Section 101
(D) Section 98 ?
Ans. (B) (A) 6.
(B) 10
10. Additional Evidence means: (C) 12
(A) evidence let in appeal before the trial (D) 8
has closed in the lower Court, it is a Ans. (B)
privilege allowed only under special
circumstances 14.
(B) evidence let in appeal after the trial 466
has closed in the Supreme Court, it is a -
privilege allowed only under special
circumstances ?
(C) evidence let in appeal after the trial (A) 471
has closed in the lower Court, it is a (B) 472
privilege allowed only under special (C) 473.
circumstances (D) none of these (D) 474
Ans. (C) Ans. (A)

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 (C) Spirit
15. What is usually used for displaying (D) Toddy
Information at public places? Ans. (A)
(A) Monitors
(B) Overhead projections 19. 'Tort' in the Limitation Act, 1963 includes
(C) Touch screen kiosks which of following?
(D) none of these (A) Civil wrong, which is exclusively the
Ans. (B) breach of a contract or the breach of trust
(B) Judicial wrong, which is not exclusively
16. When the pawnor has obtained the breach of a contract or the breach of
possession of the goods pledged by him trust
under a contract voidable ws 19 or 19A of (C) Civil wrong, which is not exclusively
the Contract Act and if the contract is not the breach of a contract or the breach of
rescinded at the time of pledge, the trust (D) none of these
pawnee acquires ........ .... Ans. (A)
(A) a good title
(B) a defective title 20. Which of the following is true of the right
(C) the goods illegally to receive maintenance under Section 125
(D) none of these of the Criminal Procedure Code?
Ans. (A) (A) It is purely a personal right created by
an order of criminal court
17. Which of the following is false of Section (B) There is no charge created on property
34 and Section 149 of the Indian Penal by the order for maintenance
Code? (C) The maintenance cannot he held to
(A) Section 34 does not by itself create any the alienable property
specific offence whereas Section 149 does (D) All of these
so Ans. (D)
(B) Some active participation in crime is
required in Section 34 while it is not 21. Under which of the following provisions of
needed in Section 149 the Code of Civil Procedure, the
(C) Section 34 speaks of common intention Particulars of set-off are to be given in the
while Section 149 contemplates common written statements?
object (A) Order 5, Rule 30
(D) Section 34 requires at least five (B) Order 8, Rule 6
persons who must share the common (C) Order 6. Rule 10
intention while Section 149 requires at (D) Order 10, Rule 22
least two persons to share the common Ans. (B)
intention
Ans. (D) 22. 25, 27, 31, 37, 45, 55 .......... (Complete the
given series)
18. Spurious liquor containing ............... or any (A) 61
other poisonous substance has been (B) 63
defined as "Laththa". (C) 67
(A) Methanol (D) 69
(B) Hemp Ans. (C)

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 (D) Quick
23. 85(2) Ans. (D)

? 27. I... ........... the latest issue of the magazine

(A) in the shop and decided to buy it. (Fill in
the blank with correct phrase/verb.)
. (A) Flipped on
(B) (B) Flipped off
. (C) Flipped through
(C) (D) Flipped out
. Ans. (C)
(D) .
Ans. (A) 28. Extra-judicial confession is weak if it is
made especially
24. (A) before a person with whom the
? accused had no previous contact
(A) (B) before a person whom the accused
(B) URL already knows
(C) (C) before a person who is a co-accused
D) LAN (D) none of these
Ans. (D) Ans. (C)

25. Under Section 63 of the Indian Evidence 29. Choose the word spelt correctly
Act, secondary evidence includes: (A) Felicitate
(1) certified copies (B) Fecilitate
(II) copies made from the original by (C) Feliicitate
mechanical processes, and copies (D) Fecillitate
compared with such copies Ans. (A)
(III) copies made from or compared with
the original 30. Which of the following deals with
(IV) counterparts of documents, as subsequent pleading in the Code of Civil
against the parties who did not execute Procedure?
them (A) Order 8, Rule 9
(V) oral accounts of the contents of a (B) Order 4, Rule 13
document by a person who has seen it (C) Order 6, Rule 10
(A) (I), (III) and (IV) (D) Order 10, Rule 22
(B) (II), (III) and (IV) Ans. (A)
(C) (1), (II) and (V)
(D) All of these 31. Which of the following deals with power
Ans. (D) to
amend decree or order where appeal is
26. Expedient (Choose the Synonym) summarily dismissed in the Code of Civil
(A) Suitable and advantageous Procedure?
(B) Moral or ethical (A) Section 145A
(C) Troublesome or costly (B) Section 103A

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 (C) Section 148A
(D) Section 153A 37. Making atmosphere noxious to health is
Ans. (D) dealt under
(A) Section 278 of Indian Penal Code
32. The principle of ............. is embodied in (B) Section 279 of Indian Penal Code
Section 6 of the Evidence Act. (C) Section 280 of Indian Penal Code
(A) Estoppel (D) Section 281 of Indian Penal Code
(B) Res Gestae Ans. (A)
(C) Presumption
(D) Falsus in uno falsus in omnitus 38. Find the principal when the simple
Ans. (B) interest for 3 years at 5% is Rs. 90.
(A) Rs. 300
33. Manifest (Choose the Synonym) (B) Rs. 400
(A) Boasting (C) Rs. 500
(B) Evident (D) Rs. 600
(C) Destined Ans. (D)
(D) Generous
Ans. (B) 39.

34. Eye: Wink :: Heart: ..... ?

(A) Throb (A) 286
(B) Move (B) 487
(C) Pump (C) 388
(D) Respirate (D) 426
Ans. (C) Ans. (D)

35. The evidence of any person whose 40.

evidence is of a formal character which ?
may be given by affidavit is provisioned (A)
in: (B)
(A) Section 265 of Criminal Procedure Code (C)
(B) Section 387 of Criminal Procedure Code (D)
(C) Section 280 of Criminal Procedure Code Ans. (B)
(D) Section 296 of Criminal Procedure
Code 41. By which Amendment Act to the
Ans. (D) Constitution of India, the provision with
regard to compulsory acquisition of
36. A suit for partition contains which of the property was omitted?
following decree? (A) 44 Amendment
(A) Preliminary decree (B) 42nd Amendment
(B) Intermediate decree (C) 61st Amendment
(C) Final decree (D) 40h Amendment
(D) Both (A) and (C) Ans. (A)
Ans. (D)

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42. 47.

?
.- . (A) 115
(A) (B) 114
(B) (C) 118
(C) (D) 117.
(D) Ans. (B)
Ans. (A)
48. We are were great friends at school but
43. Tam glad we are on the same page with when we went to different university? (Fill
our ideas for this project. (Give the in the blank with correct phrase/verb.)
appropriate meaning to the underlined (A) drifted along
portion) (B) drifted apart
(A) Agree (C) drifted out
(B) Discharge (D) drifted from
(C) Divided Ans. (B)
(D) Deliberate
Ans. (A) 49. Which of the following deals with how
delivery to bailee is to be made in the
44. Indian Contract Act, 1872?
5 (A) Section 149
? (B) Section 135
(A) 90 (C) Section 145
(B) 88 (D) Section 140
(B) 89 Ans. (A)
(D) 82
Ans. (C) 50. Article 94 of the Limitation Act, 1963 will
apply to which of the following
45. institutions?
(I) Hindu religious endowment
? (II) Muslim religious endowment
(A) 97. (III) Buddhist charitable endowment
(B) 96 (IV) Christian religious endowment
(C) 98 (A) (I), (II) and (III)
(D) 95 (B) (II), (III) and (IV)
Ans. (C) (C) (I), (III) and (IV)
(D) (II), (IV) and (I)
46. In MS-Word, by default, a document is Ans. (A)
printed ............. mode.
(A) Landscape 51.
(B) Portrait
(C) Page setup ?
(D) Print view (A) 339
Ans. (B) (B) 348

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 (C) 388
(D) 347
Ans. (C) 56. Which of the following provisions of the
Code of Civil Procedure will be applicable
52. in case of death of one of the several
defendants or the sole defendant in the
? suit?
(A) 339 (A) Order 12, Rule 1
(B) 344 (B) Order 10, Rule 9
(C) 388 (C) Order 19, Rule 6
(D) 458 (D) Order 22, Rule 4
Ans. (A) Ans. (D)

53. Under which of the following provisions of 57.

the Code of Civil Procedure, the Prisoner is
required to be brought to Court in ઉ
custody?
(A) Order 16A, Rule 6 ?
(B) Order 14, Rule 20 (A) 309
(C) Order 19, Rule 21 (B) 310
(D) Order 11, Rule 7 (C) 14
Ans. (A) (D) 311
Ans. (B)
54. The tangible part of a computer system is
called: 58. Internet is an example of:
(A) Input data (A) WAN
(B) Output data (B) LAN
(C) Hardware (C) Intranet
(D) Software (D) MAN
Ans. (C) Ans. (B)

55. In case presentation of instrument for 59. What do you understand by the term
acceptance or payment is delayed, "Leading Question"?
(A) The responsibility of all the parties (A) Question suggesting the answer which
there to end the person putting it wishes or expects to
(B) It becomes ineligible for payment receive
(C) The delay can be excused if it is caused (B) A question asked to contradict the
by circumstances outside the control of witness by his previous writing
the holder and not because of his (C) A question asked with reasonable
negligence, default or misconduct ground
(D) the delay can be excused if it is caused (D) A question asked with a view to check
by circumstances outside the control of the veracity of the witness
the holder, or due to his negligence, but Ans. (A)
not if caused due to default or misconduct
Ans. (C)

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60. Article 51A of the Constitution of India 64. Turpitude (Choose the Antonym)
provides for: (A) Saintly behaviour
(A) fundamental duties (B) Clever conversation
(B) promotion of international peace and (C) Lively imagination
security (D) Agitation
(c) organization of agriculture and animal Ans. (A)
husbandry
(D) protection of monuments and places 65 . , 1963
and objects of national importance 16 (1) (2)
Ans. (A) ?
(A)
61. I needed to study, but I kept beating (B)
around the bush. (Give the appropriate (C)
meaning to the underlined portion) (D)
(A) Getting confused Ans. (D)
(B) Getting angry
(C) Not coming to the point 66. Who is the first Indian to receive the
(D) Feeling scared honour of Bharat Ratna?
Ans. (C) (A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
(B) Ravindranath Tagore
62. ઉ , 1881 138 (C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
? Ans. (A)
(A) 138
, 67. ,
?
. (A)
(B) (B)
. (C)
(C) (D)
. Ans. (A)
(D)
68. Find the odd one out
Ans. (B) (A) Joy
(B) Clever
63. The average weight of 10 men is (C) Happy
decreased (D) Anxiety
by 3 kg when one of them whose weight is Ans. (B)
80 1 kg, is replaced by a new person. The
weight of the new person is: 69. Which of the following latitudes pass
(A) 70 through India?
(B) 60 (A) Equator
(C) 50 (B) Arctic Circle
(D) 73 (C) Tropic of Capricon
Ans. (C) (D) Tropic of Cancer

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 Ans. (D) property or a valuable security or to
constrain to do anything, which is, Illegal
70. , 1963 or which may facilitate the commission of
an offence is dealt under
? (A) Section 329 of Indian Penal Code
(A) 3 (B) Section 330 of Indian Penal Code
(B) 4 (C) Section 331 of Indian Penal Code
(C) 5 (D) Section 332 of Indian Penal Code
(d) 65 Ans. (A)
Ans. (D)
75. Which of the following is essential of an
71. ? offence under Section 114, of Indian Penal
(A) Code?
(B) (A) there was abetment by accused
(C) (B) the act was actually committed in
(D) pursuance of abetment
Ans. (C) (C) the accused was present while the act
was being committed
72. Article 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals (D) all of these
with which of the following? Ans. (D)
(A) Payment of interest on the money due
from the defendant to the plaintiff 76. Which of the following is the limitation
(B) Payment of interest on the money due period under Article 27 of the Limitation
from the plaintiff to the defendant Act, 1963?
(C) Either (A) or (B) (A) One year
(D) None of these (B) Three years
Ans. (A) (C) Five years
(D) Both-One year and Three years
73. Where a promissory note is payable by Ans. (B)
instalments, and two or more instalments
have become due, and the holder of the 77. In a certain code language, 35796 is
note sues only for one of the instalments written
and omits to sue for the other as 44887. How would 46823 be written in
instalments. that code language?
(A) He can afterwards sue for these (A) 57914
instalments (B) 15914
(B) He cannot afterwards sue for these (C) 55934
instalments (D) 55714
(C) Either (A) or (B) Ans. (B)
(D) None of these
Ans. (B) 78. When a file is saved for the first time
(A) a copy is automatically printed
74. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt to (B) it must be given a name to identify it
extort (C) it does not need a name

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 (D) it only needs a name if it is not going 83.
to be printed ?
Ans. (B) (A)
(B)
79. X has been illegally detained by the police (C)
authorities. His father has been advised to (D)
file a writ petition before the High Court. Ans. (B)
Which Writ should be prayed for in such
petition? 84.
(A) Habeas Corpus ?
(B) Certiorari (A) 7 3
(C) Quo Warranto (B) 2 5
(D) Mandamus (C) 4 1
Ans. (A) (D) 6 8
Ans. (B)
80. Which of the following deals with
alternative promise, one branch being 85. Choose the word spelt correctly
illegal in the Indian Contract Act, 1872? (A) Dispatch
(A) Section 56 (B) Dispacth
(B) Section 50 (C) Dispach
(C) Section 55 (D) Dyspatch
(D) Section 58 Ans. (A)
Ans. (D)
86.
81. Which of the following states when ?
accused shall be discharged? (A)
(A) Section 239 of Code of Criminal (B)
Procedure (C) . .
(B) Section 264 of Code of Criminal (D) . .
Procedure Ans. (B)
(C) Section 337 of Code of Criminal
Procedure 87. Ctrl + Z = ........
(D) Section 258 of Code of Criminal (A) Undo last action
Procedure (B) Insert Link
Ans. (A) (C) Minimize Current Window
(D) Bold highlighted section
82. False statement, rumour, etc. circulated Ans. (A)
with Intent to cause mutiny or offence
against the public peace is dealt under 88. A statement by the accused must amount
(A) Section 505 of Indian Penal Code to a confession for the application of:
(B) Section 300 of Indian Penal Code (A) Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 299 of Indian Penal Code (B) Section 13 of Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 351 of Indian Penal Code (C) Section 10 of Indian Evidence Act
Ans. (A) (D) none of these
Ans. (A)

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 (A) the recording of statement of the
89. victim shall be conducted at the residence
? of the victim or in the place of her choice
(A) 159 (B) the recording of statement as far as
(B) 160 practicable must be conducted by a
(C) 161 woman police officer in the presence of
(D) 162 her parents or guardian or near relatives
Ans. (A) or social worker of the locality
(C) Both (A) and (B)
90. What is the presumption to be drawn (D) none of these
under Section 139 of the Negotiable Ans. (C)
Instruments Act?
(A) That the holder of the cheque received 94. Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India
the cheque for the discharge, in whole or provides for protection against:
in part, of any debt or other liability. (A) double jeopardy
(B) That the drawer had duly signed the (B) wrongful restraint
cheque. (C) arrest and detention
(C) That the cheque was dishonoured for (D) child labour
want of sufficient funds. Ans. (A)
(D) That the cheque in question had not
expired on the date of its presentation. 95.
Ans. (A)

91. Inimitable (Choose the Antonym) ?

(A) Inclined to disappear (A) 71
(B) Eager to advise 3D (B) 80
(C) Intelligable (C) 60
(D) Ordinary (D) 70
Ans. (A) Ans. (D)

92. Autrefois acquit or plea of double 96. Under the head subsequent conduct,
jeopardy arises: which of the following types of conduct
(A) When a person is acquited again of the would be material?
same offence (A) Change of life
(B) When a person is convicted again for (B) Evasion of justice
the different offence (C) Fear, trembling
(C) When a person is tried again for the (D) All of these
same offence Ans. (D)
(D) None of these
Ans. (C) 97. Where a row and a column meet, is called
(A) a cell
93. How does Section 157 of Criminal (B) a block
Procedure Code provide safeguards for (C) a box
rape victims? (D) none of these
Ans. (A)

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98. Under Section 6(2), Limitation Act, 1963,
where several disabilities co-exist
concurrently or where the plaintiff is
affected by another disability before
recovery from earlier disability, .............
(A) Time will commence even if both the
disabilities have not ceased.
(B) Time will not commence till both the
disabilities have ceased.
(C) Time will not commence till any one of
the disabilities has ceased.
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

99. Which of the following deals with the

absence of complainant?
(A) Section 235 of the Criminal Procedure
Code
(B) Section 264 of the Criminal Procedure
Code
(C) Section 249 of the Criminal Procedure
Code
(D) Section 242 of the Criminal Procedure
Code
Ans. (C)

100. ઉ , 1881 138

?
(A)

15 .
(B)

.
(C)

.
(D)
.
Ans. (A)

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