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SSAT测试题18

The document presents a debate on whether high schools should require students to maintain a certain GPA to participate in competitive sports, inviting opinions and examples. It also includes various sections of vocabulary matching, analogy questions, and math problems. The content appears to be part of an educational assessment or assignment.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views39 pages

SSAT测试题18

The document presents a debate on whether high schools should require students to maintain a certain GPA to participate in competitive sports, inviting opinions and examples. It also includes various sections of vocabulary matching, analogy questions, and math problems. The content appears to be part of an educational assessment or assignment.

Uploaded by

Joanny
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 39

SECTION 1

Topic: High schools should require students to maintain a certain grade point level in order
to play on competitive sports teams.

Assignment: Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Support your position with
specific examples.
SECTION 2

1. EVASION: 4. AMIABLE:
(A) displeasure (A) friendly
(B) enjoyment (B) indignant
(C) avoidance (C) disjointed
(D) fatigue (D) introverted
(E) attack (E) allied

2. INDISPENSABLE: 5. WRITHE:
(A) essential (A) twist
(B) ungovernable (B) slide
(C) confused (C) topple
(D) impetuous (D) trouble
(E) incontrovertible (E) strangle

3. OBLITERATE: 6. ABATE:
(A) exhibit (A) placate
(B) maintain (B) intimidate
(C) subjugate (C) continue
(D) erase (D) forego
(E) obligate (E) let up
7. ENDORSEMENT: 14. PRELUDE:
(A) standard (A) soprano
(B) editorial (B) postlude
(C) article (C) symphony
(D) approval (D) drama
(E) inscription (E) beginning
8. CONVERT: 15. REVERENCE:
(A) transform (A) simplicity
(B) weave (B) love
(C) translate (C) nonfiction
(D) predict (D) glory
(E) reform (E) respect
9. ERUDITE: 16. UNUSUAL:
(A) eroded (A) sincere
(B) knowledgeable (B) common
(C) meddlesome (C) ordinary
(D) intrusion (D) rare
(E) careless (E) pedantic
10. ENDEAVOR: 17. NOISE:
(A) ability (A) crowd
(B) expectation (B) siren
(C) attempt (C) music
(D) tack (D) locomotive
(E) necessity (E) sound
11. BATTERY: 18. EXPRESS:
(A) group (A) quickly
(B) ambush (B) overnight
(C) delirium (C) holster
(D) corner (D) verbalize
(E) precarious (E) careful
12. PATIENT: 19. KIND:
(A) military (A) equal
(B) tolerant (B) good
(C) multiple (C) quality
(D) irregular (D) significant
(E) leisure (E) hermitage
13. PAINSTAKING: 20. CLANDESTINE:
(A) delicate (A) overt
(B) disease (B) exclusive
(C) medicine (C) fortunate
(D) generic (D) dated
(E) scrupulous (E) secret
21. PREVAIL: 26. CONTEMPLATE:
(A) cover (A) reject
(B) entrust (B) dominate
(C) enlighten (C) ponder
(D) triumph (D) deserve
(E) predict (E) founder

22. PRANCE: 27. CAPRICE:


(A) sing (A) mistake
(B) strut (B) whim
(C) pry (C) idea
(D) boast (D) guess
(E) lead (E) decision

23. PROFOUND: 28. ADAGE:


(A) perplexing (A) humor
(B) absurd (B) permission
(C) deep (C) prevention
(D) stubborn (D) proverb
(E) unfounded (E) disdain

24. LIMBER: 29. DIN:


(A) wooden (A) demonstration
(B) skinny (B) outline
(C) sociable (C) pressure
(D) supple (D) clamor
(E) sober (E) improvement

25. TERMINATE: 30. EXPUNGE:


(A) end (A) label
(B) sell (B) erase
(C) extend (C) assault
(D) renew (D) handle
(E) finalize (E) keep
31. Sun is to solar as______.
(A) ground is to subterranean
(B) earth is to terrestrial
(C) pond is to marine
(D) planet is to lunar
(E) tower is to architectural

32. Botany is to plants as meteorology is to______.


(A) style
(B) weather
(C) flora
(D) health
(E) language

33. Hammer is to nail as______.


(A) chisel is to marble
(B) nut is to bolt
(C) screwdriver is to screw
(D) lathe is to molding
(E) axe is to wood

34. Bone is to mammal as girder is to______.


(A) crane
(B) rivet
(C) concrete
(D) steel
(E) skyscraper

35. Human is to primate as______.


(A) dog is to pet
(B) disease is to bacterium
(C) bird is to amphibian
(D) snake is to reptile
(E) kangaroo is to vegetarian

36. Tremor is to earthquake as______.


(A) faucet is to deluge
(B) wind is to tornado
(C) desert is to sandstorm
(D) flood is to river
(E) eye is to hurricane

37. Amusing is to uproarious as______.


(A) humorous is to dull
(B) interesting is to mesmerizing
(C) dead is to immortal
(D) worthless is to valuable
(E) silly is to serious

38. Fickle is to steadfastness as tempestuous is to______.


(A) ire
(B) inspiration
(C) worthlessness
(D) openness
(E) peacefulness

39. School is to fish as______.


(A) library is to student
(B) flock is to bird
(C) leg is to frog
(D) college is to mascot
(E) fin is to shark

40. Cartographer is to map as chef is to______.


(A) table
(B) meal
(C) ingredient
(D) silverware
(E) flower

41. Adversity is to happiness as______.


(A) vehemence is to serenity
(B) troublesome is to petulant
(C) solace is to sorrow
(D) graduation is to superfluous
(E) fear is to misfortune

42. Extortionist is to blackmail as______.


(A) kidnapper is to crime
(B) businessman is to profit
(C) criminal is to arrest
(D) clerk is to stock
(E) kleptomaniac is to steal

43. Monsoon is to rain as______.


(A) tornado is to wind
(B) famine is to drought
(C) morning is to dew
(D) sun is to spring
(E) hurricane is to destruction

44. Introspective is to withdrawn as______.


(A) quick is to feelings
(B) introvert is to extrovert
(C) import is to export
(D) gregarious is to social
(E) hesitant is to hasty

45. Equator is to world as______.


(A) latitude is to longitude
(B) waist is to man
(C) capital is to state
(D) fur is to animal
(E) boundary is to country

46. Superficial is to surface as______.


(A) crust is to Earth
(B) tepid is to warm
(C) subway is to subterranean
(D) internal is to external
(E) probing is to deep

47. Stagnant is to pond as______.


(A) oceanic is to tide
(B) flowing is to stream
(C) noisy is to sheep
(D) tidal is to wave
(E) sandy is to river

48. Sanctuary is to fortress as______.


(A) sanction is to assassinate
(B) guns is to fort
(C) shelter is to house
(D) violent is to peaceful
(E) sanctum is to inner

49. Mentor is to professor as______.


(A) mental is to physical
(B) tooth is to dentist
(C) child is to parent
(D) learning is to teacher
(E) advisor is to counselor

50. Lucid is to clear as______.


(A) potent is to weak
(B) droll is to serious
(C) pensive is to hanging
(D) furtive is to clever
(E) sullen is to gloomy

51. Height is to mountain as______.


(A) speed is to highway
(B) weight is to age
(C) mineral is to mine
(D) shade is to tree
(E) depth is to trench

52. Oblivious is to awareness as______.


(A) invigorate is to energy
(B) erudite is to knowledge
(C) adroit is to skill
(D) serene is to composure
(E) comatose is to consciousness

53. Bellwether is to barometer as______.


(A) embezzler is to abduct
(B) proselyte is to spark plug
(C) panhandler is to kill
(D) morass is to catalyst
(E) cynosure is to magnet

54. Act is to action as______.


(A) bowl is to bowdlerize
(B) therapy is to thermometer
(C) oblivion is to obvious
(D) liturgy is to literature
(E) image is to imagine

55. Bibulous is to drink as______.


(A) vegetarian is to meat
(B) rapacious is to clothing
(C) controversy is to reconcile
(D) gluttonous is to food
(E) altruistic is to money

56. Venison is to deer as veal is to______.


(A) steer
(B) calf
(C) sheep
(D) lamb
(E) cow

57. Cursory is to superficial as______.


(A) approbation is to consecration
(B) death is to victory
(C) dismal is to cheerful
(D) heroism is to reward
(E) desultory is to aimless
58. Bacchus is to drink as______.
(A) Zeus is to Olympus
(B) Plato is to Aristotle
(C) Orpheus is to Eurydice
(D) Amazon is to ruler
(E) Diana is to hunt

59. Bald is to hairy as ______.


(A) broad is to fat
(B) anemic is to robust
(C) repetitive is to redundant
(D) small is to tiny
(E) fatuous is to loud

60. Gold is to Midas as______.


(A) hero is to conquest
(B) genius is to Shakespeare
(C) devil is to Satan
(D) bird is to eagle
(E) wisdom is to Athena
SECTION 3
1. What is 0.3 expressed as a percent?
(A) 30%
(B) 3%
(C) 0.3%
(D) 0.03%
(E) 0.003%

2. What is 36 expressed as the product of prime factors?


(A) (2) (3)
(B) (3) (12)
(C) (2) (2) (3) (3)
(D) (4) (9)
(E) (6 ) (6)

3. Fred invested $4,000 at a simple interest rate of 5. 75%. What is the total value of his
investment after three year?
(A) $200
(B) $230
(C) $690
(D) $4,230
(E) S 4,690

4. The area of a circle is the same as the area of a square whose side is 7 centimeters. The
radius of the circle is closest to______.
(A) 25 centimeters
(B) 3 centimeters
(C) 3 square centimeters
(D) 8 centimeters
(E) 4 centimeters

5. Solve for x: 8x ‐ 2 = 4x + 6
(A) 3
(B) ‐1
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) ‐4

6. The length of a side of a square is represented by x + 5, and the length of a side of an


equilateral triangle is represented by 3X. If the square and the equilateral triangle have
equal perimeters, find x.
(A) 24
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 8
(E) 4
7. A bag has five green marbles and four blue marbles. If one marble is drawn at random,
what is the possibility that it is green?
1
(A)
9
4
(B)
9
5
(C)
9
5
(D)
20
4
(E)
20

8. The expression 128 is equivalent to______.


(A) 3 2
(B) 3+ 2
(C) 8 2
(D) 2 2
(E) 8+ 2

9.

In the accompanying figure, the legs of a right triangle are 16 inches and 12 inches. Find the
number of inches in the length of the line segment parallel to the 16‐inch side and 3 inches
from it.
(A) 16
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 15
(E) 10

10. On a map, 2 inches represent 12 miles. How many miles would 5 inches represent?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 30
1
(D) 37
2
(E) 75

11. Of the following, 35 percent of $ 27. 05 is closest to______.


(A) $7
(B) $9.45
(C) $10.50
(D) $11.15
(E) $12.25

12. If a factory can make 900 nails every 3 minutes, how long would it take to make 27,000
nails?
(A) 45 minutes.
(B) 1 hour.
(C) 1 hour, 30 minutes.
(D) 2 hours, 15 minutes.
(E) 3 hours, 15 minutes.

13. Sally has x dollars and receives $125 for her birthday. She then buys a bicycle thatcosts
$ 100. How many dollars does Sally have remaining?
(A) x + 125
(B) x + 100
(C) x + 25
(D) x ‐ 25
(E) x ‐ 100

𝐴 𝐵
14. If = 5 and A is greater than 1, which of the following could NOT be the value of B?
3
(A) ‐3
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 15

15. The average of five numbers is 10. If two of the five numbers are removed, the average
of the remaining three numbers is 8. What is the sum of the two numbers that were
removed?
(A) 17
(B) 18
(C) 21
(D) 22
(E) 26

16. The bottom of the shopping bag shown in Figure 4 is placed flat on a table. Except for the
handiest this shopping bag is constructed with rectangular pieces of paper. Which of the
following diagrams best represents all the points where the shopping bag touches the
table?
17. The number of students in a certain school is expected to increase from 1,050 students
in 2010 to 1,470 students in 2011. What is the expected increase to the nearest percent?
(A) 20%
(B) 33%
(C) 37%
(D) 40%
(E) 45%

18. In Figure 5, the distance between W and Y is three times the distance between W and X.
and the distance between X and Z is twice the distance between X and Y. If the distance
from W to X is 3, how far apart are W and Z?

(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 16
(E) 18

19. A fence surrounds a rectangular field whose length is 3 times its width. If 400 meters of
the fence is used to surround the field, what is the width of the field?
(A) 30 m
(B) 40 m
(C) 50 m
(D) 80 m
(E) 90 m

20. Ms. Kirschner receives $60 for every $ 900 she collects from stock sales. How much does
she receive if she collects $ 18,000 from stock sales?
(A) $100
(B) $180
(C) $1,000
(D) $1,200
(E) $1,800

21. David walked from his home to town, a distance of 8 miles, in 1 hour. The return trip
took 3 hours because he made several stops along the way. What was his average rate of
speed (in miles per hour) for the entire walk?
3
(A) mph
10
1
(B) 1 mph
2
2
(C) 1 mph
3
1
(D) 3 mph
3
(E) 4 mph

1
22. 7 is to 21 as is to______.
3
(A) 3
(B) 2
4
(C)
3
(D) 1
5
(E)
9

23. If n = 73 , then ______.


(A) 8>n>7
(B) n = 9.5
(C) 10 > n > 9
(D) 8<n<9
(E) n2 > 100

24.

The sum of which points on the number line above would be equal to zero?
(A) B, D, E, I
(B) C, D, G, H
(C) A, C, F, I
(D) D, E, F, G
(E) B, C, H, I

5
25. How many fourths are there in ?
3
5
(A)
24
5
(B)
12
1
(C) 1
2
(D) 2
2
(E) 6
3
SECTION 4
World War II left much of Western Europe deeply scarred in many ways.
Economically, it was devastated. In early 1948, as the Cold War developed between the
United States and the Soviet Union and political tensions rose. U. S. policymakers
decided that substantial financial assistance would be required to maintain a state of
5 political stability. This conclusion led the Secretary of State. George C. Marshal), to
announce a proposal: the European countries were advised to draw up a unified plan for
reconstruction, to be funded by the United States.
This European Recovery Program, also known as the Marshall Plan, provided
economic and technical assistance to 16 countries. Between 1948 and 1952, participating
10 countries received a combined total of 12 billion dollars in U. S. aid. In the end, the
program was seen as a great success; it revived the economics of Western Europe and
set them on a course for future growth.
1. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Marshall Plan: A Program for European Reconstruction.
(B) The Economic Destruction of Europe.
(C) George C. Marshall: The Man Behind the Plan.
(D) Western European Recovery.
(E) The Aftermath of World War II.

2. The tone of the author toward the Marshall Plan is______.


(A) excited (B) anxious (C) unfavorable
(D) insistent (E) objective

3. All of the following are true about the Marshall Plan EXCEPT______.
(A) it supplied economic aid for a period spanning four years
(B) it gave each of the participating countries 12 billion dollars
(C) it went into action in 1948
(D) it was considered a great long‐term success
(E) it provided economic assistance to 16 countries

4. The passage suggests that the driving force behind the Marshall Plan was______.
(A) a joint U.S. Soviet agreement to assist the countries of Western Europe
(B) George C. Marshall's desire to improve his political career and public image
(C) fear of economic repercussions for the U.S. economy
(D) the increase in tension between the United States and the Soviet Union
(E) a formal request for aid by European leaders

5. Which of the following would the author be most likely to discuss next?
(A) Other successful economic recovery programs employed throughout history.
(B) How George C. Marshall became the U.S. Secretary of State.
(C) The events leading up to Western Europe's economic collapse.
(D) The detailed effects of the Marshall Plan on specific countries.
(E) Developments in the Cold War during and after the years of the Marshall Plan.
During the 15th century, the Belgian city Bruges was the most important
commercial city in the north of Europe. Like Florence in Italy, Bruges derived its
wealth from wool and banking. Ships brought raw wool there from England and Spain,
and carried away finished wool cloth, which was celebrated throughout Europe.
5 Bankers came to Bruges on the heels of the wool merchants —among them,
representatives of the House of Medici. Soon Bruges became the financial center for all
of northern Europe. Merchants from Italy, the Near East» Russia, and Spain all
congregated in Bruges. Even though nearby cities such as Ghent and Louvain also
flourished. Bruges so outshone them in prosperity that the Duke of Burgundy made that
10 city his capital and moved his court there in the early 15th century.
6. As it is used in line 2, the word “derived” most nearly means______.
(A) invested (B) obtained (C) traveled
(D) exchanged (E) created

7. It can be inferred from the text that the arrival of representatives of the House of Medici
in Bruges______.
(A) required the city to provide official translators
(B) secured the status of Bruges as an important financial center
(C) lowered the level of market activity in Bruges
(D) increased the amount of raw wool brought to Bruges
(E) improved the quality of life for all residents of Bruges

8. It can be inferred from the text that the wool brought to Bruges______.
(A) was also sent to rival towns Ghent and Louvain
(B) was woven into cloth, and shipped throughout Europe
(C) was as valuable as gold and other precious metals
(D) was not instrumental in Bruges’ growth as a financial center
(E) was of the best quality available in northern Europe

9. The author most likely mentions “merchants from Italy, the Near East. Russia, and Spain”
in order to .
(A) portray the peaceful cooperation of European countries
(B) illustrate the variety of merchants involved in the wool trade
(C) convey the excitement of Europe in the 15th century
(D) demonstrate how successful Bruges became
(E) indicate the poverty of trade in those countries

10. According to the text, why did the Duke of Burgundy choose Bruges over Ghent and
Louvain as the site of his court?
(A) More painters and musicians lived in Bruges than in other cities.
(B) Ghent was on the verge of a financial crisis.
(C) Ghent and Louvain were too far away from Burgundy.
(D) Bruges was unquestionably the most wealthy city.
(E) Bruges produced a higher quality of wool fabric.

11. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Wool and banking made Bruges the commercial center of northern Europe.
(B) The growth of the wool trade transformed commerce in the Renaissance.
(C) Most 15th‐century cities centered around banking and wool manufacture.
(D) Tired of his court in France, the Duke of Burgundy moved to Bruges.
(E) Bruges outshone Florence in prosperity and cultural diversity.

12. All of the following are reasons why Bruges was an important city EXCEPT______.
(A) its status as the Belgian capital made it a commercial center
(B) its prosperity brought prosperity to other cities
(C) it became the heart of banking in the region
(D) it was a central meeting place for foreign merchants
(E) it provided a venue for wool traders to exchange merchandise
Tea is consumed by more people and in greater amounts than any other beverage in
the world, with the exception of water. The tea plant, from whose leaves tea is made,
is native to India, China, and Japan and was first cultivated for use by the Chinese in
prehistoric times. The plant, which is characterized as an evergreen, can reach a
5 height of about thirty feet but is usually pruned down to three or four feet for
cultivation, It has dark green leaves and cream‐colored, fragrant blossoms.
Cultivation of the tea plant requires a great deal of effort. The plant must grow in
a warm, wet climate» in a carefully protected, well‐drained area. Its leaves must be
picked by hand. (Cultivation in North America has been attempted, but was found to be
10 impractical because of a shortage of cheap labor.) Today, the plant is cultivated in the
lands to which it is native, as well as in Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Taiwan, and South
America.
Tea was probably first used as a vegetable relish and for medicinal purposes. In the
1400s Chinese and Japanese Buddhists developed a semi‐religious ceremony surrounding
15 tea‐drinking. It was not until after 1700, however, that it was first imported into
Europe. Today, the United Kingdom imports more tea than does any other nation‐‐
almost one third of the world’s production. The United States is also a large importer,
but Americans have seemed to prefer coffee ever since the famous Boston Tea Party in 1773.
13. This passage is mainly about______.
(A) tea‐drinking throughout history
(B) the tea plant
(C) the tea trade
(D) the cultivation of the tea plant
(E) the uses of the tea plant

14. According to the passage, the tea plant______.


(A) requires well‐drained soil to grow properly
(B) is the largest import of the United Kingdom
(C) was first cultivated in Japan in prehistoric times
(D) is native to South America
(E) has odorless flowers

15. Why is a large supply of cheap labor important for the cultivation of tea?
(A) Since England and China are far away from each other, many workers are required to
coordinate tea shipments and deliveries.
(B) Since the tea plant is hand picked, many laborers are needed at harvest time.
(C) Since the tea plant can reach a height of thirty feet, several workers are required to
harvest each plant.
(D) Since tea is exported all over the world, a lot of people are needed to handle the trade
complications that arise.
(E) Since tea has been around since prehistoric times, many workers are employed to
protect it and ensure that it doesn't die out.

16. The style in the passage is most like that found in a______.
(A) history textbook
(B) journal entry
(C) newspaper article
(D) passage in an encyclopedia
(E) cookbook

17. Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next?
(A) Current trends in tea consumption.
(B) A description of what China was like in prehistoric times.
(C) Other major imports of the United Kingdom and United States.
(D) The details and aftermath of the Boston Tea Party.
(E) Other examples of plants that have a medicinal value.

18. The purpose of the second paragraph is to______.


(A) discuss historical uses of tea
(B) describe the cultivation of tea
(C) question the importance of tea
(D) describe the role of tea in religious ceremonies
(E) explain why Americans prefer coffee
When you buy a house plant, if the plant is healthy, it is likely to grow successfully
in your home. How do you decide if a plant is sound? First, look at the leaves. If they
are brown at the edges, the plant has been given too much fertilizer or has been kept in
temperatures that are too warm for its species. If the leaves are pale or yellow, the
5 plant has been given too much or too little water. If the leaves are very far apart from
each other on the stem, this may mean the plant has been pushed to grow abnormally
fast, and new leaves will not grow to fill in the gaps. You should look for a plant whose
foliage is dense.
After checking the leaves’ general appearance, look carefully at the underside of
10 the leaves and the places where the leaves join the stem for evidence of insects.
Because the insects that infest house plants are very tiny, it may be hard to see them.
But they leave clues that they are living on the plant. Some secrete a shiny sticky
substance called honeydew on the plant. Others leave behind tiny fine while webs.
Finally, check to see if the plant’s roots are growing out through the drainage hole
15 in the bottom of the pot. If the roots are growing through the hole, the plant has
outgrown its pot, and it may not be the larger container.
19. If a plant has been given too much fertilizer, ______.
(A) there will be tiny webs on the leaves
(B) its leaves may have brown edges
(C) the foliage will be dense
(D) the soil will appear dry
(E) its leaves may be yellow

20. To check a plant's health, examine______.


(A) leaf density (B) the bottom of the pot (C)the stem
(D) leaf color (E) All of the above

21. In context, “infest” most likely means______.


(A) live on (B) grow from (C) secrete
(D) infect (E) eat

22. Too much or too little water will cause______.


(A) large gaps between the leaves
(B) yellow or pale leaves
(C) roots to grow out of the drainage hole
(D) shiny spots on the stem
(E) dark‐colored foliage

23. Based on this passage, a reader can infer that______.


(A) some plants for sale have not been cared for properly
(B) it is difficult to care for a plant at home
(C) a plant's health is based on its environment
(D) plants are forced to grow abnormally fast
(E) all growers of plants for sale raise them in perfect conditions
Is Earth flat or round? Until 1522, most people believed Earth was flat. In that
year one of Magellan's ships completed the first trip all the way around Earth. Long
before scientists thought that Earth was shaped like sphere, so the earth scientists said
that Earth is spherical.
5 The spherical model of Earth is based on such evidence as the following:
The mast of a ship was the first part to appear over the horizon. It was the last
part to disappear. The traditional cry of the lookout in a sailing vessel is, “I see a
mast.”
When ships sailed north or south, sailors observed that the nighttime sky changed
10 in appearance. The North Star rose higher in the sky as they sailed northward. It sank
in the sky as they sailed southward. The position of the North Star changed so gradually
and so evenly that it could only be explained in one way. The ship was sailing on a
spherical surface. When ships sailed far enough south, constellations such as the Big
Dipper could no longer be seen« but new ones such as the Southern Cross appeared in
15 the sky. Would this be true on a flat Earth?
An eclipse of the moon occurs when Earth’s shadow falls on the moon. During an
eclipse of the moon, the edge of Earth's shadow as it moves across the moon is always
the arc of a circle. Only a sphere casts a circular shadow, no matter what position it
is in.
20 The evidence listed above is, of course, still visible today, although a lookout is
much more likely to see a smokestack than a mast. But now everyone can see the
evidence. Many photographs of Earth have been taken by orbiting spacecraft. Other
photographs of Earth have been taken from the moon by the Apollo astronauts.
24. In the context of the passage, the word “constellation” most likely means______.
(A) a pattern of stars (B) the Big Dipper (C) a number of spheres
(D) the North Star (E) a group of planets

25. When a ship sails north, the North Star______.


(A) changes shape
(B) becomes the Southern Cross
(C) rises higher in the sky
(D) sinks lower in the sky
(E) stays in the same place in the sky

26. In the paragraph describing an eclipse of the moon, we can infer that the______.
(A) earth is in shadow
(B) moon has an orbit
(C) earth is spherical
(D) moon is closer to the earth than the sun
(E) earth is flat

27. The title that best expresses the idea of this passage is______.
(A) “The Earth Is Spherical”
(B) “Science Has All the Answers”
(C) “The Meaning of a Lunar Eclipse”
(D) “What We Need from the Moon”
(E) “Magellan’s Trip Around the World”

28. The deduction that the earth is round is based on all of the following EXCEPT the______.
(A) observations of constellations
(B) observations of eclipse
(C) observations of sailors
(D) observations of astronauts
(E) observations of philosophers
The police department of New York City has one branch that many do not know
about, although it was established almost a century ago. This is the harbor precinct’s
14‐boat fleet of police launches, which patrols 578 miles of waters around the city,
paying particular attention to the areas containing 500 piers and some 90 boat clubs.
5 The boats are equipped for various jobs. One boat is an ice‐breaker; another is
equipped to render aid in the event of an airplane crash at La Guardia Airport. All of the
boats are equipped with lifeline guns, heavy grappling irons to raise sunken automobiles,
and lasso‐sticks to rescue animals in the water. They have power pumps to bail out
sinking craft, first‐aid kits, extra life preservers, signal flags, and searchlights.
10 The force of 183 officers have all had previous experience with boats. Some of the
officers are Navy and Coast Guard veterans. Many of the harbor police officers have
ocean‐going Master's or Harbor Captain's licenses. All are highly trained in the care and
handling of engines and in navigation. All are skilled in giving first aid, and each officer
is a qualified radio operator and a trained marks‐man with a revolver.
15 The work of the police includes many tasks. One duty of this force is to check the
operation of the fleet of 43 junk boats that ply their trade in the harbor, buying scrap,
rope, and other items for resale ashore. These boats could just as easily be used to
smuggle narcotics, gems, aliens, or spies into the country, so they are watched closely
by the city's harbor police force. During the last summer, the police launches towed
20 450 disabled boats and gave some kind of help to thousands of others. The officers also
arrest those who break navigation laws or who endanger the safety of bathers by
approaching too near the shore in speed boats.
29. The harbor police were______.
(A) in full force almost 100 years ago
(B) in use before the Civil War
(C) first used in the twentieth century
(D) introduced by order of the mayor
(E) introduced by veterans of World War II

30. The boats used______.


(A) are all equipped with deck guns
(B) are uniform in design
(C) vary in function
(D) can all serve as ice‐breakers
(E) work at Kennedy Airport

31. The harbor police______.


(A) ensure legal traffic in junk
(B) arrest any man found on a junk boat
(C) regulate disabled boats
(D) prevent the resale of scrap material
(E) regulate the admission of spies

32. Their services include______.


(A) first aid, the rescue of animals, and fire patrol
(B) towing, life‐saving, and salvage
(C) ice‐breaking, the collection of junk, and the transportation of aliens
(D) smuggling, first aid, and rescue
(E) customs collection, towing, and the sending of radio messages

33. The police boats______.


(A) unload ships at the piers
(B) assist boats of all kinds
(C) cannot detain other boats
(D) have no responsibility for bathers
(E) warn offenders but do not make arrests
The term “genetic modification” refers to technology that is used to alter the genes
of living organisms. Genetically modified organisms are called “transgenic” if genes
from different organisms are combined. The most common transgenic organisms are
crops of common fruits and vegetables, which are now grown in more than fifty
5 countries. These crops are typically developed for resistance to herbicides, pesticides,
and disease, as well as to increase nutritional value. Some of these transgenic crops
currently under development might even yield human vaccines. Along with improving
nutrition and alleviating hunger, genetic modification of crops may also help to conserve
natural resources and improve waste management.
34. The primary purpose of the passage is to______.
(A) establish that transgenic crops are safe
(B) provide information about transgenic crops
(C) critique the process of genetic modification
(D) praise the virtues of genetically modified foods
(E) overcome opposition to genetically modified foods

35. In line 7, the word “yield” most nearly means to______.


(A) surrender (B) drive slowly (C) replace
(D) back down (E) produce
As he threw his head back in the chair, his glance happened to rest upon a bell, a
disused bell, that hung in the room and communicated, for some purpose now
forgotten, with a chamber in the highest story of the building. It was with great
astonishment, and with a strange inexplicable dread, that, as he looked, he saw this
5 bell begin to swing. Soon it rang out loudly, and so did every bell in the house.
This was succeeded by a clanking noise, deep down below as if some person were
dragging a heavy chain over the casks in the wine merchant’s cellar. Then he heard the
noise much louder on the floors below; then coming up the stairs; then coming straight
toward his door.
10 It came in through the heavy door, and a specter passed into the room before his
eyes. And upon its coining in, the dying flame leaped up, as though it cried, “I know
him! Marley’s ghost! ”
—from A Christmas Carol by
Charles Dickens
36. The word inexplicable means______.
(A) without an expressed reason
(B) incapable
(C) not able to be taken out of
(D) explaining in simple terms
(E) eerie

37. The bell that began ringing______.


(A) could be rung from another room
(B) was attached to every bell in the house
(C) rested first on his glance
(D) was large and heavy
(E) did so by itself

38. The man who was listening to the bell______.


(A) was apparently very frightened
(B) was quite curious
(C) was Marley's ghost
(D) dragged a chain across the wine casks
(E) sat perfectly still

39. The word specter probably means______.


(A) clanking chains
(B) a hazy, recognizable vision
(C) strange noises
(D) a long‐handled sword
(E) a bright light

40. The man in the story______.


(A) recognized Marley's ghost
(B) had been asleep
(C) set the room on fire
(D) first heard noises in his room
(E) is probably a wine merchant
SECTION 5
1.

A unit block for construction is 1 x 2 x 3 inches. What is the number of whole blocks required
1
to cover an area 1 foot long by 1 feet wide with one Layer of blocks?
4
(A) 30 blocks
(B) 60 blocks
(C) 72 blocks
(D) 90 blocks
(E) 180 blocks

2. If the number of square inches in the area of a circle is equal to the number of inches in its
circumference, the diameter of the circle is______.
(A) 4 inches
(B) 2 inches
(C) 1 inch
(D) π inches
(E) 2π inches

3. The least common multiple of 28, 24 and 32 is______.


(A) 240
(B) 480
(C) 672
(D) 1,920
(E) 15,360

4. If 9x + 5 = 32, the numerical value of 18x + 5 is______.


(A) 59
(B) 41
(C) 38
(D) 36
(E) 32

2 5 8 9
5. When the fractions , , and are arranged in ascending order of size, the result is
3 7 11 13
______.
8 5 9 2
(A) , , ,
11 7 13 3
5 8 2 9
(B) , , ,
7 11 3 13
2 8 5 9
(C) , , ,
3 11 7 13
2 9 5 8
(D) , , ,
3 13 7 11
9 2 8 5
(E) , , ,
13 3 11 7

6. If a cubic inch of a metal weighs 1 pounds, a cubic foot of the same metal weighs______.
(A) 8 pounds
(B) 24 pounds
(C) 96 pounds
(D) 288 pounds
(E) 1,728 pounds

7. A micromillimeter is defined as one millionth of a millimeter. A length of 170


micromillimeters may be represented as______.
(A) 0. 00017 mm
(B) 0.000017 mm
(C) 0. 0000017 mm
(D) 0. 00000017 mm
(E) 0.000000017 mm

8. To find the radius of a circle whose circumference is 30 inches,______.


(A) multiply 60 by π
(B) divide 60 by 2π
(C) divide 30 by 2π
(D) divide 60 by π and extract the square root of the result
π
(E) multiply 60 by
2

9. A carpenter needs four boards, each 3 feet 9 inches long. If wood is sold only by the foot,
how many feet must he buy?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
(E) 15

10. The approximate distance, S, in feet that an object falls in t seconds when dropped from
a height can be found by using the formula S = 16t2. In 4 seconds the object will
fall______.
(A) 256 feet
(B) 1,024 feet
(C) 1,084 feet
(D) 2,048 feet
(E) 15,384 feet

1
11,If x is a positive number and y = , as x increases in value, what happens to y?
𝑥
(A) y increases.
(B) y decreases.
(C) y is unchanged.
(D) y increases then decreases.
(E) y decreases then increases.

12. A box was made in the form of a cube. If a second cubical box has inside dimensions four
times those of the first box, how many times as much does it contain?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 27
(E) 64

13. Mr. Adams has a circular flower bed with a diameter of 4 feet. He wishes to increase the
size of this bed so that it will have nine times as much planting area. What must be the
diameter of the new bed?
(A) 6 feet
(B) 8 feet
(C) 12 feet
(D) 16 feet
(E) 20 feet

14. A train left Albany for Buffalo, a distance of 290 miles, at 10 : 10 a. m. The train was
scheduled to reach Buffalo at 3 : 53 p. m. If the average rate of the train on this trip was
50mph, it arrived in Buffalo______.
(A) about 5 minutes early
(B) on time
(C) about 5 minutes late
(D) about 13 minutes late
(E) more than 15 minutes late

15. If 3x ‐ 2 = 13, the value of 6x + 20 is______.


(A) 5
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 50
(E) 80

16. A bakery shop sold three kinds of cake. The prices of these were 25¢, 30¢and 35¢per
pound. The income from these sales was $ 18. If the number of pounds of each kind of
cake sold was the same, how many pounds were sold?
(A) 120 pounds
(B) 90 pounds
(C) 60 pounds
(D) 45 pounds
(E) 36 pounds

17. How many more 9” x 9” linoleum tiles than 1’ x 1’ tiles will it take to cover a 12’ x 12’
floor?
(A) 63
(B) 98
(C) 112
(D) 120
(E) 144

18. If p pencils cost c cents, n pencils at the same rate will cost______.
𝑝𝑐
(A) cents
𝑛
𝑐𝑛
(B) cents
𝑝
(C) npc cents
𝑛𝑝
(D) cents
𝑐
(E) n + p + c cents

19. Which, if any, of the following statements is always true?


(A) If the numerator and denominator of a fraction are increased or decreased by the same
amount, the value of the fraction is unchanged.
(B) If the numerator and denominator of a fraction are squared, the value of the fraction is
unchanged.
(C) The square of any number is greater than that number.
(D) If unequal quantities are added to unequal quantities, the sums are unequal.
(E) None of the above.

20. If the length and width of a rectangle are each doubled, by what percent is the area
increased?
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 100%
(D) 300%
(E) 400%

21. What is the graph of the inequality 4 x 7?


22. 132 ‐ 122 =______.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) ‐4
(D) 40
(E) 25

23. Eric’s test scores were 96, 93, 86, 100 and 94. What would he need on his next test to
have an average of 93?
(A) 89
(B) 92
(C) 95
(D) 100
(E) It is not possible to get that average.

24. Where does the line y = x ‐ 5 cross the y‐axis?


(A) (0, 5)
(B) (0, ‐5)
(C) (‐5, 0)
(D) (‐5, 5)
(E) (0, 0)

25.

If points A, B, C and D are distinct collinear points, and AC is congruent to BC, and B lies
between A and D, and the length of AC is 7, what is the length of CD?
(A) 7
(B) 14
(C) 21
(D) 28
(E) It cannot be determined.

词汇 数学 阅读 数学
1 C A A A
2 A C E A
3 D E B C
4 A E D A
5 A D D D
6 E E B E
7 D C B A
8 A C B C
9 B B D E
10 C C D A
11 A B A B
12 B C A E
13 E C B C
14 E E A C
15 E E B D
16 D B D C
17 E D A C
18 D C B B
19 B C B E
20 E D E D
21 D E A A
22 B D B E
23 C D A A
24 D A A B
25 A E C E
26 C C
27 B A
28 D E
29 D A
30 B C
31 B A
32 B B
33 C B
34 E B
35 D E
36 B A
37 B E
38 E A
39 B B
40 B A
41 A
42 E
43 A
44 D
45 B
46 E
47 B
48 C
49 E
50 E
51 E
52 E
53 E
54 E
55 D
56 B
57 E
58 E
59 B
60 E

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