Biology

Grade 11
Semester 2

By: Yomna Khairy and Nouray Tarek

R3S S’26
Kindly pray for us.
Table of contents:
LO. 8,9:

Modern Biology

Campbell

Exam questions

Questions from multiple resources

LO. 10:

Campbell

Sep up

Modern Biology

Exam questions

LO. 11:

Campbell

Sep up

Exam questions

LO. 12:

Modern Biology

Sep up

Exam questions

LO. 13:

Campbell

Exam questions

LO. 14:

Sep up

Campbell

Exam questions

Evolution questions

Answered exams and websites

 LO. 8,9
Modern Biology
Campbell
 Exam questions (LO. 8,9)
The structure that the sperm does not pass through before they leave the male body is the
A- Scrotal sac
B- Urethra
C- Epididymis
D- Vas deferens
Answer: A- Scrotal sac

Testosterone is synthesized primarily by the

A- Seminiferous tubules
B- Anterior pituitary gland
C- Leydig cells
D- Sperm cells
Answer: C- Leydig cells

The centrioles in the human sperm

A- Contain spindle fibers for division
B- Contain enzymes that digest away the membrane around the egg
C- Is filled with mitochondria
D- Is the name for the package of male chromosomes
Answer: A- Contain spindle fibers for division

The released cell from the ovary after ovulation is:

A- Primary oocyte
B- Primary germ cells
C- Secondary oocyte
D- Polar body
Answer: C- Secondary oocyte

Human sperm cells are formed in the

A- Prostate gland
B- Seminiferous tubules
C- Vas deferens
D- Epididymis
Answer: B- Seminiferous tubules

Increasing the temperature of the human scrotum by 2°C (i.e., near the normal body core
temperature) and holding it there would
A- Reduce the fertility of the man by impairing the production of gonadal steroid hormones
B- Have no effect on male reproductive processes
C- Reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis
D- Increase the fertility of the affected man by enhancing the rate of steroidogenesis
Answer: C- Reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis

The removal of the seminal vesicles surgically would likely

A- Cause sterility because sperm would not be produced
B- Cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body
C- Greatly reduce the volume of semen
D- Enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus
Answer: C- Greatly reduce the volume of semen

The lowest levels of progesterone are secreted during

A- The follicular phase
B- Ovulation phase
C- The luteal phase
D- All the above
Answer: A- The follicular phase

Where does the completion of meiosis II in the female reproductive cycle occur?
A- In the ovary
B- In the upper third of the Fallopian tube
C- In the uterus
D- In the cervix
Answer: B- In the upper third of the Fallopian tube

In the development of male gametes, ............. are formed without cell division.
A- Sperms
B- Secondary spermatocytes
C- Spermat ogonial cell
D- Spermatids
Answer: A-Sperms

Rising estrogen levels in the bloodstream trigger the pituitary to

A- Release FSH
B- Release LH
C- Stop secreting LH
D- Stop secreting FSH
Answer: B- Release LH

Which of the following is NOT involved in a feedback loop in the male reproductive system?
A- Anterior pituitary
B- Hypothalamus
C- Adrenal gland
D- Sertoli cells
Answer: C- Adrenal gland

Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that

A- Both have the same number of chromosomes
B- They are approximately the same size
C- They each have a flagellum that provides motility
D- They are produced from puberty until death
Answer: A- Both have the same number of chromosomes
Which of the following hormones ENDS the ovulation cycle?
A- Luteinizing Hormone
B- Estrogen
C- Progesterone
D- FSH
Answer: A- Luteinizing Hormone

In which phase is the Estrogen hormone released?

A- Follicular Phase
B- Ovulation
C- Luteal Phase
D- Menstruation
Answer: A- Follicular Phase

In a mature female, the menstruation phase started on the 10th day of October, so the ovum will
liberate from the ovary on the .......... day of October.
A- 20th
B- 24th
C- 28th
D- 30th
Answer: B- 24th

Answer: C- Day 25
During the proliferation phase of the menstrual cycle, which hormone influences the

endometrial lining of the uterus?

A- Progesterone

B- Luteinizing hormone (LH)

C- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

D- Estrogen

Answer: D- Estrogen

During the menstrual cycle

A- The follicular cells of growing follicles secrete primarily progesterone

B- Follicle stimulating hormone causes the corpus luteum to secrete estrogen

C-Luteinizing hormone stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete primarily

progesterone

D-luteinizing hormone stimulates several primordial follicles to develop

Answer: C-Luteinizing hormone stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete primarily

progesterone

During the menstrual cycle, The oocyte of a mature Graafian follicle is induced to

complete the 1st meiotic division just prior to ovulation. Which of the following

hormonal stimuli causes this?

A- A. The low estrogen levels associated with the maturing follicles

B- B. The surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) initiated by high estrogen levels

C- C. The gradual elevation of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

D- D. The slow elevation of progesterone produced by the corpus luteum

Answer: C- C. The gradual elevation of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

Which of the following descriptions BEST suit the primary follicles?

A- A primary oocyte surrounded by a single squamous layer of follicular cells

B- An oogonia surrounded by a single cuboidal layer of follicular cells

C- A primary oocyte surrounded by a multilayer of follicular (granulosa) cells

D- A secondary oocyte surrounded by a single squamous layer of follicular cells

Answer: D- A secondary oocyte surrounded by a single squamous layer of follicular cells

All the information necessary for growth, development, and eventual reproduction

of sexually reproducing organisms is present in

A- Sperm cells, only

B- Egg cells, only

C- Zygotes

D- Polar bodies

Answer: C- Zygotes

Answer: A
Answer: D

Answer: C
Answer: C

In which Phase the Estrogen (estradiol) hormone has its lowest level?

A- Follicular Phase

B- Ovulation

C- Luteal Phase

D- Menstruation

Answer: D- Menstruation

Answer: C
Which one of the following statement is NOT correct for spermatogenesis?

A- Spermatogenesis is the formation of sperm cells.

B- Spermatogenesis occurs periodically.

C- Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules.

D- Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) indirectly stimulates spermatogenesis.

Answer: B- Spermatogenesis occurs periodically.

In a mature female, the menstruation phase started at the 7th day of October, so the

ovum will liberate from the ovary at the ……….day of October.

A- 14th day of October

B- 21th day of October

C- 28th day of October

D- 30th day of October

Answer: B- 21th day of October

What is the role of the corpus luteum at the middle stage of pregnancy?

A- It produces the hormones that will support the pregnancy.

B- The fertilized egg will implant by the help of the corpus luteum.

C- The corpus luteum nourishes the embryo at this stage.

D- It does not has any role at this stage.

Answer: D- It does not has any role at this stage.

Spermatogenesis differs from oogenesis in the following EXCEPT

A-In spermatogenesis all four products of meiosis develop into mature gametes.

In oogenesis, almost all the cytoplasm segregated to a single daughter cell (the

egg cell) and the other smaller cells called polar bodies, degenerate.

B-spermatogenesis occurs throughout adulthood, while in oogenesis mitotic

divisions are thought to be

complete before birth, and the production of mature gametes ceases at about

age 50

C-Spermatogenesis is not continuous and prolific in adult males, while oogenesis

is continuous and prolific in adult females

D-Spermatogenesis produces mature sperms from precursor cells in a continuous

sequence, whereas oogenesis has long interruptions.

Answer: C-Spermatogenesis is not continuous and prolific in adult males, while oogenesis

is continuous and prolific in adult females

Statement 1:

"Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). FSH acts on Sertoli

cells, which nourish developing sperm. "

Statement 2:

"Negative-feedback mechanisms control sex hormone production in males by

Testosterone only which regulates blood levels of GnRH, FSH, and LH through

inhibitory effects on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary."

A-The two statements are correct.

B-The two statements are wrong.

C-The first statements is wrong, while the second statements is correct.

D-The first statements is correct, while the second statements is wrong.

Answer: D-The first statements is correct, while the second statements is wrong.

In males, two negative-feedback mechanisms control sex hormone production in

males. One of them is Inhibin hormone that in males is produced by Sertoli cells.

This hormone affects:

A- GnRH

B- FSH secretion

C- LH secretion

D- All the previous

Answer: B- FSH secretion

In a sample of blood of a man (30 years old), the level of FSH is normal while the
level of LH is lower than normal. This man will have:

A- Normal development of spermatogenesis.

B- Abnormal development of spermatogenesis.

C- Normal nourishment of developing the sperms

D- Abnormal nourishment of developing sperms

Answer: B- Abnormal development of spermatogenesis.

From each secondary spermatocyte, ______ spermatid cell(s) is (are) produced;

from each secondary oocyte, __________ polar body(s) is (are) produced.

A- 1,2

B- 1,4

C- 2,1

D- 4,1

Answer: C- 2,1

Which of the following hormones ENDS the Luteal phase?

A- Decrease in the level of LH and FSH.

B- Decrease in the level of Estrogen (Estradiol) and progesterone.

C- Increase in the level of LH and FSH.

D- Increase in the level of Estrogen (Estradiol) and progesterone.

Answer: A- Decrease in the level of LH and FSH.

Answer: A
Choose the correct order for the path of sperm from the testes to outside the body.

A- Ductus deferens - epididymis - ejaculatory duct - penis

B- Epididymis - ductus deferens - ejaculatory duct - penis

C- Ejaculatory duct - ductus deferens - epididymis - penis

D- Penis - ejaculatory duct - epididymis - ductus deferen

Answer: B- Epididymis - ductus deferens - ejaculatory duct - penis

What does the prostate gland secrete into the semen?

A-Alkaline secretion to aid the survival of sperm in the acidic atmosphere of t

he female reproductive tract

B- acid phosphatase

C-thin liquid that helps sperm become motile

D- All of these are secretions of the prostate.

Answer: D- All of these are secretions of the prostate.

What is the sequence of structures through which a mammalian sperm passes after

leaving the penis and before fusing with an ovum?

A- A ureter → uterus→ vagina

B- B vagina → fallopian tube → ovary

C- C vagina → urethra → fallopian tube

D- D vagina → uterus → fallopian tube

Answer: D- D vagina → uterus → fallopian tube

Answer: C

the Cervix is part of the

A- Label 1

B- Label 2

C- Label 3

D- Label 4

Answer: C- Label 3

The primary organ in male reproductive system is testis, in compartive to the female

reproductive system the primary structure will be

A- Label 1

B- Label 2

C- Label 3

D- Label 4

Answer: B- Label 2

The following 3 structures are associated with the natural Reproductive System of a
pregnant woman, EXCEPT:

A- umbilical cord

B- embryo

C- placenta

D- sperm

Answer: D- sperm

The umbilical cord connects the embryo to the __________________.

A- amniotic sac (amnion)

B- placenta

C- cervix

D- uterus

Answer: B- placenta

In the testis, sperm cells develop in the

A- efferent ductules

B- Interstitial cells .

C- Rete testis.

D- Seminiferous tubules.

Answer: D- Seminiferous tubules.

The _______ are the first haploid cells during the process of spermatogenesis.

A- spermatogonia

B- primary spermatocytes

C- secondary spermatocytes

D- spermatids

Answer: C- secondary spermatocytes

The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a

mature human testis is

A- Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-sperms

B- Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid-sperms

C- Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperms

D- Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-sperm

Answer: C- Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperms

Which one of the following statement is correct?

A- Spermatogenesis is the formation of sperm cells.

B- Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules.

C- Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) indirectly stimulates spermatogenesis.

D- All of these are correct

Answer: D- All of these are correct

Which of the following are diploid?

A- Spermatids

B- Primary spermatocytes

C- Spermatogonia

D- b&c

Answer: D- b&c
Answer: B

In the Luteal phase where the corpus luteum start to appear and act as endocrine

gland to release a hormone called …………….. its important to ………..

A- Estrogen – increase the production of oocytes

B- FSH - decrease the ovarian cycle

C- Progesterone - prepare the ovary for the ovulation

D- Progesterone – prepare the uterus if there is implementation occur

Answer: D- Progesterone – prepare the uterus if there is implementation occur

Which of the following might interfere with a sperm’s ability to swim?

A- an acrosome with defective enzymes

B- a defective flagella

C- a defective midpiece lacking an appropriate number of mitochondria

D- both choice (b) and (c)

Answer: D- both choice (b) and (c)

What is the role of the corpus luteum during early pregnancy?

A- It produces the hormones that will support the early pregnancy.

B- The fertilized egg will implant in the corpus luteum.

C- c. The corpus luteum nourishes the rapidly growing embryo.

D-d. The corpus luteum protects the fertilized egg during its transport to the

uterus.

Answer: A- It produces the hormones that will support the early pregnancy.

Testosterone has a negative-feedback effect on

A- GnRH

B- FSH secretion

C- LH secretion

D- A, b &c

Answer: D- A, b &c

From each primary spermatocyte, __________ sperm cell(s) is (are) produced; from

each primary oocyte, __________ secondary oocyte(s) is (are) produced.

A-1,2

B-1,4

C-2,2

D-4,1
Answer: D-4,1
Questions from multiple resources (more than one
correct answer is possible)
The male reproductive system is made up of the following structures, EXCEPT:
a. prostate
b. testicle
c. spermatic ducts
d. vestibular bulbs
e. seminal vesicles
Answer: d. vestibular bulbs

The testicle:
a. is part of the spermatic ducts
b. is a pair organ
c. is located in the pelvis
d. is an oblate ovoid
e. represents the male gonad
Answers: b. is a pair organ, e. represents the male gonad

The testicle:
a. is an endocrine gland that generates the gametes
b. is an exocrine gland, given the secretion of sexual hormones
c. is a mixed gland
d. secretes androgenic hormones
e. secretes hormones with role in the appearance and persistence of primary sexual characteristics
Answers: c. is a mixed gland, d. secretes androgenic hormones, e. secretes hormones with
role in the appearance and persistence of primary sexual characteristics

The roles of the testicle are:

a. endocrine gland (to produce sperm cells)
b. exocrine gland (to secrete androgenic hormones)
c. spermatogenesis
d. generation of semen
e. generation of male gametes
Answers: b. exocrine gland (to secrete androgenic hormones), c. spermatogenesis, e.
generation of male gametes

Regarding spermatogenesis, we can state the following:

a. it occurs at the level of testicular interstitial cells
b. it occurs at the level of the Leydig cells
c. it occurs at the level of the convoluted seminiferous tubules
d. it begins around the age of 14
e. it begins at puberty
Answers: c. it occurs at the level of the convoluted seminiferous tubules, e. it begins at
puberty
The endocrine role of the testicle:
a. occurs at the level of the interstitial cells
b. consists in the secretion of androgenic hormones
c. consists in the secretion of testosterone
d. determines the maturation of the sex organs
e. occurs at the level of the convoluted seminiferous tubules
Correct answers: a. occurs at the level of the interstitial cells, b. consists in the secretion of
androgenic hormones, c. consists in the secretion of testosterone, d. determines the
maturation of the sex organs

The testicle is located:

a. inside a muscular pouch
b. inside the scrotum
c. at the inguinal canal
d. inside the abdominal cavity
e. inside a skin pouch
Correct answer: b. inside the scrotum

The epididymis:
a. is a non-pair organ
b. is part of the external genitalia
c. is attached to the testicle
d. is an accessory gland of the male reproductive system
e. is crossed by the epididymal duct
Correct answers: c. is attached to the testicle, e. is crossed by the epididymal duct

The epididymis:
a. is comma-shaped
b. is crossed by the deferent duct (vas deferens)
c. displays tunica albuginea on the inside
d. is an intratesticular spermatic duct
e. is located on the posterior edge of the testicle
Correct answers: a. is comma-shaped, e. is located on the posterior edge of the testicle

The epididymal duct:

a. is an intratesticular spermatic duct
b. continues with the deferent duct
c. continues with the testicular efferent ducts (vas efferens)
d. part of the extratesticular spermatic ducts
e. ends at the base of the prostate
Correct answers: b. continues with the deferent duct, c. continues with the testicular efferent
ducts (vas efferens), d. part of the extratesticular spermatic ducts

Spermatogenesis:
a. occurs at the level of the straight tubules
b. begins at puberty
c. is stimulated by the LH
d. is stimulated by the testosterone
e. is stimulated by the FSH
Correct answers: b. begins at puberty, d. is stimulated by the testosterone, e. is stimulated by
the FSH

Structurally, the testicle is made up of:

a. intratesticular spermatic ducts
b. lobules, delineated by connective septa
c. the cortical zone, in the center
d. the medullar zone, at the periphery
e. parenchyma, with interstitial tissue
Correct answers: a. intratesticular spermatic ducts, b. lobules, delineated by connective
septa, e. parenchyma, with interstitial tissue

The testicular lobules:

a. are delineated by connective septa separated from the tunica albuginea
b. are separated by interstitial tissue
c. are made up of 2-3 convoluted seminiferous tubules
d. spermatogenesis occurs at their levels
e. there are 300 lobules for both testicles
Correct answers: a. are delineated by connective septa separated from the tunica albuginea,
c. are made up of 2-3 convoluted seminiferous tubules, d. spermatogenesis occurs at their
levels

The convoluted seminiferous tubules:

a. are located in the lobules of the male gonad
b. continue with the deferent duct
c. there are three tubules for each testicular lobule
d. continue with the straight tubules
e. continue with the testicular efferent ducts
Correct answers: a. are located in the lobules of the male gonad, d. continue with the straight
tubules

At the level of the testicle, the straight tubules:

a. are located inside the lobules
b. continue the convoluted seminiferous tubules
c. open in the rete testis
d. open in the epididymal duct
e. are part of the intratesticular spermatic ducts
Correct answers: b. continue the convoluted seminiferous tubules, c. open in the rete testis,
e. are part of the intratesticular spermatic ducts

At the level of the testicle, the efferent ducts:

a. continue the rete testis
b. open in the epididymal duct
c. open in the deferent duct
d. are 30
e. are extratesticular spermatic ducts
Correct answers: a. continue the rete testis, b. open in the epididymal duct

The rete testis interposes between:

a. the convoluted seminiferous tubules
b. the epididymal duct
c. the straight tubules
d. the efferent ducts
e. the deferent duct
Correct answers: c. the straight tubules, d. the efferent ducts

The testicle vascularization:

a. the arterial one is provided by the gonadal artery, a branch off the abdominal aorta
b. the venous one is tributary to the internal iliac vein
c. the arterial one is provided by the testicular artery, a branch off the internal iliac artery
d. the venous one is tributary to the inferior vena cava
e. the lymphatic one is represented by vessels parallel with the veins
Correct answers: a. the arterial one is provided by the gonadal artery, a branch off the
abdominal aorta, d. the venous one is tributary to the inferior vena cava, e. the lymphatic one
is represented by vessels parallel with the veins

The deferent duct joins with the …….. and forms………:

a. the seminal vesicle duct
b. the urethra
c. the ejaculatory duct
d. the epididymal duct
e. the rete testis
Correct answer: c. the ejaculatory duct

The deferent duct (vas deferens):

a. joins with the seminal vesicle duct and forms the ejaculatory duct
b. continues the rete testis
c. continues the epididymal duct
d. is an extratesticular spermatic duct
e. ends at the base of the prostate
Correct answers: a. joins with the seminal vesicle duct and forms the ejaculatory duct, c.
continues the epididymal duct, d. is an extratesticular spermatic duct

The ejaculatory duct:

a. forms by the joining of the deferent duct with the seminal vesicle duct
b. opens in the urethra
c. is an extratesticular spermatic duct
d. is an intratesticular spermatic duct
e. continues the epididymal duct
Correct answers: a. forms by the joining of the deferent duct with the seminal vesicle duct, b.
opens in the urethra, c. is an extratesticular spermatic duct
The accessory glands of the male reproductive system are:
a. corpus spongiosum;
b. corpus cavernosum;
c. penis;
d. seminal vesicles;
e. prostate.

Correct answer: d. seminal vesicles, e. prostate

The seminal vesicle:

a. is located above the prostate;
b. is a pair organ;
c. is located medially from the deferent ducts;
d. has endocrine role, generating the seminal fluid;
e. has exocrine role, secreting the sperm cells.

Correct answer: a. is located above the prostate, b. is a pair organ

The seminal vesicle secretes:

a. androgenic hormones;
b. sperm cells;
c. a fluid eliminated in the ejaculatory ducts;
d. a fluid whose role is to transport sperm cells;
e. a fluid that takes part in the maturation of sperm cells.

Correct answer: c. a fluid eliminated in the ejaculatory ducts, d. a fluid whose role is to
transport sperm cells, e. a fluid that takes part in the maturation of sperm cells

The prostate:
a. is located under the urinary bladder;
b. is located around the initial segment of the urethra;
c. is an accessory gland of the male reproductive system;
d. secretes androgenic hormones;
e. is a pair organ.

Correct answer: a. is located under the urinary bladder, b. is located around the initial
segment of the urethra, c. is an accessory gland of the male reproductive system

The following statements about the prostate are true:

a. it is an exocrine glandular organ;
b. it is an unpaired organ;
c. it secretes a fluid that is part of the semen;
d. it is vascularized by a branch of the internal iliac artery;
e. the venous blood is drained in the inferior vena cava.

Correct answer: a. it is an exocrine glandular organ, b. it is an unpaired organ, c. it secretes a

fluid that is part of the semen, d. it is vascularized by a branch of the internal iliac artery
The external male genital organs are represented by the following structures, EXCEPT:
a. penis;
b. seminal ducts;
c. corpus spongiosum;
d. corpora cavernosa;
e. prostate.

Correct answer: e. prostate

About the external male genital organ, we can state the following:
a. it is part of the urinary ducts, being a urination organ;
b. it is represented by the urethra;
c. it is a pair organ;
d. it is located above the scrotum, anterior to the pubic symphysis;
e. it is located inside the scrotal bursa.

Correct answer: a. it is part of the urinary ducts, being a urination organ, d. it is located above
the scrotum, anterior to the pubic symphysis

The external male genital organ displays:

a. a corpus spongiosum that surrounds the urethra;
b. numerous blood vessels;
c. two corpora cavernosa;
d. root, attached to the pelvis bones;
e. body, located inside the scrotal bursae.

Correct answer: a. a corpus spongiosum that surrounds the urethra, b. numerous blood
vessels, c. two corpora cavernosa, d. root, attached to the pelvic bones

The scrotum:
a. is located above the external male genital organ;
b. shelters the male gonad;
c. is made up of concentric tunics, a continuation of the ones from the anterior abdominal wall;
d. is part of the external genital organs;
e. is part of the erectile organs of the external male genital organs.

Correct answer: b. shelters the male gonad, c. is made up of concentric tunics, a continuation
of the ones from the anterior abdominal wall, d. is part of the external genital organs

The internal male genital organs are represented by the following structures, EXCEPT:
a. testicles;
b. deferent ducts;
c. corpora cavernosa;
d. bulbourethral glands;
e. penis.

Correct answer: c. corpora cavernosa, e. penis

Spermatogenesis:
a. occurs in several stages;
b. includes stages of meiosis I;
c. includes stages of meiosis II;
d. it is stimulated by the FSH;
e. it is inhibited by the LH.

Correct answer: a. occurs in several stages, b. includes stages of meiosis I, c. includes stages
of meiosis II, d. it is stimulated by the FSH

The spermatozoon:
a. is the primordial male cell;
b. is a microscopic cell;
c. forms within the interstitial cells;
d. is a diploid cell;
e. is stored within the epididymis.

Correct answer: b. is a microscopic cell, e. is stored within the epididymis

The spermatozoon is made up of:

a. head;
b. mid piece or neck;
c. flagellum;
d. body;
e. acrosome.

Correct answer: a. head, b. mid piece or neck, c. flagellum, e. acrosome

The spermatozoon contains:

a. 11 pairs of somatic chromosomes;
b. one sexual chromosome;
c. the X sex chromosome;
d. the Y sex chromosome;
e. only the Y sex chromosome.

Correct answer: b. one sexual chromosome, c. the X sex chromosome, d. the Y sex
chromosome

The sperm cells:

a. become mobile in the seminal fluid;
b. are microscopic cells;
c. are stored in the scrotum;
d. are of three different kinds;
e. are formed by spermatogonia mitosis.

Correct answer: a. become mobile in the seminal fluid, b. are microscopic cells, e. are formed
by spermatogonia mitosis
The primary spermatocytes:
a. are formed by spermatogonia mitosis;
b. have a complete number of chromosomes;
c. generate secondary spermatocytes;
d. are diploid cells;
e. generate the sperm cells.

Correct answer: a. are formed by spermatogonia mitosis, b. have a complete number of

chromosomes, c. generate secondary spermatocytes, d. are diploid cells

Testosterone is secreted by the following structures, EXCEPT:

a. prostate;
b. testicular interstitial cells;
c. seminiferous tubules;
d. straight tubules;
e. epididymis.

Correct answer: a. prostate, d. straight tubules, e. epididymis

The following secondary sexual characteristics are influenced by testosterone:

a. skeleton;
b. voice;
c. the secretory modification of the spermatogenic epithelium;
d. the distribution of excess fat;
e. musculature.

Correct answer: a. skeleton, b. voice, c. the secretory modification of the spermatogenic

epithelium, e. musculature

The testosterone secretion is controlled by:

a. the FSH;
b. the LH;
c. the corticoadrenal;
d. the negative feedback of the posterior pituitary;
e. by negative feedback of the anterior pituitary.

Correct answer: b. the LH, e. by negative feedback of the anterior pituitary

The semen contains liquids originating from:

a. prostate;
b. scrotum;
c. seminal vesicles;
d. epididymal duct;
e. deferent duct.

Correct answer: a. prostate, c. seminal vesicles, d. epididymal duct, e. deferent duct

The testicle secretes the following hormones:

a. androgenic;
b. progesterone;
c. testosterone;
d. progesterone;
e. estrogens.

Correct answer: a. androgenic, c. testosterone

The female reproductive system includes the following structures:

a. ovary;
b. Fallopian tubes;
c. vagina;
d. vulva;
e. urethra.

Correct answer: a. ovary, b. Fallopian tubes, c. vagina, d. vulva

The female genitive ducts include the following structures:

a. uterus;
b. vulva;
c. vagina;
d. Fallopian tubes;
e. ovary.

Correct answer: a. uterus, c. vagina, d. Fallopian tubes

The female gonad:

a. is represented by the ovary;
b. is represented by the Fallopian tube;
c. is a mixed gonad;
d. secretes the female gametes, the ovarian follicles;
e. is represented by the mammary gland.

Correct answer: a. is represented by the ovary, c. is a mixed gonad, d. secretes the female
gametes, the ovarian follicles

The ovary is located in the:

a. abdominal cavity;
b. pelvic cavity;
c. inguinal region;
d. lumbar region;
e. ovarian fossa.

Correct answer: b. pelvic cavity, e. ovarian fossa

Which statement about the ovary is not true:

a. it is a pair organ;
b. it is a gland with mixed role;
c. it is oval-shaped;
d. it is part of the female genitive ducts;
e. it is located in the right flank.

Correct answer: d. it is part of the female genitive ducts, e. it is located in the right flank

The ovary:
a. is a gland with mixed role;
b. has exocrine role, secreting the female sexual hormones;
c. has endocrine role, generating the ovules;
d. represents the female gonad;
e. secretes estrogens and testosterone.

Correct answer: a. is a gland with mixed role, c. has endocrine role, generating the ovules, d.
represents the female gonad, e. secretes estrogens and testosterone

The ovary displays:

a. two sides and two edges;
b. a lateral side, on the lateral wall of the pelvic cavity;
c. a medial side, covered by the Fallopian tube infundibulum;
d. a superior extremity, bound to the vagina by ligaments;
e. an inferior extremity, bound to the rectum by ligaments.

Correct answer: a. two sides and two edges, b. a lateral side, on the lateral wall of the pelvic
cavity, c. a medial side, covered by the Fallopian tube infundibulum

Select the correct statements regarding the ovary:

a. it is covered on the surface by a simple epithelium;
b. it displays the glandular parenchyma on the inside;
c. it contains follicles at various stages of development;
d. it connects by ligaments to the Fallopian tube;
e. it is vascularized by the ovarian artery, a branch off the internal iliac artery.

Correct answer: a. it is covered on the surface by a simple epithelium, b. it displays the

glandular parenchyma on the inside, c. it contains follicles at various stages of development

The ovary connects by ligaments to:

a. the uterus;
b. the Fallopian tubes;
c. the rectum;
d. the pelvic walls;
e. the vulva.

Correct answer: a. the uterus, d. the pelvic walls

Structurally, the ovary displays:

a. on the outside, an elastic tissue;
b. on the surface, the glandular parenchyma;
c. the cortical area, which contains ovarian follicles;
d. the medullar area, which contains blood vessels;
e. on the outside, a connective membrane, the albuginea.

Correct answer: c. the cortical area, which contains ovarian follicles, d. the medullar area,
which contains blood vessels, e. on the outside, a connective membrane, the albuginea

The ovarian follicles are located in the following structures, EXCEPT:

a. the Fallopian tubes;
b. the uterus;
c. the medullar area of the ovary;
d. the cortical area of the ovary;
e. the albuginea.

Correct answer: a. the Fallopian tubes, b. the uterus, c. the medullar area of the ovary

The cortical area of the ovary contains:

a. primordial follicles;
b. mature follicles;
c. secondary follicles;
d. blood vessels;
e. lymphatic vessels.

Correct answer: a. primordial follicles, b. mature follicles, c. secondary follicles

The medullar area of the ovary contains:

a. blood vessels;
b. vegetative (autonomic) nerve fibers;
c. lymphatic vessels;
d. primary follicles;
e. secondary follicles.

Correct answer: a. blood vessels, b. vegetative (autonomic) nerve fibers, c. lymphatic vessels

Which statements about the ovarian follicles are true:

a. they are located in the cortical area of the ovary;
b. they are present in the ovary since birth;
c. they are formed in the ovary at puberty;
d. they are found in successive stages of evolution;
e. monthly, a single ovarian follicle matures.

Correct answer: a. they are located in the cortical area of the ovary, b. they are present in the
ovary since birth, d. they are found in successive stages of evolution, e. monthly, a single
ovarian follicle matures

The evolutionary stages of the ovarian follicles are:

a. secondary;
b. tertiary (de Graaf);
c. primordial;
d. evolutionary;
e. mature (cavitary).

Correct answer: a. secondary, b. tertiary (de Graaf), c. primordial, e. mature (cavitary)

The ovule forms in:

a. the medullar area of the ovary;
b. the mature ovarian follicle;
c. the Fallopian tube;
d. the uterus;
e. the germinating epithelium of the cortical area of the ovary.

Correct answer: b. the mature ovarian follicle, e. the germinating epithelium of the cortical
area of the ovary

Between puberty and menopause, monthly, the following occurs:

a. the maturation of a single secondary ovarian follicle;
b. the transformation of a primordial follicle into a secondary one;
c. the release of an oocyte;
d. the release of a de Graaf follicle;
e. the transformation of a secondary follicle into a tertiary follicle.

Correct answer: a. the maturation of a single secondary ovarian follicle, b. the transformation
of a primordial follicle into a secondary one, c. the release of an oocyte, e. the transformation
of a secondary follicle into a tertiary follicle

Choose the correct statements:

a. every month, a secondary follicle becomes a mature follicle;
b. the ovary displays a cortical area in which the following are found: lax connective tissue, vessels,
and nerves;
c. monthly, beginning with puberty, a mature follicle transforms into a tertiary follicle;
d. during the female sex life, approximately 400 ovarian follicles become mature;
e. the oogenesis is controlled by the progesterone.

Correct answer: a. every month, a secondary follicle becomes a mature follicle, d. during the
female sex life, approximately 400 ovarian follicles become mature

The vascularization of the ovary is provided by the:

a. the gonadal artery, of the abdominal aorta;
b. the ovarian branch of the uterine artery;
c. the ovarian artery, of the external iliac artery;
d. the Fallopian artery;
e. internal pudendal artery.

Correct answer: a. the gonadal artery, of the abdominal aorta, b. the ovarian branch of the
uterine artery

The veins of the ovary can open into:

a. inferior vena cava;
b. uterine vein;
c. renal vein;
d. internal iliac vein;
e. external iliac vein.

Correct answer: a. inferior vena cava, c. renal vein

The Fallopian tubes:

a. are pair muscular-membranous ducts;
b. are part of the female genital ducts;
c. are located between ovary and uterus;
d. capture the ovule released by the ovary;
e. displays a lateral extremity linked to the uterus.

Correct answer: a. are pair muscular-membranous ducts, b. are part of the female genital
ducts, c. are located between ovary and uterus, d. capture the ovule released by the ovary

The Fallopian tube is linked to the:

a. vagina;
b. uterus;
c. ovary;
d. vulva;
e. abdominal cavity.

Correct answer: b. uterus, c. ovary, e. abdominal cavity

About the Fallopian tubes we can state the following:

a. are funnel-shaped, with edges flared towards the uterus;
b. the medial extremity displays flares;
c. it is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium;
d. the lateral extremity opens in the abdominal cavity;
e. are vascularized by branches off the ovarian artery.

Correct answer: c. it is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium, d. the lateral extremity
opens in the abdominal cavity, e. are vascularized by branches off the ovarian artery

The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube:

a. opens in the abdominal cavity;
b. captures the ovule released by the ovary;
c. displays flared edges;
d. is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium;
e. is linked to the ovary through ligaments.

Correct answer: a. opens in the abdominal cavity, b. captures the ovule released by the ovary,
c. displays flared edges

The Fallopian tube is located between:

a. uterus;
b. vagina;
c. ovary;
d. vulva;
e. rectum.

Correct answer: a. uterus, c. ovary

Corpus luteum:
a. is generated as a result of ovulation;
b. secretes estrogens;
c. secretes progesterone;
d. secretes low amounts of testosterone;
e. turns into corpus albicans if fecundation takes place.

Correct answer: a. is generated as a result of ovulation, b. secretes estrogens, c. secretes

progesterone

The uterus is located:

a. in the abdominal cavity;
b. in the pelvic cavity;
c. in the right iliac fossa;
d. between the Fallopian tubes and vagina;
e. between the Fallopian tubes and vulva.

Correct answer: b. in the pelvic cavity, d. between the Fallopian tubes and vagina

The uterus is located:

a. in the pelvic cavity;
b. posterior to the urinary bladder;
c. anterior to rectum;
d. above the vagina;
e. in the left iliac fossa.

Correct answer: a. in the pelvic cavity, c. anterior to rectum, d. above the vagina

The uterus is a …… organ:

a. funnel-shaped;
b. unpaired;
c. cavitary;
d. paired;
e. muscular.

Correct answer: b. unpaired, c. cavitary, e. muscular

Which statement regarding the uterus is true:

a. it is pear-shaped;
b. the superior extremity is represented by the corpus;
c. the vagina is inserted on the inferior extremity;
d. it is located laterally in the pelvis;
e. it is linked to the Fallopian tubes.
Correct answer: a. it is pear-shaped, b. the superior extremity is represented by the corpus, c.
the vagina is inserted on the inferior extremity, e. it is linked to the Fallopian tubes

The uterus displays the following components:

a. the cervix;
b. the corpus;
c. the head;
d. the midpiece;
e. the isthmus.

Correct answer: a. the cervix, b. the corpus, e. the isthmus

We can state the following about the uterus:

a. it is made up of corpus and cervix;
b. the vagina is inserted on the cervix;
c. the uterine cavity displays a mucous membrane that undergoes cyclical modifications;
d. it has striated musculature, with longitudinal, radial, and circular fibers;
e. it is vascularized by the uterine artery, branch off the abdominal aorta.

Correct answer: a. it is made up of corpus and cervix, b. the vagina is inserted on the cervix, c.
the uterine cavity displays a mucous membrane that undergoes cyclical modifications

About the vascularization of the uterus we can state the following:

a. the arteries branch off the common iliac artery;
b. the arteries are branches off the abdominal aorta;
c. the veins open in the inferior vena cava;
d. the arteries are branches off the internal iliac artery;
e. the veins open in the internal iliac vein.

Correct answer: d. the arteries are branches off the internal iliac artery, e. the veins open in
the internal iliac vein

The vagina is inserted on the:

a. uterine corpus;
b. uterine cervix;
c. Fallopian tube;
d. uterine isthmus;
e. cervix.

Correct answer: b. uterine cervix, e. cervix

The external female genital organs are represented by the following structures, EXCEPT:
a. Fallopian tubes;
b. vagina;
c. vulva;
d. ovary;
e. uterus.

Correct answer: a. Fallopian tubes, d. ovary, e. uterus

The vascularization of the Fallopian tubes is provided by branches off the following artery:
a. uterine;
b. ovarian;
c. external iliac;
d. abdominal aorta;
e. internal iliac.

Correct answer: a. uterine, b. ovarian

The uterine artery vascularizes:

a. the vagina;
b. the Fallopian tubes;
c. the uterus;
d. the vulva;
e. the ovary.

Correct answer: a. the vagina, b. the Fallopian tubes, c. the uterus

The mammary gland:

a. is an erectile organ;
b. is part of the internal genital organs;
c. is an accessory gland of the female reproductive system;
d. is a pair organ;
e. is located on the anterior thoracic wall.

Correct answer: c. is an accessory gland of the female reproductive system, d. is a pair organ,
e. is located on the anterior thoracic wall

The pituitary FSH controls:

a. the maturation of the ovarian follicles;
b. the estrogen secretion;
c. ovulation;
d. the progesterone secretion;
e. the corpus luteum secretion.

Correct answer: a. the maturation of the ovarian follicles, b. the estrogen secretion

The pituitary LH controls:

a. ovulation;
b. the progesterone secretion;
c. the activity of the corpus albicans;
d. follicular maturation;
e. the estrogen secretion.

Correct answer: a. ovulation, b. the progesterone secretion, e. the estrogen secretion

The secretion of ovarian hormones is controlled by:

a. the anterior pituitary;
b. the hypothalamus;
c. FSH;
d. LH;
e. adrenal medulla.

Correct answer: a. the anterior pituitary, b. the hypothalamus, c. FSH, d. LH

Reproduction defines the process of:

a. perpetuation of living organisms;
b. production of genetically identical individuals;
c. fecundation of the spermatozoon by the ovule;
d. growth and maturation of living organisms;
e. production of individuals with the species characteristics.

Correct answer: a. perpetuation of living organisms, e. production of individuals with the

species characteristics

Fecundation:
a. is internal;
b. may take place in the uterus;
c. takes place in the ovary;
d. takes place in the Fallopian tubes;
e. is monospermic.

Correct answer: a. is internal, d. takes place in the Fallopian tubes, e. is monospermic

Fecundation:
a. is monospermic;
b. consists in the fusion between the male and female gametes;
c. consists in the grafting of the egg at the level of the Fallopian tube;
d. requires the existence of several fecundated spermatozoa;
e. takes place one day before or after ovulation.

Correct answer: a. is monospermic, b. consists in the fusion between the male and female
gametes, e. takes place one day before or after ovulation

The following take part in the fecundation process:

a. a single ovule;
b. a single fecundated spermatozoon;
c. one ovule with two nuclei, which means the pregnancy is monovitelline twin;
d. two ovules, which means the pregnancy is bivitelline twin;
e. extrinsic mechanisms controlled by the sacral spinal cord.

Correct answer: a. a single ovule, b. a single fecundated spermatozoon, d. two ovules, which
means the pregnancy is bivitelline twin

The child’s sex is determined by:

a. the type of the spermatozoon that fecundates the ovule;
b. the type of the fecundated ovule;
c. the sex chromosome of the ovule;
d. the somatic chromosome of the spermatozoon;
e. the sex chromosome of the spermatozoon.

Correct answer: a. the type of the spermatozoon that fecundates the ovule, e. the sex
chromosome of the spermatozoon

The ovule that can be fecundated contains:

a. 22 somatic chromosomes;
b. 23 autosomes;
c. a sex chromosome: X or Y;
d. 11 pairs of somatic chromosomes;
e. only the X sex chromosome.

Correct answer: a. 22 somatic chromosomes, b. 23 autosomes, e. only the X sex chromosome

The fecundated spermatozoon contains:

a. 11 pairs of somatic chromosomes;
b. 22 somatic chromosomes;
c. only the X sex chromosome;
d. only the Y sex chromosome;
e. the X or Y sex chromosome.

Correct answer: b. 22 somatic chromosomes, e. the X or Y sex chromosome

The female sex of the child involves the following during fecundation:
a. the spermatozoon should contain the X sex chromosome;
b. the spermatozoon should contain the Y sex chromosome;
c. the ovule should contain the Y sex chromosome;
d. the spermatozoon should contain the Y sex chromosome and the ovule should contain the Y sex
chromosome;
e. the spermatozoon should contain the X sex chromosome and the ovule should contain the X sex
chromosome.

Correct answer: a. the spermatozoon should contain the X sex chromosome, e. the
spermatozoon should contain the X sex chromosome and the ovule should contain the X sex
chromosome

The male sex of the child involves the following during fecundation:
a. the spermatozoon should contain the X sex chromosome;
b. the spermatozoon should contain the Y sex chromosome;
c. the ovule should contain the Y sex chromosome;
d. the spermatozoon should contain the Y sex chromosome and the ovule should contain the X sex
chromosome;
e. the spermatozoon should contain the X sex chromosome and the ovule should contain the Y sex
chromosome.
Correct answer: b. the spermatozoon should contain the Y sex chromosome, d. the
spermatozoon should contain the Y sex chromosome and the ovule should contain the X sex
chromosome

The pregnancy period is:

a. 120 days;
b. nine weeks;
c. 280 weeks;
d. 280 days;
e. nine months.

Correct answer: d. 280 days, e. nine months

LO. 10
Campbell
Sep up
Modern Biology
 Exam questions (LO. 10)
Which of the following statements best describes theories?

A- They are nearly the same things as hypotheses.

B- They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.

C- They cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once.

D- They are predictions of future events.

Answer: B- They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.

During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow student's remarks,

"The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring

inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in

correcting this student's misconception?

A-Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on

through genes.

B- Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits.

C- Only favorable adaptations have survival value.

D- Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance.

Answer: A-Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on

through genes.

In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko believed that his winter wheat

plants, exposed to ever- colder temperatures, would eventually give rise to ever

more cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko's attempts in this regard were most in

agreement with the ideas of:

A- Cuvier.

B- Hutton.

C- Lamarck.

D- Darwin.
Answer: C- Lamarck.

Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural

selection in a population over time?

A- All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors.

B- The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate.

C- The population size is large.

D- The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present

Answer: D- The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present

Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of

the following events, under the influence of natural selection?

1. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted individuals.

2. A change occurs in the environment.

3. Genetic frequencies within the population change.

4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.

A- 2 → 4 → 1 → 3

B- 4 → 2 → 1 → 3

C- 4 → 1 → 2 → 3

D- 4 → 2 → 3 → 1

Answer: A- 2 → 4 → 1 → 3

If Darwin had been aware of genes, and of their typical mode of transmission to

subsequent generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in

agreement?

A-If natural selection can change one gene's frequency in a population over the

course of generations then, given enough time and enough genes, natural

selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old

ones.
B) If an individual's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it

more fit, then it will be able to pass these genes on to its offspring.

C- If an individual acquires new genes by engulfing, or being infected by,

another organism, then a new genetic species will be the result.

D- A single mutation in a single gene in a single gamete will, if perpetuated,

produce a new species within just two generations.

Answer: A-If natural selection can change one gene's frequency in a population over the

course of generations then, given enough time and enough genes, natural

selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old

ones.

Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus

Loxodonta, and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which

statement should be true?

A- Species X and Y are not related to species Z.

B-Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does with
species Z.

C-Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is still extant (in other words, not yet extinct).

D-Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species Z.

Answer: B-Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either
does with species Z.

The fossil record consistently shows evidence that:

A- All forms of life have existed in all geologic eras.

B- Living organisms have only been on Earth for a short time.

C- Living things have changed over time.

D- Ancient life-forms are much the same as forms found living today.

Answer: C- Living things have changed over time.

Answer: B

From picture above the ankle bone in the whale’s ancestors is considered

A- Shared ancestors

B- Analogy

C- Shared drive character[homology]

D- Co-opted feature

Answer: C- Shared drive character[homology]

About 13 different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a
common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago.
Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the 13 species are currently classified among three
genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus
Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree
finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza).
If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical
prediction?

A- They should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea.

B- Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch
species.

C- They should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share with the tree
finches.

D- The chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the chances
of hybridization between two tree finch species.

Answer: B- Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the
five tree finch species.

According to the theory of biological evolution, most present-day species of

organisms

A- Developed from similar, smaller prehistoric organisms

B- Have always existed in the form they have today

C- Developed from fossils of the other organisms

D- Descended from earlier, different species of organisms

Answer: D- Descended from earlier, different species of organisms

Answer: D

The fossil record indicates that:

A- Most species have not evolved.

B-Some species are evolutionary transitions between major groups of organisms

C-All species are today just as they were when they were created.

D-The life in earth is steady

Answer: C-All species are today just as they were when they were created.

There are several conditions that are required for selection to produce evolutionary

change. Which of the following was NOT included?

A- Variation

B- Offspring resemble parents

C-Sexual reproduction

D-Some variants are more likely to survive or reproduce than others.

Answer: B- Offspring resemble parents

The two processes that lead to biological evolution are:

A-Self-reproduction and natural selection

B- Changing cell structures and self-reproduction over time

C- Mutation and changing cell structures over time

D- Natural selection and mutation

Answer: D- Natural selection and mutation

Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus

Loxodonta, and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which

statement should be true?

A- Species X and Y are not related to species Z.

B- Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than

either does with species Z.

C- Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is still extant (in other words,

not yet extinct).

D- Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species

Z.

Answer: D- Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species

Z.

Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural

selection in a population over time?

A- All variation between individuals is only due to environmental factors.

B- The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate.

C- The population size is large.

D- The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present.

Answer: B- The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate.

Through careful observation, Charles Darwin came to understand that:

A-Populations of plants and animals in nature most often consist of individuals

that are clones of each other

B-Those individuals whose variation gives them an advantage in staying alive

long enough to reproduce are more likely to pass their traits on to the next

generation.

C-Populations of a species that becomes isolated from others by adapting to

different environmental niches quickly become extinct.

D- All of the above

Answer: B-Those individuals whose variation gives them an advantage in staying alive

long enough to reproduce are more likely to pass their traits on to the next

generation.

Every so often, the yellow butterflies that live in a pine forest have a red offspring. The red butterflies
are more likely to be seen and eaten by predators, and are less likely to survive and reproduce. This
process is known as ____

A- Evidence

B- Mutation

C- Variation

D- Natural selection

Answer: D- Natural selection

What is meant by the term Darwin fitness?

A- The ability to survive and reproduce

B- High aggressiveness

C- Healthy appearance

D- Physical strength

Answer: A- The ability to survive and reproduce

Which of the following is NOT a component of Darwin’s principle of natural

selection?

A- Population exhibit great variation

B-Organisms produce more offspring than can be sustained by the environment

C- New alleles are constantly produced through mutation

D- Over Time, phenotype increase in frequency within a population

Answer: C- New alleles are constantly produced through mutation

Which of the following ways is natural selection differs from artificial selection?

A-With natural selection "picking" is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in
artificial selection, the breeder "picks" which organisms will breed.

B-Natural selection depends upon the presence of variation, artificial

selection does not.

C- Natural selection occurs within populations, artificial selection does not.

D-There is a limit to how much change can be brought about by natural

selection, no such limit exists for artificial selection.

Answer: A-With natural selection "picking" is due to the fit of an organism with its
environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder "picks" which organisms will breed.

Through your study of natural selection theory ,Diversification in plant life

appeared:

A- Due to abrupt mutation

B- Suddenly on earth

C- By seed dispersal

D- Due to long periods of evolutionary change

Answer: D- Due to long periods of evolutionary change

Which of the following statements about fossils is true?

A- All body parts of an organism are equally likely to become fossilized.

B- There are fossils of all species of organisms that have ever lived.

C-Fossils in upper layers of rock are likely to be older than fossils in lower layers.

D- Fossils are most likely to be found in sedimentary rock

Answer: D- Fossils are most likely to be found in sedimentary rock

During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The

giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited

longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful incorrecting

this student's misconception?

A-Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed

on through genes.

B- Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits.

C- Only favorable adaptations have survival value.

D- Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance.

Answer: A-Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed

on through genes.

In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko believed that his winter wheat

plants, exposed to ever-colder temperatures, would eventually give rise to ever

more cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko's attempts in this regard were most in

agreement with the ideas of

A- Malthus .

B- Buffon

C- Lamarck.

D- Lyell

Answer: C- Lamarck.

The same index fossil is found in rock layers A and B that are separated by

several miles. What can you infer about the relationship between the rock

layers?

A- Layer A is older than B.

B- The sediments in layer B were deposited before those in layer A.

C- Layers A and B are probably about the same age.

D- Layer B probably contains more radioactive isotopes than layer A.

Answer: C- Layers A and B are probably about the same age.

What should be true of fossils of the earliest tetrapods?

A- They should show evidence of internal fertilization.

B- They should show evidence of having produced shelled eggs.

C- They should indicate limited adaptation to life on land.

D-They should be transitional forms with the fossils of chondrichthyans that lived

at the same time

Answer: C- They should indicate limited adaptation to life on land.

 Questions from multiple resources
Hawaiian honeycreepers are a group of birds with similar body shape and size. However, they vary
greatly in color and beak shape. Each species occupies its own niche and is adapted to the foods
available in its niche. The evolution from a common ancestor to a variety of species is an example
of:

a. divergent evolution

b. cross-pollination

c. vegetative propagation

d. convergent evolution

Answer: (a) divergent evolution.

The flying squirrel of North America closely resembles the flying phalanger of Australia. They are
similar in size and have long, bushy tails and skin folds that allow them to glide through the air. The
squirrel is a placental mammal, while the phalanger is a marsupial. These close resemblances,
even though genetically and geographically separated by great distances, can best be explained by:

a. convergent evolution

b. divergent evolution

c. spontaneous generation

d. vestigial structures

Answer: (a) convergent evolution.

Within a decade of the introduction of a new insecticide, nearly all of the descendants of the target
pests were immune to the usual-sized dose. The most likely explanation for this immunity to the
insecticide is that:

a. eating the insecticide caused the bugs to become resistant to it

b. eating the insecticide caused the bugs to become less resistant to it

c. it destroyed organisms that cause disease in the insects, thus allowing them to live longer

d. the pests developed physiological adaptations to the insecticide

Answer: (d) the pests developed physiological adaptations to the insecticide.

Natural processes such as speciation and gradualism provide the genetic basis for:
a. evolution

b. spontaneous generation

c. biogenesis

d. sexual reproduction

Answer: (a) evolution.

Structures that have a similar evolutionary origin and structure but are adapted for different
purposes, such as a bat wing and a human arm, are called:

a. embryological structures

b. analogous structures

c. homologous structures

d. homozygous structures

Answer: (c) homologous structures.

Natural selection can best be defined as the:

a. survival of the biggest and strongest organisms in a population

b. elimination of the smallest organisms by the biggest organisms

c. survival and reproduction of the organisms that occupy the largest area

d. survival and reproduction of the organisms that are genetically best adapted to the environment

Answer: (d) survival and reproduction of the organisms that are genetically best adapted to the
environment.

A pattern of evolution that results when two unrelated species begin to appear similar because of
environmental conditions is:

a. disruptive selection

b. convergent evolution

c. directional selection

d. divergent evolution

Answer: (b) convergent evolution.

The average individuals of a population are favored in ___ selection.

a. directional

b. stabilizing

c. disruptive

d. natural

Answer: (b) stabilizing selection.

In ___ selection, individuals with both extreme forms of a trait are at a selective advantage.

a. directional

b. stabilizing

c. disruptive

d. natural

Answer: (c) disruptive selection.

___ selection favors one extreme form of a trait in a population.

a. Directional

b. Stabilizing

c. Disruptive

d. Natural

Answer: (a) Directional selection.

What is the movement of genes into and out of a gene pool called?

a. random mating

b. nonrandom mating

c. gene flow

d. direct evolution

Answer: (c) gene flow.

Which of the following lines of evidence for evolution is indirect?

a. pesticide resistance

b. observed allele frequency changes

c. fossils

d. all of these

Answer: (c) fossils.

Which answer BEST shows an animal's adaptation to the tropical rain forest?

a. camouflage in a tree frog

b. the long neck of a giraffe

c. an elephant's long trunk

d. migration of birds in winter

Answer: (a) camouflage in a tree frog.

A mechanism of Darwin's proposed theory is:

a. artificial selection

b. evolution

c. variation

d. all of these

Answer: (d) all of these.

The founder of modern evolution theory is considered to be:

a. Charles Darwin

b. Alexander Oparin

c. Stephen Jay Gould

d. Lynn Margulis

Answer: (a) Charles Darwin.

Upon close examination of the skeleton of an adult python, a pelvic girdle and leg bones can be
observed. These features are an example of:
a. artificial selection

b. homologous structures

c. vestigial structures

d. comparative embryology

Answer: (c) vestigial structures.

Which combination of characteristics in a population would provide the greatest potential for
evolutionary change?

a. small population, few mutations

b. small population, many mutations

c. large population, few mutations

d. large population, many mutations

Answer: (d) large population, many mutations.

The theory of continental drift hypothesizes that Africa and South America slowly drifted apart after
once being a single landmass. The monkeys on the two continents, although similar, show
numerous genetic differences. Which factor is probably the most important in maintaining these
differences?

a. comparative anatomy

b. comparative embryology

c. geographic isolation

d. fossil records

Answer: (c) geographic isolation.

Which of the following is not a factor that causes changes in the allelic frequencies of individuals in
a population?

a. stabilizing selection

b. directional selection

c. random selection

d. disruptive selection
Answer: (c) random selection.

Darwin noticed that many organisms seemed well suited to:

a. being preserved as fossils.

b. providing humans with food.

c. surviving in the environments in which they lived.

d. swimming from South America to the Galápagos Islands.

Answer: (c) surviving in the environments in which they lived.

Based on the adaptations Charles Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galápagos, he
wondered:

a. if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species.

b. if finches and tortoises had originated from the same ancestral species.

c. if all birds on the different islands were finches.

d. why all tortoises on the different islands were identical.

Answer: (a) if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species.

Which of the following ideas is supported by Darwin’s observation of local variation among
tortoises in the Galápagos Islands?

a. artificial selection

b. adaptation

c. acquired characteristics

d. tendency towards perfection

Answer: (b) adaptation.

In the 1800s, Charles Lyell emphasized that:

a. the human population will outgrow the available food supply.

b. all populations evolve through natural selection.

c. Earth is a few thousand years old.

d. past geological events must be explained in terms of processes observable today.

Answer: (d) past geological events must be explained in terms of processes observable today.

Lamarck’s ideas about evolution include the concept that differences among the traits of
organisms arise as a result of:

a. continual increases in population size.

b. the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.

c. an unchanging local environment.

d. the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.

Answer: (b) the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.

The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that:

a. in the human population, people die faster than babies are born.

b. without certain checks on population size, there would soon be insufficient food for the growing
human population.

c. in the 1700s, England needed more housing.

d. the majority of a species’ offspring die.

Answer: (b) without certain checks on population size, there would soon be insufficient food
for the growing human population.

When a dairy farmer chooses to breed the cows that give the most milk in the herd, the farmers are
following the principle of:

a. acquired characteristics.

b. descent with modification.

c. artificial selection.

d. natural selection.

Answer: (c) artificial selection.

Each of the following is a condition necessary for natural selection to occur EXCEPT:

a. more offspring are born than can survive.

b. population size is very large.

c. fitness varies among individuals.

d. there is heritable variation among members of the population.

Answer: (b) population size is very large.

Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is
consistent with the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a. They transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse to their offspring.

b. They tend to produce fewer offspring than others in the population.

c. They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment.

d. They will perpetuate unfavorable changes in the species.

Answer: (c) They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment.

The principle of common descent helps explain why:

a. well-adapted species have many offspring.

b. conditions in an organism’s environment ensure its survival.

c. birds and reptiles share a number of inherited characteristics.

d. tigers are so different from cheetahs.

Answer: (c) birds and reptiles share a number of inherited characteristics.

Darwin’s concept of natural selection was NOT influenced by:

a. the work of Charles Lyell.

b. the work of Gregor Mendel.

c. his collection of specimens.

d. his trip on the H.M.S. Beagle.

Answer: (b) the work of Gregor Mendel.

Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as:

a. evidence that Earth was very young.

b. useful support for his theory.

c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species.

d. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.

Answer: (b) useful support for his theory.

Modern sea star larvae resemble some primitive vertebrate larvae. This similarity may suggest that
primitive vertebrates:

a. share a common ancestor with sea stars.

b. evolved from sea stars.

c. evolved before sea stars.

d. belong to the same species as sea stars.

Answer: (a) share a common ancestor with sea stars.

Molecular evidence in support of natural selection includes:

a. the nearly universal genetic code.

b. the presence of vestigial structures.

c. a tendency toward perfect, unchanging DNA in various species.

d. the transmission of acquired characteristics by DNA.

Answer: (a) the nearly universal genetic code.

Which characteristic of Galápagos finches helped the Grants show the results of natural selection?

a. the color of their feathers

b. the length and shape of their wings

c. the size and shape of their beaks

d. the curve of their claws

Answer: (c) the size and shape of their beaks.

LO. 11
Campbell
Sep up
 Exam questions (LO. 11)

The diagram implies that warbler finches and armadillos

A- Are unrelated.
B- Share a recent common ancestor.
C- Share a remote common ancestor.
D- Did not evolve from older forms of life.

Answer: C-Share a remote common ancestor.

Which organism has DNA that is probably most similar to the glyptodont’s DNA?

A- Woodpecker finch

B- Early vertebrate

C- Warbler finch

D-Armadillo

Answer: D-Armadillo

Because the woodpecker finch and the warbler finch are different species, they probably

A- Cannot interbreed.

B- Lack homologous structures.

C- Develop from very different embryos.

D- Are more similar to glyptodonts than to each other.

Answer: D- Are more similar to glyptodonts than to each other.

Which of the following are not examples of analogous structures?

A- Wings of bat and butterfly

B- Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle

C- Thorn and spine

D- Tendril of Lathyrus and tendril of Gloriosa

Answer: B- Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle

When selection favors homozygotes over heterozygotes

A- Genetic variation among populations will decline.

B-The most common outcome will be that the most common allele will become fixed (will
increase to a frequency of 1) in the population.

C-Both alleles are maintained in the population at frequencies different from those predicted by
Hardy-Weinberg principles.

D- The genetic variation within a population is maintained over time.

Answer: B-The most common outcome will be that the most common allele will become
fixed (will increase to a frequency of 1) in the population.

Use the above figure to answer the following questions (34 and 35)

34) Which extinct species should be the best candidate to serve as the out-group for the clade
whose common ancestor occurs at position 2 in the above figure?
A- A

B- B

C- C

D- D

Answer: A

35) If the figure is an accurate depiction of relatedness, then which of the following should be
correct?

1. The entire tree is based on maximum parsimony. 2. If all species depicted here make up a
taxon, this taxon is monophyletic.

3. The last common ancestor of species B and C occurred more recently than the last common
ancestor of species D and E.

4. Species A is the direct ancestor of both species B and species C.

5. The species present at position 3 is ancestral to C, D, and E.

A- 1 and 3

B- 3 and 4

C- 2, 3, and 4

D- 1, 2, and 3

Answer: D- 1, 2, and 3

If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms D, E,
and F belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of
organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?

A- A and C

B- B and D

C- C and F

D- D and F

Answer: D- D and F

How might an extended period of drought influence the ground finch population?
A- The birds with smaller beaks would be more numerous

B- The birds with larger beaks would be more numerous

C- Drought decreases seed availability, but has no influence on the ground finch.

D-Drought increases seed availability, and all ground finches would be more numerous.

Answer: C- Drought decreases seed availability, but has no influence on the ground finch.

How would the introduction of another species of seed-eating ground finch to the island most
likely influence the medium ground finch?

A- The finches would not compete, since they both eat seeds

B- The finches would interbreed and produce a new species of finch.

C- The medium ground finch would face increased competition for seeds.

D- The medium ground finch would become a parasite of the introduced species.

Answer: C- The medium ground finch would face increased competition for seeds.

Which factors most likely had a role in the development of beak characteristics in the medium
ground finch?

A- Mutation and cloning

B- Genetic engineering and selective breeding

C- Unchanging environment and the need to reproduce

D- Variation and recombination

Answer: C- Unchanging environment and the need to reproduce

The most likely explanation for this variation in the beak size of the medium

ground finch is that:

A-The birds acquired larger beaks so they could take advantage of the supply of small seeds

B-The birds with smaller beaks mutated due to the drought so they produced more offspring

C- Different adaptations gave some birds a better chance for survival

D-The environment caused the birds to exercise their beaks and the beaks became longer and
stronger
 Answer: D-The environment caused the birds to exercise their beaks and the beaks became
longer and stronger

Which factor most likely contributed to the evolution of Galapagos Islands finches with different
beak shapes?

A- Similar climates on the different islands

B- Competition between the finches for food

C- Cloning experiments carried out by native people on the islands

D- Increased rate of asexual reproduction

Answer: B- Competition between the finches for food

Based on this tree, which statement is not correct?

A- The salamander lineage is a basal taxon.

B-Salamanders are a sister group to the group containing lizards, goats, and humans.

C- Salamanders are as closely related to goats as to humans.

D-Lizards are more closely related to salamanders than to humans.

Answer: A- The salamander lineage is a basal taxon.

Which of the following best describes vestigial structures?

A- Vestigial structures are small structures that are not present in close relatives.

B- Vestigial structures have not yet been identified in humans.

C- Vestigial structures are well-developed structures that have a different function in close
relatives.
D-Vestigial structures are functionless or rudimentary homologs of characters that are functional in
close relatives.

Answer: B- Vestigial structures have not yet been identified in humans.

Base your answers to questions 37 and 38 on the diagram

below. The diagram represents evolutionary relationships
among some primates.

Which statement best describes a relationship between the

common ancestor and the other organisms in the diagram?

A)The common ancestor most likely has segments of its DNA

that will match each of the other organisms’.

B)The common ancestor is more closely related to macaques

than to gibbons.

C)Orangutans and gorillas have exactly the same DNA as the common

ancestor

D)Chimps and baboons were the first organisms to evolve from the common

ancestor.

Answer: A)The common ancestor most likely has segments of its DNA that will match each of
the other organisms’.

A line representing an organism that is closely related to leaf monkeys and that

evolved at about the same time as the gibbons would be drawn beginning at point

A- A

B- B

C- C

D- D

Answer: B
 LO. 12
Modern biology
Sep up
 Exam questions (LO. 12)
Microevolution, or evolution at its smallest scale, occurs when……

A- an individual's traits change in response to environmental factors.

B-a community of organisms changes due to the extinction of several dominant species.

C- a new species arises from an existing species.

D- a population's allele frequencies change over a span of generations.

Answer: D- a population's allele frequencies change over a span of generations.

The studies of changes between black and light color in

populations of the peppered moth show that

A-natural selection can quickly change allele

frequencies and common phenotypes in a
population

B-species can always adapt to environmental changes

predators prefer light colored moths

C-dark colored moths are physiologically superior to light colored moths

D-natural selection produces irreversible changes

Answer: A-natural selection can quickly change allele frequencies and common
phenotypes in a population

What is the only factor that can change allele frequencies in populations to produce adaptive
evolutionary change?

A- mutation

B- gene flow

C- selection

D-genetic drift

Answer: C- selection
Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian
Islands have different elaborate courtship rituals. These rituals
involve fighting other males and making stylized movements that
attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this
represent?

A- geographic
B- mechanical
C- behavioral
D- gametic
Answer: C-behavioral

According to natural selection theory,

A-Adaptations beneficial in one habitat should generally be beneficial in all other habitats
B-Different species occupying the same habitat will adapt to that habitat by undergoing the
same genetic changes
C-Adaptations beneficial at one time should generally be beneficial during all other times
D-Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to the next
generation's gene pool, than do poorly adapted individuals.
Answer: D- Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to
the next generation's gene pool, than do poorly adapted individuals.

What is used to determine phylogeny?

A- mutations
B- DNA
C- evolutionary history
D-organisms on earth
Answer: C- evolutionary history

According to Darwin, adaptive traits will increase in frequency

A- As mutation rate increases due to environmental pressure

B- If they promote survival and reproduction

C- If the alleles that control them decrease competitiveness

D- As population grow smaller

Answer: B- If they promote survival and reproduction.

Genetic diversity was _________ in populations of the greater prairie chicken in Illinois.

A- lost through mutation and restored by natural

selection

B- lost through genetic drift and restored by natural

selection

C- lost through gene flow and restored by mutation

D- lost through genetic drift and restored by gene flow

Answer: D- lost through genetic drift and restored by gene flow

In the accompanying figure, the taxon labeled II is:

A- monophyletic

B- paraphyletic

C- polyphyletic

D- a clade

Answer: B- paraphyletic

Which of the following dose not result in variation in alleles

from one generation to the next

A- Change in chromosome numbers and structure

B- Crossing over during meiosis

C- Asexual reproduction

D-Independent Assortment of alleles during gametogenesis

Answer: C- Asexual reproduction

Microevolution, or evolution at its smallest scale, occurs when......

A- An individual's traits change in response to environmental factors.

B- A community of organisms changes due to the extinction of several

dominant species.
C- A new species arises from an existing species.

D- A population's allele frequencies change over a span of generations.

Answer: A- An individual's traits change in response to environmental factors.

The studies of changes between black and light color in populations of

the peppered

moth show that:

A- Natural selection can quickly change allele frequencies and

common phenotypes in a population

B-Species can always adapt to environmental changes predators

prefer light colored moths

C- Dark colored moths are physiologically superior to light colored

moths

D- Natural selection produces irreversible changes

Answer: A- Natural selection can quickly change allele frequencies and common phenotypes
in a population.

Base your answers to questions 43 and 44 on the diagram below and on your

knowledge of biology.

The diagram represents possible evolutionary

pathways of certain organisms.

43(Which species is most closely related to species L?

A-E

B-G

C-F

D-I

Answer: C-F

44(Which statement can best be inferred based on the information in the diagram?

A- Natural selection occurs only as a result of mutations

B- Natural selection requires a minimum of 5 million years to occur.

C- Each new species that develops continues to exist through present time

D-Some species that are no longer successful in their environment may become extinct.

Answer: D-Some species that are no longer successful in their environment may become
extinct.

What is used to determine phylogeny?

A- mutations

B- DNA

C- evolutionary history

D- organisms on earth

Answer: B- DNA

According to Darwin, adaptive traits will increase in frequency

A- As mutation rate increases due to environmental pressure

B- If they promote survival and reproduction

C- If the alleles that control them decrease competitiveness

D- As population grow smaller

Answer: A- As mutation rate increases due to environmental pressure

LO. 13
Campbell
 Exam questions (LO. 13)
Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to gene flow between populations?

A- random mating

B- migration

C- mutation

D- genetic drift

Answer: B- migration

Your friend is wary of environmentalists' claims that global warming could lead to major biological
change on Earth. Which of the following statements can you use in response to your friend's
suspicions? A-Through measurements and observations, we know that CO2 levels and temperature
fluctuations are directly correlated, even in prehistoric times.

B-Global warming could have significant effects on agriculture in the United States.

C-Sea levels will likely rise, displacing as much as 50% of the world's human population.

D- All statements listed could be used.

Answer: D- All statements listed could be used.

Two species of cichlid fish living in Lake Victoria . Females of these two species normally were able
to identify and mate with males of their own species. What type of reproductive barrier is most
obviously separating these two different species?

A- Habitat isolation

B- Temporal isolation

C- Behavioral isolation

D- Gametic isolation

Answer: C- Behavioral isolation

Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population
in an extinction vortex?

A-Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by
reintroduction to the wild.

B- Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat.

C-Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.

D- Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.

Answer: C-Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.

One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other
populations is that

A- Its habitat is fragmented.

B- It is a rare, top-level predator.

C- Its effective population size is much lower than its total population size.

D- Its genetic diversity is very low.

Answer: D- Its genetic diversity is very low.

Which of the following dose not result in variation in alleles from one generation to the next

A- Random mating

B- Migration

C- Mutation

D- Genetic drift

Answer: C- Mutation

Your friend remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; as a result, its
offspring inherited longer necks” Which statement is the best response to correct your friend’s
misconception?

A- Overproduction of offspring leads to a struggle for survival.

B- Only favorable adaptations have survival value.

C-Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes to
its offspring.

D-Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance.

Answer: C-Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on
through genes to its offspring.
Which of the following principles is NOT part of Darwin’s original theory of evolution by natural
selection?

A- Evolution is a gradual process that occurs over long periods of time.

B- Variation occurs among individuals in a population.

C- Mutations are the ultimate source of genetic variation.

D- More individuals are born than will survive.

Answer: C- Mutations are the ultimate source of genetic variation.

The more closely related two different organisms are, the

A- more similar their habitats are

B- less similar their DNA sequences are

C- more recently they shared a common ancestor

D- less likely they are to have the same genes in common

Answer: C- more recently they shared a common ancestor

The great variety of modern dogs can best be explained by

A- Selective breeding of dogs over many years

B- The cloning of domestic dogs

C- Genetic alterations in gray wolves alive today

D- Natural selection favoring wolves over dogs

Answer: A- Selective breeding of dogs over many years

The differences seen in the beaks of the four species of finches are most likely the

result of:

A- Gene expression and asexual reproduction

B- Variation and natural selection

C- Migration and the need to adapt

D- Heredity and a diet of seeds

Answer: D- Heredity and a diet of seeds

The different species of mice living in three areas have varying body sizes. Which statement most
likely explains the variations according to the theory of natural selection?

A-The mice needed to change in order to survive, so favorable new traits developed.

B-The mice wanted to become different in size, so favorable new traits gradually appeared in the
population.

C-Mutation and sexual recombination both created new variations in mouse body sizes.

D-The environment caused genes for body size to change in the mice.

Answer: D-The environment caused genes for body size to change in the mice.
LO. 14
Sep up
Campbell
 Exam questions (LO. 14)
The level of biodiversity affected in the previous situation is:

A- Genetic diversity

B- Species diversity

C- Ecosystem diversity

D- Both a & b is correct

Answer: D- Both a & b is correct

The major human causes of extinction today are

A- Hunting and destroying habitats.

B- Polluting and introducing non-native species.

C- Both (a) and (b)

D- Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: C- Both (a) and (b)

In which row in the chart below is a human action correctly paired with the environmental impact:

A- 1

B- 2

C- 3

D- 4

Answer: C- 3

Biodiversity of a geographical region represents:

A- Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region

B- The diversity in the organisms living in the region

C- Species endemic to the region

D- Endangered species found in the region

Answer: B- The diversity in the organisms living in the region

Over the past decade more than 46,000 hectar es of the Mau forests, Kenya have been cut off and
converted to other land uses, such as human settlement and private
agriculture. The large-scale encroachment of (invasion of ) human
populations, charcoal production and the cutting of indigenous trees
are causing massive deforestation, with severe impacts on water
resources, leading to the drying up of boreholes and rivers. Read this
passage and answer questions (58 and 59)

58)From the previous what is the type of the human impact on the
biodiversity

A-Over exploitation

B- Habitat destruction

C- Breeding and cloning

D-Introduce a species

Answer: B- Habitat destruction

59)The level of biodiversity affected in the previous situation is:

A- Genetic diversity

B- Species diversity

C- Ecosystem diversity

D- Both a & b is correct

Answer: C- Ecosystem diversity

Which of the following does not preserves biodiversity?

A-Isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing crops.

B- Increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value.

C- Preventing natural evolution.

D- Finding new plants that can supplement the world’s food supply.

Answer: C- Preventing natural evolution.

The graph below shows the growth of a population of rabbits in a specific ecosystem. Answers
questions (55 and 56):
55(Which environmental factor could have caused the change
indicated at A?

A- Increased predation by herbivores

B- Increased availability of food

C- Increased number of decomposers

D- Increased competition among carnivores

Answer: B- Increased availability of food

56(Over a period of time, the location of the dashed line would move from location B to location C
on this graph if

A-The birthrate of the rabbit population was equal to the death rate of the rabbit population

B-There was a decrease in the number of rabbit predators and an increase in the availability of
plants

C- There was a decrease in the availability of minerals, water, and shelter

D-The entire rabbit population migrated to a new ecosystem containing more autotrophs

Answer: A-The birthrate of the rabbit population was equal to the death rate of the rabbit
population

Which of the following DOES NOT preserves biodiversity?

A- Isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing

crops.

B- Increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value.

C- Preventing natural evolution.

D- Finding new plants that can supplement the world’s food supply.

Answer: C- Preventing natural evolution.

The graph below represents a change in event A that leads to changes in events B and C Which row
in the chart best identifies each event in the graph?

A- Raw number 1

B- Raw number 2

C- Raw number 3

D- Raw number 4

Answer: D- Raw number 4

The major human causes of extinction today are

A- Hunting and destroying habitats.

B- Polluting and introducing non-native species.

C- Both (a) and (b)

D- Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: C- Both (a) and (b)

In which row in the chart below is a human action correctly paired with the environmental impact:

A-1

B-2

C-3

D-4

Answer: C-3
 Evolution question from multiple resources

Which of the following best describes adaptive radiation?

a-The relatively rapid evolution from a common ancestor of multiple species that occupy newly
available environments.

b-The relatively slow evolution from a common ancestor of multiple species when food and water
are limited.

c-The relatively rapid evolution from a common ancestor of multiple species when the environment
induces new mutations.

d-The relatively slow evolution from a common ancestor of multiple species that randomly change
in newly available environments.

Answer: a-The relatively rapid evolution from a common ancestor of multiple species that
occupy newly available environments.

Natural selection of bird beak sizes and shapes is most likely to occur when...

a-The birds cooperate to find and share food.

b-Many of the birds fight with one another and the physically strongest ones win.

c-There is a shortage of food and so the birds must compete with one another.

d-There is more than enough food to meet all the birds’ needs.

Answer: c-There is a shortage of food and so the birds must compete with one another.

How did the different beak types first evolve in the Galapagos finches?

a-Changes in beak size and shape occurred because the birds needed to be able to eat different
kinds of food to survive.

b-There was natural variation in the finch beak structures. When there was a fit between beak
structure and available food, those birds had an increased chance for survival and reproduction.

c. The environment induced mutations and genetic changes to the size and shape of the finch
beaks.

d.The finches’ beaks randomly changed a little bit in size and shape with each successive
generation. Over time this produced a range of sizes and shapes.
Answer: b-There was natural variation in the finch beak structures. When there was a fit
between beak structure and available food, those birds had an increased chance for survival
and reproduction.

What type of variation in finches is passed to their descendants?

a. Behaviors that are chosen during a finch’s lifetime.

b.Only characteristics that are beneficial during a finch’s lifetime.

c. Characteristics that are genetically determined.

d.Characteristics that are positively influenced by the environment during a finch’s

lifetime.

Answer: c. Characteristics that are genetically determined.

Lamarck believed that the changes made due to the use and disuse of organs would

a. Last only in that generation

b. last generation after generation

c. do not last at all

d. May be A or B

Answer: b. last generation after generation

Lamarck believed that Giraffe has long neck because ________.

a. It had to stretch it to get food

b. It was born like that

c. It was due to a mutation

d. All of the above

Answer: a. It had to stretch it to get food

Most objects to Lamarck’s theory was raised on the point of

a. Effects of environment

b. Use and disuse of organs

c. Inheritance of acquired characters

d. All of the above

Answer: c. Inheritance of acquired characters

Mutations as a result of accidents or diseases are

a. Inherited

b. Non-inherited

c. May be A or B

d. All of them

Answer: c. May be A or B

Humming birds and Hawk illustrate

a. Convergent evolution

b. Homology

c. Adaptive radiation

d. Parallel evolution.

Answer: c. Adaptive radiation

Evolution is

a. Progressive development of a race

b. History and development of race along with variations

c. History of race

d. Development of race.

Answer: b. History and development of race along with variations

In a comparison of birds with mammals, having four appendages is

A-A Shared Ancestral Character.

B-A Shared Derived Character.

C-A Character Useful For Distinguishing Birds From Mammals.

D-An example of analogy rather than homology.

Answer: A-A Shared Ancestral Character.

Evolutionary convergence is development of

a-Common set of characters in group of different ancestry

b-Dissimilar characters in closely related groups

c-Common set of characters in closely related groups

d-Random mating.

Answer: a-Common set of characters in group of different ancestry

Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor
shortened showing that

a-Darwin was correct

b-Tail is an essential organ

c-Mutation theory is wrong

d-Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters.

Answer: d-Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters.

Genetic drift is change of

a-Gene frequency in same generation

b-Appearance of recessive genes

c-Gene frequency from one generation to next

d-None of the above.

Answer: d-None of the above.

The random changes in gene frequencies in a population occurring by chance alone rather than by
natural selection are called genetic drift. Although genetic drift occurs in all populations, its effects
are most marked in very small isolated population.

Which one of the following changes involved is irrelevant, in the evolution of man?

a-Perfection of hand for tool making

b-Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food
c-Loss of tail

d-Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behaviour.

Answer: b-Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food

Biodiversity” refers to the idea that

a-Taxa can be classified in a hierarchy of levels.

b-Species vary at the ecosystem, species, and genetic levels.

c-Not every individual in a species is identical.

d-Every individual in a species is similar.

Answer: b-Species vary at the ecosystem, species, and genetic levels.

Geologic time periods are determined by:

a-The origin and extinction of taxa

b-An equal number of years

c-The depth of sediments in rock layers

d-The activity of volcanoes

Answer: a-The origin and extinction of taxa

A paleontologist is most likely to study:

a-Animal behavior

b-Biochemistry

c-Human genetics

d-Fossils

Answer: d-Fossils

The Galapagos finches are a group of closely related species of birds. Over time, specialized beaks
have evolved for each species in new environments. This is an example of which of the following?

a-Adaptive radiation

b-Coevolution
c-Co-option

d-Sexual selection

Answer: a-Adaptive radiation

Approximately 99% of the information in human DNA is shared by chimpanzee DNA. This is
evidence of which of the following?

a-As chimpanzees evolve, they will become more similar to humans.

b-Chimpanzees and humans share a common ancestor.

c-Humans evolved from chimpanzees.

d-All of the above

Answer: b-Chimpanzees and humans share a common ancestor.

Which of the following is necessary in order for speciation to occur?

a-A large number of mutations accumulating within a population.

b-Reproductive isolation of populations of organisms.

c-A reduction in the number of individuals in a population.

d-Geographic isolation of populations of organisms.

Answer: b-Reproductive isolation of populations of organisms.

The struggle for existence refers to:

a-The hardships newborn offspring face due to predation

b-The struggle for animals who cannot breathe

c-Members of each species compete regularly to obtain food and living space

d-The hardships between parents of raising offspring

Answer: c-Members of each species compete regularly to obtain food and living space

What is the relationship between natural selection and fitness?

a-Descent with modification

b-Changes in inherited characteristics of a population increase a species’ fitness in its

environment.
c-Natural selection selects for traits of the most fit animals to pass on genes to the next generation.

d-b & c

Answer: d-b & c

Farmer Joe only breeds the largest hogs, the fastest horses, or the cows that give the most milk.
This is an example of:

a-Natural selection

b-Fitness

c-Artificial selection

d-Survival of the fittest

Answer: c-Artificial selection

The streamline shape of sharks and whales, similar but not due to a common ancestor is an
example of:

a-Analogous traits

b-Homologous traits

c-Artificial selection

d-Fitness

Answer: a-Analogous traits

Metabolism of organisms based on the same complex compounds, like protein cytochrome c,
essential for aerobic respiration, is an example of:

a-Biochemical processes

b-Cellular respiration

c-Cytology

d-Entomology

Answer: a-Biochemical processes

Darwin noticed that many organisms seemed well suited to

a-being preserved as fossils.

b- providing humans with food.

c- surviving in the environments in which they lived.

d- swimming from South America to the Galápagos Islands.

Answer: c- surviving in the environments in which they lived.

Based on the adaptations Charles Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galápagos, he
wondered

a- if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species

b-if finches and tortoises had originated from the same ancestral species.

c-if all birds on the different islands were finches.

d- why all tortoises on the different islands were identical.

Answer: a- if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species

Which of the following ideas is supported by Darwin’s observation of local variation among
tortoises in the Galápagos Islands?

a- artificial selection

b- adaptation

c- acquired characteristics

d- tendency towards perfection

Answer: b- adaptation

In the 1800s, Charles Lyell emphasized that

a-the human population will outgrow the available food supply.

b-all populations evolve through natural selection.

c- Earth is a few thousand years old.

d-past geological events must be explained in terms of processes observable today.

Answer: d-past geological events must be explained in terms of processes observable today.

Lamarck’s ideas about evolution include the concept that differences among the traits of
organisms arise as a result of
a-continual increases in population size.

b-the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.

c- an unchanging local environment.

d- the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.

Answer: b-the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.

The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that

a- in the human population, people die faster than babies are born.

b- without certain checks on population size, there would soon be insufficient food for the growing
human population.

c-in the 1700s, England needed more housing.

d-the majority of a species’ offspring die.

Answer: b- without certain checks on population size, there would soon be insufficient food
for the growing human population.

When a dairy farmer chooses to breed the cows that give the most milk in the herd, the farmers are
following the principle of

a- acquired characteristics.

b- descent with modification.

c-artificial selection.

d- natural selection.

Answer: c-artificial selection.

Each of the following is a condition necessary for natural selection to occur EXCEPT

a. more offspring are born than can survive.

b. population size is very large.

c. fitness varies among individuals.

d. there is heritable variation among members of the population.

Answer: b. population size is very large.

Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is
consistent with the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a. They transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse to their offspring.

b. They tend to produce fewer offspring than others in the population.

c. They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment.

d. They will perpetuate unfavorable changes in the species.

Answer: c. They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment.

The principle of common descent helps explain why

a. well-adapted species have many offspring.

b. conditions in an organism’s environment ensure its survival.

c. birds and reptiles share a number of inherited characteristics.

d. tigers are so different from cheetahs.

Answer: c. birds and reptiles share a number of inherited characteristics.

Darwin’s concept of natural selection was NOT influenced by

a. the work of Charles Lyell.

b. the work of Gregor Mendel.

c. his collection of specimens.

d. his trip on the H.M.S. Beagle.

Answer: b. the work of Gregor Mendel.

Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as

a. evidence that Earth was very young.

b. useful support for his theory.

c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species.

d. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.

Answer: b. useful support for his theory.

Modern sea star larvae resemble some primitive vertebrate larvae. This similarity may suggest that
primitive vertebrates

a. shares a common ancestor with sea stars.

b. evolved from sea stars.

c. evolved before sea stars.

d. belongs to the same species as sea stars.

Answer: a. shares a common ancestor with sea stars.

Molecular evidence in support of natural selection includes

a. the nearly universal genetic code.

b. the presence of vestigial structures.

c. a tendency toward perfect, unchanging DNA in various species.

d. the transmission of acquired characteristics by DNA.

Answer: a. the nearly universal genetic code.

Which characteristic of Galápagos finches helped the Grants show the results of natural selection?

a. the color of their feathers

b. the length and shape of their wings

c. the size and shape of their beaks

d. the curve of their claws

Answer: c. the size and shape of their beaks

 Answered exams and websites

exams\M.22-23 (solved).pdf

exams\F.22-23 (1).pdf

exams\F.21-22 (solved).pdf

https://quizlet.com/300009581/biology-flash-cards/

https://quizlet.com/345419482/bio-ch-16-lecture-flash-cards/

https://quizlet.com/18936473/bio-chapter-22-questions-flash-cards/

https://quizlet.com/23753957/199101-amphibians-tetrapods-flash-cards/

https://quizlet.com/135383517/bio-ch-22-flash-cards/

https://quizlet.com/47574201/life-121-chapter-19-flash-cards/

Thank you.