100

MCQ’s
COMPILATION

Komal Punia Animesh Pradhan Medha Anand Ria Kaur Sethi

Rank 6 Rank 2 Rank 13 Rank 89
CSE 2024 CSE 2023 CSE 2023 CSE 2024

REVISE | RETAIN | CRACK UPSC PRELIMS 2025

 UPSC 2025
DOSTON,

We’ve made an all subject compilation of

100 most important multiple choice

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– Team Sleepy ClasseS

S L E E P Y C L A S S E S . C O M
Environment
2025
Hi everyone,

Sharing the PDF with 100 MCQs on Environment for Prelims.

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your best!

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ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
1. Consider the following statements regarding 16th Conference of Parties
(COP16) to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
(UNCCD)
1. It is the first UNCCD COP to take place in the Middle East and North Africa
(MENA) region.

2. The theme of the above COP is “Our Land. Our Future.”

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above.

ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
1. Consider the following statements regarding 16th Conference of Parties
(COP16) to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
(UNCCD)
1. It is the first UNCCD COP to take place in the Middle East and North Africa
(MENA) region.

2. The theme of the above COP is “Our Land. Our Future.”

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above.

Explanation:

• The Conference of the Parties (COP) is the main decision-making body of UNCCD's
197 Parties – 196 countries and the European Union. COP16 took place in Riyadh,
Saudi Arabia from 2-13 December 2024 under the theme Our Land. Our Future.
Statement 2 is correct.

• It's also the first UNCCD COP to be held in the Middle East and North Africa region,
which is particularly impacted by these issues. Statement 1 is correct.

• Option C is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
2. Consider the following statements regarding New Collective Quantified Goal
1. It is a part of the 2015 Paris Agreement.

2. It will replace the $100 billion goal that expires in 2025.

3. It consists of core financing target of at least $300 billion annually by 2025.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
2. Consider the following statements regarding New Collective Quantified Goal
1. It is a part of the 2015 Paris Agreement.

2. It will replace the $100 billion goal that expires in 2025.

3. It consists of core financing target of at least $300 billion annually by 2025.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) is a financial target that aims to
support climate action projects in developing countries. The NCQG is a key part of
the 2015 Paris Agreement and will replace the $100 billion goal that expires in 2025.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The NCQG is intended to:
• Address the climate finance needs of developing countries, which are estimated to
be $1-2.4 trillion per year until 2030

• Strengthen the global response to climate change

• Foster global partnerships and cooperation among nations

The NCQG will consist of two parts:
• Core financing: At least $300 billion annually by 2035. Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Additional layer: Up to $1.3 trillion, primarily from private

• Option A is the answer.

3. Consider the following statements regarding Red Panda
1. It is the state animal of Arunachal Pradesh.

2. In India, two subspecies, Himalayan red panda and the Chinese red panda are
found.

3. Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh splits the red panda into two sub species.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only 1 statement is correct

B. Only 2 statements are correct

C. All 3 statements are correct

D. None of the above is correct

3. Consider the following statements regarding Red Panda
1. It is the state animal of Arunachal Pradesh.

2. In India, two subspecies, Himalayan red panda and the Chinese red
panda are found.

3. Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh splits the red panda into two sub
species.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only 1 statement is correct

B. Only 2 statements are correct

C. All 3 statements are correct

D. None of the above is correct

Explanation:

• The red panda (Ailurus fulgens) is a mammal species native to the eastern
Himalayas and southwestern China.

• Despite its name, it is not closely related to the giant panda.

• It is arboreal and feeds mainly on bamboo, but also eats eggs, birds, and insects.

• It thrives best at 2,200-4,800m, in mixed deciduous and conifer forests with dense
understories of bamboo.

• It is a solitary animal, mainly active from dusk to dawn, and is largely sedentary
during the day (both nocturnal and crepuscular)

• It is also called the lesser panda, the red bear-cat, and the red cat-bear.

• India is home to both the (sub) species — Himalayan red panda and the Chinese red
panda. Statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:

• Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh splits the red panda into these two phylogenetic
species. Statement 3 is correct.

• It is the state animal of Sikkim. Statement 1 is incorrect.

• It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

• International trade is strictly regulated through its listing in Appendix I of the

Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES), while in India, the species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.

• The population continues to decline due to habitat loss and fragmentation, poaching
(for meat and fur), and inbreeding depression.

• Option B is the answer.

• Mithun/Gayal (Bos frontalis), a magnificent semi domesticated and unique bovine
species, is believed to have originated more than 8000 years ago.

• The highest concentration of mithuns in the world is spread over North Eastern (NE)
region of India with Arunachal Pradesh having the highest mithun population.

• It is the State animal of both Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

• It is also found in parts of Southeast Asia viz. Bangladesh, Myanmar and Bhutan.

• ‘Soulung’ festival is observed annually by the Adi tribes of Arunachal Pradesh to

commensurate the birth and arrival of mithun on this earth.

• The animal is sacrificed during such festivals at which time its meat is eaten .

• In a landmark decision, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has
officially recognized the Mithun, a captivating and culturally significant bovine species
found in Northeast India, as a 'food animal’.

• IUCN status – NE.

• IUCN Status of Gaur - VU

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
4. India intends to apply for licences from International Seabed Authority (ISA)
to explore for deep-sea minerals in the Clarion - Clipperton Zone. Where is
Clarion - Clipperton Zone located?
A. Southern Pacific Ocean

B. Northern Pacific Ocean

C. Southern Atlantic Ocean

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
4. India intends to apply for licences from International Seabed Authority (ISA)
to explore for deep-sea minerals in the Clarion - Clipperton Zone. Where is
Clarion - Clipperton Zone located?
A. Southern Pacific Ocean

B. Northern Pacific Ocean

C. Southern Atlantic Ocean

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• The Clarion–Clipperton zone or Clarion–Clipperton fracture zone is an

environmental management area of the Northern Pacific Ocean, administered by
the International Seabed Authority (ISA). Option B is the answer.

• It includes the Clarion fracture zone and the Clipperton fracture zone, geological
submarine fracture zones.

• Clarion and Clipperton are two of the five major lineations of the northern Pacific
floor, and were discovered by the Scripps Institution of Oceanography in 1954.

• The CCZ is regularly considered for deep-sea mining due to the abundant presence
of manganese nodules.
ENVIRONMENT – AGRICULTURE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
5. Consider the following statements regarding NanoDAP
1. It provides phosphorous and potassium to plants.

2. It has been developed by IFFCO.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above.

ENVIRONMENT – AGRICULTURE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
5. Consider the following statements regarding NanoDAP
1. It provides phosphorous and potassium to plants.

2. It has been developed by IFFCO.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above.

Explanation:

• Nano DAP/(Nano Di-Ammonium Phosphate is an efficient source of available

nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P2O5) for all the crops and helps in correcting the
Nitrogen & Phosphorus deficiencies in standing crops. Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Nano DAP formulation contains Nitrogen (8.0% N w/v) and Phosphorus (16.0 %
P2O5 w/v).Nano DAP (Liquid) has advantage in terms of surface area to volume as
its particle size is less than 100 Nanometre (nm). This unique property enables it to
enter easily inside the seed surface or through stomata and other plant openings.

• It has been developed by IFFCO. Statement 2 is correct.

• Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited, also known as IFFCO, is a multi-

state cooperative society engaged in the manufacture and marketing of fertiliser.
IFFCO is headquartered in New Delhi, India.
Option B is the answer.
ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
6. Enhancing Nature-based Solutions for an Accelerated Climate
Transformation (ENACT) partnership has been an initiative of which of the
following organisations?
A. UNFCCC

B. IPCC

C. IUCN

D. UNEP
ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
6. Enhancing Nature-based Solutions for an Accelerated Climate
Transformation (ENACT) partnership has been an initiative of which of the
following organisations?
A. UNFCCC

B. IPCC

C. IUCN

D. UNEP
Explanation:

• The ENACT Partnership works to accelerate collective global efforts to address

climate change, land and ecosystem degradation, and biodiversity loss through
Nature-based Solutions (NbS).

• It does so by providing a hub for Parties and non-state actors working on NbS to
collaborate and build support across the Rio Conventions through a collective voice
for evidence-based policy on NbS.

• The Partnership was launched at the Sharm el-Sheikh UNFCCC COP27 by the
Egyptian COP Presidency in collaboration with the Government of Germany and
IUCN. Option C is correct.

• IUCN hosts ENACT's secretariat, which leads the implementation of the

Partnership.
ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
7. Consider the following statements regarding Ecocide
1. It is the human impact on the environment causing mass destruction to that
environment.

2. Various nations have codified ecocide as a crime including India.

Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
7. Consider the following statements regarding Ecocide
1. It is the human impact on the environment causing mass destruction to that
environment.

2. Various nations have codified ecocide as a crime including India.

Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• It is the human impact on the environment causing mass destruction to that

environment. Statement 1 is correct.

• Various nations have codified ecocide as a crime – Russia, Ukraine, Vietnam

• India has not codified ecocide as a crime. Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Option A is correct.
ENVIRONMENT – RENEWABLE ENERGY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
8. Consider the following statements regarding Biomethane
1. It contains only methane.

2. It is obtained by purifying biogas.

Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
ENVIRONMENT – RENEWABLE ENERGY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
8. Consider the following statements regarding Biomethane
1. It contains only methane.

2. It is obtained by purifying biogas.

Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Bio-CNG or Biomethane is a renewable fuel obtained by purifying biogas – in

contrast to CNG, a non-renewable source of energy. Statement 2 is correct.

• It is also known as renewable natural gas.

• Biogas is a mixture of methane, CO2 and small quantities of other gases produced by
the anaerobic digestion of organic matter in an oxygen-free environment.

• The methane content of biogas typically ranges from 45% to 75% by volume, with
most of the remainder being CO2

• Bio-CNG is a purified form of biogas with over 95% pure methane gas. Statement 1
is incorrect.

• It is similar to natural gas in its composition (97% methane) and energy potential.

• Option B is correct.
ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
9. Which of the following statements correctly defines “Peak oil”?
A. It refers to the point at which global petroleum production reaches its
maximum point and begins to decline.

B. It refers to the point at which global demand for petroleum products begins to
decline.

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
9. Which of the following statements correctly defines “Peak oil”?
A. It refers to the point at which global petroleum production reaches its
maximum point and begins to decline.

B. It refers to the point at which global demand for petroleum products begins to
decline.

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• Peak oil refers to the point at which global petroleum production reaches its
maximum point and begins to decline. Option A is correct.

o This means that we will have extracted all of the easily accessible and cost-
effective reserves, and will need to turn to more expensive and difficult-to-reach
sources to meet our energy needs.

o The consequences of peak oil could be significant, including higher prices for
gasoline, diesel fuel, and other petroleum-based products.

o On the other hand, peak oil demand refers to the point at which global demand
for petroleum products begins to decline. Option B is incorrect.
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
10. Consider the following Biosphere Reserves
1. Cold desert

2. Sunderbans

3. Seshachalam Hills

4. Panna
How many of the above have been recognized internationally under the Man
and Biosphere Reserve program?
A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
10. Consider the following Biosphere Reserves
1. Cold desert

2. Sunderbans

3. Seshachalam Hills

4. Panna
How many of the above have been recognized internationally under the Man
and Biosphere Reserve program?
A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
Explanation:

There are 18 biosphere reserves in India.

There are a total of 12 biosphere reserves in India which have been recognized
internationally under the Man and Biosphere Reserve program:
• Nilgiri (First to be included)

• Gulf of Mannar

• Sunderbans Option 2 is correct.

• Nanda Devi

• Nokrek

• Pachmarhi

• Similipal
Explanation:

• Achanakmar - Amarkantak

• Great Nicobar

• Agasthyamala

• Khangchendzonga

• Panna, Madhya Pradesh (Latest) Option 4 is correct.

• Option B is the answer.
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - INTENSE
11. Consider the following statements regarding Amur Falcons
1. They get their name from the Amur River which forms the border between
Russia and Mongolia.

2. Nagaland is also known as the Falcon Capital of the World.

3. They are the world’s longest-travelling raptors.

4. The birds are protected as endangered under the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only 1 statement

B. Only 2 statements

C. Only 3 statements

D. All 4 are correct

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - INTENSE
11. Consider the following statements regarding Amur Falcons
1. They get their name from the Amur River which forms the border between
Russia and Mongolia.

2. Nagaland is also known as the Falcon Capital of the World.

3. They are the world’s longest-travelling raptors.

4. The birds are protected as endangered under the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only 1 statement

B. Only 2 statements

C. Only 3 statements

D. All 4 are correct

Explanation:

• The Amur falcon, a small-sized raptor from the falcon family, breeds in Siberia and
Northern China but migrates to the warmer climate of the Southern part of Africa
via India every year.

• They get their name from the Amur River which forms the border between Russia
and China. Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Amur falcons, the world’s longest-travelling raptors start travelling with the onset of
winter. Statement 3 is correct.

• The birds are the least concern under the International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) Red List. Statement 4 is incorrect.

• They start their journey from South – eastern Siberia and northern China.

• Then en route, in the month of October to November, a large number of Amur

falcons arrive in northeast India, especially near the Doyang reservoir in the Wokha
district of Nagaland in Nagaland for roosting (sleeping/resting).
Explanation:

• Pangti Village, Nagaland is also known as the “Falcon Capital of the World”.
Statement 2 is correct.

• Option B is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
12. The call for a Fossil Fuel Non-Proliferation Treaty was first endorsed by
A. Vanuatu and Tuvalu

B. United Nations

C. European Parliament

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
12. The call for a Fossil Fuel Non-Proliferation Treaty was first endorsed by
A. Vanuatu and Tuvalu

B. United Nations

C. European Parliament

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• Fossil Fuel Non-Proliferation Treaty is a diplomatic and civil society campaign to

create a treaty to stop fossil fuel exploration and expansion and phase-out existing
production in line with the targets of the Paris Climate Agreement, while supporting
a just transition to renewable energy.

• Conceptualised in 2016 and officially launched in 2019, the FF-NPT proposes to make
it legally binding on nations to end fossil fuel extraction, wind down existing
production, and manage a just transition to renewable energy.

• The call for a treaty was first endorsed by the Pacific Island nations of Vanuatu and
Tuvalu and to date, has the support of 13 national governments, the World Health
Organization, the European Parliament, Nobel laureates, academics, researchers,
activists, and a growing list of governments (municipal, subnational, national), and
individual Parliamentarians. Option A is the answer.
ENVIRONMENT – RENEWABLE ENERGY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
13. Syngas or synthesis gas consists majorly of which of the following?
A. CO2 + H2O

B. CO + CH4

C. CO + H2

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – RENEWABLE ENERGY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY
13. Syngas or synthesis gas consists majorly of which of the following?
A. CO2 + H2O

B. CO + CH4

C. CO + H2

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• Syngas is a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen and other hydrocarbons, is

produced by steam reforming or partial oxidation of natural gas or liquid
hydrocarbons, or coal gasification., that is, combustion with an amount of oxygen
that is not sufficient to convert the biomass completely to carbon dioxide and water.
Option C is the answer.

• Syngas produced by coal gasification generally is a mixture of 30 to 60% carbon

monoxide, 25 to 30% hydrogen, 5 to 15% carbon dioxide, and 0 to 5% methane.

• It can be used to produce methanol, DME and hydrogen, or converted via the
Fischer-Tropsch process to produce a diesel substitute, or a mixture of alcohols that
can be blended into gasoline.
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
14. Golden Langur is protected under
1. Schedule I of WPA 1972

2. Vulnerable under IUCN red list

3. Appendix I of CITES
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above.

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
14. Golden Langur is protected under
1. Schedule I of WPA 1972

2. Vulnerable under IUCN red list

3. Appendix I of CITES
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above.

Explanation:

• The golden langur is seen in the moist evergreen and moist deciduous forests.

• They are highly dependent on trees, living in the upper canopy of forests. They are
also known as leaf monkeys.

• A species endemic to semi-evergreen and mixed-deciduous forests of the Indo

Bhutan border, Golden langurs (Trachypithecus geei) came to be known to the
western world after its discovery by naturalist E P Gee in the 1950s.

• In India, its distribution is confined to approximately 2,500 square kilometers

between the rivers Manas in the east, Sankosh in the west and Brahmaputra in the
south in Assam. (Black mountains in Bhutan)

• They are listed as endangered species under IUCN list. Option 2 is incorrect.

• Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Option 1 is correct.

• Appendix I of CITES. Option 3 is correct.

• Option C is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - INTENSE
15. Consider the following statements regarding Ambergris
1. It is a waxy substance released by an algal bloom.

2. It is used in the perfume market, especially to create fragrances like musk.

3. The sale of ambergris is prohibited in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - INTENSE
15. Consider the following statements regarding Ambergris
1. It is a waxy substance released by an algal bloom.

2. It is used in the perfume market, especially to create fragrances like musk.

3. The sale of ambergris is prohibited in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

• Ambergris, French for grey amber, is generally referred to as whale vomit.

• It is also called “preternaturally hardened whale dung”. Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Ambergris is a rare substance, which contributes to its high demand and high price
in the international market. Traditionally, it is used to produce perfumes which have
notes of musk. Statement 2 is correct.

• While there are records of it being used to flavour food, alcoholic beverages and
tobacco in some cultures in the past, it is rarely used for these purposes presently.

• In the Indian context, sperm whales are a protected species under Schedule 2 of the
Wildlife Protection Act and possession or trade of any of its by-products, including
Ambergris and its byproducts, is illegal under provisions of the Wildlife Protection
Act, 1972. Statement 3 is correct.

• Option B is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

16. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Wild Ass

1. Maximum numbers are found in Thar Desert in Rajasthan.

2. Its IUCN status is Endangered.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

16. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Wild Ass

1. Maximum numbers are found in Thar Desert in Rajasthan.

2. Its IUCN status is Endangered.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• The Indian wild ass also called the Indian wild donkey, Indian onager is a
subspecies of the onager native to South Asia.

• It is currently listed as Near Threatened by IUCN. Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Indian wild ass's range once extended from western India, southern Pakistan,
i.e. provinces of Sindh and Baluchistan, Afghanistan, and south-eastern Iran. Today,
its last refuge lies in the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, Little Rann of Kutch and its
surrounding areas of the Great Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat state of India.

• The species in wild is found only in the Indian state of Gujarat, where it is protected
under the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary. Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• In 2024, there were 7,672 wild ass up from 720 in 1976.

Option D is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

17. Consider the following statements regarding Snow Leopards

1. It is the state animal of Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh.

2. According to Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI), Himachal

Pradesh has highest number of snow leopards.

3. Its IUCN status is Endangered.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None are correct

• Answer: A
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

17. Consider the following statements regarding Snow Leopards

1. It is the state animal of Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh.

2. According to Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI), Himachal

Pradesh has highest number of snow leopards.

3. Its IUCN status is Endangered.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None are correct

•
Explanation:

Snow Leopard

• It is an Apex Predator.

• It is genetically closer to tiger than leopards (Sister Species)

• AKA as Ghost of mountains

• It is found in planet’s highest places and is considered to be flagship species for the
high altitude Himalayas.

• In India it is found in J&K, Ladakh(State animal), HP (State animal), Uttarakhand,

Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 1 is correct.

• Its presence indicates healthy mountainous ecosystems

• The SPAI Program is the first-ever comprehensive scientific exercise aimed at

assessing the population of snow leopards in India.
Explanation:

• The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) served as the National Coordinator for the SPAI,
with support from snow leopard range states and conservation partners, the Nature
Conservation Foundation (NCF), Mysuru and World Wildlife Fund(WWF)-India.

• The SPAI exercise recorded a snow leopard population of 718 individuals in India,
providing crucial data for conservation efforts.
Explanation:

• The report detailed the estimated presence of snow leopards in different states:
Ladakh (477), Uttarakhand (124), Himachal Pradesh (51), Arunachal Pradesh (36),
Sikkim (21), and Jammu and Kashmir (9). Statement 2 is incorrect.

• IUCN Status – Vulnerable. Statement 3 is incorrect.

o WPA, 1972 – Schedule I

o CITES – Appendix I

o CMS – Appendix I

o Hemis NP in Ladakh – Snow leopard capital of the world

o Kibber WS in Spiti – Hotspot for snow leopards

• Option A is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

18. Consider the following countries:

1. Indonesia

2. Malaysia

3. Papua New Guinea

4. Timor leste

How many of the above are included in the Coral Triangle?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

18. Consider the following countries:

1. Indonesia

2. Malaysia

3. Papua New Guinea

4. Timor leste

How many of the above are included in the Coral Triangle?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
Explanation:

• The Coral Triangle (CT) is a roughly triangular area in the tropical waters
around Indonesia, Malaysia, Papua New Guinea, the Philippines, the Solomon
Islands and Timor-Leste. Option D is the answer.

• This area contains at least 500 species of reef-building corals in each ecoregion.

• The Coral Triangle is located between the Pacific and Indian oceans.

• Known as the "Amazon of the seas"

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

19. Consider the following organisms:

1. Sea anemone

2. Hydroids

3. Jellyfish

Which of the above are included in Phylum Cnidaria?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 1,2 and 3
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

19. Consider the following organisms:

1. Sea anemone

2. Hydroids

3. Jellyfish

Which of the above are included in Phylum Cnidaria?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:

• Cnidaria is a phylum under kingdom Animalia

containing over 11,000 species of aquatic invertebrates
found both in fresh water and marine environments
(predominantly the latter), including jellyfish,
hydroids, sea anemones, corals and some of the
smallest marine parasites.

• Option D is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

20. Which of the following terms correctly defines Ecological Armageddon?

A. Devastating impacts of the glaciations

B. Devastating impacts of climate change on the world

C. Devastating decline of insect populations around the world

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

20. Which of the following terms correctly defines Ecological Armageddon?

A. Devastating impacts of the glaciations

B. Devastating impacts of climate change on the world

C. Devastating decline of insect populations around the world

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• “Ecological Armageddon”, a term used to describe the devastating decline of insect

populations around the world. Option C is correct.

• “This phenomenon, often referred to as the “Insect Apocalypse,” has far-reaching

consequences for the entire ecosystem, as insects play crucial roles in pollination,
nutrient cycling and as a food source for other animals.
ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

21. Air Quality Management Exchange Platform (AQMx) has been launched by
which of the following organisations?

A. WHO

B. IQAir

C. UNEP

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

21. Air Quality Management Exchange Platform (AQMx) has been launched by
which of the following organisations?

A. WHO

B. IQAir

C. UNEP

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) has introduced the Air Quality
Management Exchange Platform (AQMx) to support global efforts in improving air
quality. Option D is correct.

• This platform provides air quality managers with tools and guidance to meet WHO
Air Quality Guidelines and interim targets.
ENVIRONMENT – RENEWABLE ENERGY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

22. Consider the following statements about Green Ammonia:

1. It is green in color which makes it a fit for large scale sustainable agriculture as
it does not absorb heat energy when lying in the fields.

2. Green ammonia production is where the process of making ammonia is 100%

renewable and carbon-free.

Select the correct code given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct

D. None of the above statements is correct

ENVIRONMENT – RENEWABLE ENERGY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

22. Consider the following statements about Green Ammonia:

1. It is green in color which makes it a fit for large scale sustainable agriculture as
it does not absorb heat energy when lying in the fields.

2. Green ammonia production is where the process of making ammonia is 100%

renewable and carbon-free.

Select the correct code given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct

D. None of the above statements is correct

Explanation:

• Production & Use of Green Hydrogen is increasing, paving greater interest in the
production and use of Green Ammonia too.

• Ammonia is a pungent gas that is widely used to make agricultural fertilisers.

• Green ammonia production is where the process of making ammonia is 100%

renewable and carbon-free. Statement 2 is correct.

• One way of making green ammonia is by using hydrogen from water electrolysis
and nitrogen separated from the air.

• These are then fed into the Haber process (also known as Haber-Bosch), all powered
by sustainable electricity.

• In the Haber process, hydrogen and nitrogen react together at high temperatures and
pressures to produce ammonia, NH3.
Explanation:

• However, the process of making ammonia is currently not a “green” process.

• It is most commonly made from methane, water and air, using steam methane
reforming (SMR) (to produce the hydrogen) and the Haber process.

• Approximately 90% of the carbon dioxide produced is from the SMR process.

• This process consumes a lot of energy and produces around 1.8% of global carbon
dioxide emissions.

• It is not green in color. Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Option B is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

23. Khazan ecosystems are reclaimed wetlands and mangrove areas, where tidal
influence is regulated by the construction of embankments and sluice gates.
Where do we come across Khazan ecosystems?

A. Goa

B. Kerala

C. Gujarat

D. Tamil Nadu
ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

23. Khazan ecosystems are reclaimed wetlands and mangrove areas, where tidal
influence is regulated by the construction of embankments and sluice gates.
Where do we come across Khazan ecosystems?

A. Goa

B. Kerala

C. Gujarat

D. Tamil Nadu
Explanation:

• Khazan ecosystems are reclaimed wetlands and mangrove areas, where tidal
influence is regulated by the construction of embankments and sluice gates.

• 'Khazans' in Goa have always been nature's defence to its own excesses such
as high tides, storms or floods. Option A is the answer.

• They are predominantly rice and fish fields.

• Traditionally, Khazans have a very simple architectural design using locally

available low-cost resources, which is in use for more than last 3,500 years
with low running cost.

• Through biogeochemical cycling of nutrients the vegetation in khazans help

in treating large volumes of organic waste, purifying water and returning the
nutrients back to the soil, thus preserving soil quality.
Explanation:

• However, with increasing lack of awareness through generations, and the need to
earn better livelihood, large tracts of these wonderlands are being used for different
purposes.

• The khazans have been traditionally protected and used by local communities, but
booming tourism sector has led to significant portions being sold to developers who
fill up the watery tracts and firm up the soil layer to lay foundation for buildings to
be constructed.
ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

24. Which of the following statements accurately describes the term “Carbon
sink”?

A. Amount of carbon that moves between land, oceans, atmosphere, and living
things.

B. A natural or artificial reservoir that absorbs more carbon from the atmosphere
than it releases.

C. A natural or artificial reservoir that releases more carbon than it absorbs

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

24. Which of the following statements accurately describes the term “Carbon
sink”?

A. Amount of carbon that moves between land, oceans, atmosphere, and living
things.

B. A natural or artificial reservoir that absorbs more carbon from the

atmosphere than it releases.

C. A natural or artificial reservoir that releases more carbon than it absorbs

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• A carbon flux refers to the amount of carbon exchanged between carbon stocks over
a specified time. In simple terms, it is the movement of carbon between land, oceans,
atmosphere, and living things.

• A natural or artificial reservoir that absorbs more carbon than it releases is carbon
sink. Option B is the answer
ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - DIFFICULT

25. Consider the following regarding Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules,

2016

1. Red Bin - Plastic waste such as bottles, syringes, etc.

2. Yellow Bin - Infectious wastes such as cotton, bandage, placenta, etc.

3. Blue Bin - needles without syringes, metal articles, etc.

Which of the above are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - DIFFICULT

25. Consider the following regarding Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules,

2016

1. Red Bin - Plastic waste such as bottles, syringes, etc.

2. Yellow Bin - Infectious wastes such as cotton, bandage, placenta, etc.

3. Blue Bin - needles without syringes, metal articles, etc.

Which of the above are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• According to Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016,

• Bio-medical waste has been classified into 4 categories instead of 10 to improve the
segregation of waste at source and these 4 categories have colour-code.

o Red Bin for plastic waste such as bottles, syringes, etc. Statement 1 is correct.

o Yellow Bin for infectious wastes such as cotton, bandage, placenta, etc.
Statement 2 is correct.

o Blue Bin for glass bottles like discarded medicines. Statement 3 is incorrect.

o Black Bin for needles without syringes, metal articles, etc.

• Hence, option B is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

26. Consider the following statements regarding Baobabs

1. In India, they are found only in Madhya Pradesh.

2. They are deciduous trees.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

26. Consider the following statements regarding Baobabs

1. In India, they are found only in Madhya Pradesh.

2. They are deciduous trees.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Baobabs, while few and far in numbers across India, are considered the most
abundant in Mandu town in Madhya Pradesh, where the Bhil tribe has historically
preserved them. Statement 1 is not correct.

• Nicknamed “upside down” trees because their tops resemble uprooted plants
turned upside down.

• They are deciduous trees. Statement 2 is correct.

• Native to mainland Africa and the island country of Madagascar, the deciduous
baobab Adansonia digitata can live up to 2,000 years and is a globally threatened
species.

• Baobab tree is synonymous with Mandu in India. The fruit is a rich source of
Vitamin C and contains abundant antioxidants. It is used to treat stomach disorders.
Even the bark is used to cure several diseases.

• Option B is correct.
ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

27. Consider the following:

1. DNA damage

2. Organ dysfunction

3. Metabolic disorder

4. Reproductive toxicity

Which of the above can be a result of microplastic pollution?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

27. Consider the following:

1. DNA damage

2. Organ dysfunction

3. Metabolic disorder

4. Reproductive toxicity

Which of the above can be a result of microplastic pollution?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:

• Humans are potentially exposed to microplastics through oral intake, inhalation and
skin contact. The effect of microplastics consist of oxidative stress, DNA damage,
organ dysfunction, metabolic disorder, immune response, neurotoxicity, as well as
reproductive and developmental toxicity.

• Hence option D is correct

• In addition, epidemiological evidence suggested that a variety of chronic diseases

may be related to microplastics exposure.
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

28. Consider the following statements regarding Elephant Reserves

1. India is home to 33 Elephant Reserves in 16 States.

2. They are formally notified by the respective State Government.

3. Highest number of elephant reserves are found in Karnataka.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

28. Consider the following statements regarding Elephant Reserves

1. India is home to 33 Elephant Reserves in 16 States.

2. They are formally notified by the respective State Government.

3. Highest number of elephant reserves are found in Karnataka.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

• India is home to 33 Elephant Reserves in 14 States. Statement 1 is correct.

• Maximum elephant reserves, 5 each in Assam and Tamil Nādu. Statement 3 is

incorrect.

• Dandeli Elephant Reserve in Karnataka, Singphan Elephant Reserve in Nagaland,

Agasthiyamalai Elephant Reserve in Tamil Nadu and Terai Elephant Reserve (Uttar
Pradesh) are the most recent additions to India’s Elephant Reserves.

• Elephant Reserves are formally notified by the respective State Government.

Statement 2 is correct.

• Option B is the answer.

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

29. Which of the following isn’t responsible for global warming?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Black carbon

C. Organic Carbon

D. None of the above

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

29. Which of the following isn’t responsible for global warming?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Black carbon

C. Organic Carbon

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• Option C is the correct answer.

ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

30. Consider the following statements regarding IUCN Red List of Ecosystems

1. Mangroves of South India are recognised as Endangered.

2. Mangroves of South China Sea are classified as Critically endangered.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
ENVIRONMENT – ECOSYSTEMS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

30. Consider the following statements regarding IUCN Red List of Ecosystems

1. Mangroves of South India are recognised as Endangered.

2. Mangroves of South China Sea are classified as Critically endangered.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• It is the first time that mangroves along the road have been assessed using the IUCN
Red List of Ecosystems as a measurement tool. The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems
serves as a global standard for assessing ecosystem health.

• The assessment was carried out in 36 regions across 44 countries, with over 250
experts from various institutions including IUCN Commission on Ecosystem
Management, IUCN Species Survival Commission and Global Mangrove Alliance.

• The mangrove ecosystems of south India, Sri Lanka, the Maldives and North West
Atlantic were identified as critically endangered, while the Agulhas, Central Pacific,
East Coral Triangle, east central and south east Australian shelf, Red Sea, Gulf of
Aden and South China Sea were classified as endangered. Statement 1 and 2 are
incorrect.
Explanation:

• According to the assessment, 50 per cent of the ecosystems examined were classified
as vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered, with a risk of collapse by 2050.

• It showed that nearly 20 per cent (19.6 per cent) of the assessed mangroves are at
high risk and have been marked as endangered or critically endangered, indicating a
severe risk of collapse.

• Nearly 33 per cent of the mangrove systems on the plant are threatened by the
impacts of climate change.

• Mangrove ecosystems sequester approximately 11 billion tonnes of carbon, which is

roughly three times the amount of carbon stored by tropical forests of comparable
size. It also protects 15.4 million people and supports 126 million fishing days per
year, providing a vital source of income for local communities.

• Option C is the correct answer.

Environment - Renewable Energy

Difficulty Level - Medium

31. Consider the following statements regarding E100 fuel

1. It consists of 100 percent ethanol.

2. When using 100% ethanol as fuel, flames aren't visible, so it's difficult to tell if
there's a fire.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Environment - Renewable Energy

Difficulty Level - Medium

31. Consider the following statements regarding E100 fuel

1. It consists of 100 percent ethanol.

2. When using 100% ethanol as fuel, flames aren't visible, so it's difficult to tell if
there's a fire.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• E100 fuel is a renewable fuel made from ethanol, gasoline, and a co-solvent. It's a
cleaner alternative to gasoline, with lower emissions and a higher octane rating.
E100 can be used in many vehicles, including flex-fuel vehicles.

• E100 is made up of 93–93.5% ethanol, 5% gasoline, and 1.5% co-solvent. Statement 1

is incorrect.

• When using 100% ethanol as fuel, flames aren't visible, so it's difficult to tell if there's
a fire. Statement 2 is correct.

• Adding petrol to E100 fuel makes flames yellow, so it's easier to see if there's a fire.

• For safety reasons, the specifications for E100 fuel in India now include a blend of
ethanol and petrol.

• Option B is the correct answer.

32. Consider the following statements regarding Earth Day 2025

1. It is coordinated globally by the World Wildlife Fund for Nature.

2. The theme for Earth Day 2025 is ‘Planet vs Plastics’

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
32. Consider the following statements regarding Earth Day 2025

1. It is coordinated globally by the World Wildlife Fund for Nature.

2. The theme for Earth Day 2025 is ‘Planet vs Plastics’

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Earth Day is an annual event on April 22 to demonstrate support for environmental

protection. First held on April 22, 1970, it now includes a wide range of events
coordinated globally by EARTHDAY.ORG (formerly Earth Day Network)including
1 billion people in more than 193 countries

• Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The theme of Earth Day 2025 (April 22) is OUR POWER, OUR PLANET

• Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Option D is the answer

Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Medium

33. Which of the following statements about Black Carbon is/are incorrect:

1. Unlike other greenhouse gas emissions, Black Carbon is quickly washed out
and can be eliminated from the atmosphere if emissions stop.

2. It is a short-lived pollutant that is one of the largest contributors to cooling of

the planet.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct

D. None is correct
Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Medium

33. Which of the following statements about Black Carbon is/are incorrect:

1. Unlike other greenhouse gas emissions, Black Carbon is quickly washed out
and can be eliminated from the atmosphere if emissions stop.

2. It is a short-lived pollutant that is one of the largest contributors to cooling of

the planet.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct

D. None is correct
Explanation:

• Black carbon is a kind of an aerosol.

• An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in the air.

• Among aerosols (such as brown carbon, sulphates), Black Carbon (BC) has been
recognized as the second most important anthropogenic agent for climate change
and the primary marker to understand the adverse effects caused by air pollution.

• It gets emitted from gas and diesel engines, coal-fired power plants, and other
sources that burn fossil fuel. It comprises a significant portion of particulate matter
or PM, which is an air pollutant

• BC is a short-lived pollutant that is the second-largest contributor to warming the

planet behind carbon dioxide (CO2). Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:

• Unlike other greenhouse gas emissions, BC is quickly washed out and can be
eliminated from the atmosphere if emissions stop.

• Unlike historical carbon emissions it is also a localised source with greater local
impact.

• Option B is the answer.

Environment - Biodiversity

Difficulty Level - Intense

34. Irrawaddy Dolphins are primarily found in:

1. Mekong in China

2. Irrawaddy in Myanmar

3. Mahakam in Indonesian Borneo

4. Chilika lake in India

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Environment - Biodiversity

Difficulty Level - Intense

34. Irrawaddy Dolphins are primarily found in:

1. Mekong in China

2. Irrawaddy in Myanmar

3. Mahakam in Indonesian Borneo

4. Chilika lake in India

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:

• The Irrawaddy Dolphins have been listed under Endangered category in the IUCN
Red List.

• The Dolphin distribution in Chilika lake is the highest single lagoon population.

• Irrawaddy dolphin is the flagship species inhabiting the lake.

• These dolphins are mainly found in three rivers namely Mekong (China), Irrawaddy
(Myanmar) and Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo).

• Option D is the answer.

• Dolphins have been included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act
1972, in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
(CITES), in Appendix II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and
categorised as ‘endangered’ on the International Union for the Conservation of
Nature’s Red List.
Environment - Biodiversity

Difficulty Level - Medium

35. Sea butterflies belong to which of the following categories of Animal

kingdom?

A. Insects

B. Crustaceans

C. Mollusca

D. Arachnids
Environment - Biodiversity

Difficulty Level - Medium

35. Sea butterflies belong to which of the following categories of Animal

kingdom?

A. Insects

B. Crustaceans

C. Mollusca

D. Arachnids
Explanation:

• They are small, pelagic, free-swimming sea snails known as

holoplanktonic opisthobranch gastropod mollusks.

• Option C is the correct answer.

• The sea butterflies include some of the world's most abundant

gastropod species, as their large numbers are an essential part of
the ocean food chain, they are a significant contributor to the
oceanic carbon cycle .

• They are found in all oceans but are more diverse and abundant in
colder waters.

• The population of the sea butterflies in the Southern Ocean is

shrinking due to climate change, making them extremely
vulnerable.
Environment - Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

36. Consider the following statements regarding Paira cropping:

1. It is practiced mainly in South India.

2. It involves sowing a second crop, like lentils or peas, into a rice crop that's
maturing.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Environment - Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

36. Consider the following statements regarding Paira cropping:

1. It is practiced mainly in South India.

2. It involves sowing a second crop, like lentils or peas, into a rice crop that's
maturing.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Paira cropping is a sustainable agricultural practice that involves sowing a second

crop, like lentils or peas, into a rice crop that's maturing. Statement 2 is correct.

• It's also known as relay or utera cropping.

• Benefits of Paira cropping

o Saves time and money: Reduces the need for land preparation

o Improves soil fertility: Uses residual fertility from the rice crop

o Increases income: Improves crop productivity and nutritional intake of farming

families

o Conserves resources: Uses soil moisture that would otherwise be lost after rice
harvest

• It is majorly practiced in Eastern India – Bihar, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, etc. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Option B is the answer.

Environment - Ecosystems

Difficulty Level - Medium

37. Consider the following places:

1. Sakkarakottai

2. Therthangal

3. Khecheopalri

They were in news recently, because they have recently been recognised as:

A. Tiger Reserves

B. Elephant Reserves

C. Vulture Parks

D. None of the above

Environment - Ecosystems

Difficulty Level - Medium

37. Consider the following places:

1. Sakkarakottai

2. Therthangal

3. Khecheopalri

They were in news recently, because they have recently been recognised as:

A. Tiger Reserves

B. Elephant Reserves

C. Vulture Parks

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• The Centre has announced the addition of four new Ramsar sites in India, increasing
the total to 89.

• The newly designated Ramsar sites include Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary and
Therthangal Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu, Khecheopalri Wetland in Sikkim, and
Udhwa Lake in Jharkhand. This marks a significant milestone for Sikkim and
Jharkhand, as they have secured their first ever Ramsar sites.

• The places given above are newly designated. Ramsar sites.

• Option D is the answer.

Environment – Climate Change

Difficulty Level - Easy

38. State of the Global Climate report is released by

A. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

B. World Meteorological Organization

C. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

D. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

Environment – Climate Change

Difficulty Level - Easy

38. State of the Global Climate report is released by

A. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

B. World Meteorological Organization

C. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

D. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

Explanation:

• The State of the Climate report is an annual publication from the World
Meteorological Organization (WMO) that documents the current state of the climate
and projects future trends. Option B is the answer.

• State of the Climate 2024 report

o The year 2024 is on track to be the warmest year on record after an extended
streak of exceptionally high monthly global mean temperatures.

o From January to September of this year, the global average

temperature was 1.54 degrees above the pre-industrial level, with climate
warming boosted by the El Niño weather pattern.

o It said 2015-2024 would be the warmest ten years on record, adding that ocean
warming rates show a particularly strong increase in the past two decades and
the planet’s seas will continue to heat up irreversibly.
Explanation:

o 2023 already showed the highest observed levels of greenhouse gas emissions on
record, and real-time data indicates they continued to rise in 2024.

o The volume of heat-trapping carbon dioxide increased by 51% between 1750 and
2023.
Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Medium

39. Consider the following statements with regard to the harmful effects of
chemicals in drinking water:

1. High concentration of Fluoride in drinking water causes tooth decay.

2. Deficiency of Lead in drinking water can damage the kidney and liver.

3. Excessive nitrate in drinking water causes the ‘blue baby’ syndrome.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1 statement is correct

B. Only 2 statements are correct

C. All 3 statements are correct

D. All three statements are incorrect

Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Medium

39. Consider the following statements with regard to the harmful effects of
chemicals in drinking water:

1. High concentration of Fluoride in drinking water causes tooth decay.

2. Deficiency of Lead in drinking water can damage the kidney and liver.

3. Excessive nitrate in drinking water causes the ‘blue baby’ syndrome.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1 statement is correct

B. Only 2 statements are correct

C. All 3 statements are correct

D. All three statements are incorrect

Explanation:

• As water is an excellent solvent, water- soluble inorganic chemicals that include

heavy metals such as cadmium, mercury, nickel, etc. constitute an important class of
pollutants. All these metals are dangerous to humans because our bodies cannot
excrete them. Over time, it crosses the tolerance limit. These metals then can damage
the kidneys, the central nervous system, the liver, etc.

• Fluoride: For drinking purposes, water should be tested for fluoride ion
concentration. Its deficiency in drinking water is harmful to man and causes diseases
such as tooth decay etc. Soluble fluoride is often added to drinking water to bring its
concentration up to 1 ppm. At the same time, excess fluoride (over 10 ppm) causes
harmful effects on bones and teeth, as reported in some parts of Rajasthan.
Statement 1 is correct
Explanation:

• Lead: Drinking water gets contaminated with lead when lead pipes are used for the
transportation of water. The prescribed upper limit concentration of lead in drinking
water is about 50 ppb. Lead can damage the kidney, liver, reproductive system, etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect
• The normal level of lead in drinking water in India is defined by the Bureau of Indian
Standards (BIS) as 0.05 mg/L (50 ppb).

• The World Health Organization (WHO) proposes a limit of 0.01 mg/L.

• Nitrate: The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is 50 ppm. Excess nitrate in
drinking water can cause diseases such as methemoglobinemia (‘blue baby’
syndrome). Statement 3 is correct
Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Medium

40. Which of the following is/are uses of Steel Slag?

1. It is used to treat alkaline water.

2. It can be used as a silicate fertilizer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Medium

40. Which of the following is/are uses of Steel Slag?

1. It is used to treat alkaline water.

2. It can be used as a silicate fertilizer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Steel Slag is an industrial by-product obtained from the steel manufacturing

industry. It is generated from a steel furnace burning at around 1,500-1,600 degrees
centigrade in the form of molten flux material as an impurity.

• It is used to treat acidic water. Statement 1 is incorrect.

• In the Agricultural sector, due to its ability to correct soil acidity, it is used as a
silicate fertilizer that is capable of providing silicon to the plants. Statement 2 is
correct

• Option B is the answer.

Environment - Biodiversity

Difficulty Level - Medium

41. Consider the following statements regarding Mithun

1. It is endemic to the state of Arunachal Pradesh.

2. Its IUCN status is Endangered.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Environment - Biodiversity

Difficulty Level - Medium

41. Consider the following statements regarding Mithun

1. It is endemic to the state of Arunachal Pradesh.

2. Its IUCN status is Endangered.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Mithun (Bos frontalis), a magnificent semi domesticated and unique bovine species,
is believed to have originated more than 8000 years ago.

• The highest concentration of mithuns in the world is spread over North Eastern (NE)
region of India with Arunachal Pradesh having the highest mithun population.

• It is the State animal of both Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

• It is also found in parts of Southeast Asia viz. Bangladesh, Myanmar and Bhutan.
Statement 1 is incorrect.

• ‘Soulung’ festival is observed annually by the Adi tribes of Arunachal Pradesh to

commensurate the birth and arrival of mithun on this earth.

• The animal is sacrificed during such festivals at which time its meat is eaten .
Explanation:

• In a landmark decision, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
has officially recognized the Mithun, a captivating and culturally significant bovine
species found in Northeast India, as a 'food animal’.

• IUCN status – Vulnerable. Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Option D is the correct answer.

Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Medium

42. Consider the following:

1. DNA damage

2. Organ dysfunction

3. Metabolic disorder

4. Reproductive toxicity

Which of the above can be a result of exposure to forever chemicals?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Medium

42. Consider the following:

1. DNA damage

2. Organ dysfunction

3. Metabolic disorder

4. Reproductive toxicity

Which of the above can be a result of exposure to forever chemicals?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:

Forever chemicals also known as per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances, or PFAS are
known to have effects like-

• DNA damage – Some studies suggest that PFAS exposure can lead to genetic
mutations and oxidative stress.

• Organ dysfunction – PFAS can accumulate in organs like the liver and kidneys,
leading to their dysfunction.

• Metabolic disorders – PFAS have been associated with obesity, insulin resistance,
and other metabolic issues.

• Reproductive toxicity – PFAS are known to affect fertility and fetal development.

• Option D is the correct answer.

Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Intense

43. The DRC’s mineral-rich eastern region consists of 3Ts.

How many of the following minerals are included in 3Ts?

1. Tin

2. Tungsten

3. Titanium

Choose the correct option from below

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Environment - Pollution

Difficulty Level - Intense

43. The DRC’s mineral-rich eastern region consists of 3Ts.

How many of the following minerals are included in 3Ts?

1. Tin

2. Tungsten

3. Titanium

Choose the correct option from below

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:

• The DRC’s mineral-rich eastern region, home to tantalum, tin, tungsten, and gold
(collectively known as 3T or 3TG), has been plagued by violence for decades.

• These minerals are also known as blood minerals, because all the wars in eastern
DRC have involved access to mineral resources, in the forests and villages inhabited
by indigenous and local communities, where women and children are either
deprived of their villages and fields, raped, killed or mutilated, or forced to work in
the mines.

• Option B is the correct answer.

44. Which of the following environmental conventions and their mandates
is/are correctly matched:

1. Stockholm Convention - Persistent Organic Pollutants

2. Basel Convention - Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous

Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade

3. Rotterdam Convention - Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous

Wastes and Their Disposal

4. Minamata Convention - Mercury

Options:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 ,3 and 4
44. Which of the following environmental conventions and their mandates
is/are correctly matched:

1. Stockholm Convention - Persistent Organic Pollutants

2. Basel Convention - Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous

Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade

3. Rotterdam Convention - Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous

Wastes and Their Disposal

4. Minamata Convention - Mercury

Options:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 ,3 and 4
Explanation:

• Stockholm Convention

o The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global

environmental treaty that became effective in 2004. 1 is correct.

o Its primary objective is to eliminate or limit the production and usage of

persistent organic pollutants (POPs).

o These POPs are chemical substances that endure in the environment, accumulate
in the food chain, and present a potential risk of causing detrimental effects to
human health and the environment.
Explanation:

• Basel Convention

o The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of

Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal is a global treaty crafted to diminish the
transportation of hazardous waste across borders. 2 is incorrect.

o Its primary objective is to curb the transfer of hazardous waste from developed
nations to less developed countries (LDCs).

o Notably, the convention does not specifically tackle the transboundary

movement of radioactive waste.
Explanation:

• Rotterdam convention

o The Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for

Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade is a
multilateral treaty designed to encourage collective responsibility concerning the
import of hazardous chemicals.3 is incorrect.

o This convention advocates for transparent information exchange and urges

exporters of hazardous chemicals to employ appropriate labeling and safe
handling practices.

o Additionally, exporters are required to notify purchasers of any known

restrictions or bans.

o Under the treaty, nations that have signed can make decisions on permitting or
prohibiting the importation of chemicals listed within the agreement.
Explanation:

• Minamata Convention

o The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty aimed at protecting

human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury. 4 is
correct.

o The convention was adopted in October 2013 in Kumamoto, Japan, and entered
into force on August 16, 2017.

o The primary goal is to protect human health and the environment from mercury
pollution.

o It addresses various aspects, including mercury mining, trade, emissions,

products containing mercury, and the management of mercury-containing
waste.

• Option B is the correct answer.

Environment - Biodiversity

Difficulty Level - Medium

45. India has initiated numerous ambitious initiatives over time to safeguard
wildlife. In this regard, arrange the following conservation projects
chronologically, starting with the earliest:

1. Project Tiger

2. Project Elephant

3. Project Crocodile

4. Project Dolphin

Select the correct sequence using the code provided below:

A. 1-2-3-4

B. 1-3-2-4

C. 2-1-4-3

D. 2-3-1-4
Environment - Biodiversity

Difficulty Level - Medium

45. India has initiated numerous ambitious initiatives over time to safeguard
wildlife. In this regard, arrange the following conservation projects
chronologically, starting with the earliest:

1. Project Tiger

2. Project Elephant

3. Project Crocodile

4. Project Dolphin

Select the correct sequence using the code provided below:

A. 1-2-3-4

B. 1-3-2-4

C. 2-1-4-3

D. 2-3-1-4
Explanation:

• Project Tiger (1973) – Launched by the Government of India to protect Bengal tigers
and their habitats.

• Project Crocodile (1975) – Initiated to protect and conserve crocodile species,

including the Gharial, Mugger, and Saltwater crocodile.

• Project Elephant (1992) – Launched to protect elephants and their corridors.

• Project Dolphin (2021) – Aimed at conserving the Gangetic Dolphin.

• Option B is the correct answer.

46. With reference to the Global Environment Facility (GEF), consider the
following statements:

1. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established during the Rio Earth
Summit.

2. The GEF provides funding only for climate change mitigation projects in
developing countries.

3. Financial contributions to the GEF are replenished every four years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
46. With reference to the Global Environment Facility (GEF), consider the
following statements:

1. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established during the Rio Earth
Summit.

2. The GEF provides funding only for climate change mitigation projects in
developing countries.

3. Financial contributions to the GEF are replenished every four years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

Global Environment Facility

• The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established 30 years ago on the eve of
the Rio Earth Summit to tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems.
So, Statement 1 is correct

• The GEF is the largest multilateral trust fund focused on enabling developing
countries to invest in nature and supports the implementation of major international
environmental conventions including on biodiversity, climate change, chemicals,
and desertification. So, Statement 2 is incorrect

• It brings together 184 member governments in addition to civil society, international

organizations, and private sector partners.
Explanation:

• The financial contributions to the GEF are replenished every four years. So,
Statement 3 is correct

• The Fund is currently in its 8th replenishment cycle, GEF-8: 2023 –2026.

• In June 2022, donors to the GEF pledged a record $5.33 billion in support for its
latest four-year replenishment cycle, which runs until June 2026.

• Through its Small Grants Programme, the GEF has provided support to more than
25,000 civil society and community initiatives in 135 countries.

• An independently operating financial organization, the GEF provides grants for

projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land
degradation, the ozone layer, persistent organic pollutants (POPs), mercury,
sustainable forest management, food security, and sustainable cities.
47. Consider the following statements regarding Strategic Interventions for
Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme:
1. SIGHT programme aims to establish a manufacturing base for electrolysers
and production facilities for green hydrogen in India.

2. The total financial outlay under the SIGHT programme is ₹13,050 crore for
manufacturing electrolysers and producing green hydrogen.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
47. Consider the following statements regarding Strategic Interventions for
Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme:
1. SIGHT programme aims to establish a manufacturing base for electrolysers
and production facilities for green hydrogen in India.

2. The total financial outlay under the SIGHT programme is ₹13,050 crore for
manufacturing electrolysers and producing green hydrogen.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

SIGHT

• MNRE launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission, for implementing the
Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme that
aims to establish electrolyser manufacturing base and green hydrogen producing
facilities. So, Statement 1 is correct

• Under Component 1 of SIGHT, the MNRE has allocated ₹4,440 crore for
manufacturing electrolysers for the period FY26 to FY30, while Component 2 deals
with an allocation of ₹13,050 crore for producing green hydrogen from FY26 to FY30.
So, Statement 2 is incorrect

• Overall, under SIGHT, the total financial incentive is ₹17,490 crore and the two
components have been launched with the aim of enabling rapid scale-up, technology
development and cost reduction.
48. Consider the following regarding Megadiverse countries

1. A megadiverse country must have at least 5,000 species of endemic

angiosperms and must border marine ecosystems.

2. There are 12 Megadiverse countries in the world.

3. India is one of the Megadiverse countries.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

48. Consider the following regarding Megadiverse countries

1. A megadiverse country must have at least 5,000 species of endemic

angiosperms and must border marine ecosystems.

2. There are 12 Megadiverse countries in the world.

3. India is one of the Megadiverse countries.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:

• The term megadiverse country refers to any one of a group of nations that harbor
the majority of Earth's species and high numbers of endemic species.

• Conservation International identified 17 megadiverse countries in 1998. Statement 2

is incorrect.

• Many of them are located in, or partially in, tropical or subtropical regions.

• India is one of the 17 Megadiverse countries. Statement 3 is correct.

• Megadiversity means exhibiting great biodiversity.

• The main criterion for megadiverse countries is endemism at the level of species,
genera and families.

• A megadiverse country must have at least 5,000 species of endemic plants and must
border marine ecosystems. Statement 1 is incorrect.
49. With reference to Biobutanol, choose the incorrect statement:

A. Biobutanol is produced from biomass feedstocks.

B. Biobutanol has a higher energy density than gasoline.

C. Biobutanol has a lower Reid vapor pressure than ethanol.

D. Biobutanol’s production and use result in fewer emissions compared to

petroleum fuels.
49. With reference to Biobutanol, choose the incorrect statement:

A. Biobutanol is produced from biomass feedstocks.

B. Biobutanol has a higher energy density than gasoline.

C. Biobutanol has a lower Reid vapor pressure than ethanol.

D. Biobutanol’s production and use result in fewer emissions compared to

petroleum fuels.
Explanation:

Biobutanol

• Butanol, a 4-carbon alcohol (butylalcohol), is produced from the same feedstocks as

ethanol, including corn grain and other biomass. So, option A is correct.

• The term biobutanol refers to butanol made from biomass feedstocks.

Benefits:

• Higher energy content—Biobutanol's energy content is relatively high among

gasoline alternatives. However, biobutanol's energy density is 10%–20% lower than
gasoline's energy density. So, option B is incorrect.

• Lower Reid vapor pressure—When compared with ethanol, biobutanol has a lower
vapor pressure, which means lower volatility and evaporative emissions. So, option
C is correct.
Explanation:

• Fewer emissions—Fewer emissions are generated with the use of biobutanol

compared with petroleum fuels. Carbon dioxide captured by growing feedstocks
reduces overall greenhouse gas emissions by balancing carbon dioxide released from
burning biobutanol. So, option D is correct.

• More transport options— Biobutanol is immiscible with water, meaning that it may
be able to be transported in pipelines to reduce transport costs.
50. With reference to the phenomenon of Red Snow or Watermelon Snow,
consider the following statements:

1. The red color in Watermelon Snow is caused by the presence of a secondary

red carotenoid pigment.

2. The presence of Chlamydomonas nivalis increases the albedo of snow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
50. With reference to the phenomenon of Red Snow or Watermelon Snow,
consider the following statements:

1. The red color in Watermelon Snow is caused by the presence of a secondary

red carotenoid pigment.

2. The presence of Chlamydomonas nivalis increases the albedo of snow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Red Snow/Watermelon Snow

• It is a phenomenon caused by Chlamydomonas nivalis, a species of green algae

containing a secondary red carotenoid pigment (astaxanthin) in addition to
chlorophyll. So, Statement 1 is correct

• Unlike most species of freshwater algae, it is cryophilic (cold-loving) and thrives in

freezing water.

• This alga species, Chlamydomonas Nivalis, exists in snow in the polar and glacial
regions and carries a red pigment to keep itself warm.

• These algae change the snow’s albedo which refers to the amount of light or
radiation the snow surface can reflect.
Explanation:

• The presence of the algae reduces the albedo (reflectivity) of snow, leading to
increased absorption of sunlight and faster melting of snow, not slower. So,
Statement 2 is incorrect

• Changes in albedo lead to more melting.

• In the melting of snow in the Arctic, key drivers have been snow and ice-albedo.
51. Consider the following statements related to Methanotrophs:

1. They are eukaryotes.

2. They metabolize methane as source their of carbon and chemical energy.

3. They grow best when oxygen is absent.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1 statement is correct

B. Only 2 statements are correct

C. All 3 statements are correct

D. None of the above

51. Consider the following statements related to Methanotrophs:

1. They are eukaryotes.

2. They metabolize methane as source their of carbon and chemical energy.

3. They grow best when oxygen is absent.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1 statement is correct

B. Only 2 statements are correct

C. All 3 statements are correct

D. None of the above

Explanation:

• Methane-utilizing bacteria (methanotrophs) are a diverse group of gram-negative

bacteria(prokaryotes). Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Methanotrophic microorganisms oxidize methane to harness energy under aerobic

and anaerobic conditions. Statement 2 is correct.

• They can grow aerobically or anaerobically, and require single-carbon compounds

to survive. Statement 3 is incorrect.

• They grow best when the methane concentration is around 5,000-10,000 parts per
million (ppm).

• However, methane levels in key emission sites are around 500 ppm. So the
researchers screened a range of existing methanotrophs to identify those that
consume such low methane (500 ppm) at significantly higher rates.
Explanation:

• Methylotuvimicrobium buryatense 5GB1C performed the best at 500 ppm.

• Further tests also showed that this strain grew well even at 200 ppm.

• It can grow at low methane concentrations ranging from 200-1,000 ppm.

• These features make this strain a promising candidate for methane removal
technology.

• Hence, option A is correct.

52. With reference to the Loss and Damage Fund, choose the incorrect statement:

A. The Loss and Damage Fund was established during COP27 held in Egypt to
support countries vulnerable to climate change impacts.

B. The fund is aimed at providing financial assistance exclusively to small island

states.

C. The total pledged financial support for the Fund currently exceeds $730
million.

D. The Loss and Damage Fund is expected to begin financing projects starting in
2025.
52. With reference to the Loss and Damage Fund, choose the incorrect statement:

A. The Loss and Damage Fund was established during COP27 held in Egypt to
support countries vulnerable to climate change impacts.

B. The fund is aimed at providing financial assistance exclusively to small

island states.

C. The total pledged financial support for the Fund currently exceeds $730
million.

D. The Loss and Damage Fund is expected to begin financing projects starting in
2025.
Explanation:

Loss and Damage Fund

• At COP29, a decision was made to ensure the full operationalization of the Loss and
Damage Fund, long awaited by developing countries, including small island states,
least developed countries, and African nations. So, Statement B is incorrect

• The establishment of the Loss and Damage Fund was agreed upon during COP27
held in Egypt. So, Statement A is correct

• The fund aims to provide financial assistance to countries most vulnerable to the
impacts of climate change.

• To date, the total pledged financial support for the Fund exceeds $730 million. So,
Statement C is correct

• With these achievements, the Loss and Damage Fund will be able to start financing
projects beginning in 2025. So, Statement D is correct
53. With reference to the World Energy Trilemma Index (WETI), consider the
following statements:

1. The World Energy Trilemma Index (WETI) measures the energy system
performances of countries based on the dimensions of Energy Security, Energy
Equity, and Environmental Sustainability.

2. The ranking is based on 32 indicators across 11 categories, with equal

weightage given to all dimensions.

3. The World Energy Council has been preparing the World Energy Trilemma
Index annually since 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

53. With reference to the World Energy Trilemma Index (WETI), consider the
following statements:

1. The World Energy Trilemma Index (WETI) measures the energy system
performances of countries based on the dimensions of Energy Security, Energy
Equity, and Environmental Sustainability.

2. The ranking is based on 32 indicators across 11 categories, with equal

weightage given to all dimensions.

3. The World Energy Council has been preparing the World Energy Trilemma
Index annually since 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:

World Energy Trilemma Index (WETI)

• Since 2010, the World Energy Council has been preparing the World Energy
Trilemma Index which annually measures the energy system performances of 127
countries across the following dimensions: So, Statement 3 is correct

• Energy Security: This measures the capacity of nations to provide a sufficient and
reliable supply of energy to meet their current and future energy demand.

• Energy Equity: This measures each nation’s ability to ensure universal accessibility,
affordability and reliability of energy for domestic as well as commercial use.

• Environmental Sustainability: This captures indicators that measure the efficiency of

the nation’s energy system to mitigate and avoid potential harm to the environment
and climate change impact.
Explanation:

• Country Context Dimension: This captures elements such as macroeconomics,

governance and institutional conditions that enable economies to develop and
implement their energy policy effectively.

• So, Statement 1 is correct

• The overall Index ranking of each country is calculated based on 32 indicators,

falling under 11 categories across the above-mentioned dimensions.

• Energy Security, Energy Equity and Environmental Sustainability are given equal
weightage of 30 percent each and the Country Context dimension has 10 percent
weightage. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
54. With reference to the ‘Solar Facility’ approved by the International Solar
Alliance (ISA), consider the following statements:

1. The Solar Facility includes two financial components — a Solar Payment

Guarantee Fund and a Solar Insurance Fund — to attract investments in solar
projects.

2. The Solar Payment Guarantee Fund provides a full guarantee to cover all
financial risks involved in solar projects in underserved markets.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
54. With reference to the ‘Solar Facility’ approved by the International Solar
Alliance (ISA), consider the following statements:

1. The Solar Facility includes two financial components — a Solar Payment

Guarantee Fund and a Solar Insurance Fund — to attract investments in solar
projects.

2. The Solar Payment Guarantee Fund provides a full guarantee to cover all
financial risks involved in solar projects in underserved markets.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Solar Facility

• To bolster investments in solar power projects, the International Solar Alliance (ISA),
approved the ‘Solar Facility’, a payment guarantee mechanism expected to stimulate
investments into solar projects through two financial components — a Solar
Payment Guarantee Fund and Solar Insurance Fund. So, Statement 1 is correct

• The thrust of the facility is to attract private capital to flow into “underserved
markets” in Africa.

• The ISA would aim to crowdsource investments from various donors across the
globe and proposed projects in Africa would be able to purchase payment
guarantees or partial insurance premium from these funds.

• The payment guarantee fund will only provide a partial guarantee.

Explanation:

• With minimal default, the guarantee fund would enable investments in geographies
that do not receive investments. So, Statement 2 is incorrect

• In addition, the Solar Insurance Fund will reduce the burden of insurance premium
for solar developers in the pre-revenue phase of the project.

• It will offset the cost of insurance for a specified period.

55. With reference to Cryopreservation, choose the incorrect statement:

A. Cryopreservation involves the storage of biological material at ultralow

temperatures, typically at −196°C in liquid nitrogen.

B. Cryopreservation is primarily used for storing seeds and tissues through rapid
cooling and dehydration techniques.

C. Cryopreservation is useful for conserving vegetatively propagated crops such

as potato.

D. Cryopreservation can only store materials for a short period due to the risk of
degradation at low temperatures.
55. With reference to Cryopreservation, choose the incorrect statement:

A. Cryopreservation involves the storage of biological material at ultralow

temperatures, typically at −196°C in liquid nitrogen.

B. Cryopreservation is primarily used for storing seeds and tissues through rapid
cooling and dehydration techniques.

C. Cryopreservation is useful for conserving vegetatively propagated crops such

as potato.

D. Cryopreservation can only store materials for a short period due to the risk
of degradation at low temperatures.
Explanation:

Cryopreservation

• This type of in vitro conservation is done in liquid nitrogen at a temperature of

−196°C. So, Statement A is correct

• This is particularly useful for conserving vegetatively propagated crops, for

example, potato. So, Statement C is correct

• Cryopreservation is the storage of material at ultralow temperature (−196°C) either

by very rapid cooling, as used for storing seeds, or by gradual cooling and
simultaneous dehydration, as being done in tissue culture. So, Statement B is
correct

• In cryopreservation, the material can be stored for a considerably long period of

time in compact low maintenance refrigeration units. So, Statement D is incorrect.
56. With reference to Hope Spots, consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep islands have
recently been named as the new "Hope Spots" from India.

Reason (R): Hope Spots are ecologically unique marine areas designated under a
global conservation campaign by Mission Blue to promote marine biodiversity
and reduce human resource extraction.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

56. With reference to Hope Spots, consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep islands have
recently been named as the new "Hope Spots" from India.

Reason (R): Hope Spots are ecologically unique marine areas designated under a
global conservation campaign by Mission Blue to promote marine biodiversity
and reduce human resource extraction.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Explanation:

Hope Spots

• Hope Spots are ecologically unique areas of the ocean designated for protection
under a global conservation campaign overseen by Mission Blue, a non-profit
organization founded by Sylvia Earle with her 2009 TED prize wish.

• Hope Spots can be Marine Protected Areas (MPA) that need attention or new sites.

• They are chosen for their contributions to biodiversity, the carbon sink, and
important habitat.

• Hope Spot status is intended to alleviate the pressures human resource extraction
places on the ocean by making the site higher priority to become an MPA, where
resource extraction, like fishing and drilling, may be forbidden under law.

• Mission Blue is a global coalition to create public awareness, to access and support
for a worldwide network of Marine Protected Areas i.e. Hope Spots. So, Reason (R)
is correct:
Explanation:

• Mission Blue has partnered with the International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) and receives support from National Geographic, Rolex, and Google.

• Hope Spot Network is a joint initiative of Mission Blue and International Union Of
Conservation of Nature (IUCN)

• There are 150 Hope Spots in the world.

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep islands have recently been named
as the new “hope spots” from India. So, Assertion (A) is correct

• In Lakshadweep group of islands, Pitti (0.01 square kilometer) is the only island that
has marine protected areas (MPA) tag.

• Since R explains why A is true, (A) is the correct answer.

57. Consider the following statements regarding to Desiccation-Tolerant
Vascular (DT) Plants:

1. Desiccation-Tolerant Vascular (DT) plants can survive extreme dehydration by

losing up to 95% of their water content.

2. DT plants are predominantly found in the temperate regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
57. Consider the following statements regarding to Desiccation-Tolerant
Vascular (DT) Plants:

1. Desiccation-Tolerant Vascular (DT) plants can survive extreme dehydration by

losing up to 95% of their water content.

2. DT plants are predominantly found in the temperate regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Desiccation -Tolerant Vascular (DT) Plants

• India’s biodiversity hotspot, the Western Ghats, is home to 62 Desiccation-Tolerant

Vascular Plant Species which could have applications in agriculture, particularly in
areas with scarcity of water.

• Desiccation-tolerant vascular (DT) plants are able to withstand extreme dehydration,

losing up to 95% of their water content, and they revive themselves once water is
available again. So, Statement 1 is correct

• This unique ability allows them to survive in harsh, arid environments that would
be uninhabitable for most other plants.

• DT plants have been studied for their possible applications in agriculture,

particularly in areas with limited water resources.

• In tropical regions, they are the predominant occupants of rock outcrops. So,
Statement 2 is incorrect
58. With reference to Marsupials, which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. Marsupials belong to the infraclass Eutheria.

B. Marsupials give birth to fully developed offspring which are nursed in a

protective pouch.

C. Marsupials are found only in Australia and New Zealand.

D. Kangaroos and koalas are examples of marsupials.

58. With reference to Marsupials, which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. Marsupials belong to the infraclass Eutheria.

B. Marsupials give birth to fully developed offspring which are nursed in a

protective pouch.

C. Marsupials are found only in Australia and New Zealand.

D. Kangaroos and koalas are examples of marsupials.

Explanation:

Marsupials

• A marsupial is a mammal that belongs to the infraclass Metatheria, which is

sometimes called Marsupialia. So, Statement A is incorrect

• There are more than 250 marsupial species.

• Marsupials are characterized by premature birth and continued development of the

newborn while attached to the nipples on the mother's lower belly. (pouched
mammals) So, Statement B is incorrect

• While most marsupials are found in Australia and New Guinea, some species like
opossums are found in the Americas. So, Statement C is incorrect

• Examples - Kangaroos, koalas, etc. So, Statement D is correct

59. With reference to the Forest Owlet, consider the following statements:

1. The Forest Owlet is an owl species endemic to the rainforests of the Western
Ghats in India.

2. It was rediscovered after 113 years in 1997.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
59. With reference to the Forest Owlet, consider the following statements:

1. The Forest Owlet is an owl species endemic to the rainforests of the Western
Ghats in India.

2. It was rediscovered after 113 years in 1997.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• The forest owlet is an owl that is endemic to the forests of central India.

• South Madhya Pradesh, in north-west Maharashtra and north-central Maharashtra

• Found in dry deciduous forest. So, Statement 1 is incorrect

• After it was described in 1873 and it was not seen after 1884 and considered extinct
until it was rediscovered 113 years later in 1997. So, Statement 2 is correct

• Since its rediscovery in 1997 this species has been found at a number of new
locations, several of which appear to hold significant populations.

• IUCN Red List - Endangered.

• CITES - Appendix I
60. With reference to the Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, consider the following
statements:

1. The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the Tura Range, which forms part
of the Meghalaya Plateau.

2. The reserve is home to the Indian Wild Orange (Citrus indica) and evergreen
forests cover more than 90% of its area.

3. The Red Panda is the most dominant mammal species found in the Nokrek
Biosphere Reserve.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

60. With reference to the Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, consider the following
statements:

1. The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the Tura Range, which forms part
of the Meghalaya Plateau.

2. The reserve is home to the Indian Wild Orange (Citrus indica) and evergreen
forests cover more than 90% of its area.

3. The Red Panda is the most dominant mammal species found in the Nokrek
Biosphere Reserve.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:

The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve

• The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the northeast of India on the Tura
Range, which forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau (average altitude: 600 metres).
So, Statement 1 is correct

• The entire area is mountainous and Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo hills,
rising up 1,412 metres.

• The north of the reserve embraces rather gently undulating hills, while steep slopes
characterize the south.

• The biosphere reserve contains major rivers and streams that form a perennial
catchment system.

• Examples include the Ganol, Dareng and Simsang rivers, of which the latter is the
longest and largest.
Explanation:

• The Simsang originates in the north of the Biosphere Reserve, the Dareng from the
southern peaks, and the Ganol flows westward into the Brahamputra River, which
supplies water to numerous towns.

• Evergreen and semi-evergreen deciduous forests dominate the landscape: 90% of the
Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is covered by evergreen forest. So, Statement 2 is correct

• Some patches of bamboo forest can also be found in the lower altitudes, and a
remarkable variety of endemic Citrus spp. Can also be found in the reserve,
especially Citrus indica (Indian wild orange).

• The key fauna of the Nokrek is the Red Panda.

• In addition, the reserve is home to other unique and endangered animals, such as
tigers, leopards, elephants, Pig-tailed macaque, stump-tailed macaque, Gaur,
Clouded leopard and Hoolock gibbons; the latter are the most endangered apes in
India and therefore receive special protection. So, Statement 3 is incorrect.
61. Consider the following statements regarding Cryo-Born Baby Corals:

1. Cryopreservation of corals involves freezing coral sperm and eggs at

extremely low temperatures using liquid nitrogen.

2. The Taronga Cry Diversity Bank in Australia currently holds the world’s
largest frozen bio-repository of living coral cells.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
61. Consider the following statements regarding Cryo-Born Baby Corals:

1. Cryopreservation of corals involves freezing coral sperm and eggs at

extremely low temperatures using liquid nitrogen.

2. The Taronga Cry Diversity Bank in Australia currently holds the world’s
largest frozen bio-repository of living coral cells.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

The world’s first cryo-born baby corals have been successfully settled into their new and
natural homes on the Great Barrier Reef, It marks the start of a groundbreaking new era
for science and the conservation and restoration of coral reefs in Australia.

• Reproductive biologists from Taronga Conservation Society Australia used cutting-

edge cryopreservation techniques to successfully fertilise fresh coral eggs – collected
during the coral spawning event on the Great Barrier Reef – using cryopreserved
coral sperm.

• In an astonishing world-first, these researchers have successfully grown and now

transported these cryo-born coral babies into specially designed ‘coral cradles’ on
the Barrier Reef.

• The design of these ‘cradles’ allows researchers to track how well the babies grow
throughout their critical first year of life.
Explanation:

• Scientists suggest that this innovative advance in science will help pave the way to
safeguard reefs currently under pressure from climate change, by deploying millions
of heat-tolerant corals onto the Reef every year.”

• The Taronga CryoDiversity Bank currently holds the world’s largest frozen bio-
repository of living coral cells, with trillions of sperm across 32 coral species,
collected annually from the Great Barrier Reef since 2011. It’s intended for these cells
to be used in future reproduction efforts to aid restoration and “completely
revolutionise the approach to it”. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• The storage of cryopreserved living genetic material also supports crucial research
into increasing heat-tolerance in coral.
Explanation:

Process

• Coral cryopreservation is, quite simply, the process of preserving coral cells and
tissues at very low temperatures.

• Like all animal cells, coral cells and tissues contain lots of water which, when frozen,
form ice crystals that can cause damage. Cryopreservation techniques aim to
minimise ice crystal formation that keep corals and their cells alive while they’re
frozen. This is done by adding what is known as cryoprotectants, which remove
water from the cells while they’re being frozen and also support cell structures when
samples are thawed.

• When corals spawn, they release bundles of sperm and eggs. Researchers collect
these bundles, separate the sperm and place it immediately in liquid nitrogen at -196
degrees Celsius. So, Statement 1 is correct.
62. Consider the following statements regarding the World’s First Green Steel
Taxonomy:

1. Steel with CO2 equivalent emission intensity of less than 2.2 tonnes of CO2e
per tonne of finished steel qualifies as Green Steel.

2. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the nodal agency responsible for
monitoring, reporting, and verification of Green Steel and issuing greenness
certificates.

3. The Star Rating System under the Green Steel Taxonomy will be reviewed
every three years.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
62. Consider the following statements regarding the World’s First Green Steel
Taxonomy:

1. Steel with CO2 equivalent emission intensity of less than 2.2 tonnes of CO2e
per tonne of finished steel qualifies as Green Steel.

2. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the nodal agency responsible for
monitoring, reporting, and verification of Green Steel and issuing greenness
certificates.

3. The Star Rating System under the Green Steel Taxonomy will be reviewed
every three years.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

World’s First Green Steel Taxonomy:

Key features of Green Steel Taxonomy

Green Steel

• Steel with CO2 equivalent emission intensity of less than 2.2 tonnes of CO2e per
tonne of finished steel. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• Star Rating System (based on greenness): Threshold limit for star ratings will be
reviewed every 3 years. So, Statement 3 is correct

• And the current threshold is Five-star green-rated steel: Emission intensity lower
than 1.6 tonnes; Four-star, green-rated steel (between 1.6 and 2.0 tonnes); Three-star
green-rated steel (between 2.0 and 2.2 tonnes).
Explanation:

• Nodal Agency: National Institute of Secondary Steel Technology (NISST) for

measurement, reporting, and verification (MRV) and issuance of greenness
certificates (issued annually) and star ratings. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Importance of Green Steel Taxonomy: Advancing National Mission on Green Steel;

global competitiveness, etc.
63. Consider the following statements regarding the Loss and Damage Fund
(LDF), choose incorrect statement from the following:

A. The Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) was established at COP27 in Egypt to
provide financial support to countries affected by climate change-related
disasters.

B. The fund covers both economic losses (such as infrastructure damage) and
non-economic losses caused by climate change.

C. The World Bank permanently manages and administers the LDF, ensuring
long-term financial support to affected regions.

D. The fund is expected to provide financial assistance through multiple

mechanisms, including direct access, small grants, and rapid disbursement
options.
63. Consider the following statements regarding the Loss and Damage Fund
(LDF), choose incorrect statement from the following:

A. The Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) was established at COP27 in Egypt to
provide financial support to countries affected by climate change-related
disasters.

B. The fund covers both economic losses (such as infrastructure damage) and
non-economic losses caused by climate change.

C. The World Bank permanently manages and administers the LDF, ensuring
long-term financial support to affected regions.

D. The fund is expected to provide financial assistance through multiple

mechanisms, including direct access, small grants, and rapid disbursement
options.
Explanation:

Context - In the wake of the devastating landslides that recently struck Kerala’s
Wayanad district, a crucial conversation has emerged around whether subnational
entities can seek compensation through the United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change (UNFCCC)’s Loss and Damage Fund (LDF).

Loss and Damage Fund (LDF)

• It was established at the 2022 UNFCCC Conference (COP27) in Egypt to provide

financial support to regions suffering both economic and non-economic losses
caused by climate change. So, Statement a and b are correct.

• These include extreme weather events and slow-onset processes, such as rising sea
levels.
Explanation:

• The LDF is overseen by a Governing Board that determines how the Fund’s
resources are disbursed, with the World Bank serving as the interim trustee. World
Bank does not permanently manage or administer the LDF. The fund is overseen by
a Governing Board, which determines resource allocation and disbursement
mechanisms. So, Statement C is incorrect

• The Board is currently developing mechanisms to facilitate access to the Fund’s

resources, including direct access, small grants, and rapid disbursement options. So,
Statement D is incorrect

• Despite its intended purpose, concerns persist that climate funds are often too slow
to be accessible immediately after a disaster, particularly for local communities at the
sub-national level. It is anticipated that the LDF may face similar challenges.
64. Consider the following statements regarding Peatlands:

1. Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems where waterlogged conditions

lead to incomplete decomposition of plant material, causing a net
accumulation of peat.

2. Peatlands are present only in cool climatic zones where Sphagnum mosses,
sedges, and shrubs provide organic matter for peat formation.

3. Peatlands store and sequester more carbon than any other terrestrial
ecosystem, including global forests.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
64. Consider the following statements regarding Peatlands:

1. Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems where waterlogged conditions

lead to incomplete decomposition of plant material, causing a net
accumulation of peat.

2. Peatlands are present only in cool climatic zones where Sphagnum mosses,
sedges, and shrubs provide organic matter for peat formation.

3. Peatlands store and sequester more carbon than any other terrestrial
ecosystem, including global forests.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:

Peatlands

• Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions

prevent plant material from fully decomposing. Consequently, the production of
organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation
of peat. So, statement 1 is correct.

• In cool climates, peatland vegetation is mostly made up of Sphagnum mosses, sedges

and shrubs and are the primary builder of peat, whereas in warmer climates
graminoids and woody vegetation provide most of the organic matter.

• Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million
km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface. So, statement 2 is
incorrect.
Explanation:

• Peatlands include landscapes that are still actively accumulating peat (mires),
others that are no longer accumulating and do not support the principal peat
forming plants (e.g. Sphagnum sp.), and peatlands used for economic uses such as
agriculture, forestry and excavation for energy & heat generation, horticulture and
another uses.

• About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in natural, or near-natural

state. Drained peatlands make up about 16% of the world’s peatlands, or 0.5% of the
Earth’s terrestrial surface.

• Due to the process of peat accumulation, peatlands are carbon rich ecosystems that
store and sequester more carbon than any other type of terrestrial ecosystem,
exceedingly thereby even the global above-ground carbon stock of forest ecosystems.
So, statement 3 is correct.

• When peatlands are drained, the carbon from organic matter contained in peat dries
and oxidizes gradually to CO2, and is permanently lost from the system. Over time,
this process also results in soil compaction and subsidence, making it difficult to
restore proper hydrology without water table management.
65. Consider the following statements regarding India's frontline forest staff:

1. The primary responsibility of frontline forest staff includes protecting

endangered animals, trees, and minerals within forest areas.

2. Frontline forest staff in India are employed only as permanent government

employees and not as contract labourers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
65. Consider the following statements regarding India's frontline forest staff:

1. The primary responsibility of frontline forest staff includes protecting

endangered animals, trees, and minerals within forest areas.

2. Frontline forest staff in India are employed only as permanent government

employees and not as contract labourers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Context: Poachers gunned down a forester who was part of a six-member patrolling
team in Odisha’s Simlipal tiger reserve.

This was the second death in Simlipal since May 22 when another forest guard was shot
dead by poachers.

Frontline forest staff

• India’s frontline forest staff — contract labourers, guards, foresters and rangers —
have long fought an unequal battle against poachers, illegal miners, and tree-fellers.
So, Statement 1 is correct

• the forest staff’s job is to protect scarce and lucrative resources — endangered
animals, trees, sand and boulders, minerals, and forest land.

• They have also been targeted by mass encroachers and insurgents.

• Frontline forest staff in India include both contract labourers and permanent
employees. So, Statement 2 is incorrect
66. Consider the following statements regarding the recent initiatives under the
National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG):

1. The Pollution Inventory, Assessment, and Surveillance (PIAS) project aims to

enhance environmental data collection, analysis, and monitoring mechanisms
for pollution control.

2. The Smart Laboratory for Clean Rivers (SLCR) project is a joint collaboration
between NMCG, IIT Delhi, and the United Nations for rejuvenating small
rivers across India.

3. A freshwater turtle and gharial conservation breeding program has been

initiated at the Kukrail Gharial Rehabilitation Centre in Lucknow, Uttar
Pradesh, to restore endangered species in the Ganga River and its tributaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
66. Consider the following statements regarding the recent initiatives under the
National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG):

1. The Pollution Inventory, Assessment, and Surveillance (PIAS) project aims to

enhance environmental data collection, analysis, and monitoring mechanisms
for pollution control.

2. The Smart Laboratory for Clean Rivers (SLCR) project is a joint collaboration
between NMCG, IIT Delhi, and the United Nations for rejuvenating small
rivers across India.

3. A freshwater turtle and gharial conservation breeding program has been

initiated at the Kukrail Gharial Rehabilitation Centre in Lucknow, Uttar
Pradesh, to restore endangered species in the Ganga River and its tributaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:

Context - Recently 57th Executive Committee (EC) meeting of the National Mission for
Clean Ganga (NMCG) approved projects amounting to ₹1,062 crore.

These include key projects aimed towards the conservation and cleanliness of the Ganga
River, and, for IEC activities during Mahakumbh 2025.

Key Projects

• Sewage treatment plants - will be constructed in Rojitpur, sharifganj, Aligarh etc

• IEC (Information, Education, and Communication) activity-based project -worth ₹30

crore has been approved. The project includes decorating the mela area and city
through ‘Paint My City’ and mural art. Various places such as flyovers, large
buildings, railway stations, and bus stops will be adorned with wall paintings
depicting themes related to the Ganga. Additionally, a 45-day exhibition will be held
at a prominent location in the mela area to showcase the interventions and
achievements made under the Namami Gange programme. During this
initiative, 1,500 Ganga Seva Doots will be deployed across the fairgrounds to raise
awareness on cleanliness and Ganga conservation.
Explanation:

• Pollution Inventory, Assessment, and Surveillance (PIAS) project - to enhance its

effectiveness. The revised organization structure includes 90 sanctioned posts, with a
particular focus on strengthening technical capabilities. This will improve the
environmental data collection, analysis, and monitoring mechanism, ensuring solid
progress in pollution control and management. So, Statement 1 is correct

• Project for strengthening the online continuous monitoring of existing STPs in the
Ganga River Basin -approved for a period of five years. The project includes the
installation of an Online Continuous Effluent Monitoring System (OCEMS). Under
this project, 11 STPs in Uttar Pradesh and 40 STPs in West Bengal will be covered,
with a total project cost of ₹33 crore.
Explanation:

• Smart Laboratory for Clean Rive (SLCR) project-operated by NMCG in

collaboration with IIT BHU, Denmark for the conservation of small rivers. With a
total investment of ₹13 crore, this initiative aims to accelerate the rejuvenation of
small rivers across the country, providing a significant boost to river conservation
efforts. So, Statement 2 is incorrect

• Freshwater turtle and gharial conservation breeding program at the Kukrail

Gharial Rehabilitation Center in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. This programme will be
operated under Namami Gange Mission-II at a cost of ₹2 crore. The centre plays a
crucial role in restoring endangered species. The extended breeding programme
aims to rejuvenate the viable breeding population of these species to re-establish
them in the Ganga River and its tributaries. So, Statement 3 is correct
67. Consider the following species of deer
1. Sambar deer – Madhya Pradesh
2. Swamp deer – Uttar Pradesh
3. Hangul – Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the above deers’ are correctly matched with the
states they are State animal of?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
67. Consider the following species of deer
1. Sambar deer – Madhya Pradesh
2. Swamp deer – Uttar Pradesh
3. Hangul – Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the above deers’ are correctly matched with the
states they are State animal of?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Explanation:
Hangul/Kashmir Stag
• IUCN status - Critically Endangered.
• State animal of Jammu & Kashmir.

Sangai/Thamin/Brow-Antlered Deer
• IUCN status - Endangered.
• State animal of Manipur.

Swamp Deer/Barasingha
• IUCN status - Vulnerable.
• State animal of Madhya pradesh and Uttar pradesh.

Sambhar
• IUCN status - Vulnerable.
• State animal of Odisha.

The Chital/Spotted Deer/Axis Deer

• IUCN status - Least Concern.
• State animal of Telangana.
68. Consider the following statements regarding Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:

1. Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2013 under

the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. The Parambikulam Tiger Conservation Foundation (PaTCoF) is responsible for

managing both ecotourism and scientific research within the reserve.

3. The Parambikulam Dam, Thunakadavu Dam, and Peruvaripallam Dam are

key water bodies within the reserve that contribute to the rich biodiversity and
scenic beauty of the area.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
68. Consider the following statements regarding Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:

1. Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2013 under

the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. The Parambikulam Tiger Conservation Foundation (PaTCoF) is responsible for

managing both ecotourism and scientific research within the reserve.

3. The Parambikulam Dam, Thunakadavu Dam, and Peruvaripallam Dam are

key water bodies within the reserve that contribute to the rich biodiversity and
scenic beauty of the area.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

Parambikulam Tiger Reserve

• Nestled in the serene hills of the Western Ghats, Parambikulam Tiger Reserve
straddles the border between Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

• This pristine wildlife sanctuary is renowned for its rich biodiversity, dense forests,
and the majestic presence of Bengal tigers.

• When Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary was declared as Parambikulam Tiger

Reserve in 2013, as per Section 38 X of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the
Parambikulam Tiger Conservation Foundation (PaTCoF) was established as a non-
profit organization working under Parambikulam Tiger Reserve in 2014. So,
Statement 1 is correct.

• As per the Act, many of the activities which were already being carried out by
Parambikulam FDA were amalgamated with PaTCoF and thus receiving statutory
support.
Explanation:

• In the present arrangement Parambikulam Forest Development Agency (FDA)

manages the Ecotourism and Eco-Developmental initiatives of Parambikulam Tiger
Reserve while PaTCoF is engaged in Wildlife Monitoring, Research, Capacity
Development, Species Survey and other scientific/technical aspects related to
managing the Tiger Reserve. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The scenic beauty of Parambikulam Tiger Reserve is accentuated by its numerous

water bodies, including rivers, reservoirs, and dams.

• The Parambikulam Dam, Thunakadavu Dam, and Peruvaripallam Dam are

significant landmarks within the reserve. These water bodies not only support the
rich biodiversity but also offer picturesque settings for relaxation and recreation. So,
Statement 3 is correct.
69. Consider the following pairs:

Ramsar Site: Location

1. Kabal Taal : Bihar

2. Assan Barrage: Odisha

3. Lonar Lake : Madhya Pradesh

4. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary: Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 2, 3, and 4 only
69. Consider the following pairs:

Ramsar Site: Location

1. Kabal Taal : Bihar

2. Assan Barrage: Odisha

3. Lonar Lake : Madhya Pradesh

4. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary: Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Kanwar Taal or Kabar Taal Lake or Kabartal
Wetland located in Begusarai district of Bihar, India, is Asia's largest freshwater
oxbow lake. It is approximately six times the size of the Bharatpur Sanctuary. In
November 2020, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(MoEFCC) declared it the first Ramsar site in Bihar. Kanwar jheel, as it is locally
called, is located 22 km north-west of Begusarai Town in Manjhaul. It is a residual
oxbow lake, formed due to meandering of Burhi Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga,
in the geological past.

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Assan Barrage is a pristine blue-green lake, located

about 40 km from Dehradun. This man-made lake is a birder's paradise that lies at
the confluence of Yamuna and Assan rivers. Almost 53 species of birds can be seen,
including red-crested poacher, mallard, coot, pintail, common teal, tufted duck, etc.
Explanation:

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The Lonar lake in Buldhana district of Maharashtra

has been declared as the “Ramsar” site of India. Lonar Lake is an astrobleme created
by a meteorite impact during the Pleistocene Epoch. A 2019 study, conducted by IIT
Bombay found that the minerals in the lake soil are very similar to the minerals
found in moon rocks brought back during the Apollo Program.

• 4.Pair 4 is correctly matched: Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary is Protected area near

Mudukulathur Ramanathapuram District, Tamil Nadu. India. It is adjacent to
Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary. It is notable as a nesting site for several migratory
heron species that roost in the prominent growth of babul trees there.
70. Consider the following statements regarding desertification:

1. The United Nations General Assembly declared the period 2010 to 2020 as the
United Nations Decade for Deserts and the Fight Against Desertification
(UNDDD).

2. Desertification exclusively refers to the expansion of existing deserts into

surrounding non-desert areas.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
70. Consider the following statements regarding desertification:

1. The United Nations General Assembly declared the period 2010 to 2020 as the
United Nations Decade for Deserts and the Fight Against Desertification
(UNDDD).

2. Desertification exclusively refers to the expansion of existing deserts into

surrounding non-desert areas.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The United Nations General Assembly declared 2010 to 2020 the United Nations
Decade for Deserts and the Fight Against Desertification (UNDDD). So, Statement 1
is correct.

• The Decade campaign is intended to reinforce the implementation of the ten- year
strategy for 2008-2018, on the implementation of the UN Convention to Combat
Desertification.

• Building on the successful celebration of the International Year of Deserts and the
Fight Against Desertification (IYDD) in 2006, the United Nations General
Assembly declared 2010 to 2020 the United Nations Decade for Deserts and the Fight
Against Desertification (UNDDD).

• During the Decade, all actors are called upon to raise awareness about
desertification, and degradation and drought, and their solutions. The Decade
campaign is intended to reinforce the implementation of the ten-year strategy for
2008-2018, on the implementation of the UN
Explanation:

• Convention to Combat Desertification.

o Desertification is the process whereby the biological productivity of drylands,

including arid and semiarid lands, diminishes due to natural or human-induced
factors. It is crucial to note that desertification does not imply the expansion of
existing deserts. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Causes of Desertification

• Overgrazing: Overgrazing reduces the land's usefulness, productivity, and

biodiversity. India experienced a 31% loss of grasslands between 2005 and 2015.

• Deforestation: Forests act as carbon sinks, absorbing carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere. Deforestation releases this carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere,
contributing to the greenhouse effect.
Explanation:

• Farming Practices: Practices such as slash-and-burn agriculture expose soil to

erosion hazards. Heavy tilling and overirrigation disrupt the mineral composition of
the soil.

• Urbanization: Increasing urbanization escalates the demand for resources, drawing

more from the land and leaving it susceptible to desertification.

• Climate Change: Climate change can intensify desertification by altering spatial and
temporal patterns in temperature, rainfall, solar radiation, and winds.

• Overexploitation of Resources: The rising demand for land resources

71. Consider the following statements regarding Strobilanthes Reptans:

1. Strobilanthes Reptans was discovered during a research trip to Arunachal

Pradesh in 2019 and is known for its tubular white or pale violet flowers.

2. The plant is native to India and is predominantly found in the Western Ghats
region.

3. It is believed that the plant may have escaped cultivation from countries like
Myanmar, Thailand, and Sri Lanka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
71. Consider the following statements regarding Strobilanthes Reptans:

1. Strobilanthes Reptans was discovered during a research trip to Arunachal

Pradesh in 2019 and is known for its tubular white or pale violet flowers.

2. The plant is native to India and is predominantly found in the Western Ghats
region.

3. It is believed that the plant may have escaped cultivation from countries like
Myanmar, Thailand, and Sri Lanka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:

Strobilanthes Reptans

• Researchers have come across this plant during a 2019 trip to Tipi in Arunachal
Pradesh's West Kameng district. So, Statement 1 is correct

• It was found growing up to 20 cm tall on grassy hill slopes at 150 metres above mean
sea level.

• The plant is not native to India; rather, it is a little-known ornamental plant whose
cultivation in India could not be traced. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

• It sported tubular white or pale violet flowers with darker veins from June to
September, and yielded fruit from July to December.

• Its cultivation in India could not be traced as the plant is a little-known ornamental.
Explanation:

• How the plant reached Tipi needs to be studied and because it was encountered in a
semi disturbed area, there is evidence for its escape (to other parts) and
naturalisation.

• The researchers said the plant could possibly have escaped from cultivation from
Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Vietnam, Malaysia or Sri Lanka, where it has naturalised.
So, Statement 3 is correct

• The plant has also been recorded in Taiwan, Ryukyu islands of Japan, northern
Australia, Singapore, Hawaii and a few other countries.
72. Consider the following statements regarding the use of bacterial enzymes
for plastic degradation, choose the incorrect option:

A. The esterase enzyme produced by Sulfobacillus acidophilus has been

successfully used by IIT Roorkee to break down a high molecular weight
plasticizer.

B. Plasticizers are chemicals added to plastics to enhance flexibility and shine.

C. The breakdown of DEHP plasticizer by esterase enzyme results in water and

oxygen as the final products.

D. Plasticizers can be absorbed through the skin, posing a direct threat to human
health due to their toxic effects.
72. Consider the following statements regarding the use of bacterial enzymes
for plastic degradation, choose the incorrect option:

A. The esterase enzyme produced by Sulfobacillus acidophilus has been

successfully used by IIT Roorkee to break down a high molecular weight
plasticizer.

B. Plasticizers are chemicals added to plastics to enhance flexibility and shine.

C. The breakdown of DEHP plasticizer by esterase enzyme results in water and

oxygen as the final products.

D. Plasticizers can be absorbed through the skin, posing a direct threat to human
health due to their toxic effects.
Explanation:

Bacterial enzymes to degrade plasticizers

Context - IIT Roorkee has successfully used an enzyme — esterase enzyme —

produced by soil bacteria Sulfobacillus acidophilus to break down diethyl hexyl
phthalate (DEHP) plasticizer. So, option a is correct and C is incorrect.

About

• While a Chinese team had characterised this enzyme to degrade low molecular
weight phthalate diester plasticizers, which can be degraded by several reported
esterase enzymes, the IIT Roorkee team has identified its actual potential and used it
for degrading difficult to degrade high molecular weight phthalate plasticizers.

• Plasticizers -are chemicals added to plastics and personal care products to enhance
flexibility and shine, and are commonly found in items such as baby toys, shampoos,
soaps, and food containers. Plasticizers can be absorbed through the skin, making
them a direct threat to human health. So, option B and D are correct.
Explanation:

• Mechanism-The esterase enzyme breaks down DEHP plasticizer into two products-
modified phthalate (affect biological system) and alcohol compound (impact the
environment).

• These are further broken down by other enzymes into harmless substances like
Water and Carbon Dioxide.
73. Consider the following statements regarding the newly discovered genus of
jumping spiders, ‘Tenkana’:

1. Tenkana is a new genus of jumping spiders found only in Karnataka, India.

2. Unlike related species that live in forests, Tenkana spiders prefer drier areas
and ground habitats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
73. Consider the following statements regarding the newly discovered genus of
jumping spiders, ‘Tenkana’:

1. Tenkana is a new genus of jumping spiders found only in Karnataka, India.

2. Unlike related species that live in forests, Tenkana spiders prefer drier areas
and ground habitats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Context - Recently a new genus of jumping spiders ‘Tenkana’ discovered in south India

• ‘Tenkana’, found across southern India, encompassing two previously known

species. It also introduced a new species, Tenkana jayamangali, from Karnataka.

• The name Tenkana comes from the Kannada word for south, reflecting that all the
known species are from southern India and northern Sri Lanka. This new group
belongs to the Plexippina subtribe of jumping spiders and is different from related
groups such as Hyllus and Telamonia. So, Statement 1 is correct

• Unlike related species that live in forests, Tenkana spiders prefer drier areas and
ground habitats. They have been found in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Karnataka,
Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. So, Statement 2 is correct

• Two species that were previously in Colopsus — Tenkana manu (found in south
India and Sri Lanka) and Tenkana arkavathi (from Karnataka) — have now been
moved to the new genus. Interestingly, the former was named after a retired
professor, Dr. Manu Thomas, from Madras Christian College, in 2014.
Explanation:

• The team also described Tenkana jayamangali for the first time, named after the
Jayamangali river in Karnataka, where it was first seen.
74. Assertion (A): India has joined the International Energy Efficiency Hub (EEH)
to enhance global collaboration in energy efficiency and promote sustainable
practices.

Reason (R): The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has been designated as the
implementing agency for EEH on behalf of India to facilitate government-to-
government exchanges on energy policy, regulation, and implementation.

Which of the following is correct?

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

74. Assertion (A): India has joined the International Energy Efficiency Hub (EEH)
to enhance global collaboration in energy efficiency and promote sustainable
practices.

Reason (R): The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has been designated as the
implementing agency for EEH on behalf of India to facilitate government-to-
government exchanges on energy policy, regulation, and implementation.

Which of the following is correct?

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Explanation:

Context - India will join the International Energy Efficiency Hub, a global platform
dedicated to fostering collaboration and promoting energy efficiency worldwide.

Energy Efficiency Hub

• The Energy Efficiency Hub is a new platform for global collaboration on energy
efficiency. Its Secretariat is hosted at the IEA to take advantage of natural synergies
with the work of the Agency. So, Assertion is true

• The Hub aims to facilitate government-to-government exchanges on efficiency

policy, regulation and implementation, focusing on buildings, industry, appliances,
and transport.

• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), the statutory agency, has been designated as
the implementing agency for the Hub on behalf of India. So, Reason is true
Explanation:

• R correctly explains A as India's participation in EEH is facilitated through BEE,

which ensures effective policy execution and knowledge-sharing.

• As of July 2024, 16 countries (Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, Denmark,

European Commission, France, Germany, Japan, Korea, Luxembourg, Russia, Saudi
Arabia, the United States and the United Kingdom) have joined the Hub
75. Consider the following statements regarding Methane:

1. Methane is a long-lived greenhouse gas with an atmospheric lifetime of over

100 years.

2. The UNEP’s OGMP 2.0 program covers only 42% of global methane
production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
75. Consider the following statements regarding Methane:

1. Methane is a long-lived greenhouse gas with an atmospheric lifetime of over

100 years.

2. The UNEP’s OGMP 2.0 program covers only 42% of global methane
production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Oil and Gas Methane Partnership 2.0

• Launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in 2020

• It is the gold standard initiative for companies to measure and report methane
emissions from oil and gas operations

• UNEP’s OGMP 2.0, which require its members to report their emissions, covers only
42% of global production. So, Statement 2 is correct

About Methane

• It is a major greenhouse gas and 86 times more potent than CO2.

• It is a short-Lived Climate pollutant having an atmospheric lifetime of 12 years. So,

Statement 1 is incorrect
76. Consider the following statements with respect to economic productivity
and natural resource cycles:

1. Just as decomposition in ecosystems is influenced by climate and composition,

the productivity of an economy is influenced by both the availability of
resources and institutional efficiency.

2. In both ecosystems and economies, excessive accumulation without timely

recycling or redistribution can reduce long-term sustainability and growth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
76. Consider the following statements with respect to economic productivity
and natural resource cycles:

1. Just as decomposition in ecosystems is influenced by climate and composition,

the productivity of an economy is influenced by both the availability of
resources and institutional efficiency.

2. In both ecosystems and economies, excessive accumulation without timely

recycling or redistribution can reduce long-term sustainability and growth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Just as the rate of decomposition depends on climate and detritus composition,

economic productivity depends on factors like natural resource availability, labor
quality, and institutional efficiency. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• In nature, poor decomposition (e.g., due to low temperature or anaerobic conditions)

leads to a buildup of undecomposed matter, harming the ecosystem. Similarly, in
economies, concentration of wealth/resources without redistribution or inefficient
recycling of capital can lead to stagnation, unemployment, and inequality. So,
Statement 2 is correct
77. With reference to mutualism in ecological interactions, consider the
following statements:

1. Lichens are an example of mutualism between a fungus and nitrogen-fixing

bacteria.

2. Mycorrhizal associations help plants in nutrient absorption, while fungi

receive carbohydrates in return.

3. Pollination by animals such as bees and birds is a form of mutualism where

both species benefit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
77. With reference to mutualism in ecological interactions, consider the
following statements:

1. Lichens are an example of mutualism between a fungus and nitrogen-fixing

bacteria.

2. Mycorrhizal associations help plants in nutrient absorption, while fungi

receive carbohydrates in return.

3. Pollination by animals such as bees and birds is a form of mutualism where

both species benefit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

This interaction confers benefits on both the interacting species.

• Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and

photosynthesising algae or cyanobacteria. So, Statement 1 is incorrect

• Similarly, the mycorrhizae are associations between fungi and the roots of higher
plants.

• The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while
the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy-yielding carbohydrates. So,
Statement 2 is correct

• The most spectacular and evolutionarily fascinating examples of mutualism are

found in plant animal relationships.

• Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their flowers.

• Plants offer rewards or fees in the form of pollen and nectar for pollinators and juicy
and nutritious fruits for seed dispersers and dispersing their seeds. So, Statement 3
is correct
78. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Ecotones:

A. An ecotone is a transitional zone between two distinct ecosystems where

species from both communities coexist.

B. Ecotones are usually richer in biodiversity than the individual ecosystems they
connect.

C. Mangrove forests and estuaries are classic examples of ecotones.

D. Ecotones always cover a wide area and cannot be local or narrow in range
78. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Ecotones:

A. An ecotone is a transitional zone between two distinct ecosystems where

species from both communities coexist.

B. Ecotones are usually richer in biodiversity than the individual ecosystems they
connect.

C. Mangrove forests and estuaries are classic examples of ecotones.

D. Ecotones always cover a wide area and cannot be local or narrow in range
Explanation:

An ecotone is a zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes (diverse

ecosystems).

• It is where two communities meet and integrate. E.g. Mangrove forests represent an
ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystems.

• Other examples are estuary (between fresh water and salt water) and river bank or
marsh land (between dry and wet).

• It may be narrow or wide, and it may be local (the zone between a field and forest)
or regional (the transition between forest and grassland ecosystems) also known as
tension zone. So, option D is incorrect
79. Consider the following statements regarding limiting factors in ecology,:

1. According to Liebig’s Law of the Minimum, the growth of organisms is

controlled by the resource that is most abundant in the environment.

2. Limiting factors such as sunlight, nutrients, or water can determine the

carrying capacity of an ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
79. Consider the following statements regarding limiting factors in ecology,:

1. According to Liebig’s Law of the Minimum, the growth of organisms is

controlled by the resource that is most abundant in the environment.

2. Limiting factors such as sunlight, nutrients, or water can determine the

carrying capacity of an ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

The concept of limiting factors is based on Liebig's Law of the Minimum, which states
that growth is controlled not by the total amount of resources available, but by the
scarcest resource. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• This was originally applied to plant or crop growth, where it was found that
increasing the amount of plentiful nutrients did not increase plant growth.

• Only by increasing the amount of the limiting nutrient (the one most scarce in
relation to "need") was the growth of a plant or crop improved.

• An example of a limiting factor is sunlight in the rain forest, where growth is limited
to all plants on the forest floor unless more light becomes available.

• Another example is water in the desert.

• Limiting factors determine the carrying capacity of the environment, that is, the
maximum population of a species an environment can sustain. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
80. With reference to the phenomenon of brumation in reptiles, consider the
following statements:

1. Brumation is a period of dormancy in reptiles, functionally similar to

hibernation in mammals.

2. During brumation, reptiles remain completely inactive and do not move at all
until warmer conditions return.

3. Brumation helps reptiles survive periods of cold temperature and food scarcity
by significantly slowing down their metabolism.

Which of the statements given above is incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only
80. With reference to the phenomenon of brumation in reptiles, consider the
following statements:

1. Brumation is a period of dormancy in reptiles, functionally similar to

hibernation in mammals.

2. During brumation, reptiles remain completely inactive and do not move at all
until warmer conditions return.

3. Brumation helps reptiles survive periods of cold temperature and food scarcity
by significantly slowing down their metabolism.

Which of the statements given above is incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

It describes a period of dormancy or slowed activity in reptiles, much like hibernation in

mammals. So, Statement 1 is correct

• It typically occurs during colder months, when temperatures drop and food
becomes scarce.

• Reptiles enter a state of brumation to conserve energy and survive these adverse
environmental conditions. So, Statement 1 is incorrect

• During brumation, reptiles may retreat to underground burrows, rock crevices or

other sheltered areas where temperatures are relatively more stable.

• Their metabolism slows significantly, allowing them to go weeks or even months

without eating. So, Statement 3 is correct

• This period of reduced activity allows reptiles to conserve energy and minimise their
resource requirements.
81. With reference to global efforts for coral reef conservation, consider the
following statements:

1. The Global Fund for Coral Reefs is the first UN trust fund specifically focused
on achieving the Sustainable Development Goals.

2. The Global Coral Reef Monitoring Network is an operational arm of the UN

Framework Convention on Climate Change tasked with funding reef
conservation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
81. With reference to global efforts for coral reef conservation, consider the
following statements:

1. The Global Fund for Coral Reefs is the first UN trust fund specifically focused
on achieving the Sustainable Development Goals.

2. The Global Coral Reef Monitoring Network is an operational arm of the UN

Framework Convention on Climate Change tasked with funding reef
conservation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Global Fund for Coral Reefs

• Up to half of the world’s coral reefs have been lost, and if global temperatures rise by
1.5°C, 90% could disappear.

• The fund provides grant funding and private capital to support sustainable
interventions to save coral reefs and the communities that rely on them

• It is a 10-year, $625 million blended finance vehicle established through a coalition

between United Nations agencies, financial institutions, and private philanthropy
sources.

• Administered by the UN Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office, it is the first United

Nations trust fund specifically focused on SDG 14 (“Life Below Water”). Statement
1 is correct

• The fund responds to the “coral reef funding gap” and fragmentation of funding for
coral reef conservation and restoration projects.
Explanation:

• It is an operational network of the International Coral Reef Initiative that aims to

provide the best available scientific information on the status and trends of coral reef
ecosystems for their conservation and management.

• The GCRMN is a global network of scientists, managers and organisations that

monitor the condition of coral reefs throughout the world. So, Statement 2 is
incorrect

• The flagship product of the GCRMN is the ‘Status of Coral Reefs of the World
report’, that describes the status and trends of coral reefs worldwide.

• The global dataset spanned more than 40 years from 1978 to 2019 and consisted of
observations from 73 reef-bearing countries around the world.
82. Choose the incorrect statements regarding Blue Flag beaches:

A. The Blue Flag certification is an international eco-label awarded to beaches,

marinas, and sustainable tourism boats for meeting high environmental and
safety standards.

B. The certification is awarded by the United Nations Environment Programme

(UNEP) in collaboration with the World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).

C. Thundi and Kadmat beaches in Lakshadweep are among the Indian beaches
that have received the Blue Flag certification.

D. The certification requires compliance with criteria related to water quality,

safety, environmental education, and accessibility.
82. Choose the incorrect statements regarding Blue Flag beaches:

A. The Blue Flag certification is an international eco-label awarded to beaches,

marinas, and sustainable tourism boats for meeting high environmental and
safety standards.

B. The certification is awarded by the United Nations Environment Programme

(UNEP) in collaboration with the World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).

C. Thundi and Kadmat beaches in Lakshadweep are among the Indian beaches
that have received the Blue Flag certification.

D. The certification requires compliance with criteria related to water quality,

safety, environmental education, and accessibility.
Explanation:

Blue Flag Beaches

• It is one of the world’s most recognised voluntary awards for beaches, marinas, and
sustainable tourism boats.

• In order to qualify for the Blue Flag, a series of stringent environmental, educational,
safety, and accessibility criteria must be met and maintained.

• It is awarded by the Denmark-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental

Education or FEE. So, option B is incorrect.

• Society of Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM) under the Ministry of

Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the nodal agency.

• Minicoy, Thundi Beach and Kadmat Beach - both in Lakshadweep - are the proud
entrants in the coveted list of Blue Beaches, an eco-label given to the cleanest beaches
in the world.

• In India, 13 beaches are certified under the Blue Flag certification.

83. Consider the following statements regarding Flue Gas Desulfurization
(FGD) technology:

1. Flue Gas Desulfurization is used to reduce carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions

from thermal power plants.

2. Wet and dry scrubbing methods are commonly used in FGD to remove sulfur
dioxide from exhaust gases.

3. FGD systems can remove up to 90% or more of sulfur dioxide emissions from
coal-fired power plants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
83. Consider the following statements regarding Flue Gas Desulfurization
(FGD) technology:

1. Flue Gas Desulfurization is used to reduce carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions

from thermal power plants.

2. Wet and dry scrubbing methods are commonly used in FGD to remove sulfur
dioxide from exhaust gases.

3. FGD systems can remove up to 90% or more of sulfur dioxide emissions from
coal-fired power plants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

Flu Gas Desulfurization Technology

• Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is a set of technologies used to remove sulfur dioxide
(SO2) from exhaust flue gases of fossil fuel power plants, as well as from the
emissions of other sulfur oxide emitting processes. So, Statement 1 is incorrect

• Common methods used to remove SO2 are Wet scrubbing method, Spray-dry
scrubbing method, Wet and Dry lime scrubbing method, SNOX method, Dry
sorbent injection method, etc. So, Statement 2 is correct

• For a typical coal-fired power station, flue-gas desulfurization (FGD) may remove 90
percent or more of the SO2 in the flue gases. So, Statement 3 is correct

• Flue gas desulfurization systems have been shown to be effective in lowering

emission levels in China, the nation that was responsible for the highest level in
2005.

• If India were to implement these systems, the high levels of damaging SO2 pollution
that is currently present in India could be avoided much sooner.
84. With reference to vehicle emission control technologies in India, consider
the following statements:

1. Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) technology is used to reduce particulate

matter (PM) emissions by injecting an aqueous ammonia solution into the
engine fuel line.

2. Under BS-VI norms, India has introduced Real Driving Emission (RDE)
standards to monitor actual on-road emissions using on-board diagnostic
systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
84. With reference to vehicle emission control technologies in India, consider
the following statements:

1. Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) technology is used to reduce particulate

matter (PM) emissions by injecting an aqueous ammonia solution into the
engine fuel line.

2. Under BS-VI norms, India has introduced Real Driving Emission (RDE)
standards to monitor actual on-road emissions using on-board diagnostic
systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Selective catalytic reduction technology (SCR)

• It reduces the nitrogen oxides by injecting an aqueous solution having ammonia. It is

used for BS-VI emission standard. So, Statement 1 is incorrect

• It is fixed in the engine exhaust.

Changes

• It will require manufacturers, for the first time in India, to maintain service check
data even for in-use vehicles and the way they are performing in actual road
conditions.

• Until now, the only mechanism to check emission from in-use on-road vehicles is a
PUC (pollution under check) certificate, which is seen as “sham," owing to its
inability to check pollution effectively.

• Also, for the first time, India will introduce real driving emission (RDE) standards
that will be gauged through an on-board monitoring while the vehicle is being
driven. So, Statement 2 is correct
Explanation:
• It will monitor real-world emission from the vehicle and ensure that the
sophisticated emission control systems fitted in the BS VI vehicles work at optimum
efficiency through the life of the vehicle.

• With innumerable cases of in-road Euro-VI compliant vehicles emitting more than
the permissible limit globally, RDE standards will be very helpful in monitoring
emission effectively.

• The emission standards will also mark a shift in the manner in which PM is
regulated.

• Presently, it is regulated based on mass of PM that comes out per kilometre of

distance travelled.

• To regulate the very fine particles that come out of a vehicle, which are extremely
harmful, India will switch to number standards for PM— regulating the number of
units coming out.
85. Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Dioxide Removal
(CDR) technologies under climate engineering:

1. Direct Air Capture and Carbon Storage (DACCS) removes CO₂ from industrial
smokestacks and stores it underground to reduce emissions at the source.

2. Enhanced Weathering helps remove atmospheric CO₂ by accelerating natural

mineral reactions and can also contribute to slowing ocean acidification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
85. Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Dioxide Removal
(CDR) technologies under climate engineering:

1. Direct Air Capture and Carbon Storage (DACCS) removes CO₂ from industrial
smokestacks and stores it underground to reduce emissions at the source.

2. Enhanced Weathering helps remove atmospheric CO₂ by accelerating natural

mineral reactions and can also contribute to slowing ocean acidification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Climate Engineering - Carbon dioxide removal (CDR)

• Biochar - Biochar is a high-carbon, fine-grained residue that is produced via

pyrolysis

• Bioenergy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) - the process of extracting
bioenergy from biomass and capturing and storing the carbon, thereby removing it
from the atmosphere.

• Direct air capture and carbon storage (DACCS) - a process of capturing carbon
dioxide (CO2) directly from the ambient air (as opposed to capturing from point
sources, such as a cement factory or biomass power plant) and generating a
concentrated stream of CO2 for sequestration or utilization or production of carbon-
neutral fuel and windgas.
Explanation:

• Enhanced weathering (EW) - a process that aims to accelerate the natural weathering
by spreading finely ground silicate rock, such as basalt, onto surfaces which speeds
up chemical reactions between rocks, water, and air. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• It also removes carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere, permanently storing it in
solid carbonate minerals or ocean alkalinity. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The latter also slows ocean acidification.

86. With reference to Ocean Geoengineering as a method of climate
intervention, consider the following statements:

1. Ocean liming involves adding calcium hydroxide to seawater, which helps

increase ocean acidity to absorb more carbon dioxide.

2. Iron fertilization aims to enhance phytoplankton growth in nutrient-poor

ocean regions, promoting natural carbon sequestration.

3. Submarine forests using giant kelp are explored as a method to capture

atmospheric CO₂ through marine biomass.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
86. With reference to Ocean Geoengineering as a method of climate
intervention, consider the following statements:

1. Ocean liming involves adding calcium hydroxide to seawater, which helps

increase ocean acidity to absorb more carbon dioxide.

2. Iron fertilization aims to enhance phytoplankton growth in nutrient-poor

ocean regions, promoting natural carbon sequestration.

3. Submarine forests using giant kelp are explored as a method to capture

atmospheric CO₂ through marine biomass.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

Ocean Geoengineering

• It involves adding material such as lime or iron to the ocean to affect its ability to
support marine life and/or sequester CO2.

• Ocean liming - Enriching seawater with calcium hydroxide (lime) has been reported
to lower ocean acidity. The added lime raised the water's pH, capturing CO2 in the
form of calcium bicarbonate or as carbonate deposited in mollusk shells. So,
Statement 1 is incorrect

• Iron fertilization - Iron fertilization is the intentional introduction of iron to iron-

poor areas of the ocean surface to stimulate phytoplankton production. So,
Statement 2 is correct

• Submarine forest - Another 2022 experiment attempted to sequester carbon using

giant kelp planted off the Namibian coast. So, Statement 3 is correct
87. Consider the following statements regarding "Zombie Ice" in climate
science:

1. Zombie ice refers to glacier ice that is actively accumulating snow and
contributing to the growth of the parent ice sheet.

2. It is committed to melting and raising sea levels due to past warming, even if
no further warming occurs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
87. Consider the following statements regarding "Zombie Ice" in climate
science:

1. Zombie ice refers to glacier ice that is actively accumulating snow and
contributing to the growth of the parent ice sheet.

2. It is committed to melting and raising sea levels due to past warming, even if
no further warming occurs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Zombie Ice

Also referred to as dead or doomed ice, zombie ice is one that is not accumulating fresh
snow even while continuing to be part of the parent ice sheet. So, Statement 1 is
incorrect.

Such ice is “committed” to melting away and increasing sea levels. So, Statement 1 is
correct.

• This is on account of the warming that has already happened.

• The research points to an equilibrium state where snowfall from the higher reaches
of the Greenland ice cap flows down to recharge edges of the glaciers, and thicken
them.

• It says that over the last several decades there has been more melting and less
replenishment.
88. Consider the following statements regarding Global Environment Facility’s
Small Grants Programme (GEF–SGP):

1. The SGP is implemented globally by the World Bank on behalf of the GEF
partnership.

2. The Programme provides financial and technical support to community-led

initiatives, including those involving Indigenous Peoples and women.

3. In India, the SGP is implemented through the Centre for Environment

Education (CEE) and other national NGO partners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
88. Consider the following statements regarding Global Environment Facility’s
Small Grants Programme (GEF–SGP):

1. The SGP is implemented globally by the World Bank on behalf of the GEF
partnership.

2. The Programme provides financial and technical support to community-led

initiatives, including those involving Indigenous Peoples and women.

3. In India, the SGP is implemented through the Centre for Environment

Education (CEE) and other national NGO partners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

Global Environment Facility – SGP

• The GEF Small Grants Programme (SGP) provides financial and technical support to
communities and Civil Society Organizations to meet the overall objective of global
environmental benefits secured through community-based initiatives and actions.

• Launched in 1992 with 33 participating countries, the Small Grants Programme has
expanded to provide assistance to 125 countries currently.

• It is currently implemented by UNDP on behalf of the GEF partnership. So,

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The SGP remains one of the GEF’s flagship initiatives and it enjoys strong and broad
support from its stakeholders, country governments, GEF donors and civil society
and community-based organizations.
Explanation:
• The Small Grants Programme, through a decentralized, national-level delivery
mechanism, finances community-led initiatives to address global environmental
issues.

• The Program is specifically designed to mobilize bottom-up actions by empowering

local civil society organizations, and poor and vulnerable communities, including
women and Indigenous Peoples. Statement 2 is correct

• The Programme funds grant up to a maximum of $50,000.

• In practice, the average grant has been around $25,000.

• In addition, the SGP provides a maximum of $150,000 for strategic projects.

• These larger projects allow for scaling up and covering a large number of
communities within a critical landscape or seascape.

• Projects under the SGP are implemented through a National Host Institution –
Centre for Environment Education (CEE), and other NGO partners and stakeholders
that has presence in different parts of the country. So, Statement 3 is correct
89. Consider the following statements regarding forum for Decarbonizing
Transport in India:

A. It is a joint initiative by NITI Aayog and World Resources Institute (WRI),

India.

B. It is part of the NDC-Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA), which includes

India, China, and Vietnam as partner countries.

C. The initiative is fully funded by the United Nations Framework Convention on

Climate Change (UNFCCC).

D. It aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from the transport sector by

supporting electric mobility and innovative business models.
89. Consider the following statements regarding forum for Decarbonizing
Transport in India:

A. It is a joint initiative by NITI Aayog and World Resources Institute (WRI),

India.

B. It is part of the NDC-Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA), which includes

India, China, and Vietnam as partner countries.

C. The initiative is fully funded by the United Nations Framework Convention

on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

D. It aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from the transport sector by

supporting electric mobility and innovative business models.
Explanation:

Forum for Decarbonizing Transport

Jointly launched by NITI Aayog and World Resources Institute (WRI), India. So,
Statement A is correct.

The forum is a part of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC)-Transport

Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) project, which focuses on developing a coherent
strategy of effective policies and the formation of a multi-stakeholder platform for
decarbonising transport in the region. So, Statement B is correct.

• NDC-TIA is a joint programme of seven organisations that will engage China, India,
and Vietnam in promoting a comprehensive approach to decarbonising transport in
their respective countries.

• The project is part of the International Climate Initiative (IKI).

Explanation:

• The IKI is a key element of Germany’s climate financing and the funding
commitments in the framework of the Convention on Biological Diversity. So,
Statement C is incorrect.

• It will help to bring down the peak level of Greenhouse Gas emissions from the
transport sector in Asia resulting in problems like congestion and air pollution. So,
Statement D is correct.

• It will help in the development of innovative business models for targeted results
and the holistic growth of the electric mobility space in India.

• It will also provide a platform to initiate dialogues for the development of uniform
policies and help achieve specific results in reducing emissions from the transport
sector.
90. With reference to India's National REDD+ Strategy, consider the following
statements:

1. The National REDD+ Strategy aims to enhance forest carbon stocks and
promote sustainable forest management through actions aligned with India's
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

2. The REDD+ mechanism in India covers only forest areas and excludes trees
outside forests (TOF) from its scope.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
90. With reference to India's National REDD+ Strategy, consider the following
statements:

1. The National REDD+ Strategy aims to enhance forest carbon stocks and
promote sustainable forest management through actions aligned with India's
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

2. The REDD+ mechanism in India covers only forest areas and excludes trees
outside forests (TOF) from its scope.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

National REDD+ Strategy

• Complying with the UNFCCC decisions on REDD+, India has prepared its National
REDD+ Strategy.

• The Strategy builds upon existing national circumstances which have been updated
in line with India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change, Green India Mission
and India’s Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) to UNFCCC.

• The strategy seeks to address drivers of deforestation and forest degradation and
also develop a roadmap for enhancement of forest carbon stocks and achieving
sustainable management of forests through REDD+ actions. So, Statement 1 is
correct
Explanation:

Coverage of REDD+

• REDD+ will cover all trees within forest areas and tree outside forest (TOF). So,
Statement 1 is incorrect

• Research is being undertaken to assess the potential of carbon sequestration by

grasslands, and coastal sea grasses, salt marshes, phytoplankton etc. Institutional
framework for implementing REDD+

• A National Governing Council for REDD+ (NGC-REDD+) at the national level shall
be established by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(MoEFCC) having the task of coordinating and guiding REDD+ related actions at
the national level.

• Each State will create a REDD+ Cell in the State Forest Department, and appoint a
Nodal Officer to coordinate the activities of the State REDD+ Cell.
Explanation:

• National Designated Entity for REDD+ Government of India has established a

National Designated Entity for REDD+ (NDEREDD+) in the Climate Change
Division of the MoEFCC.

• NDE-REDD+ has been constituted to serve as a liaison between the UNFCCC

Secretariat and the relevant bodies under the Convention on REDD+ issues with
Joint Secretary (Climate Change) in the Ministry MoEFCC as Focal Point for REDD+.
91. Consider the following statements regarding baseflow in river systems:

1. Baseflow refers to the portion of river water that enters the stream primarily
from surface runoff during precipitation events.

2. Urbanization can lead to increased baseflow due to the presence of impervious

surfaces that reduce surface runoff and enhance groundwater seepage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
91. Consider the following statements regarding baseflow in river systems:

1. Baseflow refers to the portion of river water that enters the stream primarily
from surface runoff during precipitation events.

2. Urbanization can lead to increased baseflow due to the presence of impervious

surfaces that reduce surface runoff and enhance groundwater seepage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• The concept of baseflow emerged to be important in recent study (on six major river
basins) Narmada, Tapi, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery) delving into
heavy rainfall, baseflow, and river floods in Peninsular.

About Baseflow (also called low-flow or fair-weather flow)

• It is the portion of a river’s water that originates from groundwater and seeps into
the streambed gradually, rather than from surface runoff caused by precipitation
events like rain or snowmelt. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Factors Affecting Baseflow:

• Topography of a land influences the movement of water across its surface and
subsurface.

• Soil nature impacts infiltration rate, hydraulic conductivity, and groundwater

recharge.
Explanation:

• The conversion of forests to urban land leads to increased baseflow due to the
presence of impervious surfaces in urban areas.

• Climate changes can impact infiltration and groundwater levels, subsequently

affecting base flow discharge due to changes in precipitation volume and timing.

• Urbanization increases baseflow because impervious surfaces alter infiltration

patterns, often diverting more water into stormwater systems and affecting
groundwater–stream interactions in complex ways (including artificial recharge in
some systems. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• Benefits: It plays a crucial role in maintaining streamflow & water levels in rivers
during dry periods.

• Understanding baseflow dynamics is essential for water resources management,

ecological conservation, and hydrological modelling.
92. Consider the following statements regarding the Catatumbo Lightning
phenomenon:

1. It occurs where the Catatumbo River empties into Lake Maracaibo in

Venezuela.

2. The phenomenon is driven by the collision of warm, moist air from the
Caribbean Sea with cool air descending from the Andes Mountains.

3. Catatumbo lightning is known for producing continuous thunderstorm

activity throughout the entire year without seasonal variation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
92. Consider the following statements regarding the Catatumbo Lightning
phenomenon:

1. It occurs where the Catatumbo River empties into Lake Maracaibo in

Venezuela.

2. The phenomenon is driven by the collision of warm, moist air from the
Caribbean Sea with cool air descending from the Andes Mountains.

3. Catatumbo lightning is known for producing continuous thunderstorm

activity throughout the entire year without seasonal variation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

Context: Catatumbo River in Venezuela is experiencing a phenomenon of lightning

strikes almost continuously.

About Catatumbo Lightning

• The phenomenon occurs at the mouth of the Catatumbo River, where it meets Lake
Maracaibo (the largest lake in Venezuela). This area is known as the lightning capital
of the world. So, Statement 1 is correct

• The frequency and length of Catatumbo lightning strikes are unique; they may
happen up to 160 times in a year, while at their peak point they can strike at the rate
of ~28 lightning strikes per minute

• While the region sees lightning on many nights of the year, it is not continuous year-
round and can vary with seasonal and climatic factors. So, Statement 3 is incorrect
Explanation:

Formation of Lightning:

• Cause: Warm, moist air from the Caribbean Sea is pushed toward the Andes
Mountains, where it collides with cooler air descending from the peaks. This leads to
the formation of towering cumulonimbus clouds. So, Statement 2 is correct

• Electrical Charges: The interaction between the air masses creates powerful winds
and temperature variations that generate electrical charges within these clouds. The
clouds can reach altitudes of over 5 km and carry substantial static electricity. When
this energy exceeds the clouds' capacity, it is released in the form of lightning.
93. Consider the following statements regarding the geotechnical technique
called soil nailing:

1. Soil nailing involves inserting steel reinforcements into the soil to increase its
stability and prevent slope failure.

2. It is primarily used to enhance groundwater recharge in areas with high

permeability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
93. Consider the following statements regarding the geotechnical technique
called soil nailing:

1. Soil nailing involves inserting steel reinforcements into the soil to increase its
stability and prevent slope failure.

2. It is primarily used to enhance groundwater recharge in areas with high

permeability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

A geotechnical engineering technique soil nailing is being undertaken by the State

highways department in the Nilgiris.

About Soil Nailing

• It is a geotechnical engineering technique that involves the insertion of reinforcing

elements into the soil in a specified area to strengthen it.

• Soil nailing is a slope stabilization technique, not related to groundwater recharge.

Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect

• This soil reinforcement process uses steel tendons which are drilled and grouted into
the soil to create a composite mass similar to a gravity wall. So, Statement 1 is
correct

• Uses: Stabilizing slopes and landslides, supporting excavations, Repairing existing

retaining walls.
94. With reference to the Species Threat Abatement and Restoration (STAR)
Metric, choose the incorrect statements:

A. The STAR Metric is developed using the IUCN Red List and helps estimate
how conservation actions can reduce species extinction risks.

B. It supports global biodiversity efforts such as the Kunming-Montreal Global

Biodiversity Framework and the Sustainable Development Goals.

C. The STAR Metric focuses exclusively on the genetic restoration of endangered

species populations.

D. The method to calculate the STAR Metric is publicly accessible and can be
applied at any geographical location using relevant species data.
94. With reference to the Species Threat Abatement and Restoration (STAR)
Metric, choose the incorrect statements:

A. The STAR Metric is developed using the IUCN Red List and helps estimate
how conservation actions can reduce species extinction risks.

B. It supports global biodiversity efforts such as the Kunming-Montreal Global

Biodiversity Framework and the Sustainable Development Goals.

C. The STAR Metric focuses exclusively on the genetic restoration of

endangered species populations.

D. The method to calculate the STAR Metric is publicly accessible and can be
applied at any geographical location using relevant species data.
Explanation:

• The Species Threat Abatement and Restoration (STAR) Metric is a tool developed by
the IUCN Red List to estimate the potential reduction in species extinction risk
STAR Metric
• The STAR Metric measures the impact of investments on reducing the likelihood of
species extinction.

• It helps various groups—governments, cities, environmental organizations, the

financial sector, investors, and businesses—direct their efforts and funding towards
activities that lead to effective conservation and support global environmental goals.

• Action Areas: STAR focuses on two main approaches to reducing extinction risks:

o Threat Abatement: Reducing or eliminating the dangers that species face.

o Habitat Restoration: Rebuilding or enhancing the natural environments where

species live. So, Statement C is incorrect
Explanation:

• Alignment with Global Goals: The metric supports international conservation

agreements, such as the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, and the
Sustainable Development Goals, ensuring that actions contribute to broader global
efforts.

• Accessibility: The method for calculating the STAR Metric is publicly available.
Anyone—whether an organization, government, or individual—can use this tool to
assess species extinction risks at any location, using data about the species'
distribution, threats, and risk of extinction.
95. Consider the following statements regarding “Greenium” and Green Bonds:

1. Greenium refers to the discount investors receive when purchasing traditional

bonds over green bonds due to their lower environmental risk.

2. Green bonds typically finance environmentally sustainable projects and may

offer lower borrowing costs to issuers due to strong investor demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
95. Consider the following statements regarding “Greenium” and Green Bonds:

1. Greenium refers to the discount investors receive when purchasing traditional

bonds over green bonds due to their lower environmental risk.

2. Green bonds typically finance environmentally sustainable projects and may

offer lower borrowing costs to issuers due to strong investor demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

Context: According to Economic Survey 2023-24, Indian sovereign green bonds have
struggled to attract significant ‘greenium’ from private investors.

About Greenium (Green + Premium)

• “Greenium” combines "green" and "premium" to describe the extra value or

premium investors are willing to pay for green bonds over traditional bonds due to
their environmental benefits. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Green Bonds: These bonds are issued to fund environmentally beneficial projects,
such as renewable energy, energy efficiency, and sustainable agriculture. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:

Benefits of Greenium:

• Lower Borrowing Costs: High demand for green bonds often allows issuers to
borrow at lower interest rates than with traditional bonds.

• Alignment with ESG Values: As many investors prioritize environmental, social,

and governance (ESG) factors, green bonds that support these values are more
attractive.
96. Consider the following statements regarding Wolbachia bacteria and their
ecological role:

1. Wolbachia bacteria can manipulate insect reproduction to favor female

offspring, as only females can transmit the bacteria to the next generation.

2. Wolbachia bacteria have been explored as a biological control method to

reduce populations of agricultural crops such as whiteflies and aphids.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
96. Consider the following statements regarding Wolbachia bacteria and their
ecological role:

1. Wolbachia bacteria can manipulate insect reproduction to favor female

offspring, as only females can transmit the bacteria to the next generation.

2. Wolbachia bacteria have been explored as a biological control method to

reduce populations of agricultural pest such as whiteflies and aphids.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Context: A recent study has revealed that Wolbachia bacteria have manipulated the
wasp Encarsia formosa to eliminate its male population entirely. These wasps play a
crucial role in controlling whitefly populations, which are significant agricultural
pests.

• Wolbachia is maternally transmitted (via eggs) and manipulates host reproduction

to produce more females, ensuring its own survival. So, Statement 1 is correct

• Wolbachia bacteria are commonly found in nematodes and arthropods, particularly

insects. In these insects, Wolbachia are present in the eggs but absent in the sperm,
allowing females to pass them on to their offspring while males cannot.

• This reproductive strategy has led Wolbachia to evolve mechanisms to influence

their insect hosts, favoring the production of female progeny.
Explanation:

• One potential application of Wolbachia is in the control of mosquito populations,

such as the Aedes aegypti species, which can help reduce the numbers of these
targeted mosquitoes.

• Wolbachia is used to control insect vectors. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

97. Consider the following statements:

1. Cassava starch-based bioplastics are biodegradable and can be used to make

single-use products like bags and cutlery.

2. Cassava is a toxic-free crop and its leaves and roots can be safely consumed by
animals without any processing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
97. Consider the following statements:

1. Cassava starch-based bioplastics are biodegradable and can be used to make

single-use products like bags and cutlery.

2. Cassava is a toxic-free crop and its leaves and roots can be safely consumed by
animals without any processing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:

• Context: Smallholder farmers in Nagaland, India, are now producing compostable

bioplastic bags using cassava starch, presenting an eco-friendly alternative to
petroleum-based plastics.

• This initiative, supported by the North East Centre for Technology Application and
Reach (NECTAR), and led by Eco starch, a local MSME, aims to replace single-use
plastics with biodegradable alternatives.

• This initiative promotes the concept of ‘cassava village’ to boost the local economy,
provide alternative livelihoods, and generate employment, especially for local youth
and women’s self-help groups.
Explanation:

About Cassava

• It is a horticulture crop cultivated in South Indian and North Eastern states like
Tamil Nadu, Nagaland etc.

• It is cultivated throughout the tropical world for its tuberous roots, from which
cassava flour, breads, tapioca, a laundry starch, and an alcoholic beverage are
derived.

• Climatic conditions required

o Soil: Any well-drained soil, preferably red lateritic loamy soil.

o Climate: It thrives best in a tropical, warm, humid climate

o Rainfall: Well-distributed rainfall of over 100 cm per annum.

o This crop can be cultivated upto an elevation of 1000 m.

Explanation:

• Cassava/tapioca contains cyanogenic glucosides (CNGs) in its leaves, stem, tuber,

and rind. These compounds can be toxic, with leaves having higher CNG content
than roots. CNG content decreases with leaf age and feeding crushed peels or leaves
can lead to cyanide poisoning in animals. So, Statement 2 is incorrect

• Properties and Advantages of Cassava-Based Bioplastics:

o Environmental Impact: Cassava-based bioplastics are biodegradable,

decomposing into natural components like water, carbon dioxide, and biomass
under composting conditions. These are suitable for single-use items, such as
shopping bags, cutlery, and straws, helping reduce plastic waste. So, Statement
1 is correct

o Water Sensitivity: Cassava bioplastics may be moisture-sensitive, impacting

their strength and durability, which is advantageous for disposable medical
items like gloves, masks, and syringes.
98. Consider the following statements:

1. The Epipelagic Zone is dominated by phytoplankton, diatoms, and

dinoflagellates.

2. The Mesopelagic Zone is known as the twilight zone.

3. In Abyssopelagic Zone, Giant squids and sperm whales are found.

4. In the Bathypelagic Zone, organisms are colourless and blind.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 4 only
98. Consider the following statements:

1. The Epipelagic Zone is dominated by phytoplankton, diatoms, and

dinoflagellates.

2. The Mesopelagic Zone is known as the twilight zone.

3. In Abyssopelagic Zone, Giant squids and sperm whales are found.

4. In the Bathypelagic Zone, organisms are colourless and blind.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 4 only
Explanation:

• The pelagic zone is that region of lake, river or ocean that is not associated with the
shore or the bottom.

• The pelagic animals inhabiting the zone does not come in contact with the bottom or
the shore throughout their lives.

• The pelagic zone is nutrient-poor. The large fish find their food by swimming long
distances or drifting with currents and feeding on nutrient-deficient organisms.

Epipelagic Zone stretches from the surface to a depth of about 200 metres.

• It is the surface zone where sufficient light penetrates for photosynthesis.

• This region is dominated by phytoplankton, diatoms, and dinoflagellates. Statement

1 is correct.
Explanation:

Mesopelagic Zone extends from 200-1,000 metres below the epipelagic zone.

• This is known as the twilight zone. Statement 2 is correct.

• The oxygen concentration is also very low here.

• The organisms such as squids, nautilus shells, swordfish, etc. have the capacity to
survive in low oxygen concentrations.
Explanation:

Bathypelagic Zone is known as the dark zone where no light can reach.

• This zone extends from 1,000-4,000 metres below the continental slope.

• The fishes exhibiting bioluminescence are prominent in this zone.

• Giant squids and sperm whales are found in this zone. Statement 4 is incorrect.

Abyssopelagic Zone extends from 4,000- 6,000 metres and is the region where the
continental slope levels off.

• It comprises more than 30% of the bottom ocean.

• The organisms here are colourless and blind. Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Option A is the correct answer.

99. Which of the following protected areas are correctly matched with the rivers
associated with them?

1. Mudumalai NP – Kabini

2. Dudhwa NP – Suheli

3. Kaziranga NP - Diphlu

Choose the correct option from below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only
99. Which of the following protected areas are correctly matched with the rivers
associated with them?

1. Mudumalai NP – Kabini

2. Dudhwa NP – Suheli

3. Kaziranga NP - Diphlu

Choose the correct option from below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only
Explanation:

• The Moyar River enters the Mudumalai national park (TN) in the south and is joined
by five tributaries. Together they drain this area, and several artificial waterholes
provide drinking water for wildlife during dry seasons. Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The northern edge of Dudhwa National Park(UP) is frontiered by the Mohana River,
whereas the southern perimeter is bordered by the Suheli River. Statement 2 is
correct.

• Kaziranga National park (Assam) is a vast stretch of tall elephant grass, marshland
and dense tropical moist broadleaf forests crisscrossed by four main rivers —
Brahmaputra, Diphlu, Mora Diphlu and Mora Dhansiri and has numerous small
water bodies. Statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option C is correct.

100. Consider the following statements regarding the Greening Education
Partnership:

1. The Greening Curriculum Guidance (GCG) offers a framework to integrate

climate education into national school curricula with specific learning
outcomes.

2. The Green School Quality Standards (GSQS) provide action-oriented

benchmarks for establishing environmentally sustainable schools.

3. India is an active member of the Greening Education Partnership, which

includes over 80 member states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
100. Consider the following statements regarding the Greening Education
Partnership:

1. The Greening Curriculum Guidance (GCG) offers a framework to integrate

climate education into national school curricula with specific learning
outcomes.

2. The Green School Quality Standards (GSQS) provide action-oriented

benchmarks for establishing environmentally sustainable schools.

3. India is an active member of the Greening Education Partnership, which

includes over 80 member states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:

Context: UNESCO has introduced two new tools, Greening Curriculum Guidance
(GCG) and Green School Quality Standards (GSQS), under the Greening Education
Partnership.

• Greening Curriculum Guidance: The New GCG provides a practical manual

outlining the essential components of climate education, guiding countries in
mainstreaming environmental topics across curricula and outlining expected
learning outcomes. So, Statement 1 is correct

• Green School Quality Standards (GSQS): The new GSQS outlines the minimum
requirements for creating a green school, promoting an action-oriented approach.
So, Statement 2 is correct
Explanation:

About Greening Education Partnership

• The global initiative, comprising 80 member states, aims to combat the climate crisis
by leveraging the crucial role of education.

• India is a member.) So, Statement 3 is correct

• The objective is to equip all learners with the necessary knowledge, skills, values,
attitudes, and actions to combat climate change and promote sustainable
development.
Science & Technology – 100 MCQs
1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Blackholes?

A. Light cannot escape from them.

B. They are visible to the naked eyes.

C. They are formed as a result of collapse of stars.

D. Noble Prize in Physics for the year 2020 was given for the understanding of
Blackholes
1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Blackholes?

A. Light cannot escape from them.

B. They are visible to the naked eyes.

C. They are formed as a result of collapse of stars.

D. Noble Prize in Physics for the year 2020 was given for the understanding of
Blackholes
Explanation:
• Blackholes are not visible to naked eyes. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• A black hole is a cosmic body of extremely intense gravity from which even
light cannot escape.

• Black holes usually cannot be observed directly, but they can be “observed” by
the effects of their enormous gravitational fields on nearby matter.

• A black hole can be formed by the death of a massive star.

• When such a star has exhausted the internal thermonuclear fuels in its core at
the end of its life, the core becomes unstable and gravitationally collapses
inward upon itself, and the star’s outer layers are blown away.

• The crushing weight of constituent matter falling in from all sides compresses
the dying star to a point of zero volume and infinite density called the
singularity.
2. Which of the following statements regarding Blood is correct?

1. Plasma consists of nutrients, hormones and proteins.

2. Red blood cells carry fresh oxygenated blood.

3. White blood cells are part of the body's immune's system.

4. Platelets prevent loss of blood by forming clots.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. One only

B. Two only

C. Three only

D. All four
2. Which of the following statements regarding Blood is correct?

1. Plasma consists of nutrients, hormones and proteins.

2. Red blood cells carry fresh oxygenated blood.

3. White blood cells are part of the body's immune's system.

4. Platelets prevent loss of blood by forming clots.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. One only

B. Two only

C. Three only

D. All four
Explanation:
• Blood is a body fluid in the circulatory system of humans and other
vertebrates that delivers necessary substances such as nutrients and oxygen to
the cells and transports metabolic waste products away from those same cells.

• Blood is composed of blood cells suspended in blood plasma.

• A liquid called plasma makes up about half of the content of blood.

• Plasma contains proteins that help blood to clot, transport substances through
the blood, and perform other functions. Blood plasma also contains glucose
and other dissolved nutrients. Hence, statement 1 is correct
Explanation:
About half of blood volume is composed of blood cells:

• Red blood cells, which carry oxygen to the tissues Hence, statement 2 is
correct

• White blood cells, which fight infections, Hence, statement 3 is correct

• Platelets, smaller cells that help blood to clot. Hence, statement 4 is correct
3. The final parsec problem, often in news related to:

A. Solar wind

B. Soft landing

C. Merger of black holes

D. Magnetic field of Mars

3. The final parsec problem, often in news related to:

A. Solar wind

B. Soft landing

C. Merger of black holes

D. Magnetic field of Mars

Explanation:
• According to the researchers, a major factor impacting galaxy evolution is
galaxy interactions which happen when galaxies move close to each other and
exert tremendous gravitational forces on each other.

• During such galaxy interactions, the respective supermassive black holes can
get near each other.

• The dual black holes start consuming gas from their surroundings and
become dual AGN.

• If two galaxies collide, their black holes will also come closer by transferring
the kinetic energy to the surrounding gas.

• The distance between the blackholes decreases with time until the separation
is around a parsec (3.26 light-years).
Explanation:
• The two black holes are then unable to lose any further kinetic energy in order
to get even closer and merge. This is known as the final parsec problem.
Hence, option C is correct

• The presence of a third black hole can solve this problem.

• The dual merging blackholes can transfer their energy to the third blackhole
and merge with each other

• Many AGN pairs have been detected in the past, but triple AGN are
extremely rare, and only a handful has been detected before using X-ray
observations.

• However, scientist expects such triple AGN systems to be more common in

small merging groups of galaxies.
4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ‘Xenobots’ recently
in news?

A. They are nano-robots sent to the stratosphere for study of atmosphere.

B. They are robots formed from stem cells of the frogs.

C. They focus on studying plant roots and stems.

D. They form the main component of rover sent to Mars by NASA

4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ‘Xenobots’ recently
in news?

A. They are nano-robots sent to the stratosphere for study of atmosphere.

B. They are robots formed from stem cells of the frogs.

C. They focus on studying plant roots and stems.

D. They form the main component of rover sent to Mars by NASA

Explanation:
• World’s first living robots, called Xenobots, were formed from the stem cells of
the African clawed frog (Xenopus laevis) from which it takes its name.

• Xenobots are less than a millimeter wide and could move, work together in
groups and selfheal.

• Stem cells are unspecialized cells that have the ability to develop into different
cell types.

• Now, scientists have discovered an entirely new form of biological

reproduction different from any animal or plant to create first-ever, self-
replicating living robots. Hence, statement B is correct.
5. Which among the following planet is known for creating “discrete” auroras?

A. Earth

B. Uranus

C. Mars

D. Mercury
5. Which among the following planet is known for creating “discrete” auroras?

A. Earth

B. Uranus

C. Mars

D. Mercury
Explanation:
Discrete auroras on Mars

Magnetic field on Mars and Aurora

• Martian magnetic field has largely died out due to molten iron at the interior
of the planet - which produces magnetism - has cooled.

• However, the Martian crust, which hardened billions of years ago when the
magnetic field still existed, retains some magnetism.

• Due to this magnetism on Mars is unevenly distributed, with fields strewn

across the planet and differing in direction and strength.

• These disjointed fields channel the solar wind to different parts of the Martian
atmosphere, creating “discrete” auroras over the entire surface of the planet
as charged particles interact with atoms and molecules in the sky– as they do
on Earth. Hence, option C is correct
Explanation:
Do other Planets get auroras?

• If a planet has an atmosphere and magnetic field, they probably have auroras.

• The gas giants in our solar system (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune)
each have thick atmospheres and strong magnetic fields, and each has
auroras — although these auroras are a little different from Earth’s, given they
are formed under different conditions.
6. Which among the following is/are types of Behavioral biometric identifiers?

1. Vein recognition

2. Typing patterns

3. Finger geometry

4. Walking gait

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

6. Which among the following is/are types of Behavioral biometric identifiers?

1. Vein recognition

2. Typing patterns

3. Finger geometry

4. Walking gait

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Types of biometrics

The two main types of biometric identifiers are either physiological characteristics
or behavioral characteristics.

• Physiological identifiers relate to the composition of the user being

authenticated and include the following:

o facial recognition

o fingerprints

o finger geometry (the size and position of fingers)

o iris recognition

o vein recognition
Explanation:
o retina scanning

o voice recognition

o DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) matching

o digital signatures

Behavioral identifiers include

• the unique ways in which individuals act, including recognition of typing

patterns, walking gait and other gestures. Some of these behavioral identifiers
can be used to provide continuous authentication instead of a single one-off
authentication check.Hence, option B is correct.
7. Consider the following statements:

1. Semi Cryogenic engine uses Refined kerosene instead of liquid oxygen.

2. A semi cryogenic engine is more environment friendly and cost effective as

compared to a cryogenic engine.

Which of the statements given above /are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above.

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Semi Cryogenic engine uses Refined kerosene instead of liquid oxygen.

2. A semi cryogenic engine is more environment friendly and cost effective as

compared to a cryogenic engine.

Which of the statements given above /are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above.

Explanation:
• Cryogenics is the study of the production and behaviour of materials at
extremely low temperatures (below -150 degree Centigrade) to lift and place
heavier objects in space.

• A cryogenic engine provides more force with each kilogram of cryogenic

propellant it uses compared to other propellants, such as solid and liquid
propellant rocket engines and is more efficient.

• It uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) as propellants

which liquefy at -183 deg C and -253 deg C respectively.

• In a semi-cryogenic engine, the liquid hydrogen is replaced by civil aviation

fuel, which is most mostly kerosene or even CNG
Explanation:
Semi-Cryogenic Propellant Tank

Cryogenic Vs Semi cryogenic engine

• Unlike a Cryogenic engine, a Semi Cryogenic engine uses Refined kerosene

instead of liquid hydrogen. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

• The liquid oxygen is used as a Oxidiser.

• That’s the advantage of using a Semi Cryogenic engine as it requires Refined

Kerosene which is lighter than liquid fuel and can be stored in a normal
temperature.

• Kerosene combined with liquid oxygen provide a higher thrust to the rocket.

• Refined Kerosene occupies less space, making it possible to carry more

propellant in a Semi Cryogenic engines fuel compartment.

• A semi cryogenic engine is more powerful, environment friendly and cost

effective as compared to a cryogenic engine. Hence, statement 2 is correct
8. Which among the following disease is known for “DOTS strategy”?

A. AIDS

B. Tuberculosis

C. Cancer

D. Polio
8. Which among the following disease is known for “DOTS strategy”?

A. AIDS

B. Tuberculosis

C. Cancer

D. Polio
Explanation:
DOTS: Direct Observatory Treatment Short-course

• It is a key component of the WHO campaign to Stop TB strategy. Indias

RNTCP is premised upon DOTS. Hence, option B is correct.

• It involves the volunteers (trained health professionals) based health

services to patients, drugs and services are provided at the doorstep of
patients and service provider keeps a track on the diseased.

Key elements:

• Sustained political and financial commitment

• Diagnosis by quality ensured sputum-smear microscopy test

• Standard short course anti TB treatment given under direct and supportive
observation

• Regular and uninterrupted supply of anti TB drugs.

• Standardized treatment and reporting

9. Consider the following statements:

1. CRISPR-Cas9 replicates natural defense mechanisms in virus to fight fungi

attacks using a special protein called Cas9.

2. CRISPR-Cas9 technology behaves like a cut-and-paste mechanism on DNA

strands that contain genetic information.

Which of the statements given above is /are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following statements:

1. CRISPR-Cas9 replicates natural defense mechanisms in virus to fight fungi

attacks using a special protein called Cas9.

2. CRISPR-Cas9 technology behaves like a cut-and-paste mechanism on DNA

strands that contain genetic information.

Which of the statements given above is /are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• In the 10 years since the CRISPR technology has been developed, it has begun
to deliver on its unlimited potential which will help in improving the quality
of human life. CRISPR is short for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short
Palindromic Repeats.

• It is a powerful gene editing technology that replicates natural defence

mechanisms in bacteria to fight virus attacks using a special protein called
Cas9. Hence,Statement 1 is incorrect

• CRISPR-Cas9 technology behaves like a cut-and-paste mechanism on DNA

strands that contain genetic information. Hence,Statement 2 is correct
Explanation:
HOW IT WORKS

• Pieces of RNA are engineered to be a guide that homes in on the targeted

stretch of genetic material. The Cas9 is an enzyme that acts like molecular
scissors to snip that spot. That allows scientists to delete, repair, or replace a
particular gene.
10. Double Fortified Salt (DFS) is an innovative new fortified food product
contains:

A. Iodine and Vitamin D

B. Folic acid and Iodine

C. Iron and Folic acid

D. Iodine and Iron

10. Double Fortified Salt (DFS) is an innovative new fortified food product
contains:

A. Iodine and Vitamin D

B. Folic acid and Iodine

C. Iron and Folic acid

D. Iodine and Iron

Explanation:
Double Fortified Salt (DFS) is an innovative new fortified food product -
delivering small but crucial amounts of iodine and iron to human beings through
their diet. In general, DFS formulations are intended to provide 100% of daily
dietary iodine requirement, and ~30 to 60% of daily dietary iron requirement.
Dual fortification of salt with iodine and iron could be a sustainable approach to
combat iodine and iron deficiencies.Hence, Option D is correct.
11. Consider the following statements regarding reference genome:

1. It is a graph of a DNA sequence of a single person used to compare with

standard sequence.

2. It helps scientists to better understand diseases at the genetic level.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following statements regarding reference genome:

1. It is a graph of a DNA sequence of a single person used to compare with

standard sequence.

2. It helps scientists to better understand diseases at the genetic level.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Genome sequencing

• It is the method used to determine the precise order of the four letters and
how they are arranged in chromosomes. Sequencing individual genomes helps
us understand human diversity at the genetic level and how prone we are to
certain diseases.

• The genome is an identity card like Aadhaar. As each of our Aadhar card is
unique, so is our genome. As sequencing individual genomes of all humans is
expensive, we do not yet have all our genome identity cards.

• To circumvent this, one can have a collective identity card. For example, we
can have a single genome identity card for everyone living in a region.
Explanation:
Reference genome

• When genomes are newly sequenced, they are compared to a reference map
called a reference genome. This helps us to understand the regions of
differences between the newly sequenced genome and the reference genome.
The genome reference sequence provides a general framework and is not the
DNA sequence of a single person. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• One of this century’s scientific breakthroughs was the making of the first
reference genome in 2001.

• It helped scientists discover thousands of genes linked to various diseases;

better understand diseases like cancer at the genetic level; and design novel
diagnostic tests. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Although a remarkable feat, the reference genome of 2001 was 92% complete
and contained many gaps and errors. Additionally, it was not representative
of all human beings as it was built using mostly the genome of a single
individual of mixed African and European ancestry.

• Since then, the reference genome map has been refined and improved to have
complete end-to-end sequences of all the 23 human chromosomes.

• Although complete and error-free, the finished reference genome map does
not represent all of human diversity.

Pangenome map

• Unlike the earlier reference genome, which is a linear sequence, the

pangenome is a graph.

• The graph of each chromosome is like a bamboo stem with nodes where a
stretch of sequences of all 47 individuals converge (similar), and with
internodes of varying lengths representing genetic variations among those
individuals from different ancestries.
Importance of pangenome map

• Although any two humans are more than 99% similar in their DNA, there is
still about a 0.4% difference between any two individuals.

• This may be a small percentage, but considering that the human genome
consists of 3.2 billion individual nucleotides, the difference between any two
individuals is a whopping 12.8 million nucleotides.

• A complete and error-free human pangenome map will help us understand

those differences and explain human diversity better.

• It will also help us understand genetic variants in some populations, which

result in underlying health conditions.

• The pangenome reference map has added nearly 119 million new letters to
the existing genome map and has already aided the discovery of 150 new
genes linked to autism.
• Although the project is a leap forward, genomes from many populations are
still not a part of it. For example, genomes from more people from Africa, the
Indian sub-continent, indigenous groups in Asia and Oceania, and West
Asian regions are not represented in the current version of the pangenome
map.

• Even though the current map does not contain genome sequences from
Indians, it will help map Indian genomes better against the error-free and
complete reference genomes known so far.

• Future pangenome maps that include high-quality genomes from Indians,

including from many endogamous and isolated populations within the
country, will shed light on disease prevalence, help discover new genes for
rare diseases, design better diagnostic methods, and help discover novel drugs
against those diseases.
12. Consider the following statements regarding Trachoma disease seen in news
recently:

1. It is a bacterial infection that mainly affects the liver of a person.

2. WHO has termed Trachoma as a neglected tropical disease

3. Recently India has eliminated Trachoma as a public health problem.

How many of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. One only

B. Two only

C. All three

D. None
12. Consider the following statements regarding Trachoma disease seen in news
recently:

1. It is a bacterial infection that mainly affects the liver of a person.

2. WHO has termed Trachoma as a neglected tropical disease

3. Recently India has eliminated Trachoma as a public health problem.

How many of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. One only

B. Two only

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• Recently WHO declares that India has eliminated Trachoma as a public health
problem in 2024. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• India becomes the third country in the South-East Asia Region to achieve this
milestone

Trachoma

• Trachoma is a bacterial infection that affects the eyes. Hence, statement 1 is

incorrect.

• Cause-It is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia Trachomatis.

Explanation:
• Transmission-Trachoma is contagious, spreading through contact with the
eyes, eyelids, nose or throat secretions of infected people, if left untreated it
causes irreversible blindness.

• WHO has termed Trachoma as a neglected tropical disease. WHO estimates

suggest that 150 million people worldwide are affected by Trachoma and 6
million of them are blind or at risk of visually disabling complications.
Trachoma is found in underprivileged communities living in poor
environmental conditions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
13. Recently ‘SRY gene’ seen in news, related to:

A. Sex determination

B. Genetically modified crops

C. Cancer cure

D. Biofuel
13. Recently ‘SRY gene’ seen in news, related to:

A. Sex determination

B. Genetically modified crops

C. Cancer cure

D. Biofuel
Explanation:
• The Y chromosome is a fundamental component of male biology.

• It carries the SRY gene, which triggers the development of male characteristics,
including the formation of testes and the production of male hormones.

• This genetic marker is unique to males, passed almost unchanged from father
to son, allowing researchers to trace paternal lineage across generations. Its
stability has made it a valuable tool for studying human ancestry and
evolution. Hence, option A is correct.
14. Which among the following activities can be carried out using Blockchain
technology:

1. Money transfers

2. Insurance

3. Real estate

4. Voting

How many of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. One only

B. Two only

C. Three Only

D. All four
14. Which among the following activities can be carried out using Blockchain
technology:

1. Money transfers

2. Insurance

3. Real estate

4. Voting

How many of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. One only

B. Two only

C. Three Only

D. All four
Explanation:
What is Blockchain?

• Blockchain is created as a chain of blocks where each of these blocks has some
digital information. Each of the Blockchain blocks has a unique 32-bit whole
number called a nonce which is connected to a 256-bit hash number attached
to it. These blocks are connected to each other using a chain of cryptographic
hash functions that links each block to its previous block. These three
components together ensure security in the blockchain. Today with these high-
end technologies, Blockchain Applications are changing the world totally.
Explanation:
Application

Money transfers

• The original concept behind the invention of blockchain technology is still a

great application. Money transfers using blockchain can be less expensive and
faster than using existing money transfer services. This is especially true of
cross-border transactions, which are often slow and expensive. Even in the
modern U.S. financial system, money transfers between accounts can take
days, while a blockchain transaction takes minutes.

Lending

• Lenders can use blockchain to execute collateralized loans through smart

contracts. Smart contracts built on the blockchain allow certain events to
automatically trigger things like a service payment, a margin call, full
repayment of the loan, and release of collateral. As a result, loan processing is
faster and less expensive, and lenders can offer better rates.
Explanation:
Insurance

• Using smart contracts on a blockchain can provide greater transparency for

customers and insurance providers. Recording all claims on a blockchain
would keep customers from making duplicate claims for the same event.
Furthermore, using smart contracts can speed up the process for claimants to
receive payments.

Real estate

• Real estate transactions require a ton of paperwork to verify financial

information and ownership and then transfer deeds and titles to new owners.
Using blockchain technology to record real estate transactions can provide a
more secure and accessible means of verifying and transferring ownership.
That can speed up transactions, reduce paperwork, and save money.
Explanation:
Voting

• If personal identity information is held on a blockchain, that puts us just one

step away from also being able to vote using blockchain technology. Using
blockchain technology can make sure that nobody votes twice, only eligible
voters are able to vote, and votes cannot be tampered with. What's more, it can
increase access to voting by making it as simple as pressing a few buttons on
your smartphone. At the same time, the cost of running an election would
substantially decrease. Hence, option D is correct.
15. In recent times, many companies are exploring Low earth orbit technology to
provide satellite internet. Which among the following is/ are correct in this
context:

1. Low earth orbit provide stronger signals and faster speeds than traditional
fixed-satellite systems

2. In low earth orbit companies need to launch less number of satellite as

compare to high earth orbit

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

15. In recent times, many companies are exploring Low earth orbit technology to
provide satellite internet. Which among the following is/ are correct in this
context:

1. Low earth orbit provide stronger signals and faster speeds than traditional
fixed-satellite systems

2. In low earth orbit companies need to launch less number of satellite as

compare to high earth orbit

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
Satellite Internet

• Following the successful launch of 36 satellites on May 28, OneWeb’s Low

Earth Orbit (LEO) constellation reached 218 in-orbit satellites

• The company only has one more launch to complete before it obtains the
capacity to enable its ‘Five to 50’ service of offering internet connectivity to all
regions north of 50 degrees latitude.

What is OneWeb?

• OneWeb is a global communications company that aims to deliver broadband

satellite Internet around the world through its fleet of LEO satellites
Low Earth Orbit technology
Distance Around 500km-2000km from earth
Advantages • Provide stronger signals and faster speeds than
traditional fixed-satellite systems. Hence, statement 1 is
correct

Issues • Satellites travel at a speed of 27,000 kph and complete a

full circuit of the planet in 90-120 minutes

• Individual satellites can only make direct contact with a

land transmitter for a short period of time thus requiring
massive LEO satellite fleets. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect

• Huge capital investment

16. Consider the following statements

1. Cloud computing is used to process time-sensitive data, while edge computing

is used to process data that is not time-driven.

2. Cloud computing is preferred over edge computing in remote locations.

3. Edge computing increases the efficient usage of bandwidth

How many of the above is/are correct:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
16. Consider the following statements

1. Cloud computing is used to process time-sensitive data, while edge computing

is used to process data that is not time-driven.

2. Cloud computing is preferred over edge computing in remote locations.

3. Edge computing increases the efficient usage of bandwidth

How many of the above is/are correct:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
Explanation:
Edge Computing Vs. Cloud Computing - Which One’s Better?

• First, it’s important to understand that cloud and edge computing are
different, non-interchangeable technologies that cannot replace one another.

• Edge computing is used to process time-sensitive data, while cloud

computing is used to process data that is not time-driven. Hence, statement
1 is incorrect.

• Besides latency, edge computing is preferred over cloud computing in

remote locations, where there is limited or no connectivity to a centralized
location. These locations require local storage, similar to a mini data center,
with edge computing providing the perfect solution for it. Hence, statement
2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• Edge computing is also beneficial to specialize and intelligent devices. While
these devices are akin to PCs, they are not regular computing devices
designed to perform multiple functions. These specialized computing
devices are intelligent and respond to particular machines in a specific way.
However, this specialization becomes a drawback for edge computing in
certain industries that require immediate responses.
Explanation:
Why Edge Computing?

• This technology increases the efficient usage of bandwidth by analyzing the

data at the edges itself, unlike the cloud which requires the transfer of data
from the IOT requiring large bandwidth, making it useful to be used in remote
locations with minimum cost. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• It allows smart applications and devices to respond to data almost at the same
time which is important in terms of business ad self-driving cars.
17. Consider the following statement regarding ‘AIRAWAT’ seen in news
recently :

1. It is a quantum computer installed at IIT Delhi.

2. The system is installed under National Program on AI by Government of

India.

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

17. Consider the following statement regarding ‘AIRAWAT’ seen in news
recently :

1. It is a quantum computer installed at IIT Delhi.

2. The system is installed under National Program on AI by Government of

India.

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
AIRAWAT

The AI Supercomputer ‘AIRAWAT’, installed at C-DAC, Pune has been ranked

75th in the world. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

• The system is installed under National Program on AI by Government of

India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• C-DAC has implemented AI Research Analytics and Knowledge

Dissemination Platform (AIRAWAT) of 200 AI Petaflops at Centre for
Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune under the initiative of
Ministry of Electronics and IT, Government of India.

• It puts India on top of AI Supercomputing nations worldwide. The system is

installed under the National Program on AI by the Government of India.
Explanation:
• C-DAC has designed and commissioned the converged HPC-AI dense GPU
infrastructure integrated with the existing PARAM SIDDHI AI system to
make the cumulative compute capacity of 410 AI PF (13.17 PF DP). Currently,
the system is operational under the aegis of National PARAM
Supercomputing Facility (NPSF, C-DAC) at Pune.
Explanation:
National Program on AI

• It is an umbrella programme by the MeitY for leveraging transformative

technologies to foster inclusion, innovation, and adoption for social impact in
AI.
18. Consider the following matches:

1. 1G TDMA

2. 2G FDMA

3. 3G CDMA

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All of the above

18. Consider the following matches:

1. 1G TDMA

2. 2G FDMA

3. 3G CDMA

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Evolution of Telecommunication

• Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)-1G

• Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)-2G

• Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)-2.5 G or 3G

• WCDMA -3G
19. ‘Oncogene’ recently seen in news, is related to

A. Cell whose gene has been altered by the introduction of one or more foreign
DNA sequences

B. Mutated gene that has the potential to cause cancer.

C. Region of repetitive gene sequences at the end of a chromosome

D. Gene sequences isolated and analyzed from all the organisms (typically
microbes) in a bulk sample
19. ‘Oncogene’ recently seen in news, is related to

A. Cell whose gene has been altered by the introduction of one or more foreign
DNA sequences

B. Mutated gene that has the potential to cause cancer.

C. Region of repetitive gene sequences at the end of a chromosome

D. Gene sequences isolated and analyzed from all the organisms (typically
microbes) in a bulk sample
Explanation:
• An oncogene is a mutated gene that has the potential to cause cancer.

• Before an oncogene becomes mutated, it is called a proto-oncogene, and it

plays a role in regulating normal cell division.

• Cancer can arise when a proto-oncogene is mutated, changing it into an

oncogene and causing the cell to divide and multiply uncontrollably. Hence,
option B is correct.
20. Barstar and Barnase gene, recently seen in news, is related to

A. BT Cotton

B. GM Canola oil

C. GM Mustard

D. GM Soyabean
20. Barstar and Barnase gene, recently seen in news, is related to

A. BT Cotton

B. GM Canola oil

C. GM Mustard

D. GM Soyabean
Explanation:
GM MUSTARD

Barstar-Barnase system

• Problem with mustard is that its flowers contain both female and male
reproductive organs, making the plants largely self-pollinating.

• When the egg cells of one plant cannot be easily fertilised by the pollen
grains from another, the scope for developing hybrids through crossing of
parents from divergent genetic pools is restricted.

• This is where GM technology comes in. The Barnase gene alluded to earlier,
codes for a protein that impairs pollen production. The plant into which it is
incorporated, then becomes male-sterile, and capable of receiving pollen from
another parent.
Explanation:
• That plant, in turn, contains the Barstar gene, which blocks the action of the
Barnase gene. Hence, option C is correct.

• The resultant F1 progeny is both high yielding and can also produce
seed/grain, thanks to the Barstar gene in the second male-fertile line.

• Using this technology, the Delhi University scientists bred DMH-11, a GM

hybrid obtained from crossing an Indian mustard variety, Varuna (‘Barnase’
line), with Early Heera-2 (‘Barstar’).

• DMH-11 has reported a roughly 30% yield advantage over the Varuna ‘check’
variety in the bio-safety research level field trials carried out between 2010-11
and 2014-15.
21. Which among the following is/are gene editing technologies:

1. CRISPR Cas 9

2. TALEN

3. Meganucleases

4. SHANEL

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1,2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

21. Which among the following is/are gene editing technologies:

1. CRISPR Cas 9

2. TALEN

3. Meganucleases

4. SHANEL

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1,2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Gene editing Techniques

1. Zinc finger nucleases (ZFN)

2. Transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs)

3. Meganucleases

4. CRISPR-Cas9

5. Base editing

6. Prime editing

7. PASTE: ‘Drag-and-Drop’ Editing for Large Insertions

Explanation:
SHANEL – Small-micelle-mediated Human organ Efficient clearing and
Labeling.

• New microscopic imaging approach has made intact human organs

transparent for the first time, raising hope for the development of 3D-printed
human organs suitable for transplant. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
22. Which of the following best describes the main goal of biohacking?

A. To create superhuman abilities through radical genetic changes

B. To enhance biological performance and possibly extend lifespan using

scientifically-backed techniques

C. To eliminate all forms of disease through genetic engineering

D. To replace traditional medical treatments with alternative methods exclusively

22. Which of the following best describes the main goal of biohacking?

A. To create superhuman abilities through radical genetic changes

B. To enhance biological performance and possibly extend lifespan using

scientifically-backed techniques

C. To eliminate all forms of disease through genetic engineering

D. To replace traditional medical treatments with alternative methods exclusively

Explanation:
• Biohacking is a term used to describe various tips and tricks for enhancing
the body’s ability to function at peak performance—and maybe even extend
one’s lifespan. Hence, option B is correct

• While certain modalities of biohacking may seem extreme, forms like

meditation and intermittent fasting are fairly commonplace and time tested,
with extensive research supporting their use. What’s new, however, is the
movement behind this overall quest for better biological function.

• Biohacking is the practice of employing methods drawn from fields like

biology, genetics, neuroscience and nutrition to enhance physical or mental
performance, improve overall health and well-being, or achieve a specific
health outcome (like weight loss),

• Sometimes biohacking is also called do-it-yourself (DIY) biology.

23. Consider the following statements:

1. CFL bulbs have filaments that glow, producing both heat and light

2. LEDs have electrons that flow to create photons.

3. LED bulbs are dim at first and take a while to warm up to full brightness

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 2 and 3 Only

D. 1,2 and 3
23. Consider the following statements:

1. CFL bulbs have filaments that glow, producing both heat and light

2. LEDs have electrons that flow to create photons.

3. LED bulbs are dim at first and take a while to warm up to full brightness

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 2 and 3 Only

D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
Incandescent bulb Vs CFL Vs LED

Incandescent

• These bulbs have filaments that glow, producing both heat and light when
energy flows through them. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
CFL

• CFL bulbs are also more efficient than incandescent bulbs

• In a CFL, an electric current is driven through a tube containing argon and a

small amount of mercury vapor.

• This generates invisible ultraviolet light that excites a fluorescent coating

(called phosphor) on the inside of the tube, which then emits visible light.

• CFLs as the bulbs that are dim at first and take a while to warm up to full
brightness. Once the electricity starts moving inside them, however, these
bulbs use about 70% less energy than incandescent bulbs. So they’re not
quite as efficient as LEDs, and they have a shorter lifespan. Hence, statement
3 is incorrect.
Explanation:
LED

• LEDs have electrons that flow to create photons – light we can see. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.

• Photons generate almost no heat.

• LEDs also require much less energy to create the same amount of brightness
as incandescent lights, and last much longer.

• LED bulbs use more than 75% less energy than incandescent lighting.

• At low power levels, the difference is even larger. Bright LED flood lamps use
only 11 to 12 watts while creating a light output comparable to a 50-watt
incandescent bulb.
24. Consider the following statement regarding IN-SPACe:

1. It is a Public Sector Undertaking under Department of defence.

2. It is responsible for commercialising space technologies and platforms created

through public expenditure.

3. It will also define frameworks for developing space industry standards

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

24. Consider the following statement regarding IN-SPACe:

1. It is a Public Sector Undertaking under Department of defence.

2. It is responsible for commercialising space technologies and platforms created

through public expenditure.

3. It will also define frameworks for developing space industry standards

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
IN-SPACe

• Established in 2020, In-SPACE is a single-window autonomous agency under

the Department of Space. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Although it has turned out to be crucial for space tech start-up players in all
things related to permissions, integrations, launches and so on, industry
players have often highlighted the lack of a legislative mandate of IN-SPACe.

• Now, they have a reason to rejoice as the space policy clarifies the
responsibilities of this body. Although other aspects such as organisation
structure, appointments, tenure etc is still not clear.
Explanation:
IN-SPACe’s responsibilities

• IN-SPACe will provide authorisations to both government bodies and NGEs

for space activities, such as establishment and/or operation of space objects,
launch of rockets, establishment of launchpads, planned re-entry of space
objects, and so on.

• On the promotion side, it will work with space sector-centric industry

clusters, work towards establishing India as a preferred service provider for
foreign requirements of products and services, work with academia to enable
industry-academia linkages, and so on.

• It will also define frameworks for developing space industry standards,

based on global standards. IN-SPACe will authorise the use of space objects
for communication/broadcast services in coordination with the departments
concerned.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Explanation:
• IN-SPACe will ensure a level playing field for the utilisation of all facilities
created using public expenditure, by prioritising their use among Government
entities and NGEs. For this, IN-SPACe will formulate appropriate procedures
for prioritisation, and the decisions of IN-SPACe shall be binding on the
operators of such facilities.

• Apart from that, the policy states that the body will incentivise NGEs
that acquire new orbital resources through filings in the UN’s International
Telecommunication Union (ITU), and so on.
Explanation:
NewSpace India Limited NSIL

As the Public Sector Undertaking under DOS, shall:

• Be responsible for commercialising space technologies and platforms created

through public expenditure. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Manufacture, lease, or procure space components, technologies, platforms

and other assets from private or public sector, on sound commercial principles.

• Service the space-based needs of users, whether Government entities or

NGEs, on sound commercial principles
25. Consider the following statements:

1. Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle engines are similar to the conventional internal
combustion engines because they also rely on a constant supply of fuel

2. Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles are similar to electric vehicles in that they use an
electric motor instead of an internal combustion engine to power the wheels.

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

25. Consider the following statements:

1. Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle engines are similar to the conventional internal
combustion engines because they also rely on a constant supply of fuel

2. Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles are similar to electric vehicles in that they use an
electric motor instead of an internal combustion engine to power the wheels.

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
Fuel cell technology

• Fuel cells and batteries convert chemical energy into electrical energy
Explanation:
Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle

• The Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV) combines hydrogen and oxygen to
generate an electric current and water is the only byproduct.

• Hydrogen + Oxygen = Electricity + Water Vapour

2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 H2O (l)

• Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV) engines are similar to the conventional
internal combustion engines because they also rely on a constant supply of
fuel (hydrogen) and oxygen. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• However, there are no moving parts in the fuel cell, so they are more efficient
and reliable.
Explanation:
• Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCVs) are similar to electric vehicles (EVs) in
that they use an electric motor instead of an internal combustion engine to
power the wheels. However, while EVs run on batteries that must be plugged
in to recharge, FCVs generate their electricity onboard. Hence, statement 2 is
correct

• In a fuel cell, hydrogen (H2) gas from the vehicle’s fuel tank combines with
oxygen (O2) from the air to generate electricity with only water and heat as
byproducts of the process.
26. Consider the following statements

1. Nag is guided, anti-tank, fire, and forget type of missile

2. Dhanush is a helicopter version of Nag missile

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

26. Consider the following statements

1. Nag is guided, anti-tank, fire, and forget type of missile

2. Dhanush is a helicopter version of Nag missile

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
Nag

• This is guided, anti-tank, fire, and forget type of missile. Hence, statement 1
is correct

• This missile is low-weighted as its body is made of fiber.

• The most striking feature is that its smoke is invisible – hence it can not be
understood from where the missile is coming or targetted.

• Range of 4-8km

HELINA (HELIcopter launched NAg)

• It is an anti-tank guided missile integrated into Dhruv Helicopters.

• It has a range of 7-8km. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect

Explanation:
Dhanush

• It is the naval variant of Prithvi – called Dhanush.

• Short range ballistic missile

• Single solid stage

• Carry Nuclear Warheads

27. Which among the following is not a part of Integrated Guided Missile
Development Programme

A. Nag

B. Trishul

C. Barak

D. Prithvi
27. Which among the following is not a part of Integrated Guided Missile
Development Programme

A. Nag

B. Trishul

C. Barak

D. Prithvi
Explanation:
Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP)-DRDO

IGMDP was started in 1983 (Dr APJ Abdul Kalam)

To attain self-sufficiency in the field of missile technology.

Missiles

• Prithvi Missile

• Akash

• Trishul

• Nag

• Agni
28. Consider the following statements regarding BharatGen

1. It is the government-funded Multimodal Large Language Model project.

2. It focused on creating efficient and inclusive AI in Indian languages.

3. The initiative launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information

Technology.

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

28. Consider the following statements regarding BharatGen

1. It is the government-funded Multimodal Large Language Model project.

2. It focused on creating efficient and inclusive AI in Indian languages.

3. The initiative launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information

Technology.

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
BharatGen

Context-BharatGen, a generative AI initiative designed to enhance public service

delivery was launched by the Ministry of Science & Technology. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.

BharatGen

• It is the world's first government-funded Multimodal Large Language Model

project focused on creating efficient and inclusive AI in Indian languages.
Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.

• Spearheaded by IIT Bombay under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary

Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS), of the Department of Science and
Technology (DST), the initiative will create generative AI systems that can
generate high-quality text and multimodal content in various Indian
languages.
Explanation:
• It is designed to revolutionize public service delivery and boost citizen
engagement through developing a suite of foundational models in language,
speech and computer vision

• The four key distinguishing features of BharatGen are the multilingual and
multimodal nature of foundation models; Bhartiya data set based building,
and training; open-source platform and development of an ecosystem of
generative AI research in the country.

Significance

• BharatGen will deliver generative AI models and their applications as a public

good by prioritizing India's socio-cultural and linguistic diversity. It strives to
address India’s broader needs such as social equity, cultural preservation,
and linguistic diversity, while ensuring that generative AI reaches all segments
of society.
Explanation:
• BharatGen is aligned with the goal of making AI accessible to all citizens,
using AI not only for industrial and commercial purposes but also to address
national priorities like cultural preservation and inclusive technology
development

• By training on multilingual datasets, it will deeply capture the nuances of

Indian languages, which are often underrepresented in global AI models.
Further, unlike models that rely on global datasets, BharatGen focuses on
developing processes for collecting and curating India-centric data, ensuring
that the country’s diverse languages, dialects, and cultural contexts are
accurately represented. This emphasis on data sovereignty strengthens India’s
control over its digital resources and narrative.
29. Consider the following pairs

Food Fortified with

1. Wheat flour Iron, Folic acid

2. Edible Oil Vitamin A and D

3. Double fortified salt Iodine and Vitamin E

How many of the above pairs is/are incorrect as per Food Safety and Standards
Authority of India:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
29. Consider the following pairs

Food Fortified with

1. Wheat flour Iron, Folic acid

2. Edible Oil Vitamin A and D

3. Double fortified salt Iodine and Vitamin E

How many of the above pairs is/are incorrect as per Food Safety and Standards
Authority of India:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
Explanation:
Food Fortified with (Source: Schemes
FSSAI)
Wheat Flour Iron, Folic acid, Vit B12 Announced in 2018

Implemented in 12 states under Poshan

Abhiyaan
Rice Iron, Folic acid, Vit B12 Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme on Fortification
of Rice by Department of Food and Public
Distribution (DFPD) through PDS

Double Fortified Iron, Iodine In 2009, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Salt (DFS) has endorsed the addition of iron in double
fortified salt at 0.8-1.1 mg/g of salt.

Edible Oil Vit A, Vit D FSSAI in 2018 (Compulsory)

Milk Vit A, Vit D Initiated by National Dairy Development Board of
India (NDDB) in 2017
30. Consider the following pairs

Supercomputer Country
1. Frontier USA
2. Fugaku China
3. Sunway Taihu Light Japan

Select the correct answer code

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All of the above

30. Consider the following pairs

Supercomputer Country
1. Frontier USA
2. Fugaku China
3. Sunway Taihu Light Japan

Select the correct answer code

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Fastest supercomputers in the world:

• Frontier, the new number 1, is built by Hewlett Packard Enterprise (HPE) and
housed at the Oak Ridge National Laboratory (ORNL) in Tennessee, USA.

• Fugaku, which previously held the top spot, is installed at the Riken Center for
Computational Science in Kobe, Japan. It is three times faster than the next
supercomputer in the top 10.

• LUMI is another HPE system and the new number 3, crunching the numbers
in Finland.

• Summit, an IBM-built supercomputer, is also at ORNL in Tennessee. Summit

is used to tackle climate change, predict extreme weather and understand the
genetic factors that influence opioid addiction
Explanation:
• Another US entry is Sierra, a system installed at the Lawrence Livermore
National Laboratory in California, which is used for testing and maintaining
the reliability of nuclear weapons.

• China’s highest entry is the Sunway TaihuLight, a system developed by the

National Research Center of Parallel Computer Engineering and Technology
and installed in Wuxi, Jiangsu.
31. Where is India’s first Dark Sky Reserve being established?

A. Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh

B. Thar Desert, Rajasthan

C. Ladakh Cold Desert Region

D. Rann of Kutch, Gujarat

31. Where is India’s first Dark Sky Reserve being established?

A. Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh

B. Thar Desert, Rajasthan

C. Ladakh Cold Desert Region

D. Rann of Kutch, Gujarat

Explanation:
Context- India established the country’s first Dark Sky Reserve in the cold desert
regions of Ladakh. Hence, option C is correct.

What is a Dark Sky Reserve?

• A Dark Sky Reserve is public or private land with a distinguished nocturnal

environment and starry nights that has been developed responsibly to
prevent light pollution.

• According to the International Dark Sky Association (IDSA) website, these

reserves “consist of a core area meeting minimum criteria for sky quality
and natural darkness, and a peripheral area that supports dark sky
preservation in the core.”

• These reserves, it said, are formed through a “partnership of multiple land

managers who have recognized the value of the natural nighttime
environment through regulations and long-term planning”.
32. Consider the following statements regarding applications of genome
sequencing:

1. Genome sequencing can help in personalized medicine by tailoring treatments

based on an individual's genetic profile.

2. It plays a role in identifying genetic disorders and hereditary diseases.

3. Genome sequencing is primarily used only for studying human DNA and has
no relevance in agriculture.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
32. Consider the following statements regarding applications of genome
sequencing:

1. Genome sequencing can help in personalized medicine by tailoring treatments

based on an individual's genetic profile.

2. It plays a role in identifying genetic disorders and hereditary diseases.

3. Genome sequencing is primarily used only for studying human DNA and has
no relevance in agriculture.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
Genome sequencing is the process of determining the complete DNA sequence
of an organism’s genome, including all its genes and non-coding regions. It helps
in understanding the genetic blueprint that governs biological functions and
hereditary traits.

Application

• Personalized medicine uses genome sequencing to develop targeted

treatments based on a patient’s genetic makeup.Hence, Statement 1 is correct

• It helps identify genetic disorders such as cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia,
and cancer mutations.Hence, Statement 2 is correct

• Genome sequencing is widely used in agriculture to improve crop varieties,

enhance disease resistance, and study plant genetics. Hence, Statement 3 is
incorrect
33. Which of the following statements regarding Genetically Modified (GM)
Crops is/are correct?

1. GM crops are developed using recombinant DNA technology to introduce

desirable traits like pest resistance.

2. Golden Rice, enriched with Vitamin A, is an example of a GM crop.

3. Bt cotton is genetically modified to resist herbicides, making it easier for

farmers to remove weeds.

How many of the above is/are correct:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None of the above

33. Which of the following statements regarding Genetically Modified (GM)
Crops is/are correct?

1. GM crops are developed using recombinant DNA technology to introduce

desirable traits like pest resistance.

2. Golden Rice, enriched with Vitamin A, is an example of a GM crop.

3. Bt cotton is genetically modified to resist herbicides, making it easier for

farmers to remove weeds.

How many of the above is/are correct:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None of the above

Explanation:
• Genetically Modified (GM) Crops are plants whose DNA has been altered
using recombinant DNA technology to introduce desirable traits such as pest
resistance, herbicide tolerance, drought resistance, improved nutritional
content, and higher yield.

• This modification is done by inserting genes from other organisms (bacteria,

viruses, or other plants) into the crop’s genome to enhance specific
characteristics.

• GM crops are created by inserting foreign genes into plants using rDNA
technology. Hence, statement 1 is correct

• Golden Rice contains genes from daffodil and bacteria to produce beta-
carotene (Vitamin A precursor). Hence, statement 2 is correct

• Bt cotton is genetically modified for insect (bollworm) resistance, not

herbicide resistance. Herbicide-resistant GM crops include HTBT cotton.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect
34. Which of the following celestial bodies follow an elliptical orbit?

1. Planets in the Solar System

2. Comets

3. Artificial satellites

Select the correct code

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

34. Which of the following celestial bodies follow an elliptical orbit?

1. Planets in the Solar System

2. Comets

3. Artificial satellites

Select the correct code

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Elliptical orbit

• An elliptical orbit, also called an eccentric orbit, is in the shape of an ellipse

• Elliptical orbits are varying in speed & have eccentricity between zero to one

• When the satellite is in the part of its orbit closest to the Earth, it moves faster
because the Earth’s gravitational pull is stronger

• Planets follow elliptical orbits around the Sun due to gravitational

forces.Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Comets have highly elliptical orbits, often taking them close to and far away
from the Sun. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Artificial satellites launched around Earth follow elliptical orbits unless

corrected to circular orbits. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
35. Which of the following correctly differentiates between suborbital flight
and orbital flight?

A. Orbital flights reach space, while suborbital flights do not.

B. Suborbital flights do not achieve the speed required to complete an orbit

around Earth.

C. Suborbital flights occur only within Earth's atmosphere.

D. Orbital flights always require a human crew on board.

35. Which of the following correctly differentiates between suborbital flight
and orbital flight?

A. Orbital flights reach space, while suborbital flights do not.

B. Suborbital flights do not achieve the speed required to complete an orbit

around Earth.

C. Suborbital flights occur only within Earth's atmosphere.

D. Orbital flights always require a human crew on board.

Explanation:
Suborbital flight

• Any object travelling slower than 28,000 km/hr must eventually return to
Earth.

• These are suborbital flights, because they will not be travelling fast enough to
orbit Earth once they reach the “edge of space”.

• Such a trip allows space travellers to experience a few minutes of

“weightlessness”

• If an object travels at 40,000 km/hr, it will achieve what is known as “escape

velocity”, and never return to Earth

• Suborbital flights reach space but lack the velocity needed to stay in orbit.
Instead, they fall back to Earth after reaching their highest point. Hence,
statement B is correct.
Explanation:
• Orbital flights achieve the necessary orbital velocity (~28,000 km/h) to stay in
continuous motion around Earth.

• Suborbital flights do leave Earth's atmosphere .

• Orbital flights can be unmanned (e.g., satellites).

36. Which of the following nanomaterials is commonly used in sunscreens due
to its UV-blocking properties?

A. Carbon nanotubes

B. Zinc oxide (ZnO) nanoparticles

C. Graphene

D. Gold nanoparticles
36. Which of the following nanomaterials is commonly used in sunscreens due
to its UV-blocking properties?

A. Carbon nanotubes

B. Zinc oxide (ZnO) nanoparticles

C. Graphene

D. Gold nanoparticles
Explanation:
• Zinc oxide (ZnO) and titanium dioxide (TiO₂) nanoparticles are used in
sunscreens because they block harmful UV rays. Hence, option B is correct.

• Carbon nanotubes (A) are used for strong, lightweight materials.

• Graphene (C) has applications in electronics and batteries.

• Gold nanoparticles (D) are used in medical imaging and drug delivery.
37. Which of the following are applications of nanotechnology?

1. Targeted drug delivery in cancer treatment

2. Increasing the efficiency of solar panels

3. Improving the durability of fabrics

4. Strengthening materials like steel in construction

Select the correct code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2, and 3 only

D. All of the above

37. Which of the following are applications of nanotechnology?

1. Targeted drug delivery in cancer treatment

2. Increasing the efficiency of solar panels

3. Improving the durability of fabrics

4. Strengthening materials like steel in construction

Select the correct code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2, and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• Nanotechnology is the science and engineering of manipulating materials at
the nanoscale (1–100 nanometers). At this scale, materials exhibit unique
physical, chemical, and biological properties, making them useful for various
applications in medicine, electronics, energy, and materials science.

• Application

o Nanoparticles help in targeted drug delivery for diseases like cancer.

o Nanomaterials enhance solar panel efficiency by improving light

absorption.

o Nano-coatings improve fabric durability and self-cleaning properties.

o Carbon nanotubes and nanocomposites enhance the strength of

construction materials. Hence, all statements are correct.
38. Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Fission and Nuclear
Fusion:

1. Nuclear fission releases more energy per reaction compared to nuclear fusion.

2. Nuclear fusion requires extremely high temperature and pressure to overcome

electrostatic repulsion.

3. In nuclear fission, two lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
38. Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Fission and Nuclear
Fusion:

1. Nuclear fission releases more energy per reaction compared to nuclear fusion.

2. Nuclear fusion requires extremely high temperature and pressure to overcome

electrostatic repulsion.

3. In nuclear fission, two lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Nuclear fission is the process of splitting a heavy atomic nucleus into two or
more smaller nuclei, along with the release of a large amount of energy.

• Nuclear fusion is the process where two lighter atomic nuclei combine to
form a heavier nucleus, releasing a tremendous amount of energy.

• Nuclear fusion releases far more energy than nuclear fission per reaction. This
is why stars rely on fusion for energy. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

• Fusion needs extremely high temperature (millions of degrees) and pressure to

force nuclei to combine, overcoming their natural repulsion. Hence, statement
2 is correct

• This describes fusion, but in nuclear fission, a heavy nucleus (like uranium-
235) splits into smaller nuclei, releasing energy. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect
39. Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Key Distribution
(QKD):

1. QKD ensures secure communication by using quantum mechanics principles.

2. QKD enables the transmission of classical information securely over a

quantum channel.

3. Any attempt to eavesdrop on a QKD system can be detected due to quantum

properties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 and 3 only
39. Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Key Distribution
(QKD):

1. QKD ensures secure communication by using quantum mechanics principles.

2. QKD enables the transmission of classical information securely over a

quantum channel.

3. Any attempt to eavesdrop on a QKD system can be detected due to quantum

properties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) is a cryptographic method that uses
principles of quantum mechanics to securely distribute encryption keys
between two parties. It ensures that any eavesdropping attempt is detected,
making the communication highly secure.

• However, QKD does not transmit actual messages—it only provides a secure
way to share encryption keys. The actual data transmission still happens over
a classical channel using conventional encryption methods.

• QKD is based on quantum mechanics principles such as the Heisenberg

Uncertainty Principle and the No-Cloning Theorem.Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
Explanation:
• Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) does not transmit classical information
securely over a quantum channel. Instead, it is used only for the secure
distribution of encryption keys using quantum mechanics principles. The
actual communication of classical information (e.g., messages, data) still
happens over a conventional communication channel, which is secured using
the encryption keys generated via QKD. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Due to quantum properties, any eavesdropping attempt disturbs the

quantum state, alerting users. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
40. What does the term "SIM" stand for in the context of mobile phones?

A. System Information Module

B. Subscriber Identity Module

C. Secure Internet Messaging

D. Signal Interference Mechanics

40. What does the term "SIM" stand for in the context of mobile phones?

A. System Information Module

B. Subscriber Identity Module

C. Secure Internet Messaging

D. Signal Interference Mechanics

Explanation:
SIM

• The full form of SIM is “Subscriber Identity Module” or “Subscriber

Identification Module“.

• SIM is an integrated circuit that securely stores International Mobile

Subscriber Identity (IMSI).

• It is a portable memory chip that enables you to make phone calls or send text
messages around the world where the subscriber’s network is available.
Hence, option B is correct.
41. Recently scientists have discovered a “black hole triple” in space for the first
time. Which among the following is/are correct in context to the significance of
this discovery

1. Black holes do not exist as binary system.

2. Black holes are formed after massive stars explode at the end of their lives
known as a supernova.

3. Star can’t orbit black hole.

Select the correct answer using codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. None

D. All of the above

41. Recently scientists have discovered a “black hole triple” in space for the first
time. Which among the following is/are correct in context to the significance of
this discovery

1. Black holes do not exist as binary system.

2. Black holes are formed after massive stars explode at the end of their lives
known as a supernova.

3. Star can’t orbit black hole.

Select the correct answer using codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. None

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Context-A new study says scientists have discovered a “black hole triple” in space
for the first time.

About

• The system comprises a black hole at its centre, currently in the process of
consuming a small star spiralling very close to it. There is also a second star,
which appears to be circling the black hole but is actually far away. It raised
questions about how black holes are formed.

• A black hole is a region in space where the pull of gravity is so strong that no
matter or light can escape it. Astronomers believe most black holes are formed
after massive stars explode at the end of their lives — known as a supernova.
However, the triple system suggests a gentler process. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
Explanation:
The triple system

• Many black holes discovered until now have been part of binary systems,
consisting of a black hole and a secondary object (such as a star or another
black hole). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• But the black hole triple not only has one star which orbits the black hole about
every 6.5 days, but also a more far-off star which orbits it every 70,000 years.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Situated in the constellation of Cygnus, the system features one of the oldest
known black holes, the V404 Cygni, which is nine times as big as the Sun in
our solar system.

• Researchers accidentally discovered the distant star while looking through a

repository of astronomical observations taken by telescopes
Explanation:
Failed supernova

• V404 Cygni has two stars around it as the black hole did not arise from a
supernova, which typically kicks away outer stars in the explosion.

• Instead, it was formed through another process called “direct collapse”, where
the star caves in after expending all its fuel, but does not explode.

• We call these events a ‘failed supernova’. Basically, the gravitational collapse

just acts too quickly for the supernova to be able to trigger and you get an
implosion instead — which sounds super dramatic and awesome but it is
‘gentle’ in the sense that you do not expel any matte
42. ‘Project Strawberry’ seen in news recently, related to:

A. Agriculture

B. Artificial intelligence

C. Renewable energy

D. Antibiotic resistance
42. ‘Project Strawberry’ seen in news recently, related to:

A. Agriculture

B. Artificial intelligence

C. Renewable energy

D. Antibiotic resistance
Explanation:
Project Strawberry

• Context- OpenAI, the world’s premier artificial intelligence research

organisation, will likely release its most powerful AI model and could
integrate it into ChatGPT-5, the new version of the chatbot and virtual
assistant that it launched in late 2022.

• The secretive project, on which OpenAI has been working for long, was earlier
known as Project Q* (Q-star), and is now codenamed Project Strawberry
Explanation:
About

• It is expected to feature autonomous Internet research and dramatically

improve AI reasoning capabilities, and has been billed as OpenAI’s push to
create Artificial General Intelligence — AI with capabilities similar to that of
the human brain. Project Strawberry would be better at math and
programming than any existing chatbot.

• Integration with ChatGPT will make the latter the most powerful AI chatbot
there is, the report said.

• ChatGPT has sometimes struggled with math, and experts think the errors
could be due to the absence of adequate mathematical information in the
training data.
43. Why is LockBit ransomware classified as a "crypto virus"?

A. It encrypts files and demands cryptocurrency payments for decryption.

B. It uses cryptographic techniques to secure user data.

C. It operates only on blockchain-based systems.

D. It spreads through cryptocurrency mining software.

43. Why is LockBit ransomware classified as a "crypto virus"?

A. It encrypts files and demands cryptocurrency payments for decryption.

B. It uses cryptographic techniques to secure user data.

C. It operates only on blockchain-based systems.

D. It spreads through cryptocurrency mining software.

Explanation:
Context-Recent reports emerged that LockBit ransomware was found to be
targeting Mac devices

Earlier in January, the LockBit gang was reportedly behind a cyber-attack on U.K.
postal services, causing international shipping to grind to a halt.
Explanation:
LockBit ransomware

• First reported in September 2019 and dubbed the “abcd” virus, due to the file
extension used when encrypting victim’s files, the LockBit ransomware is
designed to infiltrate victims’ systems and encrypt important files.

• The virus is categorised as a “crypto virus” due to its requests for payment in
cryptocurrency to decrypt the files on the victim’s device. A crypto virus is a
type of ransomware that encrypts files on a victim’s device and demands
cryptocurrency payments in exchange for decryption. LockBit falls into this
category.Hence, option A is correct.

• Historically, ransomware has targeted Windows, Linux, and VMware ESXi

servers.

• Experts believe that, after launching multiple attacks across Europe and Asia,
the gang is developing tools to target macOS and further increase the scope
of attacks to bring in more financial gains for the operation.
44. Consider the following statements regarding Nipah virus (NiV):

1. Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus, meaning it can be transmitted from animals to

humans.

2. The first recognized outbreak of Nipah virus occurred in Kerala, India, in 1999.

3. Fruit bats of the family Pteropodidae are the natural hosts of the Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
44. Consider the following statements regarding Nipah virus (NiV):

1. Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus, meaning it can be transmitted from animals to

humans.

2. The first recognized outbreak of Nipah virus occurred in Kerala, India, in 1999.

3. Fruit bats of the family Pteropodidae are the natural hosts of the Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
Context-A 14-year-old boy from Kerala’s Malappuram, who had tested positive
for the Nipah virus, died at the government Medical College Hospital in
Kozhikode.

About Nipah virus

• Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus (it is transmitted from animals to

humans) and can also be transmitted through contaminated food or directly
between people.Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Nipah is a viral infection that mainly affects animals such as bats, pigs, dogs,
and horses, but can jump to humans who come in contact with infected
animals and cause serious illness.
Explanation:
• Nipah virus was first recognized in 1999 during an outbreak among pig
farmers in, Malaysia. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Kerala has had a number of Nipah outbreaks since 2018.

• Fruit bats of the family Pteropodidae – particularly species belonging to

the Pteropus genus – are the natural hosts for Nipah virus. There is no apparent
disease in fruit bats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
45. Consider the following statements regarding the Thirty Meter Telescope
(TMT):

1. The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) is an international project that will be

constructed in Antarctica.

2. TMT will be one of the world’s most advanced ground-based telescopes,

capable of observing in optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared wavelengths.

3. India is a key partner in the TMT project.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
45. Consider the following statements regarding the Thirty Meter Telescope
(TMT):

1. The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) is an international project that will be

constructed in Antarctica.

2. TMT will be one of the world’s most advanced ground-based telescopes,

capable of observing in optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared wavelengths.

3. India is a key partner in the TMT project.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
Explanation:
Context-Indian researchers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) in
Bengaluru and their collaborators have developed a new online tool to create a
comprehensive star catalogue for the Adaptive Optics System (AOS) of the
upcoming Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT).

Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT)

• TMT is an international scientific endeavour which would come up at

Maunakea in Hawaii. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) will be the world’s most advanced and
capable ground-based optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared
observatory. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
• India is a key partner in the TMT project, with India TMT Center at IIA
leading the national collaboration. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• India TMT will be jointly funded by the Departments of Science and

Technology and Atomic Energy.

• The new tool can enable this ground-based telescope, which is one of the
largest to be operational in the next decade, to generate sharper astronomical
images.
46. What does FLOPs stand for in computing?

A. Floating-point Operations per Second

B. File Loading Operations per Second

C. Frequency Level Operations per Second

D. Fixed Logical Operations per Second

46. What does FLOPs stand for in computing?

A. Floating-point Operations per Second

B. File Loading Operations per Second

C. Frequency Level Operations per Second

D. Fixed Logical Operations per Second

Explanation:
What are FLOPs in computing?

• FLOPs, or Floating-Point Operations per Second, is a commonly used metric

to measure the computational performance – processing power and efficiency
– especially in the field of high-performance computing (HPC) and artificial
intelligence (AI). Floating-point operations are a certain kind of mathematical
calculation using real numbers with fractional parts. Hence, option A is
correct.

• Modern computing systems, such as CPUs (Central Processing Units) and

GPUs (Graphics Processing Units), are designed to perform multiple
operations simultaneously, using parallel processing techniques.
Explanation:
• The parallelism significantly increases the number of FLOPs a system can
achieve within a given time frame. Over the years, hardware has become more
efficient, exponentially increasing computing power.

• 2008 was the first year when a supercomputer was able to break what was
then called “the petaFLOPS barrier,” when the IBM Roadrunner shocked the
world with an astounding peak performance of 1.105 petaFLOPS.
47. Consider the following statements regarding the environmental impact of
CFLs and LEDs:

1. LEDs contain hazardous materials like mercury.

2. CFLs take a few seconds to reach full brightness, whereas LEDs provide
instant illumination.

3. LEDs are more eco-friendly than CFLs.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

47. Consider the following statements regarding the environmental impact of
CFLs and LEDs:

1. LEDs contain hazardous materials like mercury.

2. CFLs take a few seconds to reach full brightness, whereas LEDs provide
instant illumination.

3. LEDs are more eco-friendly than CFLs.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• CFLs contain mercury, which is a toxic substance that poses environmental
hazards during disposal. LEDs do not contain mercury or other hazardous
materials, making them safer for the environment. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect

• CFLs use a gas discharge process, requiring time to stabilize and reach
maximum brightness. LEDs, on the other hand, provide instant full
brightness as soon as they are switched on. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• LEDs are more energy-efficient and do not contain hazardous substances like
mercury. They have a longer lifespan, reducing electronic waste compared to
CFLs. Lower heat emission makes them more environmentally friendly.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
48. Which fundamental principles of quantum mechanics does Quantum Key
Distribution (QKD) rely on?

A. Superposition and entanglement

B. Quantum tunneling and black holes

C. Wave-particle duality and relativity

D. String theory and uncertainty principle

48. Which fundamental principles of quantum mechanics does Quantum Key
Distribution (QKD) rely on?

A. Superposition and entanglement

B. Quantum tunneling and black holes

C. Wave-particle duality and relativity

D. String theory and uncertainty principle

Explanation:
Quantum Key Distribution (QKD)

• Technique that allows for secure distribution of keys to be used for

encrypting and decrypting messages.

• Whereas in QKD achieves security through the laws of quantum physics i.e.
superposition and entanglement. Hence, option A is correct.

Superposition

• means that each qubit can represent both a 1 and a 0 at the same time.
Explanation:
Quantum entanglement

• Subatomic particles become inextricably linked or “entangled” in such a way

that any change in one disturbs the other even if both are at opposite ends of
the universe.

• Quantum Satellite serves as source of pairs of entangled photons, twinned

light particles whose properties remain intertwined no matter how far apart
they are.

• This means any attempt at hacking entangled particles would be impossible.

49. Consider the following pairs:

1. FDMA : 1G

2. TDMA : 2G

3. CDMA : 3G

How many of the above is/are correct

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 3 Only

D. None
49. Consider the following pairs:

1. FDMA : 1G

2. TDMA : 2G

3. CDMA : 3G

How many of the above is/are correct

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 3 Only

D. None
Explanation:
Evolution of Telecommunication

• Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)-1G

• Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)-2G

• Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)/ WCDMA-3 G

50. If a blockchain network chooses to transition from a 'Proof of Work' to a
'Proof of Stake' mechanism, which of the following accurately describes the
potential outcome of this transition?

1. Increase in competition among miners.

2. It can enhance the security of the chain

3. Increase in carbon footprint

How many of the above statements is/are correct:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. None the above

50. If a blockchain network chooses to transition from a 'Proof of Work' to a
'Proof of Stake' mechanism, which of the following accurately describes the
potential outcome of this transition?

1. Increase in competition among miners.

2. It can enhance the security of the chain

3. Increase in carbon footprint

How many of the above statements is/are correct:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. None the above

Explanation:
• Ethereum, the world’s second most valuable cryptocurrency, has completed a
significant software overhaul which promises to ramp up security of the
cryptocurrency while claiming to cut down on its carbon footprint, nearly
entirely. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Merge The revamp, known as ‘The Merge,’ will cast aside the need for
crypto miners and gigantic mining farms, who had previously driven the
blockchain under a mechanism called ‘proof-of-work’ (PoW). Instead, it has
now shifted to a ‘proof-of-stake’ (PoS) mechanism that assigns ‘validators’
randomly to approve transactions and earn a small reward. The move to PoS
will reduce ethereum’s energy consumption by nearly 99.95 per cent,
according to the Ethereum Foundation, a non-profit organisation dedicated to
supporting the cryptocurrency and its related technologies.Hence, statement 1
is incorrect
Explanation:
• The Merge dramatically increases the security of Ethereum. An attacker needs
51% of the blockchain’s value to [take control]. With Proof of Work, you need
on the order of $5 billion, which allows you to buy enough computers and
transformers, connect all of them to the grid, and then carry out an attack.
With Proof of Stake, we will have about $20 billion in economic security today
– and this is a number I expect will grow dramatically.” Apart from that, it is
also being seen as an environmentally conscious move as Ethereum is
expected to now consume 99 per cent or so less energy. Hence, Statement 2 is
correct.
51. Consider the following statements regarding the millimeter wave spectrum
and its role in 5G technology:

1. The millimeter wave spectrum lies between 30 GHz and 300 GHz.

2. Millimeter waves enable high-speed wireless communication with the

advantage of transmitting large amounts of data.

3. Millimeter waves are located between microwave and infrared waves in the
electromagnetic spectrum.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

51. Consider the following statements regarding the millimeter wave spectrum
and its role in 5G technology:

1. The millimeter wave spectrum lies between 30 GHz and 300 GHz.

2. Millimeter waves enable high-speed wireless communication with the

advantage of transmitting large amounts of data.

3. Millimeter waves are located between microwave and infrared waves in the
electromagnetic spectrum.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Millimeter wave spectrum

• The 5G networks will operate in the millimeter wave spectrum (30-300 GHz)
which have the advantage of sending large amounts of data at very high
speeds because the frequency is so high. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct

• Millimeter wave spectrum is the band of spectrum between 30 GHz and 300
GHz.

• Wedged between microwave and infrared waves, this spectrum can be used
for high-speed wireless communications . Hence statement 3 is correct
52. Which among the following is/are correct regarding ‘Incognito mode’ also
known as private browsing:

1. Websites you visit won't be saved to your browser's history.

2. Prevents cookies from being stored on a user's device.

3. Search engines like Google won't save your search queries when you're using
incognito mode.

Select the correct code:

A. Only 1

B. 1 and 2 Only

C. 2 and 3 Only

D. 1 and 3 Only
52. Which among the following is/are correct regarding ‘Incognito mode’ also
known as private browsing:

1. Websites you visit won't be saved to your browser's history.

2. Prevents cookies from being stored on a user's device.

3. Search engines like Google won't save your search queries when you're using
incognito mode.

Select the correct code:

A. Only 1

B. 1 and 2 Only

C. 2 and 3 Only

D. 1 and 3 Only
Explanation:
Incognito Mode

• Incognito mode is a privacy feature available in most modern web browsers

(like Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, Safari, and Microsoft Edge). When you
enable incognito mode, your browser does not save certain information about
your online activities. This means your browsing history, search
history, cookies, and temporary files are not stored once you close the
incognito window.

• Essentially, incognito mode provides a way to browse the web without

leaving traces of your activities on your device.
Explanation:
How Does Incognito Mode Work?

When you use incognito mode, the following happens:

• No Browsing History Saved: Websites you visit won't be saved to your browser's
history. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• No Cookies: Cookies are stored temporarily during your session but are deleted
once you close the window. This prevents websites from tracking you through stored
cookies. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• No Search History: Search engines like Google won't save your search queries when
you're using incognito mode. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• However, it's important to note that incognito mode does not make you anonymous
or untraceable on the internet. It only affects what is stored on your device. Other
entities, such as your internet service provider (ISP), websites, or even
your employer (if you're using a work network), can still track your activities.
53. Consider the following statements regarding the differences between the
Hubble Space Telescope and the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST):

1. The Hubble Telescope primarily observes in the visible and ultraviolet

spectrum, while the JWST is designed to observe in the infrared spectrum.

2. JWST is positioned much farther from Earth than Hubble.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

53. Consider the following statements regarding the differences between the
Hubble Space Telescope and the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST):

1. The Hubble Telescope primarily observes in the visible and ultraviolet

spectrum, while the JWST is designed to observe in the infrared spectrum.

2. JWST is positioned much farther from Earth than Hubble.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
Hubble Vs James web telescope

• The JWST will be able to see right through and into massive clouds of dust
that are opaque to earlier generation visible-light observatories like the
Hubble Telescope.

• Another difference is that the Webb is equipped with cameras and other
instruments sensitive to infrared or “heat” radiation, and the Hubble is not.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The expansion of the universe causes the light that would normally be in
wavelengths that are visible to be shifted to longer infrared wavelengths,
normally invisible to human eyes
Explanation:
JWST is positioned 1.5 million km from Earth at Lagrange Point 2 (L2), whereas
Hubble orbits Earth at ~570 km altitude.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
54. Why is LIGO considered a breakthrough in astrophysics?

1. It provides direct evidence for the existence of gravitational waves, as

predicted by Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity.

2. LIGO helps scientists study cosmic events like black hole mergers and
neutron star collisions that do not emit light.

3. LIGO's detections help understand the nature of spacetime curvature and the
expansion of the universe.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1, and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

54. Why is LIGO considered a breakthrough in astrophysics?

1. It provides direct evidence for the existence of gravitational waves, as

predicted by Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity.

2. LIGO helps scientists study cosmic events like black hole mergers and
neutron star collisions that do not emit light.

3. LIGO's detections help understand the nature of spacetime curvature and the
expansion of the universe.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1, and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
LIGO, or Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory

• It is an international network of laboratories meant to detect gravitational

waves — the ripples in space-time produced by the movement of large
celestial bodies like stars and planets.

First discovered in 2015 by two LIGOs based in the United States

• Two years later, in 2017, this experimental verification of the century-old

theory received the Nobel Prize in Physics

• Besides the United States (in Hanford and Livingston), such gravitational
wave observatories are currently operational in Italy (Virgo) and Japan
(Kagra).
Explanation:
LIGO-India

• It is part of the plan to expand the network of gravitational wave

observatories in order to increase the chances of detecting these waves from
anywhere in the observable universe and improve the accuracy and quality of
information gleaned from them.

• Until now, at least 10 events producing gravitational waves have been

detected.

• Besides the United States, such gravitational wave observatories are currently
operational in Europe and Japan. LIGO-India will be the fifth, and possibly
the final, node of the planned network.

• To be located in Hingoli district of Maharashtra, about 450 km east

of Mumbai, LIGO-India is scheduled to begin its scientific runs from 2030. The
final approval, involving a budget of Rs 2,600 crore, has taken several years in
coming.
Explanation:
• The LIGO detector in India would be similar to the two that are located in the
United States – in Hanford and Livingston.

• LIGO directly confirmed gravitational waves, a key prediction of Einstein’s

General Theory of Relativity (1915).Hence, Statement 1 is correct

• Unlike traditional telescopes that detect electromagnetic radiation (light),

LIGO detects ripples in spacetime, revealing information about dark and
invisible cosmic events. Hence, Statement 2 is correct

• By studying gravitational waves, scientists gain insights into the fabric of

spacetime and measure cosmic distances with high precision. Hence,
Statement 3 is correct.
55. Recently Nano DAP fertilizer launched by Indian Farmers Fertiliser
Cooperative (IFFCO) , It is recommended to be applied as:

1. Seed treatment

2. Through soil

3. Drip irrigation

4. Foliar spray

How many of the above statements is/are correct:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. All 4
55. Recently Nano DAP fertilizer launched by Indian Farmers Fertiliser
Cooperative (IFFCO) , It is recommended to be applied as:

1. Seed treatment

2. Through soil

3. Drip irrigation

4. Foliar spray

How many of the above statements is/are correct:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. All 4
Explanation:
Context-Finance Minister recently announced the expansion of the application of
Nano DAP on various crops in all agro climatic zones.

• After the successful adoption of Nano Urea, application of Nano DAP, on

various crops, will be expanded in all agro-climatic zones

DAP, or di-ammonium phosphate

• It is the second most commonly used fertiliser in India after urea.

• It is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root establishment and

development — without which plants cannot grow to their normal size, or will
take too long to mature.

• It is thus applied just before, or at the time of sowing.

Explanation:
Nano DAP (Liquid)

• Nano DAP (Liquid) is indigenous and non subsidised fertiliser

• It is an efficient source of available nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P205) for all
the crops. It corrects the Nitrogen & Phosphorus deficiencies in standing Crops

• If rains occur within 12 hours of foliar application it is recommended to repeat

the spray

Can we apply Nano DAP through soil or drip?

• No, Nano DAP (liquid) is recommended for application only as seed treatment
and foliar spray at critical growth stages of crops. Hence, option B is correct
56. Alpha and Beta cells often in news, are related to which organ in the human
body?

A. Liver

B. Pancreas

C. Kidney

D. Heart
56. Alpha and Beta cells often in news, are related to which organ in the human
body?

A. Liver

B. Pancreas

C. Kidney

D. Heart
Explanation:
The two most abundant and prominent endocrine cell types, the beta and
the alpha cells of Pancreas, are essential for the maintenance of blood glucose
homeostasis. While the beta cell produces insulin, the only blood glucose-
lowering hormone of the body, the alpha cell releases glucagon, which elevates
blood glucose.
57. Recently WHO declares that India has eliminated Trachoma as a public
health problem and India becomes the third country in the South-East Asia
Region to achieve this milestone. The disease is caused by:

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungi

D. Plasmodium
57. Recently WHO declares that India has eliminated Trachoma as a public
health problem and India becomes the third country in the South-East Asia
Region to achieve this milestone. The disease is caused by:

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungi

D. Plasmodium
Explanation:
• Context-WHO declares that India has eliminated Trachoma as a public health
problem in 2024 India becomes the third country in the South-East Asia
Region to achieve this milestone Trachoma

• Trachoma is a bacterial infection that affects the eyes. Hence option A is

correct.

• Cause-It is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia Trachomatis.

• Transmission-Trachoma is contagious, spreading through contact with the

eyes, eyelids, nose or throat secretions of infected people, if left untreated it
causes irreversible blindness..

• WHO has termed Trachoma as a neglected tropical disease. WHO estimates

suggest that 150 million people worldwide are affected by Trachoma and 6
million of them are blind or at risk of visually disabling complications.
Trachoma is found in underprivileged communities living in poor
environmental conditions
58. Consider the following statements about Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites
used in satellite internet services:

1. LEO satellites orbit at a much lower altitude than traditional geostationary

satellites.

2. They help reduce latency in internet communication.

3. LEO satellites require a less number of satellites in a constellation for global

coverage.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

58. Consider the following statements about Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites
used in satellite internet services:

1. LEO satellites orbit at a much lower altitude than traditional geostationary

satellites.

2. They help reduce latency in internet communication.

3. LEO satellites require a less number of satellites in a constellation for global

coverage.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
LEO satellites orbit at a much lower altitude than geostationary satellites

• Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites are positioned at ~35,786 km above

Earth.

• In contrast, LEO satellites orbit between 500 km and 2,000 km, making them
much closer to Earth.

• This lower altitude allows for faster data transmission with reduced signal
travel time. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

LEO satellites help reduce latency in internet communication

• Latency refers to the time delay in data transmission.

• GEO satellites have higher latency (~600 ms) because signals take longer to
travel the large distance.
Explanation:
• LEO satellites, being closer, have a much lower latency (~20-40 ms), making
them better for real-time applications like video calls, gaming, and stock
trading. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

LEO satellites require a larger number of satellites in a constellation for global

coverage

• Since LEO satellites orbit closer to Earth, their coverage area is much smaller
compared to GEO satellites.

• To provide seamless, global coverage, LEO systems require thousands of

satellites working together in a network (constellation). Hence, statement 3
is incorrect.
59. Consider the following statements regarding non-browning bananas:

1. The browning of bananas is caused by the enzyme polyphenol oxidase (PPO).

2. The production of ethylene in bananas stops after they are harvested.

3. Non-browning bananas are developed by disabling the gene responsible for

PPO production.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

59. Consider the following statements regarding non-browning bananas:

1. The browning of bananas is caused by the enzyme polyphenol oxidase (PPO).

2. The production of ethylene in bananas stops after they are harvested.

3. Non-browning bananas are developed by disabling the gene responsible for

PPO production.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• Recently scientists developing a new genetically-engineered banana which
has a longer shelf-life, and does not brown as much.

• They made precise changes to existing banana genes such that the production of
PPO is disabled. This does not stop a banana from ripening, but helps keep up
appearances so that the fruit continues to look appetising for longer.

• The browning of bananas is caused by the enzyme polyphenol oxidase (PPO).

• The enzyme polyphenol oxidase (PPO) reacts with oxygen, breaking down the
yellow pigment in bananas and turning them brown.

• This enzymatic browning happens faster when the banana is bruised or

exposed to ethylene. Hence, statement 1 is correct
Explanation:
The production of ethylene in bananas stops after they are harvested.

• Bananas continue producing ethylene even after being harvested.

• Ethylene triggers various ripening-related genes, including those linked to

PPO production, which speeds up browning.

• Unlike some fruits (e.g., citrus), bananas do not stop ethylene production after
being picked. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation:
Non-browning bananas are developed by disabling the gene responsible for
PPO production.

• Scientists have genetically modified bananas by making precise changes to

their genes to disable PPO production.

• This does not stop ripening but prevents the fruit from turning brown quickly.

• A similar approach was used in Arctic apples, which were the first
commercially approved GM fruits in the US. Hence, statement 3 is correct
60. Consider the following statements:

1. Cloud computing is used to process time-sensitive data, while edge computing

is used to process data that is not time-driven.

2. Cloud computing is preferred over edge computing in remote locations.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

60. Consider the following statements:

1. Cloud computing is used to process time-sensitive data, while edge computing

is used to process data that is not time-driven.

2. Cloud computing is preferred over edge computing in remote locations.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
Edge Computing Vs. Cloud Computing -

• First, it’s important to understand that cloud and edge computing are
different, non interchangeable technologies that cannot replace one another.

• Edge computing is used to process time-sensitive data, while cloud

computing is used to process data that is not time driven. Hence, statement 1
is incorrect.

• Besides latency, edge computing is preferred over cloud computing in remote

locations, where there is limited or no connectivity to a centralized location.
These locations require local storage, similar to a mini data center, with edge
computing providing the perfect solution for it. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
Explanation:
• Edge computing is also beneficial to specialize and intelligent devices. While
these devices are akin to PCs, they are not regular computing devices
designed to perform multiple functions. These specialized computing devices
are intelligent and respond to particular machines in a specific way. However,
this specialization becomes a drawback for edge computing in certain
industries that require immediate responses
61. Consider the following matches:

1. Project 15B : A Shiwalik class

2. Project 17 : Delhi Class

3. Project 17 Nilgiri Class

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

61. Consider the following matches:

1. Project 15B : A Shiwalik class

2. Project 17 : Delhi Class

3. Project 17 Nilgiri Class

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• Project 15B: This corresponds to the Visakhapatnam-class destroyers.

• Project 17: This corresponds to the Shivalik-class frigates.

• Project 17A: This corresponds to the Nilgiri-class frigates.

62. Consider the following statements

1. Solid fuel motor when ignited it burns until it runs out of propellant

2. Liquid fuel engine can be stopped or restarted

3. Hypergolic propellants represent an intermediate group between solid and

liquid propellant engines.

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

62. Consider the following statements

1. Solid fuel motor when ignited it burns until it runs out of propellant

2. Liquid fuel engine can be stopped or restarted

3. Hypergolic propellants represent an intermediate group between solid and

liquid propellant engines.

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Solid fuel motor when ignited burns until it runs out of propellant.

• Solid rocket motors are designed to burn continuously once ignited until all
the propellant is consumed. They cannot be throttled or shut down mid-
burn. Hence, statement 1 is correct

Liquid fuel engine can be stopped or restarted.

• Liquid rocket engines can be designed to allow for shutdown and restart
capabilities, providing greater control over the propulsion system. Hence,
statement 2 is correct
Explanation:
Hypergolic propellants represent an intermediate group between solid and
liquid propellant engines.

• Hypergolic propellants are a type of liquid propellant that ignite

spontaneously upon contact with each other. The intermediate group between
solid and liquid propellant engines is known as hybrid propellant engines,
where typically one component is solid and the other is liquid. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect
63. Consider the following statements

1. Ballistic Missile are similar to rocket engine whereas Cruise missiles similar to
jet engine

2. Generally accuracy of cruise missile is low as compare to Ballistic missile

3. Generally Ballistic missiles are long range whereas Cruise missiles are short
range missiles

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

63. Consider the following statements

1. Ballistic Missile are similar to rocket engine whereas Cruise missiles similar to
jet engine

2. Generally accuracy of cruise missile is low as compare to Ballistic missile

3. Generally Ballistic missiles are long range whereas Cruise missiles are short
range missiles

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• Ballistic missiles are powered initially by rockets during their launch phase
and then follow an unpowered trajectory to their target. In contrast, cruise
missiles are continuously powered by jet engines, allowing sustained flight
within the atmosphere.Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Cruise missiles are generally more accurate than ballistic missiles due to their
advanced guidance systems and ability to fly at lower altitudes, continuously
powered by jet engines which allows for precise targeting. Hence, statement 2
is incorrect.

• Ballistic missiles are often designed for long-range targets, including

intercontinental distances, while cruise missiles typically have shorter ranges,
although some can be designed for longer distances. Hence, statement 3 is
correct
64 With reference to the significance of Einstein rings, consider the following
statements:

1. Einstein rings enable scientists to learn about distant galaxies, which otherwise
might not be visible.

2. It provide information about the expansion of the universe.

3. It allows scientists to detect dark matter directly.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
64 With reference to the significance of Einstein rings, consider the following
statements:

1. Einstein rings enable scientists to learn about distant galaxies, which otherwise
might not be visible.

2. It provide information about the expansion of the universe.

3. It allows scientists to detect dark matter directly.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
Context-The European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has
discovered a rare ring of light, known as an Einstein ring, around a galaxy nearly
590 million light-years away from Earth.

What is an Einstein ring?

• An Einstein ring is a ring of light around a form of dark matter, galaxy or

cluster of galaxies.

• It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing.

• Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon which occurs when a massive celestial

body — such as a galaxy or cluster of galaxies — creates a gravitational field
which distorts and amplifies the light from distant galaxies that are behind it
but in the same line of sight
Explanation:
• Einstein rings are named after mathematician and physicist Albert Einstein,
whose general theory of relativity predicted that light could bend and
brighten around objects across the cosmos.

Significance of einstein ring

• These rings help scientists investigate dark matter.

• This dark matter does not interact with light, but it does have a gravitational
effect

• Gravitational lensing therefore is sensitive to the presence of this dark matter,

allowing us to indirectly detect it. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• Moreover, Einstein rings enable scientists to learn about distant galaxies,
which otherwise might not be visible. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• They can also provide information about the expansion of the universe as the
space between the Earth and other galaxies — both in the foreground and the
background — is stretching. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
65. The Torino Scale is used for:

A. Measuring the intensity of earthquakes.

B. Assessing the potential impact hazard of near-Earth objects (NEOs).

C. Estimating the severity of solar storms.

D. Calculating the gravitational influence of black holes on nearby stars.

65. The Torino Scale is used for:

A. Measuring the intensity of earthquakes.

B. Assessing the potential impact hazard of near-Earth objects (NEOs).

C. Estimating the severity of solar storms.

D. Calculating the gravitational influence of black holes on nearby stars.

Explanation:
The Torino Scale is a method for categorizing the impact hazard associated with
near-Earth objects (NEOs), such as asteroids and comets. It assesses the potential
risk these objects pose by considering both the probability of collision and the
possible consequences of an impact. The scale ranges from 0 (no hazard) to 10
(certain collision with global catastrophic effects)
66. NISAR satellite seen in news recently, jointly developed by

A. India and Japan

B. Russia and China

C. India and Russia

D. India and USA

66. NISAR satellite seen in news recently, jointly developed by

A. India and Japan

B. Russia and China

C. India and Russia

D. India and USA

Explanation:
About NISAR

• An earth-observation satellite jointly developed by NASA and ISRO that

will help study Earth’s land and ice surfaces in greater detail . Hence,
statement 1 and 2 are correct

• This mission will be a powerful demonstration of the capability of radar as a

science tool and help us study Earth’s dynamic land and ice surfaces in
greater detail than ever before. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• ISRO and NASA joined hands in 2014 to build the 2,800 kg satellite. In
March 2021, ISRO sent its S-Band SAR payload developed in India to NASA
for integration with the L-Band payload built by JPL (NASA’s Jet Propulsion
Laboratory)

• This marks an important milestone in our shared journey to better understand

planet Earth and our changing climate. NISAR will provide critical
information on Earth’s crust, ice sheets, and ecosystems
67. Which of the following diseases is/are transmitted by Aedes species of
mosquitoes?

1. Dengue fever

2. Chikungunya

3. Zika fever

4. Yellow Fever

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1,2 and 3 only

B. 2,3 and 4 only

C. 1,3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

67. Which of the following diseases is/are transmitted by Aedes species of
mosquitoes?

1. Dengue fever

2. Chikungunya

3. Zika fever

4. Yellow Fever

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1,2 and 3 only

B. 2,3 and 4 only

C. 1,3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
All four diseases—Dengue fever, Chikungunya, Zika fever, and Yellow fever—
are transmitted by the Aedes species of mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti
and Aedes albopictus.
68. Which of the following is a key advantage of gravity batteries?

A. They have a high energy density like lithium-ion batteries

B. They provide instant power output with no energy loss

C. They offer long-term energy storage with minimal degradation over time

D. They generate electricity without requiring an external power source

68. Which of the following is a key advantage of gravity batteries?

A. They have a high energy density like lithium-ion batteries

B. They provide instant power output with no energy loss

C. They offer long-term energy storage with minimal degradation over time

D. They generate electricity without requiring an external power source

Explanation:
Gravity Batteries?

• Gravity batteries, also known as gravitational energy storage systems, are a

type of energy storage technology that uses the force of gravity to store and
release energy. .

• These systems typically consist of a large mass, such as a heavy block or a

column of water, that is raised to a certain height using excess energy
generated from renewable sources such as solar or wind power.

• When energy is needed, the mass is allowed to fall, converting potential

energy into kinetic energy that can be used to generate electricity.

• Gravity batteries rely on mechanical energy, not chemical reactions..

• The key advantage is that they provide long-term energy storage with
minimal degradation over time. Hence, statement C is correct.
69. Consider the following statements regarding Trans Fat:

1. Trans fats are a type of saturated fat that can be naturally found in some
animal products.

2. Artificial trans fats are produced through a process called hydrogenation.

3. Consumption of trans fats is linked to an increased risk of heart disease.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

69. Consider the following statements regarding Trans Fat:

1. Trans fats are a type of saturated fat that can be naturally found in some
animal products.

2. Artificial trans fats are produced through a process called hydrogenation.

3. Consumption of trans fats is linked to an increased risk of heart disease.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Trans fats are a type of unsaturated fat that can be naturally found in some animal
products.Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

Trans fats are of two types:

• Naturally occurring trans fats – Found in small amounts in dairy products and
meat (like beef and lamb).

• Artificial trans fats – Created through industrial processes.

Artificial trans fats are produced through a process called hydrogenation.

• Hydrogenation is the process where hydrogen is added to liquid vegetable oils

to make them solid at room temperature. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• This improves the shelf life and texture of processed foods but creates harmful
trans fats.

• Trans fats increase bad cholesterol (LDL) and decrease good cholesterol
(HDL), leading to heart disease.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
70. Consider the following statement regarding mitochondrial DNA (mt DNA)

1. Nuclear DNA is inherited from both parents, while mtDNA is inherited only
from the mother.

2. mtDNA has more genes than nuclear DNA.

3. Mutations in mtDNA can lead to genetic disorders.

How many of the above statements is/are correct:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. None
70. Consider the following statement regarding mitochondrial DNA (mt DNA)

1. Nuclear DNA is inherited from both parents, while mtDNA is inherited only
from the mother.

2. mtDNA has more genes than nuclear DNA.

3. Mutations in mtDNA can lead to genetic disorders.

How many of the above statements is/are correct:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. None
Explanation:
• Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is inherited exclusively from the mother, not
from both parents.

• Nuclear DNA, on the other hand, is inherited from both parents (half from
the mother and half from the father). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Nuclear DNA contains thousands of genes, whereas mtDNA has only 37

genes.

• Therefore, nuclear DNA has far more genetic material than mtDNA. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.

• Mutations in mtDNA can cause genetic disorders, such as:

o Leigh Syndrome (a severe neurological disorder)

o MELAS (Mitochondrial Encephalopathy, Lactic Acidosis, and Stroke-

like episodes)

• Leber’s Hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON) (causing vision loss) Hence,

statement 3 is correct.
71. Consider the following statements:

1. Radar is short for ‘radio direction and radiating’

2. Doppler effect is the change in frequency of sound waves as their source

moves towards and away from a listener.

3. A Doppler radars can reveal how fast a cloud is moving but not in which
direction it is moving.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

A. 1 and 2 Only

B. 2 and 3 Only

C. 2 Only

D. All of the above

71. Consider the following statements:

1. Radar is short for ‘radio direction and radiating’

2. Doppler effect is the change in frequency of sound waves as their source

moves towards and away from a listener.

3. A Doppler radars can reveal how fast a cloud is moving but not in which
direction it is moving.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

A. 1 and 2 Only

B. 2 and 3 Only

C. 2 Only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Context- After devastating floods and landslides killed more than 200 people in
Kerala’s Wayanad district in July 2024, the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences
approved an X-band radar to be installed in the district

Radar

• Radar is short for ‘radio detection and ranging’. The device uses radio waves
to determine the distance, velocity, and physical characteristics of objects
around the device. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Working

• A transmitter emits a signal aimed at an object whose characteristics are to be

ascertained (in meteorology, this could be a cloud). A part of the emitted signal
is echoed by the object back to the device, where a receiver tracks and analyses
it.
Explanation:
Application

• Doppler radar-Weather radar, also known as a Doppler radar, is a common

application of this device. The Doppler effect is the change in frequency of
sound waves as their source moves towards and away from a listener. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.

• In meteorology, Doppler radars can reveal how fast a cloud is moving and in
which direction based on how the cloud’s relative motion changes the
frequency of the radiation striking it. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• A pulse-Doppler radar- It can measure the intensity of, say, rainfall by

emitting radiation in pulses and tracking how often they’re reflected to the
receiver.This way, modern Doppler radars can monitor weather conditions
and anticipate new wind patterns, the formation of storms, etc.
Explanation:
X-band radar

• Doppler radar relies on Rayleigh scattering, when the scatterer is much smaller
than the wavelength of the radiation. A radar trying to ‘see’ smaller particles
like rain droplets or fog will need to use radiation of lower wavelengths, like
in the X-band.

• An X-band radar is radar that emits radiation in the X-band of the

electromagnetic spectrum: 8-12 GHz, corresponding to wavelengths of around
2-4 cm (this is in the microwave part of the spectrum.)

• The smaller wavelengths allow the radar to produce images of higher

resolution. However, the greater the frequency of some radiation, the faster it
will be attenuated. So X-band radars have a relatively shorter range.
Explanation:
• In Wayanad, the new radar is expected to be able to monitor the movements of
particles, such as soil, to inform landslide warnings. The device will also
perform high temporal sampling, that is, rapidly sample its environs, allowing
it to spot particle movements happening in shorter spans of time.
72 Consider the following statements regarding Xenotransplantation:

1. Xenotransplantation refers to the transplantation of living cells, tissues, or

organs between different species.

2. Pigs are commonly used as donor animals in xenotransplantation due to their

physiological similarities to humans.

3. Risk of organ rejection and transmission of animal viruses can occur in

Xenotransplanation

How many of the above statements is/are correct

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
72 Consider the following statements regarding Xenotransplantation:

1. Xenotransplantation refers to the transplantation of living cells, tissues, or

organs between different species.

2. Pigs are commonly used as donor animals in xenotransplantation due to their

physiological similarities to humans.

3. Risk of organ rejection and transmission of animal viruses can occur in

Xenotransplanation

How many of the above statements is/are correct

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
Explanation:
• Xenotransplantation is the process of transplanting living tissues or organs
from one species to another (e.g., pig organs into humans). Hence, statement
1 is correct

• Pigs are commonly used because their organs are similar in size and function
to human organs. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• The human immune system may reject xenotransplanted organs, leading to

failure.

• There is also concern about zoonotic diseases, where viruses from animals
could infect humans.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
73. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Lagrange Points?

A. Some are stable, and some are unstable

B. They are useful for stationing satellites

C. They exist only between Earth and the Moon

D. They result from a balance of gravitational and centripetal forces

73. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Lagrange Points?

A. Some are stable, and some are unstable

B. They are useful for stationing satellites

C. They exist only between Earth and the Moon

D. They result from a balance of gravitational and centripetal forces

Explanation:
Lagrange Points

• are positions in space where objects sent there tend to stay put. At Lagrange
points, the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the
centripetal force required for a small object to move with them.

• This mathematical problem, known as the General Three-Body Problem

Lagrange points are not limited to the Earth-Moon system. They exist in any two-
body system (e.g., Sun-Earth, Jupiter-Sun, etc.).Hence, option C is correct.
74. Recently ‘Synthetic Aperture Radar’ seen in news, What does "Synthetic"
mean in Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)?

A. Use of artificial intelligence in radar systems

B. Combining multiple radar signals to simulate a larger antenna

C. Using synthetic materials to build radar antennas

D. Radar signals generated by computer simulations

74. Recently ‘Synthetic Aperture Radar’ seen in news, What does "Synthetic"
mean in Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)?

A. Use of artificial intelligence in radar systems

B. Combining multiple radar signals to simulate a larger antenna

C. Using synthetic materials to build radar antennas

D. Radar signals generated by computer simulations

Explanation:
What's Synthetic about SAR?

• The spatial resolution of radar data is directly related to the ratio of the
sensor wavelength to the length of the sensor's antenna.

• For a given wavelength, the longer the antenna, the higher the spatial
resolution.

• From a satellite in space operating at a wavelength of about 5 cm (C-band

radar), in order to get a spatial resolution of 10 m, you would need a radar
antenna about 4,250 m long.

• An antenna of that size is not practical for a satellite sensor in space. Hence,
scientists and engineers have come up with a clever workaround — the
synthetic aperture. In this concept, a sequence of acquisitions from a shorter
antenna are combined to simulate a much larger antenna, thus providing
higher resolution data Hence, option C is correct.
75. Consider the following statements regarding Gelbots, Seen in news recently:

1. They are soft robots made out of gelatin

2. They are capable of moving without requiring an extra power source

3. They can be used to deliver targeted medicines in human body

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

75. Consider the following statements regarding Gelbots, Seen in news recently:

1. They are soft robots made out of gelatin

2. They are capable of moving without requiring an extra power source

3. They can be used to deliver targeted medicines in human body

Select the correct answer code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Gelbots

Scientists have built a soft robot named Gelbots.

• They are created by 3D printing made out of gelatin and capable of moving
without requiring an extra power source because of the way their shape,
dimensions and patterning of gel are designed. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are
correct

Significance

• For moving on surfaces through the human body to deliver targeted

medicines, Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• To deploy as marine robots, patrolling and monitoring the ocean’s surface and

• Trained to crawl in response to variations in human biomarkers and

biochemical.
76. In the context of future space colonization efforts , growing plants is
considered crucial because:

A. It helps astronauts manufacture building materials.

B. It can ensure long-term sustainability without depending on Earth.

C. It boosts satellite communication.

D. It aids in creating a magnetic field around spacecraft.

76. In the context of future space colonization efforts , growing plants is
considered crucial because:

A. It helps astronauts manufacture building materials.

B. It can ensure long-term sustainability without depending on Earth.

C. It boosts satellite communication.

D. It aids in creating a magnetic field around spacecraft.

Explanation:
Why grow plants in space?

• As humans venture out on lengthy space missions to colonise celestial bodies

like Mars and the Moon, space-grown plants can provide a sustainable food
source.

• With minimal scope of restocking supplies, astronauts cannot simply rely on a

limited stock of multivitamins during missions that may go on for years.

• Pre-packaged vitamins break down and lose their nutritive value over long
periods of time.

• Since plants release oxygen during photosynthesis, growing them in space can
help keep the air aboard spacecraft breathable.
Explanation:
• Plants can recycle carbon dioxide and organic waste, creating a closed-loop life
support system. Tending to plants can also help reduce stress and improve
astronauts’ overall mental well-being,

• Plants do not create artificial gravity, but they contribute oxygen and serve as a
reliable food source in space. Hence, option B is correct.
77. Which part of the DNA is most commonly used for DNA fingerprinting?

A. Exons

B. Introns

C. Short Tandem Repeats (STRs)

D. Ribosomal RNA sequences

77. Which part of the DNA is most commonly used for DNA fingerprinting?

A. Exons

B. Introns

C. Short Tandem Repeats (STRs)

D. Ribosomal RNA sequences

Explanation:
DNA fingerprinting relies on parts of the genome that vary greatly among
individuals. That’s where Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) come in.

What are STRs?

• STRs are short sequences of DNA (usually 2–6 base pairs long) that are
repeated in a head-tail manner.

• For example, a sequence like AGATAGATAGATAGAT has four repeats of

"AGAT".

• These repeats are found in non-coding regions of DNA (i.e., they don't code
for proteins).
78. With reference to the Metaverse, consider the following statements:

1. The Metaverse aims to integrate physical and digital experiences through

immersive technologies.

2. Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR) are foundational

technologies that enable interaction within the Metaverse.

3. It ensures complete safety from cybercrime due to its decentralized nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

78. With reference to the Metaverse, consider the following statements:

1. The Metaverse aims to integrate physical and digital experiences through

immersive technologies.

2. Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR) are foundational

technologies that enable interaction within the Metaverse.

3. It ensures complete safety from cybercrime due to its decentralized nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• The Metaverse is a collective virtual space that blends digital and physical
realities, often accessed via immersive technologies like AR, VR, and MR
(Mixed Reality). It allows users to interact in real-time through avatars, digital
environments, and sensory feedback, simulating a “real-world” presence.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• AR and VR are the core technologies that allow users to experience and
navigate the Metaverse.

• AR enhances the real world with digital overlays (like filters or real-time data),

• VR immerses users in entirely digital environments.

Both are essential for interaction, simulation, and immersive communication
in the Metaverse. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
• Decentralization (like blockchain tech in Metaverse) does not guarantee
immunity from cybercrimes.

• Issues like data breaches, identity theft, financial fraud, harassment, and
phishing still exist.

• In fact, due to its nascent stage, the Metaverse may lack strong regulations,
making it vulnerable to new forms of cyber threats. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
79. With reference to Sunscreen, consider the following statements:

1. Sunscreens protect the skin by absorbing or reflecting ultraviolet (UV)

radiation.

2. The SPF rating of sunscreen indicates protection primarily against UVA

radiation.

3. Zinc oxide and titanium dioxide are commonly used as physical sunscreens.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
79. With reference to Sunscreen, consider the following statements:

1. Sunscreens protect the skin by absorbing or reflecting ultraviolet (UV)

radiation.

2. The SPF rating of sunscreen indicates protection primarily against UVA

radiation.

3. Zinc oxide and titanium dioxide are commonly used as physical sunscreens.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Sunscreens work by either absorbing or reflecting UV rays.

• Chemical sunscreens (e.g., oxybenzone, avobenzone) absorb UV rays and

convert them into heat.

• Physical/mineral sunscreens (e.g., zinc oxide, titanium dioxide) reflect/scatter

UV rays.

• The SPF (Sun Protection Factor) measures protection against UVB radiation,
which causes sunburn and DNA damage.Hence, statement 1 is correct, but
statement 2 is incorrect.

• It does not primarily reflect UVA protection, although broad-spectrum

sunscreens may protect against both.
Explanation:
• UVA contributes to aging and long-term skin damage, but is not well covered
by SPF alone.

• Zinc oxide and titanium dioxide are physical blockers or mineral

sunscreens. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• They sit on top of the skin and reflect both UVA and UVB rays, making them
broad-spectrum agents.
80. Which of the following terms refers to non-digestible food ingredients that
promote the growth of beneficial microorganisms in the intestines?

A. Probiotics

B. Antibiotics

C. Prebiotics

D. Synbiotics
80. Which of the following terms refers to non-digestible food ingredients that
promote the growth of beneficial microorganisms in the intestines?

A. Probiotics

B. Antibiotics

C. Prebiotics

D. Synbiotics
Explanation:
• These are live microorganisms (mostly bacteria or yeasts) that, when
consumed in adequate amounts, confer a health benefit to the host by
improving or restoring the gut flora.

Prebiotics

• These are non-digestible food ingredients, usually a type of fiber that feed
the beneficial bacteria already present in the gut.

• Prebiotics are in foods such as whole grains, bananas, greens, onions, garlic,
soybeans and artichokes. In addition, probiotics and prebiotics are added to
some foods and available as dietary supplements.

• They act like a fertilizer for your good gut microbes. Hence, option C is
correct.
Explanation:
• Common prebiotics include inulin, fructooligosaccharides (FOS), and
galactooligosaccharides (GOS).

• Found naturally in foods like garlic, onions, bananas, leeks, and asparagus.

Antibiotics

• These are substances that kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria — they are not
related to promoting beneficial bacteria; in fact, they can disrupt gut flora.

Synbiotics

• These are a combination of probiotics and prebiotics, designed to improve

the survival and activity of beneficial microbes in the gut.
81. Why is regenerative braking not as effective at low speeds or when the
vehicle is stationary?

A. At low speeds, the motor cannot reverse direction.

B. There is insufficient kinetic energy to convert into electricity.

C. The battery discharges at low speed.

D. The system prioritizes air conditioning at low speeds.

81. Why is regenerative braking not as effective at low speeds or when the
vehicle is stationary?

A. At low speeds, the motor cannot reverse direction.

B. There is insufficient kinetic energy to convert into electricity.

C. The battery discharges at low speed.

D. The system prioritizes air conditioning at low speeds.

Explanation:
Regenerative Braking

It is a braking system where the kinetic energy of a moving vehicle is not wasted
as heat (like in traditional brakes) but is converted into electrical energy and
stored back in the battery.

How it Works:

• When the driver applies brakes, the electric motor runs in reverse.

• Instead of consuming power, it now acts as a generator.

• It converts kinetic energy → electrical energy → charges the battery.

• At low speeds, there is very little kinetic energy available to convert into
electrical energy, making regenerative braking less effective. That's why
mechanical brakes are still essential.Hence, option B is correct.
82. Which of the following are valid applications of environmental DNA
(eDNA) technology?

1. Monitoring biodiversity in remote or inaccessible regions

2. Early detection of invasive species in aquatic systems

3. Tracing illegal wildlife trade through genetic material

Select the correct answer

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

82. Which of the following are valid applications of environmental DNA
(eDNA) technology?

1. Monitoring biodiversity in remote or inaccessible regions

2. Early detection of invasive species in aquatic systems

3. Tracing illegal wildlife trade through genetic material

Select the correct answer

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Environmental DNA (eDNA) refers to genetic material naturally shed by
organisms into their surroundings — such as water, soil, or air — through skin
cells, scales, feces, mucus, gametes, or decaying bodies.

This DNA can be collected and analyzed without capturing the organism, making
it a powerful non-invasive tool for monitoring biodiversity and environmental
changes.

Application

• eDNA allows scientists to detect species just from environmental samples

(like water, soil, or air) without physically spotting or capturing the organism.
Explanation:
• Especially useful in places that are dangerous, hard to reach, or where the
species is very rare or nocturnal.Hence, statement 1 is correct

• eDNA can detect even trace amounts of genetic material from such species
before they become widespread. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• eDNA or DNA barcoding can help identify the species from these parts and
trace their origin. Hence, statement 3 is correct
83. Recently term ‘Ergoshere’ seen in news, Which among the following best
describes the term?

A. The central singularity where gravity is infinite

B. The region from which nothing, not even light, can escape

C. The outer region around a rotating black hole where objects cannot remain
stationary

D. The surface where time completely stops for all observers

83. Recently term ‘Ergoshere’ seen in news, Which among the following best
describes the term?

A. The central singularity where gravity is infinite

B. The region from which nothing, not even light, can escape

C. The outer region around a rotating black hole where objects cannot remain
stationary

D. The surface where time completely stops for all observers

Explanation:
• The ergosphere lies outside the event horizon of a rotating black hole.

• Due to the black hole’s spin, spacetime itself is dragged, so objects are forced
to move in the direction of rotation.

• This region allows for energy extraction, unlike the event horizon. Hence,
statement c is correct.
84. With reference to gluten-free food products, consider the following
statements:

1. Gluten is a protein primarily found in wheat, barley and rye.

2. According to FSSAI regulations, a product labeled as "gluten-free" must not

exceed 2 mg/kg of gluten content.

3. All natural forms of rice, including white, brown, or wild, are gluten-free.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
84. With reference to gluten-free food products, consider the following
statements:

1. Gluten is a protein primarily found in wheat, barley and rye.

2. According to FSSAI regulations, a product labeled as "gluten-free" must not

exceed 2 mg/kg of gluten content.

3. All natural forms of rice, including white, brown, or wild, are gluten-free.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
Explanation:
• Gluten is a protein present in cereals such as wheat, barley and rye. In 100 g of
wheat, there is generally 8 g of gluten. Gluten provides special properties to
the wheat lour that it forms a good dough for making breads, chapattis, pasta
and other food items. Because of its unique property, gluten is used
extensively in the food industry. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Standards of ’Gluten Free Food’ is notiied in the Sub Regulation 2.14 of Food
Safety and Standards (Food Products Standards and Food Additives),
Regulations, 2011, wherein, it is mentioned that gluten levels shall be below 20
mg/kg and it shall bear the label declaration referred to in sub-regulation 2.4.5
(50) of Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011
i.e., the term “Gluten free” shall be printed in the immediate proximity of the
name of the product. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• All natural forms of rice, including white, brown, or wild, are gluten-free.
Natural rice is a great option for people who are sensitive to or allergic to
gluten, a protein usually found in wheat, barley, and rye, and for people who
have celiac disease, an autoimmune disease triggered by gluten. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.

• Sometimes, rice can be cross-contaminated with gluten, meaning that it’s been
grown, harvested, or processed near or in the same facilities as wheat, barley,
or rye. Rice sold in bulk bins, such as at a grocery store, may also be cross-
contaminated. This may happen when customers mix the scoops between
bins. For example, a shopper might use the flour scoop in the rice bin, which
could contaminate all the rice with gluten.
85. With reference to the advantages of eSIM (embedded SIM) technology,
consider the following statements:

1. eSIM enhances device water resistance and design flexibility by eliminating

the need for a SIM card tray.

2. eSIM restrict multiple mobile network profiles to be stored on a single device.

3. eSIM cannot be used in Internet of Things (IoT) devices due to its fixed nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

85. With reference to the advantages of eSIM (embedded SIM) technology,
consider the following statements:

1. eSIM enhances device water resistance and design flexibility by eliminating

the need for a SIM card tray.

2. eSIM restrict multiple mobile network profiles to be stored on a single device.

3. eSIM cannot be used in Internet of Things (IoT) devices due to its fixed nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• eSIM is embedded in the device’s motherboard, there’s no need for a SIM
tray, which allows better water/dust resistance and sleeker device
design.Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• eSIM supports multiple network profiles, enabling users to switch between

telecom providers or store work and personal numbers on the same device.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• eSIM is ideal for IoT devices (like smartwatches, drones, connected cars)
where space is limited and remote management is needed. Hence, statement
3 is incorrect.
86. In the context of Machine Learning, what does "Zero-Shot Learning" refer
to?

A. Learning without the need for any data or training

B. Training a model on zero errors

C. Predicting outputs for tasks or classes the model has never seen during
training

D. Learning only from reinforcement signals

86. In the context of Machine Learning, what does "Zero-Shot Learning" refer
to?

A. Learning without the need for any data or training

B. Training a model on zero errors

C. Predicting outputs for tasks or classes the model has never seen during
training

D. Learning only from reinforcement signals

Explanation:
Zero-Shot Learning is a technique in Machine Learning where a model can
correctly make predictions about classes it has never seen before during training.

Examples

• Language models (like ChatGPT) answering questions on topics not explicitly

present in the training data

• Image classifiers identifying unseen objects using labels like “a vehicle with
wings” → inferring it’s a “plane”
87. With reference to the applications of blockchain technology, consider the
following statements:

1. Blockchain can be used to improve transparency and security in land record

management.

2. Blockchain-based smart contracts require third-party intervention to be

executed.

3. Blockchain can facilitate secure and transparent supply chain tracking.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
87. With reference to the applications of blockchain technology, consider the
following statements:

1. Blockchain can be used to improve transparency and security in land record

management.

2. Blockchain-based smart contracts require third-party intervention to be

executed.

3. Blockchain can facilitate secure and transparent supply chain tracking.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
Explanation:
• Blockchain is a decentralized, distributed digital ledger that records
transactions across multiple computers in such a way that the registered
transactions cannot be altered retroactively.

• Several governments (including Indian states like Telangana and Andhra

Pradesh) have experimented with blockchain for land record management to
ensure tamper-proof, transparent, and decentralized records. Hence,
statement 1 is correct

• Smart contracts are self-executing agreements with conditions written in

code. They do not require third-party intervention once deployed. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect

• Blockchain is used in supply chains (e.g., for food, pharmaceuticals,

diamonds) to ensure end-to-end transparency, reduce fraud, and enable
real-time tracking. Hence, statement 3 is correct
88. Consider the following statements regarding nuclear techniques in food and
agriculture:

1. Nuclear techniques can be used to develop high-yield and pest-resistant crop

varieties through mutation breeding.

2. Food irradiation using nuclear technology helps in extending shelf life and
eliminating pathogens.

3. Nuclear methods can be used in detecting soil and water deficiencies in

agriculture.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
88. Consider the following statements regarding nuclear techniques in food and
agriculture:

1. Nuclear techniques can be used to develop high-yield and pest-resistant crop

varieties through mutation breeding.

2. Food irradiation using nuclear technology helps in extending shelf life and
eliminating pathogens.

3. Nuclear methods can be used in detecting soil and water deficiencies in

agriculture.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
Explanation:
• Nuclear techniques use radiation and isotopes to improve food security,
agricultural productivity, and sustainability. These techniques are safe,
scientific, and non-GMO and are promoted by the International Atomic
Energy Agency (IAEA) and FAO.

• Nuclear techniques like induced mutation using gamma rays or other

radiation have been widely used in crop improvement programs to develop
high-yield, disease-resistant, and drought-tolerant varieties.Hence,
statement 1 is correct

• Food irradiation is a nuclear technique used to preserve food, eliminate

bacteria/insects, and extend shelf life. It's approved by FAO, WHO, and
IAEA. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• Nuclear techniques such as stable isotope tracing and neutron moisture

meters are effectively used to detect nutrient and moisture deficiencies in
soil and water. Hence, nuclear methods are effective in diagnosing such
problems. Hence, statement 3 is correct
89. consider the following statements:

1. Sterilization refers to the complete elimination of all forms of microbial life,

including spores.

2. Disinfection only reduces or eliminates pathogenic microorganisms, but not

necessarily spores.

3. Autoclaving is a method of sterlization commonly used for surgical

instruments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

89. consider the following statements:

1. Sterilization refers to the complete elimination of all forms of microbial life,

including spores.

2. Disinfection only reduces or eliminates pathogenic microorganisms, but not

necessarily spores.

3. Autoclaving is a method of sterlization commonly used for surgical

instruments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• Sterilization is the process of completely destroying or removing all forms of
microbial life, including bacterial spores (the most resistant form). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.

• Disinfection is the process of eliminating or reducing harmful

microorganisms, especially pathogens, from surfaces, objects, or liquids —
but not necessarily bacterial spores.Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Autoclaving is a sterilization method, not just disinfection. It uses steam

under pressure (121°C, 15 psi for ~15–20 mins) and is widely used in
hospitals and labs to sterilize surgical instruments and glassware. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
90. With reference to the phenomenon of auroras, consider the following
statements:

1. Auroras are caused by the interaction between solar wind and the Earth's
magnetic field and atmosphere.

2. They occur only near the magnetic equator, where the Earth's magnetic field is
strongest.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

90. With reference to the phenomenon of auroras, consider the following
statements:

1. Auroras are caused by the interaction between solar wind and the Earth's
magnetic field and atmosphere.

2. They occur only near the magnetic equator, where the Earth's magnetic field is
strongest.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
• Auroras occur when charged particles from the solar wind are funneled by
Earth's magnetic field toward the polar regions, where they interact with gases
in the upper atmosphere, emitting light. Hence, statement 1 is correct

• Auroras occur near the magnetic poles, not the equator. The magnetic field is
strongest near the poles in terms of directing particles downward into the
atmosphere. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect

• Aurora Borealis: Seen in the Northern Hemisphere

• Aurora Australis: Seen in the Southern Hemisphere

91. Which of the following sensors commonly found in smartphones can help in
detecting orientation and movement?

A. Accelerometer and Gyroscope

B. Barometer and Proximity Sensor

C. Ambient Light Sensor and Magnetometer

D. GPS and Fingerprint Sensor

91. Which of the following sensors commonly found in smartphones can help in
detecting orientation and movement?

A. Accelerometer and Gyroscope

B. Barometer and Proximity Sensor

C. Ambient Light Sensor and Magnetometer

D. GPS and Fingerprint Sensor

Explanation:
• Accelerometer detects the phone’s movement and tilt.

• Gyroscope measures the device’s rotation and orientation more precisely.

• Barometer measures air pressure (used in altitude detection).

• Proximity Sensor detects how close the phone is to a user (e.g., during calls).

• Ambient Light Sensor adjusts screen brightness.

• Magnetometer helps in compass direction.

• GPS provides location.

• Fingerprint Sensor is used for biometric authentication.

92. Which among the following is correct in context to Radiation technology for
processing food:

1. It is a physical, non-additive process, causes minimal change in food

2. It is highly effective compared to chemicals and fumigants

3. It does not leave harmful residue in food

4. It destroys heat-labile aroma constituents of food

5. The process is safe to workers and friendly to environment.

How many of the above is/are correct?

A. Only 2

B. Only 3

C. Only 4

D. All
92. Which among the following is correct in context to Radiation technology for
processing food:

1. It is a physical, non-additive process, causes minimal change in food

2. It is highly effective compared to chemicals and fumigants

3. It does not leave harmful residue in food

4. It destroys heat-labile aroma constituents of food

5. The process is safe to workers and friendly to environment.

How many of the above is/are correct?

A. Only 2

B. Only 3

C. Only 4

D. All
Explanation:
• For commercial application of the technology in India, Atomic Energy (Control
of Irradiation of Food) Rules were notified in 1991, and later amended in 1996.
In 2012, a new amendment resulted in the notification of the current Atomic
Energy (Radiation Processing of Food and Allied Products) Rules, 2012. Atomic
Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) is the regulatory authority in India for
enforcing these rules.

• In 1994, Government of India amended Prevention of Food Adulteration Act

(1954) Rules and approved irradiation of onions, potatoes and spices for
domestic market. Additional items were approved in April 1998 and in May
2001. After establishment of the Food Safety & Standards Authority of India
(FSSAI) under the Food Safety & Standards Act, 2006, the new regulations on
radiation processing have been notified under Food Safety and Standards (Food
Products Standards and Food Additives) Amendment Regulations, 2016.
Explanation:
Radiation technology offers several advantages for processing food which are
listed below:

• Itis a physical, non-additive process, causes minimal change in food. Hence,

statement 1 is correct

• Itis highly effective compared to chemicals and fumigants. Hence, statement 2

is correct

• lt does not leave harmful residue in food. Hence, statement 3 is correct

• It can be applied to bulk as well as pre-packaged food

• It is a cold process and preserves food in natural form

• It does not destroy heat-labile aroma constituents of food. Hence, statement 4

is incorrect

• The process is safe to workers and friendly to environment. Hence, statement

5 is correct
93. Geotagging is primarily used to:

A. Encrypt communication between digital devices

B. Track financial transactions for taxation purposes

C. Embed location information into digital content

D. Enhance the visual quality of images using AI

93. Geotagging is primarily used to:

A. Encrypt communication between digital devices

B. Track financial transactions for taxation purposes

C. Embed location information into digital content

D. Enhance the visual quality of images using AI

Explanation:
Geotagging is the process of adding geographical identification metadata to
various media—such as photos, videos, websites, or social media posts. This
metadata typically includes latitude, longitude, altitude, and sometimes the name
of the place.
94. Consider the following statements about Quasars:

1. Quasars are extremely luminous and distant objects powered by black holes at
the center of galaxies.

2. They emit energy across the electromagnetic spectrum, including radio waves,
X-rays, and visible light.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None
94. Consider the following statements about Quasars:

1. Quasars are extremely luminous and distant objects powered by black holes at
the center of galaxies.

2. They emit energy across the electromagnetic spectrum, including radio waves,
X-rays, and visible light.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None
Explanation:
• A quasar (short for quasi-stellar radio source) is an extremely bright and distant
celestial object powered by a supermassive black hole at the center of a young
galaxy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• As matter spirals into the black hole through an accretion disk, it heats up due
to immense gravitational forces and releases tremendous amounts of energy
across the electromagnetic spectrum—ranging from radio waves to X-rays.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Quasars are some of the most luminous objects in the universe, often
outshining their host galaxies.
95. Regarding Blockchain Technology, consider the following statements:

1. It allows for transparent and tamper-proof record-keeping.

2. It can only be used for cryptocurrency transactions.

3. Smart contracts can be executed using blockchain.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. All of the above

95. Regarding Blockchain Technology, consider the following statements:

1. It allows for transparent and tamper-proof record-keeping.

2. It can only be used for cryptocurrency transactions.

3. Smart contracts can be executed using blockchain.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• Blockchain is designed as a decentralized ledger that records transactions in a
transparent and tamper-resistant manner. Once data is added to the
blockchain, it cannot be easily altered without consensus from the network.
Hence, statement 1 is correct

• While blockchain is widely known for enabling cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin

and Ethereum, its applications go far beyond that. It’s used in supply chain
management, healthcare, voting systems, digital identity, and more. So it's
not limited to cryptocurrency. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect

• Smart contracts are self-executing agreements with terms directly written into
code. They automatically execute actions when predefined conditions are met,
and they run on blockchain platforms like Ethereum. Hence, statement 3 is
correct
96. With reference to Thermite, consider the following statements:

1. Thermite is a mixture of aluminum powder and iron oxide that produces an

intense exothermic reaction when ignited.

2. The use of thermite is completely banned under international humanitarian

law.

3. The thermite reaction can be easily extinguished using fire retardants.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
96. With reference to Thermite, consider the following statements:

1. Thermite is a mixture of aluminum powder and iron oxide that produces an

intense exothermic reaction when ignited.

2. The use of thermite is completely banned under international humanitarian

law.

3. The thermite reaction can be easily extinguished using fire retardants.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. All 3

D. None
Explanation:
What are ‘dragon drones’?

• Dragon drones essentially release a substance called thermite — a mixture of

aluminium and iron oxide — developed a century ago to weld railroad tracks.
Hence, statement 1 is correct

• When ignited (usually with the help of an electrical fuse), thermite triggers a
self-sustaining reaction that is quite difficult to extinguish. It can burn through
almost anything, from clothes to trees to military-grade vehicles, and can even
burn underwater. On humans, it causes severe, possibly fatal, burns and bone
damage. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect
• Thermite was used in both world wars. During World War I, German
zeppelins dropped thermite-laden bombs which were considered an
innovation at the time.

• The use of thermite in war is not prohibited under international law. However,
the use of such incendiary weapons against civilian targets is barred under the
Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons — Cold War-era guidance
issued under the auspices of the United Nations. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect

• The problem with thermite is that it is rather indiscriminate.

• Therefore, while it is not banned per se, Protocol III of the Convention on
Certain Conventional Weapons actually limits its use to strictly military
targets, given the fact that this munition can produce severe burns and
respiratory injuries
97. Arrange the following types of dietary fats in order of their impact on
human health, from most harmful to most beneficial:

1. Unsaturated Fats

2. Trans Fats

3. Saturated Fats

Select the correct order:

A. 1 - 2 – 3

B. 2 - 3 – 1

C. 3 - 2 – 1

D. 2 - 1 – 3
97. Arrange the following types of dietary fats in order of their impact on
human health, from most harmful to most beneficial:

1. Unsaturated Fats

2. Trans Fats

3. Saturated Fats

Select the correct order:

A. 1 - 2 – 3

B. 2 - 3 – 1

C. 3 - 2 – 1

D. 2 - 1 – 3
Explanation:
Trans Fats (Worst)

• Source: Artificial (partially hydrogenated oils), some natural in meat/dairy

• Effect: Raises LDL (bad) cholesterol, lowers HDL (good) cholesterol, increases
risk of heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes

Saturated Fats (Moderate concern)

• Source: Animal fats (butter, ghee, red meat), coconut oil, palm oil

• Effect: Raises LDL cholesterol; associated with heart disease if consumed in

excess

Unsaturated Fats (Best choice)

• Source: Vegetable oils (olive, sunflower, canola), nuts, seeds, fish

• Effect: Lowers LDL cholesterol, raises HDL, reduces inflammation

Hence, option B is correct.

98. Which of the following missiles were developed under India’s Integrated
Guided Missile Development Programme (IGDMP)?

1. Agni

2. Prithvi

3. Akash

4. BrahMos

5. Nag

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

D. All five
98. Which of the following missiles were developed under India’s Integrated
Guided Missile Development Programme (IGDMP)?

1. Agni

2. Prithvi

3. Akash

4. BrahMos

5. Nag

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

D. All five
Explanation:
• Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGDMP)

• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in 1983 under the

leadership of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

• Aims to make India self-reliant in missile technology by developing a full

range of strategic and tactical missiles.

• It includes: Agni, Prithvi, Akash, Nag, Trishul

99. With reference to the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor
(ITER) project, consider the following statements: (Nuclear tech, medium)

1. ITER aims to demonstrate the feasibility of nuclear fission as a large-scale and

carbon-free source of energy.

2. India is one of the member countries participating in the ITER project.

3. ITER is being constructed in USA.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
99. With reference to the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor
(ITER) project, consider the following statements: (Nuclear tech, medium)

1. ITER aims to demonstrate the feasibility of nuclear fission as a large-scale and

carbon-free source of energy.

2. India is one of the member countries participating in the ITER project.

3. ITER is being constructed in USA.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• ITER is a global scientific megaproject aimed at demonstrating the feasibility of
nuclear fusion as a safe, clean, and virtually limitless source of energy. It is not
based on nuclear fission (used in current nuclear power plants), but on the
process that powers the Sun and stars.Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

• The project is being constructed in Cadarache, France, and is based on the

Tokamak design, which uses powerful magnetic fields to confine hot plasma
within a toroidal (doughnut-shaped) chamber to sustain the fusion reaction.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

• India is one of the seven official members of ITER, alongside the European
Union, the United States, Russia, China, Japan, and South Korea. India
contributes components such as the cryostat, diagnostics, and other vital
subsystems. ITER is expected to achieve first plasma by 2035. If successful,
ITER could pave the way for fusion power plants, providing energy that is
safer, cleaner, and virtually unlimited, with minimal radioactive waste and no
greenhouse gas emissions. Hence, statement 2 is correct
100. With reference to smartphones, consider the following statements:

1. Smartphones use System on a Chip (SoC) architecture, which integrates

processor, GPU, and modem into a single unit.

2. eSIM technology in smartphones allows switching between telecom operators

without physically changing the SIM card.

3. NFC (Near Field Communication) in smartphones is used only for internet

connectivity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All three
100. With reference to smartphones, consider the following statements:

1. Smartphones use System on a Chip (SoC) architecture, which integrates

processor, GPU, and modem into a single unit.

2. eSIM technology in smartphones allows switching between telecom operators

without physically changing the SIM card.

3. NFC (Near Field Communication) in smartphones is used only for internet

connectivity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All three
Explanation:
• SoC (System on a Chip) is a compact, integrated circuit that houses multiple
components of a computer or smartphone on a single chip. Hence, statement 1
is correct

• eSIM (Embedded SIM) is a digital version of a physical SIM card that is

embedded directly into the phone’s motherboard.

• Users can switch networks or plans through software (like scanning a QR

code), without swapping SIM cards. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• NFC (Near Field Communication) is a short-range wireless technology

(typically within 4 cm).

• It is not used for internet connectivity.

• It is mainly used for:

o Contactless payments (e.g., Google Pay, Apple Pay)

o File sharing (via Android Beam, though now deprecated)

o Access control systems (e.g., hotel room doors)

o Digital ID and ticketing. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

International Relations

100 MCQs
Operation SAAL
1. With Reference to Amnesty International Consider the Following Statements

1. Amnesty International has been granted consultative status by the United

Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
2. If you live in a country that does not have an Amnesty office, then there is no
provision of joining the organisation.

Which of the above-mentioned statements is/are Incorrect?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both are Incorrect

D. Both are Correct

1. With Reference to Amnesty International Consider the Following Statements

1. Amnesty International has been granted consultative status by the United

Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
2. If you live in a country that does not have an Amnesty office, then there is no
provision of joining the organisation.

Which of the above-mentioned statements is/are Incorrect?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both are Incorrect

D. Both are Correct

Explanation:
• Amnesty International is indeed an NGO headquartered in London,
established in 1961, focusing on exposing human rights violations worldwide.

• Amnesty International has consultative status with the United Nations

Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), which allows it to participate in
certain UN deliberations. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• If you live in a country that does not have an Amnesty office, you can become
an international member. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• An example of a country without an Amnesty International office,
where joining the organization directly through a national section may
not be possible, is North Korea.
• Due to severe restrictions on civil society and foreign NGOs, Amnesty
International does not operate an office there. Citizens of such
countries cannot officially join Amnesty as members or volunteers in
the conventional way.
2. Match the following places with their significance as highlighted in the news

A. Derna 1. Location of a deadly cyclone-induced flood

disaster
B. Lampedusa 2. Site of significant archaeological discoveries

C. Zaporizhzhia 3. Centre of migration crisis in the Mediterranean

D. Ngorongoro 4. Region with a nuclear power plant in a conflict

zone
Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

B. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
C. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
D. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
2. Match the following places with their significance as highlighted in the news

A. Derna 1. Location of a deadly cyclone-induced flood

disaster
B. Lampedusa 2. Site of significant archaeological discoveries

C. Zaporizhzhia 3. Centre of migration crisis in the Mediterranean

D. Ngorongoro 4. Region with a nuclear power plant in a conflict

zone
Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

B. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
C. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
D. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Explanation:
• Located in Libya, Derna witnessed devastating floods in 2023 caused by
Cyclone Daniel, leading to massive casualties and infrastructure destruction.

• Lampedusa - This Italian island became the focal point of the Mediterranean
migration crisis in 2023-24, with a record number of migrants arriving.

• Zaporizhzhia - A critical region in Ukraine, home to Europe’s largest nuclear

power plant, it remained a conflict zone amidst the Russia-Ukraine war.

• Ngorongoro - Located in Tanzania, the Ngorongoro Conservation Area was in

the news for remarkable archaeological findings and discussions on balancing
conservation with the rights of indigenous communities.
3. Which of the following is/are part of hybrid warfare?

1. Espionage
2. Sabotage
3. Use of diplomacy to isolate or pressurize a nation
4. Trade Sanctions

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Which of the following is/are part of hybrid warfare?

1. Espionage
2. Sabotage
3. Use of diplomacy to isolate or pressurize a nation
4. Trade Sanctions

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
• Hybrid warfare is a strategy that blends conventional warfare, irregular
warfare, cyber operations, propaganda, economic manipulation, and other non-
traditional tactics to destabilize or weaken an adversary. Any activity that does
not fall into these strategies or does not contribute to undermining an
opponent's stability can be considered not a mode of hybrid warfare.
Explanation:
Modes of Hybrid Warfare

• Conventional Military Tactics: Use of armed forces in a traditional battlefield.

• Irregular Warfare: Guerrilla tactics, insurgency, or proxy forces.

• Cyber Operations: Cyberattacks targeting infrastructure, communication

systems, or sensitive data.

• Disinformation Campaigns: Propaganda, fake news, and psychological

operations.

• Economic Warfare: Sanctions, trade restrictions, or currency manipulation.

Explanation:
• Diplomatic Coercion: Use of diplomacy to isolate or pressurize a nation.

• Terrorism and Sabotage: Acts designed to create fear or destabilize an opponent

internally.

• Proxy Warfare: Supporting non-state actors or other nations to fight on behalf of

a country.

Espionage

• It is a traditional tool of warfare used for gathering critical intelligence.

• In hybrid warfare, it is used to anticipate enemy moves and disrupt decision-

making processes.
4. China recently banned the export of three key rare minerals — gallium,
germanium, and antimony. Consider the following statements.

1. China holds a monopoly over global production of these minerals, accounting

for over 70% of the world's supply.

2. The export ban is aligned with China's strategy to retaliate against

Protectionist Measures adopted by India to keep a check on rising trade deficit
with China.

3. Antimony is widely used in flame retardants

Which of the above-mentioned statement/s are Correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 1 & 3

D. 2 & 3
4. China recently banned the export of three key rare minerals — gallium,
germanium, and antimony. Consider the following statements.

1. China holds a monopoly over global production of these minerals, accounting

for over 70% of the world's supply.

2. The export ban is aligned with China's strategy to retaliate against

Protectionist Measures adopted by India to keep a check on rising trade deficit
with China.

3. Antimony is widely used in flame retardants

Which of the above-mentioned statement/s are Correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 1 & 3

D. 2 & 3
Explanation:
• China dominates the production of gallium and germanium, controlling more
than 70% of the global supply, making the export ban impactful for industries
worldwide. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.
• The export ban is a strategic move by China in response to Western restrictions
on China's access to advanced technologies like semiconductors and related
equipment. China announced that it would ban the export of some of the rare
minerals to the United States, marking the latest escalation of trade tensions
between two of the biggest economies in the world. Hence, Statement 2 is
Incorrect.
Explanation:
• Gallium, germanium, and antimony play important roles in modern
technology, particularly in computers, military, and renewable energy. While
germanium is vital for low-carbon technologies such as solar cells,
semiconductor wafers built using gallium arsenide instead of silicon may
operate at higher frequencies and are heat resistant. Antimony is widely used
in flame retardants, batteries, and alloys for various industrial purposes.
Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.
Explanation:
• December 3, 2024: China's Ministry of Commerce announced an immediate
halt to the export of gallium, germanium, antimony, and superhard materials
to the U.S., citing their dual military and civilian applications. Stricter reviews
were also imposed on the export of graphite .

• April 4, 2025: In response to escalating trade tensions with the U.S., China
imposed export controls on specific medium and heavy rare earth materials,
including samarium, gadolinium, terbium, dysprosium, lutetium, scandium,
and yttrium. These restrictions effectively halted shipments, as exporters were
required to obtain government licenses, causing significant delays
5. Consider the following countries:

1. Egypt
2. Sudan
3. Kuwait
4. Oman
How many of the above countries share boundaries with the Red Sea?

A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. None
5. Consider the following countries:

1. Egypt
2. Sudan
3. Kuwait
4. Oman
How many of the above countries share boundaries with the Red Sea?

A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. None
Explanation:
• Red Sea, one of the most significant shipping routes in the world, is seeing
tensions rise as a spillover of the ongoing Israel-Hamas conflict.

• The nearly 2,000-kilometer Red Sea connects the Mediterranean Sea to the
Indian Ocean via the narrow Suez Canal.

• Prior to the Suez Canal’s construction in 1869, ships had to travel around the
Cape of Good Hope in South Africa to travel between Europe and Asia.

• The Suez Canal significantly reduced the time and resources required to cover
that distance by providing a direct route.

• The Red Sea share its border with Saudi Arabia, Sudan, Egypt, Eritrea, Yemen
and Djibouti. (Acronym- DEEYAS or SAYEED)
6. The Gwangju Uprising was seen in news recently, related to:

A. It was a series of student-led demonstrations that took place in South Korea

B. It was a non-violent rebellion by Political activists in China in 1985.

C. It was a form of protest launched by Nationalist Parties of Taiwan against

China in 2016

D. This was an armed rebellion by the peasants of Myanmar against the Military
Rule prevalent since 2021.
6. The Gwangju Uprising was seen in news recently, related to:

A. It was a series of student-led demonstrations that took place in South Korea

B. It was a non-violent rebellion by Political activists in China in 1985.

C. It was a form of protest launched by Nationalist Parties of Taiwan against

China in 2016

D. This was an armed rebellion by the peasants of Myanmar against the Military
Rule prevalent since 2021.
Explanation:
• The Gwangju Uprising, known in Korean as May 18. This was a series of
student-led demonstrations that took place in Gwangju, South Korea, in May
1980, against the dictatorship of Chun Doo-hwan.
• The Gwangju Uprising of 1980 was triggered by the imposition of martial law,
which was extended nationwide by Chun Doo-hwan's military government to
suppress opposition to its rule. The crackdown led to widespread civilian
casualties.
• Since the establishment of the Republic of Korea, martial law has been
declared 16 times. It was last declared in 1980.
7. Identify the Incorrectly Matched Pair

1. Chancay Port- Cambodia

2. Mombasa Port- Kenya

3. Duqm Port- Oman

4. Manzanillo- Brazil

How many of the above mentioned Port/s are Matched Incorrectly?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. Only Three

D. All Four are Correctly Matched

7. Identify the Incorrectly Matched Pair

1. Chancay Port- Cambodia

2. Mombasa Port- Kenya

3. Duqm Port- Oman

4. Manzanillo- Brazil

How many of the above mentioned Port/s are Matched Incorrectly?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. Only Three

D. All Four are Correctly Matched

Explanation:
• Chancay Port- Peru
• Mobasa Port- Kenya
• Duqm Port- Oman
• Manzanillo Port- Mexico

o Chinese President Xi Jinping inaugurated Peru’s Chancay Port, describing

it as the starting point for a “new land-sea corridor between China and
Latin America”.

o The vast $3.6 billion project, funded by China’s Belt and Road Initiative
(BRI), has also generated concerns in US policymaking circles about
Chinese influence in an area that has long been considered its backyard.
Explanation:
o Chancay port is located about 78 km north of the Peruvian capital of Lima,
Chancay is a small fishing town with a population of around 60,000. It is a
natural deep-water port, however, previous feasibility studies on building
up infrastructure pointed out heavy construction costs.
8. Identify the place recently in the news, which has been a hotspot of
geopolitical and environmental significance over the last two years (2022–
2024):

1. It is located near the Arctic Circle and is rich in critical minerals such as rare
earth elements.

2. It has become a focal point for global powers due to its strategic location
amidst changing climate conditions.

3. This place is experiencing rapidly melting ice, opening new shipping routes,
and increasing the risk of resource conflicts.

4. Several countries, including the United States, China, and Russia, have
expressed interest in its geopolitical control and economic exploitation.
Which of the following is the place described above?

A. Svalbard Archipelago
B. Greenland
C. Iceland
D. Vladivostok
8. Identify the place recently in the news, which has been a hotspot of
geopolitical and environmental significance over the last two years (2022–
2024):

1. It is located near the Arctic Circle and is rich in critical minerals such as rare
earth elements.

2. It has become a focal point for global powers due to its strategic location
amidst changing climate conditions.

3. This place is experiencing rapidly melting ice, opening new shipping routes,
and increasing the risk of resource conflicts.

4. Several countries, including the United States, China, and Russia, have
expressed interest in its geopolitical control and economic exploitation.
Which of the following is the place described above?

A. Svalbard Archipelago
B. Greenland
C. Iceland
D. Vladivostok
Explanation:
• Greenland's Geopolitical Significance:
o Greenland, located near the Arctic Circle, is rich in rare earth elements and
has drawn attention from global powers due to its vast natural resources
and strategic location.
• Melting Ice and Shipping Routes:
o The effects of climate change have caused significant ice melting in
Greenland, opening up new shipping routes and raising concerns about
resource exploitation and sovereignty disputes.
• Interest from Major Powers:
o The United States, Russia, and China have shown geopolitical interest in
Greenland, with China attempting to increase its influence through
economic investments and the U.S. bolstering its presence in the Arctic.
9. Consider the Following Statements

1. Hypersonic Glide Vehicles are launched via sea, air & land while Conventional
Hypersonic Cruise Missiles are Launched via Ballistic Missiles.

2. Hypersonic Glide Vehicles are Ideal for Long Range Strikes while Cruise
missiles are more suitable for precision targeting for shorter targets.

Which of the above statement/s is/are Incorrect?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both are Incorrect

D. Both are Correct

9. Consider the Following Statements

1. Hypersonic Glide Vehicles are launched via sea, air & land while Conventional
Hypersonic Cruise Missiles are Launched via Ballistic Missiles.

2. Hypersonic Glide Vehicles are Ideal for Long Range Strikes while Cruise
missiles are more suitable for precision targeting for shorter targets.

Which of the above statement/s is/are Incorrect?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both are Incorrect

D. Both are Correct

Explanation:
• The term “Hypersonic” refers to a speed at least five times the speed of sound
(also called Mach-5).

• This comes down to around a mile per second.

• Another key feature of such missiles is manoeuvrability, setting them apart

from a ballistic missile that follows a set course or trajectory.

• The two types of hypersonic weapons systems are Hypersonic Glide Vehicles
(HGV) and Hypersonic Cruise Missiles.

• The HGVs are launched from a rocket before gliding to the intended target
while HCMs are powered by air-breathing high-speed engines or ‘scramjets’
after acquiring their target.
Explanation:
• Conventional Hypersonic Cruise Vehicles are launched via sea, air & land
while Hypersonic Glide Vehicles are Launched via Ballistic Missiles or rockets.
Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• While the range of HGV’s is More than 1000 KM, the range for Conventional
Cruise Missiles is From Few Hundred to 1000 KMs. Hence, Statement 2 is
Correct.
Explanation:
Explanation:
10. Consider the Following Statements with regard to Poorvi Prahar Exercise

1. Poorvi Prahar is an Air Force Led Exercise between the Armies of India &
Cambodia

2. In 2024, this exercise was conducted in the Arunachal Sector.

3. This Exercise for the First time saw the Joint Participation of Indian Navy &
Indian Air Force.

Which of the Above Statement/s is/are Incorrect?

A. 1&3

B. Only 2

C. All are Incorrect

D. 3 Only
10. Consider the Following Statements with regard to Poorvi Prahar Exercise

1. Poorvi Prahar is an Air Force Led Exercise between the Armies of India &
Cambodia

2. In 2024, this exercise was conducted in the Arunachal Sector.

3. This Exercise for the First time saw the Joint Participation of Indian Navy &
Indian Air Force.

Which of the Above Statement/s is/are Incorrect?

A. 1&3

B. Only 2

C. All are Incorrect

D. 3 Only
Explanation:
• The Indian Army is conducted a high-intensity tri-service exercise, 'Poorvi
Prahar', in the forward areas of Arunachal Pradesh. Hence Statement 1 is
Incorrect while Statement 2 is Correct.

• The exercise began on November 10 and will go on till November 18, 2024.

• This large-scale, joint exercise aims to hone the combat effectiveness of the
Army, Navy, and Air Force in executing Integrated Joint Operations in the
challenging mountainous terrain of the region, enhancing inter-service
coordination and operational readiness. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.

• The exercise brings together a wide spectrum of cutting-edge military

platforms and systems, showcasing India’s advancements in modern warfare
technology.
Explanation:
• Participating forces from all three services are utilising advanced fighter
aircraft, reconnaissance platforms, helicopters such as the Chinook and
Advanced Light Helicopter (Rudra), along with M777 Ultra-Light Howitzers,
which are newly inducted into the artillery units.

• A key feature of Exercise Poorvi Prahar is the integration of innovative

technologies that are reshaping the future of military operations.

• Troops are operating and refining skills with Swarm Drones, First Person
View (FPV) Drones, and Loitering Munitions, cutting-edge technologies that
dramatically enhance situational awareness, precision strikes, and operational
flexibility.

• The incorporation of these tools into the exercise reflects the military’s
commitment to leveraging next-generation technologies to bolster defence
capabilities.
11. Consider the following statements about UNESCO (United Nations
Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization):

1. The primary purpose of UNESCO is to promote international collaboration in

education, science, culture, and communication to achieve global peace.

2. UNESCO's World Heritage List includes only cultural sites, as natural sites fall
under the jurisdiction of the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP).

3. The Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) of UNESCO in collaboration

with UNEP focuses on creating a balance between people and nature through
sustainable development.
How many of the above-mentioned statement/s are Incorrect?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three are Correct

D. All Three are Incorrect

11. Consider the following statements about UNESCO (United Nations
Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization):

1. The primary purpose of UNESCO is to promote international collaboration in

education, science, culture, and communication to achieve global peace.

2. UNESCO's World Heritage List includes only cultural sites, as natural sites fall
under the jurisdiction of the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP).

3. The Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) of UNESCO in collaboration

with UNEP focuses on creating a balance between people and nature through
sustainable development.
How many of the above-mentioned statement/s are Incorrect?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three are Correct

D. All Three are Incorrect

Explanation:
• UNESCO's mission is to promote peace through international collaboration
in education, science, culture, and communication. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct

• After two World Wars in less than thirty years, UNESCO was born of a clear
vision: to achieve lasting peace, economic and political agreements among
States are not enough.

• We must bring people together and strengthen the intellectual and moral
solidarity of humankind, through mutual understanding and dialogue
between cultures.

• UNESCO's World Heritage List includes both cultural and natural sites.
Explanation:
• For example, India's Kaziranga National Park is a natural World Heritage
Site. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• There are 266 World Heritage sites in 115 countries which are listed for
natural values. 227 classified as “natural sites”.

• 39 classified as “mixed sites” - both natural and cultural.

• 22% of World Heritage sites (22% of all 1199 sites) are recognised for their
outstanding nature conservation values.
Explanation:
• The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme is UNESCO’s leading
initiative in biodiversity conservation and sustainable development by
enhancing the relationship between people and their environments.

• It combines the natural and social sciences with a view to improving human
livelihoods and safeguarding natural and managed ecosystems, thus
promoting innovative approaches to economic development that are socially
and culturally appropriate and environmentally sustainable.

• UNEP has no link with this Initiative undertaken by UNESCO. Hence,

Statement 3 is Incorrect.
12. Examine the following statements:

Assertion (A): The Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is considered a cornerstone of

global nuclear disarmament and has been signed by nearly every country in the
world.

Reason (R): The NPT mandates that all signatory states must completely
dismantle their nuclear weapons within a fixed timeframe.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

12. Examine the following statements:

Assertion (A): The Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is considered a cornerstone of

global nuclear disarmament and has been signed by nearly every country in the
world.

Reason (R): The NPT mandates that all signatory states must completely
dismantle their nuclear weapons within a fixed timeframe.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Explanation:
• Assertion (A): True. The NPT is widely recognized as a key treaty aimed at
preventing the spread of nuclear weapons, promoting peaceful use of
nuclear energy, and facilitating disarmament. It has over 190 signatory
states, with notable exceptions like India, Pakistan, and Israel.

• Reason (R): False. The NPT does not mandate complete nuclear
disarmament within a fixed timeframe. Instead, it commits nuclear-weapon
states to pursue negotiations on disarmament in good faith (Article VI). This
is a contentious issue, as many non-nuclear states feel disarmament progress
has been inadequate.
13. With reference to the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider
the following statements:

1. The AIIB is a specialized agency of the United Nations aimed at fostering

sustainable economic growth in Asia.

2. India is the largest shareholder in the AIIB after China.

3. Unlike the World Bank, the AIIB does not impose conditionalities on its loans
and focuses solely on project financing.

4. The AIIB has partnered with other multilateral development banks like the
World Bank and Asian Development Bank to co-finance projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 4 only

D. 1, 2, and 3 only
13. With reference to the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider
the following statements:

1. The AIIB is a specialized agency of the United Nations aimed at fostering

sustainable economic growth in Asia.

2. India is the largest shareholder in the AIIB after China.

3. Unlike the World Bank, the AIIB does not impose conditionalities on its loans
and focuses solely on project financing.

4. The AIIB has partnered with other multilateral development banks like the
World Bank and Asian Development Bank to co-finance projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 4 only

D. 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• AIIB is not a specialized agency of the United Nations. It is an
independent multilateral development bank established to promote
infrastructure development and regional connectivity in Asia. Hence,
Statement 1 is Incorrect

• India is the second-largest shareholder in the AIIB after China, not the
largest. China is the largest shareholder with a significant voting power.
Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• While AIIB primarily focuses on infrastructure financing, it does impose
certain conditions to ensure environmental sustainability and good
governance in its projects. It is not entirely free of conditionalities. Hence,
Statement 3 is Incorrect.

• The AIIB has partnered with institutions like the World Bank, Asian
Development Bank (ADB), and others for co-financing several projects,
particularly in the areas of energy, transport, and urban development. Hence,
Statement 4 is Correct.
Explanation:
14. Consider the following statements regarding the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (ASEAN):

1. ASEAN was established by the Bangkok Declaration in 1967, with only five
founding members.

2. The ASEAN Charter, adopted in 2007, provides the organization with a legal
status and makes decision-making binding for all member states.

3. The ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) aims to eliminate tariffs among member
states, but agricultural products are excluded from this agreement.

4. India is a part of the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) but is not a member of the
ASEAN Plus Three (APT) grouping.

5. ASEAN follows the principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of its

member states, which has led to criticism regarding its response to regional
crises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 4 only

B. 1, 4, and 5 only

C. 3 and 5 only

D. 2, 4, and 5 only
14. Consider the following statements regarding the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (ASEAN):

1. ASEAN was established by the Bangkok Declaration in 1967, with only five
founding members.

2. The ASEAN Charter, adopted in 2007, provides the organization with a legal
status and makes decision-making binding for all member states.

3. The ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) aims to eliminate tariffs among member
states, but agricultural products are excluded from this agreement.

4. India is a part of the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) but is not a member of the
ASEAN Plus Three (APT) grouping.

5. ASEAN follows the principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of its

member states, which has led to criticism regarding its response to regional
crises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 4 only

B. 1, 4, and 5 only

C. 3 and 5 only

D. 2, 4, and 5 only
Explanation:
• ASEAN was established in 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines,
Singapore, and Thailand through the Bangkok Declaration. Hence,
Statement 1 is Correct.

• The ASEAN Charter provides the organization with a legal identity but
decision-making in ASEAN is primarily consensus-based and non-binding
unless explicitly agreed upon.Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• The ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) includes most goods, including
agricultural products, although some exceptions and phased reductions
exist. Hence, statement 3 is Incorrect
Explanation:
• India is a member of the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) but also participates
in ASEAN Plus Three (APT) summits, which include ASEAN, China, Japan,
and South Korea, alongside other invited nations like India. However India
is not an Official Member of APT. Hence, statement 4 is Correct

• ASEAN emphasizes non-interference and is often criticized for its inability

to act decisively on issues like the Rohingya crisis or Myanmar’s political
situation. Hence, Statement 5 is Correct.
15. Consider the following statements regarding the MQ-9B drones:

1. The MQ-9B is equipped with maritime surveillance capabilities, making it

suitable for naval operations.

2. India has acquired MQ-9B drones through the General Atomics-India

partnership under the Foreign Military Sales (FMS) program of the United
States.

3. The MQ-9B is a nuclear-capable drone system integrated with AI-powered

autonomous targeting.
How many of the statement/s given above is/are Incorrect?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three are Correct

D. All Three are Incorrect

15. Consider the following statements regarding the MQ-9B drones:

1. The MQ-9B is equipped with maritime surveillance capabilities, making it

suitable for naval operations.

2. India has acquired MQ-9B drones through the General Atomics-India

partnership under the Foreign Military Sales (FMS) program of the United
States.

3. The MQ-9B is a nuclear-capable drone system integrated with AI-powered

autonomous targeting.
How many of the statement/s given above is/are Incorrect?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three are Correct

D. All Three are Incorrect

Explanation:
• The MQ-9B is an advanced variant of the MQ-9 Reaper, designed for multi-
mission capabilities including surveillance and precision strikes. Hence,
Statement 1 Is Correct.

• The MQ-9B is equipped with beyond line-of-sight (BLOS) communication,

allowing it to operate at significantly longer ranges.

• The MQ-9B has maritime surveillance capabilities, including features like

synthetic aperture radar and automatic identification systems.

• The MQ-9B has two variants — the SkyGuardian and the SeaGuardian, its
maritime variant.
Explanation:
• India has acquired MQ-9B drones under the FMS program, which facilitates
government-to-government defense equipment sales. Hence, Statement 2 is
Correct

• MQ-9Bs, which will be assembled in India, will enhance the Intelligence,

Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities of India’s armed forces
across domains.

• The deal will be executed through the Foreign Military Sales (FMS) route of
the U.S. government.

• The MQ-9B is not a nuclear-capable system, and while it features AI for

enhanced surveillance and operational efficiency, it is not an autonomous
targeting system for nuclear weapons. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.
16. In 2021, Security forces, including the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
and state police, launched a targeted operation against Naxal insurgents. This
operation led to significant engagements, resulting in casualties on both
sides. Which Operation was this?

A. Operation Sadbhavna

B. Operation Sankalp

C. Operation Prahar

D. Operation Jatayu
16. In 2021, Security forces, including the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
and state police, launched a targeted operation against Naxal insurgents. This
operation led to significant engagements, resulting in casualties on both
sides. Which Operation was this?

A. Operation Sadbhavna

B. Operation Sankalp

C. Operation Prahar

D. Operation Jatayu
Explanation:
• Operation Prahar is a significant counter-insurgency operation conducted
by Indian security forces to combat Naxal insurgency in central India,
specifically in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.

Objectives

• To neutralize Naxal strongholds in densely forested and strategically critical

areas of Bastar.

• To weaken the operational capabilities of Naxal groups by targeting their

leadership, logistics, and camps.

• To secure the region and pave the way for developmental activities.
Explanation:
• Focused in the Bijapur and Sukma districts of Chhattisgarh, particularly in
remote and forested areas that are known Naxal strongholds.

• The operation extended into areas such as Tarrem and Jonaguda

• Operation Prahar showcased a shift in strategy towards proactive targeting

of Naxal bases instead of reacting to attacks. It emphasized the importance
of integrating development and counter-insurgency measures in Naxal-
affected areas.
• In April 2021, during a combing operation
under Operation Prahar, security forces
comprising the Central Reserve Police Force
(CRPF), its elite CoBRA unit, the District
Reserve Guard (DRG), and the Special Task
Force (STF) were ambushed by Maoist
insurgents in the Bijapur district of
Chhattisgarh.
• This encounter resulted in the deaths of 22
security personnel and injuries to over 30 others,
marking one of the deadliest attacks on Indian
forces in recent years.
17. Identify the Incorrectly Paired Military Exercise

1. Exercise Maitree- Bangladesh

2. Nomadic Elephant- Mongolia

3. Tarang Shakti- Australia

How many pair/s are Incorrectly Matched?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three are Incorrectly Paired

D. All Three are Correctly Matched

17. Identify the Incorrectly Paired Military Exercise

1. Exercise Maitree- Bangladesh

2. Nomadic Elephant- Mongolia

3. Tarang Shakti- Australia

How many pair/s are Incorrectly Matched?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three are Incorrectly Paired

D. All Three are Correctly Matched

Explanation:
• The joint military exercise MAITREE 2024, between the Indian Army and the
Royal Thailand Army, was held in Tak Province, Thailand.

• This exercise marks a significant milestone in fostering military cooperation

and enhancing the operational capabilities of the two nations under the
United Nations charter.

• Troops from both contingents have been actively engaged in rigorous

training sessions, focusing on counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism
operations in jungle and urban environments.
Explanation:
Exercise Maitree

• The exercise emphasizes the exchange of best practices, with soldiers from
India and Thailand sharing and imbibing each other’s expertise.

• The exercise underscores the commitment of both nations to collaborate

closely in addressing regional security challenges and promoting peace.

• Hence Pair 1 is Incorrectly Matched

Explanation:
Exercise Nomadic Elephant

• The 16th edition of India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise NOMADIC

ELEPHANT was conducted at Foreign Training Node, Umroi (Meghalaya).

• The Exercise was scheduled to be conducted from 03rd to 16th July 2024.

• The aim of the Exercise is to enhance joint military capability of both sides to
undertake counter insurgency operations in a Sub Conventional scenario
under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate.

• Hence, Pair 2 is Correctly Matched.

Explanation:
Exercise Tarang Shakti

• At a Recently Held Event, Indian Air Force vice chief Air Marshal AP Singh
said that the air exercise ‘Tarang Shakti’ will be the largest international air
exercise ever conducted in India, with invitations extended to 51 countries.

• The Indian Air Force has received confirmation from ten countries for
participation with their assets and 18 countries as observers for the
international exercise, which will be held in two phases.

• Hence, Pair 3 is Incorrectly Matched.

18. The Sahel region is bordered by:

A. The Sahara Desert to the north, the Sudanian Savanna to the south, the
Atlantic Ocean to the west, and the Red Sea to the east.

B. The Sahara Desert to the south, the Sudanian Savanna to the north, the
Atlantic Ocean to the east, and the Red Sea to the west.

C. The Sahara Desert to the east, the Sudanian Savanna to the west, the
Atlantic Ocean to the north, and the Red Sea to the south.

D. The Sahara Desert to the west, the Sudanian Savanna to the east, the
Atlantic Ocean to the south, and the Red Sea to the north.
18. The Sahel region is bordered by:

A. The Sahara Desert to the north, the Sudanian Savanna to the south, the
Atlantic Ocean to the west, and the Red Sea to the east.

B. The Sahara Desert to the south, the Sudanian Savanna to the north, the
Atlantic Ocean to the east, and the Red Sea to the west.

C. The Sahara Desert to the east, the Sudanian Savanna to the west, the
Atlantic Ocean to the north, and the Red Sea to the south.

D. The Sahara Desert to the west, the Sudanian Savanna to the east, the
Atlantic Ocean to the south, and the Red Sea to the north.
Explanation:
Countries in Sahel Region
19. Global gateway Initiative is Associated with

A. NATO

B. G-7

C. EU

D. ASEAN
19. Global gateway Initiative is Associated with

A. NATO

B. G-7

C. EU

D. ASEAN
Explanation:
• The Global Gateway is an initiative by the European Union (EU) to invest in
infrastructure projects and establish economic partnerships around the
world.

• It was launched in December 2021 by the European Commission, under the

leadership of Ursula von der Leyen.

• The Global Gateway aims to mobilize €300 billion by 2027 in public and
private infrastructure investment around the world.

• The EU will use a combination of grants, loans, and guarantees to finance

projects in the following areas:

o Digital connectivity

o Energy transition
Explanation:
o Transport

o Health

o Education

o Research and innovation

o Water and sanitation

o Climate adaptation and resilience

• The Global Gateway is seen as a response to China's Belt and Road Initiative
(BRI).

• The BRI is a Chinese-led infrastructure investment program that has been

criticized for its lack of transparency and environmental impact.

• The Global Gateway is designed to be more transparent and sustainable

than the BRI.
20. Which of the Following Reports is not Published by World Economic
Forum?

A. Global Risks Report

B. Global Gender Gap Report

C. Chief Economist Outlook

D. Global Education Monitoring Report

20. Which of the Following Reports is not Published by World Economic
Forum?

A. Global Risks Report

B. Global Gender Gap Report

C. Chief Economist Outlook

D. Global Education Monitoring Report

Explanation:
• The 2024/5 GEM Report released on 31 October, 2024, at the Global
Education Meeting in Fortaleza, Brazil examines the requirements of good
leadership in education and how they vary between countries and over time.
It looks at the visions and goals that are driving leadership in education and
examines the extent and through what practices the exercise of leadership
contributes to better education outcomes.

• This Report is Published by UNESCO

• Leadership is at the heart of quality education. There is a growing belief that

educational leadership is the second most important factor explaining
learning outcomes.

• Leaders at multiple levels matter, from those within the school, to those
outside of the school such as middle managers, and including those outside
of education systems in government, or those working on legislature and
oversight.
21. Consider the Following Statements with regard to QUAD
1. The Idea of QUAD was incepted post the 2004 Tsunami in Indian Ocean
Region.
2. In 2007, Japan Formalized QUAD, and the 1st QUAD meeting was also held in
the same year.
3. SQUAD was formed in 2024 with the inclusion of Philippines along with the 4
QUAD Partners
Choose the Correct Statement/s
A. 1 Only
B. 1&2
C. 2&3
D. 3 Only
21. Consider the Following Statements with regard to QUAD
1. The Idea of QUAD was incepted post the 2004 Tsunami in Indian Ocean
Region.
2. In 2007, Japan Formalized QUAD, and the 1st QUAD meeting was also held in
the same year.
3. SQUAD was formed in 2024 with the inclusion of Philippines along with the 4
QUAD Partners
Choose the Correct Statement/s
A. 1 Only
B. 1&2
C. 2&3
D. 3 Only
Explanation:
Context- Prime Minister of India attended the Quad Leaders’ Summit in
Wilmington (US).

• The QUAD was born from the collaboration shown between the 4 countries
i.e. India, Australia, Japan & USA Post the 2004 Indian Ocean Region Tsunami.
The 4 nations worked together to provide Humanitarian Assistance & Relief in
the affected areas. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• In 2007, Japan Formalized QUAD, and Indeed the 1st QUAD Meeting took
place in 2007 at the sidelines of the ASEAN Regional Forum Meeting. Hence,
Statement 2 is Correct

• SQUAD was Institutionalized by USA in 2024 which includes USA, Japan,

Australia & Philippines. This is a 4 Nation Security Agreement to Counter
China’s Militarization efforts in Indo Pacific. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.
22. Which of the Currency Swap Agreements have not been Signed By India

A. BRICS Contingent Reserve Agreement signed in 2015.

B. India-Japan bilateral CSA amounting to $75 billion

C. SAARC Currency Swap Framework 2024-27

D. All the Above are Signed by India

22. Which of the Currency Swap Agreements have not been Signed By India

A. BRICS Contingent Reserve Agreement signed in 2015.

B. India-Japan bilateral CSA amounting to $75 billion

C. SAARC Currency Swap Framework 2024-27

D. All the Above are Signed by India

What is Currency Swap?
• Two countries agree to exchange their own currencies
with each other, so they can trade or pay debts without
using a third currency like the US dollar.
What is Currency Swap?
• India and Japan sign a currency swap.
• India gives rupees to Japan, and Japan
gives yen to India.
• Now, India can use yen to pay for
Japanese goods, and Japan can use
rupees to pay for Indian goods.
• No need to convert into dollars, which
saves cost and reduces dependence on
the dollar.
Explanation:
Context- Currency Swap Agreement (CSA) signed between India & Maldives to
help Maldives in managing their foreign exchange reserves.

• The Currency Swap Agreement under SAARC (South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation) was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to
strengthen financial cooperation and stability among SAARC member
countries. The agreement enables SAARC nations to access financial assistance
from India in case of balance of payments issues or liquidity shortages.

o A new INR Swap Window has been established, offering various

concessions for swap support in Indian Rupees.

o The total corpus for this Rupee support is ₹250 billion

o The RBI will continue to offer swap arrangements in US Dollars and Euros
under a separate window.

o The overall corpus for this facility is USD 2 billion.

Explanation:
• BRICS Currency Swap Agreement

o The BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA), established in 2015,

is a framework designed to provide financial support to member
countries—Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa—facing short-
term balance of payments pressures. This support is facilitated through
liquidity instruments, primarily in the form of currency swaps.

• The CRA has a total committed resource pool of $100 billion, with
individual commitments as follows:

o China: $41 billion

o Brazil: $18 billion

Explanation:
o Russia: $18 billion

o India: $18 billion

o South Africa: $5 billion

Explanation:
• India- Japan CSA

o India and Japan have established a robust financial partnership through a

Bilateral Swap Arrangement (BSA), which serves as a financial safety net
for both nations.

o This arrangement allows either country to exchange their local currencies

for US dollars, enhancing financial stability and deepening economic
cooperation.

o During Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Tokyo in October 2018,

India and Japan agreed to a BSA amounting to $75 billion.
Explanation:
o This agreement marked a significant increase from the previous
arrangement of $50 billion, reflecting the deepening trust and economic
ties between the two nations.

o The BSA was renewed on February 28, 2022, with the same terms,
allowing both authorities to swap their local currencies in exchange for the
US Dollar up to $75 billion. This renewal underscored the ongoing
commitment of both nations to maintain financial stability and mutual
support.
23. Which of the following are original signatories of the Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) of the IMEC
1. USA
2. UK
3. India
4. UAE
5. Israel
Choose the correct option
A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,&5
D. All of the Above
23. Which of the following are original signatories of the Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) of the IMEC
1. USA
2. UK
3. India
4. UAE
5. Israel
Choose the correct option
A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,&5
D. All of the Above
• During the G20 Summit on September 9-10, 2023, the United States, India,
Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, France, Germany, Italy, and the
European Union issued a joint statement in the form of a memorandum of
understanding. The purpose of this declaration was to provide a framework
for the development of an economic corridor between India, the Middle East
and Europe.

• The India-Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) project aims to

redefine global trade routes, promote connectivity, and facilitate the growth
and export of clean energy and digital communications. The proposed IMEC
corridor begins in India and crosses the Arabian Sea to reach the United Arab
Emirates (UAE).

• From there, it passes through Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel, and Europe. This
route includes both maritime and railway transport components. (Map) It also
includes cables to connect power grids and telecommunications lines.
• The corridor will help deepen trade and investment relations between the
European Union and the Gulf States. The IMEC corridor will have an
important place in the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment
(PGII), which was launched in 2022 to promote public and private investment
in infrastructure.

• Through this partnership, the G7 aims to mobilize up to $600 billion by 2027 to

close the infrastructure investment gap in partner countries.

• European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen said the EU supports
the IMEC corridor as a green digital bridge across continents and expects
trade between India and Europe to be 40 percent faster than through the Suez
Canal. Goods could be transported from Mumbai to Europe via the new route,
which would reduce costs by 30 percent.
Members of IMEC

• India

• European Union

• France

• Germany

• Italy

• Saudi Arabia

• UAE

• USA
24. Which of the Following is not an Initiative by NATO

A. Partnership for Peace

B. Mediterranean Dialogue

C. Istanbul Cooperation Initiative

D. Swiss Peace Summit

24. Which of the Following is not an Initiative by NATO

A. Partnership for Peace

B. Mediterranean Dialogue

C. Istanbul Cooperation Initiative

D. Swiss Peace Summit

Explanation:
Context- Recently, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) marked 75
years of its formation and Sweden has joined NATO as its 32nd member

• NATO’s Mediterranean Dialogue is a 23 year old forum for political

consultations and practical cooperation, which includes a bilateral and a
multilateral component and involves countries of the Mediterranean area.

• The Istanbul Cooperation Initiative was established at the 2004 NATO Summit
and is meant to promote essentially practical cooperation on a bilateral basis,
with interested countries in the broader region of the Middle East.

• ICI is opened to interested countries in the region which subscribe to the aim
and content of this initiative, including the fight against terrorism and the
proliferation of weapons of mass destruction. Each interested party, would be
considered by the North Atlantic Council on a case-by-case basis and on its
own merit.
Explanation:
• Currently, four countries participating in the Gulf Cooperation Council –
Bahrain, Kuwait, Qatar and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) – have joined the
Initiative.

• The Partnership for Peace (PfP) is a programme of bilateral cooperation

between individual Euro-Atlantic partner countries and NATO. It allows
partners to build up an individual relationship with NATO, choosing their
own priorities for cooperation.

• The Swiss Peace Summit, also known as the Summit on Peace in Ukraine, is
an international conference aimed at addressing and finding solutions to the
ongoing conflict between Russia and Ukraine.

• Held at the Bürgenstock resort in Switzerland, this summit gathers

representatives from various countries and organizations to discuss and
promote peace initiatives.
25. Which of the Following Countries are part of NATO + 5

1. Japan

2. Israel

3. South Korea

Choose the Correct Option/Options

A. 1 Only

B. 2&3

C. 2 Only

D. All are Correct

25. Which of the Following Countries are part of NATO + 5

1. Japan

2. Israel

3. South Korea

Choose the Correct Option/Options

A. 1 Only

B. 2&3

C. 2 Only

D. All are Correct

Explanation:
Context- Recently, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) marked 75
years of its formation and Sweden has joined NATO as its 32nd member

• NATO plus five: The countries are Australia, New Zealand, South Korea,
Japan and Israel.

• In 2023, A US Congressional Committee recommended strengthening Nato

Plus by including India in the five-member grouping.

• NATO is a transatlantic alliance of 31 like-minded North American and

European countries.

• It was established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington
Treaty) on April 4, 1949.

• Aim: To protect peace and to guarantee the territorial integrity, political

independence and security of the member states.
26. Consider the Following Statements with regard to the Blue Dot Line

1. Israel and Lebanon have no official border separating them, except the Blue
Line.

2. It was set by the United Nations in 2000.

Choose the Correct answer

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1&2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
26. Consider the Following Statements with regard to the Blue Dot Line

1. Israel and Lebanon have no official border separating them, except the Blue
Line.

2. It was set by the United Nations in 2000.

Choose the Correct answer

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1&2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Explanation:
Context: UN warns of escalating tensions on Lebanon-Israel ‘Blue Line’ frontier.

• Israel and Lebanon have no official border separating them, except the Blue
Line. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct

• It is made of blue barrels and runs from the Mediterranean to the Golan
Heights to the east.

• The Blue Line is a demarcation line dividing Lebanon from Israel and the
Golan Heights.

• It was published by the United Nations on 7 June 2000 for the purposes of
determining whether Israel had fully withdrawn from Lebanon. Hence,
Statement 2 is Correct

• It has been described as "temporary" and "not a border, but a “line of

withdrawal”.
27. Consider the Following statements Regarding the 3 stages of Money
Laundering
1. Placement: Where the money is reintroduced into the economy in a way that
makes it appear to have come from legitimate sources.
2. Layering: Where the funds are moved around to create confusion and distance
them from their criminal origin
3. Integration: Where the illicit funds enter the legitimate financial system
How many of the above-mentioned stage/s mentioned are Incorrect?
A. Only One
B. Only Two
C. All Three are Incorrect
D. All Three are Correct
27. Consider the Following statements Regarding the 3 stages of Money
Laundering
1. Placement: Where the money is reintroduced into the economy in a way that
makes it appear to have come from legitimate sources.
2. Layering: Where the funds are moved around to create confusion and distance
them from their criminal origin
3. Integration: Where the illicit funds enter the legitimate financial system
How many of the above-mentioned stage/s mentioned are Incorrect?
A. Only One
B. Only Two
C. All Three are Incorrect
D. All Three are Correct
Explanation:
• Money laundering is the process of creating the appearance that large
amounts of money obtained from criminal activity, such as drug trafficking
or terrorist activity, originated from a legitimate source.

• The money from the illicit activity is considered dirty, and the process
"launders" the money to make it look clean.

• Money laundering is essential for criminal organizations who wish to use

illegally earned money effectively.

• There are 3 steps involved in the Process of laundering money Placement,

Layering, Integration.
Explanation:
• Placement: Where the illicit funds enter the legitimate financial system. Hence
Statement 1 is Incorrect

• Layering: Where the funds are moved around to create confusion and distance
them from their criminal origin. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct

• Integration: Where the money is reintroduced into the economy in a way that
makes it appear to have come from legitimate sources. Hence, Statement 3 is
Incorrect.
28. Identify the Incorrect Pair of Military Exercises In News

A. Exercise Lamitiye- India & Seychelles

B. EXERCISE AL NAJAH V- India & Iran

C. Exercise MAITREE- India & Thailand

D. Exercise Samudra Laksamana- India & Malaysia

28. Identify the Incorrect Pair of Military Exercises In News

A. Exercise Lamitiye- India & Seychelles

B. EXERCISE AL NAJAH V- India & Iran

C. Exercise MAITREE- India & Thailand

D. Exercise Samudra Laksamana- India & Malaysia

Explanation:
• It is a joint military exercise between India-Oman.

• The exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 13th to 26th September 2024 at

Rabkoot Training Area in Salalah, Oman.

• Exercise AL NAJAH has been held biennially since 2015, alternating

between India and Oman. Last edition of the same exercise was conducted at
Mahajan in Rajasthan.

• The Indian Army contingent comprising 60 personnel is being represented by

a Battalion of the Mechanised Infantry Regiment.
29. Consider the Following Statements with regard to Indo Pacific Oceans
Initiative (IPOI)

1. It is a non-treaty-based voluntary arrangement that promotes cooperation for a

free and open IndoPacific and the rules-based regional order.

2. It was launched by India in 2019 at the ASEAN- India Summit in Bangkok

(Thailand).

3. QUAD & IPOI together complement each other in terms of India’s Orientation
towards Indo Pacific.
Choose the Incorrect Statement/s from the above mentioned

A. 1 Only

B. 2&3

C. 3 Only

D. 1&2
29. Consider the Following Statements with regard to Indo Pacific Oceans
Initiative (IPOI)

1. It is a non-treaty-based voluntary arrangement that promotes cooperation for a

free and open IndoPacific and the rules-based regional order.

2. It was launched by India in 2019 at the ASEAN- India Summit in Bangkok

(Thailand).

3. QUAD & IPOI together complement each other in terms of India’s Orientation
towards Indo Pacific.
Choose the Incorrect Statement/s from the above mentioned

A. 1 Only

B. 2&3

C. 3 Only

D. 1&2
Explanation:
• It is a non-treaty-based voluntary arrangement that promotes cooperation for
a free and open IndoPacific and the rules-based regional order. Hence,
statement 1 is Correct

• It was launched by India in 2019 at the East Asia Summit (EAS) in Bangkok
(Thailand). Hence Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• Philosophy: Builds upon India’s ‘Security and Growth for All in the Region
(SAGAR)’ initiative of 2015. SAGAR vision is to have inclusive development
joining economic assistance and maritime security concerns on a common
platform while respecting international maritime laws and norms.
Explanation:
• While the Primary focus of IPOI is Maritime security, connectivity, economic
growth, environmental sustainability, that of QUAD is Strategic security,
regional stability, countering China's influence. Hence Statement 3 is
Incorrect as both the Initiatives do not complement each other.

• A crucial pillar of cooperation between India and the Association of Southeast

Asian Nations (ASEAN) is to ensure an open, inclusive and rules-based Indo-
Pacific, a region that stretches from the east coast of Japan to the east coast of
Africa.

• To achieve this objective, two mechanisms have been put in place. One is the
India-initiated Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) and the other is the
ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific (AOIP). The two initiatives complement
each other in multiple ways, particularly in promoting maritime security,
stability, and cooperation across the Indo-Pacific region
30. With reference to the United Nations Convention against Transnational
Organized Crime (UNTOC), consider the following statements:

1. UNTOC is legally binding on all UN member states, requiring them to

criminalize transnational organized crime within their domestic laws.

2. The convention primarily focuses on drug trafficking and money laundering

and does not cover human trafficking or arms smuggling.

3. The Palermo Protocols, which supplement UNTOC, include provisions for

combating human trafficking, migrant smuggling, and illicit manufacturing of
firearms.

4. India is a signatory but has not yet ratified UNTOC due to concerns over its
impact on domestic sovereignty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 3, and 4
30. With reference to the United Nations Convention against Transnational
Organized Crime (UNTOC), consider the following statements:

1. UNTOC is legally binding on all UN member states, requiring them to

criminalize transnational organized crime within their domestic laws.

2. The convention primarily focuses on drug trafficking and money laundering

and does not cover human trafficking or arms smuggling.

3. The Palermo Protocols, which supplement UNTOC, include provisions for

combating human trafficking, migrant smuggling, and illicit manufacturing of
firearms.

4. India is a signatory but has not yet ratified UNTOC due to concerns over its
impact on domestic sovereignty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 3, and 4
Explanation:
• Context- The 33rd Session of the CCPCJ called for steps to combat
Transnational Organised Crimes (TOC) and launched the Generation Justice
(GenJust) initiative to engage youth in crime prevention and criminal justice.

• While UNTOC is a legally binding treaty, it does not automatically apply to

all UN members. Countries must sign and ratify the treaty and then
incorporate it into their domestic laws. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The UNTOC covers a broad range of crimes, including human trafficking,

arms smuggling, money laundering, and corruption. It is not limited to drug
trafficking and financial crimes. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• The Palermo Protocols (supplementary to UNTOC) include:

o Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons,

especially Women and Children

o Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea, and Air

o Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing and Trafficking in Firearms

o Hence Statement 3 is Correct.

o India has both signed and ratified UNTOC (signed in 2002, ratified in
2011). However, India has not ratified the Protocol against Smuggling of
Migrants, citing concerns over domestic sovereignty and legal
implications. Hence, Statement 4 is Incorrect.
31. Which of the Following are not the Ports Surrounding the Black Sea?

1. Constanta

2. Burgas

3. Heraklion

4. Patmos

5. Varna

Which of the Following is Incorrectly Matched?

A. 1,2,5

B. 2,3,4

C. 3&4

D. 2&5
31. Which of the Following are not the Ports Surrounding the Black Sea?

1. Constanta

2. Burgas

3. Heraklion

4. Patmos

5. Varna

Which of the Following is Incorrectly Matched?

A. 1,2,5

B. 2,3,4

C. 3&4

D. 2&5
Explanation:
Ports in Black Sea

• Constanța, Romania: As the largest port on the Black Sea, Constanța serves as
a crucial hub for trade and transportation, connecting Central and Eastern
Europe to Asia and the Middle East.

• Odessa, Ukraine: A vital port facilitating Ukraine's grain exports and other
goods, playing a significant role in the country's economy.

• Novorossiysk, Russia: One of Russia's primary ports on the Black Sea,

handling a substantial portion of the nation's maritime trade, including oil and
grain exports.

• Varna and Burgas, Bulgaria: These ports are essential for Bulgaria's trade
activities, serving as key points for the import and export of goods.

• Trabzon and Samsun, Turkey: Important Turkish ports that facilitate regional
trade and commerce along the Black Sea coast.
• Hence Option 1,2&5 are Ports Surrounding Black sea.
• Heraklion & Patmos are ports surrounding the Aegean Sea & Not Black Sea.
Hence, Options 3&4 are the Correct Options.
• Acronym to Remember these Ports
CON Tarsa Vibhour - “कौन तरसा विभोर"
• C- Constanta
• O- Odessa
• N- Novorossiysk

• Tar- Trabzon
• Sa- Samsun

• Vi- Varna
• Bhour- Burgas
32. Identify the Port City based on Following Statements-

1. This was awarded the title of "Hero City" by the Soviet Union in 1945 for its
defence during World War II.

2. The port provides direct access to the Mediterranean Sea through the Bosporus
Strait.

3. This Port City serves as the headquarters of the Russian Black Sea Fleet.

Which of the following is the Port City being discussed in the Question?

A. Sevastopol

B. Mariupol

C. Odessa

D. Novorossiysk
32. Identify the Port City based on Following Statements-

1. This was awarded the title of "Hero City" by the Soviet Union in 1945 for its
defence during World War II.

2. The port provides direct access to the Mediterranean Sea through the Bosporus
Strait.

3. This Port City serves as the headquarters of the Russian Black Sea Fleet.

Which of the following is the Port City being discussed in the Question?

A. Sevastopol

B. Mariupol

C. Odessa

D. Novorossiysk
Explanation:
About Sevastopol

• Location: Sevastopol is located on the southwestern coast of the Crimean

Peninsula along the Black Sea.

• Coordinates: 44.6167° N, 33.5254° E

• Strategic Importance: Sevastopol has been a critical naval base and

commercial port due to its deep, ice-free waters and strategic position near key
maritime routes.
Explanation:
Historical Significance

• Founded: Founded by Catherine the Great of the Russian Empire in 1783 after
Russia annexed Crimea from the Ottoman Empire.

• Crimean War (1853–1856): Sevastopol was the site of a major siege by British,
French, and Ottoman forces. Despite a year-long siege, Russia's defense was resilient,
but the city eventually fell.

• World War II: The port played a crucial role in the Eastern Front during the Nazi
German invasion of the Soviet Union. The city was under siege from October 1941 to
July 1942 and was heavily damaged.

• Hero City Status: Sevastopol was awarded the title of "Hero City" by the Soviet
Union in 1945 for its defense during World War II.

• Post-Soviet Period: After the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991, Sevastopol
became part of independent Ukraine, but Russia retained naval basing rights under
a lease agreement.
Explanation:
Geopolitical Significance

Russian Naval Base:

• Sevastopol serves as the headquarters of the Russian Black Sea Fleet.

• The port provides direct access to the Mediterranean Sea through the
Bosporus Strait.

• Russia has historically viewed control over Sevastopol as vital for maintaining
its naval power and influence in the region.
Explanation:
Annexation by Russia (2014):

• After the 2014 annexation of Crimea by Russia, Sevastopol was declared part
of the Russian Federation.

• The annexation has not been internationally recognized and remains a point of
geopolitical tension between Russia, Ukraine, and the West.
Explanation:
Legal and Political Status

• The international community, including the United Nations, recognizes

Crimea (and Sevastopol) as part of Ukraine.

• Despite annexation, Sevastopol remains under Russian control, leading to

ongoing sanctions and diplomatic disputes.
Explanation:
Interesting Facts

• The name "Sevastopol" comes from the Greek words "Sebastos" (venerable)
and "polis" (city), meaning "Venerable City."

• The port rarely freezes, making it valuable for year-round naval operations.

• The Black Sea Fleet has been headquartered in Sevastopol for over 240 years.

• Sevastopol features notable historical sites like the Panorama Museum, the
Monument to the Sunken Ships, and the ruins of the ancient Greek city of
Chersonesus.
33. Neptun Deep was recently in news is related to which of the following

A. Space Exploration mission to Neptune Between ROSCOSMOS & ISRO

B. Offshore natural gas Block

C. New Bitcoin Currency Introduced by a Chinese Based Hacker Group

D. A Military Operation Conducted by French Troops in Sahel Region Against

Insurgents
33. Neptun Deep was recently in news is related to which of the following

A. Space Exploration mission to Neptune Between ROSCOSMOS & ISRO

B. Offshore natural gas Block

C. New Bitcoin Currency Introduced by a Chinese Based Hacker Group

D. A Military Operation Conducted by French Troops in Sahel Region Against

Insurgents
Explanation:
• The Neptun Deep project is a significant offshore natural gas development
located in the Romanian sector of the Black Sea. Jointly operated by OMV
Petrom and Romgaz, each holding a 50% stake, the project is poised to bolster
Romania's energy landscape and position within the European Union's gas
market.

• Location: Approximately 160 kilometers off the Romanian coast, covering an

area of 7,500 square kilometers, with water depths ranging from 100 to 1,000
meters

• Reserves: Estimated to contain around 100 billion cubic meters (bcm) of

recoverable natural gas.
Explanation:
• Investment: The development phase requires an investment of up to €4
billion, shared equally between OMV Petrom and Romgaz.

• The Neptun Deep project is poised to significantly enhance Romania's role in

the European energy sector by increasing domestic gas production and
reducing reliance on external sources. The project's contribution to the EU's
energy diversification efforts is particularly pertinent in light of the ongoing
geopolitical landscape and the bloc's endeavors to diminish dependence on
Russian gas.
34. Partnership for Peace(PfP), Mediterranean Dialogue and Istanbul
Cooperation Initiative are 3 Important Initiatives associated with

A. Ukraine Peace Process

B. Israel Hamas Ceasefire

C. European Union

D. NATO
34. Partnership for Peace(PfP), Mediterranean Dialogue and Istanbul
Cooperation Initiative are 3 Important Initiatives associated with

A. Ukraine Peace Process

B. Israel Hamas Ceasefire

C. European Union

D. NATO
Explanation:
• NATO maintains relations with more than 40 non-member countries and
international organisations, called NATO partners, through following
structures:

• Partnership for Peace(PfP): A programme of bilateral cooperation with

countries in Euro-Atlantic area. It include 18 partner countries, including
Russia (partnerships with Belarus and Russia are currently suspended).

• Mediterranean Dialogue(MD), for countries in the Mediterranean region. o

Istanbul Cooperation Initiative (ICI) for countries in the Middle East region.

• International organisations: NATO cooperates with UN, EU and Organization

for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE)
35. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Water Treaty (1960):

1. The Indus Water Treaty allows India to construct hydroelectric projects on the
western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab) under certain limitations related to
design and water storage.

2. The Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) established under the treaty meets
annually, but its decisions are binding only when both India and Pakistan
ratify them in their respective parliaments.

3. In case of disputes, the treaty provides for both neutral expert assessment and
arbitration through the International Court of Justice (ICJ).

4. The World Bank plays a dual role as a signatory and a guarantor under the
treaty.
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
35. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Water Treaty (1960):

1. The Indus Water Treaty allows India to construct hydroelectric projects on the
western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab) under certain limitations related to
design and water storage.

2. The Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) established under the treaty meets
annually, but its decisions are binding only when both India and Pakistan
ratify them in their respective parliaments.

3. In case of disputes, the treaty provides for both neutral expert assessment and
arbitration through the International Court of Justice (ICJ).

4. The World Bank plays a dual role as a signatory and a guarantor under the
treaty.
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• The Indus Water Treaty allows India to use the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum,
Chenab) for hydroelectric power generation under specific restrictions related
to design and water storage. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• The decisions of the Permanent Indus Commission are not subject to ratification
by parliaments; it functions as a technical body to address issues and maintain
communication between the two countries. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• The treaty provides for dispute resolution through neutral expert assessment
and arbitration by a Court of Arbitration (set up under the treaty), but not the
International Court of Justice (ICJ). Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.

• The World Bank acted as a facilitator during the treaty’s negotiation and
continues to have a role in appointing a neutral expert or a court of arbitration
panel in case of disputes, but it is not a formal signatory. Hence, Statement 4 is
Correct
36. With reference to the recent developments in India-EFTA (European Free
Trade Association) relations, consider the following statements:

1. The EFTA members include Iceland, Norway, Switzerland, and Liechtenstein,

but they are not part of the European Union (EU).

2. Under the India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA),

India has agreed to grant tariff-free access to EFTA members for all
agricultural and dairy products.

3. The TEPA includes provisions for investment commitments from EFTA

nations, with Switzerland agreeing to invest $100 billion in India over the next
15 years.

4. Unlike most FTAs, the India-EFTA TEPA incorporates a dispute resolution

mechanism involving the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• The EFTA consists of Iceland, Norway, Switzerland, and Liechtenstein and
they are not part of the EU. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• While TEPA includes provisions for tariff reductions on certain agricultural

and dairy products, India has not agreed to complete tariff-free access for all
such products due to domestic sensitivities. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• Switzerland and other EFTA members have agreed to invest $100 billion in
India over the next 15 years as part of the TEPA. Hence, Statement 3 is
Correct.

• The dispute resolution mechanism under TEPA involves bilateral

consultations and arbitration, but not the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
Hence, Statement 4 is Incorrect.
37. Consider the following statements regarding to World Food Programme:

1. The World Food Programme (WFP) is addressing hunger and promoting food
security.

2. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.

3. The WFP is funded by the World Bank and the World Health organisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
37. Consider the following statements regarding to World Food Programme:

1. The World Food Programme (WFP) is addressing hunger and promoting food
security.

2. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.

3. The WFP is funded by the World Bank and the World Health organisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The United Nations’ World Food Programme (WFP) has said that it is in
discussions with India on procurement of wheat as several countries face food
security challenges amid the Ukraine war. World Food Programme (WFP)
Formed in 1961.

• The United Nations’ World Food Programme (WFP) is the food assistance
branch of the United Nations and the world’s largest humanitarian
organisation addressing hunger and promoting food security.

• WFP strives to eradicate hunger and malnutrition, with the ultimate goal in
mind of eliminating the need for food aid itself. Hence, Statement 1 is
Correct.

• It is a member of the United Nations Development Group and part of its

Executive Committee.
Explanation:
• WFP food aid is also directed to fight micronutrient deficiencies, reduce child
mortality, improve maternal health, and combat disease, including HIV and
AIDS.

• It works closely with the other two Rome-based UN agencies:

• The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), which helps countries draw
up policy and change legislation to support sustainable agriculture.

• The International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD), which

finances projects in poor rural areas. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct.

• The WFP has no independent source of funds, it is funded entirely by

voluntary donations.

• Its principal donors are governments, but the organisation also receives
donations from the private sector and individuals. Hence, Statement 3 is
Incorrect.
38. Which of the Following Military Exercises are incorrectly paired

A. Hand in Hand- India and Vietnam

B. Ekuverin- India and Maldives

C. Nomadic Elephant- India and Mongolia

D. Garuda Shakti- India and Indonesia

38. Which of the Following Military Exercises are incorrectly paired

A. Hand in Hand- India and Vietnam

B. Ekuverin- India and Maldives

C. Nomadic Elephant- India and Mongolia

D. Garuda Shakti- India and Indonesia

Explanation:
• Hand in Hand Military Exercise -The exercise aims to enrich both the
contingents from each other's experience in counter - terrorism operations.

• Besides counter-terrorism operations, discussions on Humanitarian Assistance

& Disaster Relief (HADR) operations will also be conducted as part of the
exercise.

• The Hand-in-Hand military exercise is a joint military exercise between India

and China.

Objective:

• The exercise focuses on enhancing counter-terrorism cooperation and

improving mutual understanding between the armies of India and China.

• It aims to foster greater trust and collaboration between the two nations
despite ongoing border tensions.
Explanation:
Inception:

• The first Hand-in-Hand exercise was held in 2007 in Kunming, China.

Frequency:

• The exercise was initially held annually, but it has faced interruptions due to
political and military tensions (e.g., after the Doklam standoff in 2017).

• It resumed in 2018 after a two-year gap.

Recent Developments:

• The last Hand in Hand Exercise happened in 2019. It was the 8th Edition of
this exercise.

• It took Place in Meghalaya (Umroi).

Explanation:
Exercise EKUVERIN

• "Ekuverin" means "Friend" in the Dhivehi language (the official language of

the Maldives). "

• The exercise focuses on enhancing interoperability between the armed forces

of India and the Maldives.

• It aims to strengthen cooperation in counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism

operations in a semi-urban environment.

• The exercise also includes training in humanitarian assistance and disaster

relief operations.

• The first edition was held in 2009.

Explanation:
Exercise Nomadic Elephant

Objective:

• The exercise focuses on improving interoperability between the armies of India

and Mongolia.

• It involves joint training in counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations

under a United Nations mandate.

• It also includes training in jungle warfare and mountain warfare.

• Inception: The first edition of the exercise was held in 2004.

• Frequency: It is held annually on a rotational basis between India and Mongolia.

• The 16th edition of India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT

was conducted at Foreign Training Node, Umroi (Meghalaya). The Exercise was
scheduled to be conducted from 03rd to 16th July 2024.
Explanation:
Exercise Garuda Shakti

Objective:

• The exercise focuses on improving interoperability and strengthening military

cooperation between the armies of India and Indonesia.

• It involves joint training in:

o Counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations.

o Jungle warfare and urban warfare scenarios.

o Conducting operations under a United Nations mandate.

o Disaster response and casualty evacuation.

o Inception: The first edition of the exercise was held in 2012.

• Frequency: It is conducted annually on a rotational basis between India and

Indonesia.
39. Consider the Following statements

1. Organized Crime & Terrorism both acts are born out of Political Motives.

2. While organized crime cannot be committed by a single person while a

terrorist act can be.

3. United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime is the only

international convention against Organized Crime.

Which of the above statement/s are Correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 1&2 Only

C. 2&3 Only

D. 3 Only
39. Consider the Following statements

1. Organized Crime & Terrorism both acts are born out of Political Motives.

2. While organized crime cannot be committed by a single person while a

terrorist act can be.

3. United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime is the only

international convention against Organized Crime.

Which of the above statement/s are Correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 1&2 Only

C. 2&3 Only

D. 3 Only
Explanation:
• Terrorism is another form of "organized" criminal behaviour, but it is distinct
from organized crime.

• In general terms, terrorism involves crimes committed with the objective of

intimidating a population or compelling a government or international
organization with a view to achieving political or social objectives.

• Organized crime, on the other hand, always seeks to obtain a financial or other
material benefit, whereas power and control can be secondary motives.
Hence, Option 1 is Incorrect.

• The definition of "organized criminal group" in the Organized Crime

Convention only includes groups that through their activities seek to obtain,
directly or indirectly, a "financial or other material benefit." Hence, Statement
2 is Correct
Explanation:
• Another important element of distinction between these two crimes is that by
definition, organized crime cannot be committed by a single person while a
terrorist act can be.

• UNTOC is the guardian of the United Nations Convention against

Transnational Organised Crime.

• There are three additional Protocols (Trafficking in Persons, Smuggling of

Migrants and Trafficking of Firearms) that supplement it.

• This is the only international convention which deals with organised crime.
Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.
40. Raja-Jooseppi checkpoint was in the news recently. It is a border point
located in the middle of the Lapland region which connects:

A. Finland—Russia

B. Finland—Norway

C. Sweden—Norway

D. Belarus—Russia
40. Raja-Jooseppi checkpoint was in the news recently. It is a border point
located in the middle of the Lapland region which connects:

A. Finland—Russia

B. Finland—Norway

C. Sweden—Norway

D. Belarus—Russia
Explanation:
• Russia threatened retaliation when Finland joined NATO earlier this year.
Hundreds of migrants from the Middle East and Africa have arrived at
Finland’s border from Russia, hoping to gain entry into the Nordic country.

• The Raja-Jooseppi checkpoint in the Arctic north. It is the northernmost

Finland-Russia border point located in the middle of wilderness in the
Lapland region, about 155 miles (250 kilometers) from Russia’s Arctic city of
Murmansk.

• There has long been a trickle of asylum-seekers showing up at border

checkpoints in Finland, which is the European Union’s easternmost member.

• But this month saw a sudden surge. According to official statistics, more than
900 migrants have arrived in Finland so far since August, more than 800 in
November alone.
Explanation:
• Finnish authorities say they hail from countries including Syria, Yemen,
Somalia, Iraq and Afghanistan, and that unlike in the past, the Russian
authorities let them get that far even though they lack documents.

• Migration pressure pushes democracies to abandon some of their democratic

commitment to giving people seeking asylum the right to seek protection,
thereby exposing fragility of democratic systems.

• Europe has been under heavy migration pressure for years, triggering a
backlash in many places against migrants that has also strengthened far-right
parties
41. Which of the following countries are not Partner Countries of BRICS?

1. Belarus

2. Algeria

3. Hungary

4. Kazakhstan

5. Malaysia

Choose the Correct Option

A. 1,3,5

B. 1,4,5

C. 2&3

D. None of the Above

41. Which of the following countries are not Partner Countries of BRICS?

1. Belarus

2. Algeria

3. Hungary

4. Kazakhstan

5. Malaysia

Choose the Correct Option

A. 1,3,5

B. 1,4,5

C. 2&3

D. None of the Above

Explanation:
• In January 2025, BRICS introduced a new category of "partner countries,"
expanding its collaborative framework. The nations granted this status include:

o Belarus

o Bolivia

o Cuba

o Kazakhstan

o Malaysia

o Nigeria

o Thailand

o Uganda

o Uzbekistan
Explanation:
• The concept of "Partner Countries" was introduced in January 2025 as part of
BRICS' expansion strategy to enhance its global reach and influence.

• It allows BRICS to engage with additional countries without granting them full
membership, thereby expanding its political and economic influence while
maintaining the core structure of the original bloc.

• Partner countries are not full members but are allowed to engage with BRICS on
specific issues such as trade, investment, technology, and political dialogue.

• This allows BRICS to expand its influence without the formal and structural
challenges of adding new full members.

• As of April 1, 2025, Turkey, Vietnam, and Algeria have not officially confirmed
their status as BRICS partner countries. They Are Potential Partner Countries.
Hence, Algeria & Hungary are not Partner Members of BRICS.
42. Which of the following Ports are a part of China’s Maritime Silk Road
Project?

1. Chancay Port

2. Mombasa Port

3. Piraeus Port

4. Haifa Port

5. Jebel Ali Port

Choose the Correct Answer from the Options Given Below

A. 1,2,3

B. 1,4,5

C. 1&2

D. All of the Above

42. Which of the following Ports are a part of China’s Maritime Silk Road
Project?

1. Chancay Port

2. Mombasa Port

3. Piraeus Port

4. Haifa Port

5. Jebel Ali Port

Choose the Correct Answer from the Options Given Below

A. 1,2,3

B. 1,4,5

C. 1&2

D. All of the Above

Explanation:
China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) has led to significant investments and
developments in numerous international ports, enhancing global trade
connectivity. Notable examples include:

• Gwadar Port, Pakistan: A cornerstone of the China-Pakistan Economic

Corridor, providing China with direct access to the Arabian Sea.

• Kyaukpyu Port, Myanmar: Strategically located to offer China a direct route to

the Indian Ocean, bypassing the Strait of Malacca.

• Hambantota Port, Sri Lanka: Developed under a 99-year lease, enhancing

China's presence in the Indian Ocean region.

• Chancay Port, Peru: A $3.6 billion megaport developed by China's Cosco

Shipping, aiming to transform trade routes between South America and Asia.
Explanation:
• Piraeus Port, Greece: Transformed into a major European entry point for
Chinese goods through significant Chinese investment.

• Lomé Container Terminal, Togo: Developed and operated by China Merchants

Port, enhancing trade in West Africa.

• Djibouti Port, Djibouti: Hosting Chinese military and commercial facilities,

strategically located near the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.

• Haifa Port, Israel: Operated by Shanghai International Port Group,

strengthening China's foothold in the Mediterranean.

• Jebel Ali Port, UAE: Collaborations with Chinese firms have integrated this
port into the BRI network.
Explanation:
• Mubarak Al Kabeer Port, Kuwait: Part of Kuwait's Silk City project, developed
under the BRI framework.

• Hence, All the Ports Mentioned in the Question are Part of China’s Belt and
Road Initiative.
43. The Aegean Sea dispute, often seen in international news, primarily
involves which of the following countries?

A. Greece and Turkey

B. Greece and Italy

C. Turkey and Cyprus

D. Greece and Albania

43. The Aegean Sea dispute, often seen in international news, primarily
involves which of the following countries?

A. Greece and Turkey

B. Greece and Italy

C. Turkey and Cyprus

D. Greece and Albania

Explanation:
The Aegean Sea dispute primarily involves Greece and Turkey. The conflict
revolves around issues related to territorial waters, airspace, maritime boundaries,
and the demilitarization of certain islands. Both countries lay claim to overlapping
areas, leading to frequent tensions and diplomatic standoffs.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Economic Importance of Aegean Sea

• Vital for shipping and trade between Europe and Asia.

• Rich in marine biodiversity and fishing grounds.

• Potential hydrocarbon reserves (oil and gas) have recently drawn attention.
44. Which of the Following African Countries do not touch Coastline with
Mediterranean Sea?

A. Egypt

B. Libya

C. Tunisia,

D. Western Sahara
44. Which of the Following African Countries do not touch Coastline with
Mediterranean Sea?

A. Egypt

B. Libya

C. Tunisia,

D. Western Sahara
Explanation:
Countries Bordering Mediterranean Sea

• Europe:

o Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina,

Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Malta, Cyprus

• Asia:

o Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine

• Africa:

o Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, Morocco

45. Which of the following is not a NATO Military Exercise?

A. Steadfast Defender

B. Nordic Response

C. Dynamic Mariner

D. Pitch Black
45. Which of the following is not a NATO Military Exercise?

A. Steadfast Defender

B. Nordic Response

C. Dynamic Mariner

D. Pitch Black
Explanation:
• Steadfast Defender 2024: Held from January to May 2024, this was NATO's
largest military exercise since the Cold War, involving over 90,000 troops from
all 32 NATO Allies. The exercise demonstrated the strong bond between
NATO members and focused on the rapid deployment of North American
troops across the Atlantic to Europe, integrating with European forces. Hence,
Option A is Correct

• Nordic Response 2024: Conducted from March 4 to 15, 2024, in Norway,

Sweden, and Finland, this exercise involved over 20,000 troops from 13
nations. It focused on operating in Arctic conditions and marked the first time
Finland and Sweden participated as NATO members. Hence, Option B is
Correct.
Explanation:
• Dynamic Mariner 25: Scheduled for March 24 to April 4, 2025, in Spain, this
live exercise aims to validate the interoperability of the Allied Reaction Force's
maritime components and serves as a certification venue for the Maritime
Forces designated as ARF25 Maritime Component Command. Hence, Option
C is Correct.

• Exercise Pitch Black is a biennial multinational air combat exercise hosted by

the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF) in Northern Australia, primarily at
RAAF Bases Darwin and Tindal. The exercise focuses on large-force
employment missions, enhancing interoperability among participating air
forces through simulated combat scenarios. The most recent iteration, Exercise
Pitch Black 24, took place from July 12 to August 2, 2024. It was the largest in
the exercise's 43-year history, involving 20 nations and over 140 aircraft, with
approximately 4,435 personnel participating. Hence, Option D is Incorrect.
46. Consider the Following Statements with Regard to Baltic Sea

1. The Baltic Sea is an arm of the Atlantic Ocean, but it has very limited water
exchange with it.

2. This makes it an inland sea with low salinity and different marine life.

Choose the Incorrect Statement/s from the Options Given Below

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are Correct

D. Both are Incorrect

46. Consider the Following Statements with Regard to Baltic Sea

1. The Baltic Sea is an arm of the Atlantic Ocean, but it has very limited water
exchange with it.

2. This makes it an inland sea with low salinity and different marine life.

Choose the Incorrect Statement/s from the Options Given Below

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are Correct

D. Both are Incorrect

Explanation:
• The Baltic Sea is a unique body of water that connects many countries and
cultures in northern Europe.

• It is a remnant of the ancient glacial landscape that shaped the region.

• The Baltic Sea is one of the largest brackish (low-salinity) seas in the world,
located in Northern Europe. It is almost entirely enclosed by several countries,
including Sweden, Denmark, Finland, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania,
Poland, and Germany. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct.
Explanation:
Reasons for Low Salinity

• Limited Exchange with the North Sea: The Baltic Sea is connected to the North
Sea (Arm of Atlantic Ocean) via narrow straits (Kattegat, Skagerrak, and
Øresund), restricting the inflow of saline water. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• High Freshwater Influx: It receives freshwater from around 200 rivers,

including the Vistula, Oder, Neva, and Daugava.

• Low Evaporation Rate: Due to its northern location, the evaporation rate is
relatively low compared to the influx of freshwater.

• Ice Cover: During winter, ice formation also reduces salinity in the northern
parts.
Explanation:
Geographical Connection

• The Baltic Sea is almost entirely enclosed by Northern and Eastern European
countries. It is connected to the Atlantic Ocean indirectly through a series of
narrow straits:

• Danish Straits (Kattegat, Skagerrak, and Øresund): These straits connect the
Baltic Sea to the North Sea, which is an integral part of the Atlantic Ocean.

• The connection through these straits makes the Baltic Sea a semi-enclosed sea,
acting as an arm or extension of the Atlantic.
47. Which of the Following Ports in Black Sea have are Correctly Paired?

A. Constanta- Bulgaria

B. Sevastapol- Ukraine

C. Burgas- Romania

D. Samsun- Turkey
47. Which of the Following Ports in Black Sea have are Correctly Paired?

A. Constanta- Bulgaria

B. Sevastapol- Ukraine

C. Burgas- Romania

D. Samsun- Turkey
Explanation:
Explanation:
• Constanța, Romania: As the largest port on the Black Sea, Constanța serves as
a crucial hub for trade and transportation, connecting Central and Eastern
Europe to Asia and the Middle East. Hence, Option A is Incorrect

• Odessa, Ukraine: A vital port facilitating Ukraine's grain exports and other
goods, playing a significant role in the country's economy.

• Novorossiysk, Russia: One of Russia's primary ports on the Black Sea,

handling a substantial portion of the nation's maritime trade, including oil and
grain exports.
Explanation:
• Varna and Burgas, Bulgaria: These ports are essential for Bulgaria's trade
activities, serving as key points for the import and export of goods. Hence,
Option C is Incorrect.

• Sevastopol, Crimea: Home to the Russian Black Sea Fleet, Sevastopol is a

significant naval base that underscores Russia's military presence in the region.
Hence, Option B is Incorrect.

• Trabzon and Samsun, Turkey: Important Turkish ports that facilitate regional
trade and commerce along the Black Sea coast. Hence, Option D is Correct.
48. Which of the Following Statements are Correct With Regard to the North
Sea?

1. It is one of the most important fishing grounds globally.

2. It also hosts two of the world’s largest ports (Hamburg and Rotterdam).

3. English Channel connects it to the Atlantic Ocean.

Choose the Correct Answer from the Code Mentioned Below

A. 1 only

B. 2 Only

C. 3 only

D. All Three Statements Are Correct.

48. Which of the Following Statements are Correct With Regard to the North
Sea?

1. It is one of the most important fishing grounds globally.

2. It also hosts two of the world’s largest ports (Hamburg and Rotterdam).

3. English Channel connects it to the Atlantic Ocean.

Choose the Correct Answer from the Code Mentioned Below

A. 1 only

B. 2 Only

C. 3 only

D. All Three Statements Are Correct.

Explanation:
Facts on North Sea

• Located in Northern Europe, bordered by the UK (to the west), Norway (to the
northeast), Denmark (to the east), Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and
France (to the south).
Explanation:
Explanation:
• It is a relatively shallow and enclosed sea located in Northwestern Europe.

• It is considered to be a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean.

• The North Sea connects to the Atlantic Ocean via the Norwegian Sea in the
north and the English Channel in the south. Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.

• It also hosts two of the world’s largest ports (Hamburg and Rotterdam).
Hence, Statement 2 is Correct

• It is one of the most important fishing grounds globally. Hence, Statement 1

is Correct.

• North Sea is Connected to the Baltic Sea via the Dannish Straits- (Kattegat,
Skagerrak, and Øresund).
Explanation:
49. Which of the following Dams have not been Built by China on the
Brahmaputra River?

A. Zangmu

B. Baihetan

C. Medog

D. Jiacha
49. Which of the following Dams have not been Built by China on the
Brahmaputra River?

A. Zangmu

B. Baihetan

C. Medog

D. Jiacha
Explanation:
China has embarked on several hydropower projects along the Yarlung Zangbo
River (known as the Brahmaputra in India), raising concerns among downstream
nations, particularly India and Bangladesh.

• Zangmu Dam: Operational since October 2015, this gravity dam is located in
Tibet and has a capacity of 510 MW. It marked China's first hydropower
project on the Brahmaputra.

• Dagu, Jiexu, and Jiacha Dams: These dams are either completed or under
construction on the Brahmaputra's upper reaches, aiming to harness the river's
hydropower potential.

• Medog Hydropower Station: Approved in December 2024, this ambitious

project is set to become the world's largest hydropower dam.

• Located near the Great Bend of the Yarlung Zangbo, it is expected to generate
approximately 300 billion kilowatt-hours annually, surpassing the Three
Gorges Dam.
Explanation:
Baihetan Dam

• The Baihetan Dam is one of the world's largest and most significant
hydropower projects, constructed by China.

• Location: Situated on the Jinsha River, which is the upper stretch of the
Yangtze River in Southwest China.

• Provinces Covered: The dam is located at the border of Sichuan and Yunnan
provinces.

• Completion: Construction started in 2017 and was completed in 2021, with full
operation starting in 2022.
Explanation:
• The Baihetan Dam is the second-largest hydropower plant globally after the
Three Gorges Dam.

• It plays a crucial role in China’s efforts to transition to renewable energy and

reduce carbon emissions.

• Hence, Option B is Incorrect.

50. Identify the Correct pair of Natural Gas Block with the Country where it is
Situated

1. Rovuma Gas Field- Tanzania

2. Neptuna Deep- Romania

3. Sakariya Gas Field- Turkey

Choose the Correct Option from the Code given Below

A. 1 Only

B. 2&3

C. 1&3

D. None of the Above

50. Identify the Correct pair of Natural Gas Block with the Country where it is
Situated

1. Rovuma Gas Field- Tanzania

2. Neptuna Deep- Romania

3. Sakariya Gas Field- Turkey

Choose the Correct Option from the Code given Below

A. 1 Only

B. 2&3

C. 1&3

D. None of the Above

Explanation:
The Rovuma offshore gas field is a significant natural gas reserve located in the
Rovuma Basin, off the northern coast of Mozambique in the Cabo Delgado
Province. Discovered in the early 2010s, this basin is recognized as one of the
world's most substantial gas discoveries in recent years. Hence, Pair 1 is
Incorrectly Paired.
Explanation:
Romania's Offshore Gas Project: Romania initiated drilling operations in the
Neptun Deep offshore gas project, one of the European Union's largest gas
deposits. Hence, Pair 2 is Correctly Paired.
Explanation:
Turkey's discoveries in the Sakarya and other fields position it as a significant
deep-water gas producer. The latest discovery in the Caycuma-1 field and the
expansion of estimated Sakarya gas reserves offer a substantial opportunity for
energy security and reduced dependence on gas imports, transforming Turkey's
energy landscape. Hence, Pair 3 is Correctly Matched.
51. Consider the Following Statements with regard to India’s Neighborhood
First Policy (NFP)

1. India’s ‘NFP guides its approach towards the management of relations with
countries in its immediate & extended neighbourhood (Including Central Asia
& South East Asia)

2. Operation Dost & Operation Brahma are a part of India’s response to her
Neighbours as a part of it’s NFP.

Which of the Following Statement/s are Correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1&2

D. Both are Incorrect

51. Consider the Following Statements with regard to India’s Neighborhood
First Policy (NFP)

1. India’s ‘NFP guides its approach towards the management of relations with
countries in its immediate & extended neighbourhood (Including Central Asia
& South East Asia)

2. Operation Dost & Operation Brahma are a part of India’s response to her
Neighbours as a part of it’s NFP.

Which of the Following Statement/s are Correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1&2

D. Both are Incorrect

Explanation:
• India’s ‘NFP guides its approach towards the management of relations with
countries in its immediate neighbourhood. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• Countries part of NFP: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Myanmar,

Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

• Aim: To enhance physical, digital and people to people connectivity across the
region, as well as augmenting trade and commerce.

• While Operation Brahma is a Humanitarian response by The Indian Army for

the relief operations Post the Devastating Earthquake in Myanmar (March
2025), Operation Dost was a Humanitarian Relief Operation for the
Earthquake Torn Turkey & Syria in 2023 by The Indian Army. Hence
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
52. Which among the following countries were the 1st recipient of India’s
Vaccine Maitri diplomacy during COVID-19?

A. Bangladesh & Bhutan

B. Sri Lanka & Maldives

C. Bhutan & Nepal

D. Maldives & Bhutan

52. Which among the following countries were the 1st recipient of India’s
Vaccine Maitri diplomacy during COVID-19?

A. Bangladesh & Bhutan

B. Sri Lanka & Maldives

C. Bhutan & Nepal

D. Maldives & Bhutan

Explanation:
• Vaccine Maitri was India’s humanitarian initiative launched in January 2021 to
supply COVID-19 vaccines to countries around the world. It showcased India's
leadership in global health diplomacy and its commitment to the concept of
Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (the world is one family).

• India's first consignments of vaccines were sent on 20th January 2021 to-
Bhutan & Maldives.

• These two nations received Covishield vaccines as a goodwill gesture, even

before India rolled out mass domestic vaccination

• Hence, Option D is Answer

53. Which of the following Country has a Major Defence partner Status with
USA?

A. Saudi Arabia

B. UAE

C. Israel

D. Australia
53. Which of the following Country has a Major Defence partner Status with
USA?

A. Saudi Arabia

B. UAE

C. Israel

D. Australia
Explanation:
The United States has granted Major Defense Partner status to only two countries:

• India – Designated in 2016, this status enables India to access advanced U.S.
defense technologies and fosters deeper military cooperation between the two
nations.

• United Arab Emirates (UAE) – Designated in 2024, the UAE became the
second country to receive this status, enhancing defense collaboration and
security ties in the Middle East and surrounding regions.

• This designation is distinct from the Major Non-NATO Ally (MNNA) status,
which has been granted to several countries, including Kenya in 2024.
Explanation:
Major NON NATO Allies

• A major non-NATO ally (MNNA) is a designation given by the United States

government to countries that have strategic working relationships with the
United States Armed Forces while not being members of the North Atlantic
Treaty Organization (NATO).

• While the status does not automatically constitute a mutual defense pact (as
would be the case through NATO membership) with the United States, it does
confer a variety of military and financial advantages that are otherwise
unobtainable by non-NATO countries. Australia & Israel are 2 Major NON
NATO allies.

• Hence, Option B is answer.

54. Mission 500 was recently in the news and is related to which of the
following?

A. Planting 500 Million tress as a part of India’s efforts towards Achieving its
climate change targets towards 2030.

B. India aiming to more than double total bilateral trade with USA to $500 billion
by 2030.

C. Achieving Target of 500 Semiconductor Sector Start Ups in India in the FY

2025-26

D. A Blueprint Laid down by India & Bangladesh to Restore 500 Mangroves

across the Brahmaputra River between both the countries.
54. Mission 500 was recently in the news and is related to which of the
following?

A. Planting 500 Million tress as a part of India’s efforts towards Achieving its
climate change targets towards 2030.

B. India aiming to more than double total bilateral trade with USA to $500
billion by 2030.

C. Achieving Target of 500 Semiconductor Sector Start Ups in India in the FY

2025-26

D. A Blueprint Laid down by India & Bangladesh to Restore 500 Mangroves

across the Brahmaputra River between both the countries.
Explanation:
• Mission 500 is a strategic initiative jointly launched by India and the United
States in February 2025, aiming to more than double their bilateral trade to
$500 billion by 2030. This ambitious goal was announced during Prime
Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Washington, D.C., where he met with U.S.
President Donald Trump.

• Expand Trade and Investment: Both nations resolved to deepen their trade
relationship to promote growth that ensures fairness, national security, and job
creation.
Explanation:
• Negotiate a Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA): Plans were announced to
negotiate the first tranche of a mutually beneficial, multi-sector BTA by fall
2025.

• Launch the US-India Compact for the 21st Century: This initiative aims to
accelerate cooperation in military partnerships, commerce, and technology.

• Enhance Market Access and Reduce Trade Barriers: Efforts will focus on
increasing market access, reducing tariff and non-tariff barriers, and deepening
supply chain integration. Hence, Option B is Answer.
55. With reference to the convention on supplementary compensation for
nuclear damage (CSC), consider the following statements:

1. The CSC seeks to establish a uniform global legal regime for compensation to
victims of nuclear accidents.

2. Only countries that are members of the International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA) are eligible to join the CSC.

3. India ratified the CSC after incorporating changes to its domestic liability law
to limit supplier liability.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three are Correct

D. None of the Above

55. With reference to the convention on supplementary compensation for
nuclear damage (CSC), consider the following statements:

1. The CSC seeks to establish a uniform global legal regime for compensation to
victims of nuclear accidents.

2. Only countries that are members of the International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA) are eligible to join the CSC.

3. India ratified the CSC after incorporating changes to its domestic liability law
to limit supplier liability.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three are Correct

D. None of the Above

Explanation:
• The Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC) aims at establishing a
minimum national compensation amount and at further increasing the amount
of compensation through public funds to be made available by the Contracting
Parties should the national amount be insufficient to compensate the damage
caused by a nuclear incident.

• The Convention is open not only to States that are party to either the Vienna
Convention on Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage or the Paris Convention on
Third Party Liability in the Field of Nuclear Energy (including any
amendments to either), but also to other States provided that their national
legislation is consistent with uniform rules on civil liability laid down in the
Annex to the Convention.
Explanation:
• CSC does aim to create a uniform global legal framework to address liability
and compensation in case of nuclear accidents. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• Membership in the IAEA is not a prerequisite to join the CSC. Any state that
meets the CSC's criteria and enacts the required domestic legislation can join.
Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• India ratified CSC in 2016 after addressing concerns related to the Civil
Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (2010), particularly around supplier liability.
Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.
Explanation:
India & CSC

• CSC enabled India to align with international nuclear liability standards.

• India’s Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLND), 2010 includes Section
17(b) allowing recourse against suppliers, which was a sticking point with
international firms.

• Ratification helped operationalize the Indo–US Civil Nuclear Deal by reducing

legal uncertainty for foreign nuclear suppliers.
56. AI Action Summit 2025 was conducted recently in collaboration between
which two countries?

A. India & USA

B. India & France

C. UK & USA

D. EU & India
56. AI Action Summit 2025 was conducted recently in collaboration between
which two countries?

A. India & USA

B. India & France

C. UK & USA

D. EU & India
Explanation:
• The AI Action Summit was co-hosted by France and India on February 10–11,
2025, at the Grand Palais in Paris. It was co-chaired by French President
Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

• The AI Action Summit, organized by France in Paris, with UNESCO as a key

participant, aimed to ensure that the development and deployment of AI
benefits societies, economies, and the environment, in the interest of the
common good.

• The Summit witnessed participation from Heads of State/Government, Heads

of International Organizations, and business leaders from the field.

• France supported India as the host of the next AI Action Summit.

57. State of World’s Children is a flagship initiative by which Organization?

A. UNICEF

B. WHO

C. UNDP

D. World Economic Forum

57. State of World’s Children is a flagship initiative by which Organization?

A. UNICEF

B. WHO

C. UNDP

D. World Economic Forum

Explanation:
• UNICEF’s longest-standing flagship publications are State of the World’s
Children and the UNICEF Annual Report. Each edition of the State of the
World’s Children focuses on a vital issue or sector affecting children and
young people around the globe. This research-based publication also features
statistical tables with the latest available statistics on child survival,
development and protection in every country, territory and region

• Each State of the World's Children (SOWC) examines a key issue affecting
children. These have ranged from children with disabilities, conflict and war,
child labour, urbanization, early childhood development, and much more,
making it the most comprehensive analysis of global trends that impact
children.
58. Which of the Following Countries are not part of The Kurdistan Region

1. Syria

2. Iraq

3. Azerbaijan

4. Turkmenistan

5. Tajikistan

How many of the Countries are not part of The Kurdistan Region?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. Only Three

D. All Four
58. Which of the Following Countries are not part of The Kurdistan Region

1. Syria

2. Iraq

3. Azerbaijan

4. Turkmenistan

5. Tajikistan

How many of the Countries are not part of The Kurdistan Region?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. Only Three

D. All Four
Explanation:
• Between 25 and 35 million Kurds inhabit a mountainous region straddling the
borders of Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran and Armenia.

• They make up the fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East, but they
have never obtained a permanent nation state.

• Today, they form a distinctive community, united through race, culture and
language, even though they have no standard dialect.

• They also adhere to a number of different religions and creeds, although the
majority are Sunni Muslims.

• Hence, Azerbaijan, Turkmenistan & Tajikistan are not a part of The

Kurdistan Region
Explanation:
59. Which of the following releases The Global Competitiveness report?

A. UNESCO

B. World Bank

C. IMF

D. WEF
59. Which of the following releases The Global Competitiveness report?

A. UNESCO

B. World Bank

C. IMF

D. WEF
Explanation:
• The Global Competitiveness Report is an annual publication by the World
Economic Forum that assesses institutions, policies, and other macro and
microeconomic fundamentals that affect a country’s economic productivity
and efficiency.

• The Global Competitiveness Index (GCI), developed by the World Economic

Forum (WEF), was published annually until 2020. It assessed the
competitiveness landscape of economies, providing insight into the drivers of
productivity and prosperity.

• However, the WEF has not released a new edition of the Global
Competitiveness Report since 2020. The last available report is the 2020
edition.
60. With reference to the World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the
following statements:

1. The WTO allows member countries to impose export bans on food products
citing domestic food security under the Agreement on Agriculture.

2. India has been a consistent supporter of the Permanent Solution on Public

Stockholding for Food Security Purposes at the WTO.

3. The Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) of the WTO allows for appellate review
even when the Appellate Body is non-functional.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
60. With reference to the World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the
following statements:

1. The WTO allows member countries to impose export bans on food products
citing domestic food security under the Agreement on Agriculture.

2. India has been a consistent supporter of the Permanent Solution on Public

Stockholding for Food Security Purposes at the WTO.

3. The Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) of the WTO allows for appellate review
even when the Appellate Body is non-functional.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• The Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) does not explicitly allow export bans;
such provisions fall under the General Agreement on Trade in Goods (GATT)
Article XI and Article XX, and the Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS)
Agreement, with tight conditions. WTO disciplines such bans, and there have
been disputes on this. Hence, statement 1 is Incorrect.

• India has consistently demanded a Permanent Solution on Public

Stockholding, especially for schemes like the National Food Security Act,
arguing that current subsidy limits are unfair to developing nations. Hence,
statement 2 is Correct.

• Despite the Appellate Body being non-functional since 2019 due to the US
blocking appointments, first-level dispute resolution continues. However, ad
hoc arrangements like the Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration
Arrangement (MPIA) allow appellate review among willing members. Hence,
statement 3 is Correct.
61. Which of the following Countries is not a part of Horn of Africa

A. Somalia

B. Sudan

C. Eritrea

D. Djibouti
61. Which of the following Countries is not a part of Horn of Africa

A. Somalia

B. Sudan

C. Eritrea

D. Djibouti
Explanation:
The Horn of Africa is a region in East Africa that includes the countries of:

• Somalia – Capital: Mogadishu

• Ethiopia – Capital: Addis Ababa

• Eritrea – Capital: Asmara

• Djibouti – Capital: Djibouti City

62. Identify the country-

This is the third largest country in Africa by size has seen repeated pro-democracy
protests since the coup which happened in 2019. Presently, this country is in the
middle of a civil war between its armed forces and paramilitary forces. Which
of the following is this Country?

A. Niger

B. Mali

C. South Sudan

D. Sudan
62. Identify the country-

This is the third largest country in Africa by size has seen repeated pro-democracy
protests since the coup which happened in 2019. Presently, this country is in the
middle of a civil war between its armed forces and paramilitary forces. Which
of the following is this Country?

A. Niger

B. Mali

C. South Sudan

D. Sudan
Explanation:
Army chief Lt Gen Abdel Fattah al-Burhan and commander of the paramilitary
Rapid Support Forces Mohamed Hamdan Dagalo are at odds with each other
over the proposed transition to civilian rule.
Country Profile of Sudan

Feature Details
Official Name Republic of the Sudan
Capital Khartoum
Location Northeast Africa; bordered by Egypt (north), Eritrea & Red Sea
(east), Ethiopia (southeast), South Sudan (south), Central African
Republic (southwest), Chad (west), and Libya (northwest)

Area ~1.88 million sq. km (3rd largest in Africa)

Population ~46 million (approx., 2024)
Language Arabic (official), English
Religion Islam (majority), with small Christian and indigenous religious
minorities
Currency Sudanese Pound (SDG)
Climate Desert and semi-arid in the north, tropical in the south
Major Rivers Nile River (White Nile & Blue Nile merge in Khartoum)
63. Identify the correct Statement from the following

A. Lakshadweep group is separated from the Maldives by Ten Degree Channel.

B. Doklam & Demchok are 2 important Friction Points in the Ladakh Sector on
the LAC.

C. Gelephu is positioned to become a gateway connecting Bhutan to the world

and shaping the nation's future.

D. Operation 1027 was a Counter Insurgency Operation Conducted by Indian

Army & ITBP in Nagaland.
63. Identify the correct Statement from the following

A. Lakshadweep group is separated from the Maldives by Ten Degree Channel.

B. Doklam & Demchok are 2 important Friction Points in the Ladakh Sector on
the LAC.

C. Gelephu is positioned to become a gateway connecting Bhutan to the world

and shaping the nation's future.

D. Operation 1027 was a Counter Insurgency Operation Conducted by Indian

Army & ITBP in Nagaland.
Explanation:
• Maldives’ proximity to the west coast of India - Maldives is barely 70 nautical
miles away from Minicoy the southernmost island of Lakshadweep.

• Lakshadweep group is separated from the Maldives by Eight Degree Channel.

Hence, Option A is Incorrect.

• While Doklam is at the Tri-junction of India, Bhutan, and China (Sikkim-

Bhutan-Tibet) and the Dispute is Between Bhutan and China (India
intervenes due to strategic concern), Demchok is located in Southeastern
Ladakh, near Line of Actual Control (LAC). Demchok is a friction point
between India & China at the LAC. Hence, Option B is Incorrect

• Gelephu is envisioned as more than an economic center; it is positioned to

become a gateway connecting Bhutan to the world and shaping the nation's
future. Hence, Option C is Correct.
Explanation:
Operation 1027 was a significant military offensive launched on October 27, 2023,
by the Three Brotherhood Alliance—comprising the Myanmar National
Democratic Alliance Army (MNDAA), Ta'ang National Liberation Army
(TNLA), and Arakan Army (AA)—against Myanmar’s military junta. This
operation marked a pivotal shift in the ongoing civil war that began after the
2021 military coup. Hence Operation D is Incorrect.
64. Identify the Incorrect Port

1. Port Berbera- Black Sea

2. Gwadar Port- Persian Gulf

3. Hamburg Port- Baltic Sea

4. Valparaíso- Pacific Ocean

How many of the above mentioned are Incorrectly paired Ports

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. Only Three

D. All Four
64. Identify the Incorrect Port

1. Port Berbera- Black Sea

2. Gwadar Port- Persian Gulf

3. Hamburg Port- Baltic Sea

4. Valparaíso- Pacific Ocean

How many of the above mentioned are Incorrectly paired Ports

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. Only Three

D. All Four
Explanation:
Port Berbera is a strategically important deep-water port located in Somaliland, a
self-declared autonomous region in northern Somalia. It coordinates Near the
southern entrance to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, a chokepoint between the Red Sea
and Gulf of Aden. Recently, Somaliland allowed Ethiopia to access Port Berbera.
Hence, Option 1 is Incorrectly Paired
Explanation:
Gwadar port opens up into the Arabian Sea and not the Persian Gulf and this port
is situated in Baluchistan Province of Pakistan. Hence, Option 2 is Incorrectly
Paired
Explanation:
Hamburg Port is Known as “Germany’s Gateway to the World” and it is 3rd
largest port in Europe located near the North Sea on the Elbe River. Hence Option
3 is Incorrectly Paired.
Explanation:
Valparaíso is often confused as a riverine port — but it's a coastal natural harbor
on the Pacific Ocean, not located on any major river. Valparaíso played an
important geopolitical role in the second half of the 19th century when it served as
a major stopover for ships traveling between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans via
the Straits of Magellan
65. With reference to the World Bank and its associated institutions, consider
the following statements:

1. The International Development Association (IDA) extends concessional loans

and grants only to countries eligible under the Heavily Indebted Poor
Countries (HIPC) initiative.

2. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) raises

most of its funds through member country contributions rather than global
bond markets.

3. The World Bank as an institution does not finance military expenditures,

tobacco-related activities, or nuclear power projects, regardless of the
borrowing country’s domestic policies.

4. The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID),

though part of the World Bank Group, is not legally or financially accountable
to the World Bank.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only
65. With reference to the World Bank and its associated institutions, consider
the following statements:

1. The International Development Association (IDA) extends concessional loans

and grants only to countries eligible under the Heavily Indebted Poor
Countries (HIPC) initiative.

2. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) raises

most of its funds through member country contributions rather than global
bond markets.

3. The World Bank as an institution does not finance military expenditures,

tobacco-related activities, or nuclear power projects, regardless of the
borrowing country’s domestic policies.

4. The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID),

though part of the World Bank Group, is not legally or financially accountable
to the World Bank.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
● IDA offers concessional financing to low-income countries in general, not just
those under HIPC. HIPC is a separate IMF–World Bank initiative. Hence,
Statement 1 is Incorrect.

● IBRD raises most of its funds by issuing AAA-rated bonds in the international
capital markets, not primarily through member contributions. Hence,
Statement 2 is Incorrect.

● The World Bank has a negative list—it does not fund projects related to
military, tobacco, or nuclear power, regardless of country context. Hence,
Statement 3 is Correct.

● ICSID is a member of the World Bank Group, but it is functionally

autonomous, doesn’t receive funding from the IBRD or IDA, and has separate
governance. Hence, Statement 4 is Correct.
66. With reference to the International Labour Organization (ILO), consider the
following statements:

1. The ILO was the first specialized agency to be established under the League of
Nations and was later retained as a specialized agency under the United
Nations.

2. The Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (1998) binds

all member states, even if they have not ratified the corresponding core
conventions.

3. The ILO’s Governing Body follows a 3-tier voting system wherein the weight
of the vote differs between government, employer, and worker
representatives.

4. India has ratified all eight core ILO conventions, including the conventions on
freedom of association and abolition of forced labour.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only
66. With reference to the International Labour Organization (ILO), consider the
following statements:

1. The ILO was the first specialized agency to be established under the League of
Nations and was later retained as a specialized agency under the United
Nations.

2. The Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (1998) binds

all member states, even if they have not ratified the corresponding core
conventions.

3. The ILO’s Governing Body follows a 3-tier voting system wherein the weight
of the vote differs between government, employer, and worker
representatives.

4. India has ratified all eight core ILO conventions, including the conventions on
freedom of association and abolition of forced labour.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• ILO was founded in 1919 under the Treaty of Versailles (League of Nations).
It became the first specialized agency of the UN in 1946. Hence, Statement 1
is Correct.

• The 1998 Declaration commits all member states to respect core labour rights,
even if they have not ratified the specific conventions. Hence, Statement 2 is
Correct

• While the ILO has a tripartite structure (government, employer, worker), all
votes are equal; there is no weighted voting system. Hence, Statement 3 is
Incorrect.
Explanation:
India has not ratified the ILO core conventions on:

● Freedom of Association (Convention No. 87)

● Collective Bargaining (Convention No. 98)

● These are sensitive due to civil services and trade union implications.

● Hence, Statement 4 is Incorrect.

67. With reference to INTERPOL (International Criminal Police Organization),
consider the following statements:

1. INTERPOL has the authority to issue arrest warrants that are binding on all
member states under international law.

2. The General Assembly of INTERPOL, its supreme governing body, elects the
Secretary General for a fixed term of four years which is Non renewable.

3. The Red Notice issued by INTERPOL is considered equivalent to an

international arrest warrant under the UN Charter.

4. India is not a member of the Executive Committee of INTERPOL as of 2024.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. None of the above

67. With reference to INTERPOL (International Criminal Police Organization),
consider the following statements:

1. INTERPOL has the authority to issue arrest warrants that are binding on all
member states under international law.

2. The General Assembly of INTERPOL, its supreme governing body, elects the
Secretary General for a fixed term of four years which is Non renewable.

3. The Red Notice issued by INTERPOL is considered equivalent to an

international arrest warrant under the UN Charter.

4. India is not a member of the Executive Committee of INTERPOL as of 2024.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. None of the above

Explanation:
• INTERPOL does not issue arrest warrants. It issues Notices, such as the Red
Notice, which are not legally binding. Arrest depends on national laws and
judicial processes. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The Secretary General is appointed by the General Assembly on the

recommendation of the Executive Committee, but the term is five years, not
four, and renewable once. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• The Red Notice is NOT an international arrest warrant, nor is it recognized

under the UN Charter. It’s merely a request to locate and provisionally arrest,
based on domestic laws. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.

• As of 2024, India holds a seat on INTERPOL’s Executive Committee (as per

the 2021-2024 term), with CBI Director Praveen Sood elected as a delegate for
Asia. Hence, Statement 4 is Incorrect.
68. With reference to the places in news, consider the following pairs:

1. Sumy – Venezuela

2. Tuvalu – Mediterranean Sea

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly marked?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
68. With reference to the places in news, consider the following pairs:

1. Sumy – Venezuela

2. Tuvalu – Mediterranean Sea

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly marked?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Sumy Ukraine A Russian missile strike in Sumy, northeastern Ukraine, killed at
least 30 people and injured 99 others, including seven children.

The missile strike occurred just one day after Russian and
Ukrainian foreign ministers battled over charges of breaking a US-
brokered agreement to halt attacks on crucial energy facilities.

Tuvalu Pacific Ocean Tuvalu one of the world’s most remote and tiniest countries, has
officially entered the realm of electronic banking by launching its
first ATMs. The momentous event was commemorated with a
lavish celebration at the National Bank of Tuvalu’s offices in the
settlement of Vaiaku on Funafuti, the country’s main island.
69. Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet’ was the theme of which of
the following International Organization’s Annual Summit

A. World Economic Forum

B. G-20

C. G-7

D. UNFCC
69. Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet’ was the theme of which of
the following International Organization’s Annual Summit

A. World Economic Forum

B. G-20

C. G-7

D. UNFCC
Explanation:
The 18th G20 Summit was held in Rio de Janeiro from 18 to 19 November 2024.
The Summit brought together leaders from major economies to discuss trade,
climate change, and security. The summit theme under Brazil’s presidency was
‘Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet’, focusing on reducing poverty,
promoting social inclusion, and reforming global governance systems.
70. Consider the Following Statements Regarding BODHI Initiative

1. The BODHI initiative aims to train 300 youth from ASEAN countries annually
in India, focusing on sectors such as traditional medicine, agriculture, and
diplomacy.

2. The BODHI initiative includes the establishment of an ASEAN- India Centre of

Excellence for Disaster Management in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1&2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
70. Consider the Following Statements Regarding BODHI Initiative

1. The BODHI initiative aims to train 300 youth from ASEAN countries annually
in India, focusing on sectors such as traditional medicine, agriculture, and
diplomacy.

2. The BODHI initiative includes the establishment of an ASEAN- India Centre of

Excellence for Disaster Management in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1&2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Explanation:
• The 6th Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic
Cooperation (BIMSTEC) summit was convened in Bangkok (Thailand) in April
2025, bringing together the leaders of seven member countries: Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. The theme of the
sixth BIMSTEC summit was “Prosperous, resilient, and open BIMSTEC (PRO
BIMSTEC)“.

• BODHI initiative: PM Modi introduced the BODHI initiative (BIMSTEC for

Organised Development of Human resource Infrastructure), aimed at fostering
people-to-people ties, education, and skill development.
Explanation:
• The BODHI initiative, which stands for "BIMSTEC for Organised Development
of Human Resource Infrastructure," aims to train 300 youth from BIMSTEC
countries annually in India. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The establishment of a BIMSTEC Centre of Excellence for Disaster

Management in India is a separate initiative under the 21-point action plan and
is not part of the BODHI initiative. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.
71. With reference to the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC),
consider the following statements:

1. The IMEC is an initiative under the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

to enhance trade connectivity between India and Europe via Central Asia.

2. It involves a combination of rail and maritime routes, including the

construction of new ports in the Red Sea and the Arabian Gulf.

3. The IMEC aims to reduce trade dependence on the Suez Canal by providing an
alternate overland route through Iran.

4. The project was formally announced at the G7 Summit held in Japan in 2023.

How many of the above statements are Incorrect?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
71. With reference to the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC),
consider the following statements:

1. The IMEC is an initiative under the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

to enhance trade connectivity between India and Europe via Central Asia.

2. It involves a combination of rail and maritime routes, including the

construction of new ports in the Red Sea and the Arabian Gulf.

3. The IMEC aims to reduce trade dependence on the Suez Canal by providing an
alternate overland route through Iran.

4. The project was formally announced at the G7 Summit held in Japan in 2023.

How many of the above statements are Incorrect?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• IMEC is not an SCO initiative; it is part of the G7's Partnership for Global
Infrastructure and Investment (PGII), announced during the G20 Summit in
India in 2023. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The IMEC includes both rail and maritime routes to create a seamless trade
corridor between India, the Middle East, and Europe. Hence, Statement 2 is
Correct.

• The IMEC does not pass through Iran; instead, it involves key partners like
Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Israel, and Europe. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.

• The project was announced at the G20 Summit in India in September 2023,
not at the G7 Summit in Japan. Hence, Statement 4 is Incorrect.
72. With reference to the World Economic Forum (WEF), consider the following
statements:
1. The WEF was founded as a platform to promote free-market policies and
reduce government intervention in the global economy.
2. The Global Risks Report and the Global Gender Gap Report are both
published annually by the WEF.
3. The WEF operates as an intergovernmental body under the jurisdiction of the
United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
4. India is a founding member of the WEF and regularly co-hosts its annual
meeting in Davos.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
72. With reference to the World Economic Forum (WEF), consider the following
statements:
1. The WEF was founded as a platform to promote free-market policies and
reduce government intervention in the global economy.
2. The Global Risks Report and the Global Gender Gap Report are both
published annually by the WEF.
3. The WEF operates as an intergovernmental body under the jurisdiction of the
United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
4. India is a founding member of the WEF and regularly co-hosts its annual
meeting in Davos.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Explanation:
• The WEF was founded in 1971 by Klaus Schwab as a platform for promoting
stakeholder capitalism — balancing the interests of governments, businesses,
and civil society — rather than solely promoting free-market policies. Hence,
Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The Global Risks Report and the Global Gender Gap Report are both key
annual publications of the WEF. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct.

• The WEF is an independent international organization and not affiliated

with the United Nations or ECOSOC. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.

• India is not a founding member of the WEF, and the annual meeting is held
exclusively in Davos, Switzerland, not co-hosted by India. Hence, Statement
4 is Incorrect.
73. With reference to the Travel & Tourism Development Index (TTDI),
consider the following statements:

1. The Travel & Tourism Development Index is published annually by the

United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) to assess the
enabling environment for tourism development in member countries.

2. The TTDI evaluates countries on factors such as infrastructure, environmental

sustainability, and price competitiveness.

3. India ranked among the top 20 countries in the 2024 TTDI due to its strong
cultural resources and natural heritage.

4. The TTDI replaced the Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) and
was introduced for the first time in 2021.
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
73. With reference to the Travel & Tourism Development Index (TTDI),
consider the following statements:

1. The Travel & Tourism Development Index is published annually by the

United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) to assess the
enabling environment for tourism development in member countries.

2. The TTDI evaluates countries on factors such as infrastructure, environmental

sustainability, and price competitiveness.

3. India ranked among the top 20 countries in the 2024 TTDI due to its strong
cultural resources and natural heritage.

4. The TTDI replaced the Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) and
was introduced for the first time in 2021.
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• The Travel & Tourism Development Index (TTDI) is published by the World
Economic Forum (WEF), not the UNWTO. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect

• The TTDI assesses factors such as infrastructure, environmental

sustainability, health and hygiene, natural and cultural resources, and price
competitiveness. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct.

• In the 2024 TTDI, India ranked 39th, not in the top 20. Hence, Statement 3 is
Incorrect.

• The TTDI replaced the Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) and
was introduced in 2021 to reflect a broader focus on sustainable and resilient
tourism development. Hence, Statement 4 is Correct.
74. With reference to the International Criminal Court (ICC), consider the
following statements:

1. The ICC has jurisdiction over crimes of genocide, war crimes, crimes against
humanity, and the crime of aggression, even if the accused is a citizen of a non-
member state.

2. The ICC's jurisdiction is universal and can extend to any individual accused of
crimes, irrespective of whether their home country is a party to the Rome
Statute.

3. A case can be referred to the ICC by a member state, the United Nations
Security Council, or the ICC Prosecutor acting independently.

4. The United States, Russia, and China are non-members of the ICC but are
legally bound to cooperate with the court’s rulings under international law.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1&2

B. 1,3&4

C. 1&3

D. 2&4
74. With reference to the International Criminal Court (ICC), consider the
following statements:

1. The ICC has jurisdiction over crimes of genocide, war crimes, crimes against
humanity, and the crime of aggression, even if the accused is a citizen of a non-
member state.

2. The ICC's jurisdiction is universal and can extend to any individual accused of
crimes, irrespective of whether their home country is a party to the Rome
Statute.

3. A case can be referred to the ICC by a member state, the United Nations
Security Council, or the ICC Prosecutor acting independently.

4. The United States, Russia, and China are non-members of the ICC but are
legally bound to cooperate with the court’s rulings under international law.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1&2

B. 1,3&4

C. 1&3

D. 2&4
Explanation:
• The ICC can exercise jurisdiction over genocide, war crimes, crimes against
humanity, and the crime of aggression even if the accused belongs to a non-
member state if the crime is committed on the territory of a state party or if
referred by the UN Security Council. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• The ICC's jurisdiction is not universal. It is limited to crimes committed by

nationals of member states or on the territory of member states, unless referred
by the UN Security Council. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• A case can be referred to the ICC by a state party, the UN Security Council, or
initiated by the ICC Prosecutor (with authorization from the Pre-Trial
Chamber). Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.

• Non-member states (like the United States, Russia, and China) are not legally
bound to cooperate with the ICC's rulings unless they voluntarily agree or if
there is a binding resolution from the UN Security Council. Hence, Statement
4 is Incorrect.
75. With reference to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT),
consider the following statements:

1. The CTBT was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996 and
has entered into force after securing the required number of ratifications from
nuclear-armed states.

2. India and Pakistan have both signed but not ratified the CTBT due to concerns
over its discriminatory nature.

3. The treaty establishes a verification regime that includes an International

Monitoring System (IMS) with seismic, hydroacoustic, infrasound, and
radionuclide stations to detect nuclear tests.

4. The CTBT allows for peaceful nuclear explosions under specific conditions
regulated by the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization
(CTBTO).
Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1&3

B. 2&4

C. Only 3

D. 1&4
75. With reference to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT),
consider the following statements:

1. The CTBT was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996 and
has entered into force after securing the required number of ratifications from
nuclear-armed states.

2. India and Pakistan have both signed but not ratified the CTBT due to concerns
over its discriminatory nature.

3. The treaty establishes a verification regime that includes an International

Monitoring System (IMS) with seismic, hydroacoustic, infrasound, and
radionuclide stations to detect nuclear tests.

4. The CTBT allows for peaceful nuclear explosions under specific conditions
regulated by the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization
(CTBTO).
Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1&3

B. 2&4

C. Only 3

D. 1&4
Explanation:
• The CTBT was adopted by the UNGA in 1996 but has not entered into force
because eight key nuclear-capable states (including the US, China, India, and
Pakistan) have either not signed or ratified it. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• India and Pakistan have neither signed nor ratified the CTBT, citing concerns
over its discriminatory nature, as it permits existing nuclear powers to
maintain their arsenals while restricting new entrants. Hence, Statement 2 is
Incorrect.

• The treaty establishes a robust verification regime with an International

Monitoring System (IMS) comprising seismic, hydroacoustic, infrasound, and
radionuclide stations to detect nuclear tests globally. Hence, Statement 3 is
Correct.
Explanation:
• The CTBT prohibits all nuclear explosions, including peaceful nuclear
explosions, without exception. Hence, Statement 4 is Incorrect. As of
September 2023, 187 states have signed, and 178 states have ratified the treaty.

• Most recently, Sri Lanka ratified the treaty in July 2023.

• Though Washington signed but has not ratified the CTBT, it has observed a
moratorium on nuclear weapons test explosions since 1992.

• In November 2023, Russia officially revoked its ratification of the

Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT), a significant shift in its
stance on nuclear arms control.
76. With reference to the dams built by China on the Brahmaputra River,
consider the following statements:

1. The Zangmu Dam was the first large-scale hydropower project built by China
on the Brahmaputra River, located in the Tibet Autonomous Region.

2. China’s dam-building activities on the Brahmaputra have raised concerns in

downstream countries, particularly India and Bangladesh, due to the potential
impact on water flow and sediment deposition.

3. Under the 2012 Sino-Indian Water Sharing Agreement, China is obligated to

provide real-time data on the flow of the Brahmaputra River during the
monsoon season to India and Bangladesh.

4. The proposed Medog Dam on the Brahmaputra is expected to be the world’s

largest hydropower plant by capacity once completed.
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
76. With reference to the dams built by China on the Brahmaputra River,
consider the following statements:

1. The Zangmu Dam was the first large-scale hydropower project built by China
on the Brahmaputra River, located in the Tibet Autonomous Region.

2. China’s dam-building activities on the Brahmaputra have raised concerns in

downstream countries, particularly India and Bangladesh, due to the potential
impact on water flow and sediment deposition.

3. Under the 2012 Sino-Indian Water Sharing Agreement, China is obligated to

provide real-time data on the flow of the Brahmaputra River during the
monsoon season to India and Bangladesh.

4. The proposed Medog Dam on the Brahmaputra is expected to be the world’s

largest hydropower plant by capacity once completed.
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• The Zangmu Dam was completed in 2015 and is the first large-scale hydropower
project built by China on the Brahmaputra (Yarlung Tsangpo) in the Tibet
Autonomous Region. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• China's dam construction on the Brahmaputra has raised concerns in India and
Bangladesh over reduced downstream water availability, increased flooding risk,
and ecological damage due to altered sediment flow. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct

• China and India have an agreement (2006, renewed in 2013) for sharing
hydrological data during the monsoon season, but it does not include Bangladesh
and is limited to providing flood season data, not real-time data. Hence, Statement
3 is Incorrect

• The proposed Medog Dam (also called the Great Bend Project) is expected to
surpass the Three Gorges Dam in terms of installed capacity, potentially making it
the largest hydropower plant in the world. Hence, Statement 4 is Correct.
77. With reference to the M23 rebels in the Democratic Republic of Congo
(DRC), consider the following statements:

1. The M23 rebel group emerged from the remnants of the Rwandan Patriotic
Army (RPA), which was involved in the 1994 Rwandan Genocide.

2. The M23 rebels take their name from the March 23 Agreement signed between
the Congolese government and the rebel group in 2013.

3. The M23 primarily operates in the North Kivu province of the DRC and has
been accused of committing war crimes and human rights violations.

4. The United Nations has imposed direct sanctions on the governments of

Rwanda and Uganda for providing material and logistical support to the M23
rebels.
Which of the above statements are Incorrect?

A. 1&2

B. 2&3

C. 1,2&4

D. All are Incorrect

77. With reference to the M23 rebels in the Democratic Republic of Congo
(DRC), consider the following statements:

1. The M23 rebel group emerged from the remnants of the Rwandan Patriotic
Army (RPA), which was involved in the 1994 Rwandan Genocide.

2. The M23 rebels take their name from the March 23 Agreement signed between
the Congolese government and the rebel group in 2013.

3. The M23 primarily operates in the North Kivu province of the DRC and has
been accused of committing war crimes and human rights violations.

4. The United Nations has imposed direct sanctions on the governments of

Rwanda and Uganda for providing material and logistical support to the M23
rebels.
Which of the above statements are Incorrect?

A. 1&2

B. 2&3

C. 1,2&4

D. All are Incorrect

Explanation:
• The M23 rebel group originated from the National Congress for the Defence
of the People (CNDP), not the Rwandan Patriotic Army (RPA). The CNDP
was formed by former Tutsi rebels in the DRC with alleged backing from
Rwanda. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect

• The M23 rebels are named after the March 23 Agreement signed in 2009 (not
2013) between the Congolese government and the CNDP. The M23 claimed
that the Congolese government failed to uphold the terms of this agreement,
which led to their formation. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect

• The M23 primarily operates in the mineral-rich North Kivu province and has
been accused by the UN and human rights organizations of committing war
crimes, including the recruitment of child soldiers and mass killings. Hence,
Statement 3 is Correct
Explanation:
• The UN has documented evidence of Rwandan and Ugandan support to M23,
but it has not imposed direct sanctions on the governments of Rwanda and
Uganda for supporting M23. Hence, Statement 4 is Incorrect.
78. With reference to the U.S.-India COMPACT (Catalyzing Opportunities for
Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce & Technology) Initiative, consider the
following statements:

1. The COMPACT Initiative includes a new 10-year framework for the U.S.-India
Major Defense Partnership, emphasizing co-production of defense equipment such
as Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missiles and Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicles in
India.

2. Under the COMPACT Initiative, the Autonomous Systems Industry Alliance

(ASIA) was established to promote collaboration in AI-driven autonomous defense
technologies between the two nations.

3. The COMPACT Initiative aims to double bilateral trade to $500 billion by 2030
through the launch of the "Mission 500" initiative, which includes negotiations for a
Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA).

4. As part of the COMPACT Initiative, the Transforming the Relationship Utilizing

Strategic Technology (TRUST) program was launched, focusing on cooperation in
semiconductors, quantum computing, and Artificial Intelligence (AI).
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
78. With reference to the U.S.-India COMPACT (Catalyzing Opportunities for
Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce & Technology) Initiative, consider the
following statements:

1. The COMPACT Initiative includes a new 10-year framework for the U.S.-India
Major Defense Partnership, emphasizing co-production of defense equipment such
as Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missiles and Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicles in
India.

2. Under the COMPACT Initiative, the Autonomous Systems Industry Alliance

(ASIA) was established to promote collaboration in AI-driven autonomous defense
technologies between the two nations.

3. The COMPACT Initiative aims to double bilateral trade to $500 billion by 2030
through the launch of the "Mission 500" initiative, which includes negotiations for a
Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA).

4. As part of the COMPACT Initiative, the Transforming the Relationship Utilizing

Strategic Technology (TRUST) program was launched, focusing on cooperation in
semiconductors, quantum computing, and Artificial Intelligence (AI).
How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• The COMPACT Initiative includes a new 10-year framework for the U.S.-India
Major Defense Partnership, emphasizing co-production of defense equipment
such as Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missiles and Stryker Infantry Combat
Vehicles in India. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct

• Under the COMPACT Initiative, the Autonomous Systems Industry Alliance

(ASIA) was established to promote collaboration in AI-driven autonomous
defense technologies between the two nations. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct

• The COMPACT Initiative aims to double bilateral trade to $500 billion by 2030
through the launch of the "Mission 500" initiative, which includes negotiations
for a Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA). Hence, Statement 3 is Correct

• As part of the COMPACT Initiative, the Transforming the Relationship

Utilizing Strategic Technology (TRUST) program was launched, focusing on
cooperation in semiconductors, quantum computing, and Artificial
Intelligence (AI). Hence, Statement 4 is Correct.
79. Consider the following pairs of ethnic groups and their corresponding
region/country of origin:

Ethnic Group Region/Country

1. Uighurs Xinjiang, China

2. Hazaras Iran

3. Yazidis Iraq

4. Tigrayans Ethiopia
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
79. Consider the following pairs of ethnic groups and their corresponding
region/country of origin:

Ethnic Group Region/Country

1. Uighurs Xinjiang, China

2. Hazaras Iran

3. Yazidis Iraq

4. Tigrayans Ethiopia
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• Pair 1 – Uighurs → Xinjiang, China is Correct – The Uighurs are a Turkic
ethnic group native to the Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region in China.
They have faced significant political and cultural repression from the Chinese
government.

• Pair 2 – Hazaras → Iran is Incorrect – The Hazaras are predominantly found in

Afghanistan, not Iran. They are a Shia Muslim ethnic group that has faced
persecution from both the Taliban and other Sunni-majority groups in
Afghanistan.
Explanation:
• Pair 3 – Yazidis → Iraq – is Correct – The Yazidis are a religious minority
based primarily in northern Iraq, particularly in the Sinjar region. They follow
an ancient religion influenced by elements of Zoroastrianism, Christianity, and
Islam.

• Pair 4 – Tigrayans → Ethiopia – is Correct– The Tigrayans are an ethnic group

native to the Tigray region in northern Ethiopia. They have been central to the
Ethiopian civil conflict involving the Tigray People's Liberation Front (TPLF).
80. Consider the following statements regarding to Indus Water Treaty:

1. It was brokered by the International monetary fund.

2. Under the Indus treaty, Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas were allocated to Pakistan.

3. Under the Indus treaty, India can use the water of Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab
for non-consumptive needs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only.

D. 1, 2 and 3
80. Consider the following statements regarding to Indus Water Treaty:

1. It was brokered by the International monetary fund.

2. Under the Indus treaty, Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas were allocated to Pakistan.

3. Under the Indus treaty, India can use the water of Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab
for non-consumptive needs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only.

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The Indus Waters Treaty, 1960 is a water distribution treaty between India and
Pakistan.

• It was brokered by the World Bank.

• The Indus system comprises Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej.

• The Basin is mainly shared by India and Pakistan, with a small share for
China and Afghanistan. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect

• Under the Indus treaty, all the waters of three eastern rivers namely Ravi,
Sutlej, and Beas were allocated to India for exclusive use.
Explanation:
• On the other hand, the waters of Western rivers namely Indus, Jhelum, and
Chenab were allocated to Pakistan. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• But India can use the water in western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab) for
non-consumptive needs like irrigation, storage, and even for electricity
production.

• Thus, India has been given the right to generate hydroelectricity through a run
of the river projects on the western rivers, subject to specific criteria for design
and operation. Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.
81. Consider the following statements regarding the Donbass Region:

1. The Donbass region is composed of the Donetsk and Luhansk oblasts, located
in western Ukraine.

2. The region is rich in coal reserves and has historically been a major industrial
hub for Ukraine.

3. The Donbass region declared independence through a referendum in 2014,

which was officially recognized by the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
81. Consider the following statements regarding the Donbass Region:

1. The Donbass region is composed of the Donetsk and Luhansk oblasts, located
in western Ukraine.

2. The region is rich in coal reserves and has historically been a major industrial
hub for Ukraine.

3. The Donbass region declared independence through a referendum in 2014,

which was officially recognized by the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The Donbass region is composed of the Donetsk and Luhansk oblasts, but it is
located in eastern Ukraine, not western Ukraine. This is a common point of
confusion in UPSC-style questions. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The Donbass region is rich in coal reserves and has historically been one of
Ukraine’s key industrial hubs, contributing significantly to coal, steel, and
heavy machinery production., Hence, Statement 2 is Correct.

• While the Donetsk and Luhansk regions declared independence after

referendums in 2014, their independence was NOT recognized by the United
Nations. However, Russia recognized them in 2022 before launching the
invasion of Ukraine. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.
82. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of critical
minerals in Ukraine:
1. Ukraine holds one of the largest reserves of lithium in Europe, located
primarily in the Donetsk and Luhansk regions.
2. The Kirovohrad region in central Ukraine is known for its significant deposits
of uranium and rare earth elements.
3. Ukraine’s titanium reserves, among the largest in the world, are concentrated
in the western regions near the Carpathian Mountains.
4. Graphite reserves in Ukraine, primarily located in the Zhytomyr region,
account for nearly 20% of the world's known graphite deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
82. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of critical
minerals in Ukraine:
1. Ukraine holds one of the largest reserves of lithium in Europe, located
primarily in the Donetsk and Luhansk regions.
2. The Kirovohrad region in central Ukraine is known for its significant deposits
of uranium and rare earth elements.
3. Ukraine’s titanium reserves, among the largest in the world, are concentrated
in the western regions near the Carpathian Mountains.
4. Graphite reserves in Ukraine, primarily located in the Zhytomyr region,
account for nearly 20% of the world's known graphite deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
• Ukraine holds some of the largest lithium reserves in Europe, with key
deposits located in the Donetsk and Luhansk regions, which have become
strategically significant in the ongoing conflict with Russia. Hence, Statement 1
is Correct.

• The Kirovohrad region in central Ukraine is rich in uranium and also contains
significant deposits of rare earth elements. Ukraine is among the top producers
of uranium in Europe. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct.

• Ukraine’s titanium reserves are not located near the Carpathian Mountains (in
the west); they are primarily found in Dnipropetrovsk and Zhytomyr in
central and eastern Ukraine. Ukraine is one of the largest producers of
titanium in the world. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.

• Ukraine’s graphite reserves in the Zhytomyr region are estimated to account

for nearly 20% of the world’s known graphite deposits, making Ukraine a key
player in the global graphite market. Hence, Statement 4 is Correct.
83. Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Action Task
Force (FATF):

1. FATF maintains both a "Grey List" and a "Black List" to classify countries based
on the severity of deficiencies in their anti-money laundering and counter-
terrorism financing frameworks.

2. The inclusion of a country in the Grey List implies mandatory sanctions from
all FATF member countries until the deficiencies are addressed.

3. India is a founding member of the FATF and has been consistently ranked
among the top countries for compliance with FATF recommendations.

4. Pakistan was removed from the FATF Grey List in 2022 after fulfilling the
requirements related to money laundering and terrorist financing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only
83. Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Action Task
Force (FATF):

1. FATF maintains both a "Grey List" and a "Black List" to classify countries based
on the severity of deficiencies in their anti-money laundering and counter-
terrorism financing frameworks.

2. The inclusion of a country in the Grey List implies mandatory sanctions from
all FATF member countries until the deficiencies are addressed.

3. India is a founding member of the FATF and has been consistently ranked
among the top countries for compliance with FATF recommendations.

4. Pakistan was removed from the FATF Grey List in 2022 after fulfilling the
requirements related to money laundering and terrorist financing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
FATF maintains two key lists:

• Grey List – Countries with strategic deficiencies in anti-money laundering

(AML) and counter-terrorism financing (CTF) but working with FATF to
address them.

• Black List – Countries with severe deficiencies and a lack of commitment to

reforms, leading to enhanced monitoring and potential sanctions. Hence,
Statement 1 is Correct.

• Inclusion in the Grey List does NOT automatically impose mandatory

sanctions. Instead, it subjects the country to increased monitoring and
reputational risks, which can lead to financial restrictions by international
institutions and banks. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• India is NOT a founding member of FATF. FATF was established in 1989 with
16 founding members (India joined as a member in 2010). India is, however,
compliant with a majority of FATF recommendations. Hence, Statement 3 is
Incorrect.

• Pakistan was placed on the Grey List in 2018 and removed in October 2022
after successfully completing FATF’s 34-point action plan related to money
laundering and terrorist financing. Hence, Statement 4 is Correct.
84. Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical significance of
the Horn of Africa:

1. The Horn of Africa includes Eritrea, Djibouti, Somalia, and Ethiopia, giving it
strategic control over major global trade and oil shipping routes.

2. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait, located near the Horn of Africa, is considered one of
the most vulnerable maritime chokepoints due to ongoing political instability
in neighboring countries.

3. The African Union maintains a peacekeeping mission in Somalia,

headquartered in Djibouti, to secure the maritime routes passing through the
Horn of Africa.

4. China established its first overseas military base in the Horn of Africa to secure
maritime routes and protect strategic investments in the African continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
84. Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical significance of
the Horn of Africa:

1. The Horn of Africa includes Eritrea, Djibouti, Somalia, and Ethiopia, giving it
strategic control over major global trade and oil shipping routes.

2. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait, located near the Horn of Africa, is considered one of
the most vulnerable maritime chokepoints due to ongoing political instability
in neighboring countries.

3. The African Union maintains a peacekeeping mission in Somalia,

headquartered in Djibouti, to secure the maritime routes passing through the
Horn of Africa.

4. China established its first overseas military base in the Horn of Africa to secure
maritime routes and protect strategic investments in the African continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
• The Horn of Africa’s location near the Red Sea and Indian Ocean makes it
strategically important for controlling major global trade and oil shipping
routes. However, the extent of "control" is influenced by regional political and
security conditions. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is a vulnerable maritime chokepoint due to

instability in neighboring Yemen and Somalia. Disruptions in this region have
historically impacted global shipping and oil supplies. Hence, Statement 2 is
Correct.

• The African Union’s peacekeeping mission in Somalia is known as ATMIS

(African Union Transition Mission in Somalia), but it is headquartered in
Mogadishu (Somalia), NOT in Djibouti. This is a factual twist designed to
confuse. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• China established its first overseas military base in Djibouti in 2017 to protect
its maritime trade routes and secure Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) investments
in the region. Hence, Statement 4 is Correct
85. Consider the following statements regarding South Africa's Expropriation
Act of 2024:

1. The Act allows for the expropriation of property without compensation under
specific circumstances deemed to be in the public interest.

2. The Act mandates that all expropriated land be redistributed exclusively to

historically disadvantaged individuals based on racial classification.

3. The enactment of the Act led to the United States suspending foreign aid to
South Africa, citing concerns over property rights and potential
discrimination.

How Many of the Above-Mentioned Statement/s are Correct?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three are Correct

D. All Three are Incorrect

85. Consider the following statements regarding South Africa's Expropriation
Act of 2024:

1. The Act allows for the expropriation of property without compensation under
specific circumstances deemed to be in the public interest.

2. The Act mandates that all expropriated land be redistributed exclusively to

historically disadvantaged individuals based on racial classification.

3. The enactment of the Act led to the United States suspending foreign aid to
South Africa, citing concerns over property rights and potential
discrimination.

How Many of the Above-Mentioned Statement/s are Correct?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three are Correct

D. All Three are Incorrect

Explanation:
• The Expropriation Act of 2024 permits the South African government to
expropriate property without compensation under certain conditions deemed
to be in the public interest. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• While the Act aims to address historical injustices, it does not stipulate that all
expropriated land be redistributed exclusively based on racial classification.
The focus is on equitable access and redress, not explicit racial criteria. Hence,
Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• The United States suspended foreign aid to South Africa following the
enactment of the Expropriation Act, expressing concerns over property rights
and potential discrimination. Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.
Explanation:
• In January 2025, South Africa implemented the new Expropriation Act, which
allows the state to seize land without compensation for public purposes or
in the public interest in certain circumstances.

• The law, which was discussed for five years, including public consultations,
provides a legal framework for expropriation by the state in accordance with
Section 25(2) of the South African constitution.
86. Consider the following statements regarding the Department of Military
Affairs (DMA):

1. The Department of Military Affairs was created under the Ministry of Defence
in 2020 to enhance coordination among the three armed forces and implement
joint military doctrines.

2. The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) serves as the head of the Department of
Military Affairs and holds the rank of a four-star general, but is not a
permanent member of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC).

3. The DMA is responsible for overseeing the operational preparedness and

training of the armed forces, while the Department of Defence remains in
charge of capital acquisitions and strategic planning.

4. The creation of the DMA led to the abolition of the post of Chairman of the
Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) to avoid duplication of functions within the
armed forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only
86. Consider the following statements regarding the Department of Military
Affairs (DMA):

1. The Department of Military Affairs was created under the Ministry of Defence
in 2020 to enhance coordination among the three armed forces and implement
joint military doctrines.

2. The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) serves as the head of the Department of
Military Affairs and holds the rank of a four-star general, but is not a
permanent member of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC).

3. The DMA is responsible for overseeing the operational preparedness and

training of the armed forces, while the Department of Defence remains in
charge of capital acquisitions and strategic planning.

4. The creation of the DMA led to the abolition of the post of Chairman of the
Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) to avoid duplication of functions within the
armed forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
• The Department of Military Affairs (DMA) was created in January 2020 under
the Ministry of Defence to improve the joint functioning and coordination
among the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. It focuses on joint operations,
training, and procurement. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct

• The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) heads the Department of Military Affairs and
holds the rank of a four-star general, but he is a permanent member of the
Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) — this is a factual twist meant to confuse.
Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• The DMA is responsible for the operational preparedness and training of the
armed forces, while the Department of Defence handles capital acquisitions
and strategic planning. This division ensures better specialization and clarity
of roles. Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.

• Before the creation of the DMA, the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee
(COSC) was the senior-most service chief. This position was abolished when
the post of CDS was created to avoid duplication of functions and establish a
unified chain of command. Hence, Statement 4 is Correct.
87. Consider the following statements regarding the issue of Blood Diamonds
in Sierra Leone:

1. Blood diamonds refer to diamonds mined in war zones and sold to finance
armed conflict against legitimate governments, often involving human rights
violations.

2. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) was established by the

United Nations in 2003 to prevent the trade in conflict diamonds of which
Sierra leone is Not a Member

3. The Revolutionary United Front (RUF) in Sierra Leone ended decade long
violence in Sierra leone with the signing of the Lomé Peace Accord in 1999.

4. Despite the end of the civil war, illegal diamond mining and smuggling
remain challenges in Sierra Leone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
87. Consider the following statements regarding the issue of Blood Diamonds
in Sierra Leone:

1. Blood diamonds refer to diamonds mined in war zones and sold to finance
armed conflict against legitimate governments, often involving human rights
violations.

2. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) was established by the

United Nations in 2003 to prevent the trade in conflict diamonds of which
Sierra leone is Not a Member

3. The Revolutionary United Front (RUF) in Sierra Leone ended decade long
violence in Sierra leone with the signing of the Lomé Peace Accord in 1999.

4. Despite the end of the civil war, illegal diamond mining and smuggling
remain challenges in Sierra Leone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
• Blood diamonds (also known as conflict diamonds) are mined in war zones
and sold to finance armed conflict, often fueling human rights abuses. Sierra
Leone was one of the most prominent examples during the 1991–2002 civil
war. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) was established in 2003

to prevent the trade in conflict diamonds, but Sierra Leone is a participant in
the scheme. The scheme has faced criticism for its limited effectiveness, but
Sierra Leone remains an active member. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• The Revolutionary United Front (RUF) used profits from diamond mining to
fund its brutal insurgency during the Sierra Leone Civil War (1991–2002). The
conflict officially ended with the signing of the Lomé Peace Accord in 1999
(though fighting continued until 2002). Hence, Statement 3 is Correct.

• Despite the end of the civil war, illegal diamond mining and smuggling persist
in Sierra Leone, contributing to human rights violations, environmental
degradation, and child labor issues. Hence, Statement 4 is Correct.
88. Blue Dot Line Border is demarcation between which two Countries?

A. Sudan & South Sudan

B. Eritrea & Ethiopia

C. Israel & Jordan

D. Israel & Lebanon

88. Blue Dot Line Border is demarcation between which two Countries?

A. Sudan & South Sudan

B. Eritrea & Ethiopia

C. Israel & Jordan

D. Israel & Lebanon

Explanation:
• The Blue Line is a demarcation line between Lebanon and Israel and Lebanon
published by the United Nations on 7 June 2000 for the purposes of
determining whether Israel had fully withdrawn from Lebanon.

• It has been described as: "temporary" and "not a border, but a “line of
withdrawal”
89. This City holds immense cultural and archaeological value, which led to its
designation as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. This City was in
News because of large scale destruction by the Israeli Defense Forces.
Identify the City.

A. Juba

B. Khartoum

C. Tyre

D. Damascus
89. This City holds immense cultural and archaeological value, which led to its
designation as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. This City was in
News because of large scale destruction by the Israeli Defense Forces.
Identify the City.

A. Juba

B. Khartoum

C. Tyre

D. Damascus
Explanation:
• Tyre District: The city of Tyre and surrounding villages faced ongoing
airstrikes starting from October 23, 2024.

• These attacks resulted in significant destruction, including damage near

ancient archaeological sites, prompting concerns from UNESCO about
potential harm to cultural heritage.

• The ancient city of Tyre, located on the southern coast of Lebanon, is one of the
most significant historical cities in the world.

• It holds immense cultural and archaeological value, which led to its

designation as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.
90. Consider the following statements with regard to the Litani River

1. This River flows into the Mediterranean Sea

2. This River flows across a length of 140 KMs in the Golan Heights

3. This River flows across the Syria & Lebanon Border

Which of the above statements are Incorrect?

A. 1&2

B. 2&3

C. 1 Only

D. 3 Only
90. Consider the following statements with regard to the Litani River

1. This River flows into the Mediterranean Sea

2. This River flows across a length of 140 KMs in the Golan Heights

3. This River flows across the Syria & Lebanon Border

Which of the above statements are Incorrect?

A. 1&2

B. 2&3

C. 1 Only

D. 3 Only
Explanation:
• The Litani River flows entirely within Lebanon, running approximately 140
kilometers from the Beqaa Valley to the Mediterranean Sea. Hence, Statement
1 is Correct while Statement 2 is Incorrect.

• Its at its closest point—has made it a cproximity to the Israeli border—about 30

kilometers ritical geographical marker in military and political contexts.

• The Litani River is the longest river entirely within Lebanon, stretching about
140 kilometers (87 miles).

• The river's primary source is near the town of Ba'albek, which is located at an
altitude of approximately 1,000 meters (3,300 feet) above sea level.
Explanation:
• The Beqaa Valley is a fertile and agriculturally rich region that lies between the
Mount Lebanon Range to the west and the Anti-Lebanon Mountains to the
east.

• In November 2024, a U.S.-brokered ceasefire aimed to end the 14-month

conflict between Israel and Hezbollah.

• Hezbollah's Withdrawal: Hezbollah agreed to relocate its forces north of the

Litani River, effectively creating a buffer zone free of its armed presence near
the Israeli border. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect
91. Identify the Incorrect pair of the region with the respective Country where it
is located in

A. Donestsk- Ukraine

B. Darfur- Sudan

C. Kursk- Belarus

D. Afar- Ethiopia
91. Identify the Incorrect pair of the region with the respective Country where it
is located in

A. Donestsk- Ukraine

B. Darfur- Sudan

C. Kursk- Belarus

D. Afar- Ethiopia
Explanation:
• In January 2025, Ukrainian troops advanced around 30 km into the Russian
territory of the Kursk region, in what has been Kyiv’s largest incursion on
Moscow’s territory since the start of the war in 2022.

• The Kursk Region stations the Kursk nuclear plant which is just 60 km away
from the Ukrainian border.
92. Tutsis & Hutus are 2 ethnic communities which are native to which of the
following?

1. Democratic Republic of Congo

2. Rwanda

3. Uganda

4. Tanzania

5. Burundi

6. Mozambique

Choose the Correct Answer from the given options

A. 1,2,3

B. 4,5,6

C. 1,2,3,5

D. 1&2 only
92. Tutsis & Hutus are 2 ethnic communities which are native to which of the
following?

1. Democratic Republic of Congo

2. Rwanda

3. Uganda

4. Tanzania

5. Burundi

6. Mozambique

Choose the Correct Answer from the given options

A. 1,2,3

B. 4,5,6

C. 1,2,3,5

D. 1&2 only
Explanation:
• The Tutsis and Hutus are native to the African Great Lakes region, primarily
found in the countries of Rwanda and Burundi. They also have significant
populations in neighboring countries such as the Democratic Republic of the
Congo (DRC) and Uganda.

• In Rwanda and Burundi, the Hutus form the majority ethnic group, while the
Tutsis constitute a minority. The historical relationship between these groups
has been complex and has led to significant conflicts, most notably the
Rwandan Genocide of 1994, where hundreds of thousands of Tutsis and
moderate Hutus were killed.
93. Essequibo Region Dispute is between which 2 countries?

A. Guyana & Suriname

B. Colombia & Panama

C. Guyana & Venezuela

D. Bolivia & Chile

93. Essequibo Region Dispute is between which 2 countries?

A. Guyana & Suriname

B. Colombia & Panama

C. Guyana & Venezuela

D. Bolivia & Chile

Explanation:
• The Essequibo region dispute is a territorial conflict between Guyana and
Venezuela.

• The dispute centers around the Essequibo region, which makes up about two-
thirds of Guyana’s territory.

• The conflict dates back to the colonial era when both Spain (Venezuela’s
colonial power) and the Netherlands (Guyana’s colonial power) claimed the
area.

• After Britain took over what is now Guyana from the Dutch in the 19th
century, the boundary remained unclear.
Explanation:
• In 1899, an international arbitration awarded the Essequibo region to British
Guiana (now Guyana).

• Venezuela later rejected this decision, claiming that the award was invalid due
to alleged British manipulation.

Present Source of Conflict

• The discovery of significant oil reserves off the coast of Guyana has escalated
tensions, as Venezuela argues that the resources belong to it.

• The disputed area is rich in resources, including gold, diamonds, timber, and
other minerals.
94. Indigenous Sahrawi Ethnicity People Belong to which Disputed region in
News?

A. Sudan

B. South Sudan

C. Sierra Leone

D. Western Sahara
94. Indigenous Sahrawi Ethnicity People Belong to which Disputed region in
News?

A. Sudan

B. South Sudan

C. Sierra Leone

D. Western Sahara
Explanation:
• Sovereignty over Western Sahara, a mostly desert territory on the west coast of
Africa, is heavily contested. Morocco controls more than three-quarters of the
region, which Rabat refers to as the “Moroccan Sahara.”

• The Sahrawi Arab Democratic Republic (SADR), a self-declared state

representing the Indigenous Sahrawi people, also claims sovereignty over
Western Sahara, considering it occupied territory.

• With a population of a little under six lakh, this former Spanish colony is home
to the nomadic indigenous Sahrawi tribe whose main language is Hassaniya
Arabic.

• For decades, Morocco has claimed control over Western Sahara while the
ethnic Sahrawi fight for their right to self-determination.
95. Arrange The Following From South To North

1. Taiwan

2. Kuril Islands

3. East China Sea

4. Sea of Japan

5. Bering Sea

Choose the Correct Code from the following options

A. 1-2-3-4-5

B. 1-3-2-5-4

C. 1-3-4-2-5

D. 1-2-5-3-4
95. Arrange The Following From South To North

1. Taiwan

2. Kuril Islands

3. East China Sea

4. Sea of Japan

5. Bering Sea

Choose the Correct Code from the following options

A. 1-2-3-4-5

B. 1-3-2-5-4

C. 1-3-4-2-5

D. 1-2-5-3-4
Co relate Map 1 & 2.
Explanation:
Value Addition

• The Kuril Islands dispute is a territorial conflict between Japan and Russia
over a group of islands located in the Pacific Ocean, stretching from Hokkaido
(Japan) to the Kamchatka Peninsula (Russia). This dispute primarily concerns
the four southernmost islands of the Kuril archipelago.

• The four contested islands, known collectively in Japan as the Northern

Territories and in Russia as the Southern Kurils, are:

• Iturup (Etorofu), Kunashir (Kunashiri), Shikotan and Habomai Islands

Explanation:
East China Sea (Value Addition)

• The East China Sea dispute primarily involves conflicting territorial and
maritime claims among China, Japan, and to a lesser extent, Taiwan.

• The dispute centres around sovereignty over islands and exclusive economic
zone (EEZ) boundaries.

• Known as the Senkaku Islands in Japan and the Diaoyu Islands in China.
These are a group of uninhabited islets located in the East China Sea. These are
Administered by Japan, but China and Taiwan claim sovereignty.

• Both China and Japan claim overlapping EEZs and continental shelves in the
East China Sea.

• The disputed area is about 200,000 square kilometers. The conflict is

aggravated by the presence of potential oil and gas reserves, as well as rich
fishing grounds.
96. Which of the following Border Crossings are correctly Paired

A. Bab- AL – Hawa- Turkey & Syria

B. Torres Strait- Australia & Solomon Islands

C. Rafah Crossing- Egypt & Jordan

D. King Hussein Bridge- Israel & Lebanon

96. Which of the following Border Crossings are correctly Paired

A. Bab- AL – Hawa- Turkey & Syria

B. Torres Strait- Australia & Solomon Islands

C. Rafah Crossing- Egypt & Jordan

D. King Hussein Bridge- Israel & Lebanon

Explanation:
The Bab al-Hawa Crossing is a major border crossing between Turkey and Syria,
located on the Syria-Turkey border. It serves as a crucial gateway for
humanitarian aid, trade, and transit, especially during the ongoing Syrian Civil
War. Hence, Option A is Correctly Paired.
Explanation:
• The Torres Strait Crossing is a geographical and cultural link between
Australia and Papua New Guinea (PNG). It is named after the Torres Strait, a
body of water separating the northern tip of Queensland, Australia from the
southern coast of Papua New Guinea.

• The Torres Strait Islanders are Indigenous Australians, culturally distinct from
mainland Aboriginal Australians. They share many cultural ties with Papua
New Guinea due to their proximity. Hence, Option B is Incorrectly Paired.
Explanation:
• The Rafah Crossing is a vital border crossing between the Gaza Strip
(Palestinian Territories) and Egypt. It is the only crossing point between Gaza
and the outside world that is not controlled by Israel, making it an essential
lifeline for the residents of Gaza.

• Located in the city of Rafah, which is divided between Gaza and Egypt’s Sinai
Peninsula. It Connects Rafah, Gaza Strip, to Rafah, Egypt. It is Situated at the
southernmost point of the Gaza Strip. Hence, Option C is Incorrectly Paired.
Explanation:
• The King Hussein Bridge Crossing, also known as the Allenby Bridge, is a
major border crossing between Jordan and the West Bank (Palestinian
Territories). It serves as a crucial gateway for Palestinians traveling between
the West Bank and Jordan and is also used by foreign nationals entering or
leaving the West Bank.

• The bridge spans the Jordan River and connects Jordan’s eastern bank with the
West Bank’s western bank.

• Approximately 50 km from Amman (Jordan) and 5 km from Jericho (West

Bank). Hence, Option D is Incorrectly Paired.
97. Consider the Following Statements with regard to India-Africa Defence
Dialogue (IADD)

1. India-Africa Defence Dialogue (IADD) is a biennial initiative aimed at

enhancing defence and security cooperation between India and African
nations.

2. India conducts a bilateral naval exercise named AFINDEX as part of IADD

initiatives.

Choose the Incorrect Statement

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both are Correct

D. Both are Incorrect

97. Consider the Following Statements with regard to India-Africa Defence
Dialogue (IADD)

1. India-Africa Defence Dialogue (IADD) is a biennial initiative aimed at

enhancing defence and security cooperation between India and African
nations.

2. India conducts a bilateral naval exercise named AFINDEX as part of IADD

initiatives.

Choose the Incorrect Statement

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both are Correct

D. Both are Incorrect

Explanation:
• The India-Africa Defence Dialogue (IADD) is a biennial initiative aimed at
enhancing defence and security cooperation between India and African
nations.

• Institutionalized during the 2020 DefExpo in Lucknow, the dialogue was held
again in October 2022 on the sidelines of DefExpo 2022 in Gandhinagar,
Gujarat.

• Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

• The Africa-India Field Training Exercise (AFINDEX) aims to enhance

coordination in UN peacekeeping operations and humanitarian mine clearance
activities.
Explanation:
• The first AFINDEX was held in 2019, with participation from 17 African
countries. The second edition in 2023 saw participation from 25 African
nations.

• AFINDEX (Africa-India Field Training Exercise) is a multinational field

training exercise, not a bilateral naval exercise and not directly under IADD,
though both aim to boost defence ties with Africa.

• Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

98. Which of the Following Ports are not part of the IMEC Initiative?

A. Mumbai Port

B. Jebel Ali Port

C. Haifa Port

D. Chahbahar Port
98. Which of the Following Ports are not part of the IMEC Initiative?

A. Mumbai Port

B. Jebel Ali Port

C. Haifa Port

D. Chahbahar Port
Explanation:
List of Ports Part of IMEC

India

• Mundra Port (Gujarat)

• Kandla Port (Gujarat)

• Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) (Navi Mumbai)

• Vadhavan Port (Maharashtra) – A new deep-water port approved in 2024,

expected to be operational by 2029.

United Arab Emirates

• Fujairah Port

• Jebel Ali Port (Dubai)

• Abu Dhabi Port

Saudi Arabia

• Dammam Port

• Ras Al Khair Port

Israel

• Haifa Port

Greece

• Piraeus Port

• Italy

• Messina Port

• France

• Marseille Port
About IMEC

• The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor is a planned economic

corridor that aims to bolster economic development by fostering connectivity
and economic integration between Asia, the Persian Gulf and Europe.

• The corridor is a proposed route from India to Europe through the United
Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Israel and Greece.
99. Recently which country was added to the list of OPEC+

A. Guyana

B. Suriname

C. Sudan

D. Brazil
99. Recently which country was added to the list of OPEC+

A. Guyana

B. Suriname

C. Sudan

D. Brazil
Explanation:
Lapsed Membership of OPEC

• Angola

• Qatar

• Indonesia

• Ecuador

• Venezuela (membership currently suspended due to production and

governance issues)
OPEC+ Countries

• Russia

• Kazakhstan

• Mexico

• Oman

• Azerbaijan

• Malaysia

• Sudan

• South Sudan

• Bahrain

• Brunei

• Brazil (joined in 2025)

100. Which of the following country has been coined by India as “Gateway To
Antarctica”?

A. Chile

B. Peru

C. Argentina

D. New Zealand
100. Which of the following country has been coined by India as “Gateway To
Antarctica”?

A. Chile

B. Peru

C. Argentina

D. New Zealand
Explanation:
• India and Chile recently decided to begin negotiations for a comprehensive
economic partnership deal. (April 2025)

• The India-Chile collaboration would be strengthened in the area of vital

minerals, and efforts will be made to develop resilient supply and value
chains.

• Chile is regarded as a gateway to Antarctica, owing to its geographical

proximity and the existence of prominent cities such as Punta Arenas, which
serve as main departure points for expeditions and scientific research missions
to the continent.
Polity – 100 MCQs
1. Consider the following pairs with reference to constitutional amendments

1. 103rd Amendment: Introduced a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker

Sections (EWS) in both educational institutions and government employment.

2. 104th Amendment: Expanded the reservation for Scheduled Castes (SC) and
Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, while
discontinuing the representation of Anglo-Indians.

3. 105th Amendment: Allocated one-third of the seats for women in the Lok
Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and Delhi Legislative Assemblies,
including those reserved for SCs and STs.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

1. Consider the following pairs with reference to constitutional amendments

1. 103rd Amendment: Introduced a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker

Sections (EWS) in both educational institutions and government employment.

2. 104th Amendment: Expanded the reservation for Scheduled Castes (SC) and
Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, while
discontinuing the representation of Anglo-Indians.

3. 105th Amendment: Allocated one-third of the seats for women in the Lok
Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and Delhi Legislative Assemblies,
including those reserved for SCs and STs.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

Explanation:
• 103rd Amendment: Introduced a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker
Sections (EWS) in both educational institutions and government
employment.Hence, pair 1 is correct.
• 104th Amendment: Expanded the reservation for Scheduled Castes (SC) and
Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, while
discontinuing the representation of Anglo-Indians.Hence, pair 2 is correct.
• 105th Amendment: Reaffirmed the authority of states to identify and declare
Other Backward Classes (OBCs).Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
• 106th Amendment: Allocated one-third of the seats for women in the Lok
Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and Delhi Legislative Assemblies,
including those reserved for SCs and STs.
2. Identify the Indian innovation among the following:
1. Zero Hour
2. Calling Attention motion
Select from the options given below:
A.1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Identify the Indian innovation among the following:
1. Zero Hour
2. Calling Attention motion
Select from the options given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Both Zero Hour and the Calling Attention Motion are considered innovations
in the Indian parliamentary procedure. Hence C is the correct answer.
• However, unlike Zero Hour, the Calling Attention Motion is explicitly
mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
3. Which of the following examples can be associated with Indian
Secularism?
1. In order to respect the sentiments of all religions and not interfere with
religious practices, the State makes certain exceptions for particular
religious communities.
2. In order to prevent religion-based exclusion and discrimination of
‘lower castes’, the Indian Constitution bans untouchability.
3. The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious communities to
set up their own schools and colleges.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
3. Which of the following examples can be associated with Indian
Secularism?
1. In order to respect the sentiments of all religions and not interfere with
religious practices, the State makes certain exceptions for particular
religious communities.
2. In order to prevent religion-based exclusion and discrimination of
‘lower castes’, the Indian Constitution bans untouchability.
3. The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious communities to
set up their own schools and colleges.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Explanation:
What is Indian Secularism?

• The Indian Constitution mandates that the Indian State be secular. According
to the Constitution, only a secular State can realise its objectives to ensure the
following:
o that one religious community does not dominate another;
o that some members do not dominate other members of the same religious
community;
o that the State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the
religious freedom of individuals. The Indian State works in various ways
to prevent the above domination.
Explanation:
• First, it uses a strategy of distancing itself from religion. The Indian State is not
ruled by a religious group and nor does it support any one religion. In India,
government spaces like law courts, police stations, government schools and
offices are not supposed to display or promote any one religion. Government
schools cannot promote any one religion either in their morning prayers or
through religious celebrations. This rule does not apply to private schools.
Hence statement 1 and 3 is CORRECT.
• The second way in which Indian secularism works to prevent the above
domination is through a strategy of noninterference. This means that in order
to respect the sentiments of all religions and not interfere with religious
practices, the State makes certain exceptions for particular religious
communities. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
Explanation:
• The third way in which Indian secularism works to prevent the domination
listed earlier is through a strategy of intervention
• In order to prevent this religion-based exclusion and discrimination of ‘lower
castes’, the Indian Constitution bans untouchability.

• In this instance, the State is intervening in religion in order to end a social

practice that it believes discriminates and excludes, and that violates the
Fundamental Rights of ‘lower castes’ who are citizens of this country.

• Similarly, to ensure that laws relating to equal inheritance rights are respected,
the State may have to intervene in the religion-based ‘personal laws’ of
communities.

• The intervention of the State can also be in the form of support.

• The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious communities to set up

their own schools and colleges. It also gives them financial aid on a non-
preferential basis.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. According to U.S Constitution, the President can grant pardon except
in case of impeachment.
2. The U.S. President has absolute power of pardons for criminal
offences.
3. Such a pardon may be issued prior to the start of a legal case as well as
prior to or after a conviction for a crime.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
4. Consider the following statements:
1. According to U.S Constitution, the President can grant pardon except
in case of impeachment.
2. The U.S. President has absolute power of pardons for criminal
offences.
3. Such a pardon may be issued prior to the start of a legal case as well as
prior to or after a conviction for a crime.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Explanation:
According to U.S Constitution, the President can grant pardon except in case of
impeachment. The U.S. President has absolute power of parson for criminal
offences. Such a pardon may be issues prior to the start of a legal case as well as
prior to or after a conviction for a crime.
5. Statement 1: Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, provides a special
framework for granting Indian citizenship to immigrants in Assam
based on their date of entry.
Statement 2: The provision was introduced as part of the Assam Accord,
1985, to address the issue of illegal migration from Bangladesh.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true, and statement 1 is the correct
explanation of statement 2.
B. Both statement 1 and 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of statement 1
C. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.
5. Statement 1: Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, provides a
special framework for granting Indian citizenship to immigrants
in Assam based on their date of entry.
Statement 2: The provision was introduced as part of the Assam
Accord, 1985, to address the issue of illegal migration from
Bangladesh.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true, and statement 1 is the correct
explanation of statement 2.
B. Both statement 1 and 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of statement 1
C. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.
Explanation:
• Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, was specifically designed for Assam. It
grants Indian citizenship to immigrants based on the date of their entry into
the state, with a cutoff of 25th March 1971. Those who entered before 1st
January 1966 are automatically eligible, while those who entered between 1st
January 1966 and 25th March 1971 must fulfil certain conditions. Hence
statement 1 is CORRECT.
• Section 6A was introduced following the Assam Accord (1985), a tripartite
agreement between the Central Government, the Assam State Government,
and leaders of the Assam Movement. The accord aimed to address the influx
of illegal migrants from Bangladesh while safeguarding the rights and identity
of Assam’s indigenous population. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
• Link between the two statements: The reason clearly explains the assertion
because Section 6A was a direct legislative outcome of the Assam Accord,
tailored to address the unique challenges posed by migration in Assam.
6. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri
Gram Sadak Yojana (Government Schemes)
1. It functions under the Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways
2. After 5 years of construction of the road, state government has
to provide for maintenance cost.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri
Gram Sadak Yojana (Government Schemes)
1. It functions under the Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways
2. After 5 years of construction of the road, state government has
to provide for maintenance cost.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• PMGSY is a centrally sponsored scheme started in 2000 to
provide all weather connectivity with necessary culverts and
cross drainage structures to eligible unconnected habitations in
RURAL areas.
• PMGSY roads are constructed by the State Governments with a
design life of at least 10 years.
• The States shall provide for adequate funds for maintenance of
roads post 5-year construction. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Nodal Ministry is Ministry of Rural Development. Hence
statement 1 is incorrect.
Explanation:
Additional information:
• Standards of Construction: A Manual on Geometric Standards,
Design, Construction and Maintenance of Rural Roads was published
by the Indian Roads Congress (IRC)
• Quality Assurance: National Rural Infrastructure Development
Agency (NRIDA) engages independent National Quality Monitors
(NQMs) for inspections at random, of the road works under the
programme.
• A modern web based Online Management, Monitoring and
Accounting System (OMMAS) is used for monitoring the progress of
roads.
• “Meri Sadak” App was launched and integrated into OMMAS for user
friendly and transparent Citizen Feedback and complaint redressal
system
Explanation:
• At District level, the District Development Coordination and
Monitoring Committee (Disha) headed by a Member of
Parliament (LS) monitors the implementation.
• Waste plastics, cold mix technology, cell filled concrete,
stabilization using cement and lime, nano technology and Full
Depth Reclamation (FDR) are in use.
7. Which of the following statements about National Recruitment
Agency is correct?
A. It is a body to conduct Common Eligibity Test (CET) to shortlist
the candidates for vacancies under Group B and Group C of the
government
B. Employment in private sector is facilitated in all the districts
particularly 117 aspirational districts
C. It was set up in 2014
D. It has been accorded constitutional status in 2022
7. Which of the following statements about National Recruitment
Agency is correct?
A. It is a body to conduct Common Eligibity Test (CET) to
shortlist the candidates for vacancies under Group B and
Group C of the government
B. Employment in private sector is facilitated in all the districts
particularly 117 aspirational districts
C. It was set up in 2014
D. It has been accorded constitutional status in 2022
Explanation:
• The NRA is an autonomous body approved by the Union Cabinet in
2020 to conduct a Common Eligibility Test (CET). The aim is to
simplify the recruitment process for Group B (non-gazetted) and
Group C posts in the Central Government and affiliated organizations.
Hence option A is CORRECT.
• It seeks to replace multiple examinations conducted by different
agencies (such as SSC, RRB, and IBPS) with a single, standardized test
at the preliminary stage, reducing the burden on candidates and
recruitment agencies.
Explanation:
o Common Eligibility Test (CET): This test serves as a single
preliminary test for various government jobs.
o Coverage: The CET is aimed at providing employment
opportunities, particularly in rural and underdeveloped areas.
o Focus on Accessibility: Testing centres will be set up in all
districts, especially the 117 aspirational districts, to ensure wider
accessibility.
8. Which of the following statements about Gram Nyayalayas is/are
correct?
1. Gram Nyayalayas are established at the intermediate Panchayat level
or for a group of contiguous Panchayats.
2. They function as mobile courts and have both civil and criminal
jurisdiction.
3. Gram Nyayalayas are bound by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
4. Conciliation is encouraged in dispute resolution, with social workers
acting as conciliators.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
8. Which of the following statements about Gram Nyayalayas is/are
correct?
1. Gram Nyayalayas are established at the intermediate Panchayat level
or for a group of contiguous Panchayats.
2. They function as mobile courts and have both civil and criminal
jurisdiction.
3. Gram Nyayalayas are bound by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
4. Conciliation is encouraged in dispute resolution, with social workers
acting as conciliators.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
• Gram Nyayalayas are set up at the intermediate Panchayat level or for a group
of contiguous Panchayats, as per the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008. Hence
statement 1 is CORRECT.
• These courts function as mobile courts, traveling to the villages within their
jurisdiction. They have both civil and criminal jurisdiction. Hence statement 2
is CORRECT.
• Gram Nyayalayas are not bound by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (now
replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam) but instead follow the
Principles of Natural Justice to ensure speedy and simple resolution of
disputes. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.
• Gram Nyayalayas encourages dispute resolution through conciliation, and
social workers or other suitable individuals may be appointed as conciliators
to assist in the process. Hence statement 4 is CORRECT.
9.Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission.

1. It is to be constituted under parliamentary law.

2. Its orders cannot be challenged in the court of law.

3. The last delimitation exercise in Assam before 2023 was held after the Assam
Accord was signed in 1985.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 , 2 and 3
9.Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission.

1. It is to be constituted under parliamentary law.

2. Its orders cannot be challenged in the court of law.

3. The last delimitation exercise in Assam before 2023 was held after the Assam
Accord was signed in 1985.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 , 2 and 3
Explanation:
• Article 82. Readjustment after each census. —Upon the completion of each
census, the allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the
division of each State into territorial constituencies shall be readjusted by such
authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine.
• Composition as per Delimitation Commission act 2002. Hence statement 1 is
CORRECT.
o Chairperson- Present or former Judge of Supreme Court
o CEC or Election Commissioner
o State Election Commissioner of the state concerned
• Upon publication in the Gazette of India, every such order shall have the force
of law and shall not be called in question in any court.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Explanation:
• But in August 2024, Supreme Court in Kishorchandra Chhaganlal Rathod Case
came out with a judgement that constitutional courts have the power to review
the orders of the Delimitation Commission if an order is manifestly arbitrary
and irreconcilable to constitutional values.
• Thus statement 2 may be marked as INCORRECT.
Explanation:
• Delimitation of the Assembly and Parliamentary seats in the State of Assam
was last carried out in 1976 based on 1971 census. Procedure for the
delimitation process has been followed as laid down in the relevant laws viz.
Section 8 A of the R. P. Act, 1950 read with Section 9 (1) (c) and (d) of the
Delimitation Act, 2002 (33 of 2002), Article 82, 170, 330 and 332 of the
Constitution of India. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.

8A. Delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in the States of

Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur or Nagaland.—

• (1) If the President is satisfied that the situation and the conditions prevailing in
the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur or Nagaland are conducive
for the conduct of delimitation exercise, he may, by order, rescind the deferment
order issued under the provisions of section 10A of the Delimitation Act, 2002
(33 of 2002) in relation to that State, and provide for the conduct of delimitation
exercise in the State by the Election Commission.
10. Which of the following judicial pronouncements did not have a direct
impact on the concept of Public Interest Litigation in India

1. SP Gupta versus Union of India 1981

2. M.C Mehta versus Union of India 1987

3. Berubari Union Case 1960

4. Hussainara Khatoon versus State of Bihar 1979

Choose the correct answer

A. Only one of the above

B. Only two of the above
C. Only three of the above
D. All four
10. Which of the following judicial pronouncements did not have a direct
impact on the concept of Public Interest Litigation in India

1. SP Gupta versus Union of India 1981

2. M.C Mehta versus Union of India 1987

3. Berubari Union Case 1960

4. Hussainara Khatoon versus State of Bihar 1979

Choose the correct answer

A. Only one of the above

B. Only two of the above
C. Only three of the above
D. All four
Explanation:
• SP Gupta v Union of India, also known as the First Judges Case the case also
served as a milestone for the PILs in the country. Earlier, a person who
suffered any kind of injury or loss had the right to file a PIL in court. But in
this case, the Court widened the scope and ambit of PIL and held that even a
person other than the one who suffered injury or loss can file a PIL in the
public interest. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• M.C Mehta versus Union of India is a landmark judgement for environmental
litigation and public interest litigation as it also paved the way for absolute
liability principle. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
• Hussainara Khatoon Case 1979 focused on inhuman conditions of prisons and
undertrials.
Explanation:
• Advocate Pushpa Kapila Hingorani moved to the court by filing the issue of
writ of habeas corpus the petitioners stated that a large number of men and
women including children were in jail for years awaiting trial in the court of
law and that the offence even if proved, would not warrant a punishment for
more than a few months.Hence statement 4 is CORRECT.
• Berubari union Case 1960 : The Berubari Union Case, formally known as “In
Re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves,” was a significant advisory
opinion rendered by the Supreme Court of India in 1960. The case addressed
the constitutional questions arising from the Indo-Pakistani agreement
regarding the division of the Berubari Union and the exchange of certain
enclaves between India and Pakistan. This advisory opinion was sought by the
President of India under Article 143 of the Indian Constitution. Hence
statement 3 is INCORRECT.
11. Art 19 (2) places restrictions on freedom of speech and expression on account
of which of the following?

1. Public Order

2. Decency or morality

3. Public Health

4. Defamation

5. Other Fundamental Rights

Select the correct option

A. 1,3 and 5
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 2,4,5 and 6
D. 1,2,3,4,5,6
11. Art 19 (2) places restrictions on freedom of speech and expression on account
of which of the following?

1. Public Order

2. Decency or morality

3. Public Health

4. Defamation

5. Other Fundamental Rights

Select the correct option

A. 1,3 and 5
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 2,4,5 and 6
D. 1,2,3,4,5,6
Explanation:
Article 19 in Constitution of India

19. Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.

All citizens shall have the right-

• to freedom of speech and expression

• to assemble peaceably and without arms;
• to form associations or unions or co-operative societies;
• to move freely throughout the territory of India;
• to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;and
• to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

• Hence B is the correct answer

12. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is
not correct?
A. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only
provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration
or regulation of any tax.
B. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the consolidated
fund of India or the contingency fund of India.
C. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out
of the contingency fund of India.
D. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money
or giving any guarantee by the government of India.
12. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is
not correct?
A. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only
provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration
or regulation of any tax.
B. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the consolidated
fund of India or the contingency fund of India.
C. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys
out of the contingency fund of India.
D. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money
or giving any guarantee by the government of India.
Explanation:
• A bill dealing with provisions related to the imposition, abolition, remission,
alteration, or regulation of any tax is a Money Bill. Hence statement A is
CORRECT.
• Money Bills include provisions related to the custody of the Consolidated
Fund of India and Contingency Fund of India. Hence statement B is
CORRECT.
• Money Bills do not deal with the appropriation of moneys from the
Contingency Fund of India. Instead, they deal with appropriations from the
Consolidated Fund of India. The Contingency Fund is used for unforeseen
expenditures, and its utilization is governed by a separate process. Hence
statement C is INCORRECT.
• Money Bills can include provisions for the regulation of borrowing by the
government or guarantees provided by it. Hence statement D is CORRECT.
13. In India, Judicial Review implies:

A. The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws

and executive orders.
B. The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
Legislatures.
C. The power of the Judiciary to review- all the legislative enactments before they
– are assented to by the President.
D. The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in
similar or different cases.
13. In India, Judicial Review implies:

A. The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws

and executive orders.
B. The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
Legislatures.
C. The power of the Judiciary to review- all the legislative enactments before they
– are assented to by the President.
D. The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in
similar or different cases.
Explanation:
• Judicial review:

o It is the power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of

laws and executive orders.

o Judicial review is defined as the principle under which executive and

legislative actions are reviewed by the judiciary.

o It is a type of court proceeding in which a judge reviews the lawfulness of

a decision or action made by a public body.

▪ It is the power exerted by the courts of a country to examine the

actions of the legislatures, executive and administrative arms of
government and to ensure that such actions conform to the
provisions of the nation’s Constitution.
Explanation:
o The judiciary is vested with the power to review the actions of the other two
arms (Legislative and Executive).

o Judicial review has two important functions, like, of legitimizing

government action and the protection of constitution against any undue
encroachment by the government.

o Judicial review is part of the basic structure of the constitution.

o Judicial review also gives the power to the court to declare the action of the
Government unconstitutional.

o Judicial review is also called the observer and interpretational role of the
Indian judiciary.

o Examples set by the Indian judiciary like Suo Moto cases, the Public Interest
Litigation (PIL), etc. have allowed the judiciary to intervene in many public
issues, even when there is no complaint. Hence option A is CORRECT.
Explanation:
Additional Information.

• Types of Judicial Review:

o Reviews of Legislative Actions:

▪ This review implies the power to ensure that laws passed by the
legislature are in compliance with the provisions of the Constitution.

o Review of Administrative Actions:

▪ This is a tool for enforcing constitutional discipline over administrative

agencies while exercising their powers.

o Review of Judicial Decisions:

▪ This review is used to correct or make any change in previous decisions

by the judiciary itself.
Explanation:
• Importance of Judicial Review:

o It is essential for maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution.

o It is essential for checking the possible misuse of power by the legislature and
executive.

o It protects the rights of the people.

o It maintains the federal balance.

o It is essential for securing the independence of the judiciary.

o It prevents tyranny of executives.

Explanation:
• Problems with Judicial Review:

o It limits the functioning of the government.

o It violates the limit of power set to be exercised by the constitution when it

overrides any existing law.

▪ In India, a separation of functions rather than of powers is followed.

▪ The concept of separation of powers is not adhered to strictly. However, a

system of checks and balances have been put in place in such a manner
that the judiciary has the power to strike down any unconstitutional laws
passed by the legislature.

o The judicial opinions of the judges once taken for any case becomes the
standard for ruling other cases.
Explanation:
o Judicial review can harm the public at large as the judgment may
be influenced by personal or selfish motives.

o Repeated interventions of courts can diminish the faith of the people in the
integrity, quality, and efficiency of the government.

Constitutional Provisions for Judicial Review

• There is no direct and express provision in the constitution empowering the courts
to invalidate laws, but the constitution has imposed definite limitations upon
each of the organs, the transgression of which would make the law void.

• The court is entrusted with the task of deciding whether any of the
constitutional limitations has been transgressed or not.
Explanation:
• Some provisions in the constitution supporting the process of judicial review are:

o Article 372 (1) establishes the judicial review of the pre-constitution

legislation.

o Article 13 declares that any law which contravenes any of the provisions of
the part of Fundamental Rights shall be void.

o Articles 32 and 226 entrusts the roles of the protector and guarantor of
fundamental rights to the Supreme and High Courts.

o Article 251 and 254 states that in case of inconsistency between union and
state laws, the state law shall be void.
Explanation:
o Article 246 (3) ensures the state legislature’s exclusive powers on matters
pertaining to the State List.

o Article 245 states that the powers of both Parliament and State legislatures are
subject to the provisions of the constitution.

o Articles 131-136 entrusts the court with the power to adjudicate disputes
between individuals, between individuals and the state, between the states
and the union; but the court may be required to interpret the provisions of the
constitution and the interpretation given by the Supreme Court becomes the
law honoured by all courts of the land.

o Article 137 gives a special power to the SC to review any judgment

pronounced or order made by it. An order passed in a criminal case can be
reviewed and set aside only if there are errors apparent on the record.
14. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following
statements is correct?

A. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

B. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector
Undertakings
C. It ensures transparency in financial administration
D. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
14. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following
statements is correct?

A. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

B. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector
Undertakings
C. It ensures transparency in financial administration
D. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Explanation:
The Commission shall make recommendations as to the following matters
namely

• The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes
which are to be or may be divided between them under Chapter I Part XII of
the Constitution and the allocation between the States of the respective shares
of such proceeds;
• The principles which should govern the grants in-aid of the revenues of the
States out of the Consolidated Fund of India and the sums to be paid to the
States which are in need of assistance by way of grants-in-aid of their revenues
under article 275 of the Constitution for purposes other than those specified in
the provisions to clause 1 of that article;
Explanation:
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to
supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on
the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the
State.
• Any other matter referred by the President.

• Hence all three statement are INCORRECT.

15. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma
Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the
Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only
once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of 2 in a
particular year

Which of the above statements are not correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
15. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma
Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the
Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only
once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of 2 in a
particular year

Which of the above statements are not correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The Padma Awards are announced annually on Republic Day. It was
instituted in 1954 and is one of the highest civilian honours of India.

• The awards are given in three categories:

o Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service)

o Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order)

o Padma Shri (distinguished service)

• Padma Vibhushan is highest in the hierarchy of Padma Awards followed by

Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.

• Article 18(1) prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen
or a non-citizen.
Explanation:
• Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the
prohibition. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are not titles under the Article
18(1).Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.

o The Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are, in fact, civilian awards given by
the President of India to individuals for their exceptional service to the
nation and do not fall under the purview of this article.

• The Padma Awards were suspended during the years 1978, 1979 and 1993 to
1997. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Explanation:
Bharat Ratna Award Limitations

• The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to
the President of India.

• There is no official limit to the number of Bharat Ratna recipients in a given

year. While the practice has been to award a very small number
annually, typically not exceeding three, this is not a mandated restriction.
Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT
Explanation:
• Post-Independence, the first three gallantry awards namely Param Vir
Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra were instituted by the government
of India on 26th January 1950 and were deemed to have effect from
15th August 1947.

• Thereafter, three other gallantry awards — the Ashoka Chakra Class-I, the
Ashoka Chakra Class-II, and the Ashoka Chakra Class-III — were instituted in
1952 and were deemed to have effect from 15th August 1947.

o These awards were renamed Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya
Chakra respectively in January 1967.

• Order of precedence of these awards is the Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka
Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Vir Chakra, and
the Shaurya Chakra.
16. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling on
the Electoral Bond Scheme (EBS):

1. The Supreme Court declared the Electoral Bond Scheme unconstitutional as it

violated the fundamental right to information under Article 19(1)(a).

2. The Supreme Court upheld the exemption of political donations through

Electoral Bonds from disclosure requirements under the Representation of the
People Act, 1951.

3. The Supreme Court directed the State Bank of India (SBI) to provide details of
electoral bond purchases to the Election Commission of India (ECI), which
must publish them on its official website.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
16. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling on
the Electoral Bond Scheme (EBS):

1. The Supreme Court declared the Electoral Bond Scheme unconstitutional as it

violated the fundamental right to information under Article 19(1)(a).

2. The Supreme Court upheld the exemption of political donations through

Electoral Bonds from disclosure requirements under the Representation of the
People Act, 1951.

3. The Supreme Court directed the State Bank of India (SBI) to provide details of
electoral bond purchases to the Election Commission of India (ECI), which
must publish them on its official website.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• The SC declared the EBS unconstitutional, citing a violation of the voters' right
to information under Article 19(1)(a). Hence, statement 1 is Correct.

• The SC struck down the exemption introduced by the Finance Act, 2017, and
reinstated the requirement to disclose donations above Rs 20,000. Hence,
statement 2 is Incorrect.

• The SC directed the SBI to provide details of electoral bond purchases to the
ECI, which must make the information public.Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• More about the judgement

o A five-judge Constitution Bench of the SC unanimously struck down the

EBS and related amendments as unconstitutional, citing a violation of the
fundamental right to information under Article 19(1)(a).
Explanation:
• Acts Declared Unconstitutional:

o The SC nullified amendments made to the Finance Act, 2017, the

Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, the Income Tax Act, 1961,
and the Companies Act, 2013, which impacted political financing.

• Pre-2017 Legal Framework Restored:

o The SC reinstated the legal framework that existed before the Finance Act,
2017, requiring political parties to adhere to stricter funding disclosure
norms.
17. Which of the following is/are not related to fundamental duties?

1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle
for freedom

2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

3. To promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of

the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 4 only
17. Which of the following is/are not related to fundamental duties?

1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle
for freedom

2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

3. To promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of

the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 4 only
Explanation:
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle
for freedom – Related to Fundamental Duties

• This is one of the Fundamental Duties listed under Article 51A(b) of the
Constitution.

• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture – Related to
Fundamental Duties

• This duty is included under Article 51A(f).

• To promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of

the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes – NOT
related to Fundamental Duties
Explanation:
Explanation:
• This is not a Fundamental Duty.

• It is, however, a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) under Article 46

• Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.

• To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance –

NOT related to Fundamental Duties.

• There is no Fundamental Duty that specifically mentions protection of

historic monuments.

• However, it is the responsibility of the government under various laws and

policies, such as the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and
Remains Act, 1958.

• Hence statement 4 is Incorrect.

18. Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are
correct?
1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to
determine the questions of deciding Fundamental Rights with a duty
to act judicially.
2. Writ of certiorari is mostly available during the pendency of
proceedings before a subordinate court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A. Only I
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
18. Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct?

1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to

determine the questions of deciding Fundamental Rights with a duty to act
judicially.

2. Writ of certiorari is mostly available during the pendency of proceedings

before a subordinate court.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. Only I

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The writ of certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court, tribunal, or
officer to quash a decision made without jurisdiction or in violation of the
principles of natural justice.

• The writ can be issued when the lower authority acts in excess of its
jurisdiction or fails to act judicially.

• The higher court ensures that the lower court acts within the limits of its legal
authority.

• Hence, statement 1 is Correct.

• The writ of certiorari is issued only after the subordinate court or tribunal
has given its decision.
Explanation:
• It is a post-judgment writ, meaning it can be used to quash an already passed
decision, not during ongoing proceedings.

• The Supreme Court and High Courts have clarified that certiorari cannot be
issued during the pendency of a case.

• Hence, statement 2 is Incorrect.

19. Which one among the following statements is not correct?

A. The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of

Article 359 (1) of the Constitution of India

B. The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended

C. Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part

III of the Constitution of India

D. The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by the Parliament

with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public
order
19. Which one among the following statements is not correct?

A. The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of

Article 359 (1) of the Constitution of India

B. The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended

C. Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part

III of the Constitution of India

D. The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by the Parliament

with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public
order
Explanation:
• Article 32 is known as the heart and soul of the Constitution, as described by
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

• It provides the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights.

• However, during a national emergency, the President can suspend the right
to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, as per Article
359(1).

• Hence, statement A is Correct

• Articles 20 and 21 are non-suspendable rights, meaning they cannot be

suspended even during a national emergency.
Explanation:
• This protection was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, which
ensured that protections against conviction for offences (Article 20) and the
right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable at all times.

• Hence, statement B is Correct.

• The Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution are guarantees
against the State.

• Punishments for violations of Fundamental Rights can only be prescribed by

laws made by Parliament or judicial remedies.

• State Legislatures do not have the authority to prescribe punishments for

violations of Fundamental Rights.

• Hence statement C is Incorrect.

Explanation:
• Article 33 empowers Parliament to modify or restrict Fundamental Rights in
relation to:

o Armed forces

o Police forces

o Intelligence agencies

o Other forces charged with maintaining public order

• This is done to ensure discipline and proper functioning of these forces.

• Hence Statement D is Correct.

20. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable
restriction of the right to freedom?
A. When the state disallows a candidate from securing votes in the
name of religion
B. When the state disallows citizens from forming a club out of
State funds that denies access to women
C. When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary
residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
D. All of the above
20. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable
restriction of the right to freedom?
A. When the state disallows a candidate from securing votes in the
name of religion
B. When the state disallows citizens from forming a club out of
State funds that denies access to women
C. When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary
residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
D. All of the above
Explanation:
• The Representation of the People Act, 1951, disallows
candidates from seeking votes based on religion, caste,
community, language, or race.
• The Supreme Court has upheld this as a reasonable restriction
on freedom of speech and expression (Article 19(1)(a)) because
it prevents communalism and disruption of public order.
• This restriction is imposed to maintain secularism and public
order, both of which are constitutional values. Hence, statement
A is Correct.
• Article 15(3) of the Constitution allows the state to make special
provisions for women and children. Hence, statement B is
Correct.
Explanation:
• If a club formed using State funds denies access to women, it
would violate the Right to Equality (Article 14) and Right
against Discrimination (Article 15).
• Restricting such clubs is a reasonable restriction to uphold
gender equality and prevent social discrimination.
• Article 19(1)(e) and (f) guarantee citizens the right to reside and
settle in any part of the country and the right to acquire
property.
Explanation:
• However, Article 19(5) allows the state to impose reasonable
restrictions on these rights in the interests of the general public
or for the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe.
• The Government of Nagaland has powers under Article 371(A)
and other special provisions to restrict land ownership by non-
permanent residents to protect the rights and culture of tribal
communities. Hence statement C is Correct.
21. Which one of the following is not included in the state list in
the Constitution of India?
A. Criminal procedure code
B. Police
C. Law and order
D. Prison
21. Which one of the following is not included in the state list in
the Constitution of India?
A. Criminal procedure code
B. Police
C. Law and order
D. Prison
Explanation:
• The Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) is included in the
Concurrent List (Entry 2, List III). This means both the Centre
and the States can legislate on criminal procedure.
o The Union Parliament enacted the Criminal Procedure
Code, 1973.
• The subject of Police is included in the State List (Entry 2, List
II).
o States have exclusive control over police forces and their
administration.
o Law enforcement, including recruitment, training, and
maintenance of police, is the responsibility of the States.
Explanation:
• Law and order is also a subject in the State List (Entry 1, List II).
o The maintenance of public order and internal security is the
exclusive domain of State governments.
o Prisons are included in the State List (Entry 4, List II).
• The management and regulation of prisons is the
responsibility of the States.
o States are responsible for establishing prisons, managing
prisoners, and ensuring reformation programs.
• Hence A is the Correct option.
22. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider
the following statements:
1. It introduced bicameralism in all provinces of British India.
2. It provided for the establishment of the Federal Court of India.
3. The Act proposed a federal structure with princely states as
voluntary units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
22. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider
the following statements:
1. It introduced bicameralism in all provinces of British India.
2. It provided for the establishment of the Federal Court of India.
3. The Act proposed a federal structure with princely states as
voluntary units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Bicameralism was introduced in six provinces only — Bengal,
Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam, and the United Provinces. It
was not implemented in all provinces. Hence statement 1 is
Incorrect.
• The Act provided for the establishment of the Federal Court of
India, which was set up in 1937. Hence statement 2 is Correct.
• The Act proposed a federal structure that included provinces
and princely states as voluntary units. However, the federation
never came into existence as princely states were reluctant to
join. Hence, statement 3 is Correct.
23. With reference to parliamentary motions in India, consider
the following statements:
1. A Censure Motion must state the specific grounds on which the
government is being censured.
2. A No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in the Rajya
Sabha.
3. If a Censure Motion is passed, the Council of Ministers is
bound to resign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
23. With reference to parliamentary motions in India, consider
the following statements:
1. A Censure Motion must state the specific grounds on which the
government is being censured.
2. A No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in the Rajya
Sabha.
3. If a Censure Motion is passed, the Council of Ministers is
bound to resign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• A Censure Motion must specify the grounds on which the
government is being censured. Hence, statement 1 is Correct.
• A No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha,
not the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is Incorrect.
• If a Censure Motion is passed, it does not automatically require
the Council of Ministers to resign. Only a No-Confidence
Motion leads to their resignation. Hence, statement 3 is
Incorrect.
24. With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the
following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgments under
Article 137 of the Constitution.
2. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to disputes
between two or more states and between the Centre and one or more
states.
3. The Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is binding on the
President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
24. With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgments under
Article 137 of the Constitution.
2. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to disputes between
two or more states and between the Centre and one or more states.
3. The Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is binding on the President
of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgments
under Article 137. Hence statement 1 is Correct.
• The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court covers disputes
between two or more states and between the Centre and one or
more states under Article 131. Hence statement 2 is Correct.
• The Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article
143 is not binding on the President. The President may choose
whether or not to accept the Court’s advice. Hence Statement 3
is Incorrect.
25. With reference to Article 361 of the Indian Constitution,
consider the following statements:
1. Article 361 provides immunity to the President and Governors
from criminal proceedings, arrest, and imprisonment while they
are in office.
2. The immunity under Article 361 applies even after the President
or Governor demits office, protecting them from prosecution for
acts committed during their tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
25. With reference to Article 361 of the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:
1. Article 361 provides immunity to the President and Governors from
criminal proceedings, arrest, and imprisonment while they are in office.
2. The immunity under Article 361 applies even after the President or
Governor demits office, protecting them from prosecution for acts
committed during their tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Article 361 provides immunity to the President and Governors from criminal
proceedings, arrest, and imprisonment while they are in office. This immunity
is intended to ensure the smooth functioning of their constitutional roles.
Hence, statement 1 is Correct.

• The immunity provided under Article 361 is not perpetual. It applies only
during their tenure in office. Once they demit office, they can be prosecuted
for any offences committed during their term. This was a key concern raised
during the Constituent Assembly debates Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.
26. Which of following statements regarding Medical
Termination of Pregnancy Amendment Act 2021 is/are correct?
1. It enhances the upper gestation limit for abortion from 20 to 24
weeks for all married women.
2. It adds a punitive clause for disclosing the identity of the
women undergoing the procedure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which of following statements regarding Medical
Termination of Pregnancy Amendment Act 2021 is/are correct?
1. It enhances the upper gestation limit for abortion from 20 to 24
weeks for all married women.
2. It adds a punitive clause for disclosing the identity of the
women undergoing the procedure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Amendment Act 2021
• A pregnancy may be terminated within 20 weeks, with the opinion of a
registered medical practitioner.
• Approval of two registered medical practitioners will be required for
termination of pregnancies between 20 to 24 weeks.
• The termination of pregnancies up to 24 weeks will only apply to specific
categories of women, as may be prescribed by the central government.
• Further, the central government will notify the norms for the medical
practitioner whose opinion is required for termination of the pregnancy.
• The amendment is also equally applicable on unmarried women. Hence
statement 1 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• Medical Termination of Pregnancy Amendment Act 2021

• Under the 1971 Act, if any pregnancy occurs as a result of failure of any device
or method used by a married woman or her husband to limit the number of
children, such an unwanted pregnancy may constitute a grave injury to the
mental health of the pregnant woman.

• The amendment act amends this provision to replace ‘married woman or her
husband’ with ‘woman or her partner’.

• The upper limit of termination of pregnancy will not apply in cases where
such termination is necessary due to diagnosis of substantial foetal
abnormalities.
Explanation:
• No registered medical practitioner will be allowed to reveal the name and
other particulars of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated, except to
a person authorised by any law.

• Anyone who contravenes this provision, will be punishable with

imprisonment of up to one year, or with a fine, or both. Hence statement 2 is
Correct.
27. Consider the following statements:

1. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article

placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the
Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
27. Consider the following statements:

1. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article

placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the
Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Thirty-Ninth Amendment Act, 1975.

• Placed the disputes relating to the president, vice-president, prime minister

and Speaker beyond the scope of the judiciary.

• They are to be decided by such authority as may be determined by the

Parliament.

• This amendment was struck down as unconstitutional by Supreme Court in

Indira Gandhi v/s Raj Narain Case 1975.
Explanation:
Hence statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2014 and the National Judicial
Appointments Commission Act of 2014 have replaced the collegium system of
appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts with a new body
called the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).

• However, in 2015, the Supreme Court has declared both the 99th
Constitutional Amendment as well as the NJAC Act as unconstitutional and
void.
Explanation:
• Consequently, the earlier collegium system became operative
again.
• This verdict was delivered by the Supreme Court in the Fourth
Judges case (2015).
• The court opined that the new system (i.e., NJAC) would affect
the independence of the judiciary.
• Hence statement 2 is Correct.
28. The Demands for Supplementary Grants must be presented
to and passed by the House:
A. Before the end of the respective financial year
B. Before the budget of the following year is passed
C. After the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund
D. After the submission of report of C.A.G.
28. The Demands for Supplementary Grants must be presented
to and passed by the House:
A. Before the end of the respective financial year
B. Before the budget of the following year is passed
C. After the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund
D. After the submission of report of C.A.G.
Explanation:
Supplementary Grant
• It is granted when the amount authorized by the Parliament
through the appropriation act for a particular service for the
current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.
Additional Grant
• It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial
year for additional expenditure upon some new service not
contemplated in the budget for that year.
Explanation:
Excess Grant

• It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year
in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year.

• It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year.

• Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for
voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of
Parliament.
Explanation:

Vote of Credit

• It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India,

when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service,
the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget.

• Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha.
Explanation:
Exceptional Grant

• It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of
any financial year.

Token Grant

• It is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service

can be made available by reappropriation.

• A demand for the grant of a token sum (of Re 1) is submitted to the vote of the
Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available.

• Reappropriation involves transfer of funds from one head to another.

• It does not involve any additional expenditure.

• Hence OPTION A is Correct.

29. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble is
correct?
1. It cannot act as a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
2. India follows a brand of communistic socialism rather than
democratic socialism.
Select the correct option using the code given below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
29. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble is
correct?
1. It cannot act as a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
2. India follows a brand of communistic socialism rather than
democratic socialism.
Select the correct option using the code given below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution serves as a philosophical guide to the
interpretation of the Constitution. However, it cannot act as a prohibition upon
the powers of the legislature. The Supreme Court has held that while the
Preamble reflects the essence and spirit of the Constitution, it is not
enforceable by law and cannot limit legislative power. Hence statement 1 is
Correct.

• India follows a model of democratic socialism, which is based on the welfare

state principle and promotes public ownership of resources while protecting
individual freedoms and encouraging private enterprise. Communistic
socialism is a more rigid form of socialism that advocates complete state
ownership and control of all resources. The Indian Constitution explicitly
rejects this brand of socialism. Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.
30. Which one of the following statements regarding personal
liberty in not correct ?
A. State does not have the authority to deprive any person within
the territory of India his or her personal liberty
B. Basis of depriving a person his/her personal liberty must be in
accordance with procedure established by law
C. Personal liberty can be secured by the judicial writ of Habeaus
Corpus
D. The majority view of Supreme Court in A.K Gopalan versus
State of Madras case invented ‘Due process of law’
30. Which one of the following statements regarding personal
liberty in not correct ?
A. State does not have the authority to deprive any person within
the territory of India his or her personal liberty
B. Basis of depriving a person his/her personal liberty must be in
accordance with procedure established by law
C. Personal liberty can be secured by the judicial writ of Habeaus
Corpus
D. The majority view of Supreme Court in A.K Gopalan versus
State of Madras case invented ‘Due process of law’
Explanation:
• The due process has derived its meaning from the word ‘the law
of the land’ used in the Section 39 of Magna Carta of 1215.
• Due process is the principle that the government must respect
all of the legal right that is owed to a person according to the
law.
• Due process holds the government subservient to the law of the
land and protects individuals from the excesses of state.
• Due process is either procedural or substantive.
• Thus due process was NOT INVENTED in AK Gopalan case.
Hence option D is the correct answer.
31. Consider the following statements regarding Article 239-AA of the Indian
Constitution:
1. It was inserted by the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991, based on the
recommendations of the Balakrishnan Committee.
2. The Balakrishnan committee had also recommended granting statehood to
Delhi, which was not adopted by the Government.
3. In case of a disagreement between the Lieutenant Governor (L-G) and the Delhi
Council of Ministers, the matter is referred to the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
31. Consider the following statements regarding Article 239-AA of the Indian
Constitution:

1. It was inserted by the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991, based on the
recommendations of the Balakrishnan Committee.

2. The Balakrishnan committee had also recommended granting statehood to

Delhi, which was not adopted by the Government.

3. In case of a disagreement between the Lieutenant Governor (L-G) and the

Delhi Council of Ministers, the matter is referred to the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Article 239-AA was inserted into the Indian Constitution by the 69th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991. This amendment provided special status
to the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, establishing a Legislative
Assembly and a Council of Ministers.

• It was based on the recommendations of the S. Balakrishnan Committee, which

examined the governance structure for Delhi. Hence statement 1 is Correct.

• In 1989, the Balakrishnan Committee, set up by the Union Government in 1987,

submitted its recommendations on the administrative status to be conferred on
Delhi. The Report, headed by civil servant S. Balakrishnan, recommended that
Delhi should continue to remain a Union Territory. However, alongside this, a
Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers must be instituted. Hence
statement 2 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• If there is a disagreement between the Lieutenant Governor (L-G) and the
Council of Ministers, the L-G must refer the matter to the President of India for
a final decision.Until the President makes a decision, the L-G has the discretion
to take action on the matter. Hence statement 3 is Correct.
32. With reference to the Indian Patents Act, 1970, consider the following statements:
1. It grants patents for both products and processes, provided they meet the criteria of
usefulness, novelty, and non-obviousness.
2. Under this act, the Indian government can use patented inventions for public health
purposes without the patent holder’s consent.
3. India’s patent laws align with the TRIPS Agreement under the World Intellectual
Property Organisation (WIPO).
4. The validity of a granted patent in India is 10 years from the date of filing.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only
32. With reference to the Indian Patents Act, 1970, consider the following
statements:

1. It grants patents for both products and processes, provided they meet the
criteria of usefulness, novelty, and non-obviousness.

2. Under this act, the Indian government can use patented inventions for public
health purposes without the patent holder’s consent.

3. India’s patent laws align with the TRIPS Agreement under the World
Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO).

4. The validity of a granted patent in India is 10 years from the date of filing.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 4 only

D. 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
• Patent is an exclusive right granted for an invention of product or process

• Patents (including vaccines) are governed by the Indian Patents Act, of 1970

• For a patent to be granted, an invention needs to fulfil certain criteria:

o Usefulness, Novelty, and Non-obviousness

o India's patent laws cover both:

▪ Product Patents - Grant a monopoly over a specific product and

▪ Process Patents - Prevent competitors from using the same sequence

of steps to create a similar product

• Hence statement 1 is Correct.

Explanation:
• It protects the invention for 20 years. Hence statement 4 is Incorrect.

• Companies can file for patents in multiple countries

• The Act is administered by the Office of the Controller General of Patents,

Designs, and Trademarks Indian Acts align with the TRIPS Agreement under
the WTO. Hence statement 3 is Correct.

• India is a member of the World Intellectual Property Organisation

• Section 100 (Government-use licences) provides that the patents granted do

not in any way prohibit the Central Government in taking measures to protect
public health. Hence statement 2 is Correct.
33. Consider the following statements:
1. The writ of Quo Warranto cannot be exercised to remove a
minister.
2. A writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against private
individual as well.
3. The authority against whom a writ has been filed against in a
particular High Court needs to be a resident of that particular
state itself.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
33. Consider the following statements:
1. The writ of Quo Warranto cannot be exercised to remove a
minister.
2. A writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against private
individual as well.
3. The authority against whom a writ has been filed against in a
particular High Court needs to be a resident of that particular
state itself.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
34. The Vice President of India , who is also the ex officio
Chairman of the Council of States, is elected by the members of
an Electoral College consisting of members of
A. The Rajya Sabha only
B. Both houses of parliament
C. Both houses of parliament and the upper house of State
legislatures
D. Both the houses of parliament and the members of the legislative
assemblies of states and UT’S.
34. The Vice President of India , who is also the ex officio
Chairman of the Council of States, is elected by the members of
an Electoral College consisting of members of
A. The Rajya Sabha only
B. Both houses of parliament
C. Both houses of parliament and the upper house of State
legislatures
D. Both the houses of parliament and the members of the legislative
assemblies of states and UT’S.
Explanation:
The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by
the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral
college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Hence B is the
Correct answer.
35. Which one of the following statements with reference to the
Constitution of India is Correct?
A. Part IX of the constitution is about Municipalities
B. Part IXB of the Constitution is about Cooperative Societies
C. Part XV of the Constitution is about tribunals
D. Part XVI of the constitution is about elections.
35. Which one of the following statements with reference to the
Constitution of India is Correct?
A. Part IX of the constitution is about Municipalities
B. Part IXB of the Constitution is about Cooperative Societies
C. Part XV of the Constitution is about tribunals
D. Part XVI of the constitution is about elections.
Explanation:
• Part IX of the Indian Constitution deals with Panchayati Raj
institutions and was added by the 73rd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1992.
• Part IX-A, not Part IX, deals with Municipalities and was added
by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Hence option
A is Incorrect.
• Part XV of the Constitution deals with Elections, including the
Election Commission of India (ECI), and the conduct of free and
fair elections.
• Tribunals are covered under Part XIV-A, which was added by
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Hence option C
is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• Part XVI of the Constitution deals with special provisions
related to Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Other
Backward Classes (OBCs), and Anglo-Indians, including
reservation in legislatures, appointments, and services.
• Elections are covered under Part XV. Hence option D is
Incorrect.
• Part IXB was added by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act,
2011, to give constitutional status and protection to Cooperative
Societies.
• It defines the structure, governance, and powers of Cooperative
Societies at state and national levels. Hence option B Is Correct
36. Which one of the following regarding Tele Manas App is
correct?
A. It has been launched by the ministry of home affairs for the
safety of girl child
B. Parents of children under 14 years of age can report through this
app directly to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare ,
Government of India about nutritional deficiencies of their
children
C. It is a mobile app for providing support for mental health issues
D. This app has been launched by the Ministry of Education,
Government of India for holistic curricular development of
school children.
36. Which one of the following regarding Tele Manas App is
correct?
A. It has been launched by the ministry of home affairs for the
safety of girl child
B. Parents of children under 14 years of age can report through this
app directly to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare ,
Government of India about nutritional deficiencies of their
children
C. It is a mobile app for providing support for mental health
issues
D. This app has been launched by the Ministry of Education,
Government of India for holistic curricular development of
school children.
Explanation:
• Tele-MANAS (Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking
Across States) is an initiative of the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India.
• It was launched on World Mental Health Day (October 10, 2022)
to provide free, round-the-clock tele-mental health services
across India.
• The initiative is aimed at addressing mental health concerns by
offering tele-counseling, guidance, and referrals to healthcare
facilities.
• The service can be accessed via a 24x7 toll-free number (14416 or
1-800-891-4416) or through a mobile app. Hence option C is the
Correct answer.
37. Consider the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule of
the Indian Constitution:
1. It was added through the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951,
during the tenure of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. The Ninth Schedule was originally created to protect laws related to
agrarian reforms and the abolition of the Zamindari system.
3. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court
held that no law under the Ninth Schedule could be reviewed for
violating the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
4. In Waman Rao v. Union of India (1981), the Supreme Court ruled that
laws added to the Ninth Schedule after 24th April 1973 could be
challenged for constitutionality.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
37. Consider the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule of the
Indian Constitution:

1. It was added through the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, during
the tenure of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.

2. The Ninth Schedule was originally created to protect laws related to agrarian
reforms and the abolition of the Zamindari system.

3. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that
no law under the Ninth Schedule could be reviewed for violating the Basic
Structure of the Constitution.

4. In Waman Rao v. Union of India (1981), the Supreme Court ruled that laws
added to the Ninth Schedule after 24th April 1973 could be challenged for
constitutionality.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, introduced the Ninth Schedule
to provide immunity to certain laws from judicial review. This amendment
was passed under the leadership of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. The
primary purpose was to protect land reform laws from being challenged in
courts on the grounds of violating Fundamental Rights. Hence statement 1 is
Correct.

• Article 31B, which was inserted along with the Ninth Schedule, ensured that
laws placed under it could not be challenged for violating Fundamental
Rights.

• The main purpose was to protect land reform laws that aimed to abolish the
Zamindari system and redistribute land to landless farmers. Hence statement
2 is Correct.
Explanation:
• The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the Basic Structure Doctrine,
ruling that no constitutional amendment can alter the basic structure of the
Constitution.

• However, the judgment did not explicitly state that laws under the Ninth
Schedule were immune from judicial review.

• The real impact on the Ninth Schedule came later in the I.R. Coelho case
(2007), where the Supreme Court ruled that laws under the Ninth Schedule
after 24th April 1973 could be challenged if they violated the Basic Structure.
Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• The Waman Rao case (1981) clarified that:

• Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule before 24th April 1973 were valid and
immune from judicial review.

• However, laws added after this date could be challenged if they violated the
Basic Structure of the Constitution.

• This ruling reinforced the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, ensuring that

Parliament could not misuse the Ninth Schedule to bypass judicial review
indefinitely. Hence statement 4 is Correct.
38. The power of the President of India to refer a matter back to the Council of
Ministers for reconsideration was inserted in the Constitution by

A. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978

B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976

C. 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1977

D. 35th Constitutional Amendment Act 1974

38. The power of the President of India to refer a matter back to the Council of
Ministers for reconsideration was inserted in the Constitution by

A. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978

B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976

C. 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1977

D. 35th Constitutional Amendment Act 1974

Explanation:
• The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975, was passed during the
Emergency and further curtailed the President’s powers.

• It made the President completely bound by the aid and advice of the Council
of Ministers, even removing the option of sending decisions back for
reconsideration.

• This amendment was part of a series of laws aimed at strengthening executive

control and reducing the checks and balances provided by constitutional
institutions.

• The 44th Amendment later reversed this, giving the President the power to
refer matters back for reconsideration once. Hence A is the correct answer.
39. With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill, which one of the following
statements is not correct?

A. Each House needs to pass the bill separately by a prescribed special majority.

B. The bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament

C. The bill cannot be sponsored by a Private Member

D. The President cannot call a joint session to pass the bill.

39. With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill, which one of the following
statements is not correct?

A. Each House needs to pass the bill separately by a prescribed special majority.

B. The bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament

C. The bill cannot be sponsored by a Private Member

D. The President cannot call a joint session to pass the bill.

Explanation:
• As per Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a Constitutional Amendment
Bill must be passed by each House of Parliament separately.

• It requires a special majority, which means:

o At least 50% of the total strength of the House must be present and voting.

o At least two-thirds of the members present and voting must vote in favor
of the Bill.

• There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses in case of a deadlock.

• A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or

the Rajya Sabha.

• There is no requirement for prior approval of the President before introducing

such a bill.
Explanation:
• Unlike Money Bills, which can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha,
Constitutional Amendment Bills have no such restriction.

• A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced by either a Minister or a

Private Member.

• There is no restriction that only the government can propose an amendment.

• Example:

o In 1974, a Private Member’s Bill was introduced by Dr. Shashi Bhushan to

amend the Constitution. Though it was not passed, it proved that a Private
Member could introduce such a bill. Hence option C is Correct.
40. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC):

1. The Constitution specifies the total strength of the UPSC, including the
Chairman and other members.

2. The Chairman of UPSC is ineligible for any further appointment under the
Government of India or a State Government after completing their tenure.

3. The salary and pension of UPSC members are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India, ensuring financial independence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
40. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC):

1. The Constitution specifies the total strength of the UPSC, including the
Chairman and other members.

2. The Chairman of UPSC is ineligible for any further appointment under the
Government of India or a State Government after completing their tenure.

3. The salary and pension of UPSC members are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India, ensuring financial independence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• The Constitution does not specify the total strength of UPSC; instead, it leaves
the discretion to the President of India.

• Generally, the UPSC consists of 9 to 11 members, including the Chairman, but

this is not a constitutional provision. Hence statement 1 is Incorrect.

• As per the Constitution, the Chairman of UPSC cannot be appointed to any

other position in the Central or State Government after completing their term.

• However, UPSC members are eligible for appointment as the Chairman of

UPSC or a State Public Service Commission (SPSC).

• This ensures the independence and impartiality of the Commission. Hence

statement 2 is Correct.
Explanation:
• The salary, allowances, and pensions of UPSC members are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India (CFI).

• This provision ensures the financial autonomy of UPSC, protecting it from

arbitrary government interference. Hence statement 3 is Correct.
41. Which of the following statements regarding Notifiable Diseases in India is
correct?

A. Only the Central Government has the power to declare a disease as notifiable
in India.

B. Reporting a notifiable disease is only a moral obligation and not a legal

requirement.

C. The World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) maintains a list of

notifiable diseases for animals.

D. The International Health Regulations, 1969, do not mandate the reporting of

diseases at a global level, but at regional level.
41. Which of the following statements regarding Notifiable Diseases in India is
correct?

A. Only the Central Government has the power to declare a disease as notifiable
in India.

B. Reporting a notifiable disease is only a moral obligation and not a legal

requirement.

C. The World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) maintains a list of

notifiable diseases for animals.

D. The International Health Regulations, 1969, do not mandate the reporting of

diseases at a global level, but at regional level.
Explanation:
• Recently, parliamentary standing committee on health and family welfare
suggested that Cancer should be included as notified disease to tackle under
reporting.

• Health is a State subject under List II of the Constitution, meaning State

Governments have the power to declare diseases as notifiable.

• However, the Central Government maintains a list of notifiable diseases but

does not have the sole authority to declare them. Hence statement A is
Incorrect.

• Reporting a notifiable disease is legally binding, and failure to report amounts

to a criminal offense.

• Medical practitioners and institutions are required by law to report such cases
to the government. Hence statement B is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• The World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) (formerly Office
International des Epizooties (OIE)) maintains a list of notifiable diseases for
animals.

• This helps in global tracking, prevention, and control of infectious diseases in

animals. Hence statement C is Correct.

• The WHO International Health Regulations, 1969, made disease reporting

mandatory at a global level.

• This ensures timely intervention and containment of infectious diseases

worldwide. Hence statement D is incorrect.
42. Which of the following statements regarding the Press Council of India
(PCI) is correct?

A. The Press Council of India (PCI) is a constitutional body established under

Article 19 of the Indian Constitution.

B. The Chairman of PCI is directly appointed by the President of India.

C. The PCI was set up based on the recommendations of the First Press
Commission.

D. The PCI has the power to regulate television and digital media content in
India.
42. Which of the following statements regarding the Press Council of India
(PCI) is correct?

A. The Press Council of India (PCI) is a constitutional body established under

Article 19 of the Indian Constitution.

B. The Chairman of PCI is directly appointed by the President of India.

C. The PCI was set up based on the recommendations of the First Press
Commission.

D. The PCI has the power to regulate television and digital media content in
India.
Explanation:
• The Press Council of India (PCI) is NOT a constitutional body; it is a statutory
and quasi-judicial body established under the Press Council Act, 1978.

• While it works to uphold press freedom, it was not created under Article 19 of
the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The Chairman of PCI is nominated by a three-member committee, which

includes:

o The Chairman of Rajya Sabha (Vice President of India)

o The Speaker of Lok Sabha

o One representative of the PCI members

• The Chairman, by convention, is a retired Supreme Court judge. Hence

statement 2 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• The First Press Commission, under the chairmanship of Justice J.R.
Mudholkar, recommended the formation of the Press Council of India.

• The PCI was set up in 1966 based on these recommendations. Hence statement
C is Correct.

• The PCI only regulates print media and does not have jurisdiction over
television or digital media.

• Other bodies like the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting and self-
regulatory organizations oversee electronic and digital media. Hence
statement D is Incorrect.
43. Which of the following statements regarding the National Turmeric Board
(NTB) is correct?

A. The National Turmeric Board (NTB) was established under the Ministry of
Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

B. The headquarters of the NTB is located in Erode, Tamil Nadu, known as the
"Turmeric City of India."

C. The NTB is responsible for promoting research, value addition, and raising
awareness about turmeric’s medicinal benefits.

D. The NTB is the first product-specific board established by the Ministry of

Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
43. Which of the following statements regarding the National Turmeric Board
(NTB) is correct?

A. The National Turmeric Board (NTB) was established under the Ministry of
Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

B. The headquarters of the NTB is located in Erode, Tamil Nadu, known as the
"Turmeric City of India."

C. The NTB is responsible for promoting research, value addition, and raising
awareness about turmeric’s medicinal benefits.

D. The NTB is the first product-specific board established by the Ministry of

Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
Explanation:
• The NTB was established under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, not
the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Hence statement A and D are
Incorrect.

• While Erode, Tamil Nadu, is famous for turmeric production, the

headquarters of the National Turmeric Board is in Nizamabad, Telangana.
Hence statement B is Incorrect.

• The NTB aims to promote research, develop new turmeric-based products, and
enhance value addition for both domestic and international markets.

• It also focuses on raising awareness about the medicinal properties of turmeric.

Hence statement C is Correct.
Explanation:
• Additional Info

o The Ministry of Commerce & Industry already oversees product-specific

boards such as the Tea Board, Coffee Board, Rubber Board, Spices Board,
and Tobacco Board.

o The NTB is the sixth product-dedicated board by Ministry of Commerce

and Industry.
44. Which of the following statements about Cabinet Mission are correct?

1. It was sent to India in 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power with the Indian
leaders

2. It proposed a two-tiered federal plan while conceding the largest measure of

regional autonomy

3. There was to be a federation of provinces and states alongside a federal centre.

4. The individual provinces were allowed to form regional unions to which they
could surrender some of their powers by mutual agreement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1,2 and 4 only

C. 2,3 and 4 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4
44. Which of the following statements about Cabinet Mission are correct?

1. It was sent to India in 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power with the Indian
leaders

2. It proposed a two-tiered federal plan while conceding the largest measure of

regional autonomy

3. There was to be a federation of provinces and states alongside a federal centre.

4. The individual provinces were allowed to form regional unions to which they
could surrender some of their powers by mutual agreement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1,2 and 4 only

C. 2,3 and 4 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
• The Cabinet Mission was sent to India in 1946 by the British government to
discuss and plan the transfer of power to Indian leadership. Hence statement 1
is CORRECT.

• The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed a two-tier structure: a union at the

center handling foreign affairs, defense, and communication, while the rest
of the powers were vested in the provinces. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.

• The plan envisioned a federal structure with both provinces and princely
states participating in the federation alongside a weak federal center. Hence
statement 3 is CORRECT.

• Provinces were given the option to group together and form regional unions,
sharing some powers as per mutual agreement. Hence statement 4 is
CORRECT.
45 Consider the following statements regarding the PM-Vidyalaxmi
Scheme:
1. The scheme provides financial assistance to students admitted to
only government higher education institutions based on the latest
NIRF rankings.
2. Under the scheme, students from families with an annual income of
up to ₹4.5 lakhs are eligible for full interest subvention on
education loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
45 Consider the following statements regarding the PM-Vidyalaxmi
Scheme:
1. The scheme provides financial assistance to students admitted to
only government higher education institutions based on the latest
NIRF rankings.
2. Under the scheme, students from families with an annual income of
up to ₹4.5 lakhs are eligible for full interest subvention on
education loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
The PM-Vidyalaxmi Scheme is available not only to students from
government institutions but also to those admitted to private
higher education institutions listed in the top 860 Quality Higher
Education Institutions (QHEIs) based on the latest NIRF
rankings. This includes:

• All government and private institutions ranked in the top 100 in

the NIRF overall rankings.
• Institutions from category-specific and domain-specific NIRF
rankings.
• State government institutions ranked between 101-200 in NIRF.
• All centrally governed institutions
46. Consider the following statements regarding the Model Code
of Conduct (MCC):
1. It is legally enforceable under the Representation of the People
Act, 1951.
2. The Election Commission derives its authority to enforce MCC
from Article 324 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements regarding the Model Code
of Conduct (MCC):
1. It is legally enforceable under the Representation of the People
Act, 1951.
2. The Election Commission derives its authority to enforce MCC
from Article 324 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines
issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to regulate
political parties and candidates during elections.
• It is NOT legally enforceable under the Representation of the
People Act, 1951, or any other law.
• The MCC operates based on moral and ethical principles, and
violations do not attract legal penalties unless they overlap with
existing laws like the Indian Penal Code (IPC) or the
Representation of the People Act, 1951.
• Hence statement 1 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• Article 324 of the Indian Constitution grants the Election Commission of
India (ECI) the power to supervise, direct, and control elections to
Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-
President.

• The MCC is implemented under this constitutional authority, allowing the

ECI to take action against political parties and candidates who violate the code.

• While the MCC is not legally binding, the ECI can use its powers under
Article 324 to ensure compliance, such as issuing warnings, censures, and
even postponing elections in case of serious violations.

• Hence statement 2 is Correct.

47. Match the following Constitutional Amendments with their associated
provisions:

Column A Column B (Provision)

(Amendment)

1. 44th Amendment Act A) Introduced Anti-Defection Law

2. 52nd Amendment Act B) Restricted suspension of Articles 20 and 21 during
Emergency

3. 73rd Amendment Act C) Provided for State Election Commission

4. 74th Amendment Act D) Empowered municipalities with constitutional status

A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

47. Match the following Constitutional Amendments with their associated
provisions:

Column A Column B (Provision)

(Amendment)

1. 44th Amendment Act A) Introduced Anti-Defection Law

2. 52nd Amendment Act B) Restricted suspension of Articles 20 and 21 during
Emergency

3. 73rd Amendment Act C) Provided for State Election Commission

4. 74th Amendment Act D) Empowered municipalities with constitutional status

A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Explanation:
• 44th Amendment Act: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, restricted the scope of
Article 359, ensuring that Articles 20 and 21 remain enforceable during an
Emergency.

• 52nd Amendment Act: 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, introduced the Anti-
Defection Law under the 10th Schedule.

• 73rd Amendment Act: 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, provided for the
constitution of the State Election Commission (Article 243K).

• 74th Amendment Act: The 74th Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional
status to municipalities (Article 243Q-ZG).

• Hence Correct answer : 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D.

48. Consider the following statements regarding Simultaneous Elections in
India:

1. The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024, proposes to introduce

simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

2. The first simultaneous elections in India were held in 1962.

3. Article 82A is proposed to be inserted to facilitate simultaneous elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
48. Consider the following statements regarding Simultaneous Elections in
India:

1. The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024, proposes to introduce

simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

2. The first simultaneous elections in India were held in 1962.

3. Article 82A is proposed to be inserted to facilitate simultaneous elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024, is a proposal that seeks to
introduce simultaneous elections for both Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies.

• The idea of simultaneous elections aims to reduce election-related

expenditure, administrative burden, and policy paralysis due to frequent
elections.

• The Bill proposes structural changes to the election cycle and seeks to amend
provisions related to the tenure of legislatures.

• This initiative has been discussed at various levels, including the NITI Aayog,
the Law Commission, and the High-Level Committee on One Nation, One
Election.

• Hence statement 1 is Correct.

Explanation:
• The first simultaneous elections in India were held in 1951-52, not 1962.

• India held simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies in 1951-52, 1957, 1962, and 1967.

• However, this system broke down due to the dissolution of certain State
Assemblies and the Lok Sabha in 1968-69.

• After this, elections to different states and the Lok Sabha started being held at
different times, leading to the current system of frequent elections.

• Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.

Explanation:
• The 129th Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2024, proposes inserting a new
Article 82A to enable simultaneous elections.

• Article 82A will provide the legal framework for conducting simultaneous
Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections.

• This new article is expected to address concerns related to constitutional

amendments and synchronization of election terms.

• Hence statement 3 is Correct.

49. Under the Anti-Defection Law, which of the following does not lead to
disqualification of a Member of Parliament?

A. If a member voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her political party

B. If a nominated member joins a political party within six months of nomination

C. If an independent member joins a political party after being elected

D. If a member votes contrary to the direction issued by his/her party

49. Under the Anti-Defection Law, which of the following does not lead to
disqualification of a Member of Parliament?

A. If a member voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her political party

B. If a nominated member joins a political party within six months of

nomination

C. If an independent member joins a political party after being elected

D. If a member votes contrary to the direction issued by his/her party

Explanation:
• Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), a member of Parliament or
State Legislature can be disqualified if they voluntarily give up the
membership of their political party.

• The phrase "voluntarily giving up membership" is not limited to formally

resigning but also includes actions indicating disloyalty, such as:

o Publicly opposing the party’s decisions

o Defying the party whip in votes on crucial matters

o Joining another party without resigning

• The Supreme Court (Kihoto Hollohan case, 1992) ruled that even if a member
does not formally resign, their conduct can be considered as voluntarily
giving up membership. Hence OPTION A is Incorrect.
Explanation:
• Nominated members (such as those in Rajya Sabha) are allowed to join a
political party within six months of being nominated without facing
disqualification.

• However, if a nominated member joins a party after six months, they will be
disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.Hence option B is Correct.

• Independent members who are elected without any party affiliation

CANNOT join any political party after the election.

• If an independent MLA/MP joins any political party after being elected, they
will be disqualified under the Anti-Defection Law. Hence option C is
Incorrect.
Explanation:
• If a member defies the party whip and votes against party instructions in
Parliament or the State Legislature, they can be disqualified.

• However, if the party condones the act within 15 days, disqualification can be
avoided.

• Hence option D is Incorrect.

50. Consider the following statements regarding the Proportional
Representation (PR) system:

1. Proportional Representation ensures that the number of seats won by a

political party is directly proportional to the percentage of votes it receives.

2. India follows a Proportional Representation system for electing Rajya Sabha

members and the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
50. Consider the following statements regarding the Proportional
Representation (PR) system:

1. Proportional Representation ensures that the number of seats won by a

political party is directly proportional to the percentage of votes it receives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Proportional Representation (PR) is an electoral system where parties receive
seats in proportion to their share of votes.

• For example, if a party gets 30% of votes, it gets approximately 30% of seats in
the legislature.

• This system is designed to ensure fair representation for different political

parties, reducing the risk of dominance by a single party with a slight vote
majority.

• Hence statement 1 is Correct.

• India does NOT use PR for electing Lok Sabha members (which follows the
First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system).
Explanation:
• However, Proportional Representation is used for:

o Rajya Sabha elections: Members are elected by MLAs using the Single
Transferable Vote (STV) system (a form of PR).

o President of India’s election: Done through an Electoral College using the

STV system of PR.

• Hence statement 2 is Correct.

• Many other electoral systems exist besides FPTP and PR, including:

• Mixed-Member Proportional (MMP) – Used in Germany, New Zealand.

• Ranked-Choice Voting (Instant Runoff) – Used in Australia, Ireland.

• Two-Round System (Runoff Elections) – Used in France.

• Block Voting and Cumulative Voting – Used in some U.S. local elections.

• Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.

51. Consider the following statements regarding Tribunals in India:

1. Tribunals were first introduced in India by the 42nd Constitutional

Amendment Act of 1976.

2. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) has jurisdiction over both civil
servants and military personnel.

3. The Supreme Court in the Rojer Mathew case struck down provisions of the
Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021, as unconstitutional.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. None
51. Consider the following statements regarding Tribunals in India:

1. Tribunals were first introduced in India by the 42nd Constitutional

Amendment Act of 1976.

2. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) has jurisdiction over both civil
servants and military personnel.

3. The Supreme Court in the Rojer Mathew case struck down provisions of the
Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021, as unconstitutional.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. None
Explanation:
• The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal was established as the first Tribunal in
India. The objective was to reduce the workload of courts, expedite
adjudication of disputes, and build expertise on tax matters within the
Tribunal. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) introduced Articles
323A and 323B to establish Administrative and Other Tribunals in the
constitution. Hence statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) only has jurisdiction over civil
servants of the Central Government. Military personnel are covered under
separate tribunals like Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT). Hence statement 2 is
Incorrect.

• The Rojer Mathew case (2019) did not strike down the Tribunal Reforms Act,
2021 (which was enacted later). Instead, it struck down certain provisions of
Finance Act, 2017 regarding tribunal rules. Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.
52. Consider the following statements regarding surrogacy laws in India:

1. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 allows both altruistic and commercial
surrogacy in India.

2. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2024 allow surrogacy using

donor gametes if at least one gamete belongs to the intended couple.

3. Single women (widow or divorcee) can avail surrogacy but must use self-eggs
and donor sperms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
52. Consider the following statements regarding surrogacy laws in India:

1. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 allows both altruistic and commercial
surrogacy in India.

2. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2024 allow surrogacy using

donor gametes if at least one gamete belongs to the intended couple.

3. Single women (widow or divorcee) can avail surrogacy but must use self-eggs
and donor sperms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 bans commercial surrogacy and allows
only altruistic surrogacy (without financial compensation except medical
expenses).Hence statement 1 is Incorrect.

• The 2024 amendment allows donor gametes, provided at least one gamete
belongs to the couple. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Single women (widows or divorcees) can avail surrogacy, but they must use
self-eggs and donor sperm. Hence statement 3 is Correct
53. As per the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5), which of the
following trends was observed in India?

1. The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India has declined below the replacement
level of 2.1.

2. The percentage of institutional births in India has declined compared to

NFHS-4.

3. Child stunting in India has worsened compared to NFHS-4.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 only
53. As per the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5), which of the
following trends was observed in India?

1. The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India has declined below the replacement
level of 2.1.

2. The percentage of institutional births in India has declined compared to

NFHS-4.

3. Child stunting in India has worsened compared to NFHS-4.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 only
Explanation:
• NFHS-5 data shows that India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has declined to 2.0,
which is below the replacement level of 2.1. hence statement 1 is Correct.

• The percentage of institutional births has increased in NFHS-5 compared to

NFHS-4. Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.

• Although child stunting remains a concern, the situation has slightly

improved. According to NFHS-5, 35.5% of children under five were stunted,
compared to 38.4% in NFHS-4. This reflects gradual progress in addressing
malnutrition and child health. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.
54. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Lakhpati Didi’ Initiative:

1. It is implemented under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural

Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).

2. It aims to provide a minimum monthly income of ₹10,000 to selected Self-

Help Group (SHG) members.

3. The initiative is launched by the Ministry of Finance as part of the financial

inclusion strategy for rural women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
54. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Lakhpati Didi’ Initiative:

1. It is implemented under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural

Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).

2. It aims to provide a minimum monthly income of ₹10,000 to selected Self-

Help Group (SHG) members.

3. The initiative is launched by the Ministry of Finance as part of the financial

inclusion strategy for rural women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• The Lakhpati Didi initiative is part of DAY-NRLM under the Ministry of
Rural Development.Hence statement 1 is Correct.

• It targets a household income of ₹1 lakh per year, translating to ₹10,000 per

month for SHG members. Hence statement 2 is Correct.

• The scheme is under the Ministry of Rural Development, not the Ministry of
Finance. Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.
55. Which of the following key trends were observed in the National Health
Accounts (NHA) Estimates for 2021-22?

1. The share of Out-of-Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) in Total Health Expenditure

(THE) has increased.

2. The share of Government Health Expenditure (GHE) as a percentage of THE

has increased.

3. The percentage of Private Health Insurance Expenditures (PHIE) in THE has

decreased.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
55. Which of the following key trends were observed in the National Health
Accounts (NHA) Estimates for 2021-22?

1. The share of Out-of-Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) in Total Health Expenditure

(THE) has increased.

2. The share of Government Health Expenditure (GHE) as a percentage of THE

has increased.

3. The percentage of Private Health Insurance Expenditures (PHIE) in THE has

decreased.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• OOPE in THE has decreased from 48.8% to 39.4%, indicating better financial
protection for citizens. Hence statement 1 is Correct.

• GHE as a percentage of THE increased from 40.8% to 48%, showing greater

public investment in health.Hence statement 2 is Correct.

• PHIE in THE increased from 5.8% to 7.4%, not decreased. Hence statement 3
is Correct.
56. Consider the following statements with reference to Parliamentary
proceedings in India.

1. Every resolution is a substantive motion.

2. All motions are put to vote.

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
56. Consider the following statements with reference to Parliamentary
proceedings in India.

1. Every resolution is a substantive motion.

2. All motions are put to vote.

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Members of Parliament can move resolutions to draw attention of house to
matters of general public interest. Every resolution is a substantive motion,
which is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with important
matters like impeachment of President, removal of a judge etc.Hence,
statement 1 is correct

• All motions are not put to vote, rather only the motions that are resolutions
are put to vote. Hence,statement 2 is incorrect
57. With reference to the Representation of People Act 1951, consider the
following statements.

1. A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an

assembly constituency in the concerned state.

2. A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an

assembly constituency in the concerned state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
57. With reference to the Representation of People Act 1951, consider the
following statements.

1. A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an

assembly constituency in the concerned state.

2. A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an

assembly constituency in the concerned state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an
assembly constituency in the concerned state.Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an

assembly constituency in the concerned state.Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
58. With reference to the Vice President (VP) of India, consider the following
statements.

1. The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of VP must be

subscribed by at least 30 electors as proposers and 30 electors as seconders.

2. The electoral college for election to Vice President comprises of both elected
and nominated members of the Parliament and State Legislatures.

3. A formal impeachment is not required for removal of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. All of the above

58. With reference to the Vice President (VP) of India, consider the following
statements.

1. The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of VP must be

subscribed by at least 30 electors as proposers and 30 electors as seconders.

2. The electoral college for election to Vice President comprises of both elected
and nominated members of the Parliament and State Legislatures.

3. A formal impeachment is not required for removal of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of VP must be
subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders.
Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The electoral college for election to Vice President comprises of both elected
and nominated members of the Houses of Parliament only.Hence,Statement 2
is incorrect.

• A formal impeachment is not required for removal of the Vice President. The
VP can be removed by a resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute
majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Notably, no ground has been
mentioned in constitution for removal of Vice President. Hence, Statement 3 is
correct.
59. Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency:

1. Approval of parliament is necessary for the revocation of the National

Emergency.

2. The emergency can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the

Parliament for every three months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
59. Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency:

1. Approval of parliament is necessary for the revocation of the National

Emergency.

2. The emergency can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the

Parliament for every three months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
National Emergency

• National emergency can be declared on the basis of war, external aggression or

armed rebellion. The Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of
emergency’ to denote an emergency of this type.

• A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by

a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require
parliamentary approval. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect

• If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six
months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the
Parliament for every six months.Hence,Statement 2 is incorrect
60. Consider the following with reference to Reserved Constituencies in Indian
Elections.

1. They ensure more representation in Indian parliament.

2. In a constituency reserved for scheduled castes, only scheduled castes can

stand for elections or vote.

3. Currently 84 constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
60. Consider the following with reference to Reserved Constituencies in Indian
Elections.

1. They ensure more representation in Indian parliament.

2. In a constituency reserved for scheduled castes, only scheduled castes can

stand for elections or vote.

3. Currently 84 constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Reserved Constituencies

• Our Constitution entitles every citizen to elect her/his representative and to be

elected as a representative.

• The Constitution makers, however, were worried that in an open electoral

competition, certain weaker sections may not stand a good chance to get
elected to the Lok Sabha and the state Legislative Assemblies. They may not
have the required resources, education and contacts to contest and win
elections against others. Those who are influential and resourceful may
prevent them from winning elections.

• If that happens, our Parliament and Assemblies would be deprived of the

voice of a significant section of our population. That would make our
democracy less representative and less democratic. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
Explanation:
So, the makers of our Constitution thought of a special system of reserved
constituencies for the weaker sections. Some

• constituencies are reserved for people who belong to the Scheduled Castes
[SC] and Scheduled Tribes [ST].

• In a SC reserved constituency only someone who belongs to the Scheduled

Castes can stand for election. Similarly only those belonging to the Scheduled
Tribes can contest an election from a constituency reserved for ST. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.

• Currently, in the Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and
47 for the Scheduled Tribes (as on 1 September 2012). This number is in
proportion to their share in the total population. Thus the reserved seats for SC
and ST do not take away the legitimate share of any other social group. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
61. Which one of the following is not a thrust area of the Atal Mission for
Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) and AMRUT 2.0?

A. Water Supply

B. Storm water drainage to reduce flooding

C. Mass Urban Transit and capacity building

D. Green Spaces and park

61. Which one of the following is not a thrust area of the Atal Mission for
Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) and AMRUT 2.0?

A. Water Supply

B. Storm water drainage to reduce flooding

C. Mass Urban Transit and capacity building

D. Green Spaces and park

Explanation:
• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was
launched in June 2015.

• It is an initiative to provide basic civic amenities to the urban areas to improve

the quality of life with major focus on poor and disadvantaged.

Thrust Areas

o Water Supply

o Sewerage and Septage Management

o Storm Water Drainage to Reduce Flooding

o Green Space/parks

o For Non Motorised transport

Explanation:
• AMRUT 2.0 launched by Hon'ble Prime Minister on 1 October 2021, with a
total outlay of {2,99,000 crores - nearly 3 times of the AMRUT.

• The Mission envisages providing water tap connections to households in all

statutory towns through 2.68 crore new household tap connections and
providing universal household coverage of sewerage/septage services in 500
AMRUT cities through 2.64 crore new sewer connections/coverage with
septage management.

• City Water Balance Plan will help cities to identify scope for projects focusing
on the objectives of Mission stated above.
Explanation:
• Based on the projects identified in City Water Balance Plans, City Water Action
Plan (CWAP) will be devised. These CWAPs will be aggregated in the form of
State Water Action Plans (SWAP).

o Major reforms are reducing non-revenue water to below 20%;

o Create a 'new tap of water' through recycle of treated used water to meet at
least 20 % of total city water demand and 4O % for industrial water
demand at State level;

o Electric vehicle charging points;

o 24x7 water supply; reforms on property tax and user charges;

Explanation:
o GIS based master plans of the cities;

o Raising funds through issuance of municipal bonds and rejuvenation of

water bodies.

• Thus mass urban transit is not one of the components of AMRUT 2.0. Hence
Option C is Correct.
62. Which one of the following languages was added to the Eighth schedule by
a Constitutional Amendment in 1967?

A. Khasi

B. Kashmiri

C. Sindhi

D. Urdu
62. Which one of the following languages was added to the Eighth schedule by
a Constitutional Amendment in 1967?

A. Khasi

B. Kashmiri

C. Sindhi

D. Urdu
Explanation:
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22
languages:-

o Assamese,

o Bengali,

o Gujarati,

o Hindi,

o Kannada,

o Kashmiri,

o Konkani,
Explanation:
o Malayalam,

o Manipuri,

o Marathi,

o Nepali,

o Oriya,

o Punjabi,

o Sanskrit,

o Sindhi,

o Tamil,

o Telugu,
Explanation:
o Urdu

o Bodo,

o Santhali,

o Maithili and

o Dogri.

• Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.

• Sindhi language was added in 1967 by the 21st Constitutional Amendment

Act
Explanation:
• Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were
included in 1992 via the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act

• Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004 via the
92nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

• Hence C is the CORRECT option.

63. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles
of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

A. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

B. Participation of workers in the management of industries

C. Right to work, education and public assistance

D. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

63. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles
of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

A. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

B. Participation of workers in the management of industries

C. Right to work, education and public assistance

D. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles tothe
original list. They require the State:

• To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).

• To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor

• (Article 39 A).

• To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management

• of industries (Article 43 A).

• To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life
(Article 48 A).
Explanation:
o The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle,
which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status,
facilities and opportunities (Article 38).

o The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of Article 45

and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.

o The amended directive requires the State to provide early childhood care
and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

o The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating
to cooperative societies.

o It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous

functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-
operative societies (Article 43B).

• Hence B is the Correct answer.

64.Consider the following statements regarding electoral rights in India:

1. The right to contest elections in India is a statutory right granted under the
Representation of the People Act, 1951, and not a fundamental right under
the Constitution.

2. Under Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, individuals

in prison or police custody are allowed to vote in elections, except those
under preventive detention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64.Consider the following statements regarding electoral rights in India:

1. The right to contest elections in India is a statutory right granted under the
Representation of the People Act, 1951, and not a fundamental right under
the Constitution.

2. Under Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, individuals

in prison or police custody are allowed to vote in elections, except those
under preventive detention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
The right to contest elections is not a fundamental right but a
statutory right, granted and regulated under the Representation
of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act).

Parliament can modify this right through legislation, unlike

fundamental rights, which are constitutionally
guaranteed.Hence statement 1 is Correct.

Section 62 of the RP Act, 1951, restricts voting rights for

individuals in prison or police custody, meaning they are not
allowed to vote. However, those under preventive detention
are allowed to vote

Since the statement incorrectly says prisoners and those in police

custody are allowed to vote, it is incorrect. Hence statement 2 is
Incorrect.
65. Consider the following statements regarding curative petition

1. It is based on Article 136 of the constitution.

2. There are limited grounds upon which it can be entertained which are
exhaustive in nature.

3. Only the Supreme Court has the power to entertain curative petitions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
65. Consider the following statements regarding curative petition

1. It is based on Article 136 of the constitution.

2. There are limited grounds upon which it can be entertained which are
exhaustive in nature.

3. Only the Supreme Court has the power to entertain curative petitions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• A legal remedy accessible following the denial of a review plea against a final
conviction is a curative petition.Constitutionally speaking, a challenge to a
final decision rendered by the Supreme Court is normally limited to review
petitions and specific procedural grounds.

• In 2002, A 5-Judge Constitution Bench in Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra

& another Case, recognised ‘Curative Petitions’ as a final remedy to reconsider
dismissed review petitions. Hence statement 1 is incorrect as Article 136 refers
to Special Leave to Appeal.

• They held that the Supreme Court could entertain a curative petition under the
following grounds: 1) violation of principles of natural justice, 2) question of
bias against the presiding judge, 3) abuse of the process of the court. These
grounds were not exhaustive. Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.

• It is an exclusive power of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 3 is correct.

66. With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:

1. The Governor of a state has the sole authority to create new autonomous
districts under the Sixth Schedule.

2. Any amendment to the provisions of the Sixth Schedule requires a special

majority of Parliament as mandated under Article 368.

3. The Sixth Schedule grants legislative, executive as well as judicial powers to

the Autonomous District Councils ( ADCs) on matters related to land revenue
and traditional practices.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
66. With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:

1. The Governor of a state has the sole authority to create new autonomous
districts under the Sixth Schedule.

2. Any amendment to the provisions of the Sixth Schedule requires a special

majority of Parliament as mandated under Article 368.

3. The Sixth Schedule grants legislative, executive as well as judicial powers to

the Autonomous District Councils ( ADCs) on matters related to land revenue
and traditional practices.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• Formation of sixth schedule areas is based on recommendations of Gopinath
Bordolai Sub committee on Excluded and partially excluded areas of north
east.

• The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal
areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

• The Governor may, by public notification,

o include any area in sixth schedule

o exclude any area from sixth schedule

o create a new autonomous district,

Explanation:
o increase the area of any autonomous district,

o diminish the area of any autonomous district,

o unite two or more autonomous districts or parts thereof so as to form one

autonomous district, 5 alter the name of any autonomous district

o define the boundaries of any autonomous district

• Hence statement 1 is correct

• Sixth schedule of the constitution can be amended by simple majority of the

parliament. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can
constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the
tribes.
Explanation:
• They hear appeals from them.

• The district council can establish, construct or manage primary schools,

dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district.

• The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land
revenue and to impose certain specified taxes .

• They can make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water,
shifting cultivation, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage
and divorce, social customs and so on. But all such laws require the assent of
the governor. Hence statement 3 is correct.
67. Consider the following pairs

1. 9th Constitutional Amendment: Minor adjustments to territory of Indian Union

consequent to agreement with Pakistan for settlement of disputes by
demarcation of border villages

2. 10th Constitutional Amendment: Incorporation of Goa, Daman and Diu as a

Union Territory, consequent to acquisition from Portugal.

3. 12th Constitutional Amendment: Incorporation of Dadra and Nagar Haveli as a

Union Territory, consequent to acquisition from Portugal.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

67. Consider the following pairs

1. 9th Constitutional Amendment: Minor adjustments to territory of Indian Union

consequent to agreement with Pakistan for settlement of disputes by
demarcation of border villages

2. 10th Constitutional Amendment: Incorporation of Goa, Daman and Diu as a

Union Territory, consequent to acquisition from Portugal.

3. 12th Constitutional Amendment: Incorporation of Dadra and Nagar Haveli as a

Union Territory, consequent to acquisition from Portugal.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

Explanation:
• 9th Constitutional Amendment Act 1960 - Amendment to Schedule 1 - Minor
adjustments to territory of Indian Union consequent to agreement with
Pakistan for settlement of disputes by demarcation of border villages. Hence
pair 1 is Correctly matched.

• 10th Constitutional Amendment Act 1961 - Incorporation of Dadra and Nagar

Haveli as a Union Territory, consequent to acquisition from Portugal. Hence
pair 2 is Incorrectly matched.

• 12th Constitutional Amendment Act 1961 – Amended Article 240 and schedule
1 -Incorporation of Goa, Daman and Diu as a Union Territory, consequent to
acquisition from Portugal. Hence pair 3 is Incorrectly matched.

• Hence Only first pair is correctly matched.

68. Which of the following features of the Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP) are correct?

1. They are justiciable in nature.

2. They impose a moral obligation on the state.

3. They are derived from the Irish Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
68. Which of the following features of the Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP) are correct?

1. They are justiciable in nature.

2. They impose a moral obligation on the state.

3. They are derived from the Irish Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Part IV of the Constitution provide for Directive Principles of State Policy
under Articles 36 to 51.

• DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced in courts. Hence,

statement 1 is incorrect.

• They impose a moral obligation on the state to implement welfare policies.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The concept of DPSPs is borrowed from the Irish Constitution. Hence,

statement 3 is correct.
69. Over which of the following, the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha held joint
sittings to resolve their differences?

1. Dowry Prohibition Bill 1959

2. The Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill 1978

3. The Prevention of Terrorism Bill 2002

4. The Land Acquisition , Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act 2013

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1,2,3 and 4

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3

D. 2 and 4
69. Over which of the following, the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha held joint
sittings to resolve their differences?

1. Dowry Prohibition Bill 1959

2. The Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill 1978

3. The Prevention of Terrorism Bill 2002

4. The Land Acquisition , Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act 2013

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1,2,3 and 4

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3

D. 2 and 4
Explanation:
Under Article 108 of the Constitution, joint sitting takes place when there is a
deadlock between the two houses over the passage of an ordinary bill

• Deadlock means:

o If the other house rejects the bill or

o The houses have disagreed for the amendments suggested by the other

o More than 6 months have elapsed from the date of receipt of the bill

• This provision has been invoked only thrice

o 1961- Dowry Prohibition Bill 1960 which was passed as Dowry prohibition
Act 1961

o 1978- Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill 1978

o 2002 – Prevention of Terrorism Bill 2002

• Hence C is the Correct option.

70. Consider the following statements regarding Cess and Surcharges

1. They are not mentioned in the Constitution of India.

2. Their share in Centre’s gross tax revenue has increased nearly two fold since
2010-11.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
70. Consider the following statements regarding Cess and Surcharges

1. They are not mentioned in the Constitution of India.

2. Their share in Centre’s gross tax revenue has increased nearly two fold since
2010-11.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Article 270 of the Constitution allows cess to be excluded from the purview of
the divisible pool of taxes that the Union government must share with the
States.

• A surcharge is discussed under Article 270 and 271 of the Indian Constitution.
Hence statement A is Correct.

• Unlike a cess, which is meant to raise revenue for a temporary need, surcharge
is usually permanent in nature.

• The share of cesses and surcharges, along with the cost of collection, reached a
high of ₹13.5 for every ₹100 collected as taxes by the Centre in 2021-22 — the
highest ratio in at least over a decade.

• Since then, it has gradually declined and is expected to be around ₹10.97

according to the latest Budget Estimates (BE) for 2025-26. In contrast, in many
years before the pandemic, this figure ranged only between ₹5 and ₹7.

• Hence statement B is Correct.

71. Consider the following statements

1. Contributions to political parties under Section 29 C of RPA are exempted

from income tax.

2. A party is recognized as a national party if it gets the state party status in 3 or

more states.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
71. Consider the following statements

1. Contributions to political parties under Section 29 C of RPA are exempted

from income tax.

2. A party is recognized as a national party if it gets the state party status in 3 or

more states.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Obligations of the Registered Political Parties

• Under Section 29 C of the RP Act the registered parties are required to furnish
a contribution report. Such contributions are 100% exempted from income tax
as an incentive to the parties for strengthening the electoral democracy. Hence
statement 1 is correct.

• Section 29A (9) of the Act mandates every political party to communicate any
change in its name, head office, office bearers, address, PAN to the
Commission without delay. They also have to submit audited annual
statements and a return of income for each assessment year to be eligible for
exemption from income tax.

• The parties need to include in their constitution that they must contest an
election conducted by the ECI within five years of registration.
Explanation:
• Upon participation in an election, they have to furnish their election
expenditure statement within 75 days in case of Assembly polls and within 90
days in case of Lok Sabha election.

• Any aggrieved party can approach the Chief Electoral Officer concerned with
full facts within 30 days of the ECI order, along with all the evidence, to seek
remedial action.
Explanation:
Conditions for Recognition as a National Party

• At present (2019), a party is recognised as a national party if any of the

following conditions is fulfilled :

• If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a
general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and, in
addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states; or

• If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these
candidates are elected from three states; or

• If it is recognised as a state party in four states.

• Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.

72. Consider the following statements regarding Inter State Council

1. The first Inter State Council was constituted during the Prime Ministership of
PV Narasimha Rao.

2. The Standing Committee of the Council was set up in 1996 with Union Home
Minister as the Chairperson.

3. Article 263 stipulates the President to constitute an Inter State Council every
five years or earlier.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3
72. Consider the following statements regarding Inter State Council

1. The first Inter State Council was constituted during the Prime Ministership of
PV Narasimha Rao.

2. The Standing Committee of the Council was set up in 1996 with Union Home
Minister as the Chairperson.

3. Article 263 stipulates the President to constitute an Inter State Council every
five years or earlier.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
• Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect
coordination between the states and between Centre and states.

• Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him
that the public interest would be served by its establishment. Hence statement
3 is Incorrect

• Article 263 specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following
manner:

o enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between
states;

o investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and
the states have a common interest; and

o making recommendations upon any such subject, and particularly for the
better co-ordination of policy and action on it.
Explanation:
• In pursuance of the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission, the Janata
Dal Government headed by V. P. Singh established the Inter- State Council in
1990. Hence statement 1 is Incorrect.

• It consists of the following members:

o Prime minister as the Chairman

o Chief ministers of all the states

o Chief ministers of union territories having legislative assemblies

o Administrators of union territories not having legislative assemblies

o Governors of States under President’s rule

o Six Central cabinet ministers, including the home minister, to be

nominated by the Prime Minister.
Explanation:
• There is also a Standing Committee of the Council.

• It was set up in 1996 for continuous consultation and processing of matters for
the consideration of the Council.

• It consists of the following members:

o Union Home Minister as the Chairman

o Five Union Cabinet Ministers

o Nine Chief Ministers

• Hence statement 2 is Correct.

73. Which of the following statements regarding elections in India is incorrect?

A. Persons in jail or in police custody are allowed to contest elections in India.

B. The voters polled against the NOTA option are not taken into account for
calculating the total valid voters polled by the contesting candidates for the
purpose of return of security deposits to candidates.

C. Elections to Rajya Sabha are held by system of proportional representation and

secret ballot.

D. Facility to vote through proxy is only available to service voters.

73. Which of the following statements regarding elections in India is incorrect?

A. Persons in jail or in police custody are allowed to contest elections in India.

B. The voters polled against the NOTA option are not taken into account for
calculating the total valid voters polled by the contesting candidates for the
purpose of return of security deposits to candidates.

C. Elections to Rajya Sabha are held by system of proportional representation

and secret ballot.

D. Facility to vote through proxy is only available to service voters.

Explanation:
• According to Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a
person in prison or lawful police custody is not allowed to vote in elections.
However, there is no restriction on contesting elections while being in jail or
police custody.

• The Supreme Court in K. Prabhakaran v. P. Jayarajan (2005) held that

disqualification applies only to voting rights and not to contesting elections.

• Only individuals convicted under Section 8 of the Representation of the

People Act, 1951 (disqualification due to certain criminal offenses) are barred
from contesting elections. Hence A is Correct.

• The Supreme Court in PUCL v. Union of India (2013) directed the Election
Commission to introduce the None of the Above (NOTA) option in Electronic
Voting Machines (EVMs).
Explanation:
• As per the Election Commission of India (ECI) guidelines, votes polled under
NOTA are not counted for the calculation of the total valid votes for deciding
the security deposit return of candidates Hence option B is CORRECT..

• The Representation of the People Act, 1951 allows only service voters (such as
members of the Armed Forces, paramilitary forces, and certain government
personnel posted abroad) to use the proxy voting facility.

• Section 60 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, along with the
Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, provides the framework for proxy voting,
which enables a nominated proxy to vote on behalf of the service voter.

• General citizens, NRIs (except in postal voting in some cases), and other voters
do not have the proxy voting option. Hence option D is Correct
Explanation:
• Elections to the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) are conducted by proportional
representation using the single transferable vote (STV) system, as per Article
80(4) of the Constitution of India.

• However, the voting in Rajya Sabha elections is NOT conducted through a

secret ballot.

• As per the Election Commission's guidelines (2003), Rajya Sabha elections

follow open ballot voting, where party-affiliated MLAs must show their ballots
to their party whip to prevent cross-voting.

• The Supreme Court upheld this system to curb corruption and ensure
transparency in Rajya Sabha elections. Hence statement C is Incorrect and is
the right option.
74. Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967:

1. It empowers the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to investigate cases.

2. The Act allows the government to designate individuals as terrorists.

3. The maximum duration for filing a charge sheet is 90 days, which can be
extended to 180 days with court approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
74. Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967:

1. It empowers the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to investigate cases.

2. The Act allows the government to designate individuals as terrorists.

3. The maximum duration for filing a charge sheet is 90 days, which can be
extended to 180 days with court approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967 is primarily an anti-
terror law that aims to curb unlawful activities that threaten the sovereignty
and integrity of India.

• The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is empowered to investigate and

prosecute offenses under UAPA. This power was granted after the 2008
Mumbai attacks, when the NIA Act, 2008 was enacted.

• The NIA can take over investigations of UAPA cases from state police if
deemed necessary. Hence statement 1 is Correct.

• Originally, UAPA allowed only organizations to be designated as "terrorist

organizations".
Explanation:
• However, the UAPA (Amendment) Act, 2019 expanded the law, allowing the
central government to designate individuals as terrorists under Section 35 of
the Act.

• This amendment was introduced to strengthen counter-terrorism laws by

targeting not just organizations but also individuals involved in terrorist
activities.

• Examples: The Government of India designated certain individuals like Hafiz

Saeed and Masood Azhar as terrorists under this provision. Hence statement 2
is Correct.

• Under normal criminal law (CrPC Section 167), the maximum time limit for
filing a charge sheet is:
Explanation:
• 60 days for cases where the offense is punishable with imprisonment less than
10 years.

• 90 days for cases where the offense is punishable with death, life
imprisonment, or imprisonment for at least 10 years.

• However, under UAPA, this period can be extended to 180 days with the
approval of a court (as per Section 43D(2) of the UAPA).

• This provision allows agencies to conduct longer investigations in terror-

related cases without the accused getting default bail.

• Hence statement 3 is Correct.

75. Match the following Constitutional Articles with their respective provisions:

List I (Article) List II (Provision)

A. Article 350A 1. Official language of the states

B. Article 345 2. Instruction in mother tongue at the

primary stage

C. Article 343 3. Language of the Union (Hindi in

Devanagari script)

Select the correct option:

A. A-2, B-1, C-3

B. A-1, B-2, C-3

C. A-3, B-1, C-2

D. A-2, B-3, C-1

75. Match the following Constitutional Articles with their respective provisions:

List I (Article) List II (Provision)

A. Article 350A 1. Official language of the states

B. Article 345 2. Instruction in mother tongue at the

primary stage

C. Article 343 3. Language of the Union (Hindi in

Devanagari script)

Select the correct option:

A. A-2, B-1, C-3

B. A-1, B-2, C-3

C. A-3, B-1, C-2

D. A-2, B-3, C-1

Explanation:
• Article 350A was inserted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.

• It directs the state to provide facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at
the primary education stage for children belonging to linguistic minority
groups.

• This provision aims to preserve linguistic diversity and ensure better

understanding at the foundational level. Hence pair A is Correctly matched

• Article 345 empowers the Legislature of a State to adopt any one or more of
the languages in use in the State or Hindi as the official language for all or any
of its official purposes.

• This provision ensures linguistic autonomy for states while maintaining a

connection with the Union's language policy.
Explanation:
• However, English may continue as an official language if the state legislature
so decides.

• Hence Pair 2 is Correctly matched

• Article 343 declares Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of
the Union.

• However, for the first 15 years (from 1950 to 1965), English was to continue
as an associate official language.

• Parliament, through law, can allow the use of English even beyond this
period, which was done via the Official Languages Act, 1963.

• Hence Pair 3 is Correctly matched.

76. With reference to Article 19 of the Indian Constitution and economic
freedom, consider the following statements:

1. The freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade, or

business is a fundamental right under Article 19 and is available only to
citizens of India.

2. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on this freedom in the interest of
public health, safety, and morality.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
76. With reference to Article 19 of the Indian Constitution and economic
freedom, consider the following statements:

1. The freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade, or

business is a fundamental right under Article 19 and is available only to
citizens of India.

2. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on this freedom in the interest of
public health, safety, and morality.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Article 19 guarantees to all citizens the six rights.

• These six rights are protected against only state action and not private
individuals. Moreover, these rights are available only to the citizens and to
shareholders of a company but not to foreigners or legal persons like
companies or corporations, etc. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• The State can impose ‘reasonable’ restrictions on the enjoyment of these six
rights only on the grounds mentioned in the Article 19 itself and not on any
other grounds. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• Originally, Article 19 contained seven rights. But, the right to acquire, hold and
dispose of property was deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
Explanation:
Freedom of Speech and expression:

Provisions:

Every citizen has the right to express his views, opinions, belief and convictions
freely by word of mouth, writing, printing, picturing or in any other manner.

The Supreme Court has expanded its scope to include:

• Freedom of the press.

• Freedom of commercial advertisements.

• Right to telecast

• Right to know about government activities.

• Freedom of silence.

• Right to demonstration.
Explanation:
Restrictions:

The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the grounds of:

• Sovereignty and integrity of India

• security of the state,

• friendly relations with foreign states

• public order

• decency or morality,

• contempt of court,

• defamation, and

• incitement to an offence.
77. With reference to the application of the doctrine of eminent domain in
environmental governance, consider the following statements:

1. The doctrine of eminent domain allows the State to acquire private land for
environmental protection measures, provided it meets constitutional
safeguards.

2. The doctrine overrides all fundamental rights, including the right to life and
livelihood under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
77. With reference to the application of the doctrine of eminent domain in
environmental governance, consider the following statements:

1. The doctrine of eminent domain allows the State to acquire private land for
environmental protection measures, provided it meets constitutional
safeguards.

2. The doctrine overrides all fundamental rights, including the right to life and
livelihood under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The doctrine of eminent domain is originated from the western countries and
was followed in India. The word eminent domain is derived from the Latin
term ‘Eminenes Dominium’ which was introduced in the 17th century.

• Under eminent domain, the State may acquire land for public purposes like
infrastructure, wildlife conservation, or environmental projects — but it must
follow constitutional procedures and ensure fair compensation and non-
violation of fundamental rights. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• Eminent domain is subject to constitutional limits, including Article 21 (Right

to Life and Livelihood), and cannot be used to arbitrarily displace individuals
without due process. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
Two Maxims of Eminent Domain:

• Salus Populi Supreme Les Esto: The welfare of the people is the paramount
law

• Necessita Public Major Est Quan: The public necessity is greater than the
private necessity

• Conditions Apply:

o The authority which has enacted the law must be competent to do so.

o The right exercised by the authority must not infringe the fundamental
right guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution.

o It must not violate any other provision of the Constitution.

78. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the
following statements:

1. The Deputy Speaker, while presiding over the House, has a casting vote in
case of a tie but cannot vote in the first instance.

2. The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and
performs duties only when authorized by the Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
78. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the
following statements:

1. The Deputy Speaker, while presiding over the House, has a casting vote in
case of a tie but cannot vote in the first instance.

2. The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and
performs duties only when authorized by the Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Deputy Speaker:

• Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself
from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has
taken place on date fixed by the Speaker.

• Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker does not vote in the first instance but
may exercise a casting vote in the event of a tie. So, Statement 1 is correct

• The Deputy Speaker has one special privilege, that is, whenever he is
appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, automatically becomes
its chairman.
Explanation:
• The Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha.
However, he may vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:

o if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;

o if he resigns by writing to the Speaker; and

o if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of

the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’
advance notice. he

• The Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is independently

elected by the House and is directly responsible to the Lok Sabha, not to the
Speaker. Statement 2 is incorrect

• Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker, while presiding over the House, cannot
vote in the first instance.
Explanation:
• Further, when a resolution for the removal of the Deputy Speaker is under
consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House,
though he may be present.

• The Deputy Speaker is entitled to a regular salary and allowance fixed by

Parliament and charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

• The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is
vacant or absent. Importantly, the Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the
Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House.

• Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were
usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a
consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party and the post of
Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party.

• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, while assuming their offices, do not
make and subscribe any separate oath or affirmation.
79. With reference to the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee and the evolution of
the Panchayati Raj system in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Committee was appointed in 1957 to examine the working of the

Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service.

2. It recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj structure with directly elected

members at all three levels.

3. According to the Committee, the Panchayat Samiti should act as the executive
body, while the Zila Parishad should have an advisory and supervisory role.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
79. With reference to the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee and the evolution of
the Panchayati Raj system in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Committee was appointed in 1957 to examine the working of the

Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service.

2. It recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj structure with directly elected

members at all three levels.

3. According to the Committee, the Panchayat Samiti should act as the executive
body, while the Zila Parishad should have an advisory and supervisory role.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was the first committee be constituted which
recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’
which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

• The committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to

examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and
the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better
working.

• The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee
submitted its report in November 1957. So, Statement 1 is correct
Explanation:
Its recommendations were:

• Establishment of a three-tier Panchayati raj system–gram panchayat at the

village level, panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the
district level. These tiers should be organically linked through a device of
indirect elections.

• The village panchayat should be constituted with directly elected

representatives, whereas the panchayat samiti and zila parishad should be
constituted with indirectly elected members. So, Statement 2 is incorrect

• All planning and development activities should be entrusted to these bodies.

• The panchayat samiti should be the executive body while the zila parishad
should be the advisory, coordinating and supervisory body. So, Statement 3 is
correct
Explanation:
• The district collector should be the chairman of the zila parishad.

• There should be a genuine transfer of power and responsibility to these

democratic bodies.

• Adequate resources should be transferred to these bodies to enable them to

discharge their functions and fulfil their responsibilities.

• A system should be evolved to effect further devolution of authority in future.

80. Which of the following define socialist principles from DPSP’s:

1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.

2. To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural

areas.

3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of

industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None of the above

80. Which of the following define socialist principles from DPSP’s:

1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.

2. To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural

areas.

3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of

industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None of the above

81. With reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, consider
the following statements:

1. A Panchayat dissolved before the completion of its five-year term must be

reconstituted through elections within three months from the date of its
dissolution.

2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor and can be

removed only in the manner prescribed for a judge of the High Court.

3. The State Legislature may assign to a Panchayat the power to levy and collect
taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
81. With reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, consider
the following statements:

1. A Panchayat dissolved before the completion of its five-year term must be

reconstituted through elections within three months from the date of its
dissolution.

2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor and can be

removed only in the manner prescribed for a judge of the High Court.

3. The State Legislature may assign to a Panchayat the power to levy and collect
taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for a five-year term
of office to the panchayat at every level.

• However, it can be dissolved before the completion of its term.

• Further, fresh elections to constitute a panchayat shall be completed

• Before the expiry of its duration of five years; or

• In case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date
of its dissolution.

• But, where the remainder of the period (for which the dissolved panchayat
would have continued) is less than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold
any election for constituting the new panchayat for such period. So, Statement
1 is incorrect
Explanation:
• Moreover, a panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a panchayat before
the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the
period for which the dissolved panchayat would have continued had it not
been so dissolved.

• The act provided for the establishment of the State Election Commission for
superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and
the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats.

• It consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by the governor.

• His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the
governor.
Explanation:
• He shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the
grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court. So,
Statement 2 is correct

• His conditions of service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his
appointment.

• The state legislature may:

o Authorise a panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls

and fees;

o Assign to a panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by
the state government; So, Statement 3 is correct

o Provide for making grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the consolidated

fund of the state; and

o Provide for constitution of funds for crediting all money of the panchayats.
82. With reference to the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian
Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. Both the Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws on subjects listed in
the Concurrent List, but in case of a conflict, the State law prevails over the
Central law.

2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 transferred subjects like

education, forests, and weights & measures from the Concurrent List to the
State List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
82. With reference to the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian
Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. Both the Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws on subjects listed in
the Concurrent List, but in case of a conflict, the State law prevails over the
Central law.

2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 transferred subjects like

education, forests, and weights & measures from the concurrent list to the
State List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Both the Parliament and state legislature can make laws with respect to any of
the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List.

• This list has at present 52 subjects (originally 47 subjects) like criminal law and
procedure, civil procedure, marriage and divorce, population control and
family planning, electricity, labor welfare, economic and social planning,
drugs, newspapers, books and printing press, and others.

• While both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on the Concurrent
List, in case of a conflict, the Central law prevails over the State law, unless the
State law has received Presidential assent. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent
List from State List that is,

o Education.

o Forests.

o Weights and measures.

o Protection of wild animals and birds.

o Administration of justice: constitution and organization of all courts except

the Supreme Court and the high courts. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
83. With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:

1. The autonomous districts and regions under the Sixth Schedule are outside the
executive authority of the respective state governments.

2. The district and regional councils under the Sixth Schedule can make laws on
matters like land, forests, village administration, and social customs, but such
laws require the assent of the Governor.

3. The Governor has the power to dissolve a district or regional council on the
recommendation of a commission appointed by him to examine administrative
matters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
83. With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:

1. The autonomous districts and regions under the Sixth Schedule are outside the
executive authority of the respective state governments.

2. The district and regional councils under the Sixth Schedule can make laws on
matters like land, forests, village administration, and social customs, but such
laws require the assent of the Governor.

3. The Governor has the power to dissolve a district or regional council on the
recommendation of a commission appointed by him to examine administrative
matters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions for the
administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• The various features of administration contained in the Sixth Schedule are as

follows:

• The tribal areas in these four states have been constituted as autonomous
districts. But, they do not fall outside the executive authority of the state
concerned.

• The acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous

districts and autonomous regions or apply with specified modifications and
exceptions .
Explanation:
• The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous
districts. He can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or
define their boundaries.

• If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide
the district into several autonomous regions.

• Autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom

four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the
basis of adult franchise. The elected members hold office for a term of five
years and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council. So, Statement 1
is incorrect
Explanation:
• The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction.
They can make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water,
shifting cultivation, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage
and divorce, social customs and so on. But all such laws require the assent of
the governor. So, Statement 2 is correct

• The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can
constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the
tribes. They hear appeals from them. The jurisdiction of high court over these
suits and cases is specified by the governor.

• The district council can establish, construct or manage primary schools,

dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district. It can
also make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by
nontribals. But, such regulations require the assent of the governor.
Explanation:
• The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land
revenue and to impose certain specified taxes.

• The governor can appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter
relating to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions. He may
dissolve a district or regional council on the recommendation of the
commission. So, Statement 3 is correct
84. Consider the following statements:

1. The vote of the central government carries a weightage of one-third of the total
votes cast in a meeting.

2. A ten percent of the total number of members constitutes the quorum required
for conducting a meeting.

3. Every decision of the Council must be approved by a majority of not less than
three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the
meeting.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct with respect to the
working of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
84. Consider the following statements:

1. The vote of the central government carries a weightage of one-third of the total
votes cast in a meeting.

2. A ten percent of the total number of members constitutes the quorum required
for conducting a meeting.

3. Every decision of the Council must be approved by a majority of not less than
three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the
meeting.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct with respect to the
working of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• The decisions of the GST Council are taken at its meetings.

• One-half of the total number of members of the Council is the quorum for
conducting a meeting. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect

• Statement 1 is correct

• Every decision of the Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-
fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the
meeting.Hence, Statement 1 is correct

• The decision is taken in accordance with the following principles:

o The vote of the central government shall have a weightage one-third of the
total votes cast in that meeting.

o The votes of all the state governments combined shall have weightage of
two-thirds of the total votes cast in that meeting.
Explanation:
• Any act or proceedings of the Council will not become invalid on the
following grounds:

o any vacancy or defect in the constitution of the Council; or

o any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council; or

o any procedural irregularity of the Council not affecting the merits of the
case.Hence, Statement 3 is correct
85. Consider the following statements:

1. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other
legal safeguards for the SCs

2. To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights

3. To present an annual report to the Parliament.

4. To discharge such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and

development and advancement of the SCs as the Parliament may specify.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct regarding functions of
the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs)?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
85. Consider the following statements:

1. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other
legal safeguards for the SCs

2. To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights

3. To present an annual report to the Parliament.

4. To discharge such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and

development and advancement of the SCs as the Parliament may specify.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct regarding functions of
the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs)?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• The functions of the National Commission for SCs are:

• To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other
legal safeguards for the SCs and to evaluate their working. So, Statements 1 is
correct

• To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights

and safeguards of the SCs. So, Statements 2 is correct

• To participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic

development of the SCs and to evaluate the progress of their development
under the Union or a state.

• To make recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the

Union or a state for the effective implementation of those safeguards and other
measures for the protection, welfare and social-economic development of the
SCs.
Explanation:
• Other functions include:

o To present to the President, annually and at such other times as it may

deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards. So, Statements 3
is incorrect

o To discharge such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and

development and advancement of the SCs as the President may specify.
So, Statements 4 is incorrect
86. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India,
consider the following statements:

1. The salary and service conditions of the CAG are determined by the President
of India.

2. The administrative expenses of the CAG, including salaries and pensions, are
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to
parliamentary vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
86. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India,
consider the following statements:

1. The salary and service conditions of the CAG are determined by the President
of India.

2. The administrative expenses of the CAG, including salaries and pensions, are
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to
parliamentary vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure
the independence of CAG:

• He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the

president only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the
Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president,
though he is appointed by him.

• He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of
any state, after he ceases to hold his office.

• His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His
salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court. So, Statement 1 is
incorrect
Explanation:
• Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave of absence, pension or age
of retirement can be altered to his disadvantage after his appointment.

• The conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts
Department and the administrative powers of the CAG are prescribed by the
president after consultation with the CAG.

• The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries,
allowances and pensions of persons serving in that office are charged upon the
Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to the vote of
Parliament. So, Statement 2 is correct
87. Which of the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas are not
correct?

1. The establishment of Gram Nyayalayas is mandated under the Indian Penal

Code (IPC).

2. Gram Nyayalayas function as a Court of Judicial Magistrate of First Class with

jurisdiction limited to civil matters.

3. The Gram Nyayalayas Act extends to the entire territory of India.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 only
87. Which of the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas are not
correct?

1. The establishment of Gram Nyayalayas is mandated under the Indian Penal

Code (IPC).

2. Gram Nyayalayas function as a Court of Judicial Magistrate of First Class with

jurisdiction limited to civil matters.

3. The Gram Nyayalayas Act extends to the entire territory of India.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 only
Explanation:
• The concept of Gram Nyayalayas was proposed by the Law Commission of
India in its 114th Report to provide affordable and quick access to justice for
citizens in rural areas.

• Article 39A of the Indian Constitution ensures that the legal system promotes
justice and provides free legal aid to ensure equal opportunities for all citizens,
regardless of economic or other disabilities. So, Statement 1 is incorrect

• This vision was realised with the passage of the Gram Nyayalayas Bill in 2008,
and the subsequent implementation of the Gram Nyayalayas Act, in 2009.

• Gram Nyayalayas is established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act.

Explanation:
• Gram Nyayalayas are deemed to be a Court of Judicial Magistrate of First
Class with both civil and criminal jurisdiction to settle petty disputes at the
village level. So, Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Act extends to the whole of India, excluding Nagaland, Arunachal

Pradesh, Sikkim, and certain tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and
Mizoram. So, Statement 3 is incorrect
88. With reference to Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution,
consider the following statements:

1. There is no explicit provision in the Constitution for the legal enforcement of

Fundamental Duties.

2. Parliament is empowered to make laws prescribing punishment for failure to

fulfil any of the Fundamental Duties.

3. A law giving effect to Fundamental Duties can be justified as reasonable under

Articles 14 and 19 while determining its constitutionality.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
88. With reference to Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution,
consider the following statements:

1. There is no explicit provision in the Constitution for the legal enforcement of

Fundamental Duties.

2. Parliament is empowered to make laws prescribing punishment for failure to

fulfil any of the Fundamental Duties.

3. A law giving effect to Fundamental Duties can be justified as reasonable under

Articles 14 and 19 while determining its constitutionality.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• There is no provision in the Constitution for the enforcement of these duties,
nor is there a sanction mentioned to prevent their violation. However, in
determining the constitutionality of a law, if a Court finds that it seeks to give
effect to any of these duties, it may consider it reasonable in relation to Articles
14 and 19, and save it from being declared as unconstitutional. So, Statement 1
and 3 correct

o The Supreme Court in 1992 held that duties are obligatory for citizens and
the State should also strive to achieve the same. Hence, the Parliament can
provide for the imposition of appropriate penalty or punishment for
failure to fulfil any of them. So, Statement 2 is correct

o They serve as a source of inspiration for the citizens and promote a sense
of discipline and commitment among them.
Explanation:
• Justice Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999):

o It identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of

some of the Fundamental Duties.

• They are mentioned below:

o The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971) prevents

disrespect to the Constitution of India, the National Flag and the National
Anthem.

o The various criminal laws in force provide for punishments for

encouraging enmity between different sections of people on grounds of
language, race, place of birth, religion and so on.

o The Indian Penal Code (IPC) declares the imputations and assertions
prejudicial to national integration as punishable offences.
Explanation:
o Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967 provides for the declaration
of a communal organisation as an unlawful association.

o Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) and Representation of People Act

(1951).

o Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 and Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980.

• Indira Gandhi- ‘the moral value of fundamental duties would be not to

smother rights but to establish a democratic balance by making the people
conscious of their duties equally as they are conscious of their rights’.
89.) With reference to the Election Commission of India’s (ECI) initiatives for
inclusive voting, consider the following statements:

1. Home voting through postal ballots was made available for Persons with
Disabilities (PwDs) with at least 40% disability and senior citizens above 85
years in the elections to the 18th Lok Sabha.

2. Proxy voting is available for all voters who are unable to physically visit
polling stations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

89.) With reference to the Election Commission of India’s (ECI) initiatives for
inclusive voting, consider the following statements:

1. Home voting through postal ballots was made available for Persons with
Disabilities (PwDs) with at least 40% disability and senior citizens above 85
years in the elections to the 18th Lok Sabha.

2. Proxy voting is available for all voters who are unable to physically visit
polling stations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
• Election Commission of India introduced Home voting for
the first time in the recent Lok Sabha Elections.

• · The home voting facility through postal ballot is

available for:

• · Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) meeting the 40%

benchmark disability.

• · Senior citizens aged above 85 years.

• · The process ensures secrecy and involves polling staff

and security personnel. Hence statement 1 is Correct.
Explanation:
• Proxy voting is not available for all voters; it is only for
service voters, as per the Representation of the People Act,
1951.

• Section 60 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951:

Allows for postal and proxy voting but restricts proxy
voting to service voters.

• Section 60(b) specifically enables members of the armed

forces, police forces serving outside their state,
government employees posted abroad, and members of
forces governed by the Army Act, 1950 to vote by proxy.

· General voters cannot delegate their voting rights to

someone else. Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.
Explanation:
Conditions Apply :

• The authority which has enacted the law must be competent to do so.

• The right exercised by the authority must not infringe the fundamental right
guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution.

• It must not violate any other provision of the Constitution.

90. With reference to the State Information Commission in India, consider the
following statements:

1. The State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information

Commissioners are appointed by the Governor and are eligible for
reappointment.

2. The Governor can remove the State Chief Information Commissioner for
proved misbehaviour or incapacity only after an inquiry conducted by the
Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
90. With reference to the State Information Commission in India, consider the
following statements:

1. The State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information

Commissioners are appointed by the Governor and are eligible for
reappointment.

2. The Governor can remove the State Chief Information Commissioner for
proved misbehaviour or incapacity only after an inquiry conducted by the
Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner
shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until
they atta in the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

• The State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information

Commissioners are not eligible for reappointment.

• The Governor can remove the State Chief Information Commissioner or any
State Information Commissioner from the office under the following
circumstances:
Although the Governor appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner and
State Information Commissioners, they are not eligible for reappointment. So,
Statement 1 is incorrect

• if he/she is adjudged an insolvent

• if he/she has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the
Governor) involves a moral turpitude

• if he/she engages during his/her term of office in any paid employment

outside the duties of his/her office

• if he/she is (in the opinion of the Governor) unfit to continue in office due to
infirmity of mind or body

• if he/she has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect

prejudicially his/her official functions.
• In addition to these, the Governor can also remove the State Chief Information
Commissioner or any State Information Commissioner on the ground of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity

• However, in these cases, the Governor has to refer the matter to the Supreme
Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the
cause of removal and advises so, then the Governor can remove him.

• The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Chief
Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall be
such as prescribed by the Central Government. But they cannot be varied to
his/her disadvantage during service.

• In cases of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, the Governor must refer the

matter to the Supreme Court, and only upon its advice can the person be
removed. So, Statement 2 is correct.
91. Consider the following statements regarding Article 311 of the Indian
Constitution:

1. Article 311 provides protection only against dismissal and removal, but not
against suspension or transfer of a civil servant.

2. An inquiry under Article 311 can be dispensed with if a civil servant is

convicted on criminal charges by a court of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
91. Consider the following statements regarding Article 311 of the Indian
Constitution:

1. Article 311 provides protection only against dismissal and removal, but not
against suspension or transfer of a civil servant.

2. An inquiry under Article 311 can be dispensed with if a civil servant is

convicted on criminal charges by a court of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Article 311

Article 311 establishes the procedures and safeguards required before dismissing,
removing, or reducing the rank of a government employee on the following
grounds:

• Employee Efficiency: When an employee's performance or conduct is deemed

unsatisfactory and harmful to the efficient functioning of the government.

• Employee Conduct: If an employee is involved in acts of corruption, bribery,

fraud, or any offense that questions their moral integrity.

• This article serves as a protective measure against arbitrary government

actions, upholding the principles of natural justice (PNJ). It does not apply to
military personnel.
Explanation:
• Scope of Protection: Article 311 protects against dismissal, removal, or rank
reduction; however, other punitive actions like suspension or transfer are not
covered under this article. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Exceptions to Article 311

• Security of the State: If an employee's actions threaten state security, the

President or Governor can bypass the inquiry and take immediate action,
particularly in cases involving terrorism or espionage.

• Efficiency in Public Service: The President or Governor can also waive the
inquiry if it serves the security or efficiency of public service.

• Probationary Employees: Those on probation can be dismissed without an

inquiry.
Explanation:
• Conviction by Court: If a civil servant is convicted of criminal charges, the
inquiry requirement can be waived, making the conviction sufficient grounds
for dismissal. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Procedural Safeguards Under Article 311

• Informing the Employee: Employees must be informed of the charges against

them and given a fair opportunity to defend themselves before any action is
taken.

• Internal Appeal Mechanisms: Employees have the right to appeal to higher

authorities within the department or government.

• Authority for Action: Only the authority that appointed the civil servant, or
someone of equal rank, can dismiss, remove, or reduce their rank.

• Judicial Review: Aggrieved employees may seek legal remedies, which could
include reinstatement etc.
92. Consider the following statements regarding elections under the Indian
Constitution:

1. Article 329(b) bars courts from interfering in electoral matters until the election
process is completed.

2. The Constitution (19th Amendment) Act, 1966, transferred the authority to

decide election petitions from Election Tribunals to High Courts.

3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, allows election petitions to be filed
directly in the Supreme Court for both Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
92. Consider the following statements regarding elections under the Indian
Constitution:

1. Article 329(b) bars courts from interfering in electoral matters until the election
process is completed.

2. The Constitution (19th Amendment) Act, 1966, transferred the authority to

decide election petitions from Election Tribunals to High Courts.

3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, allows election petitions to be filed
directly in the Supreme Court for both Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 329(b)

• Enshrined in Part XV of the Constitution, articles 324-329 specifically discuss

elections.

• While Article 324 gives the poll panel powers to direct and control elections,
Article 329, which has two clauses, concerns itself with the role of the judiciary
in electoral matters.

• Article 329(a): Prohibits the judiciary from questioning the constitutionality of

laws regarding the delimitation of electoral constituencies or the allocation of
seats. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Explanation:
• Article 329(b): Amended by the Constitution (19th Amendment) Act, 1966, this
clause specifies that elections to either House of Parliament or the State
Legislature cannot be challenged, except through an election petition. Such
petitions must be filed before an authority and in a manner prescribed by laws
enacted by the appropriate Legislature. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• The Representation of the People Act, 1951, furthers this clause as it empowers
the high courts to hear and decide election petitions. A decision can be
challenged in the Supreme Court (SC). So, Statement 3 is incorrect.
93. Consider the following statements regarding the President’s pardoning
powers under the Indian Constitution:

1. The President can exercise the power of pardon even in cases where the
punishment has been awarded by a Court Martial.

2. The President may exercise this power independently, without the aid and
advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
93. Consider the following statements regarding the President’s pardoning
powers under the Indian Constitution:

1. The President can exercise the power of pardon even in cases where the
punishment has been awarded by a Court Martial.

2. The President may exercise this power independently, without the aid and
advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Context: The President recently rejected a mercy petition filed by Pakistani
national Mohammed Arif who was sentenced to death for the terrorist attack of
2000 at the Red Fort.

Legal Framework for the Pardoning Power of the President

• Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons,

reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or
commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence in cases where
the:

o punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial; So, Statement 1 is correct

o punishment or sentence is for an offence against any Union law;

o a sentence is a sentence of death.

Explanation:
• The exercise of the President’s power under Article 72 is not subject to judicial
review, except when the decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide, or
discriminatory. The Supreme Court in the Kehar Singh (1988) case reaffirmed
that granting pardons is an act of grace and cannot be claimed as a matter of
right.

• The President can only exercise this power under Article 74, based on the aid
and advice of the Council of Ministers. So, Statement 2 is incorrect

• The convict must file the mercy petition within seven days after being
informed of the dismissal of the review petition by the Superintendent of Jail.
94. Consider the following statements regarding Neurorights:

1. Neurorights aim to safeguard mental privacy, personal identity, and free will
in response to advancements in neurotechnologies such as brain-computer
interfaces.

2. India has enacted a specific legislation titled the “Neurorights Protection Act”
to regulate the ethical use of neurotechnology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
94. Consider the following statements regarding Neurorights:

1. Neurorights aim to safeguard mental privacy, personal identity, and free will
in response to advancements in neurotechnologies such as brain-computer
interfaces.

2. India has enacted a specific legislation titled the “Neurorights Protection Act”
to regulate the ethical use of neurotechnology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Neurorights

• Neurorights are a proposed set of human rights designed to safeguard

individuals' mental privacy, personal identity, and free will as
neurotechnologies like brain-computer interfaces (BCIs) advance. Hence,
Statement 1 is correct

• They are a set of human rights specifically designed to protect individuals

from potential abuses and ethical dilemmas arising from neurotechnologies
such as Brain-computer interfaces (BCIs), Deep brain stimulation (DBS), Sacral
nerve stimulation etc.

• Global Initiatives for Recognizing Neurorights: Many countries have legally

recognized neurorights like Chile, Colorado etc.
Explanation:
Neurorights in India

• Existing Legislation: Experts believe no new laws are needed currently;

existing laws can address neurotechnology concerns: Hence, Statement 2 is
incorrect

• Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: Requires consent for collecting
personal data, including neural data.

• Mental Healthcare Act, 2017: Addresses mental health rights and could
support neurorights legislation.

• Information Technology Act, 2000: Covers data protection and privacy,

applicable to neural data.

• National Bioethics Committee: Explores ethical implications of

neurotechnology for formal recommendations.
95. Consider the following statements regarding Floor Tests in the Indian
legislative framework:

1. The term “floor test” is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution under Article
164.

2. A composite floor test is held when two or more claimants stake claim to form
the government and the majority is uncertain.

3. A floor test can be ordered by the Governor when the Legislative Assembly is
not in session and there is doubt about the government’s majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
95. Consider the following statements regarding Floor Tests in the Indian
legislative framework:

1. The term “floor test” is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution under Article
164.

2. A composite floor test is held when two or more claimants stake claim to form
the government and the majority is uncertain.

3. A floor test can be ordered by the Governor when the Legislative Assembly is
not in session and there is doubt about the government’s majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
What is a Floor Test?

• A floor test, also known as a "trust vote" or "test of majority," is a process to

determine if the executive branch still has the support of a majority of
members in the legislative house, allowing it to remain in power. Floor tests
can occur at both the parliament and state assemblies.

• The term "floor test" isn’t specifically mentioned in the Constitution, So,
Statement 1 is incorrect

Who Can Call for a Floor Test?

• If the House (Both Parliament or Legislative Assemblies) is in session, the

Speaker can call for a floor test.

• When the Assembly is not in session, the Governor can invoke Article 163 to
initiate a floor test and in case of Parliament, the President calls for Floor test.
So, Statement 3 is correct
Explanation:
• Floor test can happen only in Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies.

• A floor test is required if: The government’s majority is in question or There

are internal conflicts within a coalition government.

Composite Floor Test

• This is conducted when multiple leaders claim the right to form the
government, and the majority is unclear. So, Statement 1 is correct

• The Governor calls for a special session, and the majority is counted based on
those present and voting, allowing members to abstain if they wish.

• Voting methods can include voice vote, electronic gadgets, ballots, or slips. The
candidate with the majority support forms the government.
Explanation:
Outcome

• The government maintains its power if it receives a majority of support. Else, a

new government has to be formed or a new election has to be held if it does
win the vote of confidence. In both case Prime Minister/Chief Minister resigns.
96. With reference to the ‘Eggshell Skull Rule’ in civil litigation, consider the
following statements:

1. The rule requires that a defendant must compensate for the full extent of the
harm caused, even if the victim had a pre-existing medical condition that made
the injury more severe.

2. The rule applies only to physical injuries and not to psychological or emotional
harm.

3. The principle is commonly invoked in medical negligence cases as part of civil

litigation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
96. With reference to the ‘Eggshell Skull Rule’ in civil litigation, consider the
following statements:

1. The rule requires that a defendant must compensate for the full extent of the
harm caused, even if the victim had a pre-existing medical condition that made
the injury more severe.

2. The rule applies only to physical injuries and not to psychological or emotional
harm.

3. The principle is commonly invoked in medical negligence cases as part of civil

litigation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The Supreme Court has reinstated Rs 5 lakhs in compensation awarded by a
district consumer forum in a medical negligence case, citing incorrect
application of the 'eggshell skull' legal principle.

• About Eggshell Skull Rule

o It is a common law principle applied in civil litigation.

o The rule mandates full compensation for all victims, regardless of

predisposing conditions or preexisting injuries, and prevents defendants
from evading liability for exacerbating pre-existing conditions due to
negligence. So, Statement 1 is correct

o The eggshell skull doctrine is named after a hypothetical situation where a

person with a fragile skull, akin to an eggshell, suffers a head injury.
Explanation:
o If the victim’s skull fractures more easily than the average person, the
defendant is still fully liable for all resulting damages, despite the victim’s
unusual vulnerability.

o Despite its name, the eggshell skull rule applies to all types of injuries,
including physical, emotional, and psychological harm. So, Statement 2 is
incorrect

o The rule is applied for claiming an enhanced compensation — for damage

that is more than what could have been ordinarily anticipated to be caused
by the defendant.
Explanation:
• What is Civil litigation?

o Civil litigation is a term that applies to any legal dispute where two or
more parties are seeking monetary damages or a specific performance and
does not include criminal accusations. So, Statement 3 is correct

o Medical Negligence is covered

97. Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Advisory
Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM):

1. The EAC-PM is a constitutional body that functions under the direct

supervision of the Prime Minister’s Office.

2. It is a non-permanent body that can offer advice both on request and on its
own initiative.

3. The NITI Aayog acts as the nodal agency providing administrative and
logistical support to the EAC-PM.

How many of the above statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
97. Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Advisory
Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM):

1. The EAC-PM is a constitutional body that functions under the direct

supervision of the Prime Minister’s Office.

2. It is a non-permanent body that can offer advice both on request and on its
own initiative.

3. The NITI Aayog acts as the nodal agency providing administrative and
logistical support to the EAC-PM.

How many of the above statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)

• The EAC-PM is an independent, non-constitutional, and non-permanent body

established to provide economic advice to the Government, specifically the
Prime Minister. Statement 1 is incorrect

• Origin: The EAC-PM was first constituted in 2017 with a two-year term and
prior to that was PMEAC (PM’s Economic Advisory Council), which was led
by ex-RBI Governor C. Rangarajan during Prime Minister Manmohan Singh’s
tenure.

• Composition: The council is headed by a chairperson and includes a total of

seven eminent economists. For its administrative, logistical, and planning
needs, the EAC-PM works under the NITI Aayog as its nodal agency. So,
Statement 3 is correct
Explanation:
• Functions

o The EAC-PM provides analysis and recommendations on economic and

other issues referred to by the Prime Minister.

o The council addresses key macroeconomic issues and can present insights
independently (suo-motu) or in response to requests from the Prime
Minister or others. So, Statement 2 is correct

o The council may also undertake additional tasks as directed by the Prime
Minister from time to time.
98. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Special Officer
for Linguistic Minorities?

1. The office was created under the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act 1956.

2. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of

India.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
98. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Special Officer
for Linguistic Minorities?

1. The office was created under the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act 1956.

2. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of

India.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
o He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as
the President may direct. The President should place all such reports
before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of the states
concerned. It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the
qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and
procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Explanation:
• Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect
to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

• Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953–55) made a

recommendation in this regard.

• Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a

new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is
correct.

• This article contains the following provisions:

o There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be

appointed by the President of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

o It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters

relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the
Constitution
99. Consider the following statements regarding registration, recognition, and
regulation of political parties in India:

1. The Election Commission can deregister a political party if it violates the

provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

2. A political party that loses recognition still retains the right to contest elections.

3. The Election Commission derives its power to register political parties under
Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
99. Consider the following statements regarding registration, recognition, and
regulation of political parties in India:

1. The Election Commission can deregister a political party if it violates the

provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

2. A political party that loses recognition still retains the right to contest elections.

3. The Election Commission derives its power to register political parties under
Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Context: The Election Commission of India (ECI) has recently issued notices to
political parties for their star campaigners’ violations of the Model Code of
Conduct (MCC), sparking debate on ECI’s authority to address MCC violations.

Registration of Political Parties

• Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the
registration of associations and bodies as political parties with the Election
Commission So, Statement 3 is correct

• A party that is registered but does not yet meet recognition criteria is termed a
registered unrecognised political party.
Explanation:
De-Registration of Political Parties

• The ECI has no authority to de-register a party under the RPA, except in
cases where:

o Registration was obtained fraudulently.

o The party ceases to support the Constitution’s principles.

o The party is declared unlawful by the Central Government. So, Statement

1 is incorrect
Explanation:
De-Recognition of Political Parties

• De-recognition is the removal of a political party's recognized status by the

ECI. This does not prevent a party from contesting elections but does strip it of
certain privileges. So, Statement 2 is correct

• The ECI can de-recognize a party if it violates the Constitution or the RPA, or if
a national or state party fails to secure a required percentage of votes.
100. Consider the following statements regarding the new flag and insignia of
the Supreme Court of India:

1. The Sanskrit motto inscribed on the flag of the Supreme Court, “Yato
Dharmastato Jayah”, translates to “Where there is Dharma, there is victory.”

2. The Supreme Court was originally constituted with the Chief Justice and six
other judges, with Parliament empowered to increase this number.

3. The new flag of the Supreme Court was designed by the Indian Institute of
Technology, Mumbai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
100. Consider the following statements regarding the new flag and insignia of
the Supreme Court of India:

1. The Sanskrit motto inscribed on the flag of the Supreme Court, “Yato
Dharmastato Jayah”, translates to “Where there is Dharma, there is victory.”

2. The Supreme Court was originally constituted with the Chief Justice and six
other judges, with Parliament empowered to increase this number.

3. The new flag of the Supreme Court was designed by the Indian Institute of
Technology, Mumbai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Context: Recently, the President of India unveiled the new flag and insignia of the
Supreme Court (SC) at an event marking the 75th anniversary of the
establishment of the country's highest judicial body.

About the New Flag and Insignia of the Supreme Court (SC)

• Colour: The flag of the Supreme Court is blue in colour.

• Insignia:

• The flag prominently features symbols central to India's legal and cultural
heritage, including:

• Ashoka Chakra (the Dharmachakra or "wheel of the law") at the top; the
Supreme Court building at the centre; the Constitution of India at the bottom.
Explanation:
• Includes the inscription ‘Supreme Court of India’ and the Sanskrit shloka ‘Yato
Dharmstato Jayah’ ("Where there is Dharma, there is victory"). So, Statement 1
is correct

• The Ashoka Chakra symbol is inspired by the Sarnath Lion Capital, created by
the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE.

o Designed by the National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT),

Delhi. So, Statement 3 is incorrect

• About the Supreme Court of India (SCI)

o The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority in the country,
serving as the final court of appeal and the ultimate interpreter of the
Constitution of India.
Explanation:
o It was established under Article 124 of the Constitution and came into
existence on January 26, 1950, replacing the Federal Court of India. Dr.
Rajendra Prasad inaugurated the present building of the Supreme Court of
India in 1958.

o Original Constitution envisioned a Supreme Court with a Chief Justice and

7 puisne Judges with the Parliament having power to increase the number
of Judges. Due to increased workload, it increased the number from 8 in
1950 to 34 in 2019 (Current Strength). So, Statement 2 is correct

o The Supreme Court plays a vital role in upholding justice, safeguarding

the rule of law, and protecting the fundamental rights of the citizens.
Most Important
Economy MCQ’s
ECONOMY – AGRICULTURE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
1. With reference to the Palm oil sector of India, consider the following
statements:
1. India is the largest importer of palm oil in Asia.
2. India’s first palm waste-based power oil palm processing unit is
located in Sikkim.
3. Indonesia and Malaysia are major import sources of palm oil for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
ECONOMY – AGRICULTURE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
1. With reference to the Palm oil sector of India, consider the following
statements:
1. India is the largest importer of palm oil in Asia.
2. India’s first palm waste-based power oil palm processing unit is
located in Sikkim.
3. Indonesia and Malaysia are major import sources of palm oil for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Currently, India produces about 40% of its domestic edible oil consumption requirement.
• India’s annual imports of edible oil is around 15-16 million tonne (MT).
• Around half of it i.e. around 9MT is palm oil which is imported from Indonesia and Malaysia.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Major oil palm-growing states in India include Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Kerala, which
account for 98% of total production. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• India is the largest importer of palm oil in Asia, accounting for 15% of global imports, followed by
China (9%), Pakistan (4%) and Bangladesh (2%).
• “In 2022-23, total imports reached 16.5 million tons,”. However, for 2023-24 a slight decline to
approximately 16.0 million tons due to improved domestic availability and alternative
vegetable oils availability.
• Palm oil accounts for over 38% of India’s total vegetable oil consumption, followed by soybean
oil at 21%, mustard oil at 14%, and sunflower oil at 12%.
• Indonesia and Malaysia together account for almost 90% of the global palm oil production.
Explanation:
• India’s first integrated Oil Palm Processing Unit started its
commercial operations at Roing in lower Dibang Valley in
Arunachal Pradesh.
• It will be a and a palm waste-based power plant.
• This factory marks the first Oil Palm factory in Arunachal Pradesh
and India's first Oil Palm Factory under NMEO-OP. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
National Mission for Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP):

• Launched by the Government of India in August 2021, NMEO-OP targets a substantial increase in oil palm
cultivation and crude palm oil production.
• Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a special focus on North east region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands,
with a focus on increasing the area and productivity of oilseeds and Oil Palm.

Targets:

• To increase the area of oil palm to 10 lakh hectares from 3.5 lakh ha during 2019-20 by 2025-26 (an additional 6.50
lakh ha).
• To increase the Crude Palm Oil production from 0.27 lakh tonnes during 2019-20 to 11.20 lakh tonnes by 2025-26.
• Increase consumer awareness to maintain a consumption level of 19.00 kg/person/annum till 2025-26.
• The State Department of Agriculture, State Department of Horticulture, Central University, ICAR-Institutions,
CDDs, SAUs, KVKs, Central Agencies/Cooperatives, Oil palm processors/ Associations, DD Kisan, AIR, DD, TV
channels will be the implementation stakeholders of the NMEO-Oil palm.
• Features: The salient features of NMEO-OP include assistance for planting material, inputs for intercropping
upto gestation period of 4 years and for maintenance, establishment of seed gardens, nurseries, micro irrigation,
bore well/pumpset/water harvesting structure, vermicompost units, solar pumps, harvesting tools, custom
hiring centre cum harvester Groups, farmers and officers training, and for replanting of old oil palm gardens, etc.
ECONOMY – ERII
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
2. Which of the following released Green And Social Bond Impact
Report 2023?
A. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
B. International Financial Corporation
C. World Economic Forum
D. International Monetary Fund
ECONOMY – ERII
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
2. Which of the following released Green And Social Bond Impact
Report 2023?
A. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
B. International Financial Corporation
C. World Economic Forum
D. International Monetary Fund
Explanation:
• The Green and Social Bond Impact Report provides insights into how
funds raised through green and social bonds are being used to address
environmental and social challenges globally. These bonds are key tools
for financing sustainable development projects.
• The International Finance Corporation (IFC), a member of the World Bank
Group, released the Green and Social Bond Impact Report for Financial
Year 2023.
• A social bond is a type of financial instrument issued by governments,
international organisations, or corporations to raise funds for projects and
initiatives that have a positive social impact on society.
• These bonds are designed to finance projects that address various social
issues, such as healthcare, education, affordable housing, poverty
alleviation, and environmental sustainability.
Explanation:
• These bonds help to improve efficiency of social program, strengthen
collaborative approach, boost responsible social investing.
• On the other hand, a Green Bond is a type of fixed-income instrument
that is specifically earmarked to raise money for climate and
environmental projects.
• Green bonds help to finance sustainable, climate-smart projects with a
positive environmental impact, with the goal to speed the transition to
a low-carbon economy.
• In FY23, IFC raised $2 billion through 20 green bonds in six currencies
and $1.2 billion through 15 social bonds in five currencies.
International Finance Corporation (IFC):

The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is an international financial institution that

offers investment, advisory, and asset management services to encourage private sector
development in developing countries.
• It is a member of the World Bank Group and is headquartered in Washington, D.C.,
United States.
• It was established in 1956 as the private sector arm of the World Bank Group to advance
economic development by investing in strictly for-profit and commercial projects that
purport to reduce poverty and promote development.
• The IFC is owned and governed by its member countries, but has its own executive
leadership and staff that conduct its normal business operations.
• It is a corporation whose shareholders are member governments that provide paid-in
capital and which have the right to vote on its matters.
International Finance Corporation (IFC):

Functions (As Taken from IFC report):

• In March 2016, IFC issued a historic 15-year Masala Bond, creating an offshore rupee-
market yield curve that stretches from three to fifteen years, deepening the market
and making it more resilient
Masala bonds meaning these are rupee-denominated bonds, through which Indian entities
can raise money from overseas markets in the rupee, not foreign currency. A Masala bond
is a Rupee bond but is repaid in dollar terms based on the extant conversion rate. Here, the
objective is to shield issuers from currency risk and instead transfer the risk to investors
buying these bonds
• It raised the equivalent of nearly $100 million through our onshore Maharaja Bonds
which were issued to Indian investors
• Also issued green masala bonds
International Finance Corporation (IFC):

Functions: (As Taken from IFC report)

• India is IFC’s single largest country exposure globally, IFC’s largest advisory client and regional hub for
South Asia.
• IFC’s advisory engagement in India includes Gujarat Rooftop Solar PPP, Odisha Street-Lighting Program,
Jharkhand Diagnostics PPP, and Bihar G2P Payments
• IFC is a pioneer in putting together several innovative and industry-leading projects in India (for
example, Cairn, IDFC, Jet Airways, FINO, Bharti Airtel, HDFC, BILT, Power Grid, Azure, Green Infra,
Technowind, Bandhan).
• In 2010, IFC made an equity investment of $4.5 million in Aadhar Housing Finance Private Limited, a joint
venture of investee client Dewan Housing Finance Corporation and IFC. The financing enabled Aadhar to
provide home loans to underserved low-income households.
• IFC has a leading role in financing infrastructure projects in India and advising client governments on
public-private partnerships. IFC’s loan of $152 million to Gujarat Pipavav port, an all-weather port, is
supporting expansion of its existing container and bulk cargo-handling facilities, (Pipavav is the first
private sector port in India)
World Bank Group
Explanation:
Green Deposit
These deposits are available in cumulative and non-cumulative formats
and are denominated in Indian Rupees (INR) only. Proceeds from green
deposits are earmarked for renewable energy, energy efficiency, clean
transportation, sustainable water management, and green buildings.
Green Washing
Greenwashing is essentially when a company or organisation spends
more time and money on marketing themselves as being sustainable than
on actually minimising their environmental impact. It’s a deceitful
advertising method to gain favour with consumers who choose to support
businesses that care about bettering the planet.
ECONOMY – EXTERNAL SECTOR
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
3. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)?
1. A non-resident Indian can be registered as a foreign portfolio investor
in India.
2. The FPI route has been susceptible to round-tripping.
Select the correct code.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
ECONOMY – EXTERNAL SECTOR
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
3. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)?
1. A non-resident Indian can be registered as a foreign portfolio investor
in India.
2. The FPI route has been susceptible to round-tripping.
Select the correct code.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Explanation:
• According to the SEBI (Foreign Portfolio Investors) Regulations,
2019, a Non-Resident Indian (NRI) is not eligible to register as a
Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI). However, NRIs can invest in India
through different routes, such as Non-Resident External (NRE) or
Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) accounts, but not as FPIs. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
• The FPI route is specifically meant for institutions or entities like
foreign mutual funds, pension funds, or asset management
companies, among others.
• Round-tripping refers to the practice where funds leave a country
and return disguised as foreign investment, often to exploit tax
benefits or hide the original source of funds.
Explanation:
FCNR(B) Accounts

Currency and Tenure: Maintained in freely convertible foreign currencies such as US

Dollar (USD), British Pound (GBP), Euro (EUR), Canadian Dollar (CAD), Australian
Dollar (AUD), and Japanese Yen (JPY).
• Tenure ranges from 1 year to 5 years.
• Tax and Repatriation Benefits: Interest earned is tax-free in India.
• Principal and Funds can be transferred from an NRE account or directly
remitted from an overseas account.
• Funds are converted into the desired currency at the prevailing exchange rate.
• terest are fully repatriable without any limit.
Explanation:
FDI
• It is the percentage which defines whether it is FDI or portfolio investment. If it is <10
percent in a listed company, then it is termed as portfolio investment.
• Once an FDI always an FDI (even if the holding comes down to <10 percent, it will not
become FPI but will continue to be termed as FDI.)
• Cash is not a permissible mode of payment for making FDI.
• In partnership/proprietorship concerns in India, only NRIs/OCIs are allowed to invest on
a non-repatriation basis (foreigners are not allowed).
FDI may be of two types:
Brownfield investment: In this case, the entity or a government buys an existing plant or
company or factory in order to launch a new production activity. Since the existing units
are taken over, no new factory is set up under brownfield investment.
Greenfield investment: It occurs when multinational corporations enter foreign countries
to build new factories and/or stores. This is just opposite to brownfield investment.
Explanation:
FDI
An Indian company may receive FDI under the following two routes:
• Automatic Route: Under automatic route, FDI is allowed without prior approval of the
government or RBI in activities/sectors as specified in the consolidated FDI policy issued
by the Government of India from time to time.
• Government Route: Activities not covered under the automatic route require prior
approval of the government. Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB), which was the
responsible agency to oversee this route, was abolished in 2017. This abolition has enabled
to attract more FDI in India by making the process simpler.
An Indian company, having received FDI either under automatic route or under government
route, is required to comply with the provisions of the FDI policy, including reporting of the FDI
to RBI.
Explanation:
FPI
It refers to purchase of an asset in the rest of the world without any control over the same (i.e.,
having less than 10 per cent share in a listed company). In the case of unlisted company, any
quantum of investment is termed FDI.
Example of portfolio investment -
• Purchase of some shares of a foreign company by Reliance or even by an individual in the
rest of the world. This investment instrument is more easily traded, and it does not
represent a long-term interest; hence it is less permanent in nature.
• Portfolio investment can be classified into two categories:
• Foreign institutional investment (FII)
• Investment through depository receipts (ADR/GDR/IDR)

Participatory notes (Status active)

Explanation:
FII’s
It includes investment in the securities of any other nation’s company by foreign
individuals and foreign institutional investors. FII is mostly made in the financial
markets.
• FII is short term in nature and is also known as 'hot money'.
• FIIs in India are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
• Foreign Institutional Investors can buy/sell securities on Indian stock
exchanges, but they have to get registered with SEBI.
• Foreign institutional investor are allowed to invest in India’s Primary and
Secondary capital markets only through the country's portfolio investment
scheme (PIS).
ECONOMY – AGRICULTURE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - INTENSE

4. How many of the following statements are correct with respect to PUSA-44
Variety?

1. PUSA-44 was developed by Indian Council of Agricultural Research

(ICAR).

2. It is a high yielding and short maturity of rice.

3. Due to its high irrigation requirement, Punjab government has discouraged

its cultivation.

Select the correct code.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. None of the above

ECONOMY – AGRICULTURE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - INTENSE
4. How many of the following statements are correct with respect to
PUSA-44 Variety?
1. PUSA-44 was developed by Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(ICAR).
2. It is a high yielding and short maturity of rice.
3. Due to its high irrigation requirement, Punjab government has
discouraged its cultivation.
Select the correct code.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. None of the above
Explanation:
• PUSA-44 was developed in 1993 by the Delhi-based Indian Council
of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Punjab farmers adopted it and after getting a high yield from the
crops, they started increasing the area under PUSA-44 by
multiplying the seed.
• By the end of 2010s, PUSA-44 paddy covered 70 to 80 per cent of the
state's total area under paddy cultivation.
• Farmers claim that PUSA-44 yields nearly 34 to 40 quintals per acre,
while other varieties’ yield average is 28 to 30 quintals per acre.
Explanation:
● However, Punjab Agriculture Department discouraged its
cultivation because
o Requires more water as it is a long duration variety: It takes around
160 days to mature. This is around 35 to 40 days more than other
varieties, requiring 5-6 extra cycles of irrigation. Hence, statement 2
is incorrect.
o Declining groundwater in the state: With the availability of short-
duration paddy varieties, the government aims to conserve one
month of irrigation water by banning the variety. Hence, statement
3 is correct.
o On 5th May 2025 Union Agriculture minister launched two new
genome edited varieties with high yield and short duration named
DRR Dhan 100 (Kamala) and PUSA DST Rice 1
Explanation:
ICAR
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has long been a beacon of
agricultural research and innovation, playing a pivotal role in shaping India’s
agricultural sector.
Major Achievements in Crop Improvement:
• High-Yielding Varieties (HYVs)
• Nutrient-Dense Crops
• Short Duration and Hybrid Crops
ICAR’s Drought-Resistant Crop Innovations:
• Drought-Tolerant Varieties
• Bioengineering for Stress Resistance
• Water Use Efficiency (WUE)
ICAR’s Biotechnology Innovations:
• Genetically Modified (GM) Crops
• CRISPR Technology for Crop Improvement:
Explanation:
o 'Dark Zones' of ground water: As many as 102 of the state’s 141
agricultural development blocks were declared ‘dark zones’, in which
the rate of groundwater depletion exceeded the rate of recharge.
▪ In these blocks, the water was available at depths of 200 to 300 feet
or more – extractable only by using deep tube wells.
o Variety also exacerbate stubble burning in the state: Due to its extended
maturity period, PUSA-44 is harvested just before the sowing of wheat,
typically at the end of October, while the ideal time for wheat sowing is
November 1.
▪ Ideally, farmers need 20 to 25 days between paddy harvesting and
wheat sowing to manage stubble disposal properly. This limited
timeframe makes it challenging to manage stubble, leading farmers
to opt for stubble burning.
ECONOMY – BANKING
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
5. Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) are the specialised agencies
which facilitate bad loan resolution of banking system. Which one of
the following statements is incorrect with respect to the same?
A. ARCs have to maintain capital adequacy ratio.
B. ARCs can invest in short-term instruments like certificates of deposit
and commercial papers.
C. Large ARCs can act as resolution applicants.
D. None of the above
ECONOMY – BANKING
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
5. Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) are the specialised agencies
which facilitate bad loan resolution of banking system. Which one of
the following statements is incorrect with respect to the same?
A. ARCs have to maintain capital adequacy ratio.
B. ARCs can invest in short-term instruments like certificates of deposit
and commercial papers.
C. Large ARCs can act as resolution applicants.
D. None of the above
Explanation:
● Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) are specialized financial entities
created under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002.
● They acquire non-performing assets (NPAs) from banks and financial
institutions, then restructure and resolve them to recover dues.
● ARCs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which prescribes
prudential norms, including the maintenance of a capital adequacy ratio (CAR).
o As per RBI guidelines, ARCs must maintain a minimum CAR of 15% of their
risk-weighted assets. Hence, statement A is correct.
Explanation:
• ARCs are allowed to deploy surplus funds in liquid financial
instruments like certificates of deposit (CDs) and commercial papers
(CPs) to manage liquidity effectively. Hence, statement B is correct.
• ARCs are allowed to deploy funds in government securities and
deposits with scheduled commercial banks, Small Industries
Development Bank of India (SIDBI), National Bank for Agriculture
and Rural Development (NABARD) or such other entities as
specified by RBI.
Explanation:
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 allows ARCs to act as resolution
applicants if they meet specific eligibility criteria. Large ARCs that satisfy these
norms can submit resolution plans for distressed assets undergoing insolvency
proceedings. Hence, statement C is correct.
Insolvency Resolution Flow:
1. Company Defaults on Loan
2. CIRP Initiated by NCLT
3. Resolution Professional (RP) Appointed
4. RP Invites Resolution Plans
5. Resolution Applicants Submit Plans
6. Committee of Creditors (CoC) Evaluates Plans
7. CoC Approves with 66% Majority
8. NCLT Gives Final Approval
9. Resolution Applicant Takes Over & Revives Company
Explanation:
Commercial paper:
Commercial paper is a money-market security issues by large
corporations to obtain funds to meet short-term obligations and is backed
only by an issuing bank or company promise to pay the face amount on
the maturity date specified on the note.
Is an unsecured, short-term instrument issued by a corporation, typically
for the financing of accounts receivable, inventories and meeting short-
term liabilities. Maturities on commercial paper rarely range any longer
than 270 days. Commercial paper is usually issued at a discount from face
value and reflects prevailing market interest rates
Explanation:
Certificate of Deposit(CD):
• Certificate of Deposit (CD) refers to a money market instrument, which is
negotiable and equivalent to a promissory note.
• It is either issued in demat form or in the form of a usance promissory note.
• This instrument is issue in lieu of the funds deposited at a bank for a specified
time period.
• These are similar to savings accounts and virtually risk free.
Who can Issue a Certificate of Deposit?
All scheduled commercial banks excluding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Local
Area Banks (LABs)
Explanation:
Certificate of Deposit(CD):
Minimum amount for Certificate of Deposit has been fixed at Rs. 1 Lakh, to be
accepted from a single subscriber Larger amounts have to be in the multiples of Rs. 1
Lakh.
Their maturity period is between seven days to one year for commercial banks. For
Financial Institutions, the maturity is not less than a year and not more than three
years.
The CDs are issued at a discount on face value. Return on them is difference between
the issue value and face value.
If CD has been issued in physical form (as usance promissory notes), they can be
freely transferred by endorsement and delivery. If they have been released in Demat
form, they can be transferred as per the procedure applicable to other demat securities.
ECONOMY – INFLATION
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
6. Consider the following statements.
1. Food price increases have a greater impact on overall inflation in urban
areas compared to rural areas.
2. Vegetables constitute the largest component of the Consumer Food
Price Index.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
ECONOMY – INFLATION
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
6. Consider the following statements.
1. Food price increases have a greater impact on overall inflation in urban
areas compared to rural areas.
2. Vegetables constitute the largest component of the Consumer Food
Price Index.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Food prices have a greater weight in the Consumer Price Index for
Rural Areas (CPI-Rural) compared to the Consumer Price Index for
Urban Areas (CPI-Urban).
• This is because rural populations spend a larger proportion of their
income on food compared to urban populations, who typically
allocate more to housing, transport, and discretionary spending.
• Consequently, food price increases tend to have a greater impact on
overall inflation in rural areas than in urban areas. . Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) measures the price changes
of food items. Key components include cereals, pulses, vegetables,
milk and milk products, meat, fish, eggs, oils, fats, and others.
Explanation:
Explanation:
• Among these, cereals and products typically constitute the largest
component of the CFPI due to their significant share in the average Indian
diet. While vegetables are an important component, they do not outweigh
cereals in terms of weightage. . Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
CFPI

The Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) is a measure of change in retail prices of food items
consumed by the population. It is a specific measure of inflation that focuses exclusively on the
price changes of food items in a consumer's basket of goods and services.

The CFPI is a sub-component of the broader Consumer Price Index (CPI) and is used by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to track inflation.

The Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(MOSPI) started releasing CFPI for three categories -rural, urban and combined - separately on
an all-India basis with effect from May 2014.

Methodology: Like the Consumer Price Index (CPI), the CFPI is also calculated monthly and the
methodology remains the same as the CPI.

The base year presently used is 2012.

The CSO has revised the CPI and CFPI Base Year from 2010 to 2012 in January 2015.
Explanation:
CFPI
Explanation:
CFPI
Explanation:
ECONOMY – MARKETS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

7. The recent inclusion of Indian Bonds in the JP Morgan Emerging Market Index is
expected to have significant implications for the Indian bond market. How many of the
following factors could be impacted by this development?

1. Yield of Indian government securities

2. Government's borrowing costs

3. Interest rates on loans offered by Indian Banks

4. Strengthening of the Indian Rupee

Select the correct code.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
ECONOMY – MARKETS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

7. The recent inclusion of Indian Bonds in the JP Morgan Emerging Market Index is
expected to have significant implications for the Indian bond market. How many of the
following factors could be impacted by this development?

1. Yield of Indian government securities

2. Government's borrowing costs

3. Interest rates on loans offered by Indian Banks

4. Strengthening of the Indian Rupee

Select the correct code.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
Explanation:
● The inclusion of Indian bonds in the JP Morgan Emerging Market
Bond Index is a significant milestone for India's bond market. It
could impact multiple factors due to increased foreign investment
inflows.
● Inclusion in the index will attract significant foreign portfolio
investments (FPI) in Indian government bonds. Increased demand
for these securities will push up their prices.
○ Yield and price of bonds have an inverse relationship. As demand
increases, bond prices rise, and yields decrease. Hence, option 1 is
correct.
Explanation:
● A reduction in the yield of G-Secs directly reduces the interest rate the
government pays on its borrowings. This makes it cheaper for the
government to raise funds.
○ Enhanced demand from international investors also reflects better
creditworthiness and stability, further lowering borrowing costs.
Hence, option 2 is correct.
● Lower yields on G-Secs could lead to a reduction in the risk-free rate,
which is a component in determining interest rates across the
economy.
○ With increased foreign inflows, liquidity in the financial system
may improve, prompting banks to reduce their lending rates.
○ However, the extent of this impact depends on how much of this
liquidity filters into the banking sector. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Explanation:
● Inclusion in the index will bring large foreign capital inflows,
increasing the supply of dollars in the Indian forex market.
○ This increased demand for the rupee will likely strengthen its value
against the dollar, barring significant external shocks. Hence,
option 4 is correct.
Explanation:
ECONOMY – EXTERNAL SECTOR

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - INTENSE

8. Consider the following statements with respect to India-Mauritius Tax

Treaty.

1. Revised tax agreement in 2016 allowed India to tax capital gains from
transactions in shares routed through Mauritius.

2. Principal Purpose Test aims to deny tax treaty benefits to arrangements

designed primarily to avoid taxes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

ECONOMY – EXTERNAL SECTOR

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - INTENSE

8. Consider the following statements with respect to India-Mauritius Tax

Treaty.

1. Revised tax agreement in 2016 allowed India to tax capital gains from
transactions in shares routed through Mauritius.

2. Principal Purpose Test aims to deny tax treaty benefits to arrangements

designed primarily to avoid taxes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
• The India-Mauritius Tax Treaty was revised in 2016 to curb misuse of the
treaty for tax avoidance.
• Previously, Mauritius was a popular route for investments into India due
to a capital gains tax exemption. Investors could claim tax benefits under
the treaty, avoiding taxes on capital gains in both countries.
• The 2016 amendment introduced a "source-based taxation rule", allowing
India to tax capital gains arising from transactions in shares acquired by a
Mauritian resident on or after April 1, 2017. This ended the exclusive
benefit previously enjoyed by Mauritius-based investors. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• The Principal Purpose Test (PPT) is a mechanism under Base Erosion and
Profit Shifting (BEPS) Action Plan 6, endorsed by the OECD and adopted
in India’s tax treaties.
Explanation:
• It aims to deny tax treaty benefits if the primary purpose of an
arrangement is to avoid taxes, rather than genuine business or economic
activities.
• The PPT ensures that entities cannot exploit tax treaties solely for tax
advantages, even if they technically meet other treaty requirements.
• This provision has been included in several of India’s revised tax treaties,
including the India-Mauritius Treaty. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
Global Minimum Tax
• EU members have agreed to implement a minimum tax rate of 15% on big businesses in
accordance with Pillar 2 of the global tax agreement framed by the Organisation for
Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD).
It is a global deal to ensure big companies pay a minimum tax rate of 15% which makes it
harder for them to avoid taxation. It has been agreed by 136 countries.
ECONOMY – BASICS OF ECONOMY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

9. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of opportunity cost?

A. A factory manager decides to increase production of cars instead of trucks,

resulting in fewer trucks being produced.

B. A farmer uses a new irrigation system to increase crop yield, leading to

higher profits.

C. A government builds a new airport to boost tourism, but the project takes
longer than expected to complete.

D. A student pays for a degree by working part-time to cover tuition fees.

ECONOMY – BASICS OF ECONOMY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

9. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of opportunity cost?

A. A factory manager decides to increase production of cars instead of trucks,

resulting in fewer trucks being produced.

B. A farmer uses a new irrigation system to increase crop yield, leading to

higher profits.

C. A government builds a new airport to boost tourism, but the project takes
longer than expected to complete.

D. A student pays for a degree by working part-time to cover tuition fees.

Explanation:
• Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative foregone when
making a choice. It represents the trade-off involved in choosing one
option over another.
• Option A illustrates opportunity cost because the factory manager
chooses to produce more cars, which comes at the cost of producing
fewer trucks. The foregone production of trucks is the opportunity cost of
increasing car production. Hence, statement A is correct.
ECONOMY – PUBLIC FINANCE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

10. Consider the following statements.

1. A declining primary deficit indicates improving fiscal health.

2. The primary deficit is calculated by subtracting interest payments on past

debt from the current fiscal deficit.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

ECONOMY – PUBLIC FINANCE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

10. Consider the following statements.

1. A declining primary deficit indicates improving fiscal health.

2. The primary deficit is calculated by subtracting interest payments on past

debt from the current fiscal deficit.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
● Primary deficit refers to the fiscal deficit excluding interest payments
on past debt. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
Fiscal deficit = (Total expenditure – Total income of the government)
● A declining primary deficit means the government is reducing its
borrowing requirements (other than for interest payments). This
indicates that:
○ The government's non-interest spending is under control.
○ Revenues are increasing or expenditures (excluding interest) are
decreasing.
○ It reflects improving fiscal health as the government is relying less
on borrowing to finance its operations. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
ECONOMY – ERII

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

11. How many of the following are Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF)
members?

1. China

2. Brunei

3. Fiji

4. India

5. Japan

6. Myanmar
Select the correct code.

A. Only 3

B. Only 4

C. Only 5

D. All 6
ECONOMY – ERII

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

11. How many of the following are Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF)
members?

1. China

2. Brunei

3. Fiji

4. India

5. Japan

6. Myanmar
Select the correct code.

A. Only 3

B. Only 4

C. Only 5

D. All 6
Explanation:
∙ The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) was launched in May
2022 by the United States. It is a regional economic initiative aimed at
strengthening trade, economic cooperation, and sustainability in the
Indo-Pacific region. The framework focuses on four pillars:
o Trade
o Supply chains
o Clean energy and decarbonization
o Tax and anti-corruption
Explanation:
∙ As of now, there are 14 member countries in the IPEF:
o Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, Republic of Korea,
Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam
and USA.
∙ China and Myanmar are not part of the IPEF. Hence, option B is
correct.
Explanation:
Explanation:
IPEF:
• The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) was launched jointly by the US
and other partner countries of the Indo-Pacific region in 2022.
• The 14 IPEF partners represent 40 percent of the global GDP and 28 percent of
global goods and services trade.
• It seeks to strengthen economic partnerships among participating countries
with the objective of enhancing resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness,
economic growth, fairness, and competitiveness in the region.
The IPEF is not a Free Trade Agreement(FTA) but allows members to negotiate the
parts they want to. The negotiations will be along four main pillars:
• Supply-chain resilience
• Clean energy, decarbonization & infrastructure
• Taxation & anti-corruption
• Fair & resilient trade.
Explanation:
How does the IPEF differ from other trade deals?
• Non-binding: Unlike trade deals such as free trade agreements (FTAs), the
IPEF is a non-binding framework for economic cooperation and connectivity in
the Indo-Pacific region.
• Inclusive: The IPEF includes countries from across the Indo-Pacific region,
including India, Japan, Australia, and the United States. This makes it a more
inclusive initiative than some other trade deals.
• Comprehensive: The four pillars of IPEF make it a more comprehensive
initiative that addresses a broader range of issues than some other trade deals.
• Focus on Non-tariff mechanisms: The IPEF does not include discussions on
tariff reductions or increasing market access, which are typically the focus of
traditional trade deals.
• Flexible: The IPEF provides flexibility to participants, allowing them to choose
which areas they want to participate in rather than being bound by all aspects
of the agreement.
• Focus on infrastructure and investment: The IPEF focuses on promoting
infrastructure development, investment, and connectivity in the region. It aims
to support sustainable, transparent, and high-quality infrastructure projects..
ECONOMY – MARKET

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

12. Which of the following are the components of the Secondary market?

1. Convertible Bonds

2. Qualified Institutional Placement

3. Mutual Funds

4. Options Trading

5. Rights Issue

Select the correct code

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only
ECONOMY – MARKET

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

12. Which of the following are the components of the Secondary market?

1. Convertible Bonds

2. Qualified Institutional Placement

3. Mutual Funds

4. Options Trading

5. Rights Issue

Select the correct code

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
∙ The secondary market refers to a marketplace where previously issued
securities and financial instruments such as stocks, bonds, options, and
mutual funds are bought and sold among investors. It is distinct from
the primary market, where securities are issued directly by companies
to investors.
∙ Convertible bonds are a type of corporate bond that can be converted
into a predetermined number of company shares.
o While convertible bonds are issued in the primary market, they can
be traded in the secondary market after issuance. Hence, option 1
is correct.
Explanation:
∙ Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP) is a way for listed companies
to raise capital by issuing securities (shares or bonds) directly to
qualified institutional buyers (QIBs).
o QIP is a primary market activity because it involves issuing new
securities directly to institutional buyers. Hence, option 2 is
incorrect.
∙ Mutual funds pool money from multiple investors to invest in
securities like stocks and bonds. Investors trade units of mutual funds
through stock exchanges or fund houses.
o Mutual fund units can be traded on the secondary market (e.g.,
ETFs or close-ended funds). Hence, option 3 is correct.
Explanation:
∙ Options are financial derivatives that give the buyer the right (but not
the obligation) to buy or sell an asset at a specific price on or before a
specific date.
o Options are traded in the secondary market through derivative
exchanges. Hence, option 4 is correct.
∙ Rights Issue: A rights issue allows existing shareholders to purchase
additional shares directly from the company at a discounted price.
o A rights issue is a primary market activity because it involves
issuing new shares directly to shareholders. Hence, option 5 is
incorrect.
ECONOMY – INDUSTRY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

13. Which one of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the
provisions of the Indian Patents Act 1970?

A. The term of every patent granted is 20 years from the application filing date.

B. An invention must have an industrial application to get patented.

C. A new method of agriculture practice can be patented.

D. Indian patent is effective only within India’s territory.

ECONOMY – INDUSTRY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

13. Which one of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the
provisions of the Indian Patents Act 1970?

A. The term of every patent granted is 20 years from the application filing date.

B. An invention must have an industrial application to get patented.

C. A new method of agriculture practice can be patented.

D. Indian patent is effective only within India’s territory.

Explanation:
∙ A Patent is a statutory right for an invention granted for a limited
period of time to the patentee by the Government, in exchange of full
disclosure of his invention for excluding others, from making, using,
selling, importing the patented product or process for producing that
product for those purposes without his consent.
∙ The term of every patent granted is 20 years from the date of filing of
application. However, for application filed under national phase under
Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT), the term of the patent will be 20
years from the international filing date accorded under PCT. Hence,
statement A is correct.
∙ The patent system in India is governed by the Patents Act, 1970 (No.39
of 1970) as amended by the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005 and the
Patents Rules, 2003.
Explanation:
o The Patent Rules are regularly amended in consonance with the
changing environment, most recent being in 2024.
∙ Patent protection is a territorial right and therefore it is effective only
within the territory of India.
o There is no concept of global/world patent. Hence, statement D is
correct.
o However, filing an application in India enables the applicant to file
a corresponding application for same invention in convention
countries or under PCT, within or before expiry of twelve months
from the filing date in India.
o Patents should be obtained in each country where the applicant
requires protection of his invention.
Explanation:
∙ For an invention to qualify for a patent under the Indian Patents Act,
1970, it must meet certain criteria:
o Novelty: It must be new.
o Inventive Step: It should not be obvious to someone skilled in the
field.
o Industrial Applicability: It must be capable of being used in an
industry or have practical utility. Hence, statement B is correct.
∙ Section 3 of the Indian Patents Act specifies certain exclusions from
patentability. Under Section 3(h):
o "A method of agriculture or horticulture" is not patentable. Hence,
statement C is incorrect.
Explanation:
Patents
Increase in Patents: India now ranks 6th globally in terms of patent applications, with
64,480 patent filings in 2023.
∙ Patent applications grew from 42,951 (2013-14) to 92,168 (2023-24), with grants rising
due to backlog clearance.
∙ In 2013-14, 25.5% of patent applications were from Indian residents, which increased
to 56% in 2023-24.
∙ Earlier, patent filings were dominated by foreign multinational corporations, but
Indian applicants are now filing more patents.
∙ However, in 2024-25, 78,264 patent applications and 26,083 grants indicate a lower
approval rate.
Explanation:
∙ Trademarks: According to the World Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO) 2024 report, India ranked 4th globally in trademark filings after
the US, China, and Russia.
∙ Trademark applications in India have indeed grown significantly from
around 2 lakh in 2016-17 to approximately 4.8 lakh in 2023-24. However,
the rate of increase has slowed.
∙ Industrial Design: 36.4% increase in industrial design applications,
driven by textiles, tools & machines, and health sectors.
∙ Manpower: The patent office workforce increased from 272 in 2014-15 to
956 currently, but still lags behind China (13,704) and the US (8,132).
ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

14. Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The Reserve Bank of India incentivises banks to increase the flow of priority sector
credit to districts with lower credit flow.

Statement II: Banks can co-lend with non-banking financial companies to fulfil their PSL
obligations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.

C. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect

D. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

14. Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The Reserve Bank of India incentivises banks to increase the flow
of priority sector credit to districts with lower credit flow.

Statement II: Banks can co-lend with non-banking financial companies to fulfil
their PSL obligations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.

C. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect

D. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Explanation:
∙ The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) incentivizes banks to increase the flow of
priority sector credit to districts with lower credit flow.

∙ The RBI has a mechanism under the Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
guidelines to promote equitable credit distribution across districts. The RBI
identifies districts with lower credit flow (known as low-credit districts) and
incentivizes banks to increase lending in these areas.

∙ Under the Co-Lending Model (CLM) introduced by the RBI, banks are
allowed to co-lend with NBFCs to extend credit to priority sectors.

∙ This partnership helps banks leverage the outreach of NBFCs while

complying with PSL requirements. The model ensures greater financial
inclusion in underserved and unserved areas.
Explanation:
∙ Although both statements are correct, co-lending with NBFCs is not directly
linked to incentivizing banks to lend in low-credit districts. The co-lending
mechanism is broader and not specifically targeted at such districts.

∙ Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is

not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

15. Project Nexus, an initiative of the Bank for International Settlements

(BIS), aims to:

A. Develop a new global cryptocurrency

B. Improve cross-border payments by connecting domestic instant payment

systems

C. Create a centralized global banking system

D. Regulate decentralized finance (DeFi) platforms

ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

15. Project Nexus, an initiative of the Bank for International Settlements

(BIS), aims to:

A. Develop a new global cryptocurrency

B. Improve cross-border payments by connecting domestic instant payment

systems

C. Create a centralized global banking system

D. Regulate decentralized finance (DeFi) platforms

Explanation:
∙ Project Nexus is conceptualised by the Innovation Hub of the Bank for
International Settlements (BIS).

∙ It seeks to enhance cross-border payments by connecting multiple domestic

instant payment systems (IPS) globally. Hence, statement B is correct.

∙ It is the first BIS Innovation Hub project in the payments area to move
towards live implementation.

∙ Project Nexus aims to connect the FPSs of four Association of Southeast

Asian Nations (ASEAN) — Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand;
and India, who would be the founding members and first mover countries
of this platform.

∙ The platform is expected to go live by 2026.

ECONOMY – AGRICULTURE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

16. With reference to the Onion production in India, consider the following
statements:

1. The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India

(NAFED) procures onions to maintain buffer stocks.

2. The kharif season yields a higher onion production than the rabi season.

3. Madhya Pradesh is the leading state in terms of total onion production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only
ECONOMY – AGRICULTURE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

16. With reference to the Onion production in India, consider the following
statements:

1. The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India

(NAFED) procures onions to maintain buffer stocks.

2. The kharif season yields a higher onion production than the rabi season.

3. Madhya Pradesh is the leading state in terms of total onion production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• India is one of the largest producers of onions in the world, and several states
in the country are known for their onion production.

• Maharashtra is one of the biggest onion-producing states in India. The major

onion-producing districts in Maharashtra include Nashik, Ahmednagar,
Pune, Solapur, and Aurangabad. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Onion is produced in three seasons i.e. rabi, kharif and late kharif in our
country. about 60% production comes from rabi crop while kharif and late
kharif crops contribute 20% each. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• In an unprecedented move the Government raised the quantum of onion

buffer to 5.00 lakh metric tonne in 2023, after achieving the initial
procurement target of 3.00 lakh metric tonne.
Explanation:
• In this regard, the Department of Consumer Affairs has directed NCCF and
NAFED to procure 1.00 lakh tonne each to achieve the additional
procurement target alongside calibrated disposal of the procured stocks in
major consumption centres. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Explanation:
Explanation:
ECONOMY – MARKETS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

17. Which of the following best describes the impact of "Greenium" on the
issuer of a green bond?

A. Increased borrowing costs.

B. Lower borrowing costs.

C. No significant impact on borrowing costs.

D. Increased risk of default.

ECONOMY – MARKETS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

17. Which of the following best describes the impact of "Greenium" on the
issuer of a green bond?

A. Increased borrowing costs.

B. Lower borrowing costs.

C. No significant impact on borrowing costs.

D. Increased risk of default.

Explanation:
∙ Greenium is a term derived from "Green Premium" and refers to the
phenomenon where green bonds (bonds issued to fund environmentally
sustainable projects) have a lower yield compared to conventional bonds.
This results in lower borrowing costs for the issuer. Hence option B is
correct.

∙ The demand for green bonds often exceeds supply due to investors'
growing preference for environmentally friendly investments. This higher
demand leads to lower yields, creating the greenium effect.
ECONOMY – PUBLIC FINANCE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

18. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the
Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)?

1. Section 90 of the Income Tax Act of India provides tax relief as per the
provisions of DTAAs.

2. A DTAA cannot be implemented unless it is officially notified under Section

90 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Select the correct code.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

ECONOMY – PUBLIC FINANCE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

18. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the
Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)?

1. Section 90 of the Income Tax Act of India provides tax relief as per the
provisions of DTAAs.

2. A DTAA cannot be implemented unless it is officially notified under Section

90 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Select the correct code.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
∙ Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAA) is a treaty signed between
two or more countries and is applicable in cases where a taxpayer residing
in one country has to earn his/her income from another country.

o The DTAA agreements cover a range of income such as income from

employment, business profits, dividends, interest, royalties, capital
gains, among others.

o DTAA, signed by India with different countries, fixes a specific rate at

which tax has to be deducted on income paid to residents of that
country.

o Section 90 of the Income Tax Act prescribes tax relief under the Double
Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Explanation:
o It ensures that no company or individual pays income tax twice while
working in a foreign country or for a foreign company.

∙ The Supreme Court has recently ruled that a Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreement (DTAA) cannot be enforced unless it is notified under Section 90
of the Income Tax Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

19. To be considered "money," a commodity must possess which of the

following characteristics:

1. Facilitates the exchange of goods and services.

2. Serves as a standardized unit for measuring and expressing prices.

3. Is readily divisible into smaller units.

4. Possesses value beyond its use as currency.

How many of these characteristics are essential for something to be

recognized as money?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - EASY

19. To be considered "money," a commodity must possess which of the

following characteristics:

1. Facilitates the exchange of goods and services.

2. Serves as a standardized unit for measuring and expressing prices.

3. Is readily divisible into smaller units.

4. Possesses value beyond its use as currency.

How many of these characteristics are essential for something to be

recognized as money?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
Explanation:
∙ Money is defined as any item or verifiable record accepted as payment for
goods and services and repayment of debts. To function effectively as
money, a commodity must possess several key characteristics.

∙ Characteristics of Money

o Facilitates the Exchange of Goods and Services: This is the primary

function of money. It acts as a medium of exchange, overcoming the
inefficiencies of a barter system. Hence, option 1 is correct.

▪ Without this characteristic, a commodity cannot serve as money.

Explanation:
o Serves as a Standardized Unit for Measuring and Expressing Prices:
Money acts as a unit of account, allowing the value of goods and
services to be expressed in standardized terms (e.g., dollars, rupees).

▪ This characteristic ensures ease in comparing prices and making

economic decisions. Hence, option 2 is correct.

o Is Readily Divisible into Smaller Units: Divisibility allows money to be

used for transactions of varying sizes.

▪ Without divisibility, money would struggle to function as an

effective medium of exchange. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Explanation:
o Possesses Value Beyond Its Use as Currency: This refers to intrinsic
value, where the commodity has value independent of its role as money
(e.g., gold or silver in the past).
o Seigniorage is the difference between the value of currency/money and
the cost of producing it. It is essentially the profit earned by the
government by printing currency.

▪ In modern times, fiat money (e.g., paper currency) does not possess
intrinsic value, yet it functions effectively as money due to
government backing. Not essential for something to be considered
money. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
ECONOMY – EXTERNAL SECTOR

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

20. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A. When dollar strengthens, central banks can buy gold to diversify their forex.

B. SDR can be exchanged among IMF members for dollar.

C. American Depository Receipts are denominated in dollar and used to invest

in US companies.

D. None of the above

ECONOMY – EXTERNAL SECTOR

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

20. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A. When dollar strengthens, central banks can buy gold to diversify their forex.

B. SDR can be exchanged among IMF members for dollar.

C. American Depository Receipts are denominated in dollar and used to

invest in US companies.

D. None of the above

Explanation:
∙ Central banks can purchase gold to diversify their reserves and reduce
dependency on the US dollar.

o This strategy is often employed to hedge against currency depreciation

and geopolitical risks. Hence, statement A is correct.

o However, the decision to buy gold is influenced by various factors,

including economic conditions, currency strength, and geopolitical
considerations.

o The relationship between the dollar's strength and gold purchases isn't
straightforward; central banks may buy gold regardless of the dollar's
performance to achieve diversification and stability in their reserves.
Explanation:
∙ Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are an international reserve asset created by
the IMF to supplement its member countries' official reserves.

o SDRs can be exchanged among IMF member countries for freely usable
currencies like the dollar, euro, yen, etc. Hence, statement B is correct.

∙ American Depository Receipts (ADRs) are financial instruments that allow

investors to invest in non-US companies that are listed on US stock
exchanges.

o ADRs are denominated in US dollars, and they represent shares of

foreign companies. Hence, statement C is incorrect.

o For example, an investor in the US can use ADRs to invest in a foreign

company like Tata Motors or Alibaba.
ECONOMY – ERII

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

21. Consider the following statements.

1. India was the first developing country to implement DFQF market access for LDCs in
2008.

2. The decision to grant DFQF access to LDCs was initially made at the WTO Hong Kong
Ministerial Meeting in 2005.

Which of the above statements is/are correct with respect to Duty-Free Quota-Free (DFQF)
scheme for Least Developed Countries (LDCs)?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
ECONOMY – ERII

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

21. Consider the following statements.

1. India was the first developing country to implement DFQF market access
for LDCs in 2008.

2. The decision to grant DFQF access to LDCs was initially made at the WTO
Hong Kong Ministerial Meeting in 2005.

Which of the above statements is/are correct with respect to Duty-Free Quota-
Free (DFQF) scheme for Least Developed Countries (LDCs)?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
∙ The Duty-Free Quota-Free (DFQF) scheme is a trade initiative aimed at
helping Least Developed Countries (LDCs) access foreign markets.

o LDCs can export certain goods to participating countries without facing

any customs duties (taxes) or quotas (restrictions on quantity).

o The decision to provide duty free quota free (DFQF) access for LDCs
was first taken at the WTO Hong Kong Ministerial Meeting in 2005.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

o This scheme helps LDCs become more competitive in the global market
by lowering the cost of exporting their goods.

o Developed and developing countries can choose to participate in the

DFQF scheme and offer duty-free quota-free access to their markets for
LDC products.
Explanation:
o India offers a DFQF scheme, allowing LDCs to export most products to
India without duties or quotas.

o India became the first developing country to extend this facility to LDCs
in 2008, providing market access on 85 per cent of India’s total tariff
lines to better integrate LDCs into the global trading system and
improve their trading opportunities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
ECONOMY – PUBLIC FINANCE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
22. How many of the following statements is/are included in Revenue
Receipts of Budget?
1. Recoveries of Loans & Advances from Foreign Governments.
2. Grants from Asian Development Bank
3. Dividends from Public Sector Enterprises
4. Surplus transfer of Reserve Bank of India
5. Disinvestment Receipts
Select the correct code.
A. Only 2
B. Only 3
C. Only 4
D. All 5
ECONOMY – PUBLIC FINANCE
DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM
22. How many of the following statements is/are included in Revenue
Receipts of Budget?
1. Recoveries of Loans & Advances from Foreign Governments.
2. Grants from Asian Development Bank
3. Dividends from Public Sector Enterprises
4. Surplus transfer of Reserve Bank of India
5. Disinvestment Receipts
Select the correct code.
A. Only 2
B. Only 3
C. Only 4
D. All 5
Explanation:
∙ Revenue Receipts are the earnings of the government that do not create
liabilities or reduce assets. They consist of two major components:

o Tax Revenue: Income from taxes like income tax, corporate tax, GST,
etc.

o Non-Tax Revenue: Income from sources other than taxes, such as

dividends, interest receipts, and profits from government enterprises.

∙ Non-Revenue Receipts (Capital Receipts), on the other hand, include

borrowings, disinvestment, and recovery of loans.

∙ Recovery of loans involves the repayment of loans previously disbursed by

the government to foreign governments or domestic entities.

o This is classified under Capital Receipts because it reduces the

government's assets (loans given out). Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
Explanation:
∙ Grants are non-repayable funds or financial assistance provided to the
government. Such grants are considered Revenue Receipts, as they do not
create liabilities or reduce assets. Hence, option 2 is correct.

∙ Dividends received from PSEs represent the share of profit the government
earns from its investments in these enterprises. Dividends are part of Non-
Tax Revenue and are included in Revenue Receipts. Hence, option 3 is
correct.

∙ The surplus transfer from RBI refers to the profits earned by the central
bank, which are transferred to the government. This is categorized as Non-
Tax Revenue and forms a part of Revenue Receipts. Hence, option 4 is
correct.

∙ Disinvestment refers to the sale of the government’s stake in Public Sector

Enterprises or assets. Disinvestment receipts are classified under Capital
Receipts, as they involve a reduction in the government's assets. Hence,
option 5 is incorrect.
ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

23. Consider the following statements with respect to Central Bank Digital
Currency (CBDC).

1. Retail CBDCs can be used by individuals to perform transactions by

scanning UPI QR codes at merchant outlets.

2. Wholesale CBDCs have the potential to significantly reduce reliance on the

US dollar in international transactions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

23. Consider the following statements with respect to Central Bank Digital
Currency (CBDC).

1. Retail CBDCs can be used by individuals to perform transactions by

scanning UPI QR codes at merchant outlets.

2. Wholesale CBDCs have the potential to significantly reduce reliance on the

US dollar in international transactions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
∙ CBDC refers to a digital form of fiat currency issued and regulated by a
central bank. It exists in two forms:

o Retail CBDC: Used by individuals for everyday transactions.

o Wholesale CBDC: Used by financial institutions for large-value

settlements, particularly interbank transactions.

∙ Retail CBDC is designed for the general public and can be used for retail
transactions, including payments at merchant outlets.

o Integration with existing infrastructure such as UPI QR codes facilitates

seamless usage. For instance, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
proposed interoperability between e₹ (Digital Rupee) and existing
payment systems like UPI to promote wider adoption. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
Explanation:
∙ Wholesale CBDCs are used for interbank settlements and cross-border
payments, offering faster, cost-effective alternatives to traditional
correspondent banking systems.

o CBDCs can reduce reliance on the US dollar by facilitating direct

settlement in local or partner currencies, bypassing the need for an
intermediary currency like the USD. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
ECONOMY – BASICS OF ECONOMY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

24. The "degree of openness" of an economy primarily refers to:

A. The level of government intervention in the economy.

B. The extent of international trade (imports and exports) relative to the size of
the economy.

C. The flexibility of labor markets within the country.

D. The level of technological advancement in the country.

ECONOMY – BASICS OF ECONOMY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

24. The "degree of openness" of an economy primarily refers to:

A. The level of government intervention in the economy.

B. The extent of international trade (imports and exports) relative to the size
of the economy.

C. The flexibility of labor markets within the country.

D. The level of technological advancement in the country.

Explanation:
∙ The degree of openness of an economy refers to its integration with the
global economy.

∙ It measures how much a country engages in international trade (exports

and imports) relative to its economic size (GDP). Hence, statement B is
correct.

∙ A high degree of openness indicates a significant reliance on global markets

for trade and economic activities, while a low degree indicates a more
closed or self-reliant economy.
Explanation:
IMF
• International Monetary Fund (IMF) came up in 1944.
• Board of Governors of the IMF consists of one Governor and
one Alternate Governor from each member country.
• For India, Finance Minister is the Ex-officio Governor
• The RBI Governor is the Alternate Governor on the Board.
• The day-to-day management of the IMF is carried out by the
Managing Director who is Chairman of the Board of
Executive Directors.
• India is represented at the IMF by an Executive Director, who
also represents three other countries in India’s constituency,
viz., Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Bhutan.
Explanation:
What are IMF quotas?
Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance
structure.
An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative
position in the world economy.
Quotas are denominated in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s
unit of account.
Quotas are assigned by IMF according to –
• The relative size of its GDP (50%)
• Openness (30%)
• Economic variability (15%)
• International reserves (5%)
ECONOMY – MARKETS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

25. Consider the following statements.

1. A zero-coupon bond purchased at a price exceeding its face value will result
in a negative yield.

2. A negative yield bond signifies a scenario where the borrower receives

payment from the lender.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

ECONOMY – MARKETS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

25. Consider the following statements.

1. A zero-coupon bond purchased at a price exceeding its face value will result
in a negative yield.

2. A negative yield bond signifies a scenario where the borrower receives

payment from the lender.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
∙ A zero-coupon bond does not pay periodic interest (coupon). Instead, it is
sold at a discount to its face value and redeemed at par upon maturity.

o The yield on a zero-coupon bond depends on the difference between the

purchase price and the face value, along with the time to maturity.

o If a zero-coupon bond is purchased at a price exceeding its face value,

the investor will effectively incur a loss because the amount paid
upfront (purchase price) is higher than the amount received at maturity
(face value). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

o This scenario leads to a negative yield, as the return is negative over the
bond's holding period.
Explanation:
∙ A bond has a negative yield when the total return for the investor (lender) is
negative over the holding period. This can happen if:

o The bond price is higher than its redemption value.

o The cost of holding the bond outweighs its returns.

∙ In such cases, investors essentially pay the borrower (issuer) to hold the
bond. A negative yield bond signifies a scenario where the borrower
benefits at the expense of the lender. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
ECONOMY – EXTERNAL SECTOR

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

26. How many of the following factors can contribute to an improvement in a

country's trade balance?

1. Imposing import tariffs.

2. Negotiating free trade agreements with other nations.

3. Implementing import substitution policies.

4. Utilizing currency management strategies.

Select the correct code.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
ECONOMY – EXTERNAL SECTOR

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

26. How many of the following factors can contribute to an improvement in a

country's trade balance?

1. Imposing import tariffs.

2. Negotiating free trade agreements with other nations.

3. Implementing import substitution policies.

4. Utilizing currency management strategies.

Select the correct code.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All 4
Explanation:
∙ The trade balance is the difference between a country's exports and imports.

o Surplus: Exports > Imports.

o Deficit: Imports > Exports.

∙ Improving the trade balance typically means reducing the trade deficit or
increasing the surplus.

o Import tariffs are taxes imposed on imported goods, making them more
expensive compared to domestically produced goods.

o By discouraging imports due to higher costs, tariffs can reduce the

volume of imported goods. This leads to a lower import bill, which can
improve the trade balance. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Explanation:
∙ FTAs remove or reduce tariffs and other trade barriers between member
nations, promoting easier trade.

o While FTAs can increase trade flows overall, their impact on the trade
balance depends on whether exports or imports grow more.

o If the FTA results in higher exports relative to imports, it can improve

the trade balance. Hence, option 2 is correct.

∙ Import substitution involves producing goods domestically that would

otherwise be imported, reducing dependency on foreign products.

o Reduces imports by promoting local production, improving the trade

balance. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Explanation:
∙ Currency management involves strategies like devaluing the domestic
currency to make exports cheaper and imports more expensive.

o A weaker domestic currency can boost exports by making them more

competitive internationally, while reducing imports by making them
costlier. Hence, option 4 is correct.
ECONOMY – INDUSTRY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - DIFFICULT

27. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Offshore
Areas Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023?

1. The Act allows the administering authority to grant production leases in

reserved areas to government companies.

2. The Act provides license holders with the option to pay an equivalent
amount to the Offshore Areas Mineral Trust instead of paying royalties to
the government.

Select the correct code.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

ECONOMY – INDUSTRY

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - DIFFICULT

27. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Offshore
Areas Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023?

1. The Act allows the administering authority to grant production leases in

reserved areas to government companies.

2. The Act provides license holders with the option to pay an equivalent
amount to the Offshore Areas Mineral Trust instead of paying royalties to
the government.

Select the correct code.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Explanation:
• The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) (OAMDR) Act
has recently been amended w.e.f. 17.08.2023 which introduced transparent
and non-discretionary auction process as the method of allocation of
operating rights in the offshore areas.
 Offshore Areas Mineral Offshore Areas Mineral
(Development and Regulation) (Development and Regulation)
Act, 2002 Amendment Act, 2023
License Different licenses for Composite license for granting
reconnaissance, exploration, rights for exploration as well as
and production. production.
Auction Process Provides for the grant of Provides two types of operating
concessions through rights to the private sector by
administrative allocation. competitive bidding, viz.
production lease, and composite
license.
Validity Production lease is granted for Production lease under a composite
a period of up to 30 years, license will be valid for 50 years.
further renewed for up to 20
years.
Mining in reserved Allows the government to Allows the administering authority
areas reserve offshore areas that are to grant a composite license or
not held under any operating production lease to the government
right. or a government company.
From the table, statement 1 is correct.

∙ The amended act sets up the Offshore Areas Mineral Trust. Concession
holders will be required to pay an amount to the Trust in addition to any
royalty. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

∙ The funds will be used for specified purposes including: (i) exploration in
offshore areas, (ii) research and studies about the mitigation of adverse
effects of offshore mining on the ecology, and (iii) relief upon the
occurrence of a disaster.
ECONOMY – MISCELLANEOUS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

28. Which of the following is not a push factor for migration?

A. Lack of job opportunities in the origin country

B. Political instability in the origin country

C. Higher wages and better living standards in the destination country

D. Natural disasters in the origin country

ECONOMY – MISCELLANEOUS

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

28. Which of the following is not a push factor for migration?

A. Lack of job opportunities in the origin country

B. Political instability in the origin country

C. Higher wages and better living standards in the destination country

D. Natural disasters in the origin country

Explanation:
∙ Migration refers to the movement of individuals or groups from one place
to another, often driven by a combination of push factors and pull factors:

∙ Push Factors: Conditions that compel individuals to leave their place of

origin. These are typically negative or undesirable circumstances like:

o Lack of employment opportunities.

o Political instability or persecution.

o Natural disasters.

o Poverty or poor living conditions.

Explanation:
∙ Pull Factors: Conditions that attract individuals to a new destination. These
are typically positive features like:

o Higher wages.

o Better living standards. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

o Availability of education and healthcare.

o Political stability and safety.

ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

29. Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The value of currency notes and coins is derived from the
guarantee provided by the issuing authority.

Statement II: Currency notes and coins do not possess intrinsic value.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.

C. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect

D. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

ECONOMY – BANKING

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

29. Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The value of currency notes and coins is derived from the
guarantee provided by the issuing authority.

Statement II: Currency notes and coins do not possess intrinsic value.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the

correct explanation for Statement-I.

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.

C. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect

D. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Explanation:
∙ The value of currency notes and coins is not based on their intrinsic value
(like gold or silver coins in the past) but on the guarantee provided by the
issuing authority.

∙ In India, currency notes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and
the guarantee is provided under the authority of the Indian government.
Coins, however, are issued directly by the Government of India.

∙ Intrinsic value refers to the material worth of an object, such as the value of
gold or silver in coins.

∙ Modern currency notes are made of paper or polymer, and their material
cost is negligible compared to their face value. Similarly, coins are made of
inexpensive metals with minimal intrinsic value compared to their
denominated worth.
Explanation:
∙ Statement I explains the basis of currency value as the guarantee by the
issuing authority.

∙ Statement II elaborates that since currency notes and coins lack intrinsic
value, their value must come from the guarantee provided by the authority.

∙ This establishes a cause-and-effect relationship where Statement II explains

Statement I.

∙ Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is

the correct explanation for Statement-I.
ECONOMY – INFRASTRUCTURE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

30. What is the primary objective of implementing the "Time of Day (ToD)
Tariff"?

A. To encourage higher electricity usage during peak hours.

B. To equalize electricity rates across all time periods.

C. To manage electricity demand by incentivizing off-peak usage.

D. To increase revenue for electricity distribution companies only.

ECONOMY – INFRASTRUCTURE

DIFFICULTY LEVEL - MEDIUM

30. What is the primary objective of implementing the "Time of Day (ToD)
Tariff"?

A. To encourage higher electricity usage during peak hours.

B. To equalize electricity rates across all time periods.

C. To manage electricity demand by incentivizing off-peak usage.

D. To increase revenue for electricity distribution companies only.

Explanation:
∙ The Time of Day (ToD) Tariff is a pricing mechanism where electricity rates
vary depending on the time of day. Typically, electricity is costlier during
peak demand hours and cheaper during off-peak hours.

∙ This tariff structure is designed to manage electricity demand by

encouraging consumers to shift their usage from peak hours to off-peak
hours.

∙ How It Works:

o Peak Hours: Electricity is more expensive because demand is high.

o Off-Peak Hours: Electricity is cheaper to encourage consumption when

demand is low.

∙ By spreading demand more evenly, it helps optimize the load on the grid
and reduces strain on power generation and distribution infrastructure.
Explanation:
The Time of Day (ToD) tariff by the distribution licensees to its consumers is as approved by the
Appropriate Commission for that particular category of consumer. In most of the States the ToD
tariff is applicable for Commercial and Industrial consumers. In some of the States ToD Tariff is
applicable for other e.g. domestic and agricultural consumers also.
Ministry of Power has issued the Electricity (Rights of Consumers) Amendment Rules, 2023 wherein
the rule for Time of Day (ToD) Tariff has also been specified. The main features of these Rules are:
1. ToD tariff for Commercial and Industrial consumers having maximum demand more than 10kW
shall be made effective from a date not later than 1st April, 2024 and for other consumers except
agricultural consumers, the ToD tariff shall be made effective not later than 1st April, 2025.
2. ToD tariff shall be made effective immediately after installation of smart meters for the
consumers.
3. ToD tariff, during the peak period of the day, for Commercial and Industrial consumers shall not
be less than 1.20 times the normal tariff and for other consumers it shall not be less than 1.10
times the normal tariff.
4. Tariff for solar hours, of the day, to be specified by the State Commission shall be at least twenty
percent (20%) less than the normal tariff for that category of consumers.
5. ToD tariff shall be applicable on energy charge component of the normal tariff.
Economy – Planning
Difficulty Level - Medium
31. With reference to different types of economic planning, consider the
following statements:
1. Imperative planning is primarily followed in command economies where
the state, has full control over economic decisions.
2. Indicative planning is commonly used in democratic and liberal states,
where planning provides only a framework for the economy.
3. Normative planning is based on the value system of society and was first
advocated in India in the Economic Survey 2010–11.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Economy – Planning
Difficulty Level - Medium
31. With reference to different types of economic planning, consider the
following statements:
1. Imperative planning is primarily followed in command economies where
the state, has full control over economic decisions.
2. Indicative planning is commonly used in democratic and liberal states,
where planning provides only a framework for the economy.
3. Normative planning is based on the value system of society and was first
advocated in India in the Economic Survey 2010–11.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Imperative Planning Followed by command economies.
Such planning models set very specific goals for each sector of economy.

∙ Also known as directive/Target Planning.

∙ All economic decisions in hands of state.

Features

∙ Quantitative targets of growth and development

∙ State control of resources.

∙ Negligent role of market, no independent price mechanism.

∙ No/negligent private participation in Economy.

∙ Ex- centrally Planned Economy -> USSR, China etc.

Explanation:
Statement 2 is correct: Indicative Planning

∙ Used by democratic, liberal states.

∙ Main idea behind this model is planning is required only to provide a

framework to economy.

∙ Also called Basic structure planning.

Statement 3 is correct: Normative Planning

∙ One major classification of planning, which has been in news for the past
few years, is done on the basis of ‘value system’ of the society—systems
andnormative planning.

∙ The normative approach of planning is value-based.

Explanation:
∙ This process of planning remains in conformity to the value system of the
target population—having quite diversified approach to development.

∙ The Economic Survey 2010–11 is the first document of the Government of

India which advocates the need for a normative approach to planning in
India.
Economy – External Sector

Difficulty Level - Intense

32. With reference to Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), consider the following
statements:

1. SDRs are a form of international currency issued by the International

Monetary Fund (IMF).

2. The value of SDRs is determined based on a basket of major international

currencies.

3. SDRs can only be held by IMF member countries and prescribed holders,
not by private entities.

4. India holds more than 5% of the total SDR allocation made by the IMF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 2, 3, and 4 only
Economy – External Sector

Difficulty Level - Intense

32. With reference to Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), consider the following
statements:

1. SDRs are a form of international currency issued by the International

Monetary Fund (IMF).

2. The value of SDRs is determined based on a basket of major international

currencies.

3. SDRs can only be held by IMF member countries and prescribed holders,
not by private entities.

4. India holds more than 5% of the total SDR allocation made by the IMF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
∙ Statement 1 is incorrect: SDRs are not a currency but an international
reserve asset created by the IMF to supplement member countries’ official
reserves.

∙ Statement 2 is correct: The value of SDRs is based on a basket of major

currencies (USD, EUR, CNY, JPY, and GBP), reviewed every five years.

∙ Statement 3 is correct: Private entities cannot hold SDRs; they can only be
held by IMF member countries and prescribed holders like certain
international organizations.

∙ Statement 4 is incorrect: As of August 2021, India holds around 2.75% of

the total SDR allocation, which is less than 5%
Economy – External Sector

Difficulty Level - Intense

33. Choose the incorrect options:

Concept Definition
1. NEER An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the
local currency against the weighted basket of currencies
of its trading partners.
2. REER The REER, defined as a weighted average of nominal
exchange rates adjusted for relative price differential
between the domestic and foreign countries.
3. Depreciation In foreign exchange market, it is a situation

when domestic currency loses its value in

front of a foreign currency if it is market- driven

(floating exchange rate system).
Options:

A. 1 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3
Economy – External Sector

Difficulty Level - Intense

33. Choose the incorrect options:

Concept Definition
1. NEER An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the
local currency against the weighted basket of currencies
of its trading partners.
2. REER The REER, defined as a weighted average of nominal
exchange rates adjusted for relative price differential
between the domestic and foreign countries.
3. Depreciation In foreign exchange market, it is a situation

when domestic currency loses its value in

front of a foreign currency if it is market- driven

(floating exchange rate system).
Options:

A. 1 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
NEER

∙ Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) of the rupee is a weighted

average of exchange rates of the currencies of India’s major trading
partners.

∙ NEER is a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of

several foreign currencies.

∙ An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the local currency against

the weighted basket of currencies of its trading partners.
Explanation:
REER

∙ When the weight of inflation is adjusted with NEER, we get Real Effective
Exchange Rate (REER) of the rupee.

∙ The REER, defined as a weighted average of nominal exchange rates

adjusted for relative price differential between the domestic and foreign
countries.

Depreciation

∙ In foreign exchange market, it is a situation when domestic currency loses

its value in front of a foreign currency if it is market-driven (floating
exchange rate system).
Economy – Balance of Payment

Difficulty Level - Easy

34. Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Direct Investment

(FDI) in India:

1. Any foreign investment of 10% or more in a listed company or any

percentage in an unlisted entity is classified as FDI, as per the Mayaram
panel recommendations.

2. Once an investment is classified as FDI, it will continue to remain FDI even

if the stake falls below 10% in a listed company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Economy – Balance of Payment

Difficulty Level - Easy

34. Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Direct Investment

(FDI) in India:

1. Any foreign investment of 10% or more in a listed company or any

percentage in an unlisted entity is classified as FDI, as per the Mayaram
panel recommendations.

2. Once an investment is classified as FDI, it will continue to remain FDI even

if the stake falls below 10% in a listed company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
FDI

∙ It refers to the purchase of assets in the rest of the world which allows
control over the assets, e g, purchase of firms by Reliance in the United
States.

∙ As per the Mayaram panel's recommendations, any foreign investment of

10% or more in a listed company or any investment in an unlisted company
is classified as FDI.Hence,statement 1 is correct

∙ If an investment is initially classified as FDI, it will continue to be

considered as FDI even if the holding falls below 10% in a listed company;
it will not be reclassified as Foreign Portfolio Investment
(FPI).Hence,statement 2 is correct
Explanation:
∙ Further, any investment in an unlisted entity (even if it is only 1 or 2
percent of paid-up capital) is treated as FDI.

∙ It is the percentage which defines whether it is FDI or portfolio investment.

If it is <10 percent in a listed company, then it is termed as portfolio
investment.
Explanation:
∙ Once an FDI always an FDI (even if the holding comes down to <10
percent, it will not become FPI but will continue to be termed as FDI.)

∙ Cash is not a permissible mode of payment for making FDI.

∙ In partnership/proprietorship concerns in India, only NRIs/OCIs are

allowed to invest on a non-repatriation basis (foreigners are not allowed).

∙ FDI may be of two types:

o Brownfield investment: In this case, the entity or a government buys an

existing plant or company or factory in order to launch a new
production activity. Since the existing units are taken over, no new
factory is set up under brownfield investment.

o Greenfield investment: It occurs when multinational corporations enter

foreign countries to build new factories and/or stores. This is just
opposite to brownfield investment.
Economy – External Sector

Difficulty Level - Medium

35. Consider the following statements regarding Transferable Development

Rights (TDRs) in India:

1. Transferable Development Rights (TDRs) allow landowners to receive a

Development Rights Certificate (DRC) in place of monetary compensation
when their land is acquired for infrastructure projects.

2. TDRs can be transferred from a low-density area to a high-density area,

enabling optimal urban expansion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Economy – External Sector

Difficulty Level - Medium

35. Consider the following statements regarding Transferable Development

Rights (TDRs) in India:

1. Transferable Development Rights (TDRs) allow landowners to receive a

Development Rights Certificate (DRC) in place of monetary compensation
when their land is acquired for infrastructure projects.

2. TDRs can be transferred from a low-density area to a high-density area,

enabling optimal urban expansion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
∙ Transferable development rights (TDR) is a method by which developers can purchase
the development rights of certain parcels within a designated "sending district" and
transfer the rights to another "receiving district" to increase the density of their new
development.

∙ The underlying legal concept of a transfer of development rights programme is the

notion that all land has a bundle of property rights.

∙ It is used for controlling land use to complement land-use planning and zoning for
more effective urban growth management and land conservation.

∙ When land is acquired for public infrastructure projects, the government may issue a
Development Rights Certificate (DRC) instead of direct monetary compensation,
which allows the landowner additional built-up area or the right to sell
it.Hence,statement 1 is correct

∙ TDR cannot be transferred from a low-density area to a high-density area, as it would

disrupt planned urban development.Hence,statement 2 is incorrect
Economy – Balance of Payment

Difficulty Level - Intense

36. Consider the following statements regarding the internationalization of

the Indian Rupee:

1. Internationalization of the rupee refers to the increasing use of the Indian

rupee in both current and capital account transactions across borders.

2. Currently, the Indian rupee accounts for more than 5% of global trade,
reflecting its growing acceptance in international transactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Economy – Balance of Payment

Difficulty Level - Intense

36. Consider the following statements regarding the internationalization of

the Indian Rupee:

1. Internationalization of the rupee refers to the increasing use of the Indian

rupee in both current and capital account transactions across borders.

2. Currently, the Indian rupee accounts for more than 5% of global trade,
reflecting its growing acceptance in international transactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Internationalisation of Rupee

∙ Internationalisation of the rupee is a process that involves increasing use of the

local currency in cross-border transactions.

∙ It involves promoting the rupee for import and export trade and then other
current account transactions followed by its use in capital account transactions.

∙ In simple terms, Rupee will be an international currency if non-residents are

willing and able to trade in it and invest in rupee-denominated assets.

∙ The process of internationalization of the rupee involves increasing its use in

cross-border transactions, starting with trade (current account) and gradually
expanding to capital account transactions.Hence,statement 1 is correct

∙ The rupee accounts for less than 1.7% of global trade, whereas the US dollar
dominates with 88% of international transactions.Hence,statement 2 is incorrect
Economy – Taxation

Difficulty Level - Easy

37. Consider the following statements regarding Inflation Tax and Choose
the incorrect options:

A. Inflation tax is a legal tax imposed by the government to generate revenue

during periods of high inflation.

B. Inflation tax refers to the loss of purchasing power of cash due to rising
inflation, effectively penalizing those who hold cash rather than assets.

C. Milton Friedman referred to inflation tax as the "Unlegislated Tax of

Inflation."

D. Governments benefit from inflation tax as they can repay their outstanding
debts with money that has lower purchasing power than when the debt was
incurred.
Economy – Taxation

Difficulty Level - Easy

37. Consider the following statements regarding Inflation Tax and Choose
the incorrect options:

A. Inflation tax is a legal tax imposed by the government to generate revenue

during periods of high inflation.

B. Inflation tax refers to the loss of purchasing power of cash due to rising
inflation, effectively penalizing those who hold cash rather than assets.

C. Milton Friedman referred to inflation tax as the "Unlegislated Tax of

Inflation."

D. Governments benefit from inflation tax as they can repay their outstanding
debts with money that has lower purchasing power than when the debt was
incurred.
Explanation:
∙ Statement A is incorrect: Inflation tax is not a legal tax but rather an
indirect economic phenomenon where inflation reduces the value of cash
holdings.

∙ Statement B is correct: Inflation tax penalizes those who hold cash, as its
purchasing power decreases with inflation.

∙ Statement C is correct: Milton Friedman coined the term "Unlegislated Tax

of Inflation", highlighting how inflation acts as an implicit tax.

∙ Statement D is correct: Governments benefit from inflation tax because

they repay debts with devalued currency, effectively reducing the real
burden of debt repayment.
Economy – Inflation

Difficulty Level - Easy

38. Choose the incorrect statements regarding the Producer Price Index (PPI)
and Wholesale Price Index (WPI):

A. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) includes indirect taxes and distribution
costs up to the stage of wholesale transactions, whereas the Producer Price
Index (PPI) excludes indirect taxes.

B. The weight of an item in WPI is based on net traded value, while in PPI,
weights are derived from the Supply Use Table.

C. The WPI includes services, whereas the PPI does not cover services.

D. The Producer Price Index (PPI) removes the multiple counting bias inherent
in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
Economy – Inflation

Difficulty Level - Easy

38. Choose the incorrect statements regarding the Producer Price Index (PPI)
and Wholesale Price Index (WPI):

A. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) includes indirect taxes and distribution
costs up to the stage of wholesale transactions, whereas the Producer Price
Index (PPI) excludes indirect taxes.

B. The weight of an item in WPI is based on net traded value, while in PPI,
weights are derived from the Supply Use Table.

C. The WPI includes services, whereas the PPI does not cover services.

D. The Producer Price Index (PPI) removes the multiple counting bias inherent
in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
Explanation:
∙ Statement A is correct: WPI includes indirect taxes and distribution costs,
whereas PPI excludes indirect taxes to measure the actual price received by
producers.

∙ Statement B is correct: The weight of an item in WPI is based on net traded

value, while PPI derives weights from the Supply Use Table.

∙ Statement C is incorrect: WPI does not cover services, whereas PPI

includes services, making PPI a more comprehensive measure of inflation.

∙ Statement D is correct: PPI removes the multiple counting bias present in

WPI, as it tracks price changes at the producer level rather than at multiple
stages of the supply chain.
Economy – Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

39. Assertion (A): The Market Intelligence and Early Warning System (MIEWS)
portal helps in monitoring the prices of Tomato, Onion, and Potato (TOP)
and generates alerts for interventions under the Operation Greens scheme.

Reason (R): MIEWS disseminates real-time data on prices, arrivals, production,

and trade of TOP crops, enabling timely government intervention to stabilize
market volatility.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Economy – Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

39. Assertion (A): The Market Intelligence and Early Warning System (MIEWS)
portal helps in monitoring the prices of Tomato, Onion, and Potato (TOP)
and generates alerts for interventions under the Operation Greens scheme.

Reason (R): MIEWS disseminates real-time data on prices, arrivals, production,

and trade of TOP crops, enabling timely government intervention to stabilize
market volatility.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Explanation:
∙ Assertion is correct: The MIEWS portal is specifically designed to monitor
Tomato, Onion, and Potato (TOP) prices and issue alerts for necessary
interventions under the Operation Greens scheme.

∙ Reason is correct: The portal provides real-time market intelligence by

collecting data on prices, arrivals, production, exports, imports, and crop
calendars, which allows the government to make timely interventions to
stabilize supply and prices.

∙ R correctly explains A: Since MIEWS enables data-driven policy responses,

it serves as the foundation for government actions under Operation Greens,
making (a) the correct answer.
Economy – Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

40. With reference to the Platform of Platforms (PoP) under e-NAM, consider
the following statements:

1. The Platform of Platforms (PoP) integrates various service providers into

the e-NAM ecosystem, including logistics, quality assurance, and
warehousing service providers.

2. PoP allows farmers to sell their produce only within their respective states,
ensuring local market stability.

3. The PoP can be accessed through the e-NAM mobile app, enabling seamless
digital integration for agricultural stakeholders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Economy – Agriculture

Difficulty Level - Medium

40. With reference to the Platform of Platforms (PoP) under e-NAM, consider
the following statements:

1. The Platform of Platforms (PoP) integrates various service providers into

the e-NAM ecosystem, including logistics, quality assurance, and
warehousing service providers.

2. PoP allows farmers to sell their produce only within their respective states,
ensuring local market stability.

3. The PoP can be accessed through the e-NAM mobile app, enabling seamless
digital integration for agricultural stakeholders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
Platform Of Platforms (POP)

Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare launched the Platform of

Platforms (POP) under the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM).

e-NAM integrates the platform of Service Providers as "Platform of Platforms"

which includes various service providers like:

∙ Composite Service Providers: they provide holistic services for trading of

agricultural produce including quality analysis, trading, payment systems
and logistics.

∙ Logistics Service Provider.

∙ Quality Assurance Service Provider.

∙ Cleaning, Grading, Sorting & Packaging Service Provider. Hence,Statement

1 is correct.
Explanation:
∙ Warehousing Facility Service Provider.

∙ Agricultural Input Service Provider.

∙ Technology Enabled Finance & Insurance Service Provider.

∙ Information Dissemination Portal: such as Advisory Services, crop

forecasting, weather updates, capacity building for farmers etc.

∙ Other platforms: such as e-commerce, international agri-business platforms,

barter, private market platforms etc.

∙ The PoP will create a digital ecosystem, which will benefit from the
expertise of different platforms in different segments of the agricultural
value chain.

∙ The POP can be accessed through e-NAM mobile app which can be
downloaded from Google Play Store. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Explanation:
Benefits:

∙ With the introduction of POP, farmers will be facilitated to sell the produce
outside their state borders. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect

∙ It will provide various value chain services like trading, quality checks,
warehousing, fintech, market information, transportation etc.

∙ It gives the users of the platform options to avail services from different
service providers.

∙ It enables farmers, FPOs, traders and other stakeholders to access a wide

variety of goods and services across the agricultural value chain through a
single window.

∙ It also saves the time and labour of the stakeholders.

Economy – Banking

Difficulty Level - Easy

41. Which among the following best describes the concept of "Special
Mention Account (SMA)" in the Banking sector?

A. NPAs which are presently under the reAnswer through the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

B. Accounts which have been categorized as lost assets by banks

C. Accounts which are likely to become Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in

future

D. NPAs which have been bought by Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)

Economy – Banking

Difficulty Level - Easy

41. Which among the following best describes the concept of "Special
Mention Account (SMA)" in the Banking sector?

A. NPAs which are presently under the reAnswer through the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

B. Accounts which have been categorized as lost assets by banks

C. Accounts which are likely to become Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in

future

D. NPAs which have been bought by Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)

Explanation:
∙ Special Mention Account (SMA) refers to loan accounts that show early
signs of stress and have the potential to become Non-Performing Assets
(NPAs) if not addressed in time.

∙ The RBI classifies SMAs into different categories based on the number of
days a payment has been overdue:

o SMA-0: Principal or interest payment overdue for 1-30 days.

o SMA-1: Principal or interest payment overdue for 31-60 days.

o SMA-2: Principal or interest payment overdue for 61-90 days.

∙ If the overdue period exceeds 90 days, the account is classified as a Non-

Performing Asset (NPA).
Economy – Banking

Difficulty Level - Medium

42. With respect to Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR), consider the

following statements:

1. Under PCR norms, the banks are required to set aside a certain percentage
of their profits to cover the risk arising from NPAs.

2. The PCR norms are applicable only for NPAs and not for standard assets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Economy – Banking

Difficulty Level - Medium

42. With respect to Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR), consider the

following statements:

1. Under PCR norms, the banks are required to set aside a certain percentage
of their profits to cover the risk arising from NPAs.

2. The PCR norms are applicable only for NPAs and not for standard assets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
∙ Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR) is a measure of funds set aside by banks
to cover potential losses due to Non-Performing Assets (NPAs). It requires
banks to allocate a certain percentage of their profits to mitigate the risk
arising from bad loans. Higher PCR indicates better financial health of the
bank in managing NPAs.Hence,statement 1 is correct

∙ The PCR norms apply not only to NPAs but also to standard assets. Banks
are required to maintain provisions even for standard assets (performing
loans), although the provisioning percentage is lower compared to
NPAs.Hence,statement 2 is incorrect
Economy – External Sector

Difficulty Level - Easy

43. With respect to the “Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR)”, consider
the following statements:

1. It is an influential interest rate that the banks use to price the US dollar-
denominated derivatives and loans.

2. It is based on the transactions in the Treasury Repurchase Market.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Economy – External Sector

Difficulty Level - Easy

43. With respect to the “Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR)”, consider
the following statements:

1. It is an influential interest rate that the banks use to price the US dollar-
denominated derivatives and loans.

2. It is based on the transactions in the Treasury Repurchase Market.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
∙ The Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR) is a benchmark interest rate
that banks and financial institutions use to price US dollar-denominated
derivatives and loans. It is considered a more reliable alternative to LIBOR
(London Interbank Offered Rate), which has been phased out due to
concerns over manipulation.Hence,statement 1 is correct

∙ SOFR is based on transactions in the U.S. Treasury Repurchase (Repo)

Market, where financial institutions borrow cash overnight against U.S.
Treasury securities as collateral. Since it is backed by secured transactions,
SOFR is more transparent and less prone to manipulation compared to
LIBOR.Hence,statement 2 is correct
Economy – Basics of Economy

Difficulty Level - Medium

44. Which of the following best describes the concept of "Environmental

Kuznets Curve" Hypothesis?

A. Increase in GDP leads to environmental degradation.

B. Increase in GDP leads to improvement in the environment.

C. Improvement in environment leads to increase in GDP size.

D. Increase in GDP leads to environmental degradation initially and later, after

certain period of time, environmental degradation reduces.
Economy – Basics of Economy

Difficulty Level - Medium

44. Which of the following best describes the concept of "Environmental

Kuznets Curve" Hypothesis?

A. Increase in GDP leads to environmental degradation.

B. Increase in GDP leads to improvement in the environment.

C. Improvement in environment leads to increase in GDP size.

D. Increase in GDP leads to environmental degradation initially and later,

after certain period of time, environmental degradation reduces.
Explanation:
The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) Hypothesis suggests a U-shaped
(inverted) relationship between economic growth (GDP per capita) and
environmental degradation:

∙ Initial Phase (Low GDP per capita): As an economy grows,

industrialization and urbanization lead to higher pollution and
environmental degradation.

∙ Turning Point (Medium GDP per capita): After reaching a certain level of
income, societies start demanding better environmental quality.

∙ Governments impose stricter regulations and businesses adopt cleaner

technologies.

∙ Later Phase (High GDP per capita): With further economic development,
environmental degradation declines, and sustainability improves.
Economy – International organisations related to Economy

Difficulty Level - Medium

45. Which of the following reports is/are published by the International

Labour Organization (ILO)?

1. World Employment and Social Outlook Report

2. Future of Jobs Report

3. Global Wage Report

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only
Economy – International organisations related to Economy

Difficulty Level - Medium

45. Which of the following reports is/are published by the International

Labour Organization (ILO)?

1. World Employment and Social Outlook Report

2. Future of Jobs Report

3. Global Wage Report

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
International Labour Organisation

∙ It was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World
War I, to reflect the belief that universal and lasting peace can be
accomplished only if it is based on social justice.

∙ It became a specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.

∙ It is a tripartite organization, the only one of its kind bringing together

representatives of governments, employers and workers in its executive
bodies.

∙ Members:

o India is a founding member of the ILO with a total 187 member

States.

o In 2020 India assumed the Chairmanship of the Governing Body of

ILO.
Explanation:
∙ Headquarter: Geneva in Switzerland.

∙ Awards: In 1969, ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize for improving
fraternity and peace among nations, pursuing decent work and justice for
workers, and providing technical assistance to other developing nations.

∙ World Employment and Social Outlook Report – Published by ILO

∙ This report analyses global patterns, regional differences, and outcomes

across economic sectors and groups of workers. It presents projections for
the expected labour market recovery.

∙ Future of Jobs Report – It is published by the World Economic Forum

(WEF), not ILO
Explanation:
∙ It is a result of data gathered from more than 1,000 leading global
companies, collectively representing over 14 million workers across 22
industry sectors and 55 economies from across the world.

∙ Global Wage Report – Published by ILO

∙ It examines trends in wages, income inequality, and policies affecting labor

compensation across different regions.
46. Consider the following statements regarding GDP at Factor Cost and
GDP at Market Price:

1. GDP at Factor Cost includes the impact of indirect taxes and subsidies.

2. GDP at Market Price is always higher than GDP at Factor Cost if indirect
taxes exceed subsidies.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements regarding GDP at Factor Cost and
GDP at Market Price:

1. GDP at Factor Cost includes the impact of indirect taxes and subsidies.

2. GDP at Market Price is always higher than GDP at Factor Cost if indirect
taxes exceed subsidies.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
GDP at Factor Cost and Market Price

∙ GDP at Factor Cost is the output at factory gate

∙ It attempts to see the output excluding the impact of indirect taxes as well
as subsidies

∙ GDP at Factor Cost excludes the impact of indirect taxes and subsidies, as it
measures output at the producer level. So, Statement 1 is incorrect

∙ GDP at market prices: Include the prices consumer will pay for the goods
on the market.

∙ GDPMP = GDPFC + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies

Explanation:
∙ This means that if there is more subsidy, the more is difference between the
GDPMP & GDPFC and vice-versa for Indirect taxes

∙ GDP at Market Price includes the impact of indirect taxes and subsidies. If
indirect taxes exceed subsidies, GDP at Market Price will be higher than
GDP at Factor Cost. So, Statement 2 is correct.
47. Consider the following statements regarding the Expenditure Method of
calculating GDP:

1. An increase in government spending on infrastructure projects will lead to a

direct increase in GDP under the Expenditure Method.

2. Transfer payments, such as pensions and unemployment benefits, are

excluded from GDP calculation because they represent a redistribution of
income rather than production of goods and services.

3. A rise in imports will increase GDP because it reflects higher demand in the
domestic economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

47. Consider the following statements regarding the Expenditure Method of
calculating GDP:

1. An increase in government spending on infrastructure projects will lead to a

direct increase in GDP under the Expenditure Method.

2. Transfer payments, such as pensions and unemployment benefits, are

excluded from GDP calculation because they represent a redistribution of
income rather than production of goods and services.

3. A rise in imports will increase GDP because it reflects higher demand in the
domestic economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
Expenditure Method

Also known as the spending approach, calculates spending by the different

groups that participate in the economy.

∙ GDP is sum of Consumption (C), Investment (I), Government Spending (G)

and Net Exports (X –M).

∙ Y = C + I + G + (X − M)

∙ Consumption is consisting of private (household final consumption

expenditure) in the economy. Examples include expenditure on food, rent,
jewellery, gasoline, medical expenses, etc.

∙ Investment: This includes construction of a new mine, purchase of

software, or purchase of machinery and equipment for a factory.
Explanation:
∙ Spending by households (not government) on new houses is also included
in Investment.

∙ Government spending is the sum of government expenditures on final

goods and services.

∙ Government spending on infrastructure directly contributes to GDP under

the "G" component in the expenditure method. So, Statement 1 is correct

∙ It includes salaries of public servants, purchase of weapons for the military,

and any investment expenditure by a government.

∙ It does not include any transfer payments, such as social security or

unemployment benefits.

∙ Transfer payments can originate from either business or government

sources.
Explanation:
∙ Business transfer payments include corporate gifts to nonprofits
institutions, payments for personal injury, and taxes paid by domestic
corporations to foreign governments.

∙ Government transfer payments include Social Security; government

employee, military, and railroad retirement pensions; unemployment
insurance; veterans' benefits; workers' compensation; cash public assistance
etc.

∙ By their very nature, government transfer payments are excluded from the
calculation of a nation's gross domestic product (GDP) since they do not
represent compensation for the production of currently produced goods
and services.
Explanation:
Why are they called Transfer Payments?

∙ To be exact, the transfer payments represent a redistribution of income,

taking money away from taxpayers and giving it to others who are eligible
for the various program.

o Transfer payments are excluded from GDP because they are not
payments for goods or services produced in the current period. So,
Statement 2 is correct
Explanation:
Exports and Imports

∙ Imports are subtracted

o A rise in imports reduces GDP because it reflects spending on foreign

goods rather than domestic production. Imports are subtracted in the
GDP calculation. So, Statement 3 is incorrect

∙ Since imported goods will be included in the terms G, I, or C and must be

deducted to avoid counting foreign supply as domestic
48. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the International Comparison
Program (ICP) and the World Bank’s role in it:

A. The International Comparison Program (ICP) is conducted under the

guidance of the United Nations Statistical Commission (UNSC)

B. India has participated in all ICP rounds since the inception of the program
in 1970.

C. The Ministry of Finance is responsible for planning and executing national

ICP activities.

D. Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) reflect the relative cost of living across
economies
48. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the International Comparison
Program (ICP) and the World Bank’s role in it:

A. The International Comparison Program (ICP) is conducted under the

guidance of the United Nations Statistical Commission (UNSC)

B. India has participated in all ICP rounds since the inception of the program
in 1970.

C. The Ministry of Finance is responsible for planning and executing

national ICP activities.

D. Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) reflect the relative cost of living across
economies
Explanation:
World Bank & International Comparison Programme

∙ In June 2020, the World Bank released new Purchasing Power Parities
(PPPs) for reference year 2017, under International Comparison Program
(ICP), that adjust for differences in the cost of living across economies of the
World.

∙ The International Comparison Program (ICP) is the largest worldwide data-

collection initiative, under the guidance of UN Statistical Commission
(UNSC), with the goal of producing Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs)
which are vital for converting measures of economic activities to be
comparable across economies. So, Statement A is correct

∙ India has participated in almost all ICP rounds since its inception in 1970.
So, Statement B is correct
Explanation:
∙ The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is National
Implementing Agency (NIA) for India, which has the responsibility of
planning, coordinating and implementing national ICP activities. So,
Statement C is incorrect

∙ India was co-Chair of the ICP Governing Board along with Statistics Austria
for the ICP 2017 cycle.

∙ While the Exchange Rate of US Dollar to Indian Rupee during the period
stood at 65.12, the Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) of Indian Rupee per
US$ at Gross Domestic Product (GDP) level turned out to be 20.65.

∙ PPPs reflect the cost-of-living differences and are used to compare GDP and
other economic indicators across countries. So, Statement D is correct
Explanation:
Price level Indexes

At its core, the PLI measures the cost of a standard set of goods and services in different
countries relative to a base country, typically expressed as a percentage.

The PLI provides valuable insights into the cost of living and inflation rates. A high PLI
indicates a higher cost of living, which can affect consumer behavior and economic policies.
For example, Japan has historically had a high PLI, reflecting its higher cost of living
compared to other countries.
49. Consider the following statements regarding the System of
Environmental-Economic Accounting (SEEA):

1. The SEEA is designed to measure both the contribution of the environment

to the economy and the impact of the economy on the environment.

2. The SEEA is developed by the European Commission only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
49. Consider the following statements regarding the System of
Environmental-Economic Accounting (SEEA):

1. The SEEA is designed to measure both the contribution of the environment

to the economy and the impact of the economy on the environment.

2. The SEEA is developed by the European Commission only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
The System of Environmental-Economic Accounting (SEEA)

∙ It is an international statistical standard that uses a systems approach to

bring together economic and environmental information to measure the
contribution of the environment to the economy and the impact of the
economy on the environment. So, Statement 1 is correct

∙ The SEEA uses a structure and classifications consistent with the System of
National Accounts (SNA) to facilitate the development of indicators and
analysis on the economy-environment nexus.
Explanation:
SEEA

∙ The SEEA is produced and released under the auspices of the United
Nations, the European Commission, the Food and Agriculture Organization
of the United Nations, the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development, International Monetary Fund and the World Bank Group.
So, Statement 2 is incorrect
50. Which of the following are the reports released by World Bank:

1. Global Economic Prospects

2. Global Financial Development Report

3. World Development Report

4. Poverty and Shared Prosperity

5. Global Financial Stability Report

Choose the correct options:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 4, 5

C. 1, 2, 3, 5.

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
50. Which of the following are the reports released by World Bank:

1. Global Economic Prospects

2. Global Financial Development Report

3. World Development Report

4. Poverty and Shared Prosperity

5. Global Financial Stability Report

Choose the correct options:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 4, 5

C. 1, 2, 3, 5.

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
Explanation:
Global Economic Prospects

Published by: World Bank

Frequency: Twice a year (January and June)

Focus:

∙ Provides analysis of global economic trends and growth forecasts.

∙ Assesses short and long-term growth prospects, risks, and opportunities in

the global economy.

∙ Offers insight into the impact of policy changes, market conditions, and
geopolitical developments. So, option 1 is correct.
Explanation:
Global Financial Development Report

Published by: World Bank

Frequency: Annually (since 2011)

Focus:

∙ Examines the state of global financial systems.

∙ Analyses challenges, financial stability, and financial inclusion.

∙ Provides policy recommendations to improve financial systems.

So, option 2 is correct.

Explanation:
World Development Report

Published by: World Bank

Frequency: Annually (since 1978)

Focus:

∙ Flagship report of the World Bank.

∙ Explores major development issues such as poverty, economic growth,

human capital, governance, and climate change.

∙ Provides policy guidance based on research and case studies.

So, option 3 is correct.

Explanation:
Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report

Published by: World Bank

Frequency: Every two years

Focus:

∙ Measures global poverty trends and inequality.

∙ Analyses the progress made in reducing poverty and promoting shared

prosperity.

∙ Identifies key barriers to poverty reduction and provides policy

recommendations.

So, option 4 is correct.

Explanation:
Global Financial Stability Report

Published by: International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Frequency: Twice a year (April and October)

Focus:

∙ Examines the health of the global financial system.

∙ Identifies key risks to financial stability.

∙ Provides recommendations to policymakers and financial institutions for

improving financial stability.

• So, option 5 is incorrect.

History – 100 MCQs
Q. Match the following Indian cave complexes with the religion or faith they
are primarily associated with:

Column A (Cave Complex) Column B (Religion/Faith)

A. Badami Caves 1. Jainism

B. Nasik Caves 2. Hinduism

C. Udayagiri-Khandagiri Caves 3. Buddhism

D. Arittapatti Caves 4. Hinduism and Jainism

Options:

A. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

D. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Q. Match the following Indian cave complexes with the religion or faith they
are primarily associated with:

Column A (Cave Complex) Column B (Religion/Faith)

A. Badami Caves 1. Jainism

B. Nasik Caves 2. Hinduism

C. Udayagiri-Khandagiri Caves 3. Buddhism

D. Arittapatti Caves 4. Hinduism and Jainism

Options:

A. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

D. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation:
Explanation:
• A. Badami Caves – Hinduism (2): The Badami Caves, located in Karnataka,
were excavated during the 6th–7th centuries CE under the Chalukya dynasty.
These rock-cut caves are primarily associated with Hinduism, featuring
temples dedicated to Vishnu (Caves 2 and 3), Shiva (Cave 1), and other Hindu
deities. Cave 3, with its Vishnu image, is a prime example of early Brahmanical
rock-cut architecture. While a minor Jain cave (Cave 4) exists, the complex is
predominantly Hindu.

• B. Nasik Caves – Buddhism (3): The Nasik Caves, also known as Pandavleni
Caves, in Maharashtra, were excavated between the 1st century BCE and 3rd
century CE. These are Hinayana Buddhist caves, containing viharas
(monasteries) and chaityas (prayer halls). The caves feature inscriptions of the
Satavahana rulers and Buddhist donors, with Cave 3 being a notable chaitya
with a stupa.
Explanation:
• C. Udayagiri-Khandagiri Caves – Jainism (1): Located in Odisha, the
Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves were primarily excavated in the 1st–2nd
century BCE under the patronage of Kharavela, the Chedi dynasty king. These
caves are associated with Jainism, serving as residences for Jaina ascetics.
Udayagiri’s Hathi Gumpha inscription details Kharavela’s patronage of
Jainism, and the caves feature Jaina symbols like the Tirthankara images.

• D. Arittapatti Caves – Hinduism and Jainism (4): Arrapatti or Arittapatti,

located in Tamil Nadu, date to the 7th–9th centuries CE under Pandya
patronage. These caves are unique for their association with both Hinduism
and Jainism. The site includes a rock-cut Shiva temple (Hinduism) and Jaina
bas-reliefs with Tirthankara images (Jainism), reflecting the region’s religious
syncretism during the early medieval period.
With reference to the achievements in Science and Technology during ancient
period:

1. Brahmagupta discovered algebra.

2. Aryabhata gave the clear description of Quadratic formula.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to the achievements in Science and Technology during ancient
period:

1. Brahmagupta discovered algebra.

2. Aryabhata gave the clear description of Quadratic formula.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Aryabhata in around 499 AD wrote Aryabhatiya in which the concepts of
mathematics as well as astronomy were explicitly mentioned. Aryabhata in his
book stated that the Earth is round and rotates on its own axis. He formulated
the area of a triangle and discovered algebra. The value of Pi given by
Aryabhata is much more accurate than that given by then Greeks. The Jyotisa
part of Aryabhatiya also deals with astronomical definitions, method of
determining the true position of the planets, movement of the Sun and the
Moon and the calculation of the eclipses. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Brahmagupta (7th century in his book Brahmasputa Siddhanta mentioned
Zero as a number.
• In his book, he also introduced negative numbers and described them as debts
and positive numbers as fortunes.
Explanation:
• It also contained the first clear description of Quadratic formula. Hence,
Statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional information:

• ‘Zero’ or Shunya is derived from the concept of a void. The concept of void
existed in Hindu Philosophy hence the derivation of a symbol for it. The
concept of Shunya, influenced South East Asian culture through the Buddhist
concept of Nirvana (attaining salvation) by merging into the void of eternity.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mahayana Buddhism:

1. Buddha's presence was shown in sculpture by using certain signs.

2. They used Sanskrit Language to interact with the masses.
3. They believed in the Bodhisattva concept of the salvation of all conscious
individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mahayana Buddhism:

1. Buddha's presence was shown in sculpture by using certain signs.

2. They used Sanskrit Language to interact with the masses.
3. They believed in the Bodhisattva concept of the salvation of all conscious
individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• During the 4th Buddhist council organised during King Kanishka’s reign,
there was a split in Buddhism and 2 sects were born: Hinayana Buddhism
Mahayana Buddhism. Mahayana Buddhism means the greater or upper
vehicle. The school is more liberal and believes in the heavenliness of Buddha
and Bodhisattvas incarnates Buddha Nature. The definitive goal under
Mahayana is “spiritual upliftment”. Statement 1 is incorrect. Earlier, the
Buddha's presence was shown in sculpture by using certain signs. For
instance,, his attainment of enlightenment was shown by sculptures of the
peepal tree.
• However, with the emergence of the Mahayana Buddhism, statues of the
Buddha were made. The Mahayana followers believe in idol or image worship
of Buddha. Many of these idols were made in Mathura, while others were
made in Taxila.
Explanation:
• They used Sanskrit Language to interact with the masses. Statement 2 is
correct.
• The concept of Bodhisattva is the result of Mahayana Buddhism. It believes in
Bodhisattva concept of salvation of all conscious individual. The ultimate goal
under Mahayana is “spiritual upliftment”. Bodhisattvas were supposed to be
persons who had attained enlightenment. Once they attained enlightenment,
they could live in complete isolation and meditate in peace. However, instead
of doing that, they remained in the world to teach and help other people.
Statement 3 is correct
With reference to the Megalithic culture in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Menhirs are upright standing stones, often associated with commemorative or
funerary purposes during the Megalithic period.
2. The Mudumal site in Telangana, known for its menhirs, is included in the
UNESCO World Heritage List.
3. Megalithic sites in India are found only in the peninsular region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
With reference to the Megalithic culture in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Menhirs are upright standing stones, often associated with commemorative or
funerary purposes during the Megalithic period.
2. The Mudumal site in Telangana, known for its menhirs, is included in the
UNESCO World Heritage List.
3. Megalithic sites in India are found only in the peninsular region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Menhirs are a type of megalithic monument, typically uninscribed, upright stones,
used during the Iron Age mainly as memorials or grave markers. Statement 1 is
correct.

The Mudumal Megalithic Menhirs, situated in Telangana's Narayanpet district, are

among India's most significant prehistoric sites, dating back approximately 3,500 to
4,000 years. Recognized for their archaeological, astronomical, and cultural
importance, they were added to India's UNESCO Tentative List in February 2025
under cultural criteria (v) and (vi).

Located near the Krishna River, about 4 km southwest of Mudumal village, the site
spans approximately 80 acres of gently rolling terrain, including a small hillock.

• The Mudumal site is considered one of India's most expansive and well-
preserved megalithic observatory sites.

• The menhirs are carefully positioned to align with celestial events such as
solstices and equinoxes, indicating a sophisticated understanding of astronomy by
prehistoric communities. Statement 2 is not correct.
Explanation:
• While most megalithic sites are found in South India (Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil
Nadu, Telangana, etc.), some are also found in central and eastern India and even
parts of the Gangetic plains, such as in Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand. Statement 3
is not correct.
Consider the following Ashokan inscriptions with their features and locations:

Column 2
Column 1 (Site) Column 3 (Present Location)
(Significance)
1. Expression of Ashoka’s remorse
A. Dhauli Separate Rock Edict after Kalinga War; promotes (i) Odisha
Dhamma
2. Bilingual inscription in Greek and
B. Kandahar Inscription Aramaic; reflects diplomatic (ii) Afghanistan
outreach
3. Royal endorsement of specific
C. Bhabru Inscription Buddhist teachings (particularly (iii) Rajasthan
Buddhist texts)
4. Mention of Ashoka enlarging the
D. Nigalisagar Pillar Edict (iv) Nepal
stupa of Buddha Konakamana

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

a) One Only
b) Two Only
c) Three Only
d) All Four
Consider the following Ashokan inscriptions with their features and locations:

Column 2
Column 1 (Site) Column 3 (Present Location)
(Significance)
1. Expression of Ashoka’s remorse
A. Dhauli Separate Rock Edict after Kalinga War; promotes (i) Odisha
Dhamma
2. Bilingual inscription in Greek and
B. Kandahar Inscription Aramaic; reflects diplomatic (ii) Afghanistan
outreach
3. Royal endorsement of specific
C. Bhabru Inscription Buddhist teachings (particularly (iii) Rajasthan
Buddhist texts)
4. Mention of Ashoka enlarging the
D. Nigalisagar Pillar Edict (iv) Nepal
stupa of Buddha Konakamana

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

a) One Only
b) Two Only
c) Three Only
d) All Four
Explanation:
Site Explanation
A. Dhauli Separate Rock Edict - Site: The Dhauli Separate Rock Edict (Kalinga Edict, Separate
Expression of Ashoka’s remorse after Kalinga Rock Edicts I and II) is located at Dhauli, near Bhubaneswar,
War; promotes Dhamma Odisha. It is distinct from the Major Rock Edicts at the same site.
- Significance: These edicts express Ashoka’s remorse for the
suffering caused by the Kalinga War (circa 261 BCE) and outline
his adoption of Dhamma, emphasizing moral conquest
(Dhammaghosa) over military conquest (Bherighosa). They also
instruct Mahamatras to govern compassionately.
- Location: Odisha is correct, as Dhauli is a prominent Mauryan
site in the state.
- UPSC Note: The distinction between Dhauli’s Separate Rock
Edicts (regional, remorse-focused) and Major Rock Edicts
(empire-wide) is critical, as UPSC may test this nuance.
Explanation:
Site Explanation

- Site: The Kandahar Inscription (Kandahar Bilingual Edict) is a

Minor Rock Edict found in Kandahar, Afghanistan.
B. Kandahar Inscription - Significance: Written in Greek and Aramaic, it targets the
(Afghanistan) Hellenistic population in Ashoka’s northwestern territories,
promoting ethical conduct, non-violence, and Dhamma. It
2. Bilingual inscription in reflects Ashoka’s diplomatic outreach to Greek-speaking subjects
Greek and Aramaic; post-Alexander’s conquests.
reflects diplomatic outreach - Location: Afghanistan is correct, as Kandahar was part of the
Mauryan Empire’s northwestern frontier.
- UPSC Note: The inscription’s multilingual nature highlights
Mauryan cultural exchange, a potential mains topic on ancient
diplomacy.
Explanation:
Site Explanation
- Site: The Bhabru Inscription (also called Bairat Minor Rock Edict) is
C. Bhabru Inscription located at Bairat, Rajasthan.
(Rajasthan) - Significance: Addressed to the Buddhist Sangha, it expresses
Ashoka’s personal faith in Buddhism and recommends specific
3. Royal endorsement Buddhist texts (e.g., Vinaya Samukasa, Aliya Vasani) for study by
of specific Buddhist monks and lay followers. It endorses Buddhist teachings explicitly.
teachings (particularly - Location: Rajasthan is correct, as Bairat is a key archaeological site in
Buddhist texts) the state.
- UPSC Note: The Bhabru Inscription distinguishes Ashoka’s personal
Buddhist faith from his broader, inclusive Dhamma policy, a common
prelims question point.
Explanation:
Site Explanation
- Site: The Nigalisagar Pillar Edict is located at Nigalisagar,
near Kapilvastu, Nepal, in the Lumbini region.
D. Nigalisagar Pillar Edict - Significance: It records Ashoka’s visit in his 20th regnal year
and his enlargement of a stupa dedicated to Buddha
(Nepal)
Konakamana (a previous Buddha), reflecting his efforts to
promote Buddhist pilgrimage and infrastructure.
4. Mention of Ashoka enlarging the stupa of
- Location: Nepal is correct, as Nigalisagar is part of the
Buddha Konakamana
Buddhist circuit in southern Nepal.
- UPSC Note: The inscription connects to Ashoka’s patronage
of Buddhism, similar to the Lumbini Pillar Inscription, and is
relevant for questions on Mauryan religious policy.
Which of the following statements about the Vaishnava saint of Assam,
Shankar deva, is/are correct?

1. His teachings are often known as the Bhagavati dharma.

2. He encouraged the establishment of satras or monasteries and namghars or

prayer halls for the transmission of spiritual knowledge.

3. His major compositions include the Kirtana-ghosha

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 3 only
Which of the following statements about the Vaishnava saint of Assam,
Shankar deva, is/are correct?

1. His teachings are often known as the Bhagavati dharma.

2. He encouraged the establishment of satras or monasteries and namghars or

prayer halls for the transmission of spiritual knowledge.

3. His major compositions include the Kirtana-ghosha

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 3 only
Explanation:
• In the late fifteenth century, Shankaradeva emerged as one of the leading
proponents of Vaishnavism in Assam. His teachings, often known as the
Bhagavati dharma because they were based on the Bhagavad Gita and the
Bhagavata Purana, focused on absolute surrender to the supreme deity, in
this case Vishnu. Statement 1 is correct.
• The essence of Shankaradeva’s devotion came to be known as Eka Sarana
Nama Dharma (supreme surrender to the One).
• He emphasised the need for naam kirtan, recitation of the names of the lord in
sat sanga or congregations of pious devotees. He also encouraged the
establishment of satra or monasteries for the transmission of spiritual
knowledge, and naam ghar or prayer halls. Many of these institutions and
practices continue to flourish in the region. Statement 2 is correct.
• His major compositions include the Kirtana-ghosha. Statement 3 is correct.
In connection to the Office of Secretary of State during British colonial rule in
India, consider the following assertions:

1. Instituted by the Government of India Act 1858, it was established to oversee

the administration of India.
2. The Secretary of State functioned as the direct representative of the British
Crown in India and was answerable to it.

Which of the statements provided above is/are Correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
In connection to the Office of Secretary of State during British colonial rule in
India, consider the following assertions:

1. Instituted by the Government of India Act 1858, it was established to oversee

the administration of India.
2. The Secretary of State functioned as the direct representative of the British
Crown in India and was answerable to it.

Which of the statements provided above is/are Correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The Government of India Act of 1858 marked the conclusion of Company
rule and the Double Government system administered by the Board of
Control in England and the Court of Directors of the company, as
established by Pitt's India Act of 1784. Direct control of Indian
administration was transferred to the Crown. The Act established the
position of the Secretary of State, who held a cabinet ministerial role in the
British cabinet. His remuneration and infrastructure were funded from
Indian revenue. A council of fifteen members assisted him in acquiring
knowledge of Indian affairs.
Explanation:
• The Secretary of State was granted the authority to send and receive
confidential messages and dispatches from the Governor-General without
the obligation of divulging them to the Indian Council. Periodic reports on
India's moral and material progress were to be presented to the House of
Commons by the Secretary of State, validating statement 1.
• In line with administrative alterations introduced by the Government of
India Act 1858, the Governor-General acquired the additional title of
Viceroy or Crown's representative. Consequently, the Governor-General
acted as the direct representative of the British Crown in India. The
Secretary of State sat in the British Parliament and was answerable to it.
Thus, statement 2 is incorrect
In the context of modern Indian history, the Torture Commission (Madras) was
appointed to:

A. investigate allegations of torture of sepoy mutineers.

B. investigate the use of force to evict tribals from forest areas.
C. investigate allegations of torture of plantation workers by moneylenders.
D. investigate the use of torture by native officers to compel the ryots to pay
taxes.
In the context of modern Indian history, the Torture Commission (Madras) was
appointed to:

A. investigate allegations of torture of sepoy mutineers.

B. investigate the use of force to evict tribals from forest areas.
C. investigate allegations of torture of plantation workers by moneylenders.
D. investigate the use of torture by native officers to compel the ryots to pay
taxes.
Explanation:
• While there is a prevalent argument that police torture is institutionalized in
India, the singular authoritative government-backed examination of this
practice in the history of modern India is the Madras Torture Commission
Report of 1855.
• In 1854, with the assistance of Danby Seymour, a member of the House of
Commons of the United Kingdom, Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty endeavored
to persuade the British authorities to investigate the methods of torture
inflicted by revenue collectors.
Explanation:
• Allegations of torture against the East India Company shook the House of
Commons. During a debate, information from the Madras Presidency revealed
that torture was frequently employed by native officers to compel the ryots to
pay the demands of the Government.
• Responding to the situation, the Court of Directors promptly instructed the
Madras Government to conduct a "most searching inquiry" and provide a
comprehensive report on the subject. Subsequently, on September 9, 1854, a
three member Commission was appointed to investigate the "use of torture by
the native servants of the state, for the purpose of realizing the Government.
Consider the following statements with respect to Individual Satyagraha :

1. It was launched in response to the August offer.

2. The movement sought to achieve immediate independence for India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements with respect to Individual Satyagraha :

1. It was launched in response to the August offer.

2. The movement sought to achieve immediate independence for India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The Individual Satyagraha was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in October
1940 after the rejection of the August Offer (1940), which had been made by
the British government to secure Indian support for the British war effort
during World War II. The August Offer promised dominion status after the
war and expanded the Viceroy’s Executive Council to include more Indians,
but it fell short of the Congress's demand for full independence. The
Congress rejected the offer, and in response, Gandhi launched the Individual
Satyagraha as a non-violent protest against India's forced involvement in the
war without consulting Indians. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Explanation:
• The Individual Satyagraha was not aimed at achieving immediate
independence. Instead, it was a symbolic protest launched by Gandhi to
assert the right to free speech and express disapproval of British involvement
in World War II without Indian consent. Gandhi carefully selected
individuals to participate in the movement to ensure that the protest remained
non-violent and highly controlled. The movement was a tactical response to
demonstrate the Congress’s dissatisfaction with British policy during the war.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
Consider the following statements about Haripura Session of INC, 1938.

1. Indian States Peoples resolution was passed here.

2. National Planning Committee was set up under the chairmanship of Subhash
Chandra Bose.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements about Haripura Session of INC, 1938.

1. Indian States Peoples resolution was passed here.

2. National Planning Committee was set up under the chairmanship of Subhash
Chandra Bose.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The Haripura Session of the Indian National Congress (INC), held in 1938,
was a significant event where Subhash Chandra Bose was elected as the
President of the INC. One of the resolutions passed at this session was the
Indian States Peoples' resolution, which expressed solidarity with the people
of the princely states and encouraged them to fight for their political and civil
rights against the oppressive rulers of the princely states, marking a shift in the
Congress's approach towards the integration of princely states into the Indian
nationalist movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• While the National Planning Committee (NPC) was indeed set up in 1938, it
was not under the chairmanship of Subhash Chandra Bose. Instead, the NPC
was formed under the guidance of Jawaharlal Nehru, following the Haripura
Session. This committee was an important step toward the Congress's vision of
planning for economic development and industrialization for a future
independent India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
What was the aim of the Rajagopalachari Formula (1944)?

A. To draft a new constitution through the newly formed executive council

comprising Indian members.
B. To divide regions for elections based on proportional representation.
C. To garner the collaboration of the Muslim League and Congress in
establishing a provisional government at the center.
D. To advocate for a new formula to ensure representation for depressed classes
and minorities
What was the aim of the Rajagopalachari Formula (1944)?

A. To draft a new constitution through the newly formed executive council

comprising Indian members.
B. To divide regions for elections based on proportional representation.
C. To garner the collaboration of the Muslim League and Congress in
establishing a provisional government at the center.
D. To advocate for a new formula to ensure representation for depressed classes
and minorities
Explanation:
• C. Rajagopalachari, the seasoned Congress leader, formulated a plan for
collaboration between Congress and the League in 1944. It tacitly
acknowledged the League's demand for Pakistan.
• Gandhiji endorsed the plan.

Key points of the CR Plan included:

• The Muslim League was to support Congress's call for independence.

• The League was to collaborate with Congress in establishing a provisional
government at the center.
• After the war, the entire population of Muslim majority regions in North-West
and North-East India would decide through a plebiscite whether to form a
separate sovereign state or not.
Explanation:
• If partition was accepted, a joint agreement would be made to safeguard
defense, commerce, communications, etc.
• The mentioned terms would only be effective if England transferred full
powers to India
• Jinnah insisted on Congress accepting the two-nation theory. He proposed
that only Muslims from the North-West and North-East vote in the plebiscite,
excluding the entire population. He also opposed the idea of a common
center.
• While Congress was willing to cooperate with the League for the
independence of the Indian Union, the League was indifferent to the Union's
independence, focusing solely on a separate nation. Hindu leaders, led by Vir
Savarkar, condemned the Plan.

• Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

In the context of Indian history, which of the following statements is/are
accurate concerning Vaikom Satyagraha?

1. It was a satyagraha protesting against untouchability and caste

discrimination.
2. Mahatma Gandhi was involved in this satyagraha.

Select the answer using the code provided below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor
In the context of Indian history, which of the following statements is/are
accurate concerning Vaikom Satyagraha?

1. It was a satyagraha protesting against untouchability and caste

discrimination.
2. Mahatma Gandhi was involved in this satyagraha.

Select the answer using the code provided below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor
Explanation:
• Vaikom Satyagraha was a campaign in Travancore (present-day Kerala)
advocating for the temple entry of the marginalized classes. It unfolded near
the Shiva Temple at Vaikom, Kottayam district, Kerala, during 1924-25
• Vaikom Satyagraha originated as a localized protest against untouchability
but gained significance, ultimately becoming a pivotal event in Kerala's
history. Historians regard it as instrumental in the Temple Entry Proclamation
of 1936. The focal point of the protest was the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple,
where the upper caste was allowed to use a public road around it, while
others were barred. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The movement commenced on March 30, 1924. At the Vaikom Mahadeva
Temple, a board prohibited the entry of lower caste individuals (avarnas).
Satyagrahis formed groups of three and attempted to enter the temple. They
faced resistance, leading to arrests by the police. Mahatma Gandhi actively
participated in the Vaikom Satyagraha. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Regarding the Montague-Chelmsford reforms, identify how many of the
statements given below are correct?

1. Introduction of dyarchy occurred at the central government level.

2. The Provincial Legislative Councils were to have a majority of elected
members.
3. Congress leader Surendranath Banerjea expressed support for accepting the
reforms.

Choose the appropriate answer using the provided code

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None
Regarding the Montague-Chelmsford reforms, identify how many of the
statements given below are correct?

1. Introduction of dyarchy occurred at the central government level.

2. The Provincial Legislative Councils were to have a majority of elected
members.
3. Congress leader Surendranath Banerjea expressed support for accepting the
reforms.

Choose the appropriate answer using the provided code

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None
Explanation:
• Aligned with the government policy articulated in Montagu's August 1917
statement, additional constitutional reforms were announced in July 1918,
commonly referred to as the Montagu Chelmsford or Montford Reforms.
These reforms served as the foundation for the enactment of the Government
of India Act, 1919.

Key Features:

• The Provincial Legislative Councils underwent expansion, with a majority of

their members now elected. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
• The Act introduced dyarchy in the executive branch at the provincial
government level. (hence 1st statement incorrect) Dyarchy granted increased
powers to provincial governments, segregating subjects into 'reserved' (such
as finance and law and order) under the direct control of the Governor and
'transferred' (including education, public health, and local self-government) to
be overseen by ministers accountable to the legislatures. The Governor
retained the authority to overrule ministers on specific grounds, rendering
statement 1 incorrect.
• At the central level, the legislature consisted of two houses: the Legislative
Assembly (with 41 nominated members out of a total of 144) and the Council
of State (with 26 nominated and 34 elected members). The legislature had
minimal control over the Governor-General and the Executive Council.
Conversely, the Central Government held unrestrained authority over
provincial governments.
Explanation:
• During a special session in Bombay in August 1918, the Indian National
Congress, led by Hasan Imam, deemed the reform proposals disappointing
and unsatisfactory. Notably, some veteran Congress leaders, including
Surendanath.
• Banerjea, advocated accepting the government's proposals and subsequently
parted ways with the Congress to establish the Indian Liberal Federation.
Thus, statement 3 is correct.
Q. Consider the following Pairs,

Commissions Significance
Strachey Famine Code

Welby Royal Commission on the administration of

expenditure in India
Fowler Commission Indian Currency Committee

Moncrieff Commission Irrigation Commission

How many of the Pair/s given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None of the Above

Q. Consider the following Pairs,

Commissions Significance
Strachey Famine Code

Welby Royal Commission on the administration of

expenditure in India
Fowler Commission Indian Currency Committee

Moncrieff Commission Irrigation Commission

How many of the Pair/s given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None of the Above

Explanation:
Strachey Commission :

• It was set up in 1878 under the Chairmanship of Sir Richard Strachey.

• The commission recommended state interference in food trade in the event of

famine.

• The Strachey Commission came out with the recommendation on whose basis
a Famine Code was developed.

This code has 4 parts

• The first part of the code dealt with the government measures during normal
times.

• The second part dealt with the relief campaign.

• The third part dealt with the duties of officials during relief measures.
Explanation:
• The fourth part dealt with the division of famine-affected areas.

Hence, pair 1 is correct.

• Welby Commission : It was set up in 1895 by the British Government to

investigate wasteful spending in India.

• The members of the Commission:

o Lord Welby

o Lord Chaman

o T.R. Buchanan

o William Wedderburn

o Dadabhai Naoroji

o William S. Caine
Explanation:
• The report was published in 1900. Overall, the Welby Commission played a
crucial role in addressing the financial grievances of Indians during the
colonial period and laid the groundwork for more equitable fiscal policies. Its
findings and recommendations were instrumental in promoting financial
reforms and ensuring a fairer allocation of resources between Britain and
India. Hence, pair 2 is correct.

• The Fowler Commission, officially known as the Royal Commission on the

Indian Currency and Finance, was established in 1898 under the
chairmanship of Sir Henry Fowler.

• Its primary objective was to examine and recommend changes to the currency
system in British India.

• The commission advocated for the introduction of a gold standard to

stabilize the Indian rupee, aligning it with international trade practices and
ensuring economic stability.
Explanation:
• Its recommendations led to the enactment of the Indian Coinage and Paper
Currency Act of 1899, which established the gold exchange standard in India.

• This move was pivotal in integrating the Indian economy with the global
financial system and stabilizing its currency value.

Hence, pair 3 is correct.

Moncrieff Commission / Irrigation Commission

• It was setup in 1901 under the Chairmanship of Colin Scott Moncrieff.

• Post famine(1899-1900),there was more emphasis on internal administration

reforms.

• Towards this direction, the construction of irrigation works in accordance

with the broad plans was outlined.

• Hence, pair 4 is correct.

With reference to Sangam literature, consider the following statements:

1. Sangam literature provides detailed accounts of the socio-political life of

ancient Tamil society.
2. Religious themes are prominently featured throughout the Sangam literature.
3. The Sangam literature was written exclusively in the form of prose.
4. The Tolkappiyam, one of the earliest works in Sangam literature, is primarily
a treatise on grammar and poetics.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only one statement

B. Only two statements
C. Only three statements
D. All four statements
With reference to Sangam literature, consider the following statements:

1. Sangam literature provides detailed accounts of the socio-political life of

ancient Tamil society, including aspects of governance, trade, and warfare.
2. Religious themes are prominently featured throughout the Sangam literature,
reflecting the spiritual practices of the time.
3. The Sangam literature was written exclusively in the form of prose.
4. The Tolkappiyam, one of the earliest works in Sangam literature, is primarily
a treatise on grammar and poetics.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only one statement

B. Only two statements
C. Only three statements
D. All four statements
Explanation:
• Sangam literature provides a vivid portrayal of various aspects of ancient
Tamil society, including governance, trade, social customs, and warfare,
giving insights into the socio-political life of the period. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• While there are occasional references to religious practices, Sangam literature
is not primarily focused on religious themes. It is largely secular, dealing more
with social, political, and personal themes of the time. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
• Sangam literature was not exclusively written in prose; in fact, it is
predominantly composed in verse. The poetic compositions are known for
their metrical structure and are a significant feature of Sangam poetry. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Tolkappiyam is one of the earliest and most important works in Sangam
literature, serving as a comprehensive treatise on Tamil grammar and poetics.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Match the following Arab travellers with their respective contributions or
observations about India:

List I: Arab Travellers List II: Contributions/Observations

A. Al-Masudi 1. Authored "Kitab al-Hind," providing an in-depth
study of Indian society and culture.
B. Sulaiman 2. Described the wealth and administration of the
Delhi Sultanate in "Rihla."
C. Ibn Battuta 3. Provided detailed descriptions of Indian trade and
economic conditions in the 9th century.
D. Al-Biruni 4. Described the cultural and geographical diversity of
India in "Muruj al-Dhahab."

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
B. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
C. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
D. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Match the following Arab travellers with their respective contributions or
observations about India:

List I: Arab Travellers List II: Contributions/Observations

A. Al-Masudi 1. Authored "Kitab al-Hind," providing an in-depth
study of Indian society and culture.
B. Sulaiman 2. Described the wealth and administration of the
Delhi Sultanate in "Rihla."
C. Ibn Battuta 3. Provided detailed descriptions of Indian trade and
economic conditions in the 9th century.
D. Al-Biruni 4. Described the cultural and geographical diversity of
India in "Muruj al-Dhahab."

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
B. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
C. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
D. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Explanation:
A. Al-Masudi - 4:

• Al-Masudi was a 10th-century Arab historian and geographer known for his
extensive travels and writings about various parts of the world, including
India. In his work "Muruj al-Dhahab wa Ma'adin al-Jawhar" (The Meadows
of Gold and Mines of Gems), Al-Masudi provided a rich description of the
cultural and geographical diversity of India. He discussed the social customs,
religions, trade, and various aspects of the Indian subcontinent, making his
account an important source of information about India during that period.
Explanation:
B. Sulaiman - 3:

• Sulaiman was a 9th-century Arab merchant and traveler who wrote one of the
earliest accounts of India in the Islamic world. His writings, which are part of the
"Silsilat al-Tawarikh" (Chain of Chronicles), provide detailed descriptions of the
Indian trade and economic conditions. Sulaiman's observations are valuable for
understanding the economic prosperity of Indian kingdoms during the 9th
century, including the trade in spices, textiles, and other goods.

C. Ibn Battuta - 2:

• Ibn Battuta was a 14th-century Moroccan traveler and explorer who spent
several years in India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq of the Delhi
Sultanate. In his famous travelogue, "Rihla" (The Journey), Ibn Battuta provided
a vivid account of the wealth, administration, and social life of the Delhi
Sultanate. Ibn Battuta explains the postal system: The horse post, known as uluq,
is run by royal horses posted every four miles apart. The foot-post has three
stations per mile; one-third of a mile is named Dawa.
Explanation:
Al-Biruni - 1:

• Al-Biruni was an 11th-century Persian scholar who traveled to India and

conducted an in-depth study of Indian society, culture, religion, and science.
His work, "Kitab al-Hind" (The Book of India), is considered one of the most
thorough accounts of India written by a foreign scholar. Al-Biruni studied
Sanskrit, interacted with Indian scholars, and documented various aspects of
Indian life, including Hindu philosophy, astronomy, mathematics, and social
customs. His observations are highly regarded for their accuracy and scholarly
approach.
Consider the following pairs:

Inscriptions Significance
Pugalur Inscription Reference to three generations of Chera rulers.
Sohagaura Inscription Famine relief efforts during Pre – Ashokan
Period.
Uttaramerur Inscription Organisation of village assemblies in
Brahmadeya Settlements.
Banskhera Inscription Information about Harshavardhan’s Rule.

How many pair/s given above is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. Only three pairs

D. All of the Above

Consider the following pairs:

Inscriptions Significance
Pugalur Inscription Reference to three generations of Chera rulers.
Sohagaura Inscription Famine relief efforts during Pre – Ashokan
Period.
Uttaramerur Inscription Organisation of village assemblies in
Brahmadeya Settlements.
Banskhera Inscription Information about Harshavardhan’s Rule.

How many pair/s given above is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. Only three pairs

D. All of the Above

Explanation:
• Pugalur Inscription: The Cheras ruled over parts of modern Kerala. Their
capital was Vanji and their important seaports were Tondi and Musiri. They
had the palmyra flowers as their garland. The Pugalur inscription of the first
century A.D refers to three generations of Chera rulers. Padirruppattu also
provides information on Chera kings. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

• Sohgaura Inscription: The Sohgaura copper plate inscription, a Mauryan

Period inscription, is a copper plate inscription written in Prakrit in the
Brahmi script. It was discovered in Sohgaura, a village on the banks of the
Rapti River, Gorakhpur District, Uttar Pradesh, India. The inscription on the
plate is in Brahmi script and records a royal order to distribute grains
carefully. It could be due to famine during the period. Hence, pair 2 is
correct.
Explanation:
• Uttaramerur Inscription: The walls of the Vaikunda Perumal Temple in
Uttaramerur are inscribed with details revealing systems of local
governance from the reign of Parantaka I (907-953 AD). The inscription gives
details of the functioning of the local sabha, i.e. the village assembly.
A sabha was an assembly exclusively of brahmans and had specialised
committees tasked with different things. The Uttaramerur inscription details
how members were selected, the required qualifications, their roles and
responsibilities, and even the circumstances in which they could be removed.
Hence, pair 3 is correct.
Explanation:
• Banskhera Inscription: The Banskhera inscription is an ancient inscription
that was discovered in the Banskhera village in the state of Uttar Pradesh,
India. It is written in Sanskrit language and contains information about the
construction of a temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. The inscription also
mentions the names of several people who were involved in the construction
of the temple.

• The Banskhera inscription is an important historical document as it provides

valuable information about the rule of Harsha and is also one of the few
inscriptions that contain the signature of a ruler from the Harsha Dynasty.
Hence, pair 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements,

1. Nalanda, a renowned centre of Buddhist learning was established during the

reign of Ashoka.

2. Fa Hein, a Chinese scholar, visited Nalanda University and wrote about its
architecture and learning.

3. Nalanda University is considered the world’s first residential university.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Consider the following statements,

1. Nalanda, a renowned centre of Buddhist learning was established during the

reign of Ashoka.

2. Fa Hein, a Chinese scholar, visited Nalanda University and wrote about its
architecture and learning.

3. Nalanda University is considered the world’s first residential university.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• Nalanda University was established in the 5th century CE during the Gupta
Empire, under the patronage of Emperor Kumaragupta I. Emperor Ashoka,
who reigned in the 3rd century BCE, preceded the establishment of Nalanda
by several centuries. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Fa Hein (Faxian) was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India during
the reign of Chandragupta II (circa 399-414 CE). His primary focus was on
visiting Buddhist sites and collecting scriptures. However, Nalanda University
had either not been established or had not yet gained prominence during his
visit. It was later Chinese travelers, such as Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang) in the 7th
century CE, who visited Nalanda and documented its academic environment.
Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• Nalanda is often regarded as the world's first residential university, hosting
thousands of students and teachers who lived and studied within its campus.
It attracted scholars from various regions, including China, Korea, and Central
Asia, and offered a wide range of subjects beyond Buddhist studies, such as
medicine, mathematics, and astronomy. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Q. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the
following statements regarding Charvaka school:
1. The Charvaka philosophy accepted the existence of only those things that
could be experienced by human senses and organs.

2. The Charvakas rejected the karma theory.

Which of the statements given above is /are incorrect?
A. 1only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the
following statements regarding Charvaka school:
1. The Charvaka philosophy accepted the existence of only those things that
could be experienced by human senses and organs.

2. The Charvakas rejected the karma theory.

Which of the statements given above is /are incorrect?
A. 1only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Charvaka is an ancient school of Indian The materialist systems were often
called “Lokayata,” which means “that which is found among people in
general.”

• Charvaka holds direct perception, empiricism, and conditional inference as

proper sources of knowledge, embraces philosophical skepticism and
rejects ritualism and supernaturalism. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Brihaspati is traditionally referred to as the founder of Charvaka or

Lokāyata philosophy.

• The Charvaka did not believe in karma, rebirth or an afterlife. Hence,

statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
• Charvaka believed that there was nothing wrong with sensual pleasure. Since
it is impossible to have pleasure without pain, Charvaka thought that wisdom
lay in enjoying pleasure and avoiding pain as far as possible.

• Charvakas rejected many of the standard religious conceptions of Hindus,

Buddhists, Jains and Ajivakas, such as an afterlife, reincarnation, samsara,
karma and religious rites.

• They were critical of the Vedas, as well as Buddhist scriptures.

• Charvakas concluded that the inference could not be used to ascertain

metaphysical truths.
Consider the following statements with respect to Satavahanas,

1. The rulers were identified through metronymics.

2. The succession to the thrones generally patrilineal.

3. They practised endogamy as recommended in the Brahmanical texts.

4. They claimed to be Brahmanas and upholder of the fourfold varna order, and
thus, abided by the Brahmanical texts strictly.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only one statement

B. Only two Statements

C. Only three Statements

D. All of the Above

Consider the following statements with respect to Satavahanas,

1. The rulers were identified through metronymics.

2. The succession to the thrones generally patrilineal.

3. They practised endogamy as recommended in the Brahmanical texts.

4. They claimed to be Brahmanas and upholder of the fourfold varna order, and
thus, abided by the Brahmanical texts strictly.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only one statement

B. Only two Statements

C. Only three Statements

D. All of the Above

Explanation:
• The Satavahana rulers were identified through metronymics (names derived
from that of the mother). For e.g raja Gotami-puta Siri-Satakani, raja Vasithi-
puta (sami-) Siri-Pulumayi, raja Gotami-puta sami-Siri-Yajna-Satakani. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.

• In the case of the Satavahanas, we know that succession to the throne was
generally patrilineal. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• An examination of the names of women who married Satavahana rulers

indicates that many of them had names derived from gotras such as Gotama
and Vasistha, their father’s gotras. They evidently retained these names
instead of adopting names derived from their husband’s gotra name as they
were required to do according to the Brahmanical rules. What is also apparent
is that some of these women belonged to the same gotra. As is obvious, this
ran counter to the ideal of exogamy recommended in the Brahmanical texts.
Thus, they practised endogamy instead of the exogamous system
recommended in the Brahmanical texts. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• The Satavahanas claimed to be Brahmanas, whereas according to the
Brahmanas, kings ought to have been Kshatriyas. They claimed to uphold the
fourfold varna order, but entered into marriage alliances with people who
were supposed to be excluded from the system. And, as we have seen, they
practised endogamy instead of the exogamous system recommended in
Brahmanical texts. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements about Bodhisattvas:

1. The Bodhisattva ideal differs from the Arhat ideal, as the Bodhisattva seeks
enlightenment for all beings, not just for themselves.

2. Bodhisattvas make efforts to attain Nibbana (Nirvana).

3. The concept of the Bodhisattva is central to Theravada Buddhism.

4. Padmasambhava is recognized as the historical Buddha in the Pali Canon.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All of the above

Consider the following statements about Bodhisattvas:

1. The Bodhisattva ideal differs from the Arhat ideal, as the Bodhisattva seeks
enlightenment for all beings, not just for themselves.

2. Bodhisattvas make efforts to attain Nibbana (Nirvana).

3. The concept of the Bodhisattva is central to Theravada Buddhism.

4. Padmasambhava is recognized as the historical Buddha in the Pali Canon.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• The Bodhisattva ideal, central to Mahayana Buddhism, emphasizes attaining
enlightenment (Bodhi) not only for oneself but for the benefit of all sentient
beings. In contrast, the Arhat ideal, prevalent in Theravada Buddhism, focuses
on personal liberation from suffering through attaining Nibbana (Nirvana).
The Bodhisattva delays their own enlightenment to assist others, making this
ideal distinct. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• While Bodhisattvas do strive toward enlightenment (Buddhahood), their

primary focus is not personal liberation (Nibbana) but delaying their own
final attainment to help others. The Bodhisattva path includes practicing the
Six Paramitas (perfections), including generosity, morality, patience, and
wisdom, to reach enlightenment while benefiting others. Hence, Statement 2
is not correct.
Explanation:
• The Bodhisattva ideal is central to Mahayana Buddhism, not Theravada.
Theravada Buddhism primarily emphasizes the Arhat ideal, where
individual enlightenment is the goal. While Theravada recognizes
Bodhisattvas in certain contexts (such as the historical Buddha's earlier lives),
it does not prioritize the Bodhisattva path for its practitioners. Hence,
Statement 3 is not correct.

• Padmasambhava (Guru Rinpoche), a central figure in Tibetan Buddhism, is

not recognized as the historical Buddha in the Pali Canon. The Pali Canon
focuses on the teachings of Gautama Buddha, the historical founder of
Buddhism. Padmasambhava is associated with the transmission of Tantric
Buddhism (Vajrayana) to Tibet and is revered in Tibetan and Vajrayana
traditions, but he is not part of Theravada texts. Hence, Statement 4 is not
correct.
Q. Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as
the most serious rebellion since the Sepoy Mutiny.

Reason (R): There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the
most serious rebellion since the Sepoy Mutiny.

Reason (R): There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the
most serious rebellion since the Sepoy Mutiny.

• True: Lord Linlithgow, the Viceroy of India during World War II, referred to
the Quit India Movement of 1942 (also known as the August Movement) as
the most serious rebellion since the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.

• This statement highlights the scale and intensity of the Quit India Movement,
which involved mass protests, strikes, uprisings, and violent clashes against
British rule across India.

• Unlike previous movements such as the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-

22) and Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-34), the Quit India Movement
saw spontaneous and widespread participation, including students, workers,
peasants, and other sections of society.
Explanation:
Reason (R): There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.

• True: The Quit India Movement led to a massive upsurge of the peasantry,
particularly in regions like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Bengal, Orissa, Maharashtra,
and Tamil Nadu. Peasants in these areas rose against oppressive landlords,
British officials, and police, leading to violent confrontations.

• For example:

o Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar witnessed the establishment of "parallel

governments" in districts like Ballia, Midnapore, and Satara.

o Peasants in Bengal and Maharashtra engaged in guerrilla warfare and

attacked symbols of British authority such as police stations, post offices,
and government offices.
Explanation:
Analysis of Assertion and Reason

• The Assertion (A) is correct because the Quit India Movement of 1942 posed a
significant challenge to British authority, making it the most serious rebellion
since the Sepoy Mutiny.

• The Reason (R) is also correct because peasant uprisings formed a critical part
of the movement in several regions, showcasing grassroots resistance to British
rule.

• However, the Reason (R) is not the sole or direct explanation for why the
movement was considered the "most serious rebellion." The rebellion's severity
also stemmed from its widespread participation, violent intensity, and
complete breakdown of British administration in certain areas, which went
beyond peasant revolts.

• Correct Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
During the Indian freedom struggle, who among the following proposed that
Swaraj should be defined as complete independence free from all foreign
control?

A. Mazharul Haque

B. Maulana Hasrat Mohani

C. Hakim Ajmal Khan

D. Abul Kalam Azad

During the Indian freedom struggle, who among the following proposed that
Swaraj should be defined as complete independence free from all foreign
control?

A. Mazharul Haque

B. Maulana Hasrat Mohani

C. Hakim Ajmal Khan

D. Abul Kalam Azad

Explanation:
• During the Indian freedom struggle, the idea of Swaraj (self-rule) evolved
over time, with different leaders interpreting and redefining it according to
the political, social, and economic needs of the movement. Maulana Hasrat
Mohani, a prominent freedom fighter, poet, and member of the Indian
National Congress, was among the first to propose that Swaraj should mean
complete independence free from all foreign control in 1921.

• Syed Fazl-ul-Hasan known by his pen name Hasrat Mohani, was a noted
poet of the Urdu language.

• He coined the notable slogan Inqilab Zindabad (translation of "Long live the
revolution!") in 1921.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Charter Act, 1813
1. The Act reaffirmed the sovereignty of the British Crown over Indian
territories.

2. It was the first time the East India Company’s responsibility for Indian
education was recognized.

3. It followed a policy of non-interference in the religious and socio-cultural

aspects of native Indians.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one statement

B. Only two Statements

C. All three Statements

D. None of the above.

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Charter Act, 1813
1. The Act reaffirmed the sovereignty of the British Crown over Indian
territories.

2. It was the first time the East India Company’s responsibility for Indian
education was recognized.

3. It followed a policy of non-interference in the religious and socio-cultural

aspects of native Indians.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one statement

B. Only two Statements

C. All three Statements

D. None of the above.

Explanation:
• The Charter Act of 1813 explicitly reaffirmed the British Crown's
sovereignty over Indian territories. While the East India Company continued
to administer India, it did so as an agent of the Crown, emphasizing that
territorial acquisitions belonged to the British Government, not the Company.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Act for the first time directed that ₹1 lakh be allocated annually for the
promotion of education in India. Though the amount was modest, it marked
the formal recognition of the Company's role in Indian education. This
provision laid the foundation for future educational reforms. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.

• The Charter Act of 1813 ended the policy of complete non-interference in

religious matters. It permitted Christian missionaries to proselytize in India.
This led to a shift in British policy, as missionaries began influencing Indian
society, often interfering in socio-cultural and religious aspects. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Ryotwari system:
1. The system was introduced by the British in parts of Madras and Bombay
Presidencies.

2. Every 'registered' holder was held responsible for direct payment of land
revenue to the State.

3. Under this system, the revenue demand was fixed for perpetuity.

4. After the introduction of the ryotwari system, each peasant individually

needed more credit, and the creation of property rights in land.
How many of the statement/s given above is /are incorrect?
A. Only one statement

B. Only two statements

C. Only three statements

D. All of the above

Consider the following events:

1. Indigo Revolt

2. Santhal Rebellion

3. Deccan Riot

4. Mutiny of the Sepoys

The correct chronological sequence of these events is:

A. 4, 2, 3, 1

B. 4, 2, 1, 3

C. 2, 4, 3, 1

D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Consider the following events:

1. Indigo Revolt

2. Santhal Rebellion

3. Deccan Riot

4. Mutiny of the Sepoys

The correct chronological sequence of these events is:

A. 4, 2, 3, 1

B. 4, 2, 1, 3

C. 2, 4, 3, 1

D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Explanation:
Santhal Rebellion (1855-1856)

● The Santhal Rebellion, also known as the Hul Rebellion, was an uprising by
the Santhal tribal community in the regions of present-day Jharkhand and
West Bengal.

● The rebellion was sparked by the exploitation of Santhals by zamindars,

moneylenders, and the British administration. They were subjected to forced
labor, high taxes, and loss of their ancestral lands.

● Led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, the Santhals declared war against the
British, targeting police stations, zamindars, and moneylenders.

● The rebellion was crushed by the British using armed force and Santhal
Pargana Tenancy Act, 1876 was passed that prohibited the transfer of land
from an Adivasi to non- Adivasis.
Explanation:
Mutiny of the Sepoys (1857)

● The Mutiny of 1857, also known as the First War of Independence, began as a
revolt by sepoys (Indian soldiers) in the British East India Company’s army.

● The revolt was triggered by factors like religious insensitivity (use of greased
cartridges), poor service conditions, and a growing sense of alienation from
British rule.

● The mutiny marked the end of the East India Company's rule and the
beginning of direct Crown rule under the British Raj.
Explanation:
Indigo Revolt (1859-1860)

● The Indigo Revolt was a movement by farmers in Bengal against the

oppressive indigo plantation system enforced by British planters.

● Indigo planters forced peasants to grow indigo (a cash crop) instead of food
crops, providing them minimal compensation and trapping them in debt.

● The revolt started in Nadia district of Bengal in 1859 and spread rapidly.

● The peasants refused to grow indigo and were supported by sections of the
Bengali intelligentsia, such as Dinabandhu Mitra, who wrote the play Nil
Darpan highlighting the plight of peasants.

● The revolt forced the government to appoint the Indigo Commission in 1860,
which declared the practice of forcing farmers to grow indigo as illegal.
Explanation:
Deccan Riots (1875)

● The Deccan “Riots” began spontaneously on 12th May 1875, in Supa, located in
Pune.

● During the American Civil War, most peasants had switched to cotton farming,
attracted by the high prices, but the prices crashed dramatically in 1864 when
the War concluded, and supply of Cotton resumed from America. The situation
was made worse by a series of bad harvests over the next several years. It was
during this period of crisis that the British administration suddenly raised land
revenue by over 50%.

● The peasantry, which had gathered for the weekly bazaar, launched attacks on
the moneylenders and destroyed the debt contracts and bonds. The wave of
agitation spread to different parts of the region, and in several places debt
records of the moneylenders were publicly burnt.

● The government passed the Deccan Agriculturists’ Relief Act in 1879 to regulate
the lending practices of moneylenders.
Explanation:
Chronological Sequence of Events

Correct Answer: (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

This sequence corresponds to:

● 2: Santhal Rebellion (1855-1856)

● 4: Mutiny of the Sepoys (1857)

● 1: Indigo Revolt (1859-1860)

● 3: Deccan Riots (1875)

Consider the following information:

Revolutionary Activity Leader

Organisation
Hindustan Republican Chittagong Armoury Surya Sen
Association Raid

Abhinav Bharat Nashik Conspiracy V. D Savarkar

Hindustan Socialist Lahore Conspiracy Lala Lajpat Rai

Republican Association

Anushilan Samiti Alipore Conspiracy Aurobindo Ghosh

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 2 and 4
23. Consider the following information:

Revolutionary Activity Leader

Organisation
Hindustan Republican Chittagong Armoury Surya Sen
Association Raid

Abhinav Bharat Nashik Conspiracy V. D Savarkar

Hindustan Socialist Lahore Conspiracy Lala Lajpat Rai

Republican Association

Anushilan Samiti Alipore Conspiracy Aurobindo Ghosh

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 2 and 4
Explanation:
Hindustan Republican Association – Chittagong Armoury Raid – Surya Sen

• Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was founded in 1924 by Sachindra

Nath Sanyal, Ram Prasad Bismil, and others. It was later renamed the
Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).

• The Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930) was led by Surya Sen, but it was
organized by a revolutionary group in Bengal, Indian Republican Army, not
the HRA. Therefore, this row is incorrect.

• The raid aimed to:

o Seize arms and ammunition from the British arsenal in Chittagong.

o Disrupt British communication lines by destroying the telegraph and

telephone offices.

o Establish a provisional government to inspire a nationwide revolt.

Explanation:
Abhinav Bharat – Nashik Conspiracy – V. D. Savarkar

• Abhinav Bharat was founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in 1904. It was a

secret society aimed at armed resistance against British rule.

• The Nashik Conspiracy Case (1909) involved the assassination of British

officer A. M. T. Jackson by Anant Laxman Kanhere, a member of Abhinav
Bharat.

• Therefore, this row is correct.

Explanation:
Hindustan Socialist Republican Association – Lahore Conspiracy – Lala Lajpat
Rai

• The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was involved in the

Lahore Conspiracy Case (1928), which refers to the assassination of J. P.
Saunders, a British police officer, by Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev to
avenge the death of Lala Lajpat Rai.

• Lala Lajpat Rai was not a leader of the HSRA; he was a senior Congress leader
who died during a lathi charge while leading a protest against the Simon
Commission.

• Therefore, this row is incorrect.

Explanation:
Anushilan Samiti – Alipore Conspiracy – Aurobindo Ghosh

• Anushilan Samiti was a revolutionary group that operated in Bengal.

• The Alipore Conspiracy Case (1908) involved members of Anushilan Samiti,

including Aurobindo Ghosh and his brother Barindra Ghosh. They were
accused of planning an armed uprising against British rule.

• Aurobindo Ghosh was a key figure in this case.

• Therefore, this row is correct.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: National Social Conference was formed as the social wing of Indian
National Congress (INC).

Statement-II: Behramji Malabari and M.G Ranade decided to bring together all
the social reform groups of the country under one organization.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains

Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not
explain Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: National Social Conference was formed as the social wing of Indian
National Congress (INC).

Statement-II: Behramji Malabari and M.G Ranade decided to bring together all
the social reform groups of the country under one organization.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains

Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not
explain Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:
• When the Indian National Congress (INC) was established in 1885, leaders
like M.G. Ranade and R. Ragunath Rao, who were committed social reformers,
believed that the Congress would address social, economic, and political
issues collectively. However, it soon became evident that a significant faction
within the Congress opposed including social reform in its agenda. Their
primary argument was that social reform could lead to division and
controversy, which would undermine Congress's primary objective of
achieving political unity. Consequently, social issues were excluded from its
framework.

• In response, Ranade and Rao initiated the Social Conference, which

convened for the first time in Madras in 1887 to focus on social reform
independently.

• National Social Conference, founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao was
the social reform cell of the Indian National Congress. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
Explanation:
• The Conference met annually as a subsidiary convention of the Indian
National Congress, at the same venue, and focused attention on social reform.

• The Conference advocated intercaste marriages and opposed kulinism and

polygamy. It launched the famous "Pledge Movement" to inspire people to
take an oath to prohibit child marriage.

• The reason behind formation of National Social Conference as a separate

wing of INC dedicated to social reforms was that the INC did not want to
include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate
body for such a purpose. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Match the following

Commission set up by the British Purpose

1. Lee commission Education reform

2. Hunter commission Boundary issue
3. Radcliffe commission Civil services reform

Choose the correct answer

A. 1- i, 2-ii, 3-iii

B. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii

C. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i

D. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii

Match the following

Commission set up by the British Purpose

1. Lee commission Education reform

2. Hunter commission Boundary issue
3. Radcliffe commission Civil services reform

Choose the correct answer

A. 1- i, 2-ii, 3-iii

B. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii

C. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i

D. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii

Explanation:
• Hunter Education Commission (1882–83) : Earlier schemes had neglected
primary and secondary education. When education was shifted to provinces
in 1870, primary and secondary education further suffered because the
provinces already had limited resources at their disposal. In 1882, the
government appointed a commission under the chairmanship of W.W.
Hunter to review the progress of education in the country since the
Despatch of 1854. The primary aim of the commission was to:

• Evaluate the status of primary and secondary education in British India.

• Identify obstacles in the education system.

• Recommend reforms to make education more accessible, especially to the rural

population.
Explanation:
In an absurd hurry, the British government appointed the Boundary Commission
under the chairmanship of Sir Cyril Radcliffe. The Boundary Commission
consisted of two Muslims and two non-Muslim judges in each case, and worked
under serious constraints. Radcliffe, with very limited knowledge of India, and
with the use of out-of-date maps and census materials, was required to draw
the boundaries and decide disputed points within a period of six weeks.

Lee Commission (1924) : The Lee Commission recommended that:

• the secretary of state should continue to recruit the ICS, the Irrigation branch
of the Service of Engineers, the Indian Forest Service, etc.;

• the recruitments for the transferred fields like education and civil medical
service be made by provincial governments;
Explanation:
• direct recruitment to ICS on the basis of 50:50 parity between the Europeans
and the Indians be reached in 15 years; and

• a Public Service Commission be immediately established (as laid down in the

Government of India Act, 1919).

• Hence, option d) is correct.

Q. The 1859 Limitation Law, enacted by the British, primarily aimed to:
A. Nullify all loan bonds.

B. Restrict the legal enforceability of loan bonds between moneylenders and

Ryots to a three-year period.

C. Prevent moneylenders from issuing land bonds.

D. Increase the validity period of loan bonds to a decade.

Q. The 1859 Limitation Law, enacted by the British, primarily aimed to:
A. Nullify all loan bonds.

B. Restrict the legal enforceability of loan bonds between moneylenders and

Ryots to a three-year period.

C. Prevent moneylenders from issuing land bonds.

D. Increase the validity period of loan bonds to a decade.

Explanation:
• The Limitation Law of 1859 was a law passed by the British to regulate the
process of loan bonds between moneylenders and ryots.

• The law stated that loan bonds would only be valid for three years.

• The law was intended to prevent the accumulation of interest over time.

• The law required both parties to sign a legally binding bond.

• The law was passed after the Deccan Ryot Commission examined the
relationship between the parties involved and the conditions of money
borrowing. The commission observed that moneylenders were charging
exorbitant interest rates on small amounts of principal.

• The law did not prevent moneylenders from executing loan bonds. However,
after three years, the moneylender could no longer enforce the loan bond
against the ryot.
Consider the following with reference period of Governor-General Hardinge
in India.

1. 1st Anglo - Sikh war

2. Establishment of Hindu Mahasabha

3. Transfer of capital to Delhi

4. Abolition of female infanticide

How many of the above events occurred during his reign?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 4 only
Consider the following with reference period of Governor General Hardinge in
India.

1. 1st Anglo Sikh war

2. Establishment of Hindu Mahasabha

3. Transfer of capital to Delhi

4. Abolition of female infanticide

How many of the above events occurred during his reign?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 4 only
Explanation:
Lord Hardinge I 1844–48 (Governor General) First Anglo-Sikh War (1845– 46) and
the Treaty of Lahore (1846).

Social reforms including abolition of female infanticide and human sacrifice.

Additional info:

Lord Hardinge II 1910–16 (Viceory)

• Creation of Bengal Presidency (like Bombay and Madras) in 1911.

• Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi (1911).

• Establishment of the Hindu Mahasabha (1915) by Madan Mohan Malaviya.

• Coronation of King George V held in Delhi (1911).

• Hence, option b) is the correct one.

Consider the following with reference to legislation brought by the colonial
government for betterment of labour in India.

1. The Indian factory act of 1881 restricted working hours for children to 9
hours.

2. The Indian Factory Act of 1891 left working hours for men unregulated.

3. The initial demand for labour regulation in India was due to prevention of
competition emerging from utilisation of cheap labour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following with reference to legislation brought by the colonial
government for betterment of labour in India.

1. The Indian factory act of 1881 restricted working hours for children to 9
hours.

2. The Indian Factory Act of 1891 left working hours for men unregulated.

3. The initial demand for labour regulation in India was due to prevention of
competition emerging from utilisation of cheap labour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Labour Legislations :

• As in the early stages of industrial revolution in Europe, the

working conditions in factories and plantations in the 19th century India
were miserable. Working hours were long— for women and children as well
as for men—and wages were low.

• In overcrowded, poorly ventilated and poorly lighted working places,

the safety measures were practically non-existent.

• Ironically, the first-ever demand for regulation of the condition of workers in

factories in India came from the Lancashire textile capitalist lobby.

Apprehending the emergence of a competitive rival in the Indian

textile industry under conditions of cheap and unregulated labour,
they demanded the appointment of a commission for investigation
into factory conditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Explanation:
Factory Act:

• The first commission was appointed in 1875, although the first Factory
Act was not passed before 1881.

• The Indian Factory Act, 1881 dealt primarily with the problem of child labour
(between 7 and 12 years of age). Its significant provisions were:

• Employment of children under 7 years of age prohibited;

• Working hours restricted to 9 hours per day for children;

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Children to get four holidays in a month; and hazardous machinery to be

properly fenced off.
Explanation:
The Indian Factory Act, 1891

• increased the minimum age (from 7 to 9 years) and the maximum (from 12
to 14 years) for children;

• reduced maximum working hours for children to 7 hours a day;

• fixed maximum working hours for women at 11 hours per day with an one-
and-a-half hour interval (working hours for men were left
unregulated); Hence, statement 2 is correct. and provided a weekly holiday
for all.

• But these laws did not apply to British-owned tea and coffee plantations
where the labour was exploited ruthlessly and treated like slaves. The
government helped these planters by passing laws such as those which made
it virtually impossible for a labourer to refuse to work once a contract was
entered into. A breach of contract was a criminal offence, with a planter
having the right to get the defaulting labourer arrested.
Major recommendations by the Hunter Commission of 1882 resulted in
changes in the education system of British India.

1. Preference was given to literate candidates for government jobs in the lower
levels

2. District and municipal boards were entrusted with the management of

primary education under the Local Self Government Act.

3. The funds for rural and urban areas were combined.

4. Secondary schools were to be established by private parties with funds

provided by the government.

How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. All four
Major recommendations by the Hunter Commission of 1882 resulted in
changes in the education system of British India.

1. Preference was given to literate candidates for government jobs in the lower
levels

2. District and municipal boards were entrusted with the management of

primary education under the Local Self Government Act.

3. The funds for rural and urban areas were combined.

4. Secondary schools were to be established by private parties with funds

provided by the government.

How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. All four
Explanation:
• The Hunter Commission of 1882 was a landmark initiative in the history of
education in colonial India. Formally known as the Indian Education
Commission, it was chaired by Sir William Wilson Hunter, a member of the
Viceroy’s Executive Council. The commission was tasked with examining the
state of primary and secondary education and suggesting measures for its
improvement.

• Statement 1 is correct: Preference was given to literate candidates for

government jobs in the lower levels, along with expansion of primary schools
in backward districts.

• Statement 2 is correct: District and municipal boards were entrusted with the
management of primary education under the Local Self Government Act.
Explanation:
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The funds were separated for rural and urban areas
to avoid funds earmarked for rural schools being misappropriated by urban
schools.

• Statement 4 is correct: Secondary schools were to be established by private

parties with funds provided by the government. Model schools fully run by
the government were to be opened in each district to guide such private
schools. Secondary school curriculum was also revised with academic and
vocational courses diversified into different branches. Missionary schools
were discouraged, and Indian participation in the private school system was
solicited by the raj. Special care was supposed to be taken in advancing the
education of girls and women.
Explanation:
Additional Information:

Key Recommendations of Hunter Commission, 1882

1. Primary Education:

● Focus on Rural Areas: The commission emphasized the need to expand

primary education in rural areas to benefit the masses.

● Vernacular Medium: Primary education should be imparted in vernacular

languages, ensuring accessibility to local populations.

● Provincial Responsibility: Provinces should take the responsibility for

primary education, encouraging local governance.

● Missionary Role: Missionary organizations were encouraged to establish

schools, particularly in underserved areas.
Explanation:
2. Secondary Education:

● Secondary education should aim to provide literary, scientific, and practical

knowledge.

● Curriculum was to be diversified to cater to vocational training and practical

subjects.

3. Higher Education:

● Although the focus of the commission was on primary and secondary

education, it emphasized the need to improve access to higher education
through better funding and infrastructure.
Explanation:
4. Women’s Education:

● Special attention was paid to promoting female education.

● The commission recommended incentives like scholarships and fee waivers for
girls to encourage their enrollment.

5. Indigenous Schools:

● Recognized the importance of indigenous schools and recommended their

integration into the formal system.

● Financial assistance and training for indigenous teachers were proposed.

6. Role of Local Bodies:

● Advocated greater involvement of local bodies like municipalities and district

boards in the management and funding of primary education.
Explanation:
7. Teacher Training:

● Suggested establishment of teacher training institutes to improve the quality

of teaching at all levels.

8. Funding and Administration:

● Recommended increased government spending on education, with provinces

granted autonomy in administering education policies.
Consider the following statements about Tauhid-i-Ilahi:

1. It was mainly based on Islamic principles, incorporating Sufism and Sharia.

2. The order lacked formal scriptures and rituals.

3. Birbal, one of Akbar’s Navaratnas, was a key member.

4. Tauhid-i-Ilahi was widely accepted among Akbar’s subjects, including the

public.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None of the above

Consider the following statements about Tauhid-i-Ilahi:

1. It was mainly based on Islamic principles, incorporating Sufism and Sharia.

2. The order lacked formal scriptures and rituals.

3. Birbal, one of Akbar’s Navaratnas, was a key member.

4. Tauhid-i-Ilahi was widely accepted among Akbar’s subjects, including the

public.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None of the above

Explanation:
• Tauhid-i-Ilahi (or Din-i-Ilahi) was not primarily based on Islamic tenets,
Sufism, or Sharia law. Instead, it was a syncretic religious and ethical
philosophy that incorporated elements from various faiths, including
Hinduism, Jainism, Christianity, and Zoroastrianism. Akbar's intent was to
promote harmony among different religions rather than strictly following
Islamic principles. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Tauhid-i-Ilahi was more of an ethical system than a formal religion. It did not
have scriptures or specific rituals for worship, unlike other established
religions. The order was primarily concerned with promoting moral behavior,
personal loyalty to Akbar, and religious tolerance rather than prescribing a
formal set of beliefs or practices. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
• Birbal, one of Akbar’s most trusted advisors and a prominent figure in his
court (part of the Navaratnas or Nine Gems), was indeed a key member of
Tauhid-i-Ilahi. His membership highlights the inclusivity of the order, which
welcomed people from different faiths who were loyal to Akbar. Hence,
Statement 3 is correct.

• Tauhid-i-Ilahi did not gain widespread popularity among Akbar’s subjects. It

was a highly exclusive order, limited to Akbar's close circle of courtiers and
officials. The general public had little to no involvement in the order, and it
never became a mass movement. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.
With reference to ziyarat in Sufism, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to the practice of pilgrimage to the dargah of the Sufi saint on his
death anniversary.

2. Qawwals to elicit divine ecstasy, is a significant aspect of ziyarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to ziyarat in Sufism, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to the practice of pilgrimage to the dargah of the Sufi saint on his
death anniversary.

2. Qawwals to elicit divine ecstasy, is a significant aspect of ziyarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Ziyarat (meaning “visitation”) is a term in Sufism that refers to the practice of
visiting the tomb or shrine (dargah) of a Sufi saint, particularly on significant
occasions like the saint's death anniversary (Urs).

• The term "Urs" means "wedding" in Arabic and symbolizes the saint's union
with God upon their death. This practice is marked by devotional gatherings,
prayers, and music (qawwalis).

• It is considered a way of seeking spiritual blessings (baraka) and forming a

connection with the saint's divine energy.

• Ziyarat has deep roots in the Sufi tradition and holds immense cultural and
spiritual significance in India.
Explanation:
• Examples:

o The Ajmer Sharif Dargah of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti attracts thousands of

devotees during his Urs.

o The dargah of Nizamuddin Auliya in Delhi sees similar pilgrimages.

• Thus, statement 1 is correct.

• Qawwali, a devotional form of Sufi music, is an essential part of ziyarat.

o Qawwalis are performed during Urs and other ziyarat events to evoke
spiritual ecstasy (hal) and bring devotees closer to the divine.

o The lyrics of qawwalis often glorify the saint, recount their miracles, and praise
the divine.

o This tradition is deeply rooted in the Chishti order, which emphasized music
as a means of spiritual connection.

• Thus, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, consider the following statements:

1. He was a strong proponent of Nirguna Bhakti.

2. His teachings were primarily based on the philosophy of Vishishthadvaita.

3. 'Siksastakam’, serves as the foundation for Gaudiya Vaishnavism's beliefs and

philosophy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
With reference to Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, consider the following statements:

1. He was a strong proponent of Nirguna Bhakti.

2. His teachings were primarily based on the philosophy of Vishishthadvaita.

3. 'Siksastakam’, serves as the foundation for Gaudiya Vaishnavism's beliefs and

philosophy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534 AD) was a Vaishnava saint and social
reformer, born in Navadvipa, Bengal. He is revered as an incarnation of Lord
Krishna in the Gaudiya Vaishnavism tradition.

• Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a proponent of Saguna Bhakti, particularly

centered around the devotion to Radha-Krishna. Unlike Nirguna Bhakti,
which focuses on the formless divine, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu emphasized the
personal form of Krishna, celebrating his divine play (leelas) and qualities.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Chaitanya Mahaprabhu propounded the Achintya Bheda-Abheda

(Inconceivable oneness and difference) philosophy. This doctrine holds that
Krishna is simultaneously one with and different from his creation and
devotees. Vishishtadvaita, on the other hand, was formulated by Ramanuja,
which speaks of qualified non-dualism (God is the only reality, but individual
souls exist within him in a dependent manner). Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
Explanation:
• Siksastakam is the only known work directly attributed to Chaitanya
Mahaprabhu.

• It consists of eight Sanskrit verses that lay the foundation for Gaudiya
Vaishnavism.

• It emphasizes Nama Sankirtana (chanting of Krishna’s name) as the primary

means of attaining spiritual liberation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional points:

Contributions of Chaitanya to the Bhakti Movement:

• Propagation of the Hare Krishna Mahamantra:

o Popularized the "Hare Krishna, Hare Rama" chanting across India.

o Established Sankirtan (group singing of bhajans and hymns) as a

devotional practice.
Explanation:
• Achintya Bheda-Abheda Philosophy:

o The idea that Krishna is both distinct from and identical to his creation.

o A middle ground between Advaita (non-dualism) and Dvaita (dualism).

• Emphasis on Radha-Krishna Worship:

o Elevated Radha as the supreme devotee and Krishna’s eternal consort.

o Advocated Madhurya Bhakti (divine love) as the highest form of

devotion.

• Spread of Gaudiya Vaishnavism:

o His teachings formed the foundation of Gaudiya Vaishnavism.

o Followers like the Goswamis of Vrindavan compiled his teachings and

spread them across India.
Explanation:
• Role in Bhakti Movement:

o Opposed caste discrimination and promoted spiritual equality.

o Emphasized intense devotion (Bhakti) over rituals and formal

scholarship.

o His movement gained widespread acceptance in Bengal, Odisha, and

parts of North India.

• Final Years in Puri, Odisha:

o Spent his later life in Jagannath Puri, deeply absorbed in devotion.

o His ecstatic bhakti experiences inspired numerous followers.

Consider the following events:

1. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement

2. All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi

3. Passing of the Rowlatt Act

4. Jallianwala Bagh incident

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given
events (earliest to latest)?

A. 1234

B. 3241

C. 3421

D. 2341
Consider the following events:

1. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement

2. All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi

3. Passing of the Rowlatt Act

4. Jallianwala Bagh incident

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given
events (earliest to latest)?

A. 1234

B. 3241

C. 3421

D. 2341
Explanation:
• Passing of the Rowlatt Act (March 1919)

o The British government passed the Rowlatt Act to suppress

revolutionary activities, allowing indefinite detention without trial.

• Jallianwala Bagh Incident (April 13, 1919)

o As a reaction to protests against the Rowlatt Act, General Dyer

ordered firing on an unarmed crowd at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar.

• All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi (November 1919)

o The Khilafat Movement was initiated to protest against the British

treatment of the Ottoman Caliph after World War I. The first All-
India Khilafat Conference was held in Delhi.
Explanation:
• Launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement (August 1, 1920)

o Gandhi initiated the Non-Cooperation Movement as a response to both

the Khilafat issue and the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

• Arranging the Events in Chronological Order

o Rowlatt Act → Jallianwala Bagh Massacre → Khilafat Conference →

Non-Cooperation Movement

o This sequence is represented in option (c) 3421.

Consider the following statements about Harappan Civilization,

1. It provides the earliest evidence of garlic.

2. Ornaments and precious metals have been discovered at different sites.

3. Exclusive use of burnt bricks is a unique feature.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 only

D. 3 only
Consider the following statements about Harappan Civilization,

1. It provides the earliest evidence of garlic.

2. Ornaments and precious metals have been discovered at different sites.

3. Exclusive use of burnt bricks is a unique feature.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 only

D. 3 only
Explanation:
• The earliest evidence of garlic (Allium sativum) in the Indian subcontinent is
found in Balu which dates to the Mature Harappan Period. Balu is a small
archaeological site attributed to the Indus Valley Civilisation, located in the
south of the city of Kaithal in Haryana. Other food items such as wheat,
barley, lentils, mustard, and sesame were also consumed. Thus, statement 1
is correct.

• Harappan civilization had a rich tradition of ornamentation. Both men and

women wore ornaments made of gold, silver, copper, and precious stones,
including necklaces, finger rings, armlets, earrings, bangles, bracelets, girdles,
and anklet. Mohenjo-daro and Harappa have yielded gold and silver
ornaments. Lothal and Dholavira have also shown evidence of beads and
jewellery-making workshops. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
• Harappan civilization is known for its systematic town planning, with grid
patterns, burnt bricks in construction, and underground drainage systems.
And while the Harappans extensively used burnt bricks in their architecture,
it was not exclusive. Additionally, at some Harappan sites, sun-dried bricks
were also used along with burnt bricks. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following statements best distinguishes the Sthanakvasi sect
from the Murtipujakas in Śvetāmbara Jainism?

A. Sthanakvasis reject idol worship and do not have temples, while Murtipujakas
venerate Tirthankara idols in temples.

B. Sthanakvasis reject the authority of the Anga Agamas, while Murtipujakas

consider them canonical.

C. Murtipujakas practice ritual nudity during prayers, while Sthanakvasis wear

white garments.

D. Both sects follow the teachings of Bhadrabahu but differ in their interpretation
of monastic codes.
Which of the following statements best distinguishes the Sthanakvasi sect
from the Murtipujakas in Śvetāmbara Jainism?

A. Sthanakvasis reject idol worship and do not have temples, while

Murtipujakas venerate Tirthankara idols in temples.

B. Sthanakvasis reject the authority of the Anga Agamas, while Murtipujakas

consider them canonical.

C. Murtipujakas practice ritual nudity during prayers, while Sthanakvasis wear

white garments.

D. Both sects follow the teachings of Bhadrabahu but differ in their interpretation
of monastic codes.
Explanation:
Within Śvetāmbara Jainism, the Sthanakvasi and Murtipujaka sects differ
primarily in their approach to idol worship:

• Sthanakvasi Sect: This sect rejects idol worship and does not construct temples.
Instead, Sthanakvasis conduct their religious activities in prayer halls called
"sthanakas."

• Murtipujaka Sect: In contrast, Murtipujakas engage in idol worship, venerating

images of the Tirthankaras within temples.

• Analysis of Other Options:

o Both sects, Sthanakvasi and Murtipujakas are Shvetambara and share core
scriptures. Sthanakvasis accept thirty-two of the Śvetāmbara Agamas,
contending that the scriptures make no mention of idol worship and
temples.
Explanation:
o Neither Sthanakvasis nor Murtipujakas practice ritual nudity; this practice
is associated with the Digambara sect. Both Sthanakvasi and Murtipujaka
monks wear white garments.

o The Sthanakvasi sect originated in the 17th century as a reform

movement within the Lonka sect, emphasizing a return to scriptural
orthodoxy and rejecting idol worship.
Q. Consider the following statements about Bodhisattvas,
1. They were perceived as deeply compassionate beings who accumulated merit
through their efforts.

2. They made an attempt to attain Nibbana.

3. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

How many of the statement/s is/are incorrect?
A. Only one statement

B. Only two Statements

C. All three Statements

D. None of the Above

Q. Consider the following statements about Bodhisattvas,
1. They were perceived as deeply compassionate beings who accumulated merit
through their efforts.

2. They made an attempt to attain Nibbana.

3. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

How many of the statement/s is/are incorrect?
A. Only one statement

B. Only two Statements

C. All three Statements

D. None of the Above

Explanation:
• Bodhisattvas are indeed viewed as compassionate beings in Buddhism who
accumulate merit to aid others on their path to enlightenment. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.

• While Bodhisattvas do strive toward enlightenment (Buddhahood), their

primary focus is not personal liberation (Nibbana) but delaying their own
final attainment to help others. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The concept of Bodhisattvas is central to Mahayana Buddhism, not Hinayana

(Theravada). While Theravada Buddhism does acknowledge the Bodhisattva
path, it places greater emphasis on individual enlightenment. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:

List I (Literary Work) List II (Author)

A. Hammira - Mahakavya 1. Nayachandra Suri
B. Vikramankadeva-charita 2. Bilhana
C. Kiratarjuniyam 3. Bharavi
D. Rajatarangini 4. Kalhana

How many of the above pair/s is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All Four
With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:

List I (Literary Work) List II (Author)

A. Hammira - Mahakavya 1. Nayachandra Suri
B. Vikramankadeva-charita 2. Bilhana
C. Kiratarjuniyam 3. Bharavi
D. Rajatarangini 4. Kalhana

How many of the above pair/s is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All Four
Explanation:
Hammira-Mahakavya

• Author: Nayachandra Suri

• This 15th-century Sanskrit epic poem narrates the life of the 13th-century
Chahamana king, Hammira. It details his ancestry, conquests, and eventual
conflict with Ala-ud-Din Khalji, attributing his defeat to betrayal by his
officers.

Vikramankadeva-Charita

• Author: Bilhana

• This Sanskrit epic poem celebrates the life and achievements of the Western
Chalukya king, Vikramaditya VI. It offers valuable information on the
Chalukya dynasty, their administration, and cultural contributions during the
medieval period.
Explanation:
Kiratarjuniyam

• Author: Bharavi

• An epic poem in 18 cantos, it narrates the encounter between Arjuna and Lord
Shiva, who appears as a Kirata. The work is renowned for its complex
language and poetic device. This work is a classic example of Sanskrit poetry's
sophistication and is often studied for its literary excellence.

Rajatarangini

• Author: Kalhana

• Composed in the 12th century, this historical chronicle consists of

approximately 7,826 verses divided into eight books. It documents the history
of Kashmir's rulers from mythical times up to the author's contemporary
period. Considered one of the earliest works of history in Sanskrit literature, it
provides a detailed account of Kashmir's political, social, and cultural history.
The Bakhshali Manuscript, discovered in 1881 near Peshawar, is significant in
the history of mathematics for which of the following reasons?

A. It contains the earliest known use of the decimal system.

B. It provides the first recorded instance of the symbol for zero as a placeholder.

C. It introduces the concept of negative numbers.

D. It presents the earliest evidence of algebraic equations.

The Bakhshali Manuscript, discovered in 1881 near Peshawar, is significant in
the history of mathematics for which of the following reasons?

A. It contains the earliest known use of the decimal system.

B. It provides the first recorded instance of the symbol for zero as a

placeholder.

C. It introduces the concept of negative numbers.

D. It presents the earliest evidence of algebraic equations.

Explanation:
• The Bakhshali Manuscript is a mathematical text written on 70 leaves of birch
bark, discovered in 1881 in Bakhshali, near Peshawar (modern-day
Pakistan). Written in an earlier form of the Sharada script, the manuscript is
believed to date back to the 3rd or 4th century CE. It is a compilation of
mathematical rules and illustrative examples with their solutions, primarily
devoted to arithmetic and algebra, though it contains a few problems on
geometry and mensuration.

• The Bakhshali Manuscript contains one of the oldest recorded examples of

the symbol for zero, represented as a dot used as a placeholder in the
positional numeral system. This Indian innovation of zero significantly
influenced mathematical progress worldwide.
Explanation:
• While the use of zero as a placeholder was seen in several different ancient
cultures, such as among the ancient Mayans and Babylonians, the symbol in
the Bakhshali manuscript is particularly significant for two reasons. Firstly, it
is this dot that evolved to have a hollow center. Secondly, it was only in India
that this zero developed into a number in its own right, hence creating the
concept and the number zero that we understand today — this happened in
628 CE when the Indian astronomer and mathematician Brahmagupta wrote
a text called Brahmasphutasiddhanta, which is the first document to discuss
zero as a number.
Q. Consider the following pairs:

Tradition State
1. Kharchi Puja Tripura
2. Saga Dawa Sikkim
3. Horn Bill Festival Nagaland
4.Mera Hou Chongba Manipur

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

A. One Only

B. Two Only

C. Three Only

D. All Four
Q. Consider the following pairs:

Tradition State
1. Kharchi Puja Tripura
2. Saga Dawa Sikkim
3. Horn Bill Festival Nagaland
4.Mera Hou Chongba Manipur

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

A. One Only

B. Two Only

C. Three Only

D. All Four
Explanation:
Kharchi Festival (Tripura)

• Worship of 14 deities (Chaturdasha Devta): Shiva, Durga, Vishnu, Laxmi,

Saraswati, Kartik, Ganesha, Brahma, Abadhi, Chandra, Ganga, Agni, Kamdev,
Himadri.

• Celebrated annually on Shukla Ashtami, the 8th day of the lunar

month Ashadha (July/August).

• Main Rituals:

o Dipping idols in the Saidra River.

o Adorning idols with flowers and attires.

o Distributing prasad (offerings).

o Reciting hymns and mantras.

Explanation:
• Cultural Aspects:

o Construction of Chaturdasha Mandapa symbolizing the Tripuri royal

palace using bamboo and thatched roofs.

• Symbolism:

o “Kharchi” means 'sin cleaning'; performed after Goddess Tripura

Sundari’s menstruation period (Ambubachi).

• Participation:

o Celebrated by both tribal and non-tribal communities in Tripura. Hence,

Pair 1 is correct.
Explanation:
Saga Dawa (Sikkim):

• Saga Dawa, also known as Saga Dawa Duchen, is a significant and sacred
month-long festival for Mahayana Buddhists that celebrates the birth,
enlightenment, and parinirvana (death) of Lord Buddha Shakyamuni.

• It is celebrated in the fourth month of the Tibetan lunar calendar, typically in

May or June.

o The festival is considered the most important religious event in Tibet, with
the fifteenth day of the month being particularly special. Hence, Pair 2 is
correct.
Explanation:
Hornbill Festival (Nagaland):

• The Hornbill Festival is an annual festival celebrated in Nagaland, India,

from December 1–10.

• It's known as the "Festival of Festivals" as it showcases the vibrant culture,

language and traditions of the ethnic tribes of the state.

• Named after the hornbill, a revered bird that symbolizes boldness and
grandeur in Naga folklore, the festival embodies the essence of Nagaland's
vibrant culture.

• Conceptualized in the year 2000, this festival aims to promote inter-tribal

interaction and preserve Nagaland's heritage blending the traditional with the
contemporary in a harmonious display of unity.
Explanation:
• The Hornbill festival is held at the picturesque Heritage Village of Kisama.

• The Heritage complex consists of a cluster of seventeen indigenously

designed houses (also called Morung meaning Youth Dormitory), each
representative of a different tribe.

• The village serves as a cultural nucleus, offering insights into the unique
traditions and architecture of each tribe.

• Hence, Pair 3 is correct.

Explanation:
Mera Hou Chongba ( merrymaking in Mera) – is an annual festival observed in
Kangla, Imphal, Manipur in order to strengthen the cordial bond between the
indigenous communities living in hills and valley people.

• It is only a festival wherein both hills and valley indigenous communities

are observed together in the State.

• The day falls on the 15th lunar day of the month of Mera of the Meitei
calendar, which falls in September/October.

• The festival dates back to the era of Nongda Lairen Pakhangba in the first
century C.E.

• The festival serves as a symbolic bridge between the diverse tribes and
communities of Manipur.
Explanation:
• Village chiefs (Khullakpas) and royal palace officials participate in rituals and
cultural exchanges, demonstrating mutual respect and understanding.

• The exchange of gifts between the King and village leaders is a key aspect of
the celebration, symbolizing unity and cooperation.

o Mera Hou Chongba is a powerful reminder of India’s “unity in

diversity” and illustrates how cultural traditions can foster social
harmony. Hence, Pair 4 is correct.
Which of the following statements about the Unionist Party is/are correct?

1. It was a political party representing the interests of landholders in Punjab.

2. It was opposed to the idea of the partition of India as India and Pakistan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following statements about the Unionist Party is/are correct?

1. It was a political party representing the interests of landholders in Punjab.

2. It was opposed to the idea of the partition of India as India and Pakistan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The Unionist Party was formed in 1923 in British Punjab by Sir Chhotu Ram
and Sir Fazl-i-Husain

• The Unionist Party, established in 1923, primarily represented the interests

of the landed gentry and landlords in Punjab, encompassing Muslims,
Hindus, and Sikhs. The party was secular in nature and believed in a strong
and united Punjabi entity, bringing together Muslims, Hindus, Sikhs, and
other communities of the province. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• The Unionist Party, under leaders like Sir Sikandar Hayat Khan and later
Khizar Hayat Tiwana, opposed the partition of India. They advocated for a
united India and were against the division based on religious lines. Tiwana, in
particular, remained opposed to the partition of India until the end, believing
that Muslims, Sikhs, and Hindus of Punjab shared a common culture and
should not be divided. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists:

List-I (Mahamattas) List-II (Function)

A. Anta-mahamatta 1. Women’s welfare
B. Ithijhakha-mahamatta 2. Spread of Dhamma
C. Dhamma-mahamatta 3. Associated with city administration
D. Nagalaviyohalaka-mahamatta 4. In-charge of frontier areas

Code Options:
Option A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists:

List-I (Mahamattas) List-II (Function)

A. Anta-mahamatta 1. Women’s welfare
B. Ithijhakha-mahamatta 2. Spread of Dhamma
C. Dhamma-mahamatta 3. Associated with city administration
D. Nagalaviyohalaka-mahamatta 4. In-charge of frontier areas

Code Options:
Option A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
Answer: C
Correct Matching of Mahamattas with Their Functions:

Mahamattas Function Explanation

A. Anta-mahamatta → 4 In-charge of frontier Anta-mahamattas were appointed to govern
areas the frontier regions, ensuring control over
newly annexed or distant territories.
B. Ithijhakha-mahamatta Women’s welfare Ithijhakha-mahamattas were responsible for
→1 addressing women’s welfare issues, ensuring
the well-being of women and their rights.
C. Dhamma-mahamatta Spread of Dhamma Dhamma-mahamattas were appointed to
→2 propagate Ashoka’s policy of Dhamma (moral
law) and were tasked with promoting non-
violence, compassion, and religious tolerance.
D. Nagalaviyohalaka- Associated with city Nagalaviyohalaka-mahamattas were
mahamatta → 3 administration responsible for civic administration, including
city governance, maintenance, and public
works.
With reference to the writing style of the Indus Valley Script, consider the
following statements:

1. It is generally written from right to left, but some longer texts follow a
Boustrophedon style.

2. The script consists of pictographic signs, including human and animal motifs,
with a distinctive "unicorn" symbol.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to the writing style of the Indus Valley Script, consider the
following statements:

1. It is generally written from right to left, but some longer texts follow a
Boustrophedon style.

2. The script consists of pictographic signs, including human and animal motifs,
with a distinctive "unicorn" symbol.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Indus Valley Script has been found at approximately 60 excavation sites.
Currently, 3500 specimens of this script survive in stamp seals carved in stone,
in moulded terracotta and faience amulets, in fragments of pottery. The
inscriptions discovered are very short, comprising no more than five signs on
the average. This script remains undeciphered till date and deciphering Indus
Valley Script could reveal relationship between Indus Valley Civilization and
later Vedic practices and their interaction with other contemporary
civilizations. It could also establish connections between the languages of the
Indus Valley and contemporary languages from Dravidian and Indo-
European families.

• The Indus script is generally written from right to left, as observed from
many seal inscriptions. Longer texts sometimes follow the Boustrophedon
style, where the direction alternates between lines. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
Explanation:
• The script is partially pictographic, containing human and animal motifs,
including a distinctive "unicorn" symbol. The artistic designs exhibit
"controlled realism", depicting detailed yet stylized forms. Hence, Statement
2 is correct.
Consider the following statements about the Arya Samaj,

1. It was against idol worship.

2. It was opposed to hereditary trans mission of caste.

3. It actively worked for the passage of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Consider the following statements about the Arya Samaj,

1. It was against idol worship.

2. It was opposed to hereditary trans- mission of caste.

3. It actively worked for the passage of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• The Arya Samaj, founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati in 1875,
emphasized a return to the teachings of the Vedas and promoted monotheism.
It firmly opposed idol worship, advocating for a formless conception of God.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• The Arya Samaj rejected the caste system based on birth and advocated for a
class system determined by merit and individual qualities. It opposed
untouchability and promoted social equality. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

• The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act was enacted in 1856, predating the
establishment of the Arya Samaj in 1875. Therefore, the Arya Samaj could
not have actively worked for its passage. However, the Arya Samaj did
advocate for widow remarriage and women's education as part of its social
reform agenda. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
Manigramam and Nanadesi during early medieval India refers to:

A. Clusters of non-revenue paying villages

B. Village-level community groups

C. Guilds of Indian merchants

D. Literary societies in the capital towns

Manigramam and Nanadesi during early medieval India refers to:

A. Clusters of non-revenue paying villages

B. Village-level community groups

C. Guilds of Indian merchants

D. Literary societies in the capital towns

Explanation:
• Manigramam and Nanadesi were prominent merchant guilds during the
early medieval period (8th–14th centuries CE).

• Role:

o Facilitated long-distance trade across South India, Southeast Asia, and the
Indian Ocean region.

o Managed commerce in spices, textiles, and precious stones.

o Acted as self-regulatory bodies, resolving disputes and ensuring trade

ethics.

• Nanadesi (literally "traders of many countries") operated beyond local

territories, while Manigramam was linked to specific merchant
communities.
Consider the following statements regarding Kāśyapa Mātaṅga and
Dharmaratna:

1. They were Indian Buddhist monks traditionally believed to have first

introduced Buddhism to China.

2. Their mission to China was initiated by Emperor Ashoka to spread Buddhism

beyond the Indian subcontinent.

3. They are credited with translating the Sutra of Forty-two Chapters into Chinese,
a text considered a foundational summary of Buddhist principles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Consider the following statements regarding Kāśyapa Mātaṅga and
Dharmaratna:

1. They were Indian Buddhist monks traditionally believed to have first

introduced Buddhism to China.

2. Their mission to China was initiated by Emperor Ashoka to spread Buddhism

beyond the Indian subcontinent.

3. They are credited with translating the Sutra of Forty-two Chapters into Chinese,
a text considered a foundational summary of Buddhist principles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• Kāśyapa Mātaṅga and Dharmaratna are traditionally believed to be the first
Indian Buddhist monks to introduce Buddhism to China during the 1st
century CE. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• Emperor Ashoka, lived in 3rd Century B.C.E, whereas Kasyapa and Matanga
were invited by Emperor Ming in 67 CE. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

• Kasyapa Matanga and Dharmaratna are said to have translated the Sutra of
Forty-two Chapters into Chinese at the White Horse Temple. Kasyapa Matanga
is believed to have written this Sutra to explain the basics of Buddhism.
Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

• Emperor Ming established the White Horse Temple (Baimai Temple) in

Luoyang, the Han capital, in memory of the white horse, on which Kasyapa
and Matanga carried Buddhist texts and images to China. This temple became
China's first Buddhist temple
Match List-I (Craft Form) with List-II (State):

List-I (Craft Form) List-II (State)

A. Channapatna Toys 1. Telangana

B. Etikoppakka Toys 2. Karnataka

C. Kondapalli Toys 3. Andhra Pradesh

D. Thanjavur Dolls 4. Tamil Nadu

How many pair/s is/are correctly matched?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. None
Match List-I (Craft Form) with List-II (State):

List-I (Craft Form) List-II (State)

A. Channapatna Toys 1. Telangana

B. Etikoppakka Toys 2. Karnataka

C. Kondapalli Toys 3. Andhra Pradesh

D. Thanjavur Dolls 4. Tamil Nadu

How many pair/s is/are correctly matched?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. None
Toy Name State Features & Crafting Process Recognition & Significance
Channapatna Karnataka Made using the lac-turnery Geographical Indication
Toys technique, where wood is (GI) tag in 2005.
Pair 1 is incorrect.
shaped on a lathe and
Supported by the
coated with natural dyes.
Karnataka Handicrafts
Uses Aale Mara (Wrightia Development Corporation
tinctoria) wood. (KHDC).

Brightly coloured and Encouraged under the

polished with natural resin. "Vocal for Local" and
"Make in India" initiatives.
Toy Name State Features & Crafting Process Recognition & Significance
Etikoppakka Toys Andhra Pradesh From Ankudu (Wrightia Promoted under
tinctoria) wood, known for its sustainable and eco-
Pair 2 is incorrect.
soft texture. friendly handicrafts. -
Recognized as a "Green
Uses natural dyes derived
Product", avoiding harmful
from seeds, bark, and roots.
chemicals.
Crafted using lacquer turning
Gained recognition through
technique.
Khadi and Village
Industries Commission
(KVIC).

Geographical Indication
(GI) tag in 2017.
Toy Name State Features & Crafting Process Recognition & Significance
Kondapalli Toys Andhra Pradesh Made from softwood called Recognized by the Indian
Tella Poniki, found in government under ODOP
Pair 3 is correct.
Kondapalli village. (One District One Product)
scheme.
Themes include mythology
(Dasavatar, Krishna Leela), Major export product, found
village life, and animals. in handicraft fairs.

Crafted by the Aryakhastriya Used in Bommala Koluvu

community, who migrated (Telugu traditional festival
from Rajasthan centuries display).
ago.
Geographical Indication
(GI) tag in 2006.
Toy Name State Features & Crafting Process Recognition & Significance
Thanjavur Dolls Tamil Nadu Known for their unique Associated with royal
oscillation mechanism, giving patronage from the
Pair 4 is correct.
a "bobblehead" effect. Thanjavur Nayakas.

Made using paper mache, Used in Navaratri Golu

clay, and wood. festival displays.

The lower part of the doll is A part of Tamil Nadu's

weighted to maintain cultural identity in
balance, allowing movement. handicrafts.

Geographical Indication
(GI) tag in 2009.
Q. With reference to Buddhism, the terms Pattidāna and Pariṇāmanā refer to:
A. The meditation techniques for achieving Nirvana.

B. The offering of alms and donations to Buddhist monks.

C. The study of Buddhist scriptures to gain spiritual knowledge.

D. The practice of transferring merit and spiritual progress

Q. With reference to Buddhism, the terms Pattidāna and Pariṇāmanā refer to:
A. The meditation techniques for achieving Nirvana.

B. The offering of alms and donations to Buddhist monks.

C. The study of Buddhist scriptures to gain spiritual knowledge.

D. The practice of transferring merit and spiritual progress

Explanation:
• In Buddhism, Pattidāna and Pariṇāmanā involve the altruistic practices of
transferring merit from one's good deeds to benefit others and dedicating
spiritual progress towards the enlightenment and welfare of all beings.

• This reflects the deep-rooted values of compassion and selflessness in

Buddhist philosophy, aiming to assist others on their spiritual journeys.
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

1. Asami —Peasant

2. Sharb — Irrigation Tax

3. Vetti— A type of tax

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

1. Asami —Peasant

2. Sharb — Irrigation Tax

3. Vetti— A type of tax

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• Asami — Peasant

o The term "Asami" refers to peasants or tenants in the historical context of India.

o This term was commonly used in medieval and early modern India to denote
cultivators or small landholders. Hence, Pair 1 is Correct.

• Sharb — Irrigation Tax

o The term "Sharb" refers to a water or irrigation tax levied in medieval India.

o This tax was imposed to fund the maintenance of irrigation facilities like
canals and wells.

o The practice of collecting water tax was prevalent under various rulers,
including the Delhi Sultanate and Mughal administration. It was introduced by
Feroz Shah Tughlaq. Hence, Pair 2 is Correct.
Explanation:
• Vetti — A type of tax

o "Vetti" was a type of forced labor tax (corvée labor) in South India,
especially during the Chola and Vijayanagar periods.

o It was a system where peasants and lower-class individuals were required

to work for the state or local rulers without wages.

o In broader terms, it was a form of tax or obligation in labor rather than

cash or produce. Hence, Pair 3 is Correct.
Which one of the following works was composed by Krishnadevaraya on
statecraft in Telugu?

A. Amuktamalyada

B. Jambavati Kalyanam

C. Rayavachakamu

D. Satyavadu Parinaya
Which one of the following works was composed by Krishnadevaraya on
statecraft in Telugu?

A. Amuktamalyada

B. Jambavati Kalyanam

C. Rayavachakamu

D. Satyavadu Parinaya
Explanation:
Krishnadeva Raya of the Tuluva dynasty was one of the most famous rulers of the

Vijayanagar Empire.

• Krishnadeva Raya was a great scholar, and he himself authored a Telugu

work, Amuktamalyada and Sanskrit works, Satyavadu Parinaya, Jambavati
Kalyanam, and Ushaparinayam.

• Amuktamalyada, written around 1517 CE, it narrates the story of Andal, a

Tamil saint devoted to Lord Vishnu. The text blends themes of devotion,
statecraft, and governance, offering insights into justice, diplomacy, and
welfare. Known for its poetic excellence, Amuktamalyada emphasizes that a
king's duty is to ensure his people's well-being. It highlights
Krishnadevaraya's patronage of literature and stands as a key text in Telugu
cultural heritage.

• Krishna Deva Raya earned the title of "Andhra Bhoj “and “Kannada Rajya
Rama Ramana" for his scholarly work and efficient governance.
Consider the statements about Shivaji’s administration, ( Medieval Indian
History, Medium)
1. Shivaji created the “Ashtapradhan System” to lay the foundation of a sound
administration.
2. His revenue system was based on Malik Ambar of Ahmednagar.
3. Land revenue was assigned to big officials and military commanders in lieu of
their salaries.
4. Shivaji reduced the powers of existing Deshmukhs and Kulkarnis and
appointed his own revenue officials called Karkuns.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. Only one statement
b. Only two Statements
c. Only three Statements
d. All of the Above
Consider the statements about Shivaji’s administration, ( Medieval Indian
History, Medium)
1. Shivaji created the “Ashtapradhan System” to lay the foundation of a sound
administration.
2. His revenue system was based on Malik Ambar of Ahmednagar.
3. Land revenue was assigned to big officials and military commanders in lieu of
their salaries.
4. Shivaji reduced the powers of existing Deshmukhs and Kulkarnis and
appointed his own revenue officials called Karkuns.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. Only one statement
b. Only two Statements
c. Only three Statements
d. All of the Above
Explanation:
• The Maratha administration was essentially derived from Deccan Sultanate, with
some influence from the Mughal structure. The institution of the ashtapradhan
was not a creation of Shivaji, and it already existed in the Deccan administration.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

• It was a centralised monarchy in which the king was at the helm of affairs.

• The king’s chief objective was the happiness and prosperity of his subjects (Raja
Kalsya Karanam)

• The king was assisted by a council of ministers known as Ashtapradhan.

• Peshwa (Prime Minister): He was the head of both civil and military affairs.

• Amatya/Mazumdar (auditor): He looked into the income and expenditure of the

state.
Explanation:
• Waqia Navis: He was in charge of intelligence.

• Dabir/Sumanta: Foreign secretary.

• Surnavis/Sachiv (superintendent): He used to take care of all the official

correspondences.

• Pandit Rao: Charities and religious administration.

• Senapati/ Sar – i- Naubat: Commander in chief of armed forces.

• Nyayadhish: Chief Justice

• Maratha’s revenue administration was adopted from Malik Ambar’s model. The
land was measured by using the measuring rod, called kathi. The Jagirdari
system was abolished in many areas, and the Ryotwari system was introduced.
Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were two taxes introduced by Shivaji. These were
collected in the neighbouring areas of the Maratha kingdom. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
Explanation:
• Under Shivaji, the officials were directly paid from the exchequer, and no jagir
was granted to any civil or military official. It is only under the Saranjami System
introduced by Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath that land revenue was assigned in lieu
of services to big officials and military commanders and later on, their position
too was made hereditary. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Shivaji reduced the powers of existing Deshmukhs and Kulkarnis and appointed
his own revenue officials called Karkuns. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following pairs of terms related to Buddhism:

Term Meaning
Uposatha A Buddhist day of observance for cleansing
the mind and renewing moral vows.

Patimokkha The rules of Sangha

Nirvana The ultimate state of liberation from suffering
and the cycle of rebirth.

Arhat The perfect being

How many of the pair/s is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All Four
Consider the following pairs of terms related to Buddhism:

Term Meaning
Uposatha A Buddhist day of observance for cleansing the
mind and renewing moral vows.

Patimokkha The rules of Sangha

Nirvana The ultimate state of liberation from suffering
and the cycle of rebirth.
Arhat The perfect being

How many of the pair/s is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All Four
Explanation:
• Uposatha - "Uposatha" refers to a day of observance, particularly on the full
moon and new moon, where lay and monastic practitioners intensify their
spiritual practice through meditation, precept observance, and communal
gatherings. Hence, Pair 1 is correct.

• Patimokkha - Patimokkha is a set of monastic rules in Buddhism, specifically

within the Theravada tradition, that govern the conduct of monks and nuns.
It consists of 227 rules for monks and 311 for nuns, and these rules are recited
during the Uposatha ceremony, which occurs on full moon and new moon
days.The Patimokkha is part of the Vinaya Pitaka, one of the three main
sections of the Pali Canon, and it plays a crucial role in maintaining discipline
and harmony within the monastic community. Hence, Pair 2 is correct.

• The term Patimokkha is often translated as "that which is binding" or "the

rules of the Sangha". It includes various categories of rules, such as the
Parajikas, which are the most serious offenses leading to expulsion from the
monastic order.
Explanation:
• Nirvana – Nirvana means the shedding of all desires and ending of
sufferings, which finally leads to freedom from rebirth.

• Mahaparinirvana is a term in Buddhism that refers to the ultimate state of

enlightenment and liberation from the cycle of birth and death, specifically
associated with the death of a Buddha. It is often translated as "Great
Nirvana" or "Final Nirvana." This state signifies the complete cessation of
suffering and the end of the cycle of rebirth (samsara) for an enlightened
being. Hence, Pair 3 is not correct.

• Arhat - Arhat, in Buddhism, a perfected person, one who has gained insight
into the true nature of existence and has achieved nirvana (spiritual
enlightenment). The arhat, having freed himself from the bonds of desire,
will not be reborn. Hence, Pair 4 is correct.
 Match the following:

List-I (Person) List-II (Associated in Formation of)

A. G.K. Gokhale 1. Servants of Indian Society
B. M.M. Malaviya 2. Banaras Hindu University
C. V.D Savarkar 3. Free India Society
D. Aurobindo Ghosh 4. Anushilan Samiti

How many of the pair/s is/are not correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Match the following:

List-I (Person) List-II (Associated in Formation of)

A. G.K. Gokhale 1. Servants of Indian Society
B. M.M. Malaviya 2. Banaras Hindu University
C. V.D Savarkar 3. Free India Society
D. Aurobindo Ghosh 4. Anushilan Samiti

How many of the pair/s is/are not correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
• The ‘Servants of India Society' was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale at
Fergusson hill on June 12, 1905, in the Pune district of Maharashtra. Gokhale
founded the society along with three of his friends- Natesh Appaji Dravid, Gopal
Krishna Deodhar, and Anant Vinayak Patwardhan, all of whom became lifelong
members of the society.

• The Society was founded out of the belief that if the masses were to be liberated,
there should be a band of selfless and intelligent workers who would dedicate their
lives to the service of the nation. Its volunteers were trained to be nationalist
missionaries who took vows of renunciation, gave up all ideas of selfishness, pride,
and fame, and dedicated themselves to their work and duty. The society focused on
nation-building activities such as education, social welfare, upliftment of the
downtrodden, and betterment of the underprivileged sections of society. Their
activities were not restricted to economic or political spheres only, rather addressed
a wide range of social issues too.

Hence, Pair 1 is correct.

Explanation:
• Banaras Hindu University (BHU), was established in 1916 by the great nationalist
leader, Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya with cooperation of great personalities like
Dr Annie Besant, who viewed it as the University of India. The university became a
beacon of knowledge, culture, and patriotism during the tumultuous years of
India's struggle for freedom and has grown into a prestigious seat of learning,
blending traditional wisdom with modern education.

Hence, Pair 2 is correct.

Explanation:
• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, inspired by the Italian nationalist Giuseppe
Mazzini, established the Free India Society in 1906 when he went to London to
become a barrister. It was a youth organization of Indian students dedicated to
achieving India's independence from British rule. Hence, Pair 3 is correct.

• The Anushilan Samiti traces its history back to 1902 when it was established by
Satish Chandra Bose and Barrister Praanath Mitra in present-day Kolkata. It was
a prominent organization during India's freedom struggle and was known for its
revolutionary zeal and patriotic fervour. Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Sri Aurobindo
Ghosh and Jatindranath Banerjee were other prominent members. Hence, Pair 4
is correct.
Which of the following statements about Annie Besant are correct?

1. She founded the Central Hindu College at Benaras.

2. She organised the Home Rule League.

3. She introduced the Theosophical Movement in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3
Which of the following statements about Annie Besant are correct?

1. She founded the Central Hindu College at Benaras.

2. She organised the Home Rule League.

3. She introduced the Theosophical Movement in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3
Explanation:
• Annie Besant founded the Central Hindu College in 1898 at Benaras
(Varanasi) to promote Vedic education along with modern Western
education.

• The college later became the foundation for the establishment of Banaras
Hindu University (BHU) by Madan Mohan Malaviya in 1916.

• Annie Besant wanted to integrate Indian spiritual values with modern

education through this institution. Statement 1 is correct.

• Annie Besant was instrumental in launching the Home Rule Movement in

1916, modelled after the Irish Home Rule Movement.

• She established the All India Home Rule League with the objective of
securing self-governance (Swaraj) for India within the British Empire.
Explanation:
Two branches of the Home Rule League:

• Annie Besant's League – Based in Madras (now Chennai), focused on the

southern and eastern parts of India.

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak's League – Based in Maharashtra, focused on western

and central India.

• The movement attracted wide participation from educated Indians, including

leaders like:

o Jawaharlal Nehru (inspired to join the freedom struggle)

o Muhammad Ali Jinnah

o S. Subramania Iyer

o B.P. Wadia

• Statement 2 is correct.
Explanation:
• The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 by Madame
Blavatsky and Henry Steel Olcott.

• Annie Besant joined the Theosophical Society in 1889 and became its president
in 1907 after the death of Blavatsky.

• Although Annie Besant popularized the Theosophical Movement in India and

spread its influence, she did not introduce it—it was introduced by Henry
Steel Olcott and Madame Blavatsky in 1879 at Adyar, Madras (now
Chennai).

• Statement 3 is not correct.

Which of the following describes the power structure established by Lord
Clive's 'dual administration’:

A. Company will look after fiscal matters and all the rest would be dealt by the
Indian rulers.

B. Indian rulers will deal with all the matters of administration under the
supervision of a company official.

C. The Company controlled revenue collection and military affairs, while the
Nawab retained authority over justice and local administration.

D. Indian rulers will be only titular heads and all the powers shall be directly
dealt by the company
Which of the following describes the power structure established by Lord
Clive's 'dual administration’:

A. Company will look after fiscal matters and all the rest would be dealt by the
Indian rulers.

B. Indian rulers will deal with all the matters of administration under the
supervision of a company official.

C. The Company controlled revenue collection and military affairs, while the
Nawab retained authority over justice and local administration.

D. Indian rulers will be only titular heads and all the powers shall be directly
dealt by the company
Explanation:
The Dual Administration system was introduced by Robert Clive in 1765 after
the Treaty of Allahabad, signed after the British East India Company’s victory
in the Battle of Buxar (1764). This system divided the administration of Bengal
into two parts:

• Diwani: The British East India Company was responsible for revenue
collection.

• Nizamat: The Nawab of Bengal retained nominal authority over law and
order, including judicial and police functions
Explanation:
Why Was This System Introduced?

• To avoid direct involvement in governance, which would have made the

Company accountable for administrative failures.

• To extract revenue while avoiding political responsibility for the welfare of

the people.

• The Company could profit from the economic resources of Bengal while using
the Nawab as a political figurehead.
Consider the following events in the history of India:

1. Pirpur Report

2. Formation of All India Congress Socialist Party

3. Haripura Session of Indian National Congress

4. Formation of All India Kisan Sabha

What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the
earliest time?

A. 2 - 4 - 1– 3

B. 1– 2 – 4 - 3

C. 2 - 1 – 4 – 3

D. 2 - 4 - 3 - 1
Consider the following events in the history of India:

1. Pirpur Report

2. Formation of All India Congress Socialist Party

3. Haripura Session of Indian National Congress

4. Formation of All India Kisan Sabha

What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the
earliest time?

A. 2 - 4 - 1– 3

B. 1– 2 – 4 - 3

C. 2 - 1 – 4 – 3

D. 2 - 4 - 3 - 1
Explanation:
All India Congress Socialist Party

• All India Congress Socialist Party was a socialist group within the Indian
National Congress

• (INC).

• It was founded in Oct, 1934 at Bombay by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya

Narendra Dev and Masani.

• Masani and Narayan were appointed as president and joint secretaries of the
party.

• Jayaprakash Narayan's book: Why socialism? — the relevance of socialism in

India.

• Ram Manohar Lohia published a Journal: Congress socialist.

Explanation:
The ideology of CSP:

• They believed in Marxist Ideas, Gandhism, Liberal, and Social democracy of

the west.

• They owe allegiance to Indian National Congress (INC)

• Goals: Nationalism and Independence,

• They joined hands with the Bourgeois or Middle class along with Bringing in
workers and peasants to create a broad base for Congress.

• Demands: Abolition of capitalism, the zamindari system, and princely states.

• Incorporate radical socio-economic measures for the upliftment of distressed

people into the Congress work program.
Explanation:
Formation of All India Kisan Sabha

• The All India Kisan Sabha was established in April 1936 in Lucknow, with
Swami Sahjanand Saraswati serving as the president and N.G. Ranga as the
general secretary.

• The organization issued a Kisan manifesto and launched a periodical under

the guidance of Indulal Yagnik.

• In 1936, both the All India Kisan Sabha and the Indian National Congress held
a joint meeting in Faizpur.

• The agenda of the All India Kisan Sabha had a significant influence on the
Congress manifesto, particularly regarding agrarian policies, for the provincial
elections in 1937.
Explanation:
All India Kisan Sabha – Objectives

• Initially, the Kisan Sabhas aimed to promote understanding between peasants

and landlords. However, due to the obstinate and oppressive attitude of the
landlords, the Kisan Sabhas were compelled to adopt a militant approach.

• They also continued to propagate nationalist ideology among the peasants in

support of the Congress’ political agenda.

• The primary goals of the All India Kisan Sabha were to abolish landlordism,
provide free land to agricultural and rural laborers, improve the standard of
living for rural masses, and put an end to the exploitation of agricultural and
rural labourers.
Explanation:
All India Kisan Sabha – Outcome

• As time passed, the All India Kisan Sabha became increasingly dominated by
Socialists and Communists, distancing itself from the Indian National
Congress.

• During the Congress’s Haripura session in February 1938, members of the

Congress were prohibited from joining the Kisan Sabhas.

• When peasant movements faced severe repression in the Princely States,

Congress leaders refrained from intervening.

• By May 1942, the Communist Party of India (CPI) had gained control of the All
India Kisan Sabha in all Indian states, including Bengal.

• The organization aligned with the Communist Party’s People’s War stance and
did not actively participate in the Quit India Movement that began in August
1942, despite the potential loss of its popular support base.
Explanation:
Haripura Session of Congress

• The Indian National Congress met at Haripura from February 19 to 22,

1938, under the presidency of Subhas Chandra Bose.

• Subhas Chandra Bose - President Haripura.

• The session passed a resolution declaring that Congress would provide

moral support to those protesting the governance of the princely states.

National Planning Committee was set up under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal

Nehru.
Explanation:
Pirpur Report

• In March 1938, the Muslim League appointed what is known as the Pirpur
committee to inquire into Muslim grievances in the Congress-ruled provinces.

• The Committee in it’s report published in December, 1938 accused these

provincial governments of anti-Muslim and pro-Hindu bias.

• The report was used to strengthen the demand for Pakistan on the plea that
Muslims couldn’t get a fair deal in an independent India, likely to be ruled by
a Hindu-dominated Congress.

• Hence, 2 - 4 - 3 – 1 is the correct sequence of given events.

Q. Consider the following statements about the Tebhaga movement:
1. The Tebhaga movement was led by the sharecroppers of the Bengal region.

2. Share-croppers were demanding two thirds of the produce from the land.

3. The Floud Commission was set up to look into the demands of this
movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements about the Tebhaga movement:
1. The Tebhaga movement was led by the sharecroppers of the Bengal region.

2. Share-croppers were demanding two thirds of the produce from the land.

3. The Floud Commission was set up to look into the demands of this
movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• The Tebhaga movement was led by the sharecroppers of the Bengal region in
1946-47 against the Jotedars of the region. They were having huge shares of
land and also exercised control over poor cultivators, local markets, money
lending, etc. In rural villages, they were having more control than the
Zamindars. The sharecroppers (also known as bargadars) were responsible
for the cultivation of large agricultural areas under the jotedars and handed
over half of the crop after the harvest to the jotedars. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
Explanation:
• The share-croppers demand two-third of the produce from the land. There
was huge participation of peasants from rural areas. North Bengal was the
epicenter of the movement. The demands of sharecroppers were incorporated
in the Bengal Bargadars Temporary Regulation Bill. At the request of the
jotedars, the police suppressed the sharecroppers and the movement slowly
disappeared by the end of March 1947.Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The demands were based on the recommendation of the Floud Commission

also known as the Bengal Land Revenue Commission which recommended
two-third share to the bargadars (sharecroppers). Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
Consider the following statements about Permanent Settlement System in
British India,

1. It was introduced with the aim of encouraging investment in land and

improvement of agriculture.

2. The Zamindars benefited hugely from the Permanent Settlement while the
peasants suffered.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Consider the following statements about Permanent Settlement System in
British India,

1. It was introduced with the aim of encouraging investment in land and

improvement of agriculture.

2. The Zamindars benefited hugely from the Permanent Settlement while the
peasants suffered.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Explanation:
• Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement of 1793 in Bengal. It
was introduced with the aim of encouraging investment in land and
improvement of agriculture because company’s rule in Bengal had brought
economic crisis, famine and the company wasn’t secure about even its
revenues. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• Zamindars were recognised as the owners of the land and revenues were
collected by them. They were to pay a fixed amount which was permanent
and would not change in future to the government. The zamindar would stay
the owner as long as he paid the fixed revenue at the said date. Numerous
zamindaris were sold off at auctions organised by the Company.Almost half
of the lands under this settlement were sold between 1794 -1807 due to very
high and uncertain land revenue. Also, it led to
Explanation:
o Oppression and exploitation of cultivators.

o Subinfeudation

o Stagnation in Agriculture and

o Land was reduced to a commodity

• Thus, cultivator and the hereditary Zamindars, both the groups suffered.
The Jotedars gained at the cost of traditional Zamindars. Hence, Statement 2
is not correct.
Assertion (A): The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny of 1946 was the last nail in
the coffin of British rule in India.

Reason (R): The Cabinet Mission was sent in 1946 to discuss India's independence
and transfer of power.

Options:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Assertion (A): The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny of 1946 was the last nail in
the coffin of British rule in India.

Reason (R): The Cabinet Mission was sent in 1946 to discuss India's independence
and transfer of power.

Options:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
• The RIN Mutiny (February 1946) was a significant uprising involving over
20,000 naval ratings, which highlighted British loss of control over the armed
forces — a major threat to colonial stability.

• This mutiny, along with growing political unrest, convinced the British that
retaining power in India was unsustainable.

• The Cabinet Mission (March 1946) followed soon after, tasked with
negotiating India's independence and ensuring a peaceful transfer of power.

• The timing and context strongly indicate that the mutiny was a crucial factor in
accelerating British withdrawal, making the Cabinet Mission's arrival a direct
response to the situation.

• Therefore, both statements are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below:

List I (Literary Work) List II (Author)

A. Duta Ghatotkacha 1. Dandin
B. Mrichchhakatikam 2. Bhasa
C. Kiratarjuniya 3. Shudraka
D. Dashakumaracharita 4. Bharavi

Codes:

A B CD

A. 1 - 3 - 4 – 2

B. 1 - 4 - 3 – 2

C. 2 - 3 - 4 – 1

D. 2 - 4 - 3 – 1
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below:

List I (Literary Work) List II (Author)

A. Duta Ghatotkacha 1. Dandin
B. Mrichchhakatikam 2. Bhasa
C. Kiratarjuniya 3. Shudraka
D. Dashakumaracharita 4. Bharavi

Codes:

A B CD

A. 1 - 3 - 4 – 2

B. 1 - 4 - 3 – 2

C. 2 - 3 - 4 – 1

D. 2 - 4 - 3 – 1
Explanation:
Literary Work Explanation
2 - By Bhasa, a one-act Sanskrit play depicting Ghatotkacha
A. Duta Ghatotkacha delivering Duryodhana’s message to the Pandavas. A prequel to
Bhasa’s play Urubhanga.
3 - Mrichchhakatika, also
spelled Mṛcchakatika, Mṛcchakaṭikā, Mrchchhakatika, Mricchakati
ka, or Mrichchhakatika, meaning "The Little Clay Cart," is a ten-act
Sanskrit drama attributed to Śūdraka , an ancient playwright
possibly from the 5th century CE.

B. Mrichchhakatikam The play is set in the ancient city of Ujjayini during the reign of
King Pālaka, near the end of the Pradyota dynasty.

The play centers on the love story between a noble but

impoverished young Brahmin named Charudatta, and
Vasantasena, a wealthy courtesan (nagarvadhu)

Other Works - Vina-vasavadatta, Padmaprabhritaka.

Explanation:
Literary Work Explanation
4-Kirātārjunīya is an epic poem by the Sanskrit poet Bhāravi,
believed to have been composed in the 6th century CE or earlier.

It narrates the encounter between Arjuna, one of the Pandavas, and

C. Kiratarjuniyam Lord Shiva, who appears in the guise of a kirata (mountain-
dwelling hunter).

Bharavi probably hailed from southern India and flourished

during the reigns of King Durvinita of the Western Ganga
dynasty and King Simhavishnu of the Pallava dynasty.
D. Dashakumaracharita 1-Dandin (Patronised by Narasimhavarman – II of Pallava
Dynasty) wrote the Sanskrit works Kavyadarsa and
Dasakumaracharita.
Consider the following statements about Kanaganahalli archaeological site:

1. It is situated on the bank of Bhima River, in Karnataka.

2. The Maha Stupa, referred to as "Adholoka Maha Chaitya" in Ashokan

inscriptions is found at the site.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Consider the following statements about Kanaganahalli archaeological site:

1. It is situated on the bank of Bhima River, in Karnataka.

2. The Maha Stupa, referred to as "Adholoka Maha Chaitya" in Ashokan

inscriptions is found at the site.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Explanation:
• Kanaganahalli is an important Buddhist site, situated in Kalaburagi district of
Karnataka on the left bank of the river Bhima. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Remains of Mahastupa, referred to as "Adholoka Maha Chaitya" in

Ashokan inscriptions is found at the site. The stupa can be dated between the
1st century BC to 3rd century CE. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Portrait slab sculpture/relief of Mauryan emperor Ashoka with inscription –

‘ Ranyo Ashoka’ written in Brahmi has also been found here.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the UNESCO Memory of the
World Register:

1. The MoW Programme was launched in 1992 to protect documentary heritage

from threats like war and natural disasters.

2. “Rigveda manuscripts” and “Records of the Indian Indentured Labourers” are

among the entries listed in the Register.

3. India’s Rigveda manuscripts, inscribed in 2007, were the first Indian entry on
the International MoW Register.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the UNESCO Memory of the
World Register:

1. The MoW Programme was launched in 1992 to protect documentary heritage

from threats like war and natural disasters.

2. “Rigveda manuscripts” and “Records of the Indian Indentured Labourers” are

among the entries listed in the Register.

3. India’s Rigveda manuscripts, inscribed in 2007, were the first Indian entry on
the International MoW Register.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation:
The world's documentary heritage belongs to all, should be fully preserved and
protected for all and, with due recognition of cultural mores and practicalities,
should be permanently accessible to all without hindrance.

The Memory of the World Programme aims to:

• Facilitate preservation of the world's documentary heritage, particularly in

areas affected by conflict and/or natural disaster.

• Enable universal access to documentary heritage worldwide

• Enhance public awareness about the significant of documentary heritage

among the wider public. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Rigveda Manuscripts: The Rigveda manuscripts from India were inscribed on

the UNESCO MoW International Register in 2007. This is a well-documented
entry, recognized for its cultural and historical significance as one of the oldest
known texts.
Explanation:
• Records of the Indian Indentured Labourers: The “Records of the Indian
Indentured Labourers” are also inscribed on the MoW Register. These records,
documenting the migration and labor of Indian indentured workers during the
19th and early 20th centuries, were added in 2011 as a joint nomination by
several countries, including India, Fiji, Guyana, Suriname, and Trinidad and
Tobago. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Tamil Medical Manuscript Collection, a set of ancient manuscripts written in

Tamil, primarily documenting traditional medical knowledge, including Siddha
medicine, one of the oldest medical systems in the world and

• were inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World International Register

in 1997, making them India’s first entry in the MoW Register, predating the
Rigveda manuscripts (inscribed in 2007). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
In which of these inscriptions is Pulakesin II's military achievement against
Harshavardhana described?

A. Allahabad Pillar inscription

B. Aihole inscription

C. Banskhera inscription

D. Maduban plate inscription

In which of these inscriptions is Pulakesin II's military achievement against
Harshavardhana described?

A. Allahabad Pillar inscription

B. Aihole inscription

C. Banskhera inscription

D. Maduban plate inscription

Explanation:
• Pulakesin II, the greatest ruler of the Chalukya dynasty, ruled from 610–642
CE.

• His military success against Harshavardhana (the Pushyabhuti dynasty ruler)

is described in the Aihole inscription (dated 634 CE).

• The inscription credits Pulakesin II for defeating Harshavardhana’s forces on

the banks of the Narmada River.

Aihole Inscription:

• Written by Pulakesin II’s court poet Ravikirti in Sanskrit.

• It highlights Pulakesin II's conquests, including victories over the Kadambas,

Pallavas, and his decisive defeat of Harshavardhana.

• The inscription is located in the Meguti Temple at Aihole (Karnataka).

Explanation:
Other Inscriptions:

• Allahabad Pillar Inscription → Records Samudragupta's conquests.

• Banskhera Inscription → The Banskhera inscription is written in Sanskrit

language and contains information about the construction of a temple
dedicated to Lord Shiva. The inscription also mentions the names of several
people who were involved in the construction of the temple.
The most significant aspect of the Banskhera inscription is the signature of the
ruler who commissioned the construction of the temple. The signature is
written in a separate panel and is accompanied by the symbol of a bow and
arrow. The inscription reads “Sri Harsha”, which is believed to be the
signature of Harsha, the king of the Harsha Dynasty.

• Maduban Plate Inscription → Refers to Harshavardhana’s genealogy and

achievements.
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period,
which one of the following statements is correct?

A. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the
people.

B. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar region of the
Gupta Empire.

C. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

D. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period,
which one of the following statements is correct?

A. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the
people.

B. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar region of the
Gupta Empire.

C. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

D. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Explanation:
• Vishti was a form of forced labour prevalent during the Gupta period (4th–6th
century CE). It functioned as a state-imposed tax where people were
compelled to work without wages for public projects like infrastructure,
agriculture, or military needs.

• Most of the inscriptions refers to Vishti as more prevalent in the Madhya

Pradesh and

• Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

With reference to the Mesolithic art in India, consider the following
statements:

1. The first discovery of rock paintings was made in India at Bhimbetka by

archaeologist Archibald Carlyle.

2. The Bhimbetka rock shelters in Madhya Pradesh were designated a UNESCO

World Heritage Site in 2003.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
With reference to the Mesolithic art in India, consider the following
statements:

1. The first discovery of rock paintings was made in India at Bhimbetka by

archaeologist Archibald Carlyle.

2. The Bhimbetka rock shelters in Madhya Pradesh were designated a UNESCO

World Heritage Site in 2003.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Explanation:
• The first discovery of rock paintings in India was made in 1867-68 by
archaeologist Archibald Carlyle at Sohagighat, near Mirzapur in the
Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka are in the foothills of the Vindhyan

Mountains on the southern edge of the central Indian plateau. The caves
were discovered in 1957–58 by eminent archaeologist V. S. Wakankar and is
one of the largest repositories of prehistoric art in India. The shelters were
designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 2003. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
Consider the following with reference to 'Bronze casting' as practiced in Indus
Valley Civilization.

1. The 'lost wax' technique involves processes such as drying, melting and
creation of a hollow mould.

2. The Late Harappan Site of Daimabad in Maharashtra has yielded excellent

examples of metal-cast sculptures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Consider the following with reference to 'Bronze casting' as practiced in Indus
Valley Civilization.

1. The 'lost wax' technique involves processes such as drying, melting and
creation of a hollow mould.

2. The Late Harappan Site of Daimabad in Maharashtra has yielded excellent

examples of metal-cast sculptures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 Nor 2
Explanation:
The 'lost wax' technique, also known as cire perdue, is an ancient method of metal
casting used during the Indus Valley Civilization.

Steps Involved:

• Wax Model Creation: A model of the object is made from wax.

• Coating: The wax model is coated with a layer of clay and allowed to dry,
forming a mould.

• Heating: The clay-coated model is heated, causing the wax to melt and flow
out, leaving a hollow cavity.

• Casting: Molten metal (like bronze) is poured into the hollow cavity.

• Cooling: After cooling, the clay mould is broken to reveal the cast object.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Explanation:
• Daimabad, located in Maharashtra, is indeed an archaeological site associated
with the Late Harappan period.

• Four significant bronze sculptures were found here, depicting a chariot, ox,
elephant, and buffalo. These artifacts are known for their excellent
craftsmanship and reflect the lost wax technique. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
Consider the following with reference to "Nehru Report".

1. Dominion status for India.

2. Complete dissociation of state from religion.

3. Separate electorate for Muslims in provinces where they are in a minority.

Which of the above were the recommendations of the report?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following with reference to "Nehru Report".

1. Dominion status for India.

2. Complete dissociation of state from religion.

3. Separate electorate for Muslims in provinces where they are in a minority.

Which of the above were the recommendations of the report?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Nehru Report 1928 was a constitutional proposal drafted by a committee under
Motilal Nehru in 1928 to outline India’s future political framework. It was the first
significant attempt by Indians to establish a constitutional framework for the country.

The Nehru Report made important recommendations to reform India’s political

structure. These included:

• Dominion Status: The Nehru Report proposed that India should be granted
Dominion Status as an immediate form of self-government.

o This was a significant shift from the complete independence that some
leaders, including Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose,
demanded.

• Dominion status meant that India would remain part of the British Empire but
have self-governing powers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Explanation:
• Federation of British India and Indian States: The report called for a federal
structure to unite British India and the princely states.

o The Federation would consist of a central government and provincial

governments with adequate powers allocated to each.

• Joint Electorates: A key element of the Nehru Report was the proposal for
joint electorates with reserved seats for minorities, as opposed to the separate
electorates that were in place at the time.

o This was aimed at fostering unity among communities, although it was

met with strong opposition from some groups, especially the Muslims.

o Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Explanation:
• Fundamental Rights: The report included provisions for nineteen
fundamental rights designed to protect individual freedoms and safeguard the
rights of various communities.

o These rights ensured that the Indian government would be based on

democratic principles.

• Bicameral Legislature: At the central level of governance, a bicameral

legislature comprising a Senate (elected for seven years) and a House of
Representatives (elected for five years) was proposed.

o This was intended to create a more balanced representation of the people

at the central level of governance.

• Universal Adult Suffrage: Universal adult suffrage was to be the basis for
elections to the Provincial Councils and the House of Representatives.

o This meant that all adult citizens, regardless of caste, creed, or gender,
would have the right to vote.
Explanation:
• Governor-General’s Role: The Governor-General would be required to act on the
advice of the Executive Council, which would be responsible to the Indian
Parliament.

o This was a step towards limiting the powers of the British representative in
India.

• Formation of Linguistic Provinces: The report recommended the formation of

linguistic provinces based on language groups, allowing people to have political
representation in regions where they spoke the same language.

• Separation of State and Religion: A significant provision was the complete

disassociation of the state from religion, which meant that religion would not
influence government policies or the functioning of the state apparatus. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.

• Protection for Minorities: The Nehru Report also ensured complete protection for
the cultural and religious rights of the Muslim minority. It sought to guarantee that
their interests would be safeguarded in the new political order.
Consider the following statements about Sant Tukaram,

1. He is best known for his Abangas in Marathi.

2. His compositions were compiled into the text known as the “Gatha”.

3. He was contemporary of Maratha Shivaji.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Consider the following statements about Sant Tukaram,

1. He is best known for his Abangas in Marathi.

2. His compositions were compiled into the text known as the “Gatha”.

3. He was contemporary of Maratha Shivaji.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Explanation:
• Sant Tukaram was a prominent Marathi saint and poet of the Bhakti
movement in Maharashtra during the 17th century. He is best known for his
"Abhangas" (devotional poetry), which are written in the Marathi language.
These Abhangas primarily glorify Lord Vithoba (a form of Vishnu) and
express deep devotion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The compositions of Sant Tukaram, primarily his Abhangas, were compiled

into a collection called "Tukaram Gatha" or simply "Gatha". This compilation
remains one of the most revered texts among followers of the Warkari sect and
in Marathi literature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Sant Tukaram lived during the 17th century, and his period overlaps with that
of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. He is believed to have been a contemporary
of Shivaji, as both lived in the same region (Maharashtra) and their timelines
coincide. Tukaram passed away in 1649, while Shivaji was born in 1630 and
became a prominent figure in the latter half of the 17th century. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the Sangam age, Panar and Viraliyar were?

A. Temple guards

B. Bull fighters

C. Singing bards

D. Charity donors
With reference to the Sangam age, Panar and Viraliyar were?

A. Temple guards

B. Bull fighters

C. Singing bards

D. Charity donors
Explanation:
• Both Panar and Viraliyar were recognized as singing bards during the Sangam
period, which spanned from approximately 300 BCE to 300 CE in Tamil Nadu.
They played a significant role in the cultural life of the time, particularly in
royal courts where they performed.

• These bards were skilled in composing and performing folk songs and were
often patrons of the kings and chieftains, who appreciated their artistry. Their
performances included traditional music and dance, contributing to the rich
cultural heritage of the Sangam Age.
Consider the following events:

1. Passage of Indian Universities Act by Curzon.

2. Formation of the National Council of Education.

3. Government announced the annulment of the Partition of Bengal.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above

events?

A. 1-2-3

B. 2-3-1

C. 3-2-1

D. 2-1-3
Consider the following events:

1. Passage of Indian Universities Act by Curzon.

2. Formation of the National Council of Education.

3. Government announced the annulment of the Partition of Bengal.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above

events?

A. 1-2-3

B. 2-3-1

C. 3-2-1

D. 2-1-3
Explanation:
• Universities Act, 1904 was the outcome of deliberations held at the Educational
Conference at Simla in 1901 and the recommendations put forward by the Universities
Commission of 1902.It came into force on 1 September 1904. Indian Universities Act
1904 ensured greater government control over universities, which it described as
factories producing political revolutionaries.

• The National Council of Education- Bengal (or NCE - Bengal) was an organisation
founded by Satish Chandra Mukherjee and other Indian nationalists with Aurobindo
Ghose as principal in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of a
swadeshi industrialization movement.

• When Lord Hardinge assumed charge as Governor-General of India. On the occasion

of visiting His Majesty George V and holding of Darbar at Delhi on 12th December 1911,
the partition of Bengal was cancelled.

• Hence option a) is the correct Answer

Consider the following pairs:

Associations Founder
1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha Mahadev Govind Ranade

2. Indian league Sisir Kumar Ghosh

3. The Madras Mahajan M. Viraraghavachari
Sabha

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

Consider the following pairs:

Associations Founder
1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha Mahadev Govind Ranade

2. Indian league Sisir Kumar Ghosh

3. The Madras Mahajan M. Viraraghavachari
Sabha

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

Explanation:
• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded in 1867
by Mahadev Govind Ranade and others, with the object of serving as a bridge
between the government and the people.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Indian League was started in 1875 by Sisir
Kumar Ghosh with the object of “stimulating the sense of nationalism amongst
the people” and of encouraging political education.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Madras Mahajan Sabha was founded in 1884
by M. Viraraghavachari (also, Veeraraghavachariar), B. Subramania Aiyer, and
P. Ananda- charlu.
Q. With reference to the Kuka Movement, consider the following statements:
1. The Kuka Movement originated as a socio-religious reform movement within
Sikhism in the 19th century.
2. The movement was founded by Guru Ram Singh, who advocated self-rule and
social reforms among the Sikh community.
3. The movement opposed British rule and encouraged Swadeshi principles.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q. With reference to the Kuka Movement, consider the following statements:
1. The Kuka Movement originated as a socio-religious reform movement within
Sikhism in the 19th century.
2. The movement was founded by Guru Ram Singh, who advocated self-rule and
social reforms among the Sikh community.
3. The movement opposed British rule and encouraged Swadeshi principles.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Explanation:
Context: Punjab Chief Minister Bhagwant Mann on January 17 paid tribute at a
function organised at the Namdhari Shaheed Smarak in Malerkotla to mark the
Kuka martyrs’ day.

• The Kuka Movement, also known as the Namdhari Movement, emerged in

Punjab during the mid-19th century.It was primarily a Sikh reform movement
aimed at revitalizing Sikh traditions, purifying religious practices, and resisting
social evils.

• The movement opposed idol worship, caste discrimination, and the influence of
Brahmanical rituals in Sikhism.

• Kukas emphasized strict moral discipline, vegetarianism, and abstinence from

alcohol and drugs.

• The movement gained prominence after the Second Anglo-Sikh War (1849), when
Punjab was annexed by the British, leading to discontent among Sikhs. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
Explanation:
• Guru Ram Singh (1816–1885) was the founder of the Kuka Movement.He
emerged as a reformer after the decline of the Sikh Empire and aimed to restore
Sikh identity through religious purification and political self-reliance.

• He introduced social reforms, such as opposing child marriage, advocating

widow remarriage, and promoting women's rights.

• Guru Ram Singh opposed British rule and envisioned an independent Sikh state,
urging followers to boycott British education, administration, and legal systems.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Kuka Movement was one of the earliest organized resistance movements
against British rule in India, preceding the Swadeshi Movement of the Indian
National Congress (1905).
Explanation:
Guru Ram Singh promoted Swadeshi decades before it became a national
movement, urging people to:

• Boycott British goods (including cloth and salt).

• Refuse government jobs and avoid British courts.

• Rely on indigenous production and self-sufficiency.

Armed Revolts Against the British:

• In 1871, Kukas attacked slaughterhouses in Amritsar and Raikot to protest against

cow slaughter, which was encouraged by the British.

• In 1872, they attacked the Malerkotla Cantonment, leading to brutal British

retaliation.

• On January 17 and 18, 1872, some 66 Namdhari Sikhs, were executed — placed in
front of cannons and blown up — in the town and Guru Ram Singh was arrested
and deported to Burma. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The Phulmoni Das case was instrumental in the passing of which of the
following acts?

A. Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856

B. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929

C. Special Marriage Act, 1954

D. Age of Consent Act, 1891

The Phulmoni Das case was instrumental in the passing of which of the
following acts?

A. Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856

B. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929

C. Special Marriage Act, 1954

D. Age of Consent Act, 1891

Explanation:
• The tragic death of Phulmoni Das in 1890 due to marital rape led to widespread
outrage, resulting in the enactment of the Age of Consent Act, 1891, which
raised the legal age of consent for girls from 10 to 12 years.
Match the following.

Women's organization Founder

1. Bharat Stree Mahamandal Margaret Cousins

2. Ladies Social Conference Ramabai Ranade

3. All India Women’s Conference Sarla Devi

Chaudhurani

Choose the correct answer

A. i, 2-ii, 3-iii

B. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii

C. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i

D. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii

Match the following.

Women's organization Founder

1. Bharat Stree Mahamandal Margaret Cousins

2. Ladies Social Conference Ramabai Ranade

3. All India Women’s Conference Sarla Devi

Chaudhurani

Choose the correct answer

A. i, 2-ii, 3-iii

B. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii

C. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i

D. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii

Explanation:
Women’s Organisations

• In 1910, Sarla Devi Chaudhurani convened the first meeting of the Bharat
Stree Mahamandal in Allahabad. Considered as the first major Indian
women’s organisation set up by a woman, its objectives included promotion of
education for women, abolition of the purdah system, and improvement in the
socio-economic and political status of woman all over India. Sarla Devi
believed that the man working for women’s upliftment lived ‘under the shade
of Manu’.

• Ramabai Ranade founded the Ladies Social Conference (Bharat Mahila

Parishad), under the parent organisation National Social Conference, in 1904 in
Bombay.
Explanation:
• The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), founded by Margaret Cousins
in 1927, was perhaps the first women’s organisation with an egalitarian
approach. Its first conference was held at Ferguson College, Pune. Important
founding members included Maharani Chimnabai Gaekwad, Rani Sahiba of
Sangli, Sarojini Naidu, Kamla Devi Chattopadhyaya, and Lady Dorab Tata. Its
objectives were to work for a society based on principles of social justice,
integrity, equal rights and opportunities; and to secure for every human being,
the essentials of life, not determined by accident of birth or sex but by planned
social distribution.

• Hence, option c is correct.

Explanation:
Additional information:

• Pandita Ramabai Saraswati founded the Arya Mahila Samaj to serve the
cause of women. She pleaded for improvement in the educational syllabus of
Indian women before the English Education Commission, which was referred
to Queen Victoria.

• This resulted in medical education for women which started in Lady Dufferin
College. Later, Ramabai Ranade established a branch of Arya Mahila Samaj in
Bombay.

• In 1925, the National Council of Women in India, a national branch of the

International Council of Women, was formed. Mehribai Tata played a vital
role in its formation and advancement.
Explanation:
• She opined that the purdah system, caste differences, and lack of education
prevented women from working to solve societal problems.

• Other women who held important positions on the executive committee of the
council included Cornelia Sarabji, India’s first lady barrister; Tarabai
Premchand, wife of a wealthy banker; Shaffi Tyabji, a member of one of
Mumbai’s leading Muslim families; and Maharani Sucharu Devi, daughter of
Keshab Chandra Sen.
Consider the following statements regarding the contributions of Sree
Narayana Guru:

1. The SNDP movement advocated for temple entry rights as its primary goal.

2. Sree Narayana Guru founded the Sivagiri Mutt in 1904 as a center for spiritual
and social reform.

3. He opposed caste-based discrimination and allowed the consecration of idols

by non-Brahmins in temples.

4. Narayana Guru’s teachings were rooted in Advaita Vedanta.

How many of the above statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. One Only

B. Two Only

C. Three Only

D. All four
Consider the following statements regarding the contributions of Sree
Narayana Guru:

1. The SNDP movement advocated for temple entry rights as its primary goal.

2. Sree Narayana Guru founded the Sivagiri Mutt in 1904 as a center for spiritual
and social reform.

3. He opposed caste-based discrimination and allowed the consecration of idols

by non-Brahmins in temples.

4. Narayana Guru’s teachings were rooted in Advaita Vedanta.

How many of the above statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. One Only

B. Two Only

C. Three Only

D. All four
Explanation:
• The Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP) movement was founded in
1903 under the Indian Companies Act with Sree Narayana Guru as its
permanent chairman and Kumaran Asan as the general secretary.

• The primary goal of the SNDP was social reform—including access to

education, employment, and social equality for the Ezhava community.

• While SNDP supported broader rights for marginalized communities, it was

NOT focused on temple entry—that objective became central only in later
movements like the Vaikom Satyagraha (1924) and the Guruvayur
Satyagraha (1931–32). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Sree Narayana Guru established the Sivagiri Mutt in 1904 in Varkala (Kerala)
as a place for religious and social reform.
Explanation:
• The Mutt became a center for promoting:

o Education

o Spiritual enlightenment

o Eradication of caste-based discrimination

• The Sivagiri Pilgrimage (Sivagiri Theerthadanam) started in 1928, based on

Guru’s teachings promoting purity, social service, and religious harmony.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Narayana Guru’s Aruvippuram Movement (1888) directly challenged the

Brahmanical monopoly over religious rituals.

• He consecrated a Shiva idol at Aruvippuram, using a stone from the Neyyar

river — an act traditionally restricted to Brahmins.
Explanation:
• By this act, he demonstrated that the right to perform religious rituals was not
restricted to the Brahmanical class.

• He emphasized that religious equality and spiritual access should not be

limited by caste. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Narayana Guru was a major proponent of Advaita Vedanta (Non-Dualism), a

philosophy introduced by Adi Shankaracharya.

• Unlike Shankaracharya, who emphasized spiritual realization and

detachment, Narayana Guru adapted Advaita to emphasize social equality
and justice. He modified Advaita Vedanta to integrate social and moral
upliftment with spiritual awakening.

• His teachings centered around the concept: One Caste, One Religion, One
God for All. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following with reference to the Second phase of civil disobedience
movement.

1. The failure of the second round table conference resulted in the second phase.

2. The British response was to usher in 'Martial Law'.

3. Gandhiji decided to withdraw the movement in 1934.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following with reference to the Second phase of civil disobedience
movement.

1. The failure of the second round table conference resulted in the second phase.

2. The British response was to usher in 'Martial Law'.

3. Gandhiji decided to withdraw the movement in 1934.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• On the failure of the second Round Table Conference, the Congress Working
Committee decided on December 29, 1931 to resume the civil disobedience
movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The higher British officials had drawn their own lessons from the Delhi Pact
which they thought had raised the political prestige of the Congress and the
political morale of the people and had undermined British prestige. After the
second Round Table Conference, the British were determined to reverse this
trend. There were three main considerations in British policy:

o Gandhi would not be permitted to build up the tempo for a mass

movement again.

o Goodwill of the Congress was not required, but the confidence of those
who supported the British against the Congress—government
functionaries, loyalists, etc.—was very essential.
Explanation:
• The national movement would not be allowed to consolidate itself in rural
areas.

• After the CWC decided to resume the civil disobedience movement, Viceroy
Willingdon refused a meeting with Gandhi on December 31. On January 4,
1932, Gandhi was arrested. Statement 1 is correct.

• A series of repressive ordinances were issued which ushered in a virtual

martial law, though under civilian control, or a ‘Civil Martial Law’. Congress
organizations at all levels were banned; arrests were made of activists,
leaders, sympathizers; properties were confiscated; Gandhi ashrams were
occupied. Repression was particularly harsh on women. Press was gagged and
nationalist literature banned. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• People responded with anger. Though unprepared, the response was massive.
In the first four months alone, about 80,000 satyagrahis, mostly urban and
rural poor, were jailed. Other forms of protest included picketing of shops
selling liquor and foreign cloth, illegal gatherings, non-violent demonstrations,
celebrations of national days, symbolic hoisting of national flag, non-payment
of chowkidara tax, salt satyagraha, forest law violations, and installation of a
secret radio transmitter near Bombay.

• This phase of the civil disobedience movement coincided with upsurges in two
princely states—Kashmir and Alwar.

• But this phase of the movement could not be sustained for long because:

o Gandhi and other leaders had no time to build up the tempo; and

o the masses were not prepared.

• Statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
• Finally, in April 1934, Gandhi decided to withdraw the civil disobedience
movement. Though people had been cowed down by a superior force, they
had not lost political faith in the Congress—they had won freedom in their
hearts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Sanchi Stupa,

1. British officer Henry Taylor first discovered the site in 1818.

2. The Great Stupa of Sanchi was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in
1989.

3. Sanchi lies in an upland plateau region, west of the Betwa River.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three

D. None
Consider the following statements regarding Sanchi Stupa,

1. British officer Henry Taylor first discovered the site in 1818.

2. The Great Stupa of Sanchi was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in
1989.

3. Sanchi lies in an upland plateau region, west of the Betwa River.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. Only One

B. Only Two

C. All Three

D. None
Explanation:
• The Great Stupa at Sanchi, commissioned by Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE,
enshrines Buddha’s relics.

• The four toranas, oriented to the four cardinal directions, were constructed in
the first century BCE, likely within a few decades of each other during the
reign of the Satavahana dynasty.

• British officer Henry Taylor first discovered the site in 1818. Hence, Statement
1 is correct.

• Alexander Cunningham, who established the Archaeological Survey of India

(ASI), conducted the initial formal survey and excavation in 1851.

• Significant restoration efforts were led by John Marshall in the early 1900s,
with financial backing from the Begums of Bhopal.
Explanation:
• The Great Stupa of Sanchi was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in
1989, acknowledging its global cultural significance. Hence, Statement 2 is
correct.

• Sanchi lies in an upland plateau region just west of the Betwa River. Hence,
Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following pairs:

Buddhism mudras Description

1. Varada mudra Gesture of charity

2. Abhay mudra Gesture of reassurance

3. Uttarabodhi mudra Gesture of teaching

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following pairs:

Buddhism mudras Description

1. Varada mudra Gesture of charity

2. Abhay mudra Gesture of reassurance

3. Uttarabodhi mudra Gesture of teaching

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Pair 1: Varada Mudra - Gesture of Charity

• Explanation: The Varada Mudra is a gesture of charity, compassion, and

granting wishes. It is commonly seen in Buddhist iconography where the
hand is extended with the palm facing outward, usually with fingers pointing
downwards.

• Pair 1 is correctly matched:

Pair 2: Abhay Mudra - Gesture of Reassurance

• Explanation: The Abhay Mudra represents fearlessness, reassurance, and

protection. It is performed by raising the right hand with the palm facing
outward, symbolizing giving protection from fear.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched:

Explanation:
Pair 3: Uttarabodhi Mudra - Gesture of Teaching

• Explanation: The Uttarabodhi Mudra is not the gesture of teaching. Instead, it

symbolizes "supreme enlightenment" or the "ultimate perfection". The hands
are placed together above the head with the index fingers pointing upwards
and the other fingers intertwined. The Gesture of Teaching is represented by
the Dharmachakra Mudra.

• Pair 3 is not correctly matched:

With reference to Indian History, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Lord Dalhousie banned Female Infanticide completely and Human Sacrifice in

Central province, Odisha and Maharashtra.

B. University at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were set up during the period of
Lord Cornwallis.

C. Calcutta Female School was established by V.D. Savarkar in 1858.

D. Lord Ripon introduced the Portfolio System which gave the foundation for the
Cabinet System.
With reference to Indian History, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Lord Dalhousie banned Female Infanticide completely and Human Sacrifice

in Central province, Odisha and Maharashtra.

B. University at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were set up during the period of
Lord Cornwallis.

C. Calcutta Female School was established by V.D. Savarkar in 1858.

D. Lord Ripon introduced the Portfolio System which gave the foundation for the
Cabinet System.
Explanation:
• Lord Dalhousie banned Female Infanticide completely and Human Sacrifice
in Central province, Odisha and Maharashtra. Hence, option a is correct.

• University of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras were set up in 1857 during the
period of Lord Canning. Hence, option b is incorrect.

• Lord Canning introduced the Portfolio System which gave the foundation for
the Cabinet System. Hence, option c is incorrect.

• Bethune Collegiate School (1849) (also known as Calcutta Female School)

was established by John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune (During the period of
Lord Dalhousie). Hence, option d is incorrect.
With reference to Neolithic age, consider the following statements:

1. Burzahom is famous for polished tools and weapons made of bones.

2. The Neolithic culture of Kashmir was distinguished by the complete absence

of microliths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to Neolithic age, consider the following statements:

1. Burzahom is famous for polished tools and weapons made of bones.

2. The Neolithic culture of Kashmir was distinguished by the complete absence

of microliths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• In the north-west, Kashmiri Neolithic culture was distinguished by its
dwelling pits, wide range of ceramics, the variety of stone and bone tools, and
the complete absence of microliths. Its most important site is Burzahom,
which means ‘the place of birch’, situated 16 km north-west of Srinagar.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• The Neolithic people in Kashmir used not only polished tools of stone, but
also numerous tools and weapons made of bone. Hence, Statement 2 is
correct.
Consider the following statements with respect to the Harappan Culture:

1. In Dholavira, dressed stone is used in masonry with mud bricks.

2. Terracotta figurines made of fire-baked earthen clay to represent only humans.

3. Seals were made of steatite or faience and served as symbols of authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
Consider the following statements with respect to the Harappan Culture:

1. In Dholavira, dressed stone is used in masonry with mud bricks.

2. Terracotta figurines made of fire-baked earthen clay to represent only humans.

3. Seals were made of steatite or faience and served as symbols of authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• The citadel of Dholavira built of stone is a monumental work and the most
impressive among the Harappan citadels discovered so far. In Dholavira,
dressed stone is used in masonry with mud bricks, which is remarkable.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• There are many figurines made of fire-baked earthen clay, commonly called
terracotta. These were either used as toys or objects of worship. They represent
birds, dogs, sheep, cattle, and monkeys. Men and women also find a place in
the terracotta objects, and the second outnumber the first. Hence, Statement 2
is incorrect.

• Seals were made of steatite or faience and served as symbols of authority. They
were hence used for stamping. However, there are few stamped objects, called
sealings, in contrast to Egypt and Mesopotamia. Seals were also used as
amulets. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
With respect to the Later Vedic Period, which of the following statements is/are
correct?

1. The most distinctive pottery of the period is known as Painted Grey Ware.

2. Agriculture became the primary source of livelihood, and life became settled
and sedentary.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
With respect to the Later Vedic Period, which of the following statements is/are
correct?

1. The most distinctive pottery of the period is known as Painted Grey Ware.

2. Agriculture became the primary source of livelihood, and life became settled
and sedentary.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The later Vedic people were acquainted with four types of pottery—black-
and-red ware, black slipped ware, Painted Grey Ware, and red-ware. The last
type of pottery was the most popular and is found almost all over western UP.
However, the most distinctive pottery of the period is known as Painted Grey
Ware. Jewellers are also mentioned in later Vedic texts, and they possibly
catered to the needs of the affluent sections of society. By and large, the later
Vedic phase registered a great advance in the material life of the people.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• The pastoral and semi-nomadic forms of living were relegated to the

background and agriculture became the primary source of livelihood, and
life became settled and sedentary. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the rural economy in the Age of Buddha, consider the
following statements:

1. Taxes were collected by the intermediate landlords which existed between the
peasants and the state.

2. Rich peasants were called gahapatis, who were of almost the same status as a
section of the Vaishyas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to the rural economy in the Age of Buddha, consider the
following statements:

1. Taxes were collected by the intermediate landlords which existed between the
peasants and the state.

2. Rich peasants were called gahapatis, who were of almost the same status as a
section of the Vaishyas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Taxes were collected directly by royal agents, and generally no intermediate
landlords existed between the peasants, on the one hand, and the state, on the
other. Some villages were however granted to brahmanas and big merchants.
Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Rich peasants were called gahapatis (Pali term), who were of almost the same
status as a section of the vaishyas. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Mauryan Rule:

1. The state appointed seventeen superintendents (adhyakshas), principally to

regulate its economic activities.

2. The sannidhata was the highest officer in charge of assessment and collection,
and the samaharta was the chief custodian of the state treasury and
storehouse.

3. The punch-marked silver coins formed the imperial currency of the Mauryas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only
Consider the following statements regarding Mauryan Rule:

1. The state appointed seventeen superintendents (adhyakshas), principally to

regulate its economic activities.

2. The sannidhata was the highest officer in charge of assessment and collection,
and the samaharta was the chief custodian of the state treasury and
storehouse.

3. The punch-marked silver coins formed the imperial currency of the Mauryas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• The state appointed twenty-seven superintendents (adhyakshas), principally
to regulate its economic activities. They controlled and regulated agriculture,
trade and commerce, weights and measures, crafts such as weaving and
spinning, mining, and the like. The state also provided irrigation facilities and
regulated water supply for the benefit of agriculturists. Hence, Statement 1 is
incorrect.

• The samaharta was the highest officer in charge of assessment and collection,
and the sannidhata was the chief custodian of the state treasury and
storehouse. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The punch-marked silver coins, which carry the symbols of the peacock and
crescented hill, formed the imperial currency of the Mauryas. Hence,
Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following pairs with respect to the Mughal period in India:

Administrative Units Head

1. Iqta Amin
2. Sarkar Haqim
3. Pargana Shiqdar
4. Gram Muqaddam

How many of the pairs given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Consider the following pairs with respect to the Mughal period in India:

Administrative Units Head

1. Iqta Amin
2. Sarkar Haqim
3. Pargana Shiqdar
4. Gram Muqaddam

How many of the pairs given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Consider the following pairs with respect to the Mughal period in India:

Administrative Units Head

1. Iqta Amin
1. Sarkar Haqim
1. Pargana Shiqdar
1. Gram Muqaddam

How many of the pairs given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:

Administrative Units Head

Iqta (Province) Amin and Haqim

Sarkar (District) Shiqdar-i-Shiaqdaran

Pargana (Taluka) Shiqdar and Munsif

Gram (Village) Muqaddam and Amil

Consider the following statements with respect to Simon Commission:

1. It recommended the abolition of dyarchy in the provinces.

2. It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the centre.

3. It proposed the setting up of an inter provincial council under the Home

department.

4. It proposed the establishment of a responsible government in the provinces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1,2 and 4 only

D. 2,3 and 4 only

Consider the following statements with respect to Simon Commission:

1. It recommended the abolition of dyarchy in the provinces.

2. It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the centre.

3. It proposed the setting up of an inter provincial council under the Home

department.

4. It proposed the establishment of a responsible unitary government in the

provinces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1,2 and 4 only

D. 2,3 and 4 only

Explanation:
Simon Commission recommendations:

• It recommended the abolition of dyarchy and establishment of responsible

government in the provinces. Hence, Statement 1 and 4 are correct.

• It suggested the reservation of seats for depressed classes in the legislature and
retention of a separate electorate.

• It called for the federal structure of the government.

• It recommended separating Burma from India and Sindh from Bombay.

• Hindu Mahasabha, Indian National Congress opposed the Commission.

• The Justice Party in Madras, Unionists in Punjab and the Bahishkrit Hitakarini
Sabha supported the commission.

Note: Simon Commission did not talk about the abolition of bicameral
legislature at the centre. Also, it did not propose the setting up of an inter
provincial council under the Home department.
With reference to the Rowlatt Act, consider the following statements:

1. Every member of the Imperial Legislative Council opposed the act.

2. Mahatma Gandhi formed Satyagraha Sabha to launch a protest against the

Rowlatt Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to the Rowlatt Act, consider the following statements:

1. Every member of the Imperial Legislative Council opposed the act.

2. Mahatma Gandhi formed Satyagraha Sabha to launch a protest against the

Rowlatt Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Rowlatt Act:

• It was aimed at imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial.

• Gandhi ji formed Satyagraha Sabha in 1919 to protest against the Rowlatt Act.
This Sabha comprised the members of the Home Rule league. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.

• Leaders like Surendranath Banerjee, T. B. Sapru opposed Gandhi’s move to

launch Satyagraha.

• Every member of the Imperial Legislative Council from India opposed the
Rowlatt Act. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
With reference to Champaran Satyagraha, consider the following statements:

1. It was the first non-cooperation movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.

2. It widened the Indian National Movement with the inclusion of peasants.

3. It resulted in a drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops in British

India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. None
With reference to Champaran Satyagraha, consider the following statements:

1. It was the first non-cooperation movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.

2. It widened the Indian National Movement with the inclusion of peasants.

3. It resulted in a drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops in British

India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. None
Explanation:
Champaran Satyagraha:

• After the discovery of synthetic dyes in Europe in the late 19th century the
plantation business was severely affected. Most of the planters increased the
exploitation of tenants to grow indigo and raised the rents.

• After the persuasion of Rajkumar Shukla, Gandhi visited Champaran and

started his first civil disobedience movement in 1917. Hence, Statement 1 is
incorrect.

• Gandhi was made a member of the Champaran Agrarian Committee which

recommended the abolition of Tinkathia System.

• It widened the base of the national movement with the inclusion of peasantry.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

• It did not lead to the drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops.
Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Which of the following statement(s) with respect to the Wavell Plan is/are
correct?

1. All the members of the Viceroy’s executive council would be Indians.

2. The reconstituted council would have equal representation of Hindus and

Muslims.

3. It took away the veto power given to the Viceroy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only
Which of the following statement(s) with respect to the Wavell Plan is/are
correct?

1. All the members of the Viceroy’s executive council would be Indians.

2. The reconstituted council would have equal representation of Hindus and

Muslims.

3. It took away the veto power given to the Viceroy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only
Explanation:
Wavell Plan (1945)

• The British government led by conservatives announced Wavell Plan to

resolve the political tussle under which Indians will be given responsibility to
run the country.

• Lord Wavell (the then Viceroy), proposed that Viceroy’s Executive Council
will be constituted, and its members will be increased.

• All the members of the new council would be Indians, except Viceroy and
Commander-in-Chief. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The new council would have equal representation from Caste Hindus and
Muslims. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

• The Viceroy would have the veto power. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to C. Sankaran Nair, consider the following statements:

1. He served as the youngest President of the Indian National Congress.

2. He resigned from the Viceroy’s Executive Council in protest against the

Jallianwala massacre.

3. He fought a defamation case against General Dyer in England for calling him
the architect of the massacre.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
With reference to C. Sankaran Nair, consider the following statements:

1. He served as the youngest President of the Indian National Congress.

2. He resigned from the Viceroy’s Executive Council in protest against the

Jallianwala massacre.

3. He fought a defamation case against General Dyer in England for calling him
the architect of the massacre.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
• C. Sankaran Nair became the President of the Indian National Congress in
1897 at Amravati Session. At the time, he was recognized as one of the
youngest to hold the post. His legal acumen and reformist credentials were
widely respected. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Nair was a member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council, serving as the

Member-in-Charge of Education. After the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in
April 1919, he resigned in protest, making him one of the few high-ranking
Indian officials to take such a direct stand.

• His resignation was symbolic of the moral outrage felt by Indian intelligentsia
and reformists. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The defamation case was not against General Dyer, but against Michael
O’Dwyer, the former Lieutenant Governor of Punjab.Nair had accused
O’Dwyer of being responsible for repressive policies that led to the massacre,
especially in his book "Gandhi and Anarchy" (1922). O’Dwyer sued him in
London for defamation. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to Jyotiba Phule, consider the following statements:

1. He founded the first school for Dalit boys in Pune before he started any school
for girls.

2. His ideas were influenced by both missionary education and Enlightenment

thinkers like Thomas Paine.

3. He supported the 1857 revolt as a movement against colonial oppression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
With reference to Jyotiba Phule, consider the following statements:

1. He founded the first school for Dalit boys in Pune before he started any school
for girls.

2. His ideas were influenced by both missionary education and Enlightenment

thinkers like Thomas Paine.

3. He supported the 1857 revolt as a movement against colonial oppression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Jyotiba Phule first founded a school for girls in 1848 in Pune along with his
wife Savitribai Phule.

• This school is recognized as India’s first girls’ school, especially for lower-
caste and marginalized children.

• The focus of Phule’s early work was female education, challenging both
gender and caste-based exclusion.

• He did later promote education for Dalits and Shudras, but not before the
girls' school. Statement 1 is factually incorrect.

• Phule was deeply influenced by a girls’ school in Ahmednagar run by

missionary Cynthia Farrar, which shaped his vision for education reform.
Explanation:
• He also read Thomas Paine’s "Age of Reason", a powerful critique of religious
orthodoxy and blind faith — which resonated with Phule's own critique of
Hindu Brahminical orthodoxy.

• Thus, Phule’s worldview was shaped by a blend of rationalism, humanism,

and social reformism. Statement 2 is correct.

• Phule did not support the Revolt of 1857.

• He viewed it as a reactionary attempt to restore the upper-caste-dominated

Peshwa rule, which had been deeply oppressive toward the Dalits and
Shudras.

• Phule believed the revolt would set back his vision of social equality and
reform, as orthodox Hindus might regain dominance. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Which of the following were Indian members of the Hunter Committee
constituted in 1919 to inquire into the Punjab disturbances?

1. Sir Chimanlal Harilal Setalvad

2. Pandit Jagat Narayan

3. Tej Bahadur Sapru

4. Sahibzada Sultan Ahmad Khan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Which of the following were Indian members of the Hunter Committee
constituted in 1919 to inquire into the Punjab disturbances?

1. Sir Chimanlal Harilal Setalvad

2. Pandit Jagat Narayan

3. Tej Bahadur Sapru

4. Sahibzada Sultan Ahmad Khan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
• On October 14, 1919, the Government of India announced the establishment of
the Disorders Inquiry Committee, later renamed the Hunter
Committee/Commission after its chairman, Lord William Hunter.

• Three Indian members included Sir Chimanlal Harilal Setalvad, Pandit

Jagat Narayan, and Sardar Sahibzada Sultan Ahmad Khan.

• The committee convened in Delhi on October 29, collecting statements from

witnesses in Delhi, Ahmedabad, Bombay, and Lahore. In November, the
committee travelled to Lahore to question key witnesses, including Dyer. Dyer
defended his actions, stating it was his duty to instil terror in Punjab and
diminish the rebels' moral standing.

• The committee's final report, released in March 1920, unanimously condemned

Dyer, but no punitive action was taken, upheld by the Army Council.
Explanation:
• Before the committee's proceedings, the government passed an Indemnity Act
to protect its officers.

• March 1920: Dyer found guilty of misunderstanding duty, relieved of

command, and sent back to England.
Arrange the following revolutionary events in chronological order:

1. Nasik Conspiracy Case

2. Founding of Ghadar Party in San Francisco

3. Alipore Bomb Case

4. Kakori Train Robbery

Select the correct chronological sequence:

A. 1 - 3 - 2 - 4

B. 3 - 1 - 2 - 4

C. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

D. 1 - 3 - 4 – 2
Arrange the following revolutionary events in chronological order:

1. Nasik Conspiracy Case

2. Founding of Ghadar Party in San Francisco

3. Alipore Bomb Case

4. Kakori Train Robbery

Select the correct chronological sequence:

A. 1 - 3 - 2 - 4

B. 3 - 1 - 2 - 4

C. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

D. 1 - 3 - 4 – 2
Explanation:
Nasik Conspiracy Case – 21st December, 1909

• On 21st December 1909, Anant Laxman Kanhere shot Jackson, the Collector
of Nashik, at Vijayanand theatre. The people involved in the assassination,
Kanhere, Krishnaji Gopal Karve, and Vinayak Ramchandra Deshpande,
were sentenced to death by the British government.
• The revolutionary speech of Bal Gangadhar Tilak on 26th August 1906
evoked nationalist feelings in the youth of Nashik. Following which a secret
society, Abhinav Bharat, was formed to carry out underground movements
against British rule. On 21st December, when the Collector of Nashik, Jackson,
was entering the local Vijayanand theatre to watch the Kirlosker Natak
Mandali’s play ‘Sharada’, he was shot dead by Kanhere, a member of the
Abhinav Bharat society. The assassination was a direct challenge to British
rule. This started a reactionary repression move from the government that
launched a series of inquiries and arrests of numerous underground
revolutionaries, including V.D. Savarkar, the society leader. The assassination,
followed by the arrests of the revolutionary leaders, stirred the nationalist
feelings in people.
Alipore Bomb Case – May 1908 to May 1909

• Alipore Conspiracy Case (1908), or the “Emperor vs Aurobindo Ghosh and

others” also known as the Muraripukur or Manicktolla bomb conspiracy was
a pivotal legal and political event of the Indian independence movement, that
took place from 1908 to 1909. Alipore Conspiracy Case arose in the aftermath
of an assassination attempt on British Magistrate Douglas Kingsford by young
Bengali nationalists Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki.

• It led to the arrest of numerous members of the Anushilan Samiti, a secret

society advocating for Indian independence.

• Key figures: Alipore Conspiracy Case has several Key figures including
Aurobindo Ghosh, acquitted due to insufficient evidence; Barindra Ghosh
and Ullaskar Dutt, sentenced to life imprisonment; and Khudiram Bose,
executed after an assassination attempt, while Prafulla Chaki committed
suicide.
• Chittaranjan Das defended Aurobindo, arguing his writings were
philosophical.

• After being acquitted, Aurobindo Ghosh retired from active politics and
turned to spirituality, eventually establishing the Sri Aurobindo Ashram in
Pondicherry.

Founding of Ghadar Party – 1913

• Founded in San Francisco, USA by Lala Hardayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna,

Bhai Parmanand, and Harnam Singh.

• Aimed at armed revolt to overthrow British rule in India

• Linked with global anti-colonial efforts; worked among the Indian diaspora

• Initially, the movement started with the publishing of a weekly newspaper

called Ghadar by Lala Hardayal from San Francisco. The first edition of the
Ghadar was published in Urdu, mentioning the caption Angrezi Raj Ka
Dushman, and a month later, it was published in Gurmukhi.
• Komagata Maru incident: a Japanese ship named Komagata Maru, carrying
376 Indians (351 Sikhs and 21 Punjabi) began its journey to Vancouver. At
Yokohama, in Japan, Ghadirites visited the ship, gave lectures, and
distributed Ghadar literature. On its arrival, the ship was not allowed to
land in Vancouver. To fight for the rights of the passengers, a ‘Shore
Committee’ was formed in Vancouver led by Hussain Rahim, Sohan Lal
Pathak, and Balwant Singh. A powerful campaign was carried out in the
USA led by Barkatullah, Bhagwan Singh, Ram Chandra, and Sohan Singh
Bhakna. Yet, Komagata Maru was forced out of Canadian waters. On its way
back, First World War broke out and before the ship could reach Yokhama,
the British Government passed orders that no passengers be allowed to
disembark anywhere on the way, but only at Calcutta. On 27th Sep 1914, the
ship reached Budge Budge, Calcutta. The harassed passengers resisted the
hostile attitude of the police when it escalated into a clash resulting in the
death of 18 passengers. This created widespread discontentment in Punjab
and political dacoities erupted in the districts of Jalandhar, Amritsar, and
Ludhiana.
• Ghadirites held numerous meetings with the Indian community in California
in 1914. Raghubar Dayal Gupta and Kartar Singh Saraba left for India.

• Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal, both Bengal revolutionaries, were

contacted and asked to lead the movement.

• The Ghadrites set February 21, 1915, as the date for an armed revolt in the
garrisons of Ferozepur, Lahore, and Rawalpindi.

• Due to treachery, the plan was thwarted at the last minute.

• The authorities acted quickly, aided by the Defence of India Rules, 1915.
Rebel regiments were disbanded, leaders were arrested and deported, and 45
were executed.

• Rashbehari Bose fled to Japan (where he and Abani Mukherji made numerous
attempts to send arms), while Sachin Sanyal was imprisoned for life.
Kakori Train Robbery – 9 August 1925

• A train was robbed at Kakori (near Lucknow) by Bismil and other members of
the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army. The loot was to be used for
purchasing weapons for fighting the British. However, all the key people
involved in the robbery were arrested. Carried out by members of the
Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).

• Key revolutionaries: Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Chandrashekhar

Azad

• In 1925, Ram Prasad Bismil, along with his associates, was hanged by the
British for their involvement in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
Q. The slogan "Abua raj seter jana, maharani raj tundu jana" is associated with
which tribal movement?
A) Munda Uprising
B) Santhal Rebellion
C) Kol Rebellion
D) Bhil Uprising
Explanation:
"Abua raj seter jana, maharani raj tundu jana" translates to "End the queen’s reign,
establish our own rule." It reflects the core demand of the Munda Uprising (1899–
1900), led by Birsa Munda in the Chotanagpur region. The rebellion was a
response to British colonial policies that undermined tribal land ownership
(Khuntkatti System) and introduced exploitative landlord systems (Permanent
Settlement System/Zamindari System). Birsa Munda, regarded as Dharti Aba
(Father of the Earth), sought to establish Munda Raj and restore the traditional
tribal land system. His movement significantly influenced the passage of the
Chotanagpur Tenancy Act (1908).

• Birsa was arrested on March 3, 1900, and died in Ranchi Jail on June 9, 1900, at
the age of 25.
Explanation:
The movement also contributed to

▪ Repeal of the begar system, and led to the Tenancy Act (1903) which
recognised the Khuntkhatti system.

▪ The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act (1908) later banned the passage of tribal land
to non-tribal folks and recognised traditional community rights over land,
water, and forests.

▪ Indian government declared 15th November as Janjatiya Gaurav

Divas during the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav in 2021.
With reference to the architectural features of Chausath Yogini temples,
consider the following statements:

1. The Chausath Yogini temple at Khajuraho is unique among Yogini temples in

India due to its rectangular layout.

2. All Chausath Yogini temples have exactly 64 niches for yogini sculptures.

3. These temples are typically open to the sky, reflecting tantric practices
associated with the Yogini cult.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
With reference to the architectural features of Chausath Yogini temples,
consider the following statements:

1. The Chausath Yogini temple at Khajuraho is unique among Yogini temples in

India due to its rectangular layout.

2. All Chausath Yogini temples have exactly 64 niches for yogini sculptures.

3. These temples are typically open to the sky, reflecting tantric practices
associated with the Yogini cult.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Yogini refers to a female practitioner of yoga. They are a group of forest
spirits and mother goddesses. The Chausath Yoginis were feared &
worshiped for their tantrik power.

• The cult of the Yoginis was very powerful between the 9th and 12th centuries
CE. The tribes in the old Gondwana forests of Central India were the
original devotees of the Chausath Yoginis. Ultimately, the traditional Hindu
pantheon of Gods and Goddesses got incorporated in the Chausath Yogini.

• This cult celebrated the feminine and its power. The temples were designed to
“reflect the form of a reclining, languid woman”. This is how they celebrated
sensuality and fertility.
Explanation:
• The temples were typically circular, on elevated ground (or pedestal), and
open to the sky. The statues of the 64 female forms were in chambers lining
the circumference of the temple. Dancers probably performed in the central
courtyard.

• There are around 13 such temples in India out of which 8 are in Madhya
Pradesh. These include Chausath Yogini temples at Khajuraho, Bhedaghat,
Mitaoli, Dudhai, Badoh, Hinglajgarh, Shahdol, Naresar in Madhya Pradesh;
Hirapur, Ranipur in Odisha and Lakheri, Rikhiyan in Uttar Pradesh and
Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu.

• Of all the Chausath Yogini temples in India, the Khajuraho temple is the most
primitive in construction and unique with its rectangular form. Statement 1
is correct.
Explanation:
• While the term 'Chausath' translates to 'sixty-four', indicating the number of
Yoginis, the actual number of niches in these temples is not uniformly 64. For
instance, the Khajuraho temple originally had 65 shrine cells, and variations
exist in other temples as well like the Bhedaghat temple, have 81 niches,
indicating variations in design. Statement 2 is not correct.

• The hypaethral (open to the sky) design of Chausath Yogini temples is a

distinctive architectural feature that aligns with the tantric rituals and
practices of the Yogini cult, emphasizing an open-air setting for worship.
Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Karsandas Mulji:

1. He was a contemporary of Dadabhai Naoroji.

2. He founded the newspaper Satyarth Prakash, advocating for widow remarriage

and social reforms.

3. He played a significant role in the Maharaj libel case of 1862.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Consider the following statements regarding Karsandas Mulji:

1. He was a contemporary of Dadabhai Naoroji.

2. He founded the newspaper Satyarth Prakash, advocating for widow remarriage

and social reforms.

3. He played a significant role in the Maharaj libel case of 1862.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
Context: Karsandas Mulji has recently been popularised by the Netflix biopic
Maharaj.

• Karsandas Mulji (1832–1871) was a contemporary of Dadabhai Naoroji (1825–

1917). Both were part of the Bombay intelligentsia and were involved in social
reform movements. Mulji was significantly influenced by Western liberal
thought, similar to Naoroji. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Karsandas Mulji founded "Satya Prakash" in 1852, not "Satyarth Prakash."

o "Satyarth Prakash" was written by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875 as

a religious and reformist text for the Arya Samaj.

o Satya Prakash, on the other hand, was a Gujarati newspaper advocating

widow remarriage, women's rights, and social reform, and was founded
by Karsandas Mulji.

o Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Explanation:
• Karsandas Mulji was the main journalist in the Maharaj Libel Case
(1862). He accused Vaishnavite priests (Maharajs) of immoral conduct,
leading to a famous libel lawsuit. The case was a landmark in Indian legal
history, marking one of the first instances of public debate over religious
authority and reform. Mulji’s victory in the case strengthened the reformist
movement and earned him the title of "Martin Luther of the Banian Caste."
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following pairs,

Dance Form State

Lezim Madhya Pradesh
Lehangi Maharashtra
Kolattam Kerala

How many of the above pair/s is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
97. Consider the following pairs,

Dance Form State

Lezim Madhya Pradesh
Lehangi Maharashtra
Kolattam Kerala

How many of the above pair/s is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
Context: The Bollywood film Chhava, depicting the life of Chhatrapati
Sambhaji Maharaj, has stirred controversy over a scene showing the Maratha
king performing the Lezim dance.

• Lezim: It is traditional folk dance of Maharashtra. It is named after the lezim,

a wooden stick with jingling metallic cymbals used by dancers. The dance
involves vigorous and rhythmic and is performed during festivals (e.g.,
Ganesh Chaturthi), marriage processions, and cultural events. Hence, Pair 1
is not correct.

• The Lehangi dance is primarily associated with Madhya Pradesh, particularly

among the Sahariya tribe, Banjara and Kanjar communities. Usually
performed during monsoons and festivals like Raksha Bandhan, it is marked
by fast-paced movements and stick-clashing sequences. Hence, Pair 2 is not
correct.
Explanation:
• Kolattam: Kolattam is a folk dance from the states of Andhra Pradesh and
Tamil Nadu. It is part of a religious offering, where women dancers pay
homage to the temple Goddess in many regions of Andhra Pradesh. The
Kolattam dance is predominantly a dance of women, without involving men.
This form of dance is also called as Kolkollannalu or Kollannalu. This
popular form of dance is usually performed together as a group where two
artists each are grouped as a pair. Each dancer holds two sticks and moves
these sticks in rhythm. The Kolattam Kara is a solid wooden stick made of
wood and lacquer is used in Kolattam. Hence, Pair 3 is not correct.
With reference to the Harappan script, consider the following statements:

1. The Harappan script is pictographic, not alphabetical.

2. Inscriptions are typically brief, averaging around five symbols.

3. The Dholavira signboard, features ten large symbols made of gypsum affixed
to a wooden board.

4. The writing direction of the Harappan script is consistently from left to right
across all sites.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A. Only only

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
With reference to the Harappan script, consider the following statements:

1. The Harappan script is pictographic, not alphabetical.

2. Inscriptions are typically brief, averaging around five symbols.

3. The Dholavira signboard, features ten large symbols made of gypsum affixed
to a wooden board.

4. The writing direction of the Harappan script is consistently from left to right
across all sites.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A. Only only

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• The Harappan script is predominantly pictographic and remains
undeciphered. It comprises symbols that represent objects or ideas rather than
phonetic sounds, distinguishing it from alphabetical scripts. Hence, statement
1 is correct.

• Most Harappan inscriptions are short, averaging about five symbols. The
brevity of these inscriptions has been a significant challenge in deciphering the
script. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• At Dholavira, archaeologists discovered a signboard near the northern

gateway of the city. This signboard contained ten large symbols made of white
gypsum, which were affixed to a wooden board. It is considered one of the
longest known inscriptions of the Harappan script. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Explanation:
• The Harappan script is generally written from right to left. However, there are
exceptions where the script is written left to right or in a boustrophedon style
(alternating directions). Therefore, the writing direction is not consistent across
all sites. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements about the Dahsala system under the Mughal
administration:

1. The Dahsala system, introduced by Akbar, standardized revenue collection

using a ten-year average of land produce.

2. Land revenue was fixed at one-third of the produce and could be paid in cash
or kind.

3. Revenue rates were revised once every ten years based on a ten-year average.

How many of the above statement/s is/are not correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None of the above

Consider the following statements about the Dahsala system under the Mughal
administration:

1. The Dahsala system, introduced by Akbar, standardized revenue collection

using a ten-year average of land produce.

2. Land revenue was fixed at one-third of the produce and could be paid in cash
or kind.

3. Revenue rates were revised once every ten years based on a ten-year average.

How many of the above statement/s is/are not correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None of the above

Explanation:
• The Dahsala system, introduced by Akbar, aimed to standardize revenue
collection by calculating land revenue based on the average produce of the
land over the past ten years. This was done to stabilize the revenue collection
and make it more predictable. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Under the Dahsala system, land revenue was typically fixed at one-third of the
average produce. This amount could be paid in either cash or kind, depending
on what was convenient for the peasant and the administration. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.

• While the initial revenue rates were calculated based on a ten-year average of
produce, these rates were not revised only every ten years. Instead, they were
typically reviewed and adjusted annually to reflect changes in production and
market conditions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements about Mahalwari Land Revenue System

1. The Mahalwari system was introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822.

2. The Mahalwari system was based on individual landholdings, with each

farmer paying revenue directly to the British government.

3. This demand was to be revised periodically, not permanently fixed.

How many of the features given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None of the Above

Consider the following statements about Mahalwari Land Revenue System

1. The Mahalwari system was introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822.

2. The Mahalwari system was based on individual landholdings, with each

farmer paying revenue directly to the British government.

3. This demand was to be revised periodically, not permanently fixed.

How many of the features given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None of the Above

Explanation:
• In the North Western Provinces of the Bengal Presidency (most of this area is
now in Uttar Pradesh), an Englishman called Holt Mackenzie devised the new
system which came into effect in 1822. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• He felt that the village was an important social institution in north Indian
society and needed to be preserved. Under his directions, collectors went from
village to village, inspecting the land, measuring the fields, and recording the
customs and rights of different groups. The estimated revenue of each plot
within a village was added up to calculate the revenue that each village
(mahal) had to pay. The charge of collecting the revenue and paying it to the
Company was given to the village headman, rather than the zamindar. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
• Applied on atleast 30% of British India’s area, including the North-West
provinces, parts of Central India, Punjab, and the Ganga Valley.

• This demand was to be revised periodically, not permanently fixed. Hence,

statement is correct.
Q. Consider the following statements and select the appropriate answer:
1. Governor Nino de Cunha moved the Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa.

2. Francisco De Almeida introduced the Cartaz System.

3. Alfonso de Albuquerque is credited with the conquest of Goa in 1510.

How many of the statement/s given above is /are correct?
A. Only one statement is correct

B. Only two statements are correct

C. All three statements are correct

D. None of the above

Q. Consider the following statements and select the appropriate answer:
1. Governor Nino de Cunha moved the Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa.

2. Francisco De Almeida introduced the Cartaz System.

3. Alfonso de Albuquerque is credited with the conquest of Goa in 1510.

How many of the statement/s given above is /are correct?
A. Only one statement is correct

B. Only two statements are correct

C. All three statements are correct

D. None of the above

Explanation:
• Governor Nino de Cunha shifted the Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa
in 1530. Goa provided better strategic advantages for maritime trade and
administrative control compared to Cochin, as it was centrally located along
the western coastline of India.Goa later became the hub of Portuguese
operations in Asia. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Francisco De Almeida, the first Portuguese Viceroy of India (1505–1509),

introduced the Cartaz system to regulate and dominate maritime trade in
the Indian Ocean.

• Cartaz: A naval trade pass or permit issued by the Portuguese. Merchants

trading in the Indian Ocean had to buy this pass, failing which they faced
Portuguese naval action.
Explanation:
• The system was part of Almeida’s "Blue Water Policy," focusing on naval
supremacy.The Cartaz system ensured Portugal's monopoly over trade routes
and control over the spice trade. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Alfonso de Albuquerque, considered the architect of the Portuguese empire

in Asia, captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510.Goa became the
central base of Portuguese operations in India due to its strategic location and
deep harbors. Albuquerque’s victory in Goa marked a turning point in the
expansion of the Portuguese empire and their dominance in the Indian Ocean.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
What’s on the Agenda

FOCUS on the CONTENT

Q. Consider the following statements regarding anticyclones:

1. An anticyclone is a region of high pressure that results in periods of fine, dry,

and stable weather.

2. Anticyclones occur because warm air is rising within the high-pressure system,
promoting cloud formation and precipitation.

3. This phenomenon occurs because the cold air is descending within the high-
pressure system, preventing the formation of clouds.

4. Anticyclones are typically associated with stormy and unsettled weather.

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2, and 3 only

C. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 2 and 4 only
Q. Consider the following statements regarding anticyclones:

1. An anticyclone is a region of high pressure that results in periods of fine, dry,

and stable weather.

2. Anticyclones occur because warm air is rising within the high-pressure system,
promoting cloud formation and precipitation.

3. This phenomenon occurs because the cold air is descending within the high-
pressure system, preventing the formation of clouds.

4. Anticyclones are typically associated with stormy and unsettled weather.

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2, and 3 only

C. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
• An anticyclone is a region of high pressure that leads to prolonged periods
of fine, dry, and stable weather. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This phenomenon occurs because the cold air is descending within the high-
pressure system, preventing the formation of clouds. Hence statement 3 is
correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
• Anticyclones are associated with calm, stable weather conditions. Hence
statement 4 is incorrect.
Q. Which of the following can be considered as general characteristics of an
anticyclone?

1. Because of high pressure at the centre wind blow outwards clockwise in the
northern hemisphere and anticlockwise in the southern hemisphere.

2. Winds descend from the above at the centre and thus weather becomes clear
and rainless because the descending winds cause atmospheric instability.

3. Anticyclones result in cold fronts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Which of the following can be considered as general characteristics of an
anticyclone?

1. Because of high pressure at the centre wind blow outwards clockwise in the
northern hemisphere and anticlockwise in the southern hemisphere.

2. Winds descend from the above at the centre and thus weather becomes clear
and rainless because the descending winds cause atmospheric instability.

3. Anticyclones result in cold fronts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• Because of high pressure at the centre wind blow outwards clockwise in the
northern hemisphere and anticlockwise in the southern hemisphere. Hence
statement 1 is correct.

• Winds descend from the above at the centre and thus weather becomes clear
and rainless because the descending winds cause atmospheric instability.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

• Anticyclones do not have fronts. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q. Consider the following statements in context with Spatial Distribution of
Insolation at the Earth’s Surface:
1. The insolation received at the surface varies from about 70 Watt/m2 in the tropics
to about 320 Watt/m2 in the poles.
2. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the
cloudiness is the least.
3. Equator receives comparatively more insolation than the tropics.
4. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over
the oceans.
How many statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. Only one statement
B. Only two statements
C. Only three statements
D. None
Q. Consider the following statements in context with Spatial Distribution of
Insolation at the Earth’s Surface:
1. The insolation received at the surface varies from about 70 Watt/m2 in the
tropics to about 320 Watt/m2 in the poles.
2. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the
cloudiness is the least.
3. Equator receives comparatively more insolation than the tropics.
4. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than
over the oceans.
How many statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. Only one statement
B. Only two statements
C. Only three statements
D. None
• Spatial Distribution of Insolation at the Earth’s Surface
• The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the
tropics to about 70 Watt/m2 in the poles. Hence statement 1 is incorrect .
• Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the
cloudiness is the least. Hence statement 2 is correct .
Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Hence
statement 3 is incorrect .
• Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than
over the oceans. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in
summer
Q. Which of the following factors largely determine the pattern of planetary
winds?

1. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating

2. Emergence of ocean currents

3. The migration of belts following the apparent path of the sun

4. The rotation of Earth

5. The distribution of continents and oceans

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1, 3, and 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Q. Which of the following factors largely determine the pattern of planetary
winds?

1. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating

2. Emergence of ocean currents

3. The migration of belts following the apparent path of the sun

4. The rotation of Earth

5. The distribution of continents and oceans

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1, 3, and 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Explanation:
General circulation of the atmosphere

• The pattern of planetary winds largely depends on:

o latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating;

o emergence of pressure belts;

o the migration of belts following apparent path of the sun;

o the distribution of continents and oceans;

o the rotation of earth. Hence option 1 ,3,4 and 5 are correct.

• While ocean currents can influence local weather and climate (especially in
coastal regions), they are not a primary determinant of the overall pattern of
planetary winds. Ocean currents, though important for redistributing heat
and moisture across the globe, do not directly dictate the global circulation of
winds in the same way the other factors do. Hence option 2 is incorrect .
Q. Consider the following statements :

1. The pressure belts are not permanent in nature and oscillate with the
apparent movement of the sun.

2. In the northern hemisphere in winter they move northwards and in the

summer southwards.

Which of the following statements is/are generally true ?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements :

1. The pressure belts are not permanent in nature and oscillate with the apparent
movement of the sun.

2. In the northern hemisphere in winter they move northwards and in the

summer southwards.

Which of the following statements is/are generally true ?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Near the equator the sea level pressure is low and the area is known as
equatorial low. Along 30° degree N and 30 degree S are found the high-
pressure areas known as the subtropical highs. Further pole wards along 60
degree N and 60 degree S, the low-pressure belts are termed as the sub polar
lows. Near the poles the pressure is high and it is known as the polar high.

• These pressure belts are not permanent in nature. Hence statement 1 is

correct.

• They oscillate with the apparent movement of the sun. In the northern
hemisphere in winter they move southwards and in the summer
northwards. . Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Q) Assertion: Not all the western coast of the temperate zone receive
westerlies throughout the year.
Reasoning: This is caused by the shifting of wind belts such regions.
Directions: For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R), choose the correct
alternative from the following.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q) Assertion: Not all the western coast of the temperate zone receive
westerlies throughout the year.
Reasoning: This is caused by the shifting of wind belts such regions.
Directions: For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R), choose the correct
alternative from the following.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
• Not all the western coast of the temperate zone receive westerlies
throughout the year. Some of them like California , Central Chile ,
southern Africa and south western Australia receives westerlies only in
winter.
• This is caused by the shifting of wind belts such regions which lie
approximately between 30 degree and 40 degree north and south
latitude .Hence option a is correct .
Q. Assertion: Between 45° and 65° north and south of the equator, the rainfall is
first received on the western margins of the continents.

Reasoning: The westerly winds, which blow from the west to the east, bring
moisture-laden air to the western coasts of continents.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) are correct, and Reasoning (R) is the
correct explanation for Assertion (A).

B. Both Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) are correct, but Reasoning (R) is not the
correct explanation for Assertion (A).

C. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reasoning (R) is incorrect.

D. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reasoning (R) is correct.

Q. Assertion: Between 45° and 65° north and south of the equator, the rainfall is
first received on the western margins of the continents.

Reasoning: The westerly winds, which blow from the west to the east, bring
moisture-laden air to the western coasts of continents.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) are correct, and Reasoning (R) is the
correct explanation for Assertion (A).

B. Both Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) are correct, but Reasoning (R) is not the
correct explanation for Assertion (A).

C. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reasoning (R) is incorrect.

D. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reasoning (R) is correct.

Explanation:
• Between 45° and 65° north and south of the equator, the rainfall is first
received on the western margins of the continents. This is accurate because
in these latitudes, especially in the temperate regions, the westerly winds
(also called the "westerlies") bring moist air from the ocean towards the
western coasts of continents, leading to significant rainfall on these
margins. Hence option a is correct .

• Note

o Different places on the earth’s surface receive different amounts of rainfall

in a year and that too in different seasons. In general, as we proceed from
the equator towards the poles, rainfall goes on decreasing steadily. The
coastal areas of the world receive greater amounts of rainfall than the
interior of the continents. The rainfall is more over the oceans than on
the landmasses of the world because of being great sources of water.
Q. Which of the following is/are generally true for Trade Winds?

1. In their passage across open oceans they gather moisture and bring heavy
rainfall to the east coast of continents within the tropics.

2. As they are offshore on the west coast within the tropics, these regions suffer
from great aridity and form the trade wind hot deserts.

Select the correct option:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor2
Q. Which of the following is/are generally true for Trade Winds?

1. In their passage across open oceans they gather moisture and bring heavy
rainfall to the east coast of continents within the tropics.

2. As they are offshore on the west coast within the tropics, these regions suffer
from great aridity and form the Trade wind hot deserts.

Select the correct option:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor2
Explanation:
• The Trade winds are most regular of all the planetary winds.

• They blow with great force and in constant direction . They were thus helpful
to early traders who depended on the wind when sailing the high seas , hence
the same Trade winds . Since they blow from the cooler subtropical latitude to
the warmer tropics, they have great capacity for holding moisture .

• In their passage across open oceans they gather moisture and bring heavy
rainfall to the east coast of continents within the tropics. Hence statement 1 is
correct .

• As they are offshore on the west coast within the tropics, these regions suffer
from great aridity and form the Trade wind hot deserts of the world ,eg
Sahara, Kalahari ,Atacama and Great Australian deserts . Hence statement 2
is correct.
Q. Which of the following statements about block mountains is/are correct?

1. Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced
vertically.

2. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered blocks are called
graben.

3. The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such
mountain systems.

Options:

A. Only statement 1 is correct.

B. Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

C. All statements are correct.

D. None of the statements are correct

Q. Which of the following statements about block mountains is/are correct?

1. Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced
vertically.

2. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered blocks are called
graben.

3. The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such
mountain systems.

Options:

A. Only statement 1 is correct.

B. Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

C. All statements are correct.

D. None of the statements are correct

Explanation:
• Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced
vertically. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered blocks are called
graben. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such
mountain systems Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q) Which of the following tectonic plates are not associated with the Pacific Ocean?

a) Nazca Plate
b) Cocos Plate
c) Juan de Fuca Plate
d) Scotia Plate
Q) Which of the following tectonic plates are not associated with the Pacific Ocean?

a) Nazca Plate
b) Cocos Plate
c) Juan de Fuca Plate
d) Scotia Plate
Q) What is Pontus, which was recently discovered?
a) A newly formed volcanic island chain in the Indian Ocean.

b) A massive ancient tectonic plate found in the western Pacific.

c) A type of deep-sea coral reef ecosystem.

d) A mineral deposit rich in rare earth elements.

Q) What is Pontus, which was recently discovered?
a) A newly formed volcanic island chain in the Indian Ocean.

b) A massive ancient tectonic plate found in the western Pacific.

c) A type of deep-sea coral reef ecosystem.

d) A mineral deposit rich in rare earth elements.

· The Pontus plate was a colossal tectonic plate that existed
roughly 150 million years ago in the western Pacific. Its size is
estimated to be around 15 million square miles, which is roughly
equivalent to a quarter of the present-day Pacific Ocean . Over time,
the Pontus plate subducted, or plunged, beneath a neighboring
plate and was eventually reabsorbed into the Earth's mantle. This
process resulted in the plate's disappearance. Scientists named the
plate "Pontus" because it resided under an ancient ocean called the
Pontus Ocean during its existence.The discovery of the Pontus plate
was accidental, made by researchers examining rocks in Borneo.
The only traces of the plate that exist today are fragments of rock
found in Borneo's mountains and faint signatures of a large slab
deep within the Earth's mantle.

• · Hence B is correct answer.

Q. Which of the following can be considered as essential conditions for an ideal
source region of an air mass?

1. Cyclonic areas characterised by high barometric pressure and low-pressure

gradients are most ideal for the development of air masses.

2. Atmospheric conditions should be stable for considerable long period of time

so that the air may attain the characteristics of the surface.

Options:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following can be considered as essential conditions for an ideal
source region of an air mass?

1. Cyclonic areas characterised by high barometric pressure and low-pressure

gradients are most ideal for the development of air masses.

2. Atmospheric conditions should be stable for considerable long period of time

so that the air may attain the characteristics of the surface.

Options:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
An ideal source region of air mass must possess the following essential conditions:

• There must be extensive and homogenous earth’s surface so that it may possess
uniform temperature and moisture conditions. The source region should be
either land surface or ocean surface because irregular topography and surface
comprised both of land and water cannot have uniform temperature and
moisture conditions.

• There should not be convergence of air, rather there should be divergence of air
flow so that the air may stay over the region for longer period of time and thus
the air may attain the physical properties of the region . It is , thus apparent that
anticyclonic areas characterised by high barometric pressure and low pressure
gradients are most ideal for the development of air masses. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect ..

• Atmospheric conditions should be stable for considerable long period of time so

that the air may attain the characteristics of the surface. Hence statement 2 is
correct
Q. Which of the following statements correctly explains the climatic role of air
masses?

1. Air masses play a crucial role in redistributing heat around the globe, helping
to balance temperature difference between equator and poles.

2. The interaction between different air masses results in the formation of

weather fronts, cyclones, and storms, shaping weather patterns and extremes.

3. Maritime air mass carry moisture, influencing rainfall patterns and affecting
water availability.

4. Source regions are typically low pressure regions with minimal wind
movement ,allowing air to remain stationary and uniformly acquire the land’s
characteristics.

Options:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q. Which of the following statements correctly explains the climatic role of air
masses?

1. Air masses play a crucial role in redistributing heat around the globe, helping
to balance temperature difference between equator and poles.

2. The interaction between different air masses results in the formation of

weather fronts, cyclones, and storms, shaping weather patterns and extremes.

3. Maritime air mass carry moisture, influencing rainfall patterns and affecting
water availability.

4. Source regions are typically low pressure regions with minimal wind
movement ,allowing air to remain stationary and uniformly acquire the land’s
characteristics.

Options:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
• Air masses are crucial components of the global wind system.

• Source regions are typically high pressure regions with minimal wind
movement ,allowing air to remain stationary and uniformly acquire the land’s
characteristics. Hence statement 4 is incorrect .
Climatic impact of air masses
• Temperature Regulation: Air masses play a crucial role in redistributing heat
around the globe, helping to balance temperature difference between equator
and poles. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Precipitation patterns: Maritime air mass carry moisture, influencing rainfall

patterns and affecting water availability. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Weather Systems and Storms: The interaction between different air masses
results in the formation of weather fronts, cyclones, and storms, shaping
weather patterns and extremes. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q. Choose the incorrect statement for Inversion of Temperature:

A. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.

B. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.

C. Surface inversion promotes instability in the lower layers of the atmosphere.

D. The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage.
Q. Choose the incorrect statement for Inversion of Temperature:

A. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.

B. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.

C. Surface inversion promotes instability in the lower layers of the atmosphere.

D. The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage.
Explanation:
INVERSION OF TEMPERATURE

● Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal

lapse rate. At times, the situations is reversed and the normal lapse rate is
inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature. Inversion is usually of short
duration but quite common nonetheless.

● A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for
inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early
morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above. Hence statement A is
correct.

● Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year. Hence
statement B is correct.

● Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere.

Hence statement C is incorrect.
Explanation:
● Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and
spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere.

● Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter

season. This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up
and beings to warm the earth.

● The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air
at the hills and mountains, produced during night, flows under the influence
of gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and
moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with
warm air above. This is called air drainage. It protects plants from frost
damages. Hence statement D is correct.
Q. Assertion (A): Cloudless and clear skies are considered favourable for
temperature inversion near the ground surface.

Reasoning: In the absence of clouds, the loss of heat through terrestrial radiation
proceeds rapidly without obstruction, leading to quick cooling of the ground
surface

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is correct, but R is incorrect

D. A is incorrect, but R is correct

Q. Assertion (A): Cloudless and clear skies are considered favourable for
temperature inversion near the ground surface.

Reasoning: In the absence of clouds, the loss of heat through terrestrial radiation
proceeds rapidly without obstruction, leading to quick cooling of the ground
surface.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is correct, but R is incorrect

D. A is incorrect, but R is correct

Explanation:
Surface inversion is caused due to excessive nocturnal cooling of the ground
surface due to rapid rate of loss of heat from the ground through outgoing long-
wave terrestrial radiation.

Ground Surface Inversion:

• Ground surface inversion also called as radiation inversion occurs near the
earth’s surface due to radiation mechanism. This is also called as non-
advectional inversion because it occurs in static atmospheric condition
characterized by no movement of air whether horizontal or vertical (it may be
noted that air is never static).

• Such inversion normally occurs during the long cold winter nights in the
snow-covered regions of the middle and high latitudes. In fact, surface
inversion is caused due to excessive nocturnal cooling of the ground surface
due to rapid rate of loss of heat from the ground through outgoing long-wave
terrestrial radiation.
Explanation:
• Thus, the air coming in contact with the cool ground surface also becomes cold
while the air layer lying above is relatively warm. Consequently, temperature
inversion develops because of cold air layer below and warm air layer above

• The ground surface inversion occurs under the following conditions:

o Long winter nights, so that the loss of heat by terrestrial radiation from
the ground surface during night may exceed the amount of insolation
received from the sun through incoming shortwave electromagnetic
radiation waves and thus the ground surface becomes too cold.

o Cloudless and clear sky, so that the loss of heat through terrestrial
radiation proceeds more rapidly without any obstruction. Hence option a
is correct .
Explanation:
o Presence of dry air near the ground surface, so that it may not absorb
much heat radiated from the earth’s surface as moist air is capable of
absorbing much of the radiant heat from the earth’s surface.

o Slow movement of air, so that there is no transfer and mixing of heat in

the lower layers of the atmosphere.

o Snow-covered ground surface, so that there is maximum reflection of

incoming solar radiation. Snow, being bad conductor of heat retards the
flow of heat from the ground surface lying below the snow- layers to the
lower atmosphere.
Explanation:
• Since such inversion of temperature occurs in the static atmospheric condition
(very little movement of air) and hence it is also called static or non-
advectional inversion. Ground inversion occurs in the low latitude areas
(tropical and subtropical areas) during winter nights only and the inversion
generally disappears with sunrise but sometimes it persists upto noon.

• The inversion occurs up to the height of 30-40 feet in the low latitudes, a few
hundred feet in the middle latitudes and half a mile in the high latitudes. It is
apparent that the duration and height of surface inversion increase poleward.
This inversion promotes stability in the lower portion of the atmosphere and
causes dense fogs.
Q. The difference in the mean monthly temperature of January and July is
known as the annual range of temperature. Consider the following
statements in context with the same:

1. The highest annual range of temperature is generally recorded in the subpolar

region in Siberia where average annual range of temperature is about is about
64 degrees.

2. The southern hemisphere on the other hand, experiences relatively little

annual range in the mean temperatures.

Choose the correct answer:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. The difference in the mean monthly temperature of January and July is
known as the annual range of temperature. Consider the following
statements in context with the same:

1. The highest annual range of temperature is generally recorded in the subpolar

region in Siberia where average annual range of temperature is about is about
64 degrees.

2. The southern hemisphere on the other hand, experiences relatively little

annual range in the mean temperatures.

Choose the correct answer:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Annual Range of Temperature

• The difference in the mean monthly temperature of January and July is known
as the annual range of temperature.

• The highest annual range of temperature is generally recorded in the subpolar

region in Siberia where average annual range of temperature is about is about
64 degrees. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The southern hemisphere on the other hand, experiences relatively little

annual range in the mean temperatures. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• In general, the Northern hemisphere, with greater land area overall, registers a
slightly average surface temperatures (15 degree Celsius) than the Southern
Hemisphere (12.7 degree Celsius).
Q. Which of the following may be the true characteristics of a Cyclone? ( CDS
question)

A. Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas Tropical
cyclones follow trade winds.

B. The front side of a cyclone is known as the eye of the cyclone.

C. Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure surrounded by closed bars .

D. Hurricanes are well-known tropical cyclones which develop over mid

latitudes.
Q. Which of the following may be the true characteristics of a Cyclone? ( CDS
question)

A. Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas

Tropical cyclones follow trade winds.

B. The front side of a cyclone is known as the eye of the cyclone.

C. Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure surrounded by closed bars .

D. Hurricanes are well-known tropical cyclones which develop over mid

latitudes.
Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The Norwegian coast , even at the latitudes 60 degree to 70 degree

North is ice free throughout the year .

Statement 2: Coasts warmed by the warm currents such as North Atlantic Drift
have their surface temperature raised .

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The Norwegian coast , even at the latitudes 60 degree to 70 degree

North is ice free throughout the year .

Statement 2: Coasts warmed by the warm currents such as North Atlantic Drift
have their surface temperature raised .

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation:
• Coasts warmed by the warm currents such as North Atlantic Drift have their
surface temperature raised . The Norwegian coast , even at the latitudes 60
degree to 70 degree North is ice – free throughout the year .

• The Norwegian coast, despite being located at high latitudes (60° to 70°
North), remains ice-free throughout the year. This is primarily due to the
influence of the North Atlantic Drift, which is a warm ocean current derived
from the Gulf Stream. This current brings warm water to the Norwegian coast,
preventing ice formation even in the colder months.
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Labrador current as an example of cold current originates in the Baffin

Bay and Davis strait and after flowing through the coastal waters of New
Foundland and Grand Bank merges with the Gulf Stream around 50 degree W
longitude.

2. This current sometimes brings with it large number of icebergs as far as south
as New Foundland and Grand Bank which present effective hindrances in the
oceanic navigation.

3. Dense fogs are also produced due to convergence of the Labrador cold current
and the Gulf Stream near Newfoundland.

How many statements given above is/are true?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Labrador current as an example of cold current originates in the Baffin

Bay and Davis strait and after flowing through the coastal waters of New
Foundland and Grand Bank merges with the Gulf Stream around 50 degree W
longitude.

2. This current sometimes brings with it large number of icebergs as far as south
as New Foundland and Grand Bank which present effective hindrances in the
oceanic navigation.

3. Dense fogs are also produced due to convergence of the Labrador cold current
and the Gulf Stream near Newfoundland.

How many statements given above is/are true?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
Labrador Current (cold)

• The Labrador current as an example of cold current originates in the Baffin Bay
and Davis strait and after flowing through the coastal waters of New
Foundland and Grand Bank merges with the Gulf Stream around 50 degree W
longitude. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The floe discharge rate of current is 7.5 million cubic metre of water per
second.

• This current sometimes brings with it large number of icebergs as far as south
as New Foundland and Grand Bank. These icebergs present effective
hindrances in the oceanic navigation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Dense fogs are also produced due to convergence of the Labrador cold current
and the Gulf Stream near Newfoundland. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q. Which of the following statements is inaccurate in the context of the
Continental Shelf?

1. Their shallow depth allows sunlight to penetrate, promoting the growth of

plankton and supporting rich fishing grounds such as the Grand Banks off
Newfoundland, the North Sea, and the Sunda Shelf.

2. Their limited depth and gentle slope keep out cold under currents and
increase the height of tides which sometimes hinders shipping and other
marine activities since ships can only enter and leave port on the tide.

Choose the answer from the options given below:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following statements is inaccurate in the context of the
Continental Shelf?

1. Their shallow depth allows sunlight to penetrate, promoting the growth of

plankton and supporting rich fishing grounds such as the Grand Banks off
Newfoundland, the North Sea, and the Sunda Shelf.

2. Their limited depth and gentle slope keep out cold under currents and
increase the height of tides which sometimes hinders shipping and other
marine activities since ships can only enter and leave port on the tide.

Choose the answer from the options given below:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
The continental shelves are of great geographical significance for the following
reasons:

• Their shallowness enables sunlight to penetrate through the water , which

encourages the growth of minute plants and other microscopic organisms
.They are thus rich in plankton on which millions of surface and bottom
feeding fishes thrive. The continental shelves are therefore the richest fishing
grounds in the world, eg the Grand banks off Newfoundland ,the North Sea
and the Sunda shelf. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Their limited depth and gentle slope keep out cold under currents and
increase the height of tides. This sometimes hinders shipping and other
marine activities since ships can only enter and leave port on the tide. Most of
the world’s greatest seaports including Southhampton,

• London,Hamburg,Rotterdam,Hong Kong and Singapore is located on the

continental shelves . Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q. Which of the following best explains the term ‘Pycnocline layer’ in
Oceanography?

A. This layer is the uppermost layer of the ocean where water temperature
remains constant across its depth, regardless of latitude or season.

B. This layer represents a transition zone of rapidly changing sea water density
between low density upper surface (sea surface) water layer and high-density
deep-sea water below.

C. The pycnocline is a shallow zone in the ocean where light penetration is at its
maximum, supporting the highest levels of primary productivity.

D. None
Q. Which of the following best explains the term ‘Pycnocline layer’ in
Oceanography?

A. This layer is the uppermost layer of the ocean where water temperature
remains constant across its depth, regardless of latitude or season.

B. This layer represents a transition zone of rapidly changing sea water density
between low density upper surface (sea surface) water layer and high-
density deep-sea water below.

C. The pycnocline is a shallow zone in the ocean where light penetration is at its
maximum, supporting the highest levels of primary productivity.

D. None
Explanation:
Pycnocline layer

• This layer represents a transition zone of rapidly changing sea water density
between low density upper surface (sea surface) water layer and high-density
deep-sea water below.

• This layer is found between 300 m – 1000 m depth of ocean water. Hence
option b is correct.
Q. Consider the following statements about Sargasso Sea in North Atlantic
Ocean:

1. This is an cyclonic circulation of ocean currents comprising the north

equatorial current, the Gulf Stream and the Canary current in the North
Atlantic Ocean.

2. The water confined in this gyral is calm and motionless.

3. It is theorized that sizeable portion of the North Atlantic Ocean's water is

confined within this anticyclonic gyral system, thus the confined water does
not have any connection with remaining waters of the ocean causing the
enclosed water to remain calm and motionless.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements about Sargasso Sea in North Atlantic
Ocean:

1. This is an cyclonic circulation of ocean currents comprising the north

equatorial current, the Gulf Stream and the Canary current in the North
Atlantic Ocean.

2. The water confined in this gyral is calm and motionless.

3. It is theorized that sizeable portion of the North Atlantic Ocean's water is

confined within this anticyclonic gyral system, thus the confined water does
not have any connection with remaining waters of the ocean causing the
enclosed water to remain calm and motionless.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
• There is an anticyclonic circulation of ocean currents comprising the north
equatorial current, the Gulf Stream and the Canary current in the North
Atlantic Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

• The water confined in this gyral is calm and motionless. Hence statement 2 is
correct.

• Thus, the motionless sea of the said gyral is called Sargasso Sea which is
derived from the Portuguese word ‘sargassum’ meaning thereby sea weeds. It
may be pointed out that similar Sargasso Sea is not found in the South Atlantic
Ocean.
Explanation:
• The origin of the Sargasso Sea is attributed to several factors:

o The sizeable portion of the waters of the North Atlantic Ocean is confined
in the gyral system formed by the anticyclonic circulation of the North
Equatorial current, the Gulf Stream and the Canary current and thus the
confined water does not have any connection with remaining waters of the
ocean. Thus, the confined water becomes calm and motionless. Hence
statement 3 is correct.

o The Sargasso Sea is located in the transition zone of the trade winds (N.E.
Trades) and the westerlies. This zone is characterized by the subsidence of
air from above and the resultant anticyclonic conditions. Thus, the
anticyclonic conditions cause atmospheric stability and hence there are
very feeble and calm winds due to which there is little mixing of confined
water (sargasso sea) with the remaining waters of the North Atlantic
Ocean.
Explanation:
o The North Atlantic Ocean is less extensive between 20⁰-40⁰ N latitudes than
other oceans in the same latitudes.

o The confined waters become calm due to higher velocity of the North
Equatorial Current and the Gulf Stream.
Q) Assertion: The salinity of the Baltic, Arctic, and Antarctic waters is generally
less than 32 parts per thousand.

Reason: The colder climate with little evaporation and because much fresh
water is added from melting of icebergs as well as by several large poleward-
bound rivers.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the
assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason does not correctly
explain the assertion.
c) The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
d) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct
Q) Assertion: The salinity of the Baltic, Arctic, and Antarctic waters is generally
less than 32 parts per thousand.

Reason: The colder climate with little evaporation and because much fresh
water is added from melting of icebergs as well as by several large poleward-
bound rivers.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the
assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason does not correctly
explain the assertion.
c) The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
d) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct
Variation in salinity: Based on amount of fresh water added by precipitation,
streams and icebergs

• Salinity is lower than the average 35 parts per thousand in equatorial waters
because of heavy daily rainfall and high relative humidity .

• Oceans into which huge rivers like Amazon, Congo , Irrawaddy and Mekong
drain ,have much of their saltness diluted and have a lower salinity .

• The Baltic , Arctic and Antarctica waters have salinity of less than 32 parts per
thousand because of the colder climate with little evaporation and because
much fresh water is added from melting of icebergs as well as by several
large poleward-bound rivers ,e.g. Ob,Lena , Yenisay and Mackenzie .
Q. Consider the following possible consequences of a substantial slowdown of
the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC):

1. Decrease in marine productivity in the North Atlantic

2. Increased number of tropical cyclones in the Atlantic

3. Regional sea level rise along the northeast coast of North America

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following possible consequences of a substantial slowdown of
the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC):

1. Decrease in marine productivity in the North Atlantic

2. Increased number of tropical cyclones in the Atlantic

3. Regional sea level rise along the northeast coast of North America

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
AMOC is characterized by a northward flow of warm, salty water in the upper layers
of the Atlantic, and a southward flow of colder, deep waters that are part of
the thermohaline circulation.

Effect of AMOC slowdown

Any substantial weakening of the AMOC would cause

• further decrease in marine productivity in the North Atlantic (less sinking will
lead to less mixing of water) , Hence statement 1 is correct .

• more storms in Northern Europe,

• less Sahelian summer rainfall and South Asian summer rainfall,

• a reduced number of tropical cyclones in the Atlantic - Hence statement 2 is

incorrect.

• an increase in regional sea level along the northeast coast of North America - -
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q. Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of Lake-effect snow?

A. Lake-effect snow occurs when warm ocean currents interact with cold air
masses, creating intense snowfall over coastal areas.

B. Lake-effect snow is a localized weather phenomenon where cold, dry air from
Canada picks up warmth and moisture from the relatively warmer Great
Lakes, leading to the formation of snow bands.

C. Lake-effect snow forms when cold, dry air from southern regions flows over
the Great Lakes, picking up moisture and resulting in intense snowfall over
nearby land areas.

D. None
Q. Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of Lake-effect snow?

A. Lake-effect snow occurs when warm ocean currents interact with cold air
masses, creating intense snowfall over coastal areas.

B. Lake-effect snow is a localized weather phenomenon where cold, dry air

from Canada picks up warmth and moisture from the relatively warmer
Great Lakes, leading to the formation of snow bands.

C. Lake-effect snow forms when cold, dry air from southern regions flows over
the Great Lakes, picking up moisture and resulting in intense snowfall over
nearby land areas.

D. None
Explanation:
• Lake effect Snow in Great Lakes regions . It is a localised phenomena.

• Lake-effect snow develops when cold, dry air, often originating from Canada,
flows across the relatively warmer waters of the Great Lakes.

• As that cold air passes over the lakes, warmth and moisture from the water
are picked up and transferred into the lowest portion of the Earth’s
atmosphere. This rising air condenses into clouds, which can grow into
narrow bands that are capable of producing snowfall rates on the order of 2 to
3 inches per hour or more.

• Hence b is the correct option.

Q. Which of the following factors typically influence the rate of evaporation?

1. Temperature

2. Humidity

3. Movement of air

4. Surface area of the liquid

Options:

A. 1,2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4
Q. Which of the following factors typically influence the rate of evaporation?

1. Temperature

2. Humidity

3. Movement of air

4. Surface area of the liquid

Options:

A. 1,2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
• Increase in temperature increases water absorption and retention capacity of
the given parcel of air. Hence option 1 is correct.

• High humidity slows evaporation because the air is already saturated with
moisture, while low humidity increases evaporation by allowing more
moisture to escape into the air.Hence option 2 is correct .

• Movement of air replaces the saturated layer with the unsaturated layer.
Hence, the greater the movement of air, the greater is the evaporation . Hence
option 3 is correct.

• Evaporation is a surface phenomena, greater the surface area of water ,leads to

quicker quicker evaporation. Hence option 4 is correct.
Explanation:
• The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is added or withdrawn due to
evaporation and condensation respectively. Evaporation is a process by which
water is transformed from liquid to gaseous state. Heat is the main cause for
evaporation. The temperature at which the water starts evaporating is referred
to as the latent heat of vapourisation. Increase in temperature increases water
absorption and retention capacity of the given parcel of air. Similarly, if the
moisture content is low, air has a potentiality of absorbing and retaining
moisture. Movement of air replaces the saturated layer with the unsaturated
layer. Hence, the greater the movement of air, the greater is the evaporation
Q. X City, located at 140° East longitude, will be celebrating the New Year on
January 1, 2026 at 12:00 AM (midnight). What will be the local time in Y City,
located at 18° West longitude, at that exact moment?

A. 10:28 AM on December 31, 2025

B. 1:28 PM on December 31, 2025

C. 3:12 PM on December 31, 2025

D. 2:45 PM on January 1, 2026

Q. X City, located at 140° East longitude, will be celebrating the New Year on
January 1, 2026 at 12:00 AM (midnight). What will be the local time in Y City,
located at 18° West longitude, at that exact moment?

A. 10:28 AM on December 31, 2025

B. 1:28 PM on December 31, 2025

C. 3:12 PM on December 31, 2025

D. 2:45 PM on January 1, 2026

Explanation:
To find the local time in Y City when X City celebrates the New Year at midnight
on January 1, 2026, we first calculate the longitudinal difference between the two
cities. X City is located at 140° East longitude, and Y City is located at 18° West
longitude, giving a total difference of 158 degrees.S ince the Earth rotates 15° per
hour, the time difference is 10 hours and 32 minutes. Since X City is ahead of Y
City in time, we subtract this time difference from the New Year's midnight
celebration in X City (12:00 AM on January 1, 2026). This results in 1:28 PM on
December 31, 2025 in Y City.
Q. The International Date Line (IDL) is where the date changes by exactly one
day when crossed. When it is midnight Friday on the Asiatic side of the IDL,
and a person crosses the line eastwards. What time will it be on the opposite
side of the IDL?

A. Midnight Friday

B. Midnight Thursday

C. Midnight Saturday

D. Noon Thursday
Q. The International Date Line (IDL) is where the date changes by exactly one
day when crossed. When it is midnight Friday on the Asiatic side of the IDL,
and a person crosses the line eastwards. What time will it be on the opposite
side of the IDL?

A. Midnight Friday

B. Midnight Thursday

C. Midnight Saturday

D. Noon Thursday
Explanation:
• International date line is an imaginary line where the date changes by exactly
one day when it is crossed .

• When it is midnight , Friday on the Asiatic side , by crossing the line

eastwards , , it will be midnight Thursday on that side , he will experience the
same calendar twice.
Q. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?

A. Bering Strait

B. Strait of Magellan

C. Strait of Sunda

D. Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb
Q. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?

A. Bering Strait

B. Strait of Magellan

C. Strait of Sunda

D. Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb
Explanation:
The Bering Strait lies between eastern Russia and Alaska (USA). It is located near
the 180° longitude, which is where the International Date Line (IDL) roughly runs,
making it the nearest strait to the IDL. Hence option a is correct.
Q. The sun is directly overhead at noon on 21st June at: (NCERT question)

A. The equator

B. 23.5 degree South

C. 23.5 degree North

D. 66.5 degree North

Q. The sun is directly overhead at noon on 21st June at: (NCERT question)

A. The equator

B. 23.5 degree South

C. 23.5 degree North

D. 66.5 degree North

Explanation:
On June 21st, the Sun is directly overhead at noon at the Tropic of Cancer, which
is located at 23.5° North latitude. This date marks the summer solstice in the
Northern Hemisphere, when the Earth's axial tilt is such that the Northern
Hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun.
Q. Which of the following statements is/are true about the natural vegetation in
the British type of climate?

1. The natural vegetation of this climatic type is deciduous forest.

2. These trees shed their leaves in the cold season which is an adaptation for
protecting themselves against the winter snow and frost.

3. Higher up the mountains in the Scandinavian highlands, the Rockies,

southern Andes and the Southern Alps of New Zealand, the deciduous trees
are generally replaced by the conifers which can survive a higher altitude, a
lower temperature and poorer soils.

Options:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Q. Which of the following statements is/are true about the natural vegetation in
the British type of climate?

1. The natural vegetation of this climatic type is deciduous forest.

2. These trees shed their leaves in the cold season which is an adaptation for
protecting themselves against the winter snow and frost.

3. Higher up the mountains in the Scandinavian highlands, the Rockies,

southern Andes and the Southern Alps of New Zealand, the deciduous trees
are generally replaced by the conifers which can survive a higher altitude, a
lower temperature and poorer soils.

Options:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• The natural vegetation of this climatic type is deciduous forest. Hence
statement 1 is correct

• The trees shed their leaves in the cold season. This is an adaptation for
protecting themselves against the winter snow and frost. Hence statement 2 is
correct

• Shedding begins in autumn, the ‘fall’ season during which leaves fall and are
scattered by winds . Some of the common species include oak, elm, ash, birch,
beech, and poplar. In the wetter areas grow willows, alder and aspen.
Elsewhere are found other species eg chestnut ,sycamore ,maple and lime.
Explanation:
• Unlike the equatorial forests, the deciduous trees occur in pure stands and
have greater lumbering value. The open nature of the forests with sparse
undergrowth is useful in logging operations. Easy penetration means much
cost can be saved in the movement of the logs. The deciduous hardwoods are
excellent for both fuel and industrial purposes. In Tasmania, the temperate
eucalypts are also extensively felled for the lumbering industry.

• Higher up the mountains in the Scandinavian highlands, the Rockies,

southern Andes and the Southern Alps of New Zealand, the deciduous trees
are generally replaced by the conifers which can survive a higher altitude, a
lower temperature and poorer soils. Hence statement 3 is correct
Q. Which of the following is incorrect about Tundra Climate?

A. Mean annual precipitation mostly in the form of snowfall, is below 40 cm.

B. The absolute humidity is very low because of low rate of evaporation due to
low temperatures throughout the year.

C. The convergent system of air circulation and anticyclonic circulation do not

favor much precipitation.

D. Most of the annual precipitation is received during summer and autumn

because of relatively higher temperatures.
Q. Which of the following is incorrect about Tundra Climate?

A. Mean annual precipitation mostly in the form of snowfall, is below 40 cm.

B. The absolute humidity is very low because of low rate of evaporation due to
low temperatures throughout the year.

C. The convergent system of air circulation and anticyclonic circulation do not

favor much precipitation.

D. Most of the annual precipitation is received during summer and autumn

because of relatively higher temperatures.
Explanation:
Tundra Climate

Precipitation

• Mean annual precipitation mostly in the form of snowfall, is below 40 cm.

Hence option a is correct .

• The absolute humidity is very low because of low rate of evaporation due to
low temperatures throughout the year. Hence option b is correct .

• The divergent system of air circulation and anticyclonic circulation do not

Favor much precipitation. Hence option c is incorrect . .

• Most of the annual precipitation is received during summer and autumn

because of relatively higher temperatures. Hence option d is correct.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Taiga climate (Boreal Forest
Biome)

1. Coniferous trees are the most dominant vegetation in this biome.

2. These forests are among the richest sources of softwood in the world.

3. A few species of temperate deciduous hardwood trees have also developed in

this climate mainly in those areas which have been cleared by man through
felling of original temperate coniferous trees.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Taiga climate (Boreal Forest
Biome)

1. Coniferous trees are the most dominant vegetation in this biome.

2. These forests are among the richest sources of softwood in the world.

3. A few species of temperate deciduous hardwood trees have also developed in

this climate mainly in those areas which have been cleared by man through
felling of original temperate coniferous trees.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Natural Vegetation on Sub-Arctic Climate:

• The coniferous trees are the most dominant member of taiga climate or the
Boreal Forest Biome. Hence statement 1 is correct .

• These trees form dense cover of forests which arc the richest sources of
softwood in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct .

• There are four major genera of evergreen coniferous trees e.g.:

o Pine (white pine, red pine, Scots pine, jack pine, lodgepole pine etc.).

o Fir (doughlas fir, balsam fir etc.),

o Spruce (Picea), and

o Larch (Larix).
Explanation:
• Besides, a few species of temperate deciduous hardwood trees have also
developed in this climate mainly in those areas which have been cleared by
man through felling of original temperate coniferous trees. Thus, the
temperate deciduous trees represent the ‘secondary succession of vegetation’
which includes alder, birch and poplar. Hence statement 3 is correct
Q) Which of the following regions experience Mediterranean climate(Cs) as per Koeppen
Classification?
1. Central California
2. Central Chile
3. Coasts of southeastern Australia
Select from the options given below
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. All of the above
Q) Which of the following regions experience Mediterranean climate(Cs) as per Koeppen
Classification?
1. Central California
2. Central Chile
3. Coasts of southeastern Australia
Select from the options given below
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. All of the above
• Mediterranean Climate (Cs)
• As the name suggests, Mediterranean climate occurs around Mediterranean sea,
along the west coast of continents in subtropical latitudes between 30° - 40° latitudes
e.g. — Central California, Central Chile, along the coast in south eastern and south
western Australia. Hence option d is the correct answer.
• These areas come under the influence of subtropical high in summer and westerly
wind in winter. Hence, the climate is characterised by hot, dry summer and mild,
rainy winter.
• Monthly average temperature in summer is around 25° C and in winter below 10°C.
The annual precipitation ranges between 35 - 90 cm.
Q. Mark the incorrect one:

A. Purga – a snow laden cold wind in Russian Tundra

B. Santa Ana – a warm and dry wind in the U.S.A

C. Levanter – a strong easterly cold wind in eastern Mediterranean

D. Yamo -a warm and dry wind in Japan

Q. Mark the incorrect one:

A. Purga – a snow laden cold wind in Russian Tundra

B. Santa Ana – a warm and dry wind in the U.S.A

C. Levanter – a strong easterly cold wind in eastern Mediterranean

D. Yamo -a warm and dry wind in Japan

Explanation:
• Purga – a snow laden cold wind in Russian Tundra

• Levanter – a strong easterly cold wind in southern Spain

• Yamo -a warm and dry wind in Japan

• Zonda – a warm wind in Argentina

• Santa Ana – a warm and dry wind in the U.S.A

Q. Consider the explanation:

When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the
land, it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same
position to develop a wall-like structure. These are the most commonly found
intrusive forms in the western Maharashtra area. These are considered the
feeders for the eruptions that led to the development of the Deccan traps.

As for the question, the volcanic landform described above is best represented
by:

A. Batholith

B. Dykes

C. Lacolith

D. Caldera
Q. Consider the explanation:

When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the
land, it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same
position to develop a wall-like structure. These are the most commonly found
intrusive forms in the western Maharashtra area. These are considered the
feeders for the eruptions that led to the development of the Deccan traps.

As for the question, the volcanic landform described above is best represented
by:

A. Batholith

B. Dykes

C. Lacolith

D. Caldera
Explanation:
Dykes

• When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the
land, it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the
same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are called
dykes. These are the most commonly found intrusive forms in the western
Maharashtra area. These are considered the feeders for the eruptions that led
to the development of the Deccan traps
Q. Choose the incorrect statement:

A. The monsoon of South Asia is largely affected by jet streams.

B. Jet steams aid in in the transport of anthropogenic pollutants from troposphere

to stratosphere.

C. There are fluctuations in the local weather conditions due to changes in the
form and nature of ground surface cyclones and anticyclones caused by upper
air jet streams.

D. None
Q. Choose the incorrect statement:

A. The monsoon of South Asia is largely affected by jet streams.

B. Jet steams aid in in the transport of anthropogenic pollutants from troposphere

to stratosphere.

C. There are fluctuations in the local weather conditions due to changes in the
form and nature of ground surface cyclones and anticyclones caused by upper
air jet streams.

D. None
Explanation:
Significance of Jet Streams:

Though jet streams have not been properly studied as yet but they are supposed
to have immense influence on local and regional weather conditions as follows:

• There is close relationship between the intensity of mid-latitude (temperate)

cyclones and jet streams. These cyclones become very strong and stormy when
the upper air tropospheric jet streams are positioned above temperate cyclones
of ground surface and yield more precipitation than normal.

• There are fluctuations in the local weather conditions due to changes in the
form and nature of ground surface cyclones and anticyclones caused by
upper air jet streams. Hence statement c is correct.

• Jet streams cause horizontal convergence and divergence in the upper

troposphere. The upper air convergence forms upper air anticyclones while
upper air cyclones are developed due to upper air divergence.
Explanation:
• The vertical circulation of air in jet streams occurs in two ways e.g., cyclonic
pattern is characterized by upward vertical air movement while there is
downward vertical air movement in anticyclonic pattern of air circulation. This
vertical air circulation causes rapid rate of mixing of air between troposphere
and stratosphere, which helps in the transport of anthropogenic pollutants
from troposphere to stratosphere. For example, the transport of ozone
depleting chlorofluorocarbon substances into stratosphere causes global
warming. Hence statement b is correct.

• The monsoon of South Asia is largely affected and controlled by jet streams.
Hence statement a is correct.
Q) Asssertion (A): Polar Jet Streams and Subtropical Jet Streams flow at
different altitudes.
Reason (R): The troposphere is thicker at the equator (17–18 km) and thinner
at the poles (8–9 km).

Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Q) Asssertion (A): Polar Jet Streams and Subtropical Jet Streams flow at different
altitudes.
Reason (R): The troposphere is thicker at the equator (17–18 km) and thinner at
the poles (8–9 km).

Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Why do Polar Jets and Subtropical Jets flow at different altitudes?

• Polar jet streams flow 6-9 km above the ground and Sub Tropical
jet streams flow 10 -16 km above the ground.

• This is because the troposphere is thicker at the equator (17-18

km) than at the poles ( 8- 9 km). Hence option a (Both A and R
are true, and R is the correct explanation of A) is correct .
Q. The term "Omega Blocking", frequently seen in the news, is associated with:

A. Genetic modification in crops

B. Cybersecurity protocols in satellite networks

C. A specific type of atmospheric circulation pattern

D. Oceanic currents in the Southern Hemisphere

Q. The term "Omega Blocking", frequently seen in the news, is associated with:

A. Genetic modification in crops

B. Cybersecurity protocols in satellite networks

C. A specific type of atmospheric circulation pattern

D. Oceanic currents in the Southern Hemisphere

Explanation:
Omega Block

• Omega blocks get their name because the upper air pattern looks like the
Greek letter omega (Ω). Omega blocks are a combination of two cutoff lows
with one blocking high sandwiched between them. Hence option c is correct .

• Because of their size, Omega blocks are often quite persistent and can lead to
flooding and drought conditions, depending upon the location under the
pattern. Cooler temperatures and precipitation accompany the lows, while
warm and clear conditions prevail under the high.
Q. Which one among the following best defines humidity?

A. Deposition of atmospheric moisture

B. The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place

C. The formation of water droplets due to cooling of air

D. The amount of moisture released from clouds into the atmosphere

Q. Which one among the following best defines humidity?

A. Deposition of atmospheric moisture

B. The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place

C. The formation of water droplets due to cooling of air

D. The amount of moisture released from clouds into the atmosphere

Explanation:
Humidity refers to the amount of water vapor present in the air at any given time
and location. This moisture can exist in varying amounts depending on the
temperature and the capacity of the air to hold water vapor. Hence option b is
correct.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of relative
humidity on earth’s surface

1. Equatorial regions are characterized by the highest relative humidity.

2. Relative humidity gradually decreases towards the subtropical high-pressure

belts where it becomes minimum.

3. Relative humidity further increases poleward.

Which of the statements given above is/are generally correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of relative
humidity on earth’s surface

1. Equatorial regions are characterized by the highest relative humidity.

2. Relative humidity gradually decreases towards the subtropical high-pressure

belts where it becomes minimum.

3. Relative humidity further increases poleward.

Which of the statements given above is/are generally correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
Distribution of Relative humidity

• The horizontal distribution of relative humidity on the earth’s surface is zonal

in character .

• Equatorial regions are characterised by highest relative humidity . Hence

statement 1 is correct .

• It gradually decreases towards subtropical high pressure belts where it

becomes minimum. Hence statement 2 is correct .

• It further increases poleward . Hence statement 3 is correct .

• The zones of high and low relative humidity shift northwards and southward
with northwards and southwards migration of the sun respectively.
Q. With reference to recent climatic developments, consider the following
statements:

1. 2024 became the first year where mean global temperatures temporarily
crossed the 1.5°C threshold above pre-industrial levels.

2. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) declared 2024 as the second

hottest year ever recorded after 2005.

3. The rise in temperature in 2024 was primarily attributed to a series of volcanic

eruptions that disrupted atmospheric circulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All are correct

Q. With reference to recent climatic developments, consider the following
statements:

1. 2024 became the first year where mean global temperatures temporarily
crossed the 1.5°C threshold above pre-industrial levels.

2. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) declared 2024 as the second

hottest year ever recorded after 2005.

3. The rise in temperature in 2024 was primarily attributed to a series of volcanic

eruptions that disrupted atmospheric circulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All are correct

Explanation:
• 2024 saw mean global temperatures temporarily cross the 1.5°C warming limit
set by the Paris Agreement. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

• The WMO confirmed 2024 as the hottest year on record.

• The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has confirmed that 2024 is the
warmest year on record, based on six international datasets. The past ten years
have all been in the Top Ten, in an extraordinary streak of record-breaking
temperatures. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect

• The warming was primarily due to anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions

and El Niño, not a volcanic eruption. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect
Q. With reference to the 2024 South American Wildfires, consider the following
statements:

1. The wildfires were largely confined to the Amazon Basin in Brazil, sparing
Andean nations like Colombia and Ecuador.

2. Drought conditions linked to El Niño significantly contributed to the scale and

intensity of the fires.

3. Despite being the largest rainforest, the Amazon receives less annual rainfall
than the Congo Basin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. All are Correct

Q. With reference to the 2024 South American Wildfires, consider the following
statements:

1. The wildfires were largely confined to the Amazon Basin in Brazil, sparing
Andean nations like Colombia and Ecuador.

2. Drought conditions linked to El Niño significantly contributed to the scale and

intensity of the fires.

3. Despite being the largest rainforest, the Amazon receives less annual rainfall
than the Congo Basin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. All are Correct

Explanation:
• The wildfires were not limited to Brazil. They also severely impacted countries
like Bolivia, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, and Peru—many of which are Andean
nations. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect

• El Niño-induced drought played a major role in worsening the wildfires.

Hence Statement 2 is correct

• The Amazon Basin receives more rainfall on average than the Congo Basin and
is among the wettest regions on Earth. Statement 3 is incorrect
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Antarctic Heatwave of 2024:

1. The heatwave occurred during the austral summer season, severely impacting
penguin breeding colonies along the Antarctic Peninsula.

2. It was attributed to a weakened polar vortex and resulted in temperature

anomalies as high as 28°C above the seasonal average.

3. The event raised concerns over accelerated melting of the West Antarctic Ice
Sheet, which has implications for global sea-level rise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Antarctic Heatwave of 2024:

1. The heatwave occurred during the austral summer season, severely impacting
penguin breeding colonies along the Antarctic Peninsula.

2. It was attributed to a weakened polar vortex and resulted in temperature

anomalies as high as 28°C above the seasonal average.

3. The event raised concerns over accelerated melting of the West Antarctic Ice
Sheet, which has implications for global sea-level rise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
• It is very important to note that the 2024 Antarctic heatwave occurred during
mid-winter, not summer. It was an unusual event with extreme temperature
spikes, especially in East and Central Antarctica, not just the Peninsula. Hence
Statement 1 is incorrect

• The heatwave was indeed linked to a weakened polar vortex and saw
anomalies of up to +28°C above normal. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

• Such events heighten the risk of West Antarctic Ice Sheet instability, which
could contribute significantly to global sea-level rise. Hence Statement 3 is
correct.
Q) Consider the following statements :

1) The areas from where sea surface water is driven away by

offshore winds results into upwelling of water from below
record low temperatures at the sea surface.
2) The areas where there is piling of sea water because of onshore
winds, record relatively high temperature at sea surface

Which of the following is /are correct?

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q) Consider the following statements :

1) The areas from where sea surface water is driven away by

offshore winds results into upwelling of water from below
record low temperatures at the sea surface.
2) The areas where there is piling of sea water because of onshore
winds, record relatively high temperature at sea surface

Which of the following is /are correct?

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• The areas from where sea surface water is driven away by
offshore winds resulting into upwelling of water from below
record low temperatures at the sea surface and thus the rate of
decrease of temperatures with increasing depth becomes low.
Hence statement 1 is correct .

• Contrary to these areas where there is piling of sea water

because of onshore winds, record relatively high temperature
at sea surface and thus rate of decrease of temperature with
increasing depth becomes rapid. Hence statement 2 is correct .
Mark the incorrect statement :

a) Trade wind rainfall zone extends between 10 degree and 20-

degree latitudes in both hemispheres and is characterised by
north east and south east trade winds.
b) These trade winds yield rainfall in the eastern parts of the
continents because they come over from the oceans and hence
pick up sufficient moisture.
c) As these winds they move westward across the continents, they
become dry and thus western parts of the continents become
extremely dry.
d) None
Mark the incorrect statement :

a) Trade wind rainfall zone extends between 10 degree and

20-degree latitudes in both hemispheres and is
characterised by north east and south east trade winds.
b) These trade winds yield rainfall in the eastern parts of the
continents because they come over from the oceans and
hence pick up sufficient moisture.
c) As these winds they move westward across the
continents, they become dry and thus western parts of
the continents become extremely dry.
d) None
•

• Trade wind rainfall zone extends between 10 degree

and 20 degree latitudes in both hemispheres and is
characterised by north east and south east trade
winds. Hence statement 1 is correct .

• These trade winds yield rainfall in the eastern parts

of the continents because they come over from the
oceans and hence pick up sufficient moisture. .
Hence statement 2 is correct .

• But as they move westward in the continents they

become dry and thus western parts of the continents
become extremely dry and deserts . . Hence
statement 3 is correct .

• The monsoon region located in this zone receive

much rainfall.. Summers receive most of the mean
annual rainfall .
Which of the following is/are true for Frontal Inversion?

1) A frontal inversion occurs when a warm air mass under cuts a cold air mass and
lifts it aloft.
2) This kind of inversion has considerable slope whereas other inversions are nearly
horizontal.

Select the correct option:

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following is/are true for Frontal Inversion?

1) A frontal inversion occurs when a warm air mass under cuts a cold air mass and
lifts it aloft.
2) This kind of inversion has considerable slope whereas other inversions are nearly
horizontal.

Select the correct option:

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
A frontal inversion occurs when a cold air mass
under cuts a warm air mass and lifts it aloft .
Hence option 1 is incorrect .

This kind of inversion has considerable slope

whereas other inversions are nearly horizontal .
Hence option 2 is correct .

• Also , humidity may be high and clouds may be

present immediately above it. This type pf
inversion is unstable and is destroyed as the
weather changes .
Q) In which of the following atmospheric layers , temperature decrease with
height

a) Mesosphere and Thermosphere

b) Stratosphere and Mesosphere
c) Stratosphere and Thermosphere
d) Troposphere and Mesosphere
Q) In which of the following atmospheric layers , temperature decrease with
height

a) Mesosphere and Thermosphere

b) Stratosphere and Mesosphere
c) Stratosphere and Thermosphere
d) Troposphere and Mesosphere
The column of atmosphere is divided into five different layers depending
upon the temperature condition. They are: troposphere, stratosphere,
mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere.

Troposphere: The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C

for every 165m of height. This is the most important layer for all
biological activity. Hence option d is correct .

• Mesosphere: In this layer, , temperature starts decreasing with the

increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at the height of 80
km. Hence option d is correct .
Q. The angle between the rays of the sun and the tangent to the surface of the
earth at a given place largely determines the amount of insolation to be
received at that place. The control of Angle of sun’s rays on the amount of
insolation may be explained with the following:

1. Vertical rays are spread over minimum area of the earth’s surface and they
beat the minimum possible area and thus energy per unit area increases.

2. Oblique rays are spread over large area of earth’s surface and hence the
amount of energy per unit area decreases.

3. The oblique rays lose more energy than the vertical rays while passing through
the earth’s atmosphere.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Q. The angle between the rays of the sun and the tangent to the surface of the
earth at a given place largely determines the amount of insolation to be
received at that place. The control of Angle of sun’s rays on the amount of
insolation may be explained with the following:

1. Vertical rays are spread over minimum area of the earth’s surface and they
beat the minimum possible area and thus energy per unit area increases.

2. Oblique rays are spread over large area of earth’s surface and hence the
amount of energy per unit area decreases.

3. The oblique rays lose more energy than the vertical rays while passing through
the earth’s atmosphere.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
The angle between the rays of the sun and the tangent to the surface of the earth at
a given place largely determines the amount of insolation to be received at that
place. The control of Angle of sun’s rays on the amount of insolation may be
explained with the following:

• Vertical rays are spread over minimum area of the earth’s surface and they
beat the minimum possible area and thus energy per unit area increases.
Hence statement 1 is correct.

• On the other hand, Oblique rays are spread over large area of earth’s surface
and hence the amount of energy per unit area decreases. Hence statement 2 is
correct.

• Oblique rays have to pass through thicker portion of the atmosphere than the
vertical rays. Thus, the oblique rays have to traverse large distances than the
vertical rays. Consequently, the amount of solar energy lost due to reflection,
scattering and absorption increases with increasing distance of travel path
covered by sun’s rays through the atmosphere. It may be summarised that
the oblique rays lose more energy than the vertical rays while passing
through the earth’s atmosphere. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q. Choose the incorrect statement:

A. The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet east of Mansarowar lake very close to the
sources of the Indus and the Satluj

B. The Brahmaputra has a braided channel in its entire length in Assam and
forms many riverine islands.

C. In Tibet, it passes through a region of high rainfall and the river carries a large
volume of water and considerable amount of silt.

D. It is slightly longer than the Indus, and most of its course lies outside India.
Q. Choose the incorrect statement:

A. The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet east of Mansarowar lake very close to the
sources of the Indus and the Satluj

B. The Brahmaputra has a braided channel in its entire length in Assam and
forms many riverine islands.

C. In Tibet, it passes through a region of high rainfall and the river carries a
large volume of water and considerable amount of silt.

D. It is slightly longer than the Indus, and most of its course lies outside India.
Explanation:
The Brahmaputra River System

• The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet east of Mansarowar lake very close to the
sources of the Indus and the Satluj. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is slightly longer than the Indus, and most of its course lies outside India.
Hence statement 4 is correct.
• It flows eastwards parallel to the Himalayas. On reaching the Namcha Barwa
(7757 m), it takes a ‘U’ turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a
gorge. Here, it is called the Dihang and it is joined by the Dibang, the Lohit,
and many other tributaries to form the Brahmaputra in Assam.
Explanation:
• In Tibet, the river carries a smaller volume of water and less silt as it is a cold
and a dry area. In India, it passes through a region of high rainfall. Here the
river carries a large volume of water and considerable amount of silt. Hence
statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Brahmaputra has a braided channel in its entire length in Assam and
forms many riverine islands. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Every year during the rainy season, the river overflows its banks, causing
widespread devastation due to floods in Assam and Bangladesh. Unlike other
north Indian rivers, the Brahmaputra is marked by huge deposits of silt on its
bed causing the riverbed to rise. The river also shifts its channel frequently.
Q. Match the rivers with their place of origin:

1. Chambal : a) Malwa plateau

2. Saryu : b) Milam glacier

3. Mahananda: c) Darjiling hills

4. Son : d) Amarkantak plateau

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 – b

B. 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 – d

C. 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 – a

D. 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - c
Q. Match the rivers with their place of origin:

1. Chambal : a) Malwa plateau

2. Saryu : b) Milam glacier

3. Mahananda: c) Darjiling hills

4. Son : d) Amarkantak plateau

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 – b

B. 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 – d

C. 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 – a

D. 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - c
Explanation:
• The Mahananda is another important tributary of the Ganga rising in the
Darjiling hills. It joins the Ganga as its last left bank tributary in West Bengal.

• The Chambal rises near Mhow in the Malwa plateau of Madhya Pradesh
and flows northwards through a gorge up wards of Kota in Rajasthan, where
the Gandhisagar dam has been constructed. From Kota, it traverses down to
Bundi, Sawai Madhopur and Dholpur, and finally joins the Yamuna. The
Chambal is famous for its badland topography called the Chambal ravines.

• The Son is a large south bank tributary of the Ganga, originating in the
Amarkantak plateau. After forming a series of waterfalls at the edge of the
plateau, it reaches Arrah, west of Patna, to join the Ganga.
Explanation:
Chambal : a) Malwa plateau

Saryu : b) Milam glaier

Mahananda: c) Darjiling hills

Son : d) Amarkantak plateau

Hence option b is correct .

Additional Information:

• The Sarda or Saryu river rises in the Milam glacier in the Nepal Himalayas
where it is known as the Goriganga. Along the Indo-Nepal border, it is called
Kali or Chauk, where it joins the Ghaghara.
Q. Consider the following pairs:

Tributary : River

1. Krishna : Indravati

2. Teesta : Rangeet

3. Godavari : Bhima

How many of the above pairs are marked correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Q. Consider the following pairs:

Tributary : River

1. Krishna : Indravati

2. Teesta : Rangeet

3. Godavari : Bhima

How many of the above pairs are marked correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
• The Krishna : The Koyna, the Tungbhadra and the Bhima are its major
tributaries. . Hence option 1 is incorrect .

• The Godavari : Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra are its
principal tributaries. . Hence option 3 is incorrect .

• The Rangeet or Rangit is a tributary of the Teesta river. Hence option 2 is

correct .
Q. This river occupies the eastern margins of the Chotanagpur Plateau where it
flows through a rift valley and finally joins the Hugli. The Barakar is its main
tributary. Identify the river .

A. Mahandi

B. Damodar

C. Kosi

D. Padma
Q. This river occupies the eastern margins of the Chotanagpur Plateau where it
flows through a rift valley and finally joins the Hugli. The Barakar is its main
tributary. Identify the river .

A. Mahandi

B. Damodar

C. Kosi

D. Padma
Explanation:
The Damodar occupies the eastern margins of the Chotanagpur Plateau where it
flows through a rift valley and finally joins the Hugli. The Barakar is its main
tributary. Once known as the ‘sorrow of Bengal’, the Damodar has been now
tamed by the Damodar Valley corporation, a multipurpose project. Hence b is the
correct option.
Q) Consider the following pairs regarding drainage patterns and
examples in India:

1. Dendritic Pattern – Rivers of the Northern Plain

2. Radial Pattern – Rivers originating from the Amarkantak Range

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q) Consider the following pairs regarding drainage patterns and
examples in India:

1. Dendritic Pattern – Rivers of the Northern Plain

2. Radial Pattern – Rivers originating from the Amarkantak

Range

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Important Drainage Patterns

(i) The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree is known as

“dendritic” the examples of which are the rivers of northern plain.
Hence statement 1 is correct
(ii) When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the
drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’. The rivers originating from the
Amarkantak range present a good example of it. Hence statement 1
is correct
(iii) When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other
and secondary tributaries join them at right angles, the pattern is
known as ‘trellis’.
(iv)When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake
or depression, the pattern is know as ‘centripetal’.
Q. Most parts of India do not have rainfall in winter season . Identify the
reasons for the same:

1. Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall because move from land to the sea,
they have little humidity.

2. Due to anti cyclonic circulation on land, the possibility of rainfall from them
reduces.

Select the options given below:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Most parts of India do not have rainfall in winter season . Identify the
reasons for the same:

1. Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall because move from land to the sea,
they have little humidity.

2. Due to anti cyclonic circulation on land, the possibility of rainfall from them
reduces.

Select the options given below:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall as they move from land to the sea. It is
because firstly, they have little humidity; and secondly, due to anti cyclonic
circulation on land, the possibility of rainfall from them reduces. So, most parts of
India do not have rainfall in the winter season. Hence,statements 1 and 2 are
correct .

However, there are some exceptions to it

• In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean

sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh.
Although the amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops. The
precipitation is in the form of snowfall in the lower Himalayas. It is this snow
that sustains the flow of water in the Himalayan rivers during the summer
months. The precipitation goes on decreasing from west to east in the plains
and from north to south in the mountains. The average winter rainfall in Delhi
is around 53 mm. In Punjab and Bihar, rainfall remains between 25 mm and 18
mm respectively.
Explanation:
• Central parts of India and northern parts of southern Peninsula also get winter
rainfall occasionally.

• Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in the northeastern parts of India also have
rains between 25 mm and 50 mm during these winter months.

• During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the
Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil
Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast
Kerala.
Q. Most parts of India do not have rainfall in the winter season. However, there
are some exceptions to it. Consider the following statements in context with
the same:
1. During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the
Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil
Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast
Kerala.
2. Central parts of India and northern parts of southern Peninsula also get winter
rainfall occasionally.
3. Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in the northeastern parts of India also have
rains between 25 mm and 50 mm during these winter months.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Q. Most parts of India do not have rainfall in the winter season. However, there
are some exceptions to it. Consider the following statements in context with
the same:
1. During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the
Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil
Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast
Kerala.
2. Central parts of India and northern parts of southern Peninsula also get winter
rainfall occasionally.
3. Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in the northeastern parts of India also have
rains between 25 mm and 50 mm during these winter months.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Explanation:
Most parts of India do not have rainfall in the winter season. However, there
are some exceptions to it:

• In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean

sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh.
Although the amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops. The
precipitation is in the form of snowfall in the lower Himalayas. It is this snow
that sustains the flow of water in the Himalayan rivers during the summer
months. The precipitation goes on decreasing from west to east in the plains
and from north to south in the mountains. The average winter rainfall in Delhi
is around 53 mm. In Punjab and Bihar, rainfall remains between 25 mm and 18
mm respectively.
• Central parts of India and northern parts of southern Peninsula also get winter
rainfall occasionally.Hence statement 2 is correct .
Explanation:
• Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in the northeastern parts of India also have
rains between 25 mm and 50 mm during these winter months. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
• During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the
Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil
Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast
Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. A characteristic feature of the cold weather season over the northern plains in
India is the inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the west and the northwest.

2. These low-pressure systems, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and

western Asia and move into India, along with the westerly flow.

3. They cause the winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains.

4. Although the total amount of winter rainfall locally known as ‘mahawat’ is

small, they are of immense importance for the cultivation of ‘rabi’ crops.

How many statements given above are true?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. A characteristic feature of the cold weather season over the northern plains in
India is the inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the west and the northwest.

2. These low-pressure systems, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and

western Asia and move into India, along with the westerly flow.

3. They cause the winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains.

4. Although the total amount of winter rainfall locally known as ‘mahawat’ is

small, they are of immense importance for the cultivation of ‘rabi’ crops.

How many statements given above are true?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
 Explanation:
The Cold Weather Season in India

• A characteristic feature of the cold weather season over the northern plains is the
inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the west and the northwest. Hence
statement 1 is correct .

• These low-pressure systems, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and western
Asia and move into India, along with the westerly flow. Hence statement 2 is
correct .

• They cause the much-needed winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the
mountains. Hence statement 3 is correct .

• Although the total amount of winter rainfall locally known as ‘mahawat’ is

small, they are of immense importance for the cultivation of ‘rabi’ crops. Hence
statement 4 is correct .

• The peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season. There is hardly
any noticeable seasonal change in temperature pattern during winters due to the
moderating influence of the sea
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Moist deciduous forests : Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul,
kusum, and sandalwood

2. Dry deciduous forest : . Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood

3. Tropical evergreen forest : Rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony

4. Semi evergreen forests : white cedar, hollock and kail

Which of the above is matched correctly?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3

D. 1,2,3 and 4
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Moist deciduous forests : Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul,
kusum, and sandalwood

2. Dry deciduous forest : . Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood

3. Tropical evergreen forest : Rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony

4. Semi evergreen forests : white cedar, hollock and kail

Which of the above is matched correctly?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3

D. 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
• Moist deciduous forests : Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul,
kusum, and sandalwood

• Dry deciduous forest : . Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood

• Tropical evergreen forest : Rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony

• Semi evergreen forests : White cedar, hollock and kail

Explanation:
• Tropical Evergreen and Semi Evergreen Forests

o These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of
the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are
found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200
cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC. Tropical evergreen forests
are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with
shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by tall variety of
trees. In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There
is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. As
such these forests appear green all the year round. Species found in these
forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc. The semi evergreen
forests are found in the less rainy parts of these regions. Such forests have
a mixture of evergreen and moist deciduous trees. The undergrowing
climbers provide an evergreen character to these forests. Main species are
white cedar, hollock and kail.
Explanation:
o The British were aware of the economic value of the forests in India,
hence, large scale exploitation of these forests was started. The structure of
forests was also changed. The oak forests in Garhwal and Kumaon were
replaced by pine (chirs) which was needed to lay railway lines. Forests
were also cleared for introducing plantations of tea, rubber and coffee. The
British also used timber for construction activities as it acts as an insulator
of heat. The protectional use of forests was, thus, replaced by commercial
use.

• Tropical Deciduous Forests

o These are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the
monsoon forests. They spread over regions which receive rainfall between
70-200 cm. On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are
further divided into moist and dry deciduous.
Explanation:
o The Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record
rainfall between 100-200 cm. These forests are found in the northeastern states
along the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Odisha.
Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood etc. are
the main species of these forests. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the
country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm. On the wetter margins, it has a
transition to the moist deciduous, while on the drier margins to thorn forests.
These forests are found in rainier areas of the Peninsula and the plains of Uttar
Pradesh and Bihar. In the higher rainfall regions of the Peninsular plateau and the
northern Indian plain, these forests have a parkland landscape with open
stretches in which teak and other trees interspersed with patches of grass are
common. As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the
forest appears like a vast grassland with naked trees all around. Tendu, palas,
amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests. In the
western and southern part of Rajasthan, vegetation cover is very scanty due to
low rainfall and overgrazing.
Q. Which of the following trees may be considered to be commercially
important in Tropical Evergreen Forests?

1. Rubber

2. Cinchona

Options:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following trees may be considered to be commercially
important in Tropical Evergreen Forests?

1. Rubber

2. Cinchona

Options:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Tropical Evergreen Forests

• These forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats and
the island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar, upper parts of
Assam and Tamil Nadu coast. They are at their best in areas having more than
200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season. The trees reach great heights up to
60 metres or even above. Since the region is warm and wet throughout the
year, it has a luxuriant vegetation of all kinds — trees, shrubs and creepers
giving it a multilayered structure. There is no definite time for trees to shed
their leaves. As such, these forests appear green all the year round.

• Some of the commercially important trees of this forest are ebony, mahogany,
rosewood, rubber and cinchona. Hence both options are correct.
Q) Consider the following statements:
1. The Deccan Plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
2. The Central Highlands are wider in the east but narrower in the west
3. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south.
4. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern
Ghats.
5. The Terai is more marked in the eastern part than in the west because the eastern parts receive
comparatively higher amount of rainfall.
Select the correct options among the following:
A. 1,4 and 5
B. 1,2 and 5
C. 1,3,4 and 5
D. 1,2,3,4 and 5
Q) Consider the following statements:
1. The Deccan Plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
2. The Central Highlands are wider in the east but narrower in the west
3. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south.
4. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern
Ghats.
5. The Terai is more marked in the eastern part than in the west because the eastern parts receive
comparatively higher amount of rainfall.
Select the correct options among the following:
A. 1,4 and 5
B. 1,2 and 5
C. 1,3,4 and 5
D. 1,2,3,4 and 5
• The Deccan Plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently
eastwards. Hence option 1 is correct
• The Central Highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the
east. Hence option 2 is incorrect
• The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from
north to south.Hence option 3 is correct .
• Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more
continuous than the Eastern Ghats. Hence option 4 is correct
• The Terai is more marked in the eastern part than in the west
because the eastern parts receive comparatively higher amount of
rainfall. Hence option 5 is correct .
Q. Choose the incorrect statement:

A. Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in

Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka , Anaimalai hills in Tamil Nadu and
Cardamom hills in Kerala

B. Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats.

C. Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded
by the rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc.

D. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.
Q. Choose the incorrect statement:

A. Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in

Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka , Anaimalai hills in Tamil Nadu and
Cardamom hills in Kerala

B. Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats.

C. Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded
by the rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc.

D. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.
Explanation:
The Deccan Plateau

• This is bordered by the Western Ghats in the west, Eastern Ghats in the east
and the Satpura, Maikal range and Mahadeo hills in the north.
• Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in
Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills
and Cardamom hills in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is incorrect .
• Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous
than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the
height increasing from north to south. ‘Anaimudi’ (2,695 m), the highest peak
of Peninsular plateau is located on the Anaimalai hills of the Western Ghats
followed by Dodabetta (2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills.
Explanation:
• Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats. Hence
statement 2 is correct .
• Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded
by the rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc.
Hence statement 3 is correct .
• Some of the important ranges include the Javadi hills, the Palconda range, the
Nallamala hills, the Mahendragiri hills, etc.
• The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills. Hence
statement 4 is correct.
Q. Arrange the following from north to south:

1. Mahendragiri

2. Gulf of Mannar

3. Anaimudi

4. Nallamala

Options:

A. 1, 4, 3, 2

B. 4, 1, 3, 2

C. 1, 3, 4, 2

D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Q. Arrange the following from north to south:

1. Mahendragiri

2. Gulf of Mannar

3. Anaimudi

4. Nallamala

Options:

A. 1, 4, 3, 2

B. 4, 1, 3, 2

C. 1, 3, 4, 2

D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Explanation:
Sequence as per Map given below :

• Mahendragiri Hills

• Nallamala

• Anaimudi

• Gulf of Mannar
Q. Which of the following is/are matched incorrectly?

Glacial lakes of India : State

1. South Lhonak Lake : Sikkim

2. Roopkund Lake : Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following is/are matched incorrectly?

Glacial lakes of India : State

1. South Lhonak Lake : Sikkim

2. Roopkund Lake : Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Glacial lakes of India : State

• South Lhonak Lake : Sikkim

• Roopkund Lake : Uttarakhand

Q. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG

status.

2. There are 85 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

3. Irular and Jarawa tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Q. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG

status.

2. There are 85 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

3. Irular and Jarawa tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
A particularly vulnerable tribal group or PVTG (previously known as a primitive
tribal group), in the context of India, is a sub-classification of Scheduled Tribe or
section of a Scheduled Tribe, that is considered more vulnerable than a regular
Scheduled Tribe. The PVTG list was created by the Indian Government with the
purpose of better improving the living standards of endangered tribal groups
based on priority. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one union territory.

Origin of the concept

• The Dhebar Commission (1960-1961)found that within the Scheduled Tribe

classification an inequality existed in the rate of development of certain tribes
over others. As a result in the fourth Five Year Plan the sub-category "Primitive
tribal group" was created within the grouping of Scheduled Tribe to identify
groups considered to be especially lacking in modern development.
Explanation:
• The features of such a group include a pre-agricultural system of existence,
that is practice of hunting and gathering, zero or negative population growth,
and extremely low levels of literacy in comparison with other tribal groups.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Groups that satisfied any of the criteria were considered to be a Primitive
Tribal Group. At the conclusion of the Fifth Five year plan, 52 communities
were identified as being a "primitive tribal group" based on recommendations
made by Indian state governments.
• At the conclusion of the Sixth Five year plan 20 additional groups were added
and 2 more were added in the Seventh Five year plan and finally one more
group was added in the eighth five-year plan, for a total 75 groups were
identified as Primitive Tribal Group.
Explanation:
• The 75th group recognised as PTG were the Maram in Manipur in 1993-94. No
new group was declared as PTG on the basis of the 2001 census. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect.
• In 2006 the government of India changed the name of "Primitive tribal group"
to "Particularly vulnerable tribal group" PTG has since been renamed
Particularly vulnerable tribal group by the government of India.
• Irular and Jarawa tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. Landang : Malaysia

2. Roca: : Zaire and Congo

3. Ray : Vietnam

How many pairs among the following are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. Landang : Malaysia

2. Roca: : Zaire and Congo

3. Ray : Vietnam

How many pairs among the following are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
Name of shifting cultivation in different parts of the world :

• Landang : Malaysia- Hence, option a is correct .

• Tamrai : Thailand

• Roca: Brazil - - Hence option b is incorrect .

• Ray : Vietnam - - Hence option c is correct .

• Masole : Zaire and Congo

• Milpa: Mexico and Central America

Q. Which of the following can be considered as methods of soil conservation:

1. Intercropping

2. Mulching

3. Terrace Farming

Select from the options given below:

A. Only 3

B. Only 1 and 2

C. Only 2

D. 1,2 and 3
Q. Which of the following can be considered as methods of soil conservation:

1. Intercropping

2. Mulching

3. Terrace Farming

Select from the options given below:

A. Only 3

B. Only 1 and 2

C. Only 2

D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
Soil erosion and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource. Both human
and natural factors can lead to degradation of soils. Factors which lead to soil
degradation are deforestation, overgrazing, overuse of chemical feritilisers or
pesticides, rain wash, landslides and floods.

Some methods of soil conservation are listed below:

• Mulching: The bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic
matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture. Hence, option 2 is correct.

• Contour barriers: Stones, grass, soil are used to build barriers along contours.
Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water.

• Rock dam: Rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water. This prevents
gullies and further soil loss.
Explanation:
• Terrace farming: Broad flat steps or terraces are made on the steep slopes so
that flat surfaces are available to grow crops. They reduce surface runoff and
soil erosion . Hence option 3 is correct.

• Intercropping: Different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at
different times to protect the soil from rain wash. Hence, option 1 is correct.

• Contour ploughing: Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a

natural barrier for water to flow down the slope .

• Shelter belts: In the coastal and dry regions, rows of trees are planted to check
the wind movement to protect soil cover
Q. Which of the following is/are false for Pangong Tso ?

1. It is an is an endorheic lake.

2. It is known to change colors, appearing blue, green and red at different times
of a day.

Options:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following is/are false for Pangong Tso ?

1. It is an is an endorheic lake.

2. It is known to change colors, appearing blue, green and red at different times
of a day.

Options:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The Indian Army has installed a statue of Maratha warrior Chhatrapati Shivaji
on the bank of Pangong lake at an altitude of 14,300 feet.

• Pangong Tso or Pangong Lake is an endorheic lake. Hence, statement 1 is

correct.

• Pangong Tso is also known to change colors, appearing blue, green and red at
different times of a day. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q. Consider the following statements :

1. Sediments deposited after transported by wind are known as aeolian deposits.

2. Loess is one of the most important aeolian deposits.

3. The most extensive loess deposits in the world are in North Turkey.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Q. Consider the following statements :

1. Sediments deposited after transported by wind are known as aeolian deposits.

2. Loess is one of the most important aeolian deposits.

3. The most extensive loess deposits in the world are in North Turkey.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
• Sediments deposited after transported by wind are known as aeolian deposits
. Hence statement 1 is correct .

• Loess is one of the most important deposits . Hence statement 2 is correct .

• The loess deposits are found away from the source region and outside the
desert. Loess is coherent ( bound together) but not cemented and hence is
permeable .Lack of stratification is clear proof of its aeolian origin.

• The most extensive loess deposits in the world are in North China. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Krishna river directly feeds Kolleru Lake .

2. Kolleru Lake is located between the Krishna and Godavari river deltas.

Based on the above statements ,choose the correct option among the following:

A. Only one statement is correct

B. Only two statements are correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Krishna river directly feeds Kolleru Lake .

2. Kolleru Lake is located between the Krishna and Godavari river deltas.

Based on the above statements ,choose the correct option among the following:

A. Only one statement is correct

B. Only two statements are correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct.

Explanation:
• The Southern Zonal Bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) restrained
the Andhra Pradesh (A.P.) Government from proceeding with the six
infrastructure projects in Kolleru wetland area unless they are carried out in
strict conformity with legal requirements and the Water Resources Department
(WRD) obtained the requisite clearances.
Points about Kolleru Lake :
• It is located between the Krishna and Godavari river deltas.The Krishna river
does not feed Kolleru lake directly . Hence statement 1 is incorrect and
statement 2 is correct.
• It was designated a wetland of international importance in November 2002.
Q. Which of the following Indian states share a border with Bangladesh?

1. Assam

2. Meghalaya

3. Mizoram

4. Tripura

5. West Bengal

6. Manipur

Options:

A. 2,3,4 and 5

B. 1,2,3,4,5

C. 1,2,3,4 and 5

D. 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
Q. Which of the following Indian states share a border with Bangladesh?

1. Assam

2. Meghalaya

3. Mizoram

4. Tripura

5. West Bengal

6. Manipur

Options:

A. 2,3,4 and 5

B. 1,2,3,4,5

C. 1,2,3,4 and 5

D. 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
Explanation:
• States that share border with Bangladesh

• Assam , Meghalaya ,Mizoram , Tripura and West Bengal

Q. Consider the following statements :

1. Paradwip Port is situated in the Mahanadi delta.

2. Kochchi Port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal is a natural harbour.

3. Marmagao Port, situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary, is an artifical

harbour in Goa.

How many statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Q. Consider the following statements :

1. Paradwip Port is situated in the Mahanadi delta.

2. Kochchi Port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal is a natural harbour.

3. Marmagao Port, situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary, is an artifical

harbour in Goa.

How many statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
• Paradwip Port is situated in the Mahanadi delta, about 100 km from Cuttack.
It has deep harbour specially suited to handle very large vessels. It has been
developed mainly to handle large-scale export of iron-ore. Odisha,
Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand are the parts of its hinterland. Hence statement 1
is correct .

• Kochchi Port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal, popularly known as

the ‘Queen of the Arabian Sea’, is also a natural harbour. This port has an
advantageous location being close to the Suez-Colombo route. It caters to the
needs of Kerala, southernKarnataka and south western Tamil Nadu. Hence
statement 2 is correct .

• Marmagao Port, situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary, is a natural

harbour in Goa. It gained significance after its remodelling in 1961 to handle
iron-ore exports to Japan. Construction of Konkan railway has considerably
extended the hinterland of this port. Karnataka, Goa, Southern Maharashtra
constitute its hinterland. Hence statement 3 is incorrect .
Q) Consider the following pairs :
1. Port of Call : Singapore
2. Entrepot port : Rotterdam
3. Naval Port : Kochi
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Q) Consider the following pairs :
1. Port of Call : Singapore
2. Entrepot port : Rotterdam
3. Naval Port : Kochi
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
• Ports of Call : These are the ports originally developed as calling ports
on main sea routes where ships used anchor for refuelling , watering
and taking food items. Later on they develop into commericla ports
.Aden, Honolulu and Singapore are good examples. Hence option 1 is
correct.
• Entreport ports : These are collection centres where goods are
brought from different countries for export . Singapore is an extrepot
for Asia .Rotterdam for Europe and Copenhagen for the Baltic region .
Hence option 2 is correct..
• Naval Ports : These are ports which have only strategic importance.
These ports serve warships and and have repair workshops for them.
Kochi and Karwar are such exmaples in India. . Hence option 3 is
correct.
Q. On which among the following National Waterway 3 is situated?

A. The Ganga river - Allahabad and Haldia

B. The Brahmaputra - Sadiya and Dhubri

C. West-Coast Canal - Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and Champakkara

canals

D. Godavari and Krishna - Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals

Q. On which among the following National Waterway 3 is situated?

A. The Ganga river - Allahabad and Haldia

B. The Brahmaputra - Sadiya and Dhubri

C. West-Coast Canal - Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and Champakkara

canals

D. Godavari and Krishna - Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals

Explanation:
• The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km)-N.W. No.1

• The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)-N.W. No.2

• The West-Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and

Champakkara canals-205 km) – N.W. No.3 – Hence option c is correct option .

• Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada

Puducherry stretch of canals (1078 km) – N.W. No.4

• Specified stretches of river Brahmani along with Matai river, delta channels of
Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East Coast Canal (588 km) – N.W. No.5
Explanation:
Q. Consider the following pairs :

1. The Masai : Cattle pastoralists

2. The Hausa : Primitive hunters and collectors

3. The Bushmen: Settled cultivators

4. The Bedouin : Nomadic herdsmen

How many pairs are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Q. Consider the following pairs :

1. The Masai : Cattle pastoralists

2. The Hausa : Primitive hunters and collectors

3. The Bushmen: Settled cultivators

4. The Bedouin : Nomadic herdsmen

How many pairs are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
Tribes

• The Masai Tribe : Cattle pastoralists – Hence option 1 is correct .

• The Hausa Tribe : Settled cultivators- Hence option 2 is incorrect .

• The Bushmen Tribe : Primitive hunters and collectors - Hence option 3 is

incorrect.

• The Bedouin Tribe : Nomadic herdsmen - Hence option 4 is correct.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar
Valley.

2. The other river valleys associated with coal are Godavari, Mahanadi and Sone.

Which of the following statements given is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar
Valley.

2. The other river valleys associated with coal are Godavari, Mahanadi and Sone.

Which of the following statements given is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Coal

• Coal is a one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation
of thermal power and smelting of iron ore. Coal occurs in rock sequences
mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits.
• About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of
non-coking grade.
• The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar
Valley. Hence statement 1 is correct .
• They lie in Jharkhand-Bengal coal belt and the important coal fields in this
region are Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, Karanpura. Jharia is the largest coal
field followed by Raniganj.
• The other river valleys associated with coal are Godavari, Mahanadi and Sone.
Hence statement 2 is correct .
• The most important coal mining centres are Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh (part
of Singrauli coal field lies in Uttar Pradesh), Korba in Chhattisgarh, Talcher and
Rampur in Odisha, Chanda–Wardha, Kamptee and Bander in Maharashtra and
Singareni in Telangana and Pandur in Andhra Pradesh
Q. Arrange the following types of coal in increasing order of carbon content:

1. Anthracite

2. Bituminous

3. Lignite

4. Peat

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 4, 3, 2, 1

B. 3, 4, 2, 1

C. 4, 2, 3, 1

D. 3, 2, 4, 1
Q. Arrange the following types of coal in increasing order of carbon content:

1. Anthracite

2. Bituminous

3. Lignite

4. Peat

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 4, 3, 2, 1

B. 3, 4, 2, 1

C. 4, 2, 3, 1

D. 3, 2, 4, 1
Explanation:
The increasing order of carbon content in these coal types is as follows:

• Peat (lowest carbon content) - less than 40 to 55 per cent carbon

• Lignite - 40 to 55 per cent carbon.

• Bituminous - 40 to 80 per cent carbon.

• Anthracite (highest carbon content) - 80 to 95 per cent carbon.

• Peat contains the least carbon, while anthracite has the most.
Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. Copper - Balaghat ( Madhya Pradesh)

2. Manganese belt - Balaghat-Chhindwar-Nimar-Mandla ( Madhya Pradesh)

3. Bauxite deposits : Jamnagar (Gujarat)

How many pairs are marked incorrectly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. Copper - Balaghat ( Madhya Pradesh)

2. Manganese belt - Balaghat-Chhindwar-Nimar-Mandla ( Madhya Pradesh)

3. Bauxite deposits : Jamnagar (Gujarat)

How many pairs are marked incorrectly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
• Copper

o With the quality control order (QCO) on refined copper effective from
December 1 2024 and Japanese suppliers—who account for 80 per cent of
India’s copper imports—still awaiting certification, the downstream
industry has warned the government of a looming supply crunch that
could last for over three months.

o The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand,

Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts
in Rajasthan. Minor producers of Copper are Agnigundala in Guntur
District (Andhra Pradesh), Chitradurg and Hasan districts (Karnataka)
and South Arcot district (Tamil Nadu). Hence, 1 option is correct .
Explanation:
• Manganese

o The manganese ore production of state-owned MOIL rose by 4.5 per cent
year-on-year to 13.3 lakh tonnes in the April-December period of the
current fiscal.

o The manganese belt of Madhya Pradesh extends in a belt in Balaghat-

ChhindwaraNimar-Mandla and Jhabua districts. Hence option b is
correct.

o Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in
Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga,
Chitradurg and Tumakuru. Maharashtra is also an important producer of
manganese, which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri districts.
The disadvantage to these mines is that they are located far from steel
plants. Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of
manganese.
Explanation:
• Bauxite

o Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers. The other two areas
which have been increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput.
The patlands of Lohardaga in Jharkhand have rich deposits. Gujarat,
Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other major
producers. Bhavanagar, and Jamnagar in Gujarat have the major deposits.
Hence option c is correct .

o Chhattisgarh has bauxite deposits in Amarkantak plateau while

KatniJabalpur area and Balaghat in M.P. have important deposits of
bauxite. Kolaba, Thane, Ratnagiri, Satara, Pune and Kolhapur in
Maharashtra are important producers. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Goa
are minor producers of bauxite.
Q) Recently, the Ministry of Mines, through a gazette notification in
February 2025, shifted which of the following minerals from the category
of minor minerals to major minerals?
1. Barytes
2. Felspar
3. Mica
4. Quartz
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 3 and 4 only
Q) Recently, the Ministry of Mines, through a gazette notification in
February 2025, shifted which of the following minerals from the category
of minor minerals to major minerals?
1. Barytes
2. Felspar
3. Mica
4. Quartz
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 3 and 4 only
• The Ministry of Mines vide gazette notification dated 20th
February, 2025 has shifted minerals Barytes, Felspar, Mica
and Quartz from the list of minor minerals to the category of
major minerals.
Q. Consider the following pairs of states and locations related to Uranium
reserves in India:

1. Rajasthan : Udaipur & Alwar

2. Himachal Pradesh : Kullu and Hamirpur

3. Chhattisgarh : Durg

4. Maharashtra : Bhandara

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Q. Consider the following pairs of states and locations related to Uranium
reserves in India:

1. Rajasthan : Udaipur & Alwar

2. Himachal Pradesh : Kullu and Hamirpur

3. Chhattisgarh : Durg

4. Maharashtra : Bhandara

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• Rajasthan : Udaipur ,Alwar, Jhunjhunu

• Himachal Pradesh : Kullu , Hamirpur, Una

• Chhattisgarh : Durg

• Maharashtra : Bhandara

Hence all options are matched correctly.

Explanation:
Nuclear Energy Resources

• Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times. Important

minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium.
Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks. Geographically, uranium ores
are known to occur in several locations along the Singbhum Copper belt. It
is also found in Udaipur, Alwar and Jhunjhunu districts of Rajasthan, Durg
district of Chhattisgarh, Bhandara district of Maharashtra and Kullu district
of Himachal Pradesh.

• Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands
along the coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. World’s richest monazite deposits
occur in Palakkad and Kollam districts of Kerala, near Vishakhapatnam in
Andhra Pradesh and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.
 Q) Consider the following:
1) Bauxite : Jharkhand : Lohardaga Patlands
2) Mica : Karnataka : Hassan
3) Gold : Karnataka : Hutti gold field
4) Iron : Maharashtra : Bhandara

How many of the above given options are marked correctly?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
 Consider the following:
1) Bauxite : Jharkhand : Lohardaga Patlands
2) Mica : Karnataka : Hassan
3) Gold : Karnataka : Hutti gold field
4) Iron : Maharashtra : Bhandara

How many of the above given options are marked correctly?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All Four
1) Bauxite : Jharkhand : Lohardaga Patlands
2) Mica : Karnataka : Hassan
3) Gold : Karnataka : Hutti gold field
4) Iron : Maharashtra : Bhandara
Q. Arrange the following from north to south and choose the correct option:

1. Bundelkhand

2. Kalsubai

3. Nallamala Hills

4. Cardamom Hills

Options:

A. 1 - 2 - 3 – 4

B. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4

C. 1 - 3 - 2 – 4

D. 2 - 3 - 1 - 4
Q. Arrange the following from north to south and choose the correct option:

1. Bundelkhand

2. Kalsubai

3. Nallamala Hills

4. Cardamom Hills

Options:

A. 1 - 2 - 3 – 4

B. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4

C. 1 - 3 - 2 – 4

D. 2 - 3 - 1 - 4
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Karnataka plateau has its two main subdivisions referred to as malnad
and the maidan.

2. The malnad is a rolling plateau surface of generally low relief.

3. The maidan is thickly forested highland with series of hills and ranges

Select the correct options:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Karnataka plateau has its two main subdivisions referred to as malnad
and the maidan.

2. The malnad is a rolling plateau surface of generally low relief.

3. The maidan is thickly forested highland with series of hills and ranges

Select the correct options:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
• Karnataka plateau is made up of gneiss and granites with general elevation of
450 -800 metres in the north but rises upto 900-1100 metres.

• The Karnataka plateau has its two mains subdivisions in the malnad and the
maidan, having its own distinctive features of relief. Hence statment 1 is
correct.

• The malnad is a thickly forested highland. It has series of hills and ranges, the
highest of them being the Baba Budan group. Hence statment 2 is incorrect.

• The maidan, as the name suggests, is a rolling plateau surface of generally low
relief. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Q. Match the Following:

Column A Column B

a) Yellow Revolution 1. Jute

b) Grey Revolution 2. Eggs

c) Silver Revolution 3. Fertilizers

d) Golden Fibre 4. Oilseed Production

Which of the following is the correct match?

A. a → 4, b → 3, c → 2, d → 1

B. a → 1, b → 2, c → 4, d → 3

C. a → 2, b → 4, c → 3, d → 1

D. a → 3, b → 1, c → 2, d → 4
Q. Match the Following:

Column A Column B

a) Yellow Revolution 1. Jute

b) Grey Revolution 2. Eggs

c) Silver Revolution 3. Fertilizers

d) Golden Fibre 4. Oilseed Production

Which of the following is the correct match?

A. a → 4, b → 3, c → 2, d → 1

B. a → 1, b → 2, c → 4, d → 3

C. a → 2, b → 4, c → 3, d → 1

D. a → 3, b → 1, c → 2, d → 4
Explanation:
• Yellow Revolution: Oilseed production

• Grey Revolution: Fertilizers

• Silver Revolution: Eggs

• Golden Fibre: Jute

Q. Consider the following:

1. Antecedent Drainage: Cuts through newly formed landform and maintains the
same path

2. Superimposed Drainage: Cuts deeper through the existing landform and

maintains the same path

Which one among the following is/are incorrect?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following:

1. Antecedent Drainage: Cuts through newly formed landform and maintains the
same path

2. Superimposed Drainage: Cuts deeper through the existing landform and

maintains the same path

Which one among the following is/are incorrect?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Antecedent Drainage: Cuts through newly formed landform and maintains the
same path. The soil formed is weak and easily erode.

• Superimposed Drainage: cuts deeper through the existing landform and

maintains the same path. The rivers have high erosive power so that they can
cut through the underlying strata.
Q. Which of the following straits are matched incorrectly?

A. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait : Red Sea & Gulf of Aden

B. Bosporous Strait : Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
C. Dardanelles Strait : Sea of Marmara and Agean Sea
D. None
Q. Which of the following straits are matched incorrectly?

A. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait : Red Sea & Gulf of Aden

B. Bosporous Strait : Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
C. Dardanelles Strait : Sea of Marmara and Agean Sea
D. None
Explanation:
• Bab-el-Mandeb Strait : Red Sea & Gulf of Aden
• Bosporous Strait : Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
• Dardanelles Strait : Sea of Marmara and Agean Sea

• All the options are matched correctly.

Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. Hala’ib Triangle : Sudan & Egypt

2. Abu Musa : Iraq & UAE

3. Esequiba: Guyana–Venezuela

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. Hala’ib Triangle : Sudan & Egypt

2. Abu Musa : Iraq & UAE

3. Esequiba: Guyana–Venezuela

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

Explanation:
Disputed Regions : Countries

• Hala’ib Triangle : Sudan & Egypt

• Abu Musa : Iran & UAE

• Esequiba: Guyana–Venezuela
Q. Which of the following is/ are examples of Fold Mountains

1. Appalachians

2. Alps

3. Aravali Range

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Q. Which of the following is/ are examples of Fold Mountains

1. Appalachians

2. Alps

3. Aravali Range

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
• Fold mountains are mountains that are formed primarily by the folding of the
Earth's crust due to tectonic forces, such as the collision of two continental
plates.
• Examples of fold mountains include the Appalachians , Alps, and the Aravali
Range.
Q. Arrange the following lakes from east to west.

1. Lake Baikal

2. Lake Ladoga

3. Great Bear Lake

4. Lake Erie

Select the correct option:

A. 1, 2, 4, 3

B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 1, 2, 3, 4

D. 3, 4, 1, 2
Q. Arrange the following lakes from east to west.

1. Lake Baikal

2. Lake Ladoga

3. Great Bear Lake

4. Lake Erie

Select the correct option:

A. 1, 2, 4, 3

B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 1, 2, 3, 4

D. 3, 4, 1, 2
Explanation:
• Lake Baikal (in Siberia, Russia) is the easternmost.

• Lake Ladoga (in Russia, near St. Petersburg) comes next.

• Lake Erie is located in North America, and is to the west of Lake Ladoga.

• Great Bear Lake is the westernmost among these lakes and is located in
Canada,
Q. Consider the following pairs:

River Flows into

1. Nile - Mediterranean Sea.

2. Zambezi – Indian Ocean

3. Congo River : Atlantic Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 only

C. 2 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Q. Consider the following pairs:

River Flows into

1. Nile - Mediterranean Sea.

2. Zambezi – Indian Ocean

3. Congo River : Atlantic Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 only

C. 2 only

D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
• Nile - Mediterranean Sea.

• Zambezi – Indian Ocean

• Congo River : Atlantic Ocean

Q. Identify the incorrect one :

A. Beufort Scale A scale identifying wind strength.

B. Chaparrel : Shrub - characteristics of Mediterranean type of climate region

C. Puszta : Grasslands of Hungary

D. Isohel : The lines joining the points of equal Salinity

Q. Identify the incorrect one :

A. Beufort Scale A scale identifying wind strength.

B. Chaparrel : Shrub - characteristics of Mediterranean type of climate region

C. Puszta : Grasslands of Hungary

D. Isohel : The lines joining the points of equal Salinity

Explanation:
• Beufort Scale A scale identifying wind strength.

• Chaparrel : Shrub - characteristics of Mediterranean type of climate region

• Puszta : Grasslands of Hungary

• Isohel : The lines joining the points of equal insolation- Hence option d is the
incorrect option
Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. 49th Parallel : Between USA and Canada

2. 38th Parallel : Between North and South Korea

3. Maginot line : Between Germany and Poland

How many pairs are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. 49th Parallel : Between USA and Canada

2. 38th Parallel : Between North and South Korea

3. Maginot line : Between Germany and Poland

How many pairs are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
• 49th Parallel : Between USA and Canada

• 38th Parallel : Between North and South Korea

• Maginot line : Between France and Germany- Hence option 3 is the incorrect
one .

• Old Neisse Line : Between Germany and Poland

Q. Lake Naivasha has recently been in news. Identify the correct statements in
context with the same:

1. It is a freshwater lake in Kenya.

2. It is designated as the Ramsar site.

Select the correct code

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Lake Naivasha has recently been in news. Identify the correct statements in
context with the same:

1. It is a freshwater lake in Kenya.

2. It is designated as the Ramsar site.

Select the correct code

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Invasive water hyacinth threatens fishers’ livelihoods on popular Kenyan
lake

• Lake Naivasha is a freshwater lake in Kenya and is designated as the Ramsar

site. Hence both the statements are correct.

• Usually, the presence of water hyacinth is linked to pollution. It is known to

thrive in the presence of contaminants and grows quickly, and is considered
the most invasive aquatic plant species in the world. It can prevent the
penetration of sunlight and impact airflow, affecting the quality of aquatic life.
Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. Darfur Region: Afghanistan

2. Santorini Island : Barents Sea

3. St. Martin Island : Bangladesh

How many pairs among the above is/are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Q. Consider the following pairs:

1. Darfur Region: Afghanistan

2. Santorini Island : Barents Sea

3. St. Martin Island : Bangladesh

How many pairs among the above is/are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
• Darfur Region: Sudan

• Santorini Island : Agean Sea

• St. Martin Island : Bangladesh – Hence option c is correctly matched .

Q. Consider the following pairs :.

Hydel Projects : River : State

1. Ukai Dam : Tapi : Gujarat

2. Bhakra Dam : Sutlej : Himachal Pradesh

3. Koyna Dam: Koyna : Maharashtra

How many pairs are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Q. Consider the following pairs :.

Hydel Projects : River : State

1. Ukai Dam : Tapi : Gujarat

2. Bhakra Dam : Sutlej : Himachal Pradesh

3. Koyna Dam: Koyna : Maharashtra

How many pairs are matched correctly?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None
Explanation:
• Hydel Projects : River : State

• Ukai Dam : Tapi : Gujarat- Hence option is correct .

• Bhakra Dam : Sutlej : Himachal Pradesh - Hence option 2 is correct.

• Koyna Dam: Koyna : Maharashtra – Hence option 3 is correct.

Q. Mark the incorrect one:

A. Dead Sea is the deepest hypersaline lake in the world.

B. The Great Salt Lake is an endorheic lake in the United States .

C. Bolivia and Guyana are landlocked countries in South America.

D. The continent with the highest mean elevation in the world is Antarctica.
Q. Mark the incorrect one:

A. Dead Sea is the deepest hypersaline lake in the world.

B. The Great Salt Lake is an endorheic lake in the United States .

C. Bolivia and Guyana are landlocked countries in South America.

D. The continent with the highest mean elevation in the world is Antarctica.
Explanation:
• Dead Sea is the deepest hypersaline lake in the world. Hence option 1 is
correct.

• The Great Salt Lake is an endorheic lake in the United States . Hence option 2
is correct.

• Bolivia and Paraguay are landlocked countries in South America. Hence

option 3 is incorrect.

• The continent with the highest mean elevation in the world

is Antarctica. Hence option 4 is correct.
Q. Shiveluch volcano has been in the news . It is located on the :

A. Horn of Africa

B. Iberian Peninsula

C. Labrador Peninsula

D. Kamchatka peninsula
Q. Shiveluch volcano has been in the news . It is located on the :

A. Horn of Africa

B. Iberian Peninsula

C. Labrador Peninsula

D. Kamchatka peninsula
Explanation:
• Shiveluch volcano erupts after 7.0 magnitude earthquake strikes off eastern
Russian Coast . The Shiveluch volcano is around 280 miles from
Petropavlovsk-Kamchatsky, a coastal city with a population of about 180,000
that lies in Russia’s eastern region of Kamchatka.

• Shiveluch is a volcano within the Kuril–Kamchatka volcanic arc which hosts

tens of other volcanoes.
Q. Mark the incorrect one:

A. Tattapani – Chhattisgarh

B. Surajkund – Gujarat

C. Puga Valley – Ladakh

D. Manikaran – Himachal Pradesh

Q. Mark the incorrect one:

A. Tattapani – Chhattisgarh

B. Surajkund – Gujarat

C. Puga Valley – Ladakh

D. Manikaran – Himachal Pradesh

Explanation:
Geothermal Sites - State

Tattapani – Chattisgarh

Surajkund – Jharkhand

Puga Valley – Ladakh

• Manikaran – Himachal Pradesh

Q. Bhu-Aadhar: Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) is part of
the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP).
Which of the following best describes ULPIN?

A. It is a 14-digit identification number accorded to a land parcel based on the

longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel and depends on detailed
surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps.

B. It is a unique identification number assigned to land parcels in rural areas for

identifying the owner, based on the land’s proximity to the nearest city or
town.

C. It is a unique identification number for each land parcel that uses historical
ownership records to identify the parcel

D. It is a 10-digit identification number that is used to identify property owners

and is based solely on their name and address.
Q. Bhu-Aadhar: Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) is part of
the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP).
Which of the following best describes ULPIN?

A. It is a 14-digit identification number accorded to a land parcel based on the

longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel and depends on
detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps.

B. It is a unique identification number assigned to land parcels in rural areas for

identifying the owner, based on the land’s proximity to the nearest city or
town.

C. It is a unique identification number for each land parcel that uses historical
ownership records to identify the parcel

D. It is a 10-digit identification number that is used to identify property owners

and is based solely on their name and address.
Explanation:
Bhu-Aadhar: Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN)

• Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) is part of the Digital India
Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP).

• It is a 14-digit identification number accorded to a land parcel based on the

longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel and depends on detailed
surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps. Hence option A is correct .

• ULPIN is a Single, Authoritative Source of Truth for information on any parcel

of land or property to provide Integrated Land Services to the citizens as well
as all stakeholders. The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN)
system is based on international standard which complies, with Electronic
Commerce Code Management Association (ECCMA) standard and Open
Geospatial Consortium (OGC) standard.
Explanation:
Generation of ULPIN

• There is a formula to generate and assign ECCMA (Electronic Commerce Code

Management Association) Standard prescribed 14 digit Unique ID “Property
Natural Identifier Unit” (PNIU) using the parcel Geo Referenced coordinate of
vertices

• This computationally generated Unique ID would be organically dependent

on Parcel vertices expressed in Lat/Long coordinates “property Natural
Identifier Lot” (PNIL) and Unique ID (PNIU) would spatially be pointing to
the surface of the parcel.
Explanation:
Benefits

• Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) is a unique alphanumeric

code assigned to each individual land parcel to provide a standardized and
unambiguous identification system.

• It serves as a crucial tool for land administration, property management, and

real estate transactions.

• ULPIN is designed to streamline the process of identifying and tracking land

parcels, thereby enhancing transparency, efficiency, and accuracy in land-
related activities.

• Proper land statistics and land accounting through ULPIN will help develop
land banks. It will lead towards the Integrated Land Information Management
System (ILIMS).
Explanation:
• ULPIN may include ownership details of the plot besides its size and
longitudinal and latitudinal details.

• This would facilitate real estate transactions; help resolve property taxation
issues and improve disaster planning and response efforts.

• It would be enabler for deciding entitlement of beneficiaries of schemes that

are based on quantum of land possessed and also reduces boundary disputes.

• ULPIN would prove an important milestone for furtherance of Geospatial

Policy 2022 of the Government
Q. Consider the following pairs :

1. Puerto Rico Trench : Atlantic Ocean

2. Tonga Trench : Pacific Ocean

3. Kermadac Trench : Atlantic Ocean

4. Kuril Kamchatka Trench : Pacific Ocean

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Q. Consider the following pairs :

1. Puerto Rico Trench : Atlantic Ocean

2. Tonga Trench : Pacific Ocean

3. Kermadac Trench : Atlantic Ocean

4. Kuril Kamchatka Trench : Pacific Ocean

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• An oceanic trench is a deep, narrow depression in the seafloor, typically
formed at convergent plate boundaries where one tectonic plate subducts
beneath another. These are the deepest parts of the ocean and are significant
indicators of geological activity.

• Several major oceanic trenches are located in different parts of the world's
oceans, each associated with specific tectonic settings.

• Trench

o Puerto Rico Trench : Atlantic Ocean

o Tonga Trench : Pacific Ocean

o Kermadac Trench : Pacific Ocean – Hence option 3 is incorrect .

o Kuril Kamchatka Trench : Pacific Ocean

Q. Consider the following pairs :

1. Gulf of Riga : Baltic Sea

2. Gulf of Tonkin : South China Sea

3. Gulf of Guayaquil : Atlantic Ocean

4. Gulf of Bo Hai : Yellow Sea

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Q. Consider the following pairs :

1. Gulf of Riga : Baltic Sea

2. Gulf of Tonkin : South China Sea

3. Gulf of Guayaquil : Atlantic Ocean

4. Gulf of Bo Hai : Yellow Sea

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four
Explanation:
• Gulf of Riga : Baltic Sea

• Gulf of Tonkin : South China Sea

• Gulf of Guayaquil : Pacific Ocean

• Gulf of Bo Hai : Yellow Sea

Q. Consider the following:

Cities: River: Country

1. Kiev : Dnieper : Ukraine

2. New York : Hudson : USA

3. Baghdad : Tigris : Iraq

How many of the above are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Q. Consider the following:

Cities: River: Country

1. Kiev : Dnieper : Ukraine

2. New York : Hudson : USA

3. Baghdad : Tigris : Iraq

How many of the above are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None
Explanation:
Cities: River: Country

• Kiev : Dnieper: Ukraine

• New York: Hudson: USA

• Baghdad : Tigris : Iraq

• Hence all options are marked correctly

Q. Which of the following statements best explains the phenomenon of global
dimming?

A. Global dimming refers to gradual increase in the Earth's temperature due to

enhanced greenhouse gas emissions.

B. Global dimming is he reduction in the Earth's total precipitation levels due to

changes in wind patterns.

C. Global dimming is the gradual reduction in the amount of global direct

irradiance at the surface of the Earth.

D. None
Q. Which of the following statements best explains the phenomenon of global
dimming?

A. Global dimming refers to gradual increase in the Earth's temperature due to

enhanced greenhouse gas emissions.

B. Global dimming is he reduction in the Earth's total precipitation levels due to

changes in wind patterns.

C. Global dimming is the gradual reduction in the amount of global direct

irradiance at the surface of the Earth.

D. None
Explanation:
Global dimming is the gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance
at the surface of the Earth, mainly due to aerosols and pollution particles. This
option correctly describes global dimming, which is the decrease in sunlight
reaching the Earth's surface due to particles like aerosols and pollutants. Hence
option c is correct.
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