POLITY

Revision through 500 Questions (RTFQ)

QUESTION SET 5: Q370-503
370 Consider the following statements:
1. The judges of the high courts are appointed by the president and consultation of the
concerned Governor is also sought.
2. The retirement of judges of the high courts were increased from 60 years of age to 62
years of age by 15th Amendment Act 1963.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
371 Consider the following statements:
1. Every person appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his
office, make and subscribe before the Governor of the State, or some person
appointed in that behalf by him.
2. Oath of judges are not mentioned in the third schedule of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
372 Which of the following statements are true?
(a) A person who has retired from the post of a permanent judge of the high court can
not practice before any district court.
(b) Salaries of the judges of the high courts are determined by a law of the concerned
state legislature.
(c) Neither the allowances of a Judge nor his rights in respect to leave of absence or
pension shall be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
(d) A judge of one high court can be transferred to another high court by the president
after consultation with the chief justice of India.
373 Consider the following statements about the additional and ad Hoc judges of the High
Courts:
1. Ad hoc judges in the high courts can be appointed by the concerned chief justice of
the High Court.
2. They cannot be appointed for more than 2 years period.
3. The Chief Justice of a High Court for any State may at any time, with the previous
consent of the President appoint retired judges of the high court at sitting of the said
court.
How many of the statements given is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

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 (d) All of the above
374 With regard to writ jurisdiction of the High Courts, which of the following statement is
not correct?
1. Writ jurisdiction of high court includes fundamental rights, legal rights or any other
rights.
2. A high court can issue writs for any cause of action arising within its territory
notwithstanding that the seat of such Government or authority or the residence of
such person is not within those territories.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
375 Consider the following statements:
1. In appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court has exclusive power to adjudicate upon
disputes involving elections of the President and the Vice President.
2. In advisory jurisdiction, the President has the power to seek an opinion from the apex
court under Article 143 of the Constitution
3. In original jurisdiction, the Supreme Court hears appeals from lower courts.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
376 Consider the following statements about collegium system:
1. Chief Justice of India along with four senior-most Supreme Court judges recommend
appointments and transfers of judges.
2. This system found its root from the constitution of India.
3. A High Court Collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and the four seniors most
judges of that court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
377 With reference to review petition, consider the following statements:
1. Only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it.
2. The Constitution gives, under Article 137, the Supreme Court the power to review any
of its judgments or orders.
3. When a review takes place, the law allows the court to take fresh stock of the case.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
378 Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for equal justice and
free legal aid?

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 (a) Article 38
(b) Article 39
(c) Article 39-A
(d) Article 43-B
379 Consider the following statements about Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA):
1. They regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations.
2. It was enacted during the Emergency in 1976.
3. FCRA registration is valid for 10 years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Hint:

The FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign
powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country through
independent organizations.
— The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that
they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic
republic”.
— The FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to be:
(a) Registered under the Act.
(b) To open a bank account for the receipt of foreign funds in the State Bank of India,
Delhi.
(c) To utilise those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as
stipulated in the Act.
— They are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to
another NGO.
— The Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists
or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants,
members of the legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and
organisations of a political nature.
— FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations with definite cultural,
economic, educational, religious, and social programmes.
— FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within
six months of the date of expiry of registration.
— Under the FCRA, the applicant should not be fictitious or benami, and should not have
been prosecuted or convicted for indulging in activities aimed at conversion through
inducement or force, either directly or indirectly, from one religious faith to another.
— The applicant should also not have been prosecuted for or convicted of creating
communal tension or disharmony; should not have been found guilty of diversion or

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 misutilisation of funds. And should not be engaged or likely to be engaged in the
propagation of sedition.
— The MHA is required to approve or reject the application within 90 days. In case of
failure to process the application in the given time, the MHA is expected to inform
the NGO of the reasons for the same.
380 Consider the following statements with respect to Armed Force Special Power Act
(AFSPA):
1. The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Quit India
movement in 1942.
2. The act provides for special powers for the armed forces that can be imposed only by
the Governor of that State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Hint:

The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Quit India
movement in 1942.
— After Independence, it was decided to retain the Act, which was first brought in as
ordnance and then notified as an Act in 1958.
— AFSPA has been imposed on the Northeast states, Jammu and Kashmir, and Punjab
during the militancy years. Punjab was the first state from where it was repealed,
followed by Tripura and Meghalaya. It remains in force in Nagaland, Manipur, Assam,
J&K, and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.
— AFSPA provides special powers for the armed forces that can be imposed by the
Centre or the Governor of a state, on the state or parts of it, after it is declared
“disturbed’’ under Section 3 of the Act.
— It allows armed forces to open fire against any person in contravention of the law or
carrying arms and ammunition.
— The Act provides for powers to arrest individuals without warrants, on the basis of
“reasonable suspicion”, and also search premises without warrants.
— There can be no prosecution or legal proceedings against them without the prior
approval of the Centre.

Topic Emergency Provisions

381 Consider the following statements:
1. President can impose national emergency for whole of India only but not on a part of
territory only.

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 2. He can proclaim emergency on the grounds of War or external aggression and Internal
Disturbance.
3. President can impose the national emergency on grounds of war even before the
actual occurrence of the event.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
382 Which of the following statements are not correct?
(a) President can issue a proclamation of emergency under article 352 only after written
communication of council of ministers.
(b) The constitution of India defines the word cabinet as prime minister and other
minister of cabinet rank.
(c) It is not required for the president to take parliament’s approval on a proclamation
issued by him for revocation of emergency.
(d) The word internal disturbance was substituted with armed rebellion by 44 th
Amendment Act.
383 Consider the following statements:
1. Every proclamation of national emergency must be laid before lok sabha within one
month.
2. A proclamation of state emergency shall be laid before both the houses of parliament
before two months.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
384 Consider the following statements:
1. While a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, parliament shall have power to
make laws on any of the matters enumerated in the State List.
2. Any such law made during the emergency shall in toto cease to have effect on the
expiration of a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
385 Consider the following statements:
1. The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance
with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State.
2. The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a
State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
386 Consider the following statements.
1. While national emergency is in operation union can give directions to states on
exercise of executive powers.
2. While national emergency is in operation president can modify tax distribution
between union and state but not beyond the end of the financial year in which
emergency ceases to operate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
387 Which of the following is/are effect of president rule in a state:
1. President can assume the functions of the government of the state.
2. President can declare that the powers of state legislature can be exercised by the
parliament.
3. President can suspend the powers of the high court and transfer the same to Supreme
Court.
How many of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
388 Article 359 of the Constitution of India deals with which one of the following?
(a) Declaration of financial emergency
(b) Promulgation of President’s rule in a State
(c) Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental rights except a few during emergency
(d) Terms and conditions of service of Members of the Union Public Service Commission
389 Consider the following statements:
1. While a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, tenure of lok sabha can extended
for a period not exceeding one year at a time.
2. It is mandatory to conduct election within 6 months of expiration of emergency if lok
sabha is already on a extended tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
390 Consider the following statements:
1. President of India can proclaim financial emergency on grounds of Balance of
Payment Crisis.
2. A proclamation of Financial Emergency must get approved by the both houses of
parliament with within 1 month with a special majority.
3. Union can direct that all Money Bills or other Bills to which the provisions of article
207 apply to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed
by the Legislature of the State.

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 4. President may direct for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of
persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union including the Judges of the
Supreme Court and the High Courts.
How many of the statements give above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only Two
(c) Only Three
(d) All of the Above
391 Which one of the following is not a part of the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Relief of the disabled and unemployable
(b) Taxes on lands and buildings
(c) Prisons
(d) Stock exchanges
Topic Election and Representation of People’s Act
392 With reference to the electronic voting machines (EVMs), consider the following
statements:
1. The Electronics Corporation of India (ECIL) presented the first EVM prototype before
political parties in 1980.
2. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) machine was first used in a pilot in one
Assembly constituency of Kerala.
3. Since 2019 Lok Sabha elections, the VVPAT has been used with EVMs in all elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Hint:
— The Electronics Corporation of India (ECIL), a public-sector undertaking, presented
the first EVM prototype before political parties on August 6, 1980..
— On May 19, 1982, the pilot was held in 50 polling stations in Kerala’s Parur Assembly
constituency.
— On the recommendation of a Technical Expert Committee (TEC) appointed to examine
EVMs, the EC in April 1990 decided to use EVMs.
— In 1998, EVMs were used in 16 Assembly elections, including in Madhya Pradesh,
Rajasthan and Delhi.
— The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) machine, the second part of the EVM,
was first used in a pilot in one Assembly constituency of Nagaland in 2013.
— Since the 2019 Lok Sabha elections, the VVPAT has been used with EVMs in all
elections.
393 Which of the following is/are criteria for a party to become a state party?
1. At least 3 per cent of the total number of seats or three seats, whichever is more, in
the last Assembly election.
2. At least one MP for every 25 members or any fraction allotted to the state in the Lok
Sabha.

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 3. At least 8 per cent of the total valid votes in the last Assembly election or Lok Sabha
election from the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1, 2, and only
(c) 3, only
(d) 1 only
394 Consider the following statements:
Statement 1:
Free and fair elections have been placed on the highest constitutional pedestal.
Statement 2:
In 1975, the Supreme Court recognised that free and fair elections are a part of the ‘basic
structure’ of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
395 Consider the following statements:
1. The chief electoral officer of each State shall supervise the conduct of all elections in
the State.
2. Observers appointed by the election commission shall have the power to direct the
returning officer, to stop the counting of votes at any time before the declaration of
the result or not to declare the result if in the opinion of the Observer booth capturing
has taken place
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
396 Consider the following statements:
1. Every political party shall get themselves registered with election of India within 1
year of its formation.
2. Every political party may accept any amount of contribution voluntarily offered to it
by any person or company other than a government company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
397 Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A nomination filed by a candidate must be signed by one of the electors of the
constituency as a proposer.
(b) If the candidates do not belong to a recognized political party, then need at least 10
proposers.

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 (c) There is no limit prescribed on number nomination that can be filed by a candidate in
an election.
(d) It is mandatory to make a security deposit while filing nomination
398 Consider the following statements:
1. Representation of people act provides right to vote at one constituency and one
booth.
2. No person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison or is in the lawful
custody of the police.
3. If a person is detained under preventive detention laws then he can vote.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
399 Consider the following statements:
1. As per Representation of People Act 1951a dispute to election can be taken only in
the high courts.
2. The decision of High court is final, and no appeal shall lie against it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
400 Consider the following statements:
1. Bye-elections are to be conducted within 6 months of any arising vacancy.
2. Bye elections are not required if the remainder of term is less than 1 year..
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
401 Which of the following are defined as corrupt practices:
1. Bribery
2. Undue influence
3. Promoting enmity between different classes.
4. Publication of false statements wrt to the character of other candidates
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(a) All of the above
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only
402 Consider the following statements:
1. If a person is convicted for an electoral office, he is disqualified for contesting election
for his life.
2. The representation of people’s Act provides a sentence of up to 3 years and fine for
the offence of booth capturing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
403 Consider the following statements:
1. Names of the states of Indian Union are specified under the first schedule of the
constitution.
2. It contains only the names of States and not the union territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
404 Consider the following statements:
1. Under article 13 the word law includes “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law,
rule, regulation, or notification but does not include custom.
2. If state makes any such violating fundamental rights given under part III, such law
should be held void in toto.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
405 Consider the following statements:
1. The provision of reservation in promotion was included under article 16 by
Constitution (Seventy-seventh Amendment) Act, 1995.
2. In M Nagraj & Others vs Union of India & Others, 2006 court has held that if the
State did wish to exercise its discretion, it is supposed to gather quantifiable data
showing backwardness of the class and inadequacy of representation of that class in
public employment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
406 Which of the following pairs are matched correctly:
Rights Reasonable Restriction
1. Freedom of Speech & Expression. interests of STs
2. Peaceful Assembly sovereignty and Integrity
3. Forming Associations. Morality
4. To practise any profession. Contempt of Court
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the Above

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407 Which of the following is a not correct statement about the principles of general election
in India?
(a) There is one electoral roll for every territorial constituency.
(b) Equality has been accorded to each citizen in the matter of franchise on secular basis.
(c) The constitution of India has enabled state to provide reservation on seats for Socially
and Educationally Backward Classes, Women and Anglo Indians.
(d) Any person convicted for a specified offence can be disqualified from voting for 6
years
408 Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Proclamation of Emergency in a State under Article 356 can continue beyond one year if:
(a) The High Court of the State certifies that the situation in the State is very serious
(b) The Governor of the State certifies that the law and order situation is not under
control
(c) The Election Commission certifies that it is difficult to hold elections to the Assembly
(d) The President is satisfied about the grave situation in the State through independent
investigation
409 Consider the following statements:
A member of the Union Public Service Commission is:
1. Debarred from re-appointment as a member
2. Ineligible for any other employment under the Central or State Government
3. Disqualified from becoming a constitutional functionary like a Governor
Of the above statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 2 are correct
410 With reference to Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act of 1992, consider the following
statements:
1. Before the act, local institutions found a mention only in Directive Principles of State
Policy.
2. It mandated women’s representation in one-third of the seats.
3. It noted that the State Legislature would constitute a Finance Commission to review
the financial position of the Panchayats and then recommend to her what their
requirements are, how they can be met, etc.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, only
(c) 2,3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
411 Consider the following statements:
1. Gram Sabha” means a body consisting of persons above 18 years of age relating to a
village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level.
2. The ratio between the population of the territorial area of a Panchayat at any level
and the number of seats in such Panchayat to be filled by election shall, so far as
practicable, be the same throughout the State.
3. All the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by persons chosen by direct election.
How many statements are correct?

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 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All Three
(d) None
412 Consider the following statements:
1. Every Panchayat shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first
meeting.
2. Once constituted a panchayat shall not be dissolved before five years.
3. A person shall not be eligible to contest election for panchayats unless he has attained
twenty-five years of age.
How many statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All Three
(d) None
413 Provisions of 73rd Amendment does not apply to which of the following states:
1. Nagaland,
2. Meghalaya
3. Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) All of the above
414 Consider the following statements:
1. The validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies of panchayat shall
not be called in question in any court.
2. There shall be separate electoral rolls for the elections of panchayats
3. The duty to prepare electoral rolls for the election of panchayat lies with the election
commission of India.
How many statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All Three
(d) None
415 SAMADHAN doctrine is related to:
(a) Left-Wing Extremism
(b) Bad loans
(c) Modernization of Police Force
(d) Terrorism affected areas

The elements of this strategy are

S for Smart Leadership,
A for Aggressive Strategy,
M for Motivation and Training,
A for Actionable Intelligence, D for Dashboard-based Key Result Areas and Key
Performance Indicators,

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 H for Harnessing Technology,
A for Action Plan for Each Theatre and
N for No access to Financing.
416 Consider the following statements about Crime and Criminal Tracking Network &
Systems (CCTNS):
1. CCTNS is a Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of
Govt. of India.
2. Its objective includes Keep track of the progress of Cases, including in Courts.
3. “Integrated Criminal Justice System (ICJS)” has been developed to include other pillars
of the criminal justice system namely- Courts, Prisons, Prosecution, Forensics and Finger
Prints.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Topic: Administration of UT and Tribal Areas
417 Which of the following is not true about the administration of Union Territories (UTs)?
(a) UTs shall be administered by president or through an administrator appointed by him.
(b) Parliament has been empowered to enact for making changed in administration of
UTs.
(c) If a governor of any state is appointed as administrator of adjoining UTs then he is not
bound by the advice of council of ministers.
(d) Parliament with prior consultation of administrator of UT may provide for a local
legislative assembly.
418 Consider the following statements:
1. 69th Amendment Act provided a legislative assembly to the Union Territory of Delhi.
2. It has not fixed the number of seats in legislative assembly of NCT Delhi.
3. The council of Ministers of NCT Delhi shall be collective responsible to Legislative
Assembly.
4. The chief minister shall be appointed by the lieutenant governor and remains in office
till his pleasure.
How many of the statements given above/is are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only Three
(d) All Four
419 With reference to Government of NCT Delhi Consider the following statements:
1. There shall be a council of minister aid and advice lieutenant governor.
2. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and his
Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the President.
3. Parliament can amend the provisions of Article 239AA by a law.
How many statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All Three
(d) None

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420 Which of the following statements given below are not correct with respect to Vth
Schedule?
(a) President can declare any area as scheduled areas.
(b) Provisions of Vth Schedule can be amended by simple majority of parliament.
(c) Executive powers of state does not extends to scheduled areas.
(d) Governor are required to send an annual report to the president with respect to
scheduled areas.
421 Consider the following statements:
1. In each state having scheduled areas it is mandatory to have a Tribes Advisory Council.
2. Tribe’s Advisory council cannot be constituted in a state not having scheduled areas
but having population of scheduled tribes.
3. Tribes’ Advisory council consists of not more than twenty members of whom, as
nearly as may be, three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes
in the Legislative Assembly of the State.
How many statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All Three
(d) None
422 Consider the following statements with regard to Autonomous District Council under
Sixth Schedule:
1. There shall be a District Council for each autonomous district consisting of not more
than thirty members.
2. Not more than four persons shall be nominated by the Governor and the rest shall be
elected on the basis of adult suffrage.
3. The elected members of the District Council shall hold office for a term of five years.
4. A nominated member shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor.
How many statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only Three
(d) All four
423 Consider the following statements with regard to Autonomous District Council under
Sixth Schedule:
1. Tenure of Autonomous District Council can be extended beyond 5 years while a
Proclamation of Emergency is in operation or if circumstances exist which, in the
opinion of the Governor, render the holding of elections impracticable.
2. Tenure of ADCs can be extended for a period of 6 months only.
3. A member elected to fill a casual vacancy shall hold office only for the remainder of
the term of office of the member whom he replaces.
How many statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All Three
(d) None
424 Which of the following are the powers of Autonomous District Council:
1. The allotment, of land, other than any land which is a reserved forest.

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 2. The regulation of the practice of jhum or other forms of shifting cultivation;
3. The inheritance of property; marriage and divorce, social customs
4. Administration of justice in autonomous districts and autonomous regions.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1,3, and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of the above
425 1. District Council for an autonomous district may constitute village councils or courts
for the trial of suits and cases between the parties all of whom belong to Scheduled
Tribes.
2. Additionally governor may confer powers on district council or the trial of offences
punishable with death, transportation for life, or imprisonment for a term of not less
than five years under the Indian Penal Code.
Which of the statements given above is are correct.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
426 Consider the following statements:
1. The president may at any time appoint a Commission to examine and report on any
relating to the administration of the autonomous districts and autonomous regions
in the State.
2. The report of every such Commission with the recommendations of the Governor
with respect thereto shall be laid before the Legislature of the State by the Minister
concerned together with an explanatory memorandum regarding the action
proposed to be taken thereon.
Which of the statements given above is are correct.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
427 Who can dissolve an autonomous district council:
(a) Governor on advice of council of minister of state
(b) President advice of council of minister of union
(c) Governor may on the recommendation of a Commission appointed by him.
(d) President may on the recommendation of a Commission appointed
Topic: Languages
428 Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for directive for
development of the Hindi language?
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 351
(c) Article 366
(d) Article 357
429 Consider the following statements:
1. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.

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 2. President can constitute an official language commission to make recommendations
to restrict the use of the English language for all or any of the official purposes of the
Union.
3. While making such recommendations the Commission shall have due regard to the
just claims and the interests of persons belonging to the non-Hindi speaking areas in
regard to the public services.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
430 For which of the following, use of English is mandatory:
1. Official Communication between two states.
2. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court.
3. All Bills or amendments introduced either House of Parliament.
4. Of all Ordinances promulgated by the President or the Governor.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
431 Consider the following statements:
1. It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State
to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary
stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
2. President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper
for securing the provision of such facilities.
3. If states violate any such order given by the president, he can proclaim president rule
in the state.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
432 Consider the following statements:
1. It shall be the duty of Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language.
2. Prime Minister can appoint a Special Officer for linguistic minorities.
3. It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the
safeguards provided for linguistic minorities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
433 Consider the following statements:
1. Articles 371-B and C allow the creation of special committees in the Legislative
Assemblies of Assam and Manipur.

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 2. Sixth Schedule contains provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas in the
states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Nagaland.
3. Article 371-F provides special provisions for Sikkim to protect the rights and interests
of the different sections of the population
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
434 Which of the following best defines ‘statutory bail’ recently seen in news?
(a) It is granted to those undertrials who are detained under preventive detention laws.
(b) It a bail which can be given by the High Court’s only.
(c) When an undertrial has already spent one half of the maximum sentence prescribed
for an offence he is released on bail
(d) It is a bail which is demanded in anticipation of future arrest.
435 Consider the following statements:
1. Prison has been kept under concurrent list in the seventh schedule.
2. Model Prison Act 2023 has been prepared by the Bureau of Police Research and
Development.
3. Model prison act provides for separate accommodation for women prisoners,
transgender, etc.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) One Only
(b) Two Only
(c) All Three
(d) None of the above
436 Consider the following statements with respect to Zero FIR:
1. It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area
where the offense is committed.
2. It was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee formed at
the backdrop of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012.
3. There is no number on this FIR this is why it is called Zero FIR.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) One Only
(b) Two Only
(c) All Three
(d) None of the above
Topic: Amendments
437 What does the Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, deal with?
(a) Creation of a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(b) Cyber crimes
(c) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages in the Eighth Schedule
(d) Making right to free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right
438 The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act deals with:
(a) Local self-government
(b) Extension of reservation in educational institutions
(c) Basic structure of the Constitution of India

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 (d) Appointment of judges in the Supreme Court of India
439 How many of the following pairs are correctly matched
Amendment of Constitution Changes/Objectives
th
1. 69 Amendment Legislative Assembly to Delhi
nd
2. 42 Amendment Empowered Parliament to determine the privileges of MPs
3. 26th Amendment Abolition of Privy Purses
4. 19th Amendment Abolition of Election Tribunals
Select the answers using codes given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only Three
(d) All Four
Which of the following amendments added Right to education as a specific fundamental
right under Part III of the constitution?
(a) 79th Constitutional Amendment
440
(b) 69th Constitutional Amendment
(c) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(d) 63rd Constitutional Amendment
Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill
for the purpose in either House of Parliament only with prior recommendation of the
president.
2. Nothing in article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under article 368 of the
constitution.
441
3. An amendment made under article 368 cannot be called in to question in any court.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Which of the following amendments require ratification by half of the states:
1. Election of president and Manner of election of president
2. Executive powers of union or state
3. The representation of States in Parliament.
4. GST Council
5. Any list of seventh schedule
442
6. Provisions related to Union Judiciary
Select the correct answer using codes below:
(a) 1,2,3,4 and 5
(b) All of the above
(c) 1,3 and 5 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 5 only
Consider following about the first amendment act 1951:
1. It added the following three more heads to Article 19(2): “public order”, “friendly
443 relations with foreign states”, and “incitement to an offence”.
2. This amendment added two new Articles, 31A and 31B, and the Ninth Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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 Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements:
1. No Bill for the purpose of reorganisation of states under article 3 shall be introduced
in either House of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President.
2. This provision was introduced by 5th Amendment Act 1955.
444 Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
445 Consider the following statements:
1. 24th Amendment to the constitution made it mandatory for the president to give
assent to any bill contemplating amendment to the constitution if it has been passes
by both houses.
2. 61st Amendment to constitution inserted Xth Schedule to curb political defections.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
446 How many of the following pairs are correctly matched
Amendment of Constitution Changes/Objectives
rd
1. 103 Amendment EWS Reservation
2. 42nd Amendment Capped size of Council of Ministers
3. 102nd Amendment Abolition of Privy Purses
th
4. 100 Amendment Introduction of GST Council
Select the answers using codes given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only Three
(d) All Four
447 Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A bill for amending constitution can be introduced in either house of parliament.
(b) Such bill must be passed with each house separately and joint sitting is not possible.
(c) The bill shall be passe with a majority of two thirds of members present and voting.
(d) President shall assent to bill once passed by the parliament.
Topic: Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies
With reference to the Goods and Services Tax Council, consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It gives recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to
448
GST.
3. Each state can nominate a minister as a member.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

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 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
With reference to the Inter-State Council, consider the following statements:
1. It supports Centre-State and Inter-State coordination and cooperation in India.
2. President is the chairman of the Council.
3. It was established under Article 243 of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Hint:
Inter-State Council is a mechanism that was constituted “to support Centre-State and
Inter-State coordination and cooperation in India”. The Council is basically meant to
449 serve as a forum for discussions among various governments. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
— The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution, which
states that the President may constitute such a body if a need is felt for it.
In 1988, the Sarkaria Commission suggested the Council should exist as a permanent
body, and in 1990 it came into existence through a Presidential Order.
— The Council’s major functions are to investigate and advise on disputes between
states, to investigate and discuss matters in which two or more states or the Union
have a shared interest, and to make recommendations for greater policy and action
coordination.
— The Prime Minister is the chairman of the Council, whose members include the Chief
Ministers of all states and UTs with legislative assemblies, and Administrators of
other UTs. Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Centre’s Council of Ministers,
nominated by the Prime Minister, are also its members.
450 Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
(b) They have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
(c) They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the
Supreme Court of India.
(d) The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the president from office only
after an enquiry is conducted by Supreme Court.
451 Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be
appointed from amongst persons who are holding or have held a post equivalent to
the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.
2. Selection committee for the election commissioners include Prime Minister, Deputy
Prime Minister and Leader of opposition.
3. A Search Committee headed by the Minister of Law and Justice and comprising two
other members not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, shall
prepare a panel of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee.

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 How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
452 With reference to the Election Commission of India, which of the following statement(s)
is/are not correct?
1. It was formed as a three-member body and came into existence on January 25, 1950.
2. The decision of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) prevails in case of a difference
of opinion on any issue.
3. The Election Commissioners (EC) enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks
as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
453 Consider the following statements about Standing Committees:
1. They examine such Bills pertaining to the concerned Ministries/Departments as are
referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, or the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
2. The functioning of the Standing Committee is governed by the President of India.
3. The term of office of the members of the Committees is two years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
454 With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, consider the following
statements:
1. Scheduled Tribes were notified as Scheduled Tribes as per provisions of Article 341(1)
of the Indian Constitution.
2. The commission investigates and monitors the matters relating to Safeguards provided
for Scheduled Tribes
3. The Forest Right Act, of 2006 recognize the symbiotic relationship of the STs with the
forests, reflected in their dependence on the forest.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

Hint:
The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was established by amending
Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution
(89th Amendment) Act, 2003.
— The term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and each member is three years
from the date of assumption of charge.

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 — The Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister, and the Vice-
Chairperson that of a Minister of State and other Members have the rank of a
Secretary to the Government of India.
— These communities were notified as Scheduled Tribes as per provisions of Article
342(1) of the Indian Constitution
— To investigate & Monitor matters relating to Safeguards provided for STs under the
Constitution or under other laws or under Govt. Order, to evaluate the working of
such Safeguards. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— To inquire into specific complaints relating to the Rights and Safeguards of STs.
— To participate and Advise in the Planning Process relating to the socio-economic
development of STs, and to Evaluate the progress of their development under the
Union and any State.
— To submit the report to the President annually and at such other times as the
Commission may deem fit, upon/ working of Safeguards, Measures required for
effective implementation of Programmers/ Schemes relating to Welfare and Socio-
economic development of STs.
— To discharge such other functions in relation to STs as the President may, subject to
the provisions of any law made by Parliament, by rule specify.
— The Commission would also discharge the following other functions in relation to the
protection, welfare, development, and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes.
— The Forest Right Act, of 2006 recognize the symbiotic relationship of the STs with the
forests, reflected in their dependence on the forest as well as in their traditional
wisdom regarding the conservation of the forests.
455 Consider the following statement about the duties of Comptroller and Auditor General:
1. To audit all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State and
of each Union territory having a Legislative Assembly.
2. To audit all transactions of the Union and of the States relating to Contingency Funds
and Public Accounts.
3. To audit all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts and balance-sheets and
other subsidiary accounts kept in any department of the Union or of a State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
456 With reference to the cantonment board, consider the following statements:
1. It is a civic administration body and functions like a municipal body.
2. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. It does not include civilian inhabitants.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Hint:

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 -Cantonment boards provide civic services like as trade licences, birth and death
certificates, water supplies, sewerage connections, and building plan permits to
those who live in their authority.
— However, unlike municipalities, cantonment boards are managed by Armed Forces
soldiers, Defence Ministry officials, state government officials, and a few elected
representatives—a civic administration system that dates back to the pre-
independence era.
— The cantonment boards are led by GOCs, Indian Defence Estates Service (IDES)
officers, state bureaucrats, and a few elected members, according to the source.
457 With reference to the Central Consumer Protection Authority, consider the following
statements:
1. The authority was constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act,
2019.
2. It aims to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade
practices.
3. The authority does not have the power to inquire or investigate into matters relating
to violations of consumer rights.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Hint:
— Central Consumer Protection Authority is the authority is being constituted under
Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
— The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and seeks to widen its scope in
addressing consumer concerns.
— The new Act defines offences as providing false information about the quality or
quantity of an item or service, as well as deceptive ads. It also outlines what action
should be taken if goods and services are discovered to be “dangerous, hazardous, or
unsafe”.
— The CCPA, which was incorporated in the new Act, strives to defend consumer rights
by prohibiting unfair trade practices and false and misleading marketing that harm
the public and consumers.
— The CCPA have the powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations
of consumer rights or unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or
on a direction from the central government.
458 With reference to the Central Administrative Tribunal, consider the following
statements:
1. It provides for adjudication of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and
conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.
2. It had been established under Article 338 -A of the Constitution of India.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
459 With reference to the Attorney-General for India, consider the following statements:
1. He shall hold office at the pleasure of the President.
2. He gives advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform
such other duties of a legal character.
3. He should be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the High Court.
4. He does not have the right to an audience in any courts in the territory of India.
How many of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
460 With reference to the Social Audit Advisory Body (SAAB), consider the following
statements:
1. The 1st meeting of the Social Audit Advisory Body was held in New Delhi.
2. It was designed to assist the Ministry in instituting social audits for its many
programmes.
3. The National Resource Cell for Social Audit (NRCSA) ensures social audits through
dedicated Social Audit Units at the state level.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Additional Info:
In India, Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO), Jamshedpur, was the first
company to perform social audits in 1979 for measuring its social performance. Mazdoor
Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) started the concept of social audit while fighting
corruption in the public works in the early 1990s.
461 With reference to the Serious Fraud Investigation office (SFIO), consider the following
statements:
1. It is a multi-disciplinary organisation under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. The SFIO is headed by a Director in the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of
India as Head of the Department.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Hint:
As per the Companies Act, 2013, the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) has been
set up by the Government of India.
— It is a multi-disciplinary organisation under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs,
comprising experts in the fields of accountancy, forensic auditing, banking, law,
information technology, investigation, company law, capital markets and taxation

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 etc. for detection and prosecution. Recommending prosecution of white-collar
crimes/frauds.
— Investigation into the affairs of a company is entrusted to the SFIO where the
Government is of the opinion that it is necessary to investigate into the affairs of the
company:
(a) On receipt of the report of the Registrar or Inspector under section 208 of the
Companies Act, 2013.
(b) On intimation of a special resolution passed by a company that its affairs are required
to be examined
(c) in the public interest; or at the request of any department of the Central Government
or a State Government
(d) The SFIO is headed by a Director in the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government
of India as Head of the Department.
The Director is assisted by Additional Directors, Joint Directors, Deputy Directors, Senior
Assistant Directors, Assistant Directors Prosecutors and other secretarial staff. SFIO is
headquartered in New Delhi with five regional offices at Mumbai, New Delhi, Chennai,
Hyderabad and Kolkata.
462 Which of the following forms the part of the consolidated fund of India?
1. all revenues received by the Government of India,
2. all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills,
3. loans or ways and means advances
4. all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 2 and 4
(b) 1 2 and 3
(c) 1 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
463 Consider the following statements;
1. The net proceeds of the taxes received by the union is certified by the parliament.
2. net proceeds” means in relation to any tax or duty the proceeds thereof reduced by
the cost of collection
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
464 Consider the following statements:
1. No person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service be
dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was
appointed.
2. It is not necessary to conduct any enquiry if such persons are dismissed by the
president and he is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State it is not
expedient to hold such inquiry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
465 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State if requested by the
Governor of that State and approved by the President.
(b) Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State if requested by the
Chief Minister of that State.
(c) Union Public Service Commission cannot serve the needs of a State.
(d) Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State simply on request
of Governor and the approval of the President is not necessary.
466 Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) The expenses of the Union or a State Public Service Commission, including any
salaries, allowances shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
(b) It shall be the duty of the Union Commission to present a report annually to the
President.
(c) President in his discretion may cause those report to be to be laid before each House
of Parliament.
(d) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission shall be ineligible for further
employment either under the Government of India or under the Government of a
State.
467 Under Article 323-A of the constitution a tribunal can be created for which of the
following:
(a) Levy, assessment, collection and enforcement of any tax;
(b) Foreign exchange, import and export across customs frontiers;
(c) Industrial and labour disputes;
(d) For disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of
persons appointed to public services
Past Papers of 2021-23
468 Statement-1:{2023}
In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations
for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II:
In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject
of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-11 are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-l
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
469 Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the
‘Constitution’ of a country? {2023}
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security
470 Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India :

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 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission.
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
471 Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India,
all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President
before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that
some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time
limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
472 With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the
following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject
the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or
reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no
joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
473 With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements :
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an
Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the
lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to
the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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474 Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies
made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for
maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II :
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
475 By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as
the Governor General of India?
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
476 Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect
States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person
being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before
the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
477 Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative
Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA
of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Pondicherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh
because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry
is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statement are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

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478 Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to
the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I:
One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II:
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement and Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
479 Statement-I :
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote
constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II :
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee
under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
480 With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central
Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in
maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing
Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
481 Consider the following statements: {2022}
1. Under the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish
for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the power to make laws on the Contempt of
Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
482 With reference to India, consider the following statements: {2022}
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate
lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and
recognition of law colleges?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
483 Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of
India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is
obligatory for the President of India to give his/ her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
484 Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister,
Minister
of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union The government, including the Prime
Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok
Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
485 Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

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486 With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six
months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to
decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
487 Consider the following statements:
1. The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of
the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of
India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his
resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
488 With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a
public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government
Company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of
Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
489 With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of
the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of
Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the
sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy
Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime
Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3

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 (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
490 In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were
divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated
as “Reserved” subjects?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
491 With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial
Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the
right
3. to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
492 If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which
is one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
493 With reference to India, consider the following statements: {2021}
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and
such the accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to
interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
494 With reference to India, consider the following statements: {2021}
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner
because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

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 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
495 Legislation that confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and
uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which
one of the following articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44
496 Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is
federal in character?
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
(c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
497 Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of
external control and possessing an organized government
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory possessing the authority to govern
them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights, and safeguard their means
of sustenance
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time
with their own culture, tradition, and government
(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an
executive responsible to the central authority, and an independent judiciary
498 With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a
Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the
President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court
does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
499 With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only ‘one citizenship and one domicile’.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any
circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

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 Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal
democracy?
(a) A committed judiciary
500
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers
501 Under the Indian Constitution, the concentration of wealth violates
(a) the Right to Equality
(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Right to Freedom
(d) the Concept of Welfare
502 What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
503 Constitutional government means
(a) a representative government of the nation with a federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

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