Operation & Technical- VFF

1) Reversible Fan can Operate in two directions - TRUE *

2) For 3D Hummingbird, Hand brake is fitted in seat frame - TRUE
3) Smart test for functional check is possible only on Electronic tractor - TRUE
4) If Machine breakdown & assembly activity bypassed ,does NEFFP process is applied - TRUE
5) Does a month old employee need operator certification process - TRUE *
6) Perma Clutch is availble only in Single clutch - FALSE
7) In single clutch at the time of PT O engage & disengage clutch should be operate? - YES *
8) DOC converts CO & H into - Water and carbon di oxide
9) Mataverse World is - Virtual connection
10) DEVICE USED TO CONTROL SPEED OF AC MOTORS - VFD
11) OIL PULSE TOOL MODEL USED FOR REAR TYRE ON V-42 - UXRT3000
12) Double locking hood mechanism is provided in which model - UNX Brazil
13) What is the ULSD full Form? - Ultra Low Sulphur Diesel **
14) Turbo charger is a - Turbo compressor **
15) What is Function of Muffler? - To Reduce Exhaust Noise
16) What is the function of Diff Lock? - To lock the Differential in muddy condition
17) Why was TREM IV introduced in India - To limit and control exhaust gases from Engine*
18) CAC in tractor used for? - To cool the intake Air *
19) Fastening is a process of joining which is – Temporary *
20) Any part not meeting drawing spheciifcation which process is applied to use the part? - TDR
21) WHAT SCADA MEANS FOR YOU - SUPERVISORY CONTROL AND DATA ACAQISITION **
22) What is the correct sequence of strokes in four stroke cycle engines? - Suction, Compression,
Power, Exhaust **
23) HOIST TYPE OF TYRE LIFTING CRANES - ST-10 **
24) Which app is used for reporting IT issues - SISA 2.0 *
25) What is Full form for SCSP? - Single clutch single PTO *
26) If You Don’t know assembly sequnece which document to be referred - Sequence of Events
27) DRY FILTER PAINT BOOTH MAINLY HELP TO - REDUCE WATER CONSUMPTION ***
28) Why is Genealogy important? - Records data for future reference
29) Any abnormality found during weight testing ,what the immediate process to be followed - Raise
Qnote
30) Which is not criteria for ZES Qualification - Product Experience
31) PR stands For - Power Reversal
32) PTO hp indicates - Power on PTO shaft
33) DC TOOL CONTROLLER USED FOR WAGON DC TOOL - PF4000
34) Hydraulic brake works on the principle of - Pascal's Law
35) OEE stands for - Overall equipment Effectiveness
36) ORC means - Over Running Clutch
37) WHICH VALVE IS USED TO CONTROL ONE DEVICE FROM TWO PUSH BUTTONS IN PENUMATIC
CIRCUIT - OR GATE
38) Which app is used for JD link - Operations centre app
39) OHSAS stands For - Occupation Health and safety assessment series
40) Which storage is correct for O rings to avoid contamination – O ring should be in sealed
container or Bag
41) Are Feasibility Build (FB) Tractors are sailable ? – No
42) EGR used to reduce - Nitrous oxide
43) The first |.C. engine was invented by – Nikolaus Otto
44) Part found damage during assembly which process to be followed - NCM

45) MAT stands for - Multi Activity Tilegaer

46) Tractor operation in lower gear causes? - More Pull
47) Full form of MTG - Modular Tellematic Gateway
48) Poka yoke stands For - Mistake proofing
49) WHAT IS MODEL OF 2K PAINT MIXING UNIT OF AGGREGATE PAINT SHOP - MICRO
50) DOC fillter body is - Metal
51) What is the term for the maximum quantity of an item that can be stored? - Maximum stock
level
52) Why tractor have small & big tyre? - Max Traction effort
53) WHO ACTIVATES READ SWITCHES - MAGNETS
54) Ply rating of tyre indicates? Load- Bearing capacity
55) PNG IS SAFER THAN LPG DUE TO ITS PROPERTY - LIGHTER THAN AIR
56) which level of Mistakeproofing is focus on preventaion of issues – Level 1
57) BRAND NAME OF VACUUM PUMP USED IN DUUR MACHINE - LAYBOLD
58) KPI stands For - Key Performance indicator
59) What is KC? - Key charactristics
60) The function of piston pin is to - Join the connecting rod to the piston
61) Which inventory management method involves maintaining a minimum level of inventory? - JIT
62) HAT MODEL OF ABB ROBOTS USED ON CPS LINE - IRB5400
63) ICC(fishing) stands for - Instrument Cluster control
64) Kanban system work with - Instruction Card system
65) AGV USED IN VFF ARE MANUFACTURED BY - HI-TECH ROBOTICS
66) A function of drawbar in tractors is to? - Hitch the implement
67) HPCR stands for - High Pressure Common Rail
68) What do you understand by HVAC - Heating Ventilation and Air Conditioning
69) Which of the following is a semi fluid lubricant, used for slow moving parts? - Grease
70) In following of which is not a steering system component - Gear Box
71) What are the structural joints? - Front support to engine Bolt
72) Toe-in and toe-out are related to? – Front axle of tractor
73) How grease work as a lubricant? - Forms a oil film between two mating parts
74) Why hardener is used in paint while painting tractor? - For fast drying of paint
75) VALVES USED IN PENUMATIC CIRCUIT TO CONTROL SPEED OF CYLINDERS - FLOW CONTROL
76) FPY stands for - First Pass Yield
77) What is FPY - First Pass Yield
78) SAFETY DEVICE USED IN GEMA POWDER COAT BOOTHS TO CONTROL EXPLOSION – FIRE SYSTEM
79) Write correct sequence Phases of EPDP ? - FB,DB,LPB,SOP
80) Full form of FPM - Failures Per Machine
81) EGR satnds for - Exhaust Gas Recirculation
82) What is Full form for DCDP? - Dual clutch Dual PTO
83) In which of these model ATD is not fitted - Domestic Trem IV
84) Full form of DPU - Defect Per Unit
85) OPC SERVER IS USED FOR - DATA SHARING
86) Full form of CFPA - Customer focused product audit
87) What is the function of ECU - Control and monitor Engine functions
88) Kaizen stands for - Continuous improvement
89) Which process to be performed for Any Quality Improvement on product - Continous
Improvement
90) Rapid explosion of air-fuel mixture within the cylinder, when ignited by a spark is known as -
Constant volume combustion
91) WHAT IS FULL FORM OF CST IN SOLAR SYSTEM - CONCENTRATED SOLAR THERMAL
92) What do you understand by CVML - Computer Vision and Machine Learning
93) Which of the following is an indicator of the combustion speed of diesel fuel and compression
needed for ignition? - Cetane Number
94) The device in which air-fuel mixture is prepared away from the cylinder of an engine is known as –
Carburettor
95) CAN error in flashing means - Cable Network error
96) When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified value, then the - Brake drags
97) Which application provide customer support for Johndeere tractors – Anubhuti
98) What is the speciality of JD Link - Advanced Technology Connectivity
99) What is the HP level of ILC Transmission? - Above 55 HP
100) At what temperature Thermostat operate ? 80 Degree
101) Gear Pro is avaible in which of these 5D model - 5045D & 5050D
102) BRAKE BLEEDING LEAK TEST TIME IS SET - 5 SEC
103) WHAT IS STANDARD DISTANCE REQUIRED FOR GOOD ENGRAVING FROM MARKING PIN AND
MARKING SURFACE - 4MM
104) In which tractor EGR system is available? - 35 HP 3D
105) EQUIPMENT USED FOR 2K PAINTING FOR AUTO PAINT 2KSMIXING IN PAINT SHOPS -2KS
106) WHAT IS USABLE PR. DROP RECOMANDED FOR PRIMARY DRY FILTERS - 250PA
107) The lift capacity of Lift Pro tractor is - 2500 kg
108) SAFE CONTROL VOLTAGE USED IN EQUIPMENTS IN INDUSTRY - 24V
109) JUHENGEREACH FORK LIFTS LOAD CAPACITY IS - 1T
110) VOLTAGE USED FOR BRAKES IN STAHL HOISTS - 180V
111) INCOMING SUPPLY VOLTAGE RECEIVED FROM MSEB IN JD - 132KV
112) What is Gear and Range option in ILC Transmission? - 12X4 & 9X3
113) What is the voltage of Mobile Charging point out put on Cluster? - 12V
114) SPEED OF AC MOTOR IS CALCULATED BY FORMULA - 120F/P
115) Which combination is availble in Gear Pro - 12F & 4R
116) What is the engine to pto power loss%? - 10-15%
117) What is the low speed range of Power Tech Creeper model - 0.3-0.8 kn/hr
118) Is 12X4 (Range & Shift) available in 5D (AA)? - TRUE
119) What is function of forward solenoid in Power reverser transmission? - Provides oil flow to
forward clutch pack & Avoid Oil flow to forward clutch pack.
120) The lowest speed of engine at which the engine runs smoothly is called - idling speed
121) What is the full form of CCV? - Clutch control valve
122) Quality of the fuel is judged by its - Calorific value
123) SPARES COST TARGET INR/TR FOR VFF IS – 440
124) WHAT IS TARGET OF ELECTRICITY CONSUMPTION PER TRACTOR FOR VFF FOR FY-25 – 100
125) How many KC are there in VFF? – 28
126) AIR PRESSURE OF 1 BAR IS EQUAL TO HOW MAY PSI - 14.2
127) TPM Pillers in Nos. – 8
128) QC tools in Nos. – 7
129) How many standard variants are available in 3D Gear Transmission? – 2
130) 1HP IS EQUALS TO HOW MANY KW. - 0.75

Operation & Technical- EFF

131) Cutting speed of tool depends on Tool diameter & Spindle RPM – TRUE
132) Ovality of bore is equal to difference between max & min diameter – TRUE

133) CMM is not used for inspection of Geometric accuracy of machined parts ? – FALSE
134) Which of the following is not metal cutting operation – Welding
135) What is emission regulation for below 50 HP tractor in India - Trem 3A
136) What is the function of a cylinder hone in engine operations? - To smooth the surface of a
cylinder
137) What is the purpose of honing a cylinder? - To smooth the cylinder surface and improve oil
retention
138) What is the purpose of a valve seat in an engine? - To seal the combustion chamber
139) What is the purpose of a milling machine in engine operations? - To remove material from the
surface of metal parts
140) What is the purpose of a coolant in engine machining? - To reduce heat and friction during
machining
141) In 3 cylinder diesel engine, the cylinders are fired in particular sequence - To reduce engine
vibration
142) What is the purpose of thermostat in coolant circuit of John Deere diesel engines? - To maintain
the circulation of water in engine block when the engine is started in a cold state
143) What is the function of a boring machine in engine operations? - To increase the diameter of a
cylinder
144) What is the function of a reamer in engine operations? - To finish the diameter of a hole
145) Whatis the purpose of a tapping machine in engine operations? - To create internal threads in
holes
146) What is the function of a drill press in engine operations? - To create holes in metal parts
147) Which process is used to create threads on a blocks? - Threading
148) A feeler gauge is used to check - Thickness of clearance
149) In following which is not fuel system part – Thermostat
150) Do the correct sequence of 4 stroke Diesel Engine - Suction-Compression-Power-Exhaust
151) Which tool is used to check the flatness of a machined surface? - Straight edge
152) Which material is commonly used for valve construction? – Steel
153) The motion of CAM is transferred to valve through - Rocker arms
154) Why After treatment is used in Diesel Engine ? - Reduce Engine Temperature
155) During engine testing, Power is calculated based on - Rated RPM torque
156) What is drawn in cylinder of diesel engine during suction stroke - Pure air alone
157) Control of maximum oil Pressure in lubrication system is done by - Pressure relief valve
158) The device used to reduce exhaust noise is called – Muffler
159) Which tool is having multiple cutting points - Milling cutter
160) Which process involves removing material from the surface of a metal part to ensure it is flat? -
Milling
161) Which process involves removing material from the surface of an engine block to ensure it is
flat? - Milling
162) Which tool is commonly used to measure the diameter of a shaft? – Micrometer
163) Which tool is used to measure the thickness of a machined part? – Micrometer
164) In Engine number PY3029H000001, PY stands for - Manufacturing Unit as Pune
165) In Engine number PY3029H000005, PY stands for- Manufacturing Unit as Pune
166) Maximum torque in a tractor is generated at - Less than Rated rpm
167) In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by - Injected fuel & Temperature developed due to
compression

168) What is the main advantage of using a CNC machine in engine operations? - Increased precision
and repeatability
169) Which machining operation is critical for lubrication oil retention – Honning
170) Which material is typically used for cutting tools in engine machining? - High-speed steel
171) What is full form of HPCR - High pressure common rail
172) Peak torque RPM is generally - Half of Rated RPM
173) In four stroke diesel engine cam shaft speed is ____the crank shaft speed - Half
174) Cam shaft is driven by - Gear drive
175) Which part of engine stores energy during power stroke – Flywheel
176) During tappet setting, Valve lash adjustment is done with - Filler Gauge
177) What is full form of term EGR in emission regulation - Exhaust Gas Recirculation
178) Turbo chargers are driven by - Exhaust gas
179) Do the correct sequence of power transmitting from Engine to Transmissions - Engine- Clutch -
Gear Box- Differential -Axles
180) Which of the following is compression Ignition Engine? - Diesel Engine
181) Which gauge is used for runout inspection - Dial indicator
182) For BS4 engines we are using ECU – Denso
183) Which of the following cylinder head parameters greatly impacts emission - Cylinder head swirl
184) Which fuel system is used in Bharat Stage IV Engines - CRDI Fuel System
185) Which fuel system is independent fuel system in Diesel Engines? – CRDE
186) What value of CPk is considered for Good process? Cpk > 1.33
187) Which convert the up & down motion of the piston into rotary motion - Connecting Rod
188) What does the term "CNC" stand for in machining? - Computer Numerical Control
189) Fuel Injections takes place in the following stroke : Compression Stroke
190) In a single dry plate clutch, torsional vibrations are absorbed by - Coil springs known as torsional
springs
191) Which of the follwing tool material is hardest – CBN
192) Connecting rods are generally of the following form - Cast iron square section
193) Which material is commonly used for engine block construction? - Cast Iron
194) What is the material used in Cylinder block – C.l.
195) What is emission regulation for above 50 HP tractor in India - BS4
196) in PY3029L022316 what does it mean by L - Brazil engine
197) Which process is used to increase the diameter of a cylinder? – Boring
198) Which tool is commonly used to measure the bore diameter of a cylinder? - Bore Gauge
199) An EGR valve is used in which of following - Air system
200) Why is intercooler used in Engine? - Air Cooling
201) In Diesel engine during a suction stoke___ is drawn in the cylinder - Air & Fuel
202) What is the HP range of Bharat Stage IV Non-Road Engines Emission? - Above 50 HP
203) In which temperature normally thermostat open ? - 80° to 85°C
204) What is optimum Engine temperature? - 75 to 95 Degree Celsius
205) Pune Diesel Engine classified as - 4 Stroke Engine
206) What is the thermal efficiency of diesel engine - 30-40%
207) What is the displacement of Pune 3 Cylinder Diesel Engines? - 3.2 L & 2.9 L
208) 1 micron is equal to - 0.001 mm
209) Which tool is used to measure the clearance between machined components? - Feeler gauge
210) Service interval for John Deere 5D tractor is ___hours – 500
211) Optimum engine coolant temp is about how many degree – 82°C
212) How Many Piston Rings available in piston – 3
213) A four stroke engine produces one power stroke in___ revolutions of crank shaft – 2
214) John Deere engine have __ valve per cylinder – 2
215) What are bilateral tolerances in Crank & Cam bore in cylinder Block in mm? - 0.013
216) Operation & Technical-TFF | KC Parameter Should Have Cp Cpk More Than 1.33 - TRUE
217) We are Having Two CMM Machines In CMM Room - TRUE
218) In HMC machine spindle is mounted on ….axis? - X-Y
219) How Many Transmission Models are there in X-40 Transmission - X-40 HST & X-40 PRT
220) CNC Machine Is Having This Four Axis - X Axis, Y Axis, Z Axis & B Axis
221) How Many Transmission Lines are there in TFF Assembly - Utility Line & CUT Line
222) Capacity Of Transmission Assembly Lines - UT Line-350 & CUT Line-100
223) Currently which emission norms we are following in India for tractors for above 50 Hp ... - TREM
IV
224) What is the purpose of a thrust bearing - To support axial loads
225) What is the function of a hydraulic accumulator - To store hydraulic fluid under pressure
226) What is function of bleed screw? - To remove the air from brake system
227) What is the purpose of lubrication in maintenance - To reduce friction and wear between
moving parts
228) What is the purpose of a mechanical seal in a pump - To prevent leakage of fluids
229) What is the main function of a gearbox - To change the speed and torque of the output shaft
230) What do you understand by smart industry? - Technology-driven approach that utilizes
Internet-connected machinery to monitor the production process
231) Constant speed motor is - Synchronous motor
232) In CNC Programming S1000 Stands For - Spindle Speed 1000 RPM
233) Which PTO is in X40 - Single
234) Which type of Transmission Produce in Pune? - S, AA, PR, X40, UTAI, UNX, 3D & ILC
235) In which Models Creeper assembly is there - S & PR
236) PM stands for... - Preventive Maintenance
237) Which type of maintenance involves replacing worn-out parts before they fail? - Preventive
maintenance
238) These Are the Types Of Transmission - PR, S, AA, X-40 & 3E
239) Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission system are - Noise
level and strength
240) What is the SI Unit of Torque? - N m
241) Which instrument is commonly used to measure insulation resistance? - Megohmmeter
242) What is the best practice of oil line joint torquing? - Mark & torque
243) Which M code is used for Tool change? - M06
244) What should be done before performing maintenance on electrical equipment? - Lockout-Tagout
the equipment
245) What is meaning of LOTO? - Lock out and Tag out
246) Code G01 Stands For - Linear Interpolation
247) What is the main disadvantage of using a roller conveyor? - Limited ability to handle bulk
materials
248) Levels Of Mistake Proofing - Level-1, level-2 & level-3
249) Which JDHS standard used for electrical safety? - JDHS 5
250) Insulation tester used for measurement of - Insulation resistance
251) Which type gearbox used in rock shaft conveyor - Inline Gearbox
252) What does HST stand for? - Hydro Static Transmission
253) In tractor three-point hitch is operated by? - Hydraulic system
254) What is Mean By HMC - Horizontal Machining Center
255) Which oil used in main line test bed - Hi-gard oil
256) What does the acronym HIRA stand for in the context of safety? - Hazard Identification & Risk
Assessment
257) Insulation resistance of motor winding and ground should be... - Greater than 220 Mohm
258) What is the definition of Torque? - Force applied from a distance
259) Which word is used for feed rate commands? - F
260) Which of the following is a common sign of a failing bearing in machinery? - Excessive noise
261) Which of the following operation is not performed by M – Code? - Drilling
262) What Will Be the Minor Dia Drill Size For M10x1.5 Tapping Operation - Dia 8.5mm Drill
263) Which type of maintenance is performed after equipment fails - Corrective maintenance
264) What Is Mean BY CMM - Coordinate Measuring Machine
265) What are the advantages of using ROBOT for sealant application? - Continuous bead, time
saving, sealant optimization, ergo issues reduction
266) What does CNC stand for? - Computer Numeric Control
267) What is the main advantage of using pneumatic systems over hydraulic systems - Cleaner
operation
268) AA Transmissions are used to make Following Tractors - 5D Series Tractors
269) How many speed & range gear pairs used to form 12x4 Transmission? - 3 Speed & 4 Range
270) What is three phase voltage used in the fanuc system - 200 volt
271) What should the voltage between earth and neutral ideally be? - 0-0.5 Volt
272) Backlash of S Transmission is set between - 0.18 To 0.33
273) What type of maintenance is typically required for gear pumps - Regular lubrication of gears
274) What is the main disadvantage of using pneumatic systems - Lower power output
275) High spindle RPM of Makino A88 machine - 10000
276) What is the axis reference parameter in fanuc controller - 1815
277) Which type Coolent use in Ultrasonic washing Machine - 131
278) how many press machine issued in TFF - 41
279) Poor fuel quality can lead to fuel injection system malfunction & engine performance issues -
TRUE
280) First piston ring is called as Oil scrapper ring - FALSE
281) Which type of cooling system is commonly used in modern car engines - Water cooling

282) In BS4 engine we are having - Wastegate TC

283) What does letter U and H stand for in the following serial no of engine models:
PY3029U905980, PY3029H905980?
Answer: U - electronic engine, H - Turbo with intercooler In a one complete cycle of four-
stroke engine for how many times both intake and exhaust valves are found simultaneously
closed? Answer: Two
284) What is the primary benefit of using a Particulate Filter (PDF) in CI engines
Answer: Trapping and oxidizing particulate matter
285) TPS Stands for _______ in DC tools
Answer: Tool Positioning System
286) What is the purpose of the timing belt or timing chain in an engine
Answer: To synchronize the rotation of the crankshaft and camshaft
287) What is the main purpose of the flywheel in an engine
Answer: To store rotational energy
288) What is the main purpose of the piston rings in an engine
Answer: To seal the combustion chamber
289) What is the main purpose of the glow plug in a CI engine
Answer: To preheat the air in the combustion chamber
290) What is the primary function of the fuel injector in a CI engine
Answer: To inject fuel into the combustion chamber
291) In a CI engine, what is the purpose of the turbocharger
Answer: To increase air intake and boost engine power
292) What is the main function of the turbocharger in a CI engine
Answer: To increase air intake and boost engine power
293) What is the primary function of the alternator in an engine
Answer: To generate electrical power
294) What is the primary function of the radiator in an engine cooling system
Answer: To dissipate heat from the coolant
295) What is the role of the intercooler in a turbocharged CI engine
Answer: To cool the compressed air before it enters the combustion chamber
296) What is the function of a Diesel Oxidation Catalyst (DOC) in a CI engine
Answer: To convert CO and hydrocarbons into CO2 and water
297) What is the purpose of the camshaft in an engine
Answer: To control the opening and closing of the valves
298) What is the purpose of the throttle in an engine
Answer: To control the amount of air entering the engine
299) What is the primary function of the exhaust manifold in an engine
Answer: To collect exhaust gases from multiple cylinders
300) What is the function of the oil pump in an engine
Answer: To circulate oil to lubricate engine components
301) Which of the following is not part of fuel system in John Deere diesel engine?
Answer: Telephonic Adaptor
302) Do the correct sequence of 4 stroke Diesel Engine
Answer: Suction-Compression-Power-Exhaust
303) What is full form of SPC
Answer: Statistical Process Control
304) Which of the following part is not part of Coolant system
Answer: Spray Jet
305) Which of the following is a characteristic of mechanical CI engines
Answer: Simpler maintenance
306) Which type of engine uses spark plugs for ignition
Answer: SI engine
307) What will happen if cylinder head oil gallery will choke
Answer: Rocker shaft will seize
308) Which of the following is not a function of Diesel fuel injection system
Answer: Regulating quality of fuel
309) Compression ratio of I.C. engine is
Answer: Ratio of Total volume and clearance volume
310) Which stroke in a four-stroke engine involves the combustion of fuel
Answer: Power stroke
311) Which of the following is John Deere’s unique feature, which increases engine life and
performance?
Answer: Piston Spray Jets
312) What is correct order of lubrication system in engine
Answer: Pick up - Pump - Cooler - Filter - Turbocharger
313) Which emission control technology is used to trap and oxidize particulate matter in CI
engines
Answer: PDF
314) Which cycle is commonly used in four-stroke internal combustion engines
Answer: Otto cycle
315) EGR is primarily designed for reducing ________ Emissions
Answer: NOx
316) What is not part of Engine
Answer: Neutral Safety Switch
317) What is the RPM of Turbocharger
Answer: More than 100000 RPM
318) The Size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is
Answer: More
319) Part Cleanliness inspection process is called as
Answer: Millipore inspection
320) What is the main advantage of using a mechanical CI engine over an electronic one
Answer: Lower cost
321) What is the main advantage of using a Diesel Oxidation Catalyst (DOC)
Answer: It reduces CO and hydrocarbon emissions
322) Which component in a CI engine helps in reducing the temperature of the intake air
Answer: Intercooler
323) Which component in an engine helps to reduce the temperature of the intake air
Answer: Intercooler
324) In a four-stroke engine, during which stroke does the intake valve open
Answer: Intake stroke
325) The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
Answer: Indicated power
326) Which of the following statement is True?
Answer: In a Diesel Engine size of Intake Valve more than size of Exhaust Valve
327) Which of the following is a benefit of using electronic control in CI engines?
Answer: Improved fuel efficiency
328) Which of the following is a common method to improve the efficiency of CI engines
Answer: Implementing turbocharging
329) What is the main advantage of a turbocharged engine over a naturally aspirated engine
Answer: Higher power output
330) In 5210GP what does GP mean
Answer: Gear Pro
331)  Which of the following does not relate spark ignition engine
Answer: Fuel Injector
332)  Which component in an engine helps to reduce vibrations and ensure smooth
operation
Answer: Flywheel
333)  A Compressor on turbocharger has ________ Vanes so that air can be compressed and
sent to the Charge Air Cooler
Answer: Fixed
334)  What is full form of FT4
Answer: Final Tier 4
335)  Which component is responsible for reducing NOx emissions in a CI engine
Answer: Exhaust Gas Recirculation (EGR)
336)  What does EGR stand for in the context of CI engines
Answer: Exhaust Gas Recirculation
337)  Which type of CI engine is typically more responsive and efficient
Answer: Electronic CI engine
338)  Which type of engine is typically more responsive and efficient
Answer: Electronic CI engine
339)  Upcoming BS4 Engine is with ________ Technology
Answer: DOC+DPF+EGR
340)  Which emission control technology is used to convert CO and hydrocarbons into CO2
and water
Answer: DOC
341)  What is meant by stroke of Engine
Answer: Distance between TDC to BDC
342)  What is full form of DC tool used for torqueing
Answer: Direct current tool
343)  Which type of fuel is primarily used in CI engines
Answer: Diesel
344)  Which ECU is used in BS4 engines
Answer: Denso
345)  Which component in an engine is responsible for converting linear motion into
rotational motion
Answer: Crankshaft
346)  What is full form of CEGR
Answer: Cooled exhaust gas recirculation
347)  In BS4 engine DOC is used to
Answer: Convert NOx to NO2
348)  What is an Engine
Answer: Convert Chemical energy into Mechanical power
349)  Which transmits the motion of piston to crank shaft
Answer: Connecting Rod
350)  Which of the below component converts reciprocating motion to rotary motion in an
internal combustion engine?
Answer: Connecting Rod
351)  What is full form of CRDI system
Answer: Common rail direct injection system
352)  What is the primary difference between CI engines and SI engines
Answer: CI engines use compression for ignition
353)  Which type of engine is typically more fuel-efficient
Answer: CI engine
354)  Which type of engine uses compression for ignition
Answer: CI engine
355)  Which of the following does not relate Compression ignition engine
Answer: Carburettor
356)  Which of the following is NOT a component of a CI engine’s emission control system
Answer: Carburetor
357)  How does a Particulate Filter (PDF) help in reducing emissions
Answer: By trapping and oxidizing particulate matter
358)  How does Exhaust Gas Recirculation (EGR) help in reducing NOx emissions
Answer: By recirculating a portion of the exhaust gases back into the intake manifold
359)  The power developed by the engine at flywheel end in an I.C. engine considering
losses is known as...
Answer: Break power
360)  What is mechanical efficiency of IC engine
Answer: BP/IP
361)  What is the primary advantage of electronic CI engines over mechanical ones
Answer: Better fuel efficiency
362)  Water pump drive by…
Answer: Belt
363)  Table rotational axis in Horizontal machining center is called as
Answer: B axis
364)  High smoke & misfiring may be reported if
Answer: Any of the above
365)  Which software is used for manufacturing execution at Pune works
Answer: AMES
366)  What is full form of term ATD in emission regulation
Answer: After Treatment Device
367)  BS4 is implemented in India for
Answer: Above 50HP tractors
368)  What is the maximum coolant temperature on engine
Answer: 80 - 85 Degree Celsius
369)  Service interval for BS4 tractor is
Answer: 500 hours
370)  What is the size of Exhaust Valve Filler gauge used for tappet clearance setting?
Answer: 450 microns
371)  3 cylinder and 4-cylinder Deere engines capacity in liters
Answer: 2.9 liters and 3.9 liters
372)  BS IV implemented in India from
Answer: 1st Jan 23
373)  What is the compression ratio in diesel engine
Answer: 14-20
374)  What is the firing order of 3 cylinder engine
Answer: 1-2-3
375)  If Speed of Crankshaft is 2100 RPM, what will be speed of Camshaft?
Answer: 1050 RPM
376)  What is Firing order of Pune build John Deere 3 Cylinder Engine
Answer: 1_2_3
377)  Maximum torque is achieved at what RPM
Answer: 1/2 - 1/3 of rated RPM
378)  The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplet by spraying is called......
Answer: Atomisation
379)  How many cam lobes available on camshaft of 3 cylinder engine with 2 Valves per
cylinder
Answer: 6
380)  Which New Project is Coming on TFF CUT Line
Answer: X-35 Transmission
381)  What is TSS?
Answer: Top Shaft Synchro
382)  What does GD&T stand for?
Answer: Tolerancing
383)  What is the function of Differential?
Answer: To transmit the power to the wheels while allowing them to rotate at different
speeds
384)  What is function of creeper assembly?
Answer: To reduce the speed
385)  What is the function of a circuit breaker in an electrical system?
Answer: To protect the circuit from overload and short circuits
386) 387. What is the purpose of a squirrel cage in HVAC systems?
Answer: To move air through the handler
387) 388. What is the primary function of a bore dial gauge?
Answer: To measure the internal diameter of bores
388) 389. What is the main function of a Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM)?
Answer: To measure the geometry of physical objects
389) 390. What is the main purpose of the 5S methodology?
Answer: To improve workplace organization and reduce waste
390) 391. What is the primary purpose of preventive maintenance?
Answer: To extend the lifespan of equipment by performing regular checks and servicing
391) 392. What is the purpose of tool presetting in CNC machining?
Answer: To ensure the product specifications are met
392) 393. What the function of belleville spring in clutch drum
Answer: To disengage clutch plates
393) 394. What is the purpose of a thermal imaging camera in maintenance?
Answer: To detect heat patterns
394) 395. Which gauge checks the size of threads inside a part?
Answer: Thread Plug Gauge
395) 396. What is the main advantage of using wiper inserts in machining
Answer: They improve surface finish and tool life
396) 397. What does the term "Metrology" refer to in machining?
Answer: The study of measurement
397) 398. Which bearing required pre-load in assembly
Answer: Taper-roller Bearings
398) 399. On which type of bearing, drag setting is done?
Answer: Taper Roller Bearing
399) 400. What is a potential disadvantage of gear pumps?
Answer: Susceptibility to wear and tear due to gear contact
400) 401. How many Sub-Processes in EPPD?
Answer: Sub-Process
401) 402. What does SPC stand for?
Answer: Statistical Process Control
402) 403. In CNC Programming S1000 Stands For
Answer: Spindle Speed 1000 RPM
403) 404. First gear on drive shaft is always
Answer: Small
404) 405. Type of Control Valve
Answer: Single SCV, Dual SCV, Regular
405) 406. Which type of Clutch uses in S Transmissions?
Answer: Single Clutch & Dual Clutch
406) 407. Which shifting part do we have for range in PR
Answer: Shift Collar
407) 408. Creeper kit can not be assembled in which transmission configuration
Answer: S-12*4
408) 409. In which Transmission, park gear system is used?
Answer: S Transmission
409) 410. The "5 Whys" technique is used for:
Answer: Root cause analysis
410) 411. What is the Full form of RPM?
Answer: Revolutions per minute
411) 412. What is meaning of RCV
Answer: Reverse control valve
412) 413. Why we need to do brake bleeding after oil filling in transmission
Answer: Remove air from brake system
413) 414. Through 5E HST Road Runner Project which marketing we are targeting?
Answer: Region-4
414) 415. What geometric characteristic does the symbol ⌿ represent?
Answer: Profile of a surface
415) 416. What is operating pressure for PR & X40
Answer: PR-20 & X40 -18
416) 417. In which transmission models do we have pump?
Answer: PR
417) 418. In which model do we have wet clutch?
Answer: PR
418) 419. What is the full form of PTO?
Answer: Power Take Off
419) 420. What does PTO stand for?
Answer: Power Take Off
420) 421. Full form of PTO
Answer: Power Take Off
421) 422. What geometric characteristic does the symbol ⊕ represent?
Answer: Position
422) 423. What does PPE stand for in the context of maintenance work?
Answer: Personal Protective Equipment
423) 424. What is not part of Cost of poor quality?
Answer: Part inspection cost
424) 425. What geometric characteristic does the symbol ⌿ represent?
Answer: Parallelism
425) 426. What is OEE?
Answer: Overall Equipment Effectiveness
426) 427. What is ORC?
Answer: Over Running Clutch
427) 428. What is the Rockshaft dropping specification for 5E model in Tractor level?
Answer: Open 0.1 / Min, Close 0.4 / Min
428) 429. What is the type of NSS switch used in transmission?
Answer: Normally open
429) 430. What does NFFP stand for?
Answer: No Fault Forward Policy
430) 431. What is NSS?
Answer: Neutral Safety Switch
431) 432. Full form of MTG
Answer: Modular Telematics Gateway
432) 433. In bore gage the small scale on dial indicates setting pressure, what is unit of that
dial?
Answer: Millimeter
433) 434. What is MFWD?
Answer: Mechanical Front Wheel Drive
434) 435. Which brakes we have in HST?
Answer: Mechanical
435) 436. How is Wet clutch activated?
Answer: Mechanical
436) 437. Which thread locker is used in Diffcase to Ring gear?
Answer: Loctite 277
437) 438. ILC Transmission has lift capacity of?
Answer: Kg
438) 439. What is technical specification for testing oil we use in transmission?
Answer: JDM J20C
439) 440. Why differential lock is used?
Answer: Improve traction
440) 441. What are not casting process defects observed on parts?
Answer: Improper primer
441) 442. In X40 HST, what is the full form of HST?
Answer: Hydrostatic Transmission
442) 443. In S & PR models which brake system do we have?
Answer: Hydraulic
443) 444. What is mean by HMC?
Answer: Horizontal Machining Center
444) 445. Which type of CNC tool holder is used for Mazak Machines?
Answer: Holder
445) 446. New friction plate added for haulage variant helps for
Answer: Higher load capacity
446) 447. Which type of CNC programming code controls the tool length offset selection?
Answer: H-codes
447) 448. What is not a Non Destructive Testing?
Answer: Hardness testing of ground part
448) 449. Park gear engagement is present in
Answer: Gear section
449) 450. What type of oil lubrication is used for range and gear in S model?
Answer: Forced
450) 451. What geometric characteristic does the symbol ⧄ represent?
Answer: Flatness
451) 452. Which quality tool helps in identifying root causes of a problem?
Answer: Fishbone diagram
452) 453. The correct flow of power through the drive train is
Answer: Engine clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts, wheels
453) 454. Full form of EQRL
Answer: Electronic Quick Raise Lower
454) 455. What is the full form of EMV valve used in Wet clutch transmissions?
Answer: Electro Magnetic Valve
455) 456. What is EH-MFWD?
Answer: Electro Hydraulic - Mechanical Front Wheel Drive
456) 457. PR TRM contain which type clutch?
Answer: Electro Hyd
457) 458. On which joint there will be large variation between delivered and retained torque?
Answer: Elastic joint
458) 459. What is meaning of PTO 540E?
Answer: E-Economy
459) 460. Which type of Air filter is used in John Deere Tractor?
Answer: Dry Type Air Filter
460) 461. What is meaning of DS in DS Bracket?
Answer: Draft Sensing
461) 462. What is the function of Differential Lock?
Answer: Differential lock ensures equal power to both wheels
462) 463. Which transmission feature are we offering through 5EN Quetzal Project?
Answer: Diff lock
463) 464. While torquing if the bolt is falling, what would not be the cause?
Answer: DFT for plating is lower side of specification
464) 465. For black dust on the parts, what would not be the cause?
Answer: Demineralised water used for washing
465) 466. A control plan is used to:
Answer: Define inspection and control methods
466) 467. 5E HST Unit is purchased from which supplier?
Answer: Danfoss
467) 468. On which line do we make PRT Transmission?
Answer: CUT
468) 469. What is meant by CMM?
Answer: Coordinate Measuring Machine
469) 470. Stabilizer is used for:
Answer: Constant output voltage
470) 471. What is full form of CUT?
Answer: Compact Utility Tractor
471) 472. PR Pump priming is required to ensure:
Answer: Cavitation issue
472) 473. Which Emission Program are we going to implement in FY26?
Answer: BS V
473) 474. What is alternate braking mechanism provided in transmission for emergencies?
Answer: Both park pawl and hand brake
474) 475. X-35 Transmission Project is for which country?
Answer: Augusta
475) 476. Transmission leak testing pressure is less than 1 bar because
Answer: At high pressure there is possibility of O-ring and seals lips gets dislocated and
may gets damaged
476) 477. FMEA is a tool used to:
Answer: Analyze potential failure modes
477) 478. What is a key advantage of using a gear pump?
Answer: Ability to handle high-viscosity fluids
478) 479. We get high torque in which gear and range selection in S 12*4 model?
Answer: A1
479) 480. What is speed range for S transmission?
Answer: 9 x 3 & 12 x 4
480) 481. 5D Mallard Project Transmission having following speed?
Answer: 8 x 8
481) 482. How many range & gear combination in Utai?
Answer: 8-FWD & 8-REV
482) 483. What is speed range for AA transmission?
Answer: 8 x 4 & 12 x 4
483) 484. What is the Viscosity of the Transmission testing Oil?
Answer: 60 to 65 mm²/S
484) 485. How many Phases Do we have in EPDP Process?
Answer: 6 Phases
485) 486. How much is the force setting for PC & DC lever - JD Rockshaft 5D model?
Answer: 5 to 7 Kgf
486) 487. Which of the following statement is correct?
Answer: 3D transmission comes with bull gear reduction mechanism in axle
487) 488. Which series transmissions do we produce in TFF?
Answer: 3 series, 4 series, 5 series
488) 489. In which transmission do we use bull gear mechanism?
Answer: 3 Series
489) 490. What is the engine CC of 5E tractors?
Answer: 2900cc
490) 491. What is 24X12
Answer: 24 - FWD & 12 - Reverse
491) 492. TREM IV transmissions are tested in which max Input motor RPM
Answer: 2100 RPM
492) 493. ILC lifting capacity?
Answer: 2000-2400
493) 494. Acceptable Leak test value of transmission
Answer: 20 cc/min
494) 495. Transmission leak rate pass value during leak testing
Answer: 20 cc/min
495) 496. The nominal voltage for DC cell is
Answer: 2 volt
496) 497. What is the Axle drag specification value for 5D Model
Answer: 18 to 22 Nm
497) 498. What are 5E axle drag specifications?
Answer: 14 to 20 KNm
498) 499. What is the Axle brake piston depth value for 5E, which was measured during axle
brake retraction checking
Answer: 12.5 to 13.5 mm
499) 500. What the newly added transmission configuration variant in 5D
Answer: 12*4
500) 501. What is speed range for PR transmission?
Answer: 12 x 12 & 24 x 12
501) 502. What is the backlash value for 5D & 5E crown wheel pinion
Answer: 0.180 to 0.330 mm
502) 503. What is Backlash setting specifications for AA transmission?
Answer: 0.18 to 0.33
503) 504. What is the least count of a digital micrometer
Answer: 0.001mm
504) 505. What readings are there on thimble scale of mechanical micrometer
Answer: 0 to 0.50 mm divided in division of 0.01mm
505) 506. What is the purpose of the 3-2-1 principle in machining and inspection?
Answer: To restrict all six degrees of freedom of a workpiece
506) 507. ISO 9001 primarily focuses on:
Answer: Quality management systems
507) 508. What does PPAP stand for in automotive quality?
Answer: Production Part Approval Process
508) 509. What is the formula for Tapping Feed rate?
Answer: Feed Rate = RPM × Pitch
509) 510. Which of the following is NOT a type of Material Handling Equipment (MHE)?
Answer: CNC Machine
510) 511. Which of the following is NOT a type of machining process?
Answer: Casting
511) 512. Loctite used for structural joint of CD-CT
Answer: 5188
512) 513. How Much is ILC lift capacity in KG
Answer: 2500
513) 514. How much is the load capacity for 5E-ILC Rockshaft in Kg
Answer: 2500
514) 515. What is the lift capacity of ILC in KG
Answer: 2500
515) 516. Total No of JDHS standard?
Answer: 28
516) 517. What is the traction clutch pressure required to operate S Wet(perma)clutch model
Answer: 12
517) 518. What is a Oil NAS level of Cut line test bed
Answer: 7
518) 519. How many traction clutches are there in PR 24*12 variant
Answer: 4
519) 520. How many only solonaied valves on RCV of 24X12 PR
Answer: 3
520) 521. Steering line leakage in R4 chassis can be detected by Hydraulic test
Answer: TRUE
521) 522. We cannot start TREM IV tractor without ICC flashing
Answer: FALSE
522) 523. Neutral safety switch is present only in 5D model
Answer: FALSE
523) 524. What is the color code for P T O operation lever on Tractor?
Answer: Yellow
524) 525. 10th Digit in the tractor Serial indicates what?
Answer: Year
525) 526. Which controller is related to auto track?
Answer: XSC
526) 527. Which team has won cricket 2022 tournament
Answer: VFF TEAM
527) 528. What is the full form of VCU
Answer: Vehicle Control Unit
528) 529. What types of tractors are manufactured at the John Deere Pune Works facility?
Answer: Utility Tractors
529) 530. Which type of aspiration used in John Deere power tech engines?
Answer: Turbocharged aspiration
530) 531. Currently which emission norms are we following in India for tractors for above 50
Hp
Answer: TREM IV
531) 532. Pump Learning is mandatory before rolling for which model
Answer: TREM IV
532) 533. What is the use of 7 pin socket the tractor
Answer: Trailer electrical system
533)  What happens in Go Home Feature?
→ Tractor Head lamp ON for 30 sec
534)  What is the speciality of Go Home Feature?
→ Tractor Head lamp ON for 30 sec
535)  What is the TSS Transmission full form?
→ Top Shaft Synchronisor
536)  The purpose of transmission in an automobile is
→ To vary the torque & speed at the wheel
537)  What is the purpose of a solvent in paint?
→ To thin the paint and allow it to flow more easily
538)  Why is masking of tractor important before painting?
→ To stop water entry in paint shop through open ports
539)  What is the use of Differential in Tractors?
→ To permit one of the rear wheels of the tractor to rotate slower or faster than the other
540)  What is the purpose of a primer?
→ To help the paint adhere to the surface and prevent problems like rust or corrosion
541)  The function of Telematics is
→ To collect information from tractor in field
542)  Why ballasting is done for tractor rear tyres?
→ To avoid the slippage of rear tyres
543)  What is use of front weight?
→ To avoid front lifting
544)  What is the primary function of a pigment in paint?
→ To add color and opacity
545)  What do you understand by smart industry?
→ Technology-driven approach that utilizes Internet-connected machinery to monitor the
production process
546)  In which tractor we don’t use ADT?
→ SWANE
547)  In which tractor we don’t use ATD?
→ SWANE
548)  What is mean by SMV?
→ Slow Moving Vehicle
549)  What is the significance of product plate in tractor?
→ Shows government mandatory requirement of tractor
550)  What is the full form of SCV?
→ Selective Control Valve
551)  Which after treatment device reduces the engine's nitrogen oxide emission?
→ SCR
552)  What is the full form of ROPS?
→ Roll Over Protection System
553)  If tractor steering rotates to left while tractor in reverse gear, then tractor turns ____
direction in reverse
→ Right
554)  What is the function of DPF in exhaust system?
→ Remove soot from exhaust gas
555)  What is the purpose of Water Separator?
→ Remove only water from Diesel
556)  5E Roadrunner new Tractor Product Program is for which region?
→ Region 4
557)  Which AC refrigerant is used in John Deere tractors?
→ R-134a
558)  Which type of paints are used in JD Tractor?
→ PU Poly Urethane
559)  What type of paint system is used for chassis painting?
→ PU (Polyurethane)
560)  What is the process sequence in paint shop?
→ PT-Dry off oven-Painting-Oven-Touch up
561)  What is the function of Fuse & Fuse Box?
→ Protects the electrical system/components from high current
562)  What does PT mean?
→ Pre-treatment
563)  White smoke in tractor indicates what?
→ Presence of water in fuel
564)  What is the full form of PQ?
→ PowrQuad
565)  PTO stands for
→ Power Take Off
566)  What type of paint do we use for fenders painting?
→ Powder coat
567)  What type of powder paint system is used for powder coat?
→ Polyester
568)  Thinner is added to the paint in order to
→ Optimize its viscosity
569)  What is the full form of OPS?
→ Operator Presence Switch
570)  Which type of hydraulic circuit used in John Deere tractor?
→ Open centre
571)  What is the full form of OBD?
→ On board Diagnostic
572)  The oil from oil pump delivers directly to?
→ Oil filter
573)  Which systems designed for Operator Safety?
→ NSS
574)  Which systems designed for Operator Safety?
→ NSS
575)  Muffler is provided on tractor to control?
→ Noise
576)  What is the full form of NSS?
→ Natural Safety Switch
577)  Why are tractors front tyre small and rear big?
→ Much easier to steer & Traction
578)  TREM IV engine emission will impact which of these tractors
→ More than 50 HP
579)  JDLink Connectivity & connected Machine initiative MTG full form?
→ Modular Telematics Gateway
580)  What is mean by MFWD?
→ Mechanical Four Wheel Drive
581)  What is the purpose of fuel intercooler in JD tractor?
→ Maintain temperature of fuel in return line to avoid heating of fuel inside the fuel tank
582)  Which paint system do we use for chassis painting?
→ Liquid paint
583)  What is mean by ICC?
→ Instrument Cluster Control
584)  What is the full form of ICC?
→ Instrument Cluster Control
585)  Ballasting in front tyre of tractor is done for?
→ Increasing stability
586)  What do you mean by ILC Tractor?
→ Increased Lifting Capacity
587)  Which of these is not a function of SCV?
→ Increase speed of PTO
588)  Insufficient cleaning may lead to ------?
→ Incomplete paint coating and paint peel off
589)  Which of these is not a part of cooling system?
→ Fuel Injector
590)  What do you mean by FE?
→ Fuel Efficiency
591)  What do you mean by TOE IN?
→ Front wheels are closer together at the front than at the back
592)  How do we measure the viscosity of paint?
→ Ford cup
593)  What is mean by EGR?
→ Exhaust gas recirculation
594)  Full form of ECU
→ Engine Control Unit
595)  In 5050E, 050 stands for?
→ Engine BHP
596)  In which platform Utai tractor is
→ EN
597)  What is Full form of ECU
→ Electronic Control Unit
598)  Which type of air clutch used in 5M series tractor?
→ Electro Hydraulic Clutch
599)  What is the full form of EQRL
→ Electrical Quick Raise and Lower Hydraulic System
600)  Which type of air cleaner used in 5M series tractor?
→ Dry Type
601)  What is the full form of DOC (part of ATD)
→ Diesel Oxidation Catalyst
602)  What is the full form of DEF?
→ Diesel Exhaust Fluid
603)  How do we measure the DFT?
→ DFT Meter
604)  In tractor battery have AC or DC supply
→ DC
605)  What will happen if water mix with fuel
→ Damage Fuel Filters
606)  Which equipment do we use for paint mixing?
→ Cyclomix
607)  What does CC stand for in tractor engine
→ Cubic Centimeter
608)  What is the function of evaporator coil?
→ Cooling of Refrigerant
609)  What is the function of phosphate coating?
→ Convert metal surfaces to a zinc phosphate coating
610)  Homologation does not include
→ Colour of the Seat
611)  Where do we do robotic painting?
→ Chassis
612)  What is the meaning of CED?
→ Cathode Electro Deposition
613)  Blue smoke in tractor indicates what?
→ Burning of Lubricant in Cylinder
614)  Diff lock pedal is applied when there is a need to rotate
→ Both Rear Wheels Simultaneously
615)  What are the elements of machine biography
→ Birth Test and Station View
616)  What are the four components of paint?
→ Binder, Pigment, Solvent, Additive
617)  Which methodology we use for material validation Online At JDPW
→ AMES
618)  What is the purpose of using creeper
→ Allows a tractor to travel slower than a standard tractor
619)  What is mean by ATB?
→ Air Trailer Break
620)  What are the four sections of oven
→ Air Seal, Heat Up, Hold Up & Cooling
621)  In Diesel engine during a suction stroke ………………… is drawn in the cylinder?
→ Air & Fuel
622)  Brake bleeding is used to take ………… out of tractor brake line
→ Air
623)  Where do we paint transmission?
→ AGPS
624)  What do you mean by ATD?
→ After Treatment Device
625)  Why we use feedback torque wrench
→ Accuracy & Data Availability of Process Torque per Tractor
626)  BS-IV emission is applicable for which models?
→ Above 50 HP
627)  What is the rated output of PQ tractor hydraulic pump?
→ 97 L/min
628)  What is the efficiency of E-coat system?
→ 95–98%
629)  John Deere Power & Technology 5.0 event on 14th Feb 2014 one of technology new
Tractor launched?
→ 5E Reverse Fan technology tractor
630)  Brake bleeding at is not required on which of these model
→ 5D
631)  How much torque is applied on Rear tyre?
→ 550 Nm
632)  What is HP of 5055E
→ 55 HP
633)  What is the rated HP of 5305 tractor?
→ 55 HP
634)  What is the SST life of chassis paint
→ 504 hrs
635)  Concentration of coolant used in Export Tractor
→ 50:50
636)  India Govt. BS4 emission regulations are applicable to which Horsepower (HP)
tractors?
→ 50 HP & above
637)  What is the minimum turning radius with out break of 5130M tractor?
→4m
638)  Maximum lifting capacity of 5M tractor 3 point rear hitch?
→ 3569 Kg
639)  What is the minimum turning radius with break of 5130M tractor?
→ 3.85 m
640)  In the TREM IV ILC Tractor model lifting capacity is...
→ 2500 Kgf
641)  What is the wheel base of John Deere 5M series tractor?
→ 2350 mm
642)  The rated engine speed of the TREM IV Tractors is...
→ 2100 rpm
643)  At what engine speed we are getting 2 PTO speed?
→ 1700–2100
644)  How much AC filled in a 75 HP tractor?
→ 1700 g
645)  Maximum fuel tank capacity of 5130M tractor?
→ 165.4 L
646)  Based on transmission variants tractor with power reversal transmission can have
following speed combinations
→ 12Fx12R, 24Fx12R
647)  What is the required voltage of battery?
→ 12 V
648)  How many gears are there in gear pro tractor
→ 12 Forward + 4 Reverse
649)  What is the oil pressure during brake bleeding in 5E tractors?
→ 12 bar
650)  What is the required gloss for final paint is?
→ >75
651)  What is mean by SCR?
→ Selective Catalytic Reduction
652)  What is mean by PCDC
→ Position control (PC) and draft control (DC) levers
653)  5E Roadrunner what is new technology in Tractor introduced?
→ HST – Hydro Static Transmission
654)  What is the meaning of DFT?
→ Dry film thickness
655)  What is the temperature of the powder oven (Deg C)?
→ 200
656)  What is the fuel tank capacity of 5E series?
→ 68
657)  How many digits and alphabets are there in a chassis number
→ 17
658)  How many pretreatment stages are present in the chassis paint line?
→5
659) How many paint shops do we have in John Deere?
→5
660) How many no. of cylinders in John Deere Tractors below 65 HP?
→3
661) Near miss cases can become FAC / Recordable in future
→ TRUE
662) Takt time is always same as Cycle time
→ FALSE
663) Why-Why Analysis needs statistical data as input.
→ FALSE
664) What should be the target of Recordable cases in a year?
→ Zero
665) Can process flow diagram be used for a process in which the output is service in place of
physical product?
→ Yes
666) Which of the following Control Charts is used for continuous data?
→ X bar, R Chart
667) Which of the following is an example of a psychological hazard?
→ Workplace bullying
668) Which of the following is not a part of Analyze phase?
→ Working on key possible solutions
669) In 6T Too Far means
→ Work should be close to the body
670) What means the word ‘Ergonomics’?
→ Work according to natural Laws
671) BOS Is the Way we...
→ Work
672) After G.R. Preparation inventory valuation considered as
→ WIP (Work In Progress)
673) Which feature helps John Deere tractors reduce soil compaction?
→ Wide tires and tracks
674) Which of the following comes under Environment Sustainability?
→ Waste Reduction & Energy Saving
675) What is NVA reduction?
→ Waste Elimination (Defects, Overproduction, Transportation, Waiting, Inventory,
Motion, Overprocessing, Human Potential)
676) Any activity that adds COST but does not add to the VALUE of the product or service
delivered to the customer is __________.
→ Waste
677) What is WMS?
→ Warehouse Management System
678) What is the CI Tag process flow?
→ Wage employee raise CI tag after discussion. Mention metric and opportunity of
improvement. Select support function. Supervisor approve/reject the tag.
Support function approve/reject the tag. Support function close approved tag. Wage
employee verify the complete/cancel tag.
679) What is VSRS?
→ Vertical Storage and Retrieval System
680)  What is VSRS?
→ Vertical storage & retrieval system is used for storing material in rack system to reduce
part storage space on shop floor
681)  Which of the following is a method for controlling exposure to biological hazards?
→ Vaccination and hygiene practices
682)  Which of the following is an effective way to communicate safety information?
→ Using clear signage and regular meetings
683)  Which of the following is an example of a safe working practice?
→ Using appropriate tools for the job
684)  In 6T Too Much means
→ Use the lift assist device
685)  Which of the following is an example of a safe lifting technique?
→ Use leg muscles for lifting
686)  Which of these is not correct?
→ Unsafe act is allowed inside the factory
687)  The accident occurred due to not wearing personal protective equipment’s will be
considered as because of
→ Unsafe Act
688)  What is the basic formula for calculating manufacturing productivity?
→ Total Output Quantity / Total Input Quantity
689)  What is the basic formula for calculating overall productivity?
→ Total Output / Total Input
690)  What is the main reason for conducting an incident investigation?
→ To understand the root causes and prevent recurrence
691)  What is the purpose of identifying PSIFs in the workplace?
→ To reduce the likelihood of serious injuries and fatalities
692)  Which of the following is a primary goal of improving productivity in a
manufacturing setting?
→ To reduce the cost per unit of output
693)  What is the role of a safety committee?
→ To oversee safety policies and recommend improvements
694)  What is the primary goal of JDEMS?
→ To minimize environmental impact
695)  What is the primary function of a store?
→ To manage inventory and supplies
696)  What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
→ To inform about chemical hazards and safety measures
697)  What is the purpose of conducting a risk assessment?
→ To identify and mitigate hazards
698)  What is the responsibility of employees regarding EHS practices?
→ To follow safety protocols and report hazards
699)  What is the main purpose of the JDHS?
→ To ensure the safety and health of employees
700)  What is the purpose of a fire drill?
→ To ensure everyone knows how to respond in case of a fire
701)  What is one of the primary goals of the JDHS program?
→ To ensure compliance with health and safety regulations
702) What is the significance of continuous improvement in EHS programs?
→ To enhance safety performance and reduce risks over time
703) What is the primary goal of ergonomics?
→ To enhance productivity and comfort
704) What are your CI team goals?
→ To engage employees in ongoing efforts to improve competitiveness as a manufacturer
705) What is the primary purpose of the JDHS reporting system?
→ To document and analyze safety incidents
706) What is the vision of BOS?
→ To connect People, Processes & Technology
707) What is the purpose of an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
→ To assess the potential environmental consequences of a project
708) What is the need of Quality Policy?
→ To affirm our commitment to providing customers with the best quality
709) What do you mean by TAKT time?
→ Time Available to Complete Task
710) How can you identify a project?
→ Through our zone top contributor for to hit your business metrics
711) What does ISO Stand for?
→ The International Organization for Standardization
712) What is Recordable case?
→ The FAC/incident in which Hospitalisation is done outside Factory
713) What does the concept of "efficiency" closely relate to in the context of productivity?
→ The ability to minimize wasted resources
714) Where is the first AMR implemented in India?
→ TFF Pune
715) Which tool is used globally as a single source of data for SCF?
→ Techstack Navigator (TSN)
716) Which two metrics get monitored on Techstack Navigator (TSN)?
→ Techstack convergence, Margin improvement
717) What is SCADA?
→ Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
718) Which document is used to transfer stock between locations?
→ Stock transfer note
719) In 5S, “4S” stands for?
→ Standardize
720) What does 5S stand for in inventory management?
→ Sort, Set in Order, Shine, Standardize, Sustain
721) The 5S Lean Technique includes:
→ Sort, Set in Order, Shine, Standardize, Sustain
722) How do you know how to complete work properly?
→ SOE
723) How smart test is integrated for tractor warehousing
→ Smart test will interlock failed testing tractors so that with defect tractor cannot be
warehoused
724) What is smart test
→ Smart test is an application that avoids manual checking of tractor parameters.
→ Smart test will perform testing activities for test script applicable to tractor
725) Fire Extinguisher used for
→ Small Fire
726)  Which PLC is mainly used in Pune factory?
→ Siemens
727)  Which of the following is not a part of Control Plan?
→ Severity Rating
728)  Which of the following strategies can help improve individual productivity?
→ Setting clear goals and prioritizing tasks
729)  What do the acronyms SIF and PSIF stand for in the context of workplace safety?
→ Serious Injury and Fatality, Potential Serious Injury and Fatality
730)  Which device provides connectivity from PLC?
→ Scalence
731)  What are the metrics of CI 200?
→ Safety, Quality, Productivity, Complexity Reduction
732)  What is the term for the stock that is held as a buffer against stockouts?
→ Safety stock
733)  What type of training is mandatory under OSHA regulations?
→ Safety and health training
734)  SWL on Hoist stands for:
→ Safe Working Load
735)  Which of the following technologies is often implemented to automate tasks and
potentially increase productivity in manufacturing?
→ Robotics and automated machinery
736)  What does RPN stand for?
→ Risk Priority Number
737)  Which of the following is a key component of JDHS?
→ Risk Assessment
738)  What should you do if you receive a safety violation report?
→ Review and address the issues immediately
739)  What is 'whistleblowing' in the context of EHS?
→ Reporting unethical behavior or safety violations
740)  What should be done if you encounter a safety hazard that you cannot resolve?
→ Report it to your supervisor or safety committee
741)  What should you do if you see a coworker not wearing their PPE?
→ Report it to a supervisor
742)  In 6T Too Many means
→ Repetitive tasks in the workplace
743)  Which of the following is a common ergonomic risk factor?
→ Repetitive motion
744)  What is the purpose of John Deere’s JDLink™ system?
→ Remote monitoring and management of equipment
745)  One method to adjust work balance is:
→ Relocation of work
746)  How often should emergency evacuation plans be reviewed and practiced?
→ Regularly, at least annually
747)  What is a key practice for emergency preparedness?
→ Regular safety drills
748)  How do you raise a CI Tag?
→ Register in CI SharePoint to create your login ID and password.
→ Discuss your improvement idea with Supervisor.
749)  What is the main focus of environmental management?
→ Reducing negative impacts on the environment
750)  Implementing which of the following strategies would most directly contribute to
improved manufacturing productivity?
→ Reducing machine downtime through preventative maintenance
751)  Which of the following is a benefit of process optimization?
→ Reduced travel time
752)  What is the benefit of ergonomic tools and equipment?
→ Reduced risk of injury
753)  Which of the following is a potential drawback of solely focusing on increasing output
without considering input quality?
→ Reduced overall productivity due to wasted resources on defective products
754)  What is the aim of Lean Manufacturing?
→ Reduce waste and Increase Efficiency
755)  Standard work helps to:
→ Reduce variation in the process
756)  Efficient layout design helps to:
→ Reduce travel time
757)  Standardization in manufacturing aims to:
→ Reduce errors and defects
758)  The purpose of mistake proofing is to:
→ Reduce defects
759)  Mark the correct “Tag” being used during TPM activity.
→ Red Tag
760)  What is the meaning of R in CLIRT Rule under TPM process?
→ Rectification
761)  What is the meaning of R in CLIRT Rule under TPM process?
→ Rectification
762)  What is the first step in the hazard identification process?
→ Recognizing potential hazards
763)  Which of the following is an example of Non Value Added Activity?
→ Reaching for the Drill
764)  Which of the following is a common input factor considered when measuring
productivity?
→ Raw materials
765)  Which of the following is not a measure of Central Tendency?
→ Range
766)  What is QMS?
→ Quality Management System
767)  What is QDAS used for in assembly & machine shop?
→ QDAS is mainly used for statistical analysis. This software provides real-time process
capability of critical key characteristics
768)  E-Gauging is connected to which software?
→ QDAS
769)  What is JDAAT?
→ JDAAT
770)  What are the quarter-wise CI themes?
→ Q1-Safety & sustainability
Q2-Innovation
Q3-Quality
Q4-Productivity & complexity
771)  Which is more ergonomically suitable way of handling wheeled trolleys?
→ Pushing
772)  What is the correct way to use a fire extinguisher?
→ Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle, and sweep side to side
773)  What is the best way to prevent workplace accidents?
→ Providing adequate training and resources
774)  Which of the following is an effective way to manage hazardous waste?
→ Properly labeling and storing it
775)  What is the formula for success mentioned in training content?
→ Project X Acceptance
776)  In manufacturing, implementing automation is often aimed at improving which aspect
of productivity?
→ Production speed and consistency
777)  Which of below metrics is considered as internal customer
→ Product FPY
778)  Which among the following is a measure used to monitor the overall quality of the
processes and product. It measures the percentage of units produced that DO NOT have
delays, defects, or rework throughout the process and complete goods that do not have
missing parts.
→ Product FPY
779)  How do we measure quality performance of line?
→ Product FPY
780)  Which of the following is not a type of waste?
→ Processing
781)  Why PCN is raised?
→ Process Change
782)  Set of activities converting an input to output is called
→ Process
783)  What does PRCT mean?
→ Problem Resolution Cycle Time
784)  Fishbone Diagram gives list of
→ Probable causes
785)  _________ metric is used to gauge the success of the project.
→ Primary
786)  FPY of Zone 1. This is an example of ____________ metric.
→ Primary
787)  Which are Microsoft Power applications used on shop floor
→ Power BI & Power App
788)  In FMEA, occurrence is associated with?
→ Potential causes
789)  What are the main factors to be considered for identification of Ergonomics Hazards?
→ Posture, Frequency, Duration and Force
790)  If there are three major hazards like Force, Frequency & Posture, then Bending &
Twisting belongs to which type of hazards?
→ Posture
791)  What is an example of an environmental impact?
→ Polluted water sources
792)  What is PLC?
→ Plan Logic Controller
793)  In PDCA cycle P stands for?
→ Plan
794)  What does an ergonomic assessment typically evaluate
→ Physical strain and posture
795)  Which tool is used to identify Potential failure modes in a process?
→ PFMEA
796)  What does PPE stand for in an EHS context?
→ Personal Protective Equipment
797)  Which of the following is a common method for controlling noise exposure?
→ Personal hearing protection
798)  What are the 3 key elements of BOS Strategy?
→ People, Process, Technology
799) ISO is based on this 4 step cycle
A: PDCA
800) 801
Q: PPM of defects stands for
A: Parts Per Million
801) 802
Q: What is the role of Yellow Belt?
A: Participate in projects
802) 803
Q: What are the sub-metrics for complexity reduction?
A: Part Commonization, Process simplify, Space Saving.
803) 804
Q: What is the complexity sub-metrics?
A: Part Commonization, Process simplify, Space Saving.
804) 805
Q: To determine which product/process accounts for the majority of defects, use a
A: Pareto chart
805) 806
Q: 80/20 rule also called as ?
A: Pareto Analysis
806) 807
Q: An operator has done a turning operation and achieved diameter of 80.425 mm, however
the drawing specification calls for 80.42 mm. It will generate which kind of waste?
A: Overprocessing
807) 808
Q: Productivity is calculated as:
A: Output/Input
808) 809
Q: Which of the following metrics, when tracked over time, can help a manufacturing
company assess the impact of productivity improvement initiatives?
A: Output per worker-hour
809) 810
Q: How does the CI Tag flows from the following options if assign department is other than
Self?
A: Originator à Supervisor
810) 811
Q: Job satisfaction belongs to which type of ergonomics from the following?
A: Organizational Ergonomics
811) 812
Q: Which KANBAN lights used for line stopped due to quality issue?
A: Orange + Red
812) 813
Q: What is the primary focus of industrial engineering?
A: Optimizing complex processes
813) 814
Q: What is the JDQPS health metrics related to Production?
A: Opsx_Operational Execution
814) 815
Q: OPsX means
A: Operational Execution
815) 816
Q: Who are authorized to operate power pallet?
A: Only if trained and authorized
816) 817
Q: This is an assembly sheet at every work station containing Pictures.
A: OMS
817) 818
Q: How many techstacks are identified and in use in Pune factory
A: Of the 150 identified techstacks, 90 are used
818) 819
Q: What is the productivity sub metrics
A: NVA Reduction Cycle time reduction
819) 820
Q: What is FPY Improvement?
A: Number of finished product not requiring rework / Total numbers of finished product
build X100.
820) 821
Q: Which of the following is an example of Waiting type of waste?
A: Not starting meetings on time
821) 822
Q: NCM Stands For
A: Non Conforming Material
822) 823
Q: Which of the following is a physical hazard?
A: Noise
823) Which of the following is NOT considered a chemical hazard?
A: Noise
824) 825
Q: What is meaning of NFFP
A: No Fault Forward Policy
825) 826
Q: Consequential metrics are those that could be impacted by the success of the project.
A: Negatively
826) 827
Q: What does NWG mean?
A: Natural Work Groups
827) 828
Q: An operator travels 15 m of distance every time between two simultaneous tasks. It will
generate which kind of waste?
A: Motion
828) 829
Q: What does a higher manufacturing productivity value generally indicate?
A: More efficient use of resources
829) 830
Q: Increased productivity indicates:
A: More efficient use of resources
830) 831
Q: What do you mean by MSB?
A: Month Since Build
831) 832
Q: Which of the following is an example of a biological hazard?
A: Mold
832) 833
Q: Which of the following is a key principle of waste management?
A: Minimizing, reusing, and recycling
833) 834
Q: Lean manufacturing principles aim to improve productivity by focusing on:
A: Minimizing waste and maximizing efficiency in processes
834) 835
Q: For which country OCIMA audit is applicable?
A: Mexico
835) 836
Q: Which factor has the highest impact on time required for work?
A: Method
836) 837
Q: Calculate the Mean and Mode of the data set - 20, 40, 60, 80, 55, 30, 75, 40.
A: Mean - 50, Mode - 40
837) 838
Q: How JDAAT is integrated with assembly line tools
A: ME team configures assembly line tools through MPP & MES for integration of tool
usage, tool operating parameters
838) 839
Q: What is the full form of MSDS...?
A: Material Safety Data Sheet
839) 840
Q: What is the full form of MHE...?
A: Material Handling Equipment
840) 841
Q: What is MES
A: Manufacturing Execution System
841) 842
Q: What do you mean by MCT
A: Manufacturing Critical Path Time
842) 843
Q: On which Machine MT link is implemented?
A: Makino
843) 844
Q: Which of these Metrics is a measure of factory's operational stability
A: Linearity
844) 845
Q: Which of these is not an example of Mistake proofing
A: Lifting Manipulator
845) 846
Q: What is a common ergonomic risk factor?
A: Lifting heavy objects
846) 847
Q: What are the 5 process lanes in BOS?
A: Leadership & Framework, EPDP, OFP, ECAP, A&CSP
847) Which of the following inputs is commonly considered when calculating manufacturing
productivity?
A: Labor hours
848) 849
Q: KC stands for?
A: Key Characteristics
849) 850
Q: How can you reduce slip and fall hazards?
A: Keep walkways clear and dry
850) 851
Q: What is full form of JDQPS FOE
A: John Deere Quality Production System Factory Opportunity Evaluation
851) 852
Q: What is JDAAT
A: John Deere Assembly Assist Tool – used as replacement for AMES
852) 853
Q: What is main benefit of using Power BI & Power app
A: It provides real time updates & live dashboards also. This support for reduced working
time taken for preparing reports
853) 854
Q: What is the significance of measuring productivity over time for a business?
A: It provides insights into trends and the effectiveness of improvement efforts
854) 855
Q: What is purpose of GFPTx
A: It is used for programming controllers which are fit on tractors, This programming can be
done in subassembly level also
855) 856
Q: Productivity is important because:
A: It helps to stay ahead in the market
856) 857
Q: What role does employee training and skill development play in improving
manufacturing productivity?
A: It can lead to more efficient work practices and higher quality output
857) 858
Q: Which of the following is correct standard for QMS?
A: ISO 9001
858) 859
Q: ___ is part of line balancing
A: IPK
859) 860
Q: Which of these is non-hazardous?
A: Insulated wire
860) 861
Q: What new themes have been introduced?
A: Innovation
861) 862
Q: Which of the following is not a phase in DMAIC methodology?
A: Innovate
862) 863
Q: Lost time case accident means.
A: Injured person is not able to resume his duties before 48 hours of accident time.
863) 864
Q: What does the term 'hazard communication' refer to?
A: Informing employees about hazardous materials in the workplace
864) 865
Q: Which of the following is NOT typically considered a direct way to improve
productivity?
A: Increasing the number of meetings
865) 866
Q: Which of the following is a key benefit of an effective EHS program?
A: Improved productivity and morale
866) 867
Q: What is the primary advantage of John Deere’s PowerTech™ engines?
A: Improved fuel efficiency and performance
867) 868
Q: What is ignition used for
A: Ignition is a software which connects multiple databases for capturing & reflecting live
performance of parameters being monitored, for example, oven temperature, motor
speed/current etc
868) 869
Q: Through which application facility monitoring is connected
A: Ignition
869) 870
Q: Which of the following is not a part of Measure phase?
A: Identify key action items
870) 871
Q: What IS HMI?
A: Human Machine Interface
871) 872
Q: Which of the following is not a part of Problem Statement?
A: How
872) 873
Q: What is the safety sub-metrics?
A: HIRA RPN reduction.
873) 874
Q: What is HIRA RPN reduction?
A: HIRA – Hazard Identification Risk Assessment. RPN - Risk Priority Number = Severity
X Occurrence X Detection.
874) 875
Q: A process is said to be capable when Cpk is
A: Greater than or equal to 1.33
875) 876
Q: Which technology is used in John Deere tractors to enhance precision farming?
A: GPS and AutoTrac™ systems
876) 877
Q: Which document is used to record the receipt of goods?
A: Goods receipt note
877) 878
Q: What is the full form of GRC..?
A: Goods Receipt compliance
878) 879
Q: What is the minimum personal protective equipment required when working with
chemicals?
A: Gloves, goggles, and appropriate clothing, Safety Shoes
879) 880
Q: What is GFPTx
A: Global factory programming tool
880) 881
Q: Hierarchy used in Improve phase for solutions is
A: Generate > Evaluate > Design
881) 882
Q: When did CI 200 start?
A: FY14
882) 883
Q: What’s the SCF value creation goal for FY22-26 and achieved to date?
A: FY 22-26 Goal: $10 Million
$12.6 Million - Achievement
883) 884
Q: Which of the following is a sign of poor workplace ergonomics?
A: Frequent back pain
884) 885
Q: What is the quality sub-metrics?
A: FPY Improvement
885) 886
Q: What should be done with expired chemicals?
A: Follow proper disposal procedures according to regulations
886) 887
Q: What is full form of FTR?
A: First Time Right
887) 888
Q: What is full form of FPY?
A: First Pass Yield
888) 889
Q: What is the full form of FPY?
A: First Pass Yield
889) 890
Q: What is the full form of FIFO
A: First In First Out
890) 891
Q: Which inventory management method involves selling the oldest items first?
A: FIFO
891) 892
Q: Which make robots are used in Pune factory till now
A: Fanuc, Universal robotics & ABB
892) 893
Q: What is the Full Form of FMEA?
A: Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
893) FPM Stands for
A: Fails Per Machine
894) 895
Q: What do you mean FOE?
A: Factory Opportunity Evaluation
895) 896
Q: Which of the following is a sign of heat stress?
A: Excessive sweating
896) 897
Q: Which of the following is a sign of poor indoor air quality?
A: Excessive dust
897) 898
Q: Which type of waste is considered hazardous?
A: E-waste
898) 899
Q: Why is it important to have a reporting system for near misses?
A: Evaluating the root causes to prevent recurrence.
899) 900
Q: What should be done if a chemical spill occurs?
A: Evacuate the area and report it
900) 901
Q: What does EHS stand for?
A: Environment, Health, Safety
901) 902
Q: _______ is the best performance a process had delivered.
A: Entitlement
902) 903
Q: India Quality Policy is based on?
A: Enterprise Quality Policy
903) 904
Q: EPDP means
A: Enterprise Product Delivery Process
904) 905
Q: Improving productivity generally leads to which of the following outcomes for a
business?
A: Enhanced efficiency and profitability
905) 906
Q: Which of the following is NOT a typical QMS document?
A: Employee Handbook
906) 907
Q: What does ECRS stand for?
A: Eliminate, Combine, Reduce, Simplify
907) 908
Q: Amount of resources allocated in meeting and exceeding customer requirements is called
as _______ measures.
A: Efficiency
908) 909
Q: Which of the following tools is used in proving effectiveness of the solution?
A: Dry Run
909) 910
Q: Which metric is used in inventory tracking
A: DOH
910) 911
Q: Grouping of people on the basis of height as Tall, Medium and Short is an example of
______ type of data.
A: Discrete
911) 912
Q: Where I can check my CI tag status?
A: Digital CI Share point
912) 913
Q: Work measurement is primarily concerned with:
A: Developing efficient methods and determining required time
913) 914
Q: What are the steps involved in creating a Value Stream Map?
A: Define the VSM scope, draw the Current State Map, analyze the Current State, create the
Future State Map, develop an implementation plan
914) 915
Q: 'D' in DMAIC stands for ________
A: Define
915) 916
Q: Full form of DART
A: Days away from Restricted Time
916) 917
Q: What is Daily CI?
A: Daily CI is everyone at all levels identifying and resolving problems and eliminating
waste in the moment and at the source.
917) 918
Q: CSP stands for
A: Customer Support Process
918) Quality Policy for India is Signed off by……
A: Country Manager
919) 920
Q: Who is signing authority for JDIPL Quality Policy
A: Country Manager
920) 921
Q: Bachat Manthan Drive is related
A: Cost Improvement
921) 922
Q: Which document is referred for Torque value?
A: Control Plan
922) 923
Q: To restrict the defects from going to next customer we refer
A: Control Plan
923) 924
Q: Reaction plan is the part of?
A: Control Plan
924) 925
Q: Which of the following is process control tool?
A: Control Chart
925) 926
Q: Which of the following is process control tool ?
A: Control Chart
926) 927
Q: Mistake Proofing is typically used in which phase of DMAIC project?
A: Control
927) 928
Q: What is the CI ?
A: Continuous improvement is culture developed at Pune work for generating ideas and
execution of project for business benefit.
928) 929
Q: What is CI 200?
A: Continuous Improvement (CI) is the process we use to engage our employees in ongoing
efforts to improve our competitiveness as a manufacturer.
929) 930
Q: What should you do if you are unsure about how to handle a hazardous material?
A: Consult the Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
930) 931
Q: Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a safety officer?
A: Conducting safety inspections and audits
931) 932
Q: What is CVML used for?
A: Computer vision machine learning is used for mistake proofing using pictures taken on
shop floor for particular situation as criteria
932) 933
Q: What is CVML ?
A: Computer vision machine learning
933) 934
Q: What is CVML?
A: Computer vision machine learning
934) 935
Q: Improving methods in work measurement involves:
A: Combining and rearranging work activities
935) 936
Q: What is the full form of COGI..?
A: Clearance of Goods Issue
936) 937
Q: Which of the following is NOT a type of fire extinguisher?
A: Class D
937) 938
Q: Which type of fire extinguisher should be used for electrical fires?
A: Class C
938) 939
Q: Where can you see project reference documents of metrics?
A: CI SharePoint.
939) 940
Q: What CI process was used before CI 200?
A: CI exchange.
940) 941
Q: What does BOS stands for?
A: Business Operating System
941) 942
Q: What does BOP stands for?
A: Business Operating Process
942) 943
Q: Which of the following is an example of special cause?
A: Broken equipment
943) 944
Q: Improve Phase does not include
A: Brainstorming to identify causes
944) IPK indicated by what sign?
A: Box with Cross mark
945) 946
Q: Which of the following sentences is True?
A: BOS is aligned with JDQPS & ISO requirements.
946) 947
Q: Drawing mention Dia. 10 +/- 0.2 tolerance is –
A: Bilateral tolerance
947) 948
Q: How to calculate ergonomic risk
A: BERA
948) 949
Q: What is mean by BERA
A: Basic ergonomics risk assessment
949) 950
Q: In 6T Too Low means
A: Avoid working below knee height
950) 951
Q: In 6T Too Long means
A: Avoid static postures
951) 952
Q: In 6T Too high means
A: Avoid working above shoulder height
952) 953
Q: What is mean by OEE (Overall Equipment Efficiency)
A: Availability × Performance × Quality
953) 954
Q: Overall Equipment Efficiency is measured by
A: Availability × Performance × Quality
954) 955
Q: What is AMR?
A: Autonomous Mobile Robot
955) 956
Q: What is the benefit of John Deere's iTEC™ Pro system?
A: Automated headland management
956) 957
Q: What AGV?
A: Automated Guided Vehicle
957) 958
Q: What should be the first step in an emergency response plan?
A: Assess the situation
958) 959
Q: AMES stands for?
A: Assembly manufacturing execution system
959) 960
Q: Is AMR & AGV different?
A: AMR and AGV are different. Both follow provided path but in
AMR path is generated on digital map & for AGV path is given through magnetic strip
below floor
960) 961
Q: Workforce management involves:
A: Allocating tasks based on ergonomics and skill levels
961) 962
Q: Which of the following is a feature of Six Sigma approach?
A: All of these - Variation reduction, Defects reduction, Cycle time reduction
962) 963
Q: What is use of the Lockout/tagout
A: All of these - To switch off hydraulic unit, To switch off air unit, De-energizes the
equipment
963) 964
Q: What is use of the Lockout / tagout
A: All of these - To switch off hydraulic unit, To switch off air unit, De-energizes the
equipment
964) 965
Q: What is use of the Lockout / tagout ?
A: All of these - To switch off hydraulic unit, To switch off air unit, De-energizes the
equipment
965) 966
Q: What is the purpose of stock classification?
A: All of these - To prioritize inventory management, To identify fast-moving items, To
determine stock levels
966) 967
Q: What is the purpose of a stock audit?
A: All of these - To count inventory, To identify stock discrepancies, To reconcile inventory
records
967) 968
Q: Who all are involved in CI Performance Grid meeting ?
A: All of these - Supervisor, Wage employees, Leadership
968) Ergonomics is responsibility of
A: All of these - Supervisor, Employee, Contract person
969) 970
Q: What is the process of verifying inventory quantities called?
A: All of these - Stock counting, Inventory audit, Cycle counting
970) 971
Q: What is the benefit of implementing a FIFO system?
A: All of these - Reduced inventory costs, Improved customer satisfaction, Reduced waste
and obsolescence
971) 972
Q: What are the points to be considered while material lifting?
A: All of these - Proper Grip, Lift material close to your body, Keep Back straight
972) 973
Q: DOH (Direct Overheads) reduction will be done by reducing
A: All of these - Power & Air, Productivity/Indirect Material, Rework/Rejection
973) 974
Q: Which of the following is a cause of stock discrepancies?
A: All of these - Poor inventory management, Inaccurate recording, Theft or damage
974) 975
Q: Six Sigma is a ______________________.
A: All of these - philosophy, performance metric, methodology
975) 976
Q: Which of the following should be reported immediately?
A: All of these - Minor cuts, Safety incidents, Unsafe condition
976) 977
Q: Which of these trainings provide Safety awareness
A: All of these - LOTO training, MSDS Training, EOHS Training
977) 978
Q: What is base of BOS?
A: All of these - JDQPS, ISO 9001, EQM
978) 979
Q: Select the Correct options in case of TIMWOOD
A: All of these - Inventory, Overprocessing, Waiting
979) 980
Q: Variation in measurement system includes following
A: All of these - Instrument, Personnel or Inspector, Environment
980) 981
Q: Which one the below is the Responsibility of every Individual on Ergonomics?
A: All of these - Identify potential Ergo Hazards, Usage of proper Tools provided,
Suggesting new ideas for improvement
981) 982
Q: Project Charter comprises of ___________________________.
A: All of these - Goal Statement, Timelines, Team
982) 983
Q: Who is responsible for safety?
A: All of these - Each and Every employee, Safety department, Leadership
983) 984
Q: Which of the following is an example of Value added activity?
A: All of these - Drilling operation, Assembly operation, Welding operation
984) 985
Q: What is the goal of BOS transformation?
A: All of these - Document Simplification, To fulfill QMS requirements, Sustainable
Process Execution
985) 986
Q: Mistake Proofing Required
A: All of these - Detect Defect, Prevent Defect, Control Defect
986) 987
Q: What is use of Ignition?
A: All of these - Creating applications like HMI, MES, SCADA
987)  Linearity can be improved by
All of these - Controlling product FPY, Line up sequence adherence, On time Delivery
988)  Which of the following can you use to report the potential Ergonomics issues?
All of these - CI200 & Suggestion scheme, Report to Medical (OHC), Highlight in Safety
meeting
989)  What are the following CI200 Quarterly Themes?
All of these - Safety & Sustainability, Quality, Productivity & Complexity reduction
990)  Chronic imbalances are calculated using:
All of these - Effective minutes per day, Demand at capacity, Average cycle time
991)  An example of an everyday mistake proofing device is:
All of these - Auto headlight warning buzzer, Park release/brake pedal interlock, Tractor
neutral start switch
992)  What technology does John Deere use to enhance engine efficiency?
Advanced fuel injection systems
993)  Which of the following is a best practice for office ergonomics?
Adjusting chair height and monitor level
994)  What is the fundamental concept behind the idea of productivity?
Achieving more output with the same or fewer inputs
995)  In-Process Kanban (IPK) is used to:
Achieve a smooth workflow
996)  'A' in SMART (goal statement) stands for:
Achievable
997)  Which of the following tools can be used to track time spent on tasks and identify
areas for productivity improvement?
A time management or tracking application
998)  What does the term 'lockout/tagout' refer to?
A process to ensure machines are properly shut off during maintenance
999)  How are the capabilities being built at the R1 factories?
A digital dexterity approach is the route being undertaken
1000)  What does the term 'spill kit' refer to?
A collection of materials designed to clean up spills
1001)  Permissible Noise level limit on Shop floor
90 dB
1002)  Which of the following is not a Problem Solving tool
5S
1003)  Which one of these not the type of waste?
5S
1004)  How many members are in the NWG?
5 to 6 members
1005)  How many members are in the CI team?
40 to 50 members
1006)  Voltage at or above which value below is considered hazardous
30 Volts
1007)  6 sigma is how much PPM
3.4 ppm
1008)  A bakery produces 500 loaves of bread using 20 hours of labor. What is the labor
productivity in loaves per hour?
25 loaves per hour
1009) If a factory produced 10,000 units using 500 labor hours, what is the labor
productivity?
20 units per hour
1010) What is the validity period for Operator’s certificate for a station?
12 months
1011) If a team of 10 people completes 100 units of work in a day, what is the team’s labor
productivity in units per person-day?
10 units per person-day
1012) How many wage employees should be there in one NWG?
10 to 15
1013) What is the value of «X» in the picture shown below?
10 kg
1014) A software development team completes 5 major features in 2 weeks with 4
developers. What is the feature productivity in features per developer-week?
0.625 features per developer-week
1015) DPS is calculated as:
(Output + Inclusion) / Input
1016) CIPP is calculated as:
(Output + Inclusion) / (Input - Exclusion)
1017) How does John Deere ensure its tractors meet emission standards?
Using advanced engine technology
1018) What are the benefits of using renewable fuels in John Deere tractors?
Reduced carbon footprint
1019) What is the primary benefit of John Deere’s AutoTrac guidance system?
Precise navigation and reduced overlap
1020) Which app provides serial-specific engine and emissions information for John Deere
tractors?
PowerAssist™ App
1021) What is the full form of NWG?
Natural Work Group
1022) What is the role of electrification in John Deere’s future tractor models?
Enhancing sustainability
1023) What type of powertrain is John Deere investing in for future tractors?
Diesel-electric
1024) Who should be involved in Value Stream Mapping?
Various stakeholders including production employees, engineers and managers
1025) What is precision farming?
Using technology to manage field variability
1026) How does John Deere ensure the reliability of its hydraulic systems?
Use of high-quality components
1027) How does John Deere comply with Tier 4 emission standards?
Use of advanced exhaust after-treatment systems
1028) What is the benefit of using telematics in John Deere machinery?
Track and analyze equipment usage
1029) What are connectivity solutions in John Deere equipment?
Technologies for remote monitoring
1030) What are advanced hydraulics in John Deere equipment?
Sophisticated systems for improved control
1031) How do Stage V standards impact John Deere engines?
Require stricter limits on emissions
1032) How do emission standards impact the design of John Deere engines?
Require advanced technologies to reduce emissions
1033) What is the term for the quantity of an item that triggers a new order?
Reorder level
1034) What is one example of a connectivity solution used in John Deere tractors?
Remote diagnostics
1035) What are Tier 4 emission standards?
Regulations for reducing engine emissions
1036) Achieving flow is important because it:
Reduces response time
1037) How does John Deere’s engine efficiency impact fuel consumption?
Reduces fuel consumption
1038) How does John Deere’s engine efficiency impact fuel consumption?
Reduces fuel consumption (duplicate question)
1039) How do emission standards impact the environmental footprint of John Deere
engines?
Reduce environmental impact by limiting pollutants
1040) How does remote diagnostics improve the maintenance of John Deere equipment?
Quick identification and resolution of issues
1041) What is the benefit of using connectivity solutions for remote diagnostics?
Quick identification and resolution of issues
1042) How does John Deere’s precision farming technology improve resource
management?
Provides data-driven insights
1043) How does John Deere’s GPS guidance system benefit precision farming?
Provides accurate navigation
1044) How do advanced hydraulics improve the productivity of John Deere equipment?
Provide smooth and precise movements
1045) How does John Deere’s connectivity solution improve equipment management?
Provide real-time data and alerts
1046) How do advanced hydraulics improve the safety of John Deere equipment?
Provide precise control
1047) What is the role of data analytics in John Deere’s smart technology?
Provide insights for better decision-making
1048) What is the benefit of using advanced hydraulics in heavy machinery?
Provide better control and efficiency
1049) How does John Deere’s innovation in agricultural technology benefit farmers?
Provide advanced tools for better crop management
1050) If a manufacturing plant increases its output by 20% while its input costs remain
the same, what can be said about its productivity?
Productivity has increased
1051) Flow in manufacturing refers to:
Producing products one at a time without delay or defects
1052) What is the benefit of using AI in John Deere machinery?
Predictive maintenance
1053) How does John Deere’s precision farming technology help in reducing costs?
Optimize resource use and improve crop yields
1054) How does John Deere’s precision farming technology help in sustainable
agriculture?
Optimize resource use
1055) What is the benefit of using electronic control units (ECUs) in John Deere engines?
Optimize engine performance
1056) Productivity can be increased by:
Minimizing hidden waste
1057) Mistake proofing contributes to quality control by:
Minimizing defects and deviations
1058) What are Stage V emission standards?
Latest European regulations for engine emissions
1059) Why is Value Stream Mapping essential?
It provides a common language for improvement
1060) What is the Latest Issue and Revision date of Quality Policy?
Issue 07, 21st Oct 2024
1061) Which of the following is correct standard for QMS?
ISO 9001
1062) What is smart technology in the context of John Deere equipment?
Integration of IoT, AI, and data analytics
1063) How do connectivity solutions enhance precision farming?
Integrate data for optimized farming practices
1064) How does John Deere’s smart technology contribute to precision farming?
Integrate advanced sensors and data analytics
1065) One benefit of mistake proofing is:
Increased contamination (This seems to be a mistake; the correct answer should likely be
Minimized contamination or Reduced defects)
1066) What is the role of turbochargers in John Deere engines?
Increase engine power and efficiency
1067) What is the role of turbochargers in John Deere engines?
Increase engine power and efficiency (duplicate question)
1068) One benefit of increased productivity is:
Improved response time
1069) What is the impact of Tier 4 emission standards on fuel efficiency?
Improve fuel efficiency
1070) What is the advantage of using GPS guidance systems in John Deere equipment?
Improve accuracy and efficiency
1071) How does John Deere ensure consistent engine performance?
High-quality materials and rigorous testing
1072) What makes John Deere engines durable?
High-quality materials and rigorous testing
1073) What is the role of hydraulic pumps in John Deere equipment?
Generate pressure for machinery functions
1074) Who is signing authority for EOHS Policy?
Factory Manager
1075) Who is signing authority for Ergonomic Policy?
Factory Manager
1076) How do advanced hydraulics benefit John Deere machinery?
Enhance performance
1077) What is the purpose of John Deere’s Power and Technology 1.0 series?
→ Enhance engine performance and efficiency
1078) 1079. How does IoT enhance John Deere’s smart technology?
→ Enables real-time monitoring
1079) 1080. How do connectivity solutions enhance the performance of John Deere equipment?
→ Enable remote monitoring and control
1080) 1081. What is the role of IoT in John Deere’s agricultural technology?
→ Enable real-time monitoring and data collection
1081) 1082. The first level of mistake proofing is:
→ Eliminate the error
1082) 1083. What is the benefit of using connectivity solutions for fleet management in
agriculture?
→ Efficient tracking and management
1083) 1084. What technology does John Deere use to meet emission standards?
→ Diesel particulate filters (DPF)
1084) 1085. What are the two phases of VSM?
→ Current State Mapping and Future State Mapping
1085) 1086. What is the role of sensors in John Deere’s precision farming equipment?
→ Collect real-time data
1086) 1087. What is one example of smart technology used in John Deere tractors?
→ Autonomous driving capabilities
1087) 1088. How does John Deere’s smart technology improve operational efficiency?
→ Automates tasks
1088) 1089. What is the advantage of using smart technology in John Deere tractors?
→ Automate tasks and provide real-time insights
1089) 1090. What is the purpose of variable rate technology in precision farming?
→ Apply inputs at varying rates based on field conditions
1090) 1091. What technology does John Deere use to enhance engine efficiency?
→ Advanced fuel injection systems
1091) 1092. What is the advantage of using load-sensing hydraulics in John Deere equipment?
→ Adjust flow and pressure based on demand
1092) 1093. What is Value Stream Mapping (VSM)?
→ A tool to visualize and analyze the flow of materials and information
1093) 1094. When was BOS launched?
→ 2022
1094) 1095. When BOS is launched?
→ 2022
1095) 1096. Which year did Digital CI start?
→ 2018
1096) 1097. Last revision of ISO came in which year?
→ 2015
1097) 1098. How many NWG teams are in your factory?
→ 89
1098) 1099. Calculate range for the data set – 20, 40, 60, 90, 65, 40, 75, 50.
→ 70
1099) 1100. There are total _______ BOPs in BOS
→ 54
1100) 1101. How many CI 200 fairs have been completed to date?
→ 26
1101) 1102. How many CI teams are in your factory?
→ 21
1102) What is the total no. of Out of Control Conditions available in Control Charts?
→8
1103) 1104. How many Basic Quality tools are there?
→7
1104) 1105. Six Sigma level corresponds to ________ defects per million
→ 3.4
1105) 1106. ISO 9001 Recertification audit happens every ... Years
→3
1106) 1107. The quality control allows at the most 0.4% defective parts, how many defective
parts can be allowed in a production of 500 parts?
→2
1107) 1108. What percentage of time is actually Value added in a process?
→ 0.1
1108)