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Nursing Questions

The document outlines various nursing scenarios and appropriate responses for patients experiencing sexual assault, anorexia nervosa, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), major depressive disorder (MDD), and conduct disorder. It emphasizes the importance of patient safety, consent, and therapeutic communication while addressing mental health and physical health needs. Each scenario includes multiple-choice questions to assess the best nursing interventions and responses.

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Maddy Griffin
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
4 views26 pages

Nursing Questions

The document outlines various nursing scenarios and appropriate responses for patients experiencing sexual assault, anorexia nervosa, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), major depressive disorder (MDD), and conduct disorder. It emphasizes the importance of patient safety, consent, and therapeutic communication while addressing mental health and physical health needs. Each scenario includes multiple-choice questions to assess the best nursing interventions and responses.

Uploaded by

Maddy Griffin
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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A 24-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department stating they were sexually assaulted.

What is the nurse’s priority action?


• A. Collect a detailed history of the incident.
• B. Perform a head-to-toe physical examination.
• C. Ensure the patient is in a safe and private environment.
• D. Notify law enforcement.

What is the best response a nurse can give to a sexual assault survivor who is hesitant to answer questions about the incident?
• A. “I need all the details to help you.”
• B. “Take your time; you can share what you feel comfortable with.”
• C. “It’s important for you to tell me everything.”
• D. “Don’t worry; we’ll figure it out later.”

Before performing a forensic exam on a sexual assault survivor, what must the nurse do?
• A. Notify local law enforcement.
• B. Obtain written consent from the patient.
• C. Collect all evidence immediately.
• D. Administer prophylactic medications.

Which action by the nurse would compromise forensic evidence?


• A. Placing clothing in a paper bag.
• B. Allowing the patient to change clothes before evidence collection.
• C. Documenting physical findings with photographs.
• D. Swabbing areas for DNA collection.

A sexual assault survivor states, “It was my fault. I should have been more careful.” What is the best nursing response?
• A. “You’re right to feel that way, but it’s not true.”
• B. “Let’s focus on getting you better now.”
• C. “You are not to blame for what happened to you.”
• D. “Can you tell me more about why you feel that way?”

What is the nurse’s responsibility regarding prophylactic treatment after a sexual assault?
• A. Administer antibiotics and emergency contraception only if the patient requests them.
• B. Explain the benefits and risks of prophylactic medications, then obtain informed consent.
• C. Automatically administer prophylactic medications to prevent infection and pregnancy.
• D. Wait until test results confirm a sexually transmitted infection.

When documenting a sexual assault survivor’s injuries, what is most important for the nurse to include?
• A. The nurse’s interpretation of how the injuries occurred.
• B. A verbatim account of the patient’s description of the assault.
• C. The nurse’s opinion about the patient’s emotional state.
• D. Only objective findings, such as physical injuries.

In most states, what is the nurse’s legal responsibility when caring for a sexual assault survivor?
• A. Contact law enforcement immediately.
• B. Maintain patient confidentiality unless consent to report is given.
• C. Notify the patient’s family about the assault.
• D. Report the assault regardless of the patient’s wishes.

A sexual assault survivor is being discharged. What is the most important information to include in the discharge plan?
• A. Instructions for preserving evidence.
• B. The contact information for local support services.
• C. A reminder to return for follow-up testing in one month.
• D. A list of medications prescribed during the visit.

Why is follow-up care essential for sexual assault survivors?


• A. To confirm the survivor is not pregnant or infected with STIs.
• B. To ensure forensic evidence is correctly handled.
• C. To provide ongoing emotional support and address trauma.
• D. To verify the survivor’s statements for legal proceedings.

CBBBCBBBBC
A patient with anorexia nervosa has a BMI of 15 and reports feeling “fat” despite significant weight loss. Which is the nurse’s priority assessment?
• A. Serum electrolyte levels
• B. Skin integrity
• C. Emotional support needs
• D. Social interaction patterns

Which clinical finding is most commonly associated with anorexia nervosa?


• A. Hypertension and tachycardia
• B. Hypothermia and bradycardia
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Edema and increased appetite

A 17-year-old patient with anorexia nervosa states, “I feel in control when I don’t eat.” What is the most therapeutic nursing response?
• A. “Skipping meals is not healthy for your body.”
• B. “Why do you feel you need control over eating?”
• C. “Let’s talk about other ways you can feel in control.”
• D. “Eating regularly will help you regain control of your life.”

What life-threatening complication should the nurse monitor for in a patient with severe anorexia nervosa?
• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Cardiac arrhythmias
• C. Liver failure
• D. Hyperkalemia

When planning care for a patient with anorexia nervosa, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?
• A. Encourage the patient to eat without supervision.
• B. Establish a structured eating plan with the patient.
• C. Allow the patient to control their caloric intake.
• D. Monitor weight daily and restrict physical activity.

What should the nurse teach the family of a patient with anorexia nervosa?
• A. Avoid discussing food and weight with the patient.
• B. Help the patient create strict rules for eating.
• C. Provide support without enabling disordered behaviors.
• D. Force the patient to eat at regular intervals.

During refeeding in a patient with anorexia nervosa, what should the nurse closely monitor?
• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum phosphorus levels
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. Liver enzyme levels

A patient with anorexia nervosa refuses to participate in group therapy, stating, “They don’t understand what I’m going through.” What is the nurse’s
best response?
• A. “You should give it a chance; it might help you.”
• B. “What makes you feel like they don’t understand?”
• C. “You’ll be required to attend therapy as part of treatment.”
• D. “It’s normal to feel that way; let’s talk more about it.”

Which statement by a patient with anorexia nervosa reflects a cognitive distortion?


• A. “I know I need to eat to get better.”
• B. “If I eat one cookie, I’ll gain five pounds.”
• C. “Skipping meals isn’t healthy for me.”
• D. “My weight doesn’t define my worth.”

What is the nurse’s role in the nutritional rehabilitation of a patient with anorexia nervosa?
• A. Allow the patient to decide when to resume eating.
• B. Ensure calorie intake is gradually increased to avoid complications.
• C. Focus solely on weight restoration as the primary goal.
• D. Avoid discussing food or nutrition to prevent resistance.

Answer: ABCBBCBBBB
A patient with OCD spends hours every day washing their hands and reports feeling distressed if they stop. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
• A. Set strict time limits for handwashing.
• B. Encourage the patient to explain why they wash their hands.
• C. Gradually limit the time allowed for the compulsive behavior.
• D. Distract the patient with another activity when they start handwashing.

Which statement by a patient with OCD reflects a compulsive behavior?


• A. “I worry constantly about getting sick.”
• B. “I feel like my family is in danger all the time.”
• C. “I need to wash my hands 10 times before I eat.”
• D. “I think about bad things happening to me all day.”

A patient with OCD says, “I know my rituals don’t make sense, but I can’t stop doing them.” What is the best nursing response?
• A. “You’re right; the rituals don’t make sense.”
• B. “Why don’t you try stopping the rituals?”
• C. “It sounds like the rituals are hard for you to control.”
• D. “You just need to focus on stopping the rituals.”

Which statement by a patient with OCD indicates understanding of their prescribed treatment plan?
• A. “Medication will make my thoughts go away completely.”
• B. “I need to practice exposure and response prevention therapy.”
• C. “As long as I avoid my triggers, I won’t need therapy.”
• D. “This condition will improve on its own over time.”

A patient with OCD is participating in cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). What should the nurse explain as the goal of this therapy?
• A. Completely eliminating obsessive thoughts.
• B. Identifying and challenging irrational beliefs.
• C. Learning to avoid situations that trigger compulsions.
• D. Using medications to reduce compulsive behaviors.

What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with OCD who spends hours organizing their belongings to “prevent harm”?
• A. Social isolation
• B. Risk for injury
• C. Ineffective coping
• D. Impaired thought processes

A patient with OCD has been prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement by the nurse explains how this medication helps?
• A. “It increases dopamine to reduce compulsive behaviors.”
• B. “It helps reduce anxiety by slowing down your thoughts.”
• C. “It increases serotonin levels to decrease obsessive thoughts.”
• D. “It will completely eliminate the need for your rituals.”

A patient with OCD is repeatedly checking their locked door before leaving the house. What is the most therapeutic nursing response?
• A. “You’ve checked the lock already, so you don’t need to check it again.”
• B. “Let’s talk about what might happen if you didn’t check the lock again.”
• C. “Checking the lock once is enough to ensure your safety.”
• D. “Why do you feel like you need to keep checking the lock?”

The family of a patient with OCD asks why their loved one cannot simply stop their rituals. What is the nurse’s best explanation?
• A. “The rituals are voluntary behaviors to calm their anxiety.”
• B. “The rituals are a way for them to control their environment.”
• C. “The rituals temporarily reduce anxiety caused by obsessive thoughts.”
• D. “The rituals are a learned behavior and are easy to change.”

A patient with OCD reports an increase in obsessive thoughts when under stress. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
• A. Encourage the patient to avoid all stressful situations.
• B. Teach the patient relaxation techniques to manage stress.
• C. Recommend increasing their rituals to reduce anxiety.
• D. Explain that stress is unrelated to their OCD symptoms.

Answer: CCCBBCCBCB
Which statement by a patient indicates a classic symptom of major depressive disorder (MDD)?
• A. “I feel fine most of the time, just a little sad sometimes.”
• B. “I’ve been feeling tired and worthless for weeks now.”
• C. “I get upset when things don’t go my way.”
• D. “I’ve been losing weight because I’ve been exercising more.”

A patient with depression states, “I feel like giving up.” What is the nurse’s priority action?
• A. Ask the patient if they have a plan to harm themselves.
• B. Reassure the patient that things will get better.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.

A patient with depression says, “I feel like a burden to my family.” What is the most therapeutic nursing response?
• A. “I’m sure your family doesn’t feel that way.”
• B. “Let’s talk more about why you feel this way.”
• C. “It’s important to stay positive and focus on the good things.”
• D. “You’re not a burden, and your family loves you.”

Which physical symptom is most commonly associated with depression?


• A. Increased energy levels
• B. Chronic fatigue and insomnia
• C. Persistent chest pain
• D. Frequent headaches and fever

A patient with depression is prescribed sertraline. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
• A. “You will notice improvement within 1-2 days.”
• B. “This medication may take 2-4 weeks to start working.”
• C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
• D. “Avoid all carbohydrates while taking this medication.”

Which patient is at the highest risk for developing depression?


• A. A 25-year-old college student with a supportive family
• B. A 40-year-old with a chronic illness and financial stress
• C. A 30-year-old with no prior history of mental illness
• D. A 50-year-old who recently started a new job

Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with depression who has withdrawn from social activities?
• A. Risk for injury
• B. Social isolation
• C. Impaired thought processes
• D. Ineffective coping

Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with mild depression?


• A. Encourage regular physical activity and a structured routine.
• B. Recommend the patient avoid interactions with others.
• C. Teach the patient to rely on medication alone.
• D. Suggest the patient focus solely on work-related tasks.

A family member of a patient with depression asks how they can help. What is the nurse’s best response?
• A. “Try to push them to do things they’re not interested in.”
• B. “Listen and encourage them to talk about their feelings.”
• C. “Avoid discussing their symptoms or bringing attention to them.”
• D. “Encourage them to stay in bed until they feel better.”

A patient with severe depression is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). What should the nurse include in pre-procedure teaching?
• A. “You will remain awake during the procedure.”
• B. “You may experience temporary memory loss after the procedure.”
• C. “ECT will immediately cure your depression.”
• D. “You cannot eat or drink for 24 hours before the procedure.”

Answer: BABBBBBABB
Which behavior is most commonly observed in a child with conduct disorder?
• A. Persistent lying and stealing
• B. Withdrawal from social interactions
• C. Severe separation anxiety
• D. Consistently high academic achievement

Which child is at the highest risk for developing conduct disorder?


• A. A child with a strong support system at home and school
• B. A child who experiences frequent parental neglect and abuse
• C. A child with no family history of mental illness
• D. A child who actively participates in extracurricular activities

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a child diagnosed with conduct disorder who frequently fights with peers?
• A. Impaired social interaction
• B. Ineffective coping
• C. Risk for injury
• D. Disturbed sensory perception

What should the nurse include when educating the parents of a child with conduct disorder?
• A. “Ignore the child’s aggressive behaviors to avoid reinforcing them.”
• B. “Set clear boundaries and consequences for unacceptable behavior.”
• C. “Punish the child harshly to stop the behaviors.”
• D. “Let the child make their own rules to build trust.”

A child with conduct disorder says, “Nobody can tell me what to do.” What is the most therapeutic response?
• A. “You need to follow the rules like everyone else.”
• B. “It sounds like you feel frustrated with rules.”
• C. “Why don’t you try to cooperate with others?”
• D. “If you don’t follow the rules, there will be consequences.”

What is the primary goal of treatment for a child with conduct disorder?
• A. Achieving academic success
• B. Preventing harm to self or others
• C. Promoting social withdrawal to avoid conflict
• D. Controlling the child’s environment completely

A child with conduct disorder is prescribed risperidone. What should the nurse include in the medication teaching?
• A. “This medication will cure your child’s behavior problems.”
• B. “This medication can help reduce aggression and irritability.”
• C. “Your child should stop the medication once they feel better.”
• D. “This medication must be taken with food at every meal.”

What is the nurse’s priority intervention for a child with conduct disorder who becomes physically aggressive during group therapy?
• A. Remove the child from the group to ensure safety.
• B. Encourage the child to talk about their feelings.
• C. Allow the group to help calm the child.
• D. Ignore the child’s aggressive behavior to avoid attention-seeking.

A child with conduct disorder is enrolled in cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). What should the nurse explain as the focus of CBT?
• A. Changing the child’s negative thought patterns and behaviors
• B. Improving the child’s academic performance
• C. Teaching the child how to suppress their emotions
• D. Encouraging the child to avoid social interactions

Which long-term intervention is most effective for managing conduct disorder?


• A. Early involvement in family therapy and support programs
• B. Strict punishment for aggressive behaviors
• C. Allowing the child to express aggression freely at home
• D. Limiting all social interactions to prevent conflicts

Answer: ABCBBBBAAA
A patient with delusions states, “The FBI is watching me through my television.” What is the most therapeutic nursing response?
• A. “There is no way the FBI is watching you.”
• B. “That must be frightening for you. Let’s talk more about how you’re feeling.”
• C. “Why do you think the FBI is interested in you?”
• D. “I can assure you that your television is safe.”

A patient with delusions believes that the staff is poisoning their food. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
• A. Encourage the patient to eat meals provided by family members.
• B. Monitor the patient closely for refusal to eat or drink.
• C. Force the patient to eat to ensure nutritional needs are met.
• D. Explain to the patient that their food is safe and free of poison.

What is the best approach for the nurse to establish a therapeutic relationship with a patient experiencing delusions?
• A. Agree with the patient’s delusions to build trust.
• B. Frequently point out the irrational nature of the delusions.
• C. Be consistent, honest, and avoid challenging the delusions directly.
• D. Avoid talking to the patient about their delusions to reduce distress.

A patient with delusions insists on discussing their belief that they are a famous celebrity. What is the best nursing intervention?
• A. Encourage the patient to talk about their delusions freely.
• B. Redirect the conversation to reality-based topics.
• C. Argue with the patient about the truth of their identity.
• D. Tell the patient that their beliefs are false and unreasonable.

A patient with delusions believes they are being followed by strangers. How should the nurse support reality orientation?
• A. Validate the patient’s fear by agreeing that strangers are following them.
• B. Offer simple, factual statements like, “I don’t see anyone following you.”
• C. Avoid mentioning the delusion and focus solely on other topics.
• D. Encourage the patient to confront the strangers they believe are following them.

Answer: BBCBB
During a mental status exam, the nurse asks the patient, “Can you tell me where you are right now?” Which component of the MSE is the nurse
assessing?
• A. Insight
• B. Mood
• C. Orientation
• D. Perception

A patient smiles while stating, “I feel miserable and hopeless.” How should the nurse document the patient’s affect?
• A. Congruent with mood
• B. Incongruent with mood
• C. Labile
• D. Flat

Which statement by a patient indicates a disorganized thought process?


• A. “I’m feeling really sad today because of everything that’s happened.”
• B. “The dog ran fast, and the sun is purple, so I can fly.”
• C. “I don’t know where I put my keys, but I’ll find them later.”
• D. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping and concentrating.”

The nurse asks a patient, “What did you have for breakfast this morning?” Which type of memory is being assessed?
• A. Immediate
• B. Remote
• C. Short-term
• D. Long-term

To evaluate judgment during the mental status exam, the nurse asks, “What would you do if you smelled smoke in a crowded theater?” What would an
appropriate response indicate?
• A. Impaired problem-solving ability
• B. Normal judgment
• C. Limited insight
• D. Disorganized thought process

Answer: CBBCB
Which physical symptom is most commonly associated with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
• A. Decreased appetite
• B. Muscle tension
• C. Low blood pressure
• D. Decreased heart rate

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient experiencing severe anxiety?
• A. Risk for injury
• B. Ineffective coping
• C. Social isolation
• D. Powerlessness

A patient is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?


• A. Encourage the patient to discuss their fears in detail.
• B. Provide a calm environment and stay with the patient.
• C. Explain to the patient why their fears are irrational.
• D. Administer antianxiety medication immediately.

The nurse is educating a patient about cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) for anxiety. What should the nurse explain as the focus of CBT?
• A. Changing negative thought patterns to reduce anxiety.
• B. Exploring unconscious conflicts causing the anxiety.
• C. Teaching the patient to avoid anxiety-provoking situations.
• D. Suppressing emotional responses to stressors.

A patient with anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. What is an important teaching point about this medication?
• A. “This medication is safe to take long-term without any concerns.”
• B. “Avoid operating machinery or driving while taking this medication.”
• C. “It may take 3-4 weeks to notice an effect.”
• D. “Discontinue the medication immediately if you feel drowsy.”

Which behavior is most indicative of social anxiety disorder?


• A. Avoidance of social events due to fear of embarrassment.
• B. Excessive worry about multiple everyday activities.
• C. Recurrent thoughts and actions related to contamination.
• D. Panic attacks triggered by specific phobias.

What is a characteristic of mild anxiety?


• A. Impaired concentration and focus
• B. Heightened awareness and improved problem-solving
• C. Complete inability to process new information
• D. Difficulty with speech and expression

A patient states, “I feel like I’m losing control and can’t breathe.” What is the nurse’s most therapeutic response?
• A. “Try to calm down; you’re overreacting.”
• B. “Let’s take some deep breaths together and focus on relaxing.”
• C. “There’s nothing to worry about. You’re fine.”
• D. “You should lie down and stop thinking about it.”

A patient with a fear of heights avoids going on bridges. How should the nurse approach this phobia during treatment?
• A. Encourage the patient to avoid situations that trigger anxiety.
• B. Discuss the use of systematic desensitization therapy.
• C. Use confrontation to challenge the patient’s fears directly.
• D. Focus on unrelated topics to distract the patient.

Which intervention is most effective for the long-term management of anxiety disorders?
• A. Encouraging regular use of benzodiazepines
• B. Promoting relaxation techniques like deep breathing and mindfulness
• C. Advising complete avoidance of anxiety-provoking situations
• D. Recommending strict isolation to minimize stress triggers

Answer: BBBABABBBB
Which symptom is most characteristic of PTSD?
• A. Persistent delusions and hallucinations
• B. Flashbacks and intrusive memories of the trauma
• C. Sudden onset of physical tics and tremors
• D. Chronic, unexplained fatigue

A patient with PTSD experiences an anxiety attack after hearing a loud noise. What is this reaction called?
• A. Dissociation
• B. Avoidance
• C. Hyperarousal
• D. Re-experiencing

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient with PTSD who is isolating themselves and refusing to leave their home?
• A. Risk for violence
• B. Impaired social interaction
• C. Chronic low self-esteem
• D. Ineffective role performance

A patient with PTSD says, “I can’t stop reliving the car accident. It’s like I’m there again.” What is the nurse’s best response?
• A. “That was a long time ago. Try to move on.”
• B. “Let’s focus on happy memories to distract you.”
• C. “It sounds like this is very distressing for you. Let’s talk about it.”
• D. “You should avoid thinking about it to feel better.”

Which behavior is commonly observed in patients with PTSD?


• A. Seeking frequent exposure to trauma-related stimuli
• B. Avoiding people, places, or activities associated with the trauma
• C. Expressing excessive joy and enthusiasm in social situations
• D. Seeking out high-risk activities to cope with stress

The nurse is teaching a patient with PTSD about relaxation techniques. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
• A. “I can use deep breathing exercises to calm myself.”
• B. “Relaxation techniques will completely cure my PTSD.”
• C. “Practicing mindfulness can help reduce my anxiety.”
• D. “Using relaxation techniques can help me feel more in control.”

Which symptom reflects hyperarousal in a patient with PTSD?


• A. Avoiding reminders of the trauma
• B. Feeling detached from others
• C. Experiencing difficulty falling or staying asleep
• D. Reliving the trauma through flashbacks

What is the nurse’s priority intervention for a patient with PTSD who is experiencing a flashback?
• A. Leave the patient alone to process their emotions.
• B. Ground the patient by helping them focus on the present.
• C. Encourage the patient to discuss the traumatic event in detail.
• D. Administer a sedative immediately.

Which medication is commonly prescribed for PTSD to reduce nightmares and improve sleep?
• A. Prazosin
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Lithium

The family of a patient with PTSD asks how they can help. What is the nurse’s best response?
• A. “Avoid talking about the trauma to reduce stress.”
• B. “Encourage the patient to seek professional support and offer emotional support.”
• C. “Push the patient to confront the traumatic memories directly.”
• D. “Focus on minimizing the patient’s need for therapy.”

Answer: BDBCBBCBAB
Which symptom is most commonly associated with a panic attack?
• A. Slow, deep breathing
• B. A sense of impending doom
• C. Gradual onset of anxiety
• D. Chronic fatigue

What physical symptom is a hallmark of a panic attack?


• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Chest pain and rapid heartbeat
• C. Excessive sweating only at night
• D. Numbness limited to the legs

A patient is having a panic attack. What is the nurse’s immediate priority?


• A. Ask the patient to describe the cause of their anxiety.
• B. Encourage slow, deep breathing techniques.
• C. Leave the patient alone to calm down.
• D. Administer antianxiety medication immediately.

A patient experiences recurrent panic attacks without a specific trigger. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A. Post-traumatic stress disorder
• B. Panic disorder
• C. Generalized anxiety disorder
• D. Social anxiety disorder

A patient with panic disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
• A. “This medication can be taken as needed for acute panic attacks.”
• B. “You should take this medication on an empty stomach.”
• C. “It may take 4–6 weeks for this medication to start working.”
• D. “Stop the medication abruptly if you feel better.”

What behavior is commonly associated with panic disorder?


• A. Avoiding places or situations where panic attacks have occurred
• B. Seeking constant exposure to anxiety-provoking situations
• C. Excessive socializing to distract from symptoms
• D. Seeking complete isolation at all times

A patient with panic disorder is beginning cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). What should the nurse explain as the focus of CBT?
• A. Changing thought patterns that lead to panic attacks
• B. Avoiding situations that trigger anxiety
• C. Increasing dependence on medication
• D. Suppressing emotions to prevent panic

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient with panic disorder who avoids social situations?
• A. Risk for injury
• B. Social isolation
• C. Ineffective health maintenance
• D. Impaired verbal communication

Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of strategies for long-term management of panic disorder?
• A. “I will avoid all situations that make me anxious.”
• B. “I will practice relaxation techniques to reduce my anxiety.”
• C. “I will stop my medication once I start feeling better.”
• D. “I will ignore my symptoms and focus on other things.”

A patient experiencing a panic attack begins hyperventilating. What should the nurse do first?
• A. Provide a paper bag for the patient to breathe into.
• B. Encourage the patient to lie flat on the bed.
• C. Instruct the patient to take slow, controlled breaths.
• D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.

Answers: BBBBAAABBC
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of delirium?
• A. Gradual onset with stable symptoms
• B. Disorientation and fluctuating mental status
• C. Long-term memory loss without fluctuations
• D. Persistent depressive mood

Which factor places an older adult at greatest risk for developing delirium?
• A. Poor nutrition
• B. Recent surgery
• C. Regular exercise
• D. Chronic insomnia

A nurse observes that a patient is confused, unable to focus, and disoriented to time and place. The patient’s condition has fluctuated throughout the
day. What is the nurse’s most likely conclusion?
• A. The patient is experiencing depression.
• B. The patient may be experiencing delirium.
• C. The patient is demonstrating signs of dementia.
• D. The patient has normal aging-related cognitive changes.

A patient is suspected of having delirium following surgery. What is the nurse’s priority action?
• A. Provide a calm, quiet environment to reduce stimulation.
• B. Encourage the patient to sleep as much as possible.
• C. Give the patient sedative medications to reduce agitation.
• D. Reassure the patient that the confusion will go away soon.

Which of the following is a key difference between delirium and dementia?


• A. Delirium has a gradual onset, while dementia has a rapid onset.
• B. Delirium is reversible, while dementia is irreversible.
• C. Delirium results from a long-standing illness, while dementia does not.
• D. Delirium is a slow process, while dementia occurs suddenly.

What condition is most commonly associated with the development of delirium in hospitalized patients?
• A. Dehydration
• B. Diabetes
• C. Hypertension
• D. Allergies

What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with delirium caused by a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
• A. Administer an antipsychotic medication immediately.
• B. Provide supportive care while treating the underlying infection.
• C. Restrict fluid intake to reduce symptoms.
• D. Isolate the patient to minimize environmental stimulation.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who is at risk for delirium. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
• A. Restricting visitors to reduce distractions.
• B. Monitoring vital signs and mental status frequently.
• C. Providing analgesics to prevent pain-related confusion.
• D. Limiting the patient’s fluid intake to prevent fluid retention.

Which medication should the nurse be cautious about administering to a patient with delirium?
• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Omeprazole

The nurse is educating a family member of a patient with delirium. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
• A. “Delirium is a temporary condition that resolves once the underlying cause is treated.”
• B. “Delirium is a sign of early-stage dementia and is irreversible.”
• C. “Delirium is often related to psychological factors and requires therapy.”
• D. “Delirium will persist, but medication can help manage the symptoms long-term.”

Answer: BBBABABBBA
Which behavior is a common sign of impending aggression in a patient?
• A. Withdrawal and avoidance
• B. Restlessness and pacing
• C. Slowed speech and concentration
• D. Hyperactivity and laughter

The nurse is caring for a patient who is displaying aggressive behavior. What is the most important nursing intervention?
• A. Use physical restraint immediately to prevent harm.
• B. Approach the patient calmly and set clear boundaries.
• C. Allow the patient to act out their aggression to release tension.
• D. Encourage the patient to confront the cause of their anger.

A patient begins shouting and threatening the staff. Which statement is most effective for de-escalating the situation?
• A. “Calm down right now, or you’ll be restrained.”
• B. “I understand that you’re upset, but we need to talk about this.”
• C. “You shouldn’t be angry. Let’s just talk calmly.”
• D. “If you don’t stop yelling, I’ll call security.”

A patient with a history of aggressive behavior is admitted to the unit. Which action is most important to prevent injury to others?
• A. Monitor the patient continuously for signs of agitation.
• B. Allow the patient to express anger freely to release tension.
• C. Ensure the patient’s room is locked to prevent wandering.
• D. Encourage the patient to interact with others in group therapy.

A patient is becoming increasingly aggressive, and the situation is escalating. The nurse is considering using restraints. What is the first step the nurse
should take?
• A. Call the healthcare provider for an order to restrain the patient.
• B. Apply restraints immediately to prevent harm.
• C. Attempt verbal de-escalation techniques before resorting to restraints.
• D. Limit communication with the patient to avoid further agitation.

A nurse is administering medication to a patient exhibiting aggressive behavior. Which medication is most commonly used to manage acute
aggression?
• A. Lorazepam
• B. Haloperidol
• C. Sertraline
• D. Fluoxetine

A nurse is assessing a patient who has displayed aggressive behavior in the past. What is the best strategy for identifying triggers for the patient’s
aggression?
• A. Ignore the patient’s history and focus on current behavior.
• B. Conduct a thorough assessment to determine past triggers and stressors.
• C. Place the patient on a restrictive schedule to minimize triggers.
• D. Avoid asking the patient about their anger to prevent further agitation.

The nurse is educating the family of a patient with a history of aggression. Which statement by the family indicates the need for further teaching?
• A. “We should try to stay calm and avoid reacting to their anger.”
• B. “We can ignore the behavior to avoid giving it attention.”
• C. “We need to set clear boundaries and consequences for aggressive actions.”
• D. “We should avoid confrontations when the person is upset.”

After a patient has calmed down from an aggressive outburst, what is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
• A. Praise the patient for controlling their behavior.
• B. Discuss the aggressive incident immediately to prevent future occurrences.
• C. Provide an opportunity for the patient to reflect on their feelings and actions.
• D. Ignore the incident and move on to the next patient.

Which of the following interventions is most effective in helping a patient with aggression control their anger?
• A. Encourage the patient to suppress their anger to avoid confrontation.
• B. Teach the patient deep breathing, relaxation techniques, and cognitive restructuring.
• C. Allow the patient to vent their anger aggressively until they calm down.
• D. Avoid talking to the patient about their anger and let them be alone.

Answer: BBBACBBBCB
Which of the following is a primary characteristic of dementia?
• A. Sudden onset of memory loss
• B. Gradual decline in cognitive function
• C. Severe mood swings
• D. Periodic confusion after an illness

Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s dementia?
• A. High blood pressure
• B. Age over 65
• C. Chronic stress
• D. Family history of depression

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient with dementia who is unable to recall family members and gets lost easily?
• A. Risk for injury
• B. Impaired social interaction
• C. Disturbed sleep pattern
• D. Deficient knowledge

What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take when a patient with dementia becomes agitated and confused?
• A. Reassure the patient and calmly redirect them.
• B. Place the patient in a quiet room with dim lighting.
• C. Restrain the patient to prevent injury.
• D. Confront the patient to help them understand their behavior.

Which communication strategy is most effective when interacting with a patient who has dementia?
• A. Speak loudly and quickly to gain the patient’s attention.
• B. Use simple language and clear sentences.
• C. Avoid eye contact to reduce confusion.
• D. Ask complex questions to stimulate thinking.

Which of the following interventions is most important for preventing injury in a patient with dementia?
• A. Installing safety locks on doors and cabinets
• B. Allowing the patient to go outside unsupervised
• C. Reducing the patient’s fluid intake to decrease bathroom visits
• D. Encouraging frequent naps during the day

Which medication is commonly prescribed to help manage symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?


• A. Donepezil
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Risperidone
• D. Fluoxetine

A family member is caring for a loved one with dementia. Which statement by the caregiver indicates the need for further teaching?
• A. “I need to create a structured routine for my loved one.”
• B. “I should avoid using familiar reminders to assist with memory loss.”
• C. “I can encourage physical activity to reduce anxiety and restlessness.”
• D. “I need to seek support and respite care when I feel overwhelmed.”

Which intervention is most helpful for managing a patient with dementia who exhibits repetitive questioning?
• A. Ignore the question and redirect the patient.
• B. Answer the question each time with patience and consistency.
• C. Tell the patient to stop asking questions.
• D. Provide distractions such as TV or music to avoid the question.

Which legal issue is most important to consider when caring for a patient with advanced dementia?
• A. Ensuring the patient has a living will or advance directive in place
• B. Ensuring the patient receives frequent visits from family members
• C. Limiting the patient’s access to medications
• D. Providing the patient with complete independence in daily activities

Answer: BBAABAABBA
Which of the following is a significant risk factor for suicide?
• A. Recent diagnosis of a chronic illness
• B. Having a stable home environment
• C. Strong social support
• D. Practicing effective stress management techniques

Which statement by a patient indicates a need for further suicide risk assessment?
• A. “I feel like I have nothing to look forward to anymore.”
• B. “I’ve been feeling sad lately, but it will pass.”
• C. “I want to talk to my therapist about my worries.”
• D. “I enjoy spending time with my family and friends.”

A patient is expressing suicidal thoughts. What is the nurse’s priority action?


• A. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
• B. Offer reassurance that things will improve soon.
• C. Assign the patient to a quiet room for isolation.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider and ensure safety.

What is the key difference between suicidal ideation and suicidal intent?
• A. Suicidal ideation involves thoughts of death without plans, while intent involves planning or actions.
• B. Suicidal ideation is only temporary, while intent lasts for months.
• C. Intent is based on external triggers, while ideation is purely internal.
• D. Ideation involves seeking help, while intent is characterized by avoiding care.

A nurse is developing a suicide prevention plan for a patient at risk. Which of the following is most important to include?
• A. Suggest the patient avoid talking about their feelings.
• B. Encourage the patient to eliminate all sources of stress.
• C. Provide the patient with a 24-hour crisis hotline number.
• D. Limit the patient’s contact with family and friends.

Which of the following behaviors is a warning sign that a patient may be at risk for suicide?
• A. Giving away personal belongings
• B. Participating in activities they previously enjoyed
• C. Expressing feelings of hope and optimism
• D. Demonstrating high energy levels and enthusiasm

When caring for a patient with suicidal thoughts, which intervention is most important?
• A. Ensure that the patient is never left alone.
• B. Reassure the patient that the feelings will pass quickly.
• C. Encourage the patient to keep their emotions bottled up.
• D. Minimize the patient’s communication about suicidal thoughts.

Which of the following is the best approach to support the family of a patient who has attempted suicide?
• A. “You should stay strong and not show any emotions.”
• B. “It’s important to maintain a supportive, non-judgmental attitude.”
• C. “You must keep your distance from the patient to avoid further distress.”
• D. “You should confront the patient about their suicide attempt immediately.”

Which statement by a patient recently discharged from a psychiatric unit indicates a need for further suicide risk evaluation?
• A. “I feel much better now and can manage my problems on my own.”
• B. “I’ve learned new coping strategies and feel more in control.”
• C. “I am glad to be out of the hospital, but I still feel hopeless sometimes.”
• D. “I plan to attend therapy regularly and stay involved in group activities.”

Which class of medications is most commonly prescribed to patients with suicidal ideation?
• A. Antipsychotics
• B. Antidepressants
• C. Benzodiazepines
• D. Stimulants

Answer: AADACAABCB
Which of the following behaviors is characteristic of a patient with antisocial personality disorder?
• A. Unwillingness to follow social rules or laws
• B. Strong desire for social approval
• C. Overly sensitive to criticism
• D. Persistent feelings of guilt

A patient with antisocial personality disorder exhibits a history of deceit, lying, and disregard for others’ rights. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
• A. Risk for self-harm
• B. Ineffective coping
• C. Chronic low self-esteem
• D. Risk for violence toward others

When caring for a patient with antisocial personality disorder, which of the following interventions is most important?
• A. Establish clear and consistent boundaries.
• B. Allow the patient to make decisions without limits.
• C. Encourage self-criticism to improve self-awareness.
• D. Ignore manipulative behaviors to avoid confrontation.

Which of the following is most likely to occur when a person with antisocial personality disorder interacts with others?
• A. Their manipulative behaviors may cause harm to others.
• B. They will form close, trusting relationships with others.
• C. They will show empathy and concern for others.
• D. They will avoid engaging in any form of conflict.

Which treatment is most commonly used to manage antisocial personality disorder?


• A. Psychoanalysis
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Group therapy
• D. Family therapy

What is the goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy for a patient with antisocial personality disorder?
• A. To identify and change unhealthy thinking patterns
• B. To encourage the patient to engage in self-destructive behaviors
• C. To decrease the patient’s need for social interaction
• D. To increase the patient’s ability to manipulate others

A patient with antisocial personality disorder is involved in criminal behavior. The nurse’s role in this case includes:
• A. Promoting strict legal punishment for the behavior
• B. Supporting the patient’s efforts to change and develop coping skills
• C. Ignoring the criminal behavior to avoid confrontation
• D. Encouraging the patient to continue engaging in risky behavior

What is most important to include in family education about antisocial personality disorder?
• A. Reinforce that manipulation and deceit are normal behaviors.
• B. Emphasize the need for the family to set and maintain clear boundaries.
• C. Encourage the family to allow the patient to make all decisions.
• D. Teach the family to accept the patient’s behavior as unchangeable.

Which question is most appropriate for assessing antisocial personality disorder?


• A. “Do you often feel anxious or worried?”
• B. “Have you ever disregarded the feelings or rights of others?”
• C. “Do you find it difficult to make decisions?”
• D. “Do you have close friendships that you can rely on?”

Which of the following emotional responses would be least likely to occur in a patient with antisocial personality disorder?
• A. Guilt or remorse for actions
• B. Impulsive or reckless behavior
• C. Lack of empathy for others
• D. Aggression when boundaries are challenged

Answer: ADAABABBBA
Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
• A. Social withdrawal
• B. Delusions
• C. Flat affect
• D. Avolition

Which of the following is considered a risk factor for developing schizophrenia?


• A. A history of substance abuse
• B. A family history of schizophrenia
• C. Childhood trauma
• D. High socioeconomic status

Which response is most appropriate when interacting with a patient who is experiencing auditory hallucinations?
• A. “I don’t hear anything. You must be imagining it.”
• B. “Tell me more about what the voices are saying.”
• C. “You shouldn’t listen to those voices; they’re not real.”
• D. “Focus on something else to distract yourself from the voices.”

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia who is displaying disorganized speech. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
• A. Risk for impaired physical mobility
• B. Impaired verbal communication
• C. Social isolation
• D. Disturbed body image

Which medication is commonly prescribed to manage the symptoms of schizophrenia?


• A. Haloperidol
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Fluoxetine
• D. Risperidone

A patient with schizophrenia is exhibiting violent behavior toward others. What is the nurse’s priority action?
• A. Place the patient in a quiet room to calm down.
• B. Administer antipsychotic medication immediately.
• C. Ensure the safety of the patient and others by removing potential harm.
• D. Call for assistance and physically restrain the patient.

Which of the following is an example of a delusion commonly seen in schizophrenia?


• A. Belief that one is being watched or followed
• B. Feeling disconnected from one’s body
• C. Talking to someone who isn’t present
• D. Acting impulsively without thinking

When educating the family of a patient with schizophrenia, what should the nurse emphasize?
• A. The importance of encouraging the patient to face their fears directly.
• B. The need for family members to understand the nature of the illness and support treatment.
• C. The patient’s behavior will improve without medication over time.
• D. Family members should avoid discussing the illness with the patient to prevent stress.

Which coping strategy is most effective for a patient with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations?
• A. Avoiding all social interactions
• B. Focusing on structured activities and positive distractions
• C. Engaging in constant self-talk to drown out the voices
• D. Suppressing thoughts about the voices entirely

What is the main goal of long-term management for patients with schizophrenia?
• A. Cure the disorder completely
• B. Manage symptoms and prevent relapse
• C. Promote complete independence in daily activities
• D. Focus on physical rehabilitation

Answer: BBBBDCABBB
A nurse is assessing a patient who is exhibiting symptoms of extreme irritability, impulsiveness, and an inflated sense of self-worth. Which phase of
bipolar disorder is the patient most likely experiencing?
• A. Depressive episode
• B. Manic episode
• C. Mixed episode
• D. Hypomanic episode

A nurse is caring for a patient in a manic episode of bipolar disorder. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate?
• A. Risk for self-directed violence
• B. Ineffective coping
• C. Disturbed thought processes
• D. Impaired social interaction

A patient with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode and is refusing to eat or sleep. What should the nurse’s priority action be?
• A. Encourage the patient to take a walk to expend energy.
• B. Provide a calm environment and ensure safety.
• C. Sit with the patient to discuss their feelings.
• D. Offer the patient their favorite foods to stimulate appetite.

Which class of medication is commonly used to manage the manic phase of bipolar disorder?
• A. Antidepressants
• B. Antipsychotics
• C. Benzodiazepines
• D. Mood stabilizers

Which of the following is an important teaching point for family members of a patient with bipolar disorder?
• A. The patient should avoid any form of social interaction to minimize stress.
• B. Manic episodes are easily controlled by the patient and require no intervention.
• C. Regular sleep, healthy eating, and stress reduction are important in managing the disorder.
• D. The patient should stop taking medication once symptoms improve.

Which of the following is most likely to occur during the manic phase of bipolar disorder?
• A. Slowed thinking, fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness
• B. Increased energy, grandiosity, and risky behaviors
• C. Extreme sadness, withdrawal from others, and insomnia
• D. Lack of appetite and a desire to be alone

A nurse is assessing a patient with bipolar disorder. Which statement from the patient suggests a high risk for suicide during the depressive phase?
• A. “I feel like I have too much energy and can do anything I want.”
• B. “I’m not sure what I’m living for anymore.”
• C. “I’ve been thinking about how much fun I’m having.”
• D. “I can’t wait to get started on my next big project.”

A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What is the nurse’s most important instruction regarding this medication?
• A. “Avoid eating foods that contain caffeine.”
• B. “Drink plenty of fluids and avoid dehydration.”
• C. “Stop taking the medication when you feel better.”
• D. “Take the medication only during the manic phase.”

What is the most effective coping strategy to teach a patient in the depressive phase of bipolar disorder?
• A. Engage in high-energy activities to boost mood.
• B. Seek immediate medical intervention for all negative thoughts.
• C. Use deep breathing and relaxation techniques to manage stress.
• D. Avoid any form of social interaction and isolate yourself.

Which of the following is an essential aspect of long-term management for a patient with bipolar disorder?
• A. Staying on a consistent medication regimen
• B. Focusing only on symptom relief during manic episodes
• C. Encouraging complete independence in managing symptoms
• D. Avoiding any form of social interaction during depressive episodes

Answer: BBBDCBBBCA
Which of the following is an appropriate indication for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
• A. Severe depression resistant to other treatments
• B. Mild anxiety disorders
• C. Acute alcohol intoxication
• D. Chronic pain management

Which of the following is an appropriate pre-procedure nursing action for a patient scheduled for ECT?
• A. Administer a sedative and ensure the patient is NPO for 6 hours.
• B. Encourage the patient to engage in intense physical activity to reduce stress.
• C. Administer a high-protein meal before the procedure.
• D. Encourage the patient to express their emotions freely in therapy.

What is the priority nursing intervention immediately following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
• A. Offer the patient a light meal and fluids.
• B. Monitor the patient for confusion and disorientation.
• C. Allow the patient to sleep uninterrupted for several hours.
• D. Encourage the patient to engage in physical activity.

Which of the following is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?


• A. Severe long-term memory loss
• B. Transient confusion and memory loss
• C. Increased levels of anxiety
• D. Permanent cognitive decline

Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further education about electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
• A. “I understand that ECT may help improve my depression.”
• B. “I will likely experience long-term memory loss due to the treatment.”
• C. “I know I may need several sessions of ECT to see results.”
• D. “I will receive anesthesia during the procedure to ensure I am comfortable.”

Answer: AABBB
Which of the following best defines the defense mechanism of repression?
• A. Exaggerating the importance of an event
• B. Unconsciously blocking painful memories or thoughts
• C. Pretending a situation doesn’t exist
• D. Transforming an unacceptable impulse into a socially acceptable behavior

A patient is upset about losing a job and begins yelling at their partner for no apparent reason. Which defense mechanism is the patient demonstrating?
• A. Displacement
• B. Denial
• C. Projection
• D. Sublimation

A person refuses to accept the reality of a terminal diagnosis. What defense mechanism is this person displaying?
• A. Repression
• B. Denial
• C. Rationalization
• D. Projection

A teenager blames their poor grades on their teacher, rather than taking responsibility for not studying. Which defense mechanism is the teenager
using?
• A. Rationalization
• B. Displacement
• C. Regression
• D. Intellectualization

A woman who is angry with her boss begins cleaning her house obsessively. Which defense mechanism is she using?
• A. Sublimation
• B. Reaction formation
• C. Projection
• D. Repression

Which defense mechanism involves behaving in a way that is opposite to one’s true feelings?
• A. Rationalization
• B. Reaction formation
• C. Regression
• D. Sublimation

A person who is struggling with feelings of inadequacy overcompensates by constantly boasting about their achievements. Which defense mechanism
is being demonstrated?
• A. Sublimation
• B. Compensation
• C. Displacement
• D. Denial

A child begins to suck their thumb again after the birth of a sibling. Which defense mechanism is this child displaying?
• A. Projection
• B. Regression
• C. Repression
• D. Displacement

A patient who is in denial about their drinking problem argues that everyone drinks and it’s no big deal. Which defense mechanism is being used?
• A. Projection
• B. Rationalization
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Displacement

1A man experiences a traumatic event but later talks about it in a detached and intellectualized way, avoiding emotional expression. What defense
mechanism is he demonstrating?
• A. Intellectualization
• B. Sublimation
• C. Repression
• D. Denial
Answer: BABAABBBBA
1. Which of the following best defines libel?
• A. Written defamation of character
• B. Spoken defamation of character
• C. Physical harm or offensive touching
• D. Threatening a person with bodily harm

2. Which of the following best defines slander?


• A. Written defamation of character
• B. Spoken defamation of character
• C. Physical harm or offensive touching
• D. Threatening a person with bodily harm

3. Which of the following best defines battery?


• A. The intentional infliction of harm or offensive touching without consent
• B. Threatening a person with harm
• C. A false statement that damages someone’s reputation
• D. Unlawful restraint or confinement of an individual

4. Which of the following best defines assault?


• A. The intentional infliction of harm or offensive touching without consent
• B. Threatening a person with harm, causing fear of immediate harm
• C. A false statement that damages someone’s reputation
• D. Unlawful restraint or confinement of an individual

Answers: ABAB
1. Which of the following is an example of using open-ended questions in therapeutic communication?
• A. “Did you feel sad when your friend left?”
• B. “What happened when your friend left?”
• C. “You seem upset. What can I do to help?”
• D. “Why do you feel this way?”

2. Which of the following is an example of active listening in therapeutic communication?


• A. Giving advice to the patient based on your own experience
• B. Offering your own opinion while the patient is speaking
• C. Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient is speaking
• D. Interrupting the patient to ask for clarification

3. Which of the following should a nurse avoid when using therapeutic communication?
• A. Asking clarifying questions
• B. Giving reassurance to the patient
• C. Making judgmental comments
• D. Using silence to allow the patient time to think

4. A patient says, “I’m so upset that I failed the exam. I just can’t handle it.” What would be an appropriate therapeutic response?
• A. “Don’t worry. You can always retake the exam.”
• B. “It sounds like you’re feeling overwhelmed. Can you tell me more about it?”
• C. “I’m sure you will pass next time.”
• D. “Failure happens to everyone. You’ll be fine.”

5. Which of the following best describes the use of silence in therapeutic communication?
• A. The nurse avoids speaking to allow the patient to remain silent.
• B. The nurse uses silence to encourage the patient to reflect and express feelings.
• C. The nurse uses silence to prevent the patient from talking too much.
• D. Silence is never used in therapeutic communication.

Answers: BCCBB
1. During which phase of the nurse-client relationship is trust-building essential?
• A. Termination phase
• B. Working phase
• C. Pre-orientation phase
• D. Orientation phase

2. Which phase of the nurse-client relationship focuses on helping the patient achieve goals and providing interventions?
• A. Pre-orientation phase
• B. Termination phase
• C. Orientation phase
• D. Working phase

3. During which phase of the nurse-client relationship does the nurse help the patient review progress and explore future goals?
• A. Termination phase
• B. Pre-orientation phase
• C. Working phase
• D. Orientation phase

4. Which phase of the nurse-client relationship involves the nurse gathering information about the patient’s history, needs, and expectations?
• A. Termination phase
• B. Orientation phase
• C. Working phase
• D. Pre-orientation phase

5. Which of the following is a nurse’s responsibility during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship?
• A. To begin working on new patient goals
• B. To reflect on the patient’s progress and plan for discharge
• C. To establish new treatment plans for the patient
• D. To discontinue all communication with the patient

Answers: DDABB
1. Which of the following is a basic client right in a psychiatric hospital?
• A. To refuse medication, except in emergencies
• B. To have no restrictions on personal belongings
• C. To be hospitalized for as long as needed without evaluation
• D. To be free from any type of supervision

2. What must a nurse do when a patient wants to leave the psychiatric hospital against medical advice (AMA)?
• A. Notify the patient’s family immediately
• B. Allow the patient to leave if they insist
• C. Assess the patient’s mental status and inform them of the risks
• D. Call security to prevent the patient from leaving

3. Which of the following is considered an important client right in a psychiatric setting?


• A. The right to privacy and confidentiality
• B. The right to receive treatment only when it is voluntary
• C. The right to refuse all forms of therapy or medication
• D. The right to remain in the hospital indefinitely without evaluation

4. Which of the following is a right that patients have regarding treatment in a psychiatric hospital?
• A. The right to receive treatment in the least restrictive environment
• B. The right to always refuse all medications
• C. The right to unlimited phone calls with family members
• D. The right to make all medical decisions without consulting a doctor

5. A patient in a psychiatric hospital has the right to informed consent. What does this involve?
• A. The patient has the right to refuse all medications and treatments without explanation.
• B. The patient must be given adequate information to make an informed decision about their treatment.
• C. The patient must agree to all treatment regimens without being informed.
• D. The patient must always accept recommendations from the healthcare team.

Answers: ACAAB
Which of the following is the primary action of lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder?
• A. Antidepressant effect
• B. Antipsychotic effect
• C. Mood-stabilizing effect
• D. Sedative effect

What is the therapeutic range for lithium in the blood?


• A. 0.5–1.5 mEq/L
• B. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
• C. 2.0–3.5 mEq/L
• D. 0.2–0.8 mEq/L

A patient on lithium therapy is experiencing increased thirst, tremors, and confusion. Which of the following could be a possible cause?
• A. Lithium toxicity
• B. Allergic reaction
• C. Dehydration or sodium imbalance
• D. Low blood pressure

Which of the following is an important nursing consideration when a patient is taking lithium?
• A. Ensure the patient increases sodium intake
• B. Monitor for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
• C. Advise the patient to avoid drinking fluids to prevent weight gain
• D. Monitor for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding

A patient who is prescribed lithium should avoid which of the following?


• A. Excessive caffeine consumption
• B. Taking antacids
• C. Increasing fluid intake during hot weather
• D. High-protein diets

Answers: CAABA
Clomipramine is classified as which type of medication?
• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
• D. Antipsychotic

Which of the following is a common side effect of clomipramine?


• A. Weight loss
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Increased energy
• D. Sedation

A nurse is educating a patient starting clomipramine for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which instruction should be emphasized?
• A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
• D. Expect a decrease in symptoms within a few days.

What is a major potential complication of clomipramine therapy?


• A. Hypertension
• B. Serotonin syndrome
• C. Tachycardia and arrhythmias
• D. Weight gain

A patient on clomipramine therapy reports blurry vision and constipation. What should the nurse consider?
• A. These are common side effects of clomipramine
• B. These symptoms indicate a drug overdose
• C. The patient should discontinue the medication immediately
• D. These symptoms suggest an allergic reaction

Answers: BBBCA
Duloxetine is commonly prescribed for which of the following conditions?
• A. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
• B. Schizophrenia
• C. Bipolar disorder
• D. Hypothyroidism

Which of the following is an important nursing consideration when a patient is prescribed duloxetine?
• A. Monitor liver function tests
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels
• C. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
• D. Advise the patient to avoid sun exposure

What is a common side effect of duloxetine therapy?


• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Nausea and dry mouth
• D. Insomnia and fatigue

A patient taking duloxetine for depression begins to experience new-onset thoughts of suicide. What is the nurse’s best action?
• A. Increase the dosage of duloxetine
• B. Encourage the patient to use relaxation techniques
• C. Report the change in mental status to the healthcare provider immediately
• D. Advise the patient to stop the medication on their own

What is a significant interaction to be aware of when a patient is taking duloxetine?


• A. It may interact with NSAIDs, increasing the risk of bleeding
• B. It should not be taken with food to enhance absorption
• C. It can cause severe sedation when taken with alcohol
• D. It interacts with warfarin to increase clotting risks

Answers: AACCA

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