QUIZ #1

Check #4, 19, 20

1. In the 17th and 18th centuries, children’s mental health problems were attributed

to ___?

a. Possession by the devil or other evil forces

b. Chemical imbalances

c. Poor parenting practices

d. Low self-esteem

2. A teenager is having a very difficult time in school. Which gland would produce

epinephrine in response to the stress they are having? …

a. Pituitary

b. Pineal

c. Adrenal

d. Cortisol

3. Which part of the brain is most responsible for responsible for regulating our

emotional experiences, expressions, and impulses?

 a. Basal ganglia

b. Hindbrain

c. Limbic system

d. Hypothalamus

4. A 7-year-old boy is considered by his caregivers as a “slow-to-warm-up child”,

who is cautious in approaching novel or challenging situations …describe his

temperament?

a. Adaptive with negative mood

b. Fearful or inhbited

c. Negative affect or irritability

d. Positive affect and approach

5. Which of the following is not a developmental task of infancy?

a. Differentiation of self from environment

b. Language

c. Forming close friendships within and across gender

d. Attachment to caregiver

6. The first disorder unique to children and adolescents was ___?

a. Masturbatory insanity

b. Moral insanity

c. Schizoid disorder
 d. Manic depression

7. Etiology refers to the ____ of childhood disorders?

a. Possible root causes

b. Various preventions

c. Various correlations

d. Possible treatments

8. A child typically enters mental health care

a. Through teachers, counselors, and parents

b. By asking for a referral from a pediatrician

c. Through the criminal justice system

d. By the actions, positive, or negative of peers

9. Children with the most chronic and serious mental disorders ____.

a. Are more likely to receive help, and therefore success in school

b. Face sizable difficulties throughout their lives

c. Do not tend to carry a psychiatric disorder into adulthood

d. Are less likely to have social problems in online venues

10. Freud was the first to link mental disorders to ____.

a. Classical conditioning

b. Neurotransmitter imbalances

c. Possession by evil spirits

 d. Early childhood experiences

11. What is an underlying assumption with regard to abnormal child behavior?

a. Abnormal development focuses on extreme or bizarre behavior

b. Abnormal development involves continuities and discontinuities

c. Abnormal development is solely determined by the child’s genetic

makeup

d. Abnormal development is solely determined by the child’s

environment

12. Which children are disproportionately affected by mental illness?

a. Those born to parents with mental health issues

b. Those who are only children

c. Those who are recent immigrants

d. Those with more than two siblings

13. A homeless girl who was physically abused when she was 5 is now a 10-year

old showing signs of “numbing” which is emotional dysregulation in the…

a. Maladaptive and will lead to a personality disorder

b. Completely maladaptive and in need of change

c. Adaptive and protective

d. Adaptive and should not be changed

14. What is the purpose of an Individualized Education Plan (IEP)?

 a. To test the child using standardized tests

b. To accurately diagnose each child’s illness against a model

c. To understand the role of family history in mental health

d. To tailor the child’s school program to his or her needs

15. John Bowlby’s research on attachement showed that a child who has a secure

attachment with a caregiver generally leads to

a. The development of a child’s positive internal working model

b. Extra neurotransmitters being released

c. Atypical development

d. An unknown outcome since that attachment is broken after 12 months

of age

16. A 3-year old girl frequently demands attention, overreacts and refuses to go to

bed. These behaviors are considered

a. Diagnosable as a clinical disorder

b. Early warning signs of future difficulties

c. Typical behavior because of her age

d. Signs of an overly sensitive child

17. A child who cannot control his temper has problems in emotional ____.

a. Reactivity

b. Deregulation
 c. Regulation

d. Sensitivity

18. What is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that reduces overall arousal and levels of

anger, hostility, and aggression?

a. Norepinephrine

b. Dopamine

c. Serotonin

d. Benzodiazepine-GABA

19. A 6-year old often appears to be in a bad mood and is easily frustrated when

given a challenging tasks. His temperament would be described as ____

a. Angry and intense

b. Fearful or inhibited

c. Positive and approach

d. Negative or irritability

20. Girls have higher rates of ___ than boys.

a. Illiteracy

b. Depression

c. ADHD TB

d. Autism

Answers
1.a (TB); 2. b (TB) ;3. C (TB); 4. B (TB discussion question 71) 5. C (TB); 6. A

(TB); 7. A (TB); 8. A (TB); 9. B (TB); 10. D (TB); 11. B (TB); 12. A (TB); 13. C

(TB); 14. D (TB); 15. A (TB); 16. C (TB); 17. C (TB); 18. D (TB); 19. D (TB

discussion question 71); 20. B (TB)

There are some questions with one or two words changed in the question, but all of

the question answers are from the test bank.

Quiz 2:

1- Which Factor has the least bearing on a clinician’s approach to

assessment diagnosis and treatment?

Gender
Age
Popularity
Culture

2-Which Psychiatric conditions is more common among female than male

teenagers?
Depressive disorders
Conduct disorder.
Autistic disorder
Intellectual disability

3 -Generalization regarding cultural practices frequently fail to capture----

-differences that exist within and across------------
Socio economical
Biological
Spiritual
Personality
 4-Analyzing information and drawing conclusions about the nature or
cause of a problem refers to
Treatment planning
Prognosis
A clinical description
Diagnosis.

5-Semi structured interviews tend to be----- than unstructured interviews:

Less reliable
Less consistent
More consistent
More spontaneous

6-A 20 month old boy loves running around and exploring the
environment but every few minutes he returns to his motheR following best
describes this behavior, according to Margaret Mahler?
Rapprochement
Secure attachment
Insecure attachment
Depressive situation

7-Which factor would NOT typically be addressed in the developmental

and family history component of the initial interview?
Parents responsibilities
Age at which child began eating solid food.
Child’s current weight
Mental history of parents and siblings

8-Which symptoms would be characteristics of the social problems of

dimension of child psychopatology?
Bullies others
Gets along with peers
Secretive
Dependent
 9-Which condition is more common among pre teen females?
Eating disorders
Depression
Enuresis
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

10-When working with children and families cultural information is most

needed to -------
Establish a relationship with the child and family
Determine whether or not to use medication.
Keep traditional practice in place
Increase cultural awareness

11-Which symptom would be characteristic of the somatic dimension of

child pasychopathology?
Low self esteem
Diarrhea
Headache
Shortness of breath

12-Which symptom would be characteristic of the withdrawn /depressed of

child psychopathology?
Cries a lot
Laughs a lot
refuses to talk
Strange ideas

13-Which condition is more common among male children?

Enuresis
Eating disorders
Depression
Feeding disorders

14-A ------ summarizes the child’s unique behaviors thoughts, and feelings
that constitute the features of a diagnosis.
Clinical presentation
Clinical list
Clinical diagnosis
Clinical evaluation
 15-The primary purpose of assessment is to
Pinpoint and treat individuals symptoms
Plan and evaluate treatment.
Find correlating causes for the problem
Determine who is responsible for the problem

16-What is a common goal of treatment for children with psychiatric

disorders?
Increased adherence to treatment over time
Reduced impact of prior undesirable outcomes
Improved outcmes inintelligence
Decrease outomes in family functioning.

17-The over representation of boys with psychiatric disorders likely

reflects ------
Referral biases
Biological deficits
Media influence
Social differences
18-Researches demonstrates that ,with respect to aggression girls……
Tend not to engage in aggressive acts
Are more aggressive than boys
Engage in more relational forms of aggression
Are more distressed by aggressive acts.

19-A child’s ------ has the most implications for judgements about deviancy
and for selecting appropriate assessment and -treatment methods--
Academic achievements
Peer group
Family history
Age

20 .Which element(s) are typically included in a patient’s clinical

description?
Intensity and severity of the problem
Treatment and referral plan
 Assessment of prior history
DSM-5 TR diagnosis.

Extra Questions:
-What factor is not immediately addressed during family interview
Childs current weight

-Component mental health to family value:

Customize treatment to family value

Quiz #3

1-A 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician because he told his mother

he wished he were dead. He has been irritable for the past several weeks and

he has been isolating himself in his room and avoiding his friends. he has been

complaint of general aches and pains as well. Which of the following

statements is he -----------------------?

This disorder is rare in children.

Somatic symptoms are common.
Questions about suicide increase self-harm behaviors
Medications are not recommended.
2-Regarding bipolar disorder, boys display-----.
Later onset than girls
More manic behaviors than girls.
More severity than girls.
More depressed mood than girls.

3-Selective mutism has been considered a symptom or a subtype of which

of the following conditions in children?
 Social phobia
Generalized anxiety disorder
Conduct disorder
Schizophrenia

4-Which of the following is LEAST likely to school refusal?

Fear of being teased or bullied
Separation anxiety disorder
Difficult with academics
Fear of being socially evaluated.

5-Common symptoms of bipolar disorder that are present in years

preceding an initial manic episode include all of the following EXCEPT
Lethargy or lack of energy
Indecisiveness
Insomnia
Diminished ability to think.

6-Children or adolescents who display numerous and persistent hypomanic

and depressive symptoms can be classified as having
Bipolar ll disorder
Bipolar l disorder
Cyclotomic disorder
Double depression
7-A 10 year old boy was started on aripiprazole which side effect this
patient most likely experience?
Increase prolactin.
Hyperglycemia
Weight gain
Akathisia
8-A 13 year old girl grunts and clear her throat several times in an hour

and her conversation is often interrupted by random shouting .She also

performs idiosyncratic motor activities such as turning her head to the right

while she shuts her eyes and opens her mouth. She can prevent these
movements for brief periods of time with Which of he following is the most

appropriate treatment for this disorder:

Individual psychodynamic
Haloperidol (Haldol) quizlet answer
Imipramine( Tofranil) ( the correct answer is a TCA and this is the only
one)
Lorazepam(ativan)
9-Which diagnosis is a child least likely to receive?
Bipolar l disorder
Major depressive disorder
Bipolar ll disorder
Cyclothymic disorder
10-Which disorder is least likely to co-occur with bipolar disorder in young
people?
Substance abuse
Anxiety disorder
Attention deficit disorder
Mental retardation

11-An 8 years old girls is brought to her pediatrician by her mother

because of ODD behavior. The mother has noticed that over the past year her
daughter ‘s arms and legs jerk wildly out of the blue. Lately her one eye has
started to blink out of sequence with the other and she began licking her lips
so frequently that they are always chapped. The mother States that as a
toddler her daughter exhibited strange behavior, like stacking a deck of
playing. States that the child is very pleasant and likable, with many friends.
Which of the following is
Haloperidol(Haldol)
Diazepam(valium)
Sertraline
Buspirone (buspar)
12-To be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, a child must
exhibit…..
As inability to control worry
Separation anxiety disorder
Perfectionism and self-critical behavior
Worry about academic performance.
 13-All the following statements regarding selective mutism are accurate

except:

The disorder typically starts between3 and 6 years of age.

The child refuses to speak In specific social situations
Educational and interpersonal functioning is impaired.
The child does not usually speak at home

14-The single best predictor of a of a child risk for major depressive

disorder is ------
Psychosocial problems
Drug use
Family history of depression
Academic problems
15- A patient diagnosed with pediatric bipolar disorder. What is the

recommended treatment for bipolar l

Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Olanzapine
Risperidone
16-Conditions and disorders often associated with adolescent suicide
include all of the following except:
Development personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder
Low intelligence.

17-Adolescents girls maybe at higher risk for depression if they have

history of …….
Interpersonal stress and lack of social support
Lower levels of testosterone and estrogen at puberty
Under average height
Longer friendship with others who are depressed
 18-The only SSRI that is currently FDA approved for the treatment of
depression in children is
Sertraline (Zoloft)
None are approved
Paroxetine (paxil)
Fluoxetine (Prozac)

19-The brain system associated with anxiety is called:

Behavioral formation system
Behavioral activation system
Behavioral inhibition system
Hypothalamic system

20 -Major depressive disorder in children is more likely to occur after he

onser of all other psychiatric disorders except for ……

Bipolar disorder

Sepatation anxiety disorder

Substance abuse

Attention deficit disorder

21-What is an example of cognitive impulsivity ?

Rushed thinking.

Interrupting a parent on the telephone

Blurting out an answer in class

 Touching a hot stove

Extra Questions:

1. what is the least appropriate regarding pediatric bipolar disorder?

- diagnosing when they initially meet criteria

2. Initial treatment for 16 year old with OCD

-sertraline 25mg

3. teen with mania, appropriate treatment

- antipsychotic and mood stabilizer (depakote & ?)

4. behavior changes, arm movements, blinking, smacking lips. 8-year-old pt

treatment

- Buspirone

6. Medication for 13-year-old. She clears her throat several times an hour, complex

motor acts, turning head right and left?

- TCA
7. Pt diagnosed with bipolar 1. most effective drug

- tolerated response

8. Teenager different time in school, which gland produces epinephrine?

- adrenal

9. a toddler is learning to make sounds like ma, pa, before learning to use
eligible language. Structure and process development otherwise known as:
-organization of development

Test #4

1)What is an example of cognitive impulsivity?

a) Rushed thinking

b) Interrupting a parent on the telephone

c) Blurting out an answer in class

d) Touching a hot stove

2)Children who are ______ often very restless and can be found running around

the class…….

a) Distractible

b) Inattentive

c) Hyperactive

d) Impulsive
 3)Which of the following is not true about ADHD-PI (predominantly

inattentive)?

a) Children with ADHD-PI are often described as aggressive and rude

b) Children with ADHD_PI have difficulties with speed of information

processing

c) Children with ADHD_PI are often described as daydreamy and drowsy

d) Research evidence suggests that children diagnosed with ADHD-PI may

actually have a completely different disorder than……

4)A teenaged boy cannot remember a phone number without jotting it down ,

he demonstrates a deficit in ______.

a) Attentional capacity

b) Selective attention’

c) Sustained attention

d) Impulsivity

5)Delinquency, in the legal sense, may result from ____, whereas a mental

disorder requires____.

a) One or two isolated acts, a persistent pattern of antisocial behaviors.

b) One or two isolated acts, several isolated acts.

c) Related acts, unrelated acts

d) A persistent pattern of antisocial behaviors, one or two isolated acts.

 6)Ineffective parenting has been found to be related to conduct problems in

___.

a) All children with conduct disorder

b) Children with conduct disorder who also display significant callous

emotional traits

c) Children with conduct disorder who also display high anxiety

d) All children regardless of age

7)When a 13 year old girl sits down to do her homework and study, she is easily

distracted by the television in another….

a) Attentional capacity

b) Selective attention

c) Attentional control

d) Sustained attention

8)At which stage would poor relationships be a common symptom of disruptive

and antisocial behavior?

a) Preschool

b) Adolescence

c) Adulthood
 d) Elementary school

9)Which statement is true regarding the relationship between conduct problems

and self-esteem?

a) Low self-esteem is a primary cause of antisocial behavior

b) The relationship between conduct problems and self-esteem only applies to

children with callous and unemotional traits

c) Conduct problems are related to an inflated, unstable, or tentative self-

esteem

d) There is no relationship between conduct problems and self-esteem

10)An adolescent girls’ parents, teachers, and probation officer met to discuss

treatment strategies for her aggressive and criminal behavior…

a) Parent skills training

b) Community intervention

c) Multisystem treatment

d) Family therapy

11)mothers of children with ADHD oftern describe their children as being ___

as infants.

a) Difficult

b) Easy

c) Overly anxious and depressed

 d) Indistinguishable from their siblings

12)When is a child with ADHD likely to display more motor activity then other

children?

a) When asked to sit still at his desk

b) While playing on the playground

c) All of the above

d) In his sleep

13)Children with ADHD display___.

a) A poor understanding of social reasoning

b) A strong ability to correctly recognize emotions in others

c) Little give-and-take in relationships with peers

d) A decrease desire for peer relationships

14) Children who engage in covert behaviors only are typically___.

a) From families that experience significant conflict

b) Aggressive as well

c) Negative, irritable, and resentful in their reactions to stressful situations

d) Less social, more anxious, and more suspicious of others

15)Recently, the symptoms that have been emphasized as the central

impairments of adhd are?

a) Inattention and difficulty regulation motor behaviors

 b) Inattention and poor moral control

c) Hyperactivity and cognitive problems

d) Difficulty inhibiting behaviors and poor self regulation

16)What neurobiological factor has been linked to conduct problems?

a) Exposure to lead

b) Paternal smoking

c) Gastrointestinal deficits

d) Domestic violence

17)Deficits in executive functions in children with conduct problems are likely

due to _____.

a) Comorbid borderline cognitive abilities

b) Poor parenting practices

c) The presence of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

d) Comorbid learning disorders

18)Children who are at increased risk for problems in academic achievement

are those who exhibit___

a) Behavioral and cognitive impulsivity

b) Behavioral impulsivity

c) Selective inattention
 d) Cognitive impulsivity

19)Violations such as running away, setting fires, skipping school, and using

drugs and alcohol are referred to as___

a) Rule breaking behaviors

b) Internalizing behaviors

c) Aggressive behaviors

d) Delinquent behaviors

20)Severe outbursts of temper come under which disorder?

a) Separation anxiety disorder

b) Disruptive moor dysregulation disorder

c) Generalized anxiety disorder

d) Panic disorder

Test 5

1) While smoking cannabis with her friends, a teenager girl begins to see

figures shaped like purple marshmallows. She is taken to the inpatient unit and
treated for psychosis discharged with the diagnosis of childhood onset

schizophrenia which of the following is considered a precursor to the diagnosis?

a) Call problems, understanding others

b) Problems with writing

c) All of the above

2) which of the following is not a disorder of chromosome abnormality?

a) Turner Syndrome

b) Fragile X syndrome

c) Hunter Syndrome

d) Down Syndrome

3)Intellectual disabilities can be best prevented by

a) Teaching parenting skills

b) Increasing early intervention services

c) Reducing maternal alcohol intake.

d) Reducing the poverty level

4) one reason that children, with intellectual disability have difficulty in social

situations is
 a) an inability to identify social rules,

b) unwillingness to respond to adults

c) inability to follow simple commands

d) a deficiency in perceptual motor activities

5) Which chronic health condition is most common among children with

intellectual disability?

a) Autistic disorder?

b) Oppositional defiant disorder

c) anxiety disorders

d) epilepsy

6) 13-year-old teenage mother never received prenatal care. She was afraid to

tell her parents about her pregnancy. This is a ______risk factor for her child

developing intellectual disabilities.

a) Biological

b) behavioral

c) medical

d) social.

7) To be diagnosed with intellectual disability, a person must exhibit ____

 a) genetic anomalies

b) deficits in adaptive functioning,

c) sub average, intellectual functioning, and deficit in adaptive functioning

d) subaverage intellectual functioning

8) After a teenage girl, agreed to go home with a male stranger the teacher

called her parents for a conference. The teenager often disrobes herself in school

because she feels hot. This teenage would be considered to have.

a) Severe intellectual disability

b) Normal hormonal disability

c) Mild intellectual disability

d) Moderate intellectual disability

9) Joint attention refers to the ability to____?

a) pay attention to the conversation that too, or other people are having

b) coordinate one’s focus of attention on another person, and an object of

mutual interest

c) communicate with two people at the same time

d) hold a conversation on two different topics

 10) Which of the following is not associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?

a) Abnormalities in facial features

b) non-teratogenic cause

c) central nervous system dysfunction.

d) Growth retardation below the 10th percentile.

11) turn with mild to moderate intellectual disability, learn, symbolic play.

a) In much the same manner as other children

b) in a different manner than other children, and only to a very small degree,

c) only to a very small degree

d) in a different manner than other children.

12) teenager was diagnosed with intellectual disability as a child. He was able

to complete a 12th grade education, and is working at Walmart as a greeter.

This teenager would be considered to have?

a) Severe intellectual disability,

b) moderate intellectual disability,

c) mild intellectual disability,

d) normal intelligence.

13) which statement about the social skills of children with autism spectrum

disorder is true?
 a) Children with ASD experience, profound difficulties, relating to others, but

only when they have below average intelligence

b) children with ASD experience, profound difficulties relating to others, but

only when they have below average intelligence……..

c) Children, ASD experience, profound difficulties relating to others, but only

when they have court, or current intellectual disabilities

d) children, with ASD experience, profound difficulties, relating to others,

even when they have average or above average intelligence

14) During pregnancy, a woman living in a large city smoke cigars and drank

beer. Every night. This is a risk factor for her child developing intellectual

disabilities.

a) Medical

b) Behavioral

c) Biological

d) Social

15) in general, children with down syndrome display.

a) Significant gains in adaptive behaviors up to age 6. followed by a less

leveling off or decline.

b) Declining IQ but increasing social skills.

 c) A surgeon ability from ages 10 to 15.

d) Progressive loss of adaptive functioning skills from birth on.

16) Sub average intellectual functioning is defined as an IQ approximately?

a) Two standard deviations below the mean.

b) A mental age of less than 10 years.

c) One standard deviation below the mean.

d) A mental age of less than 15 years.

17) angels in his room with multicolored eyes that swirl and turn to diamonds.

You recognize this ia a…….

18) which cause of intellectual disability is associated with an involuntary urge

to eat?

a) Angelman syndrome.

b) Down syndrome

c) Prader-willis syndrome.

d) Fragile X syndrome
 19) cool teacher suspects Asperger’s disease in a young boy. Which of the

following would support her concern?

a) The mother reports that he did not speak before age 3.

b) Poor learning of grammar.

c) No eyecontact during the entire interview.

d) Other teachers report that he has very few friends.

20) A school aged boy believes that he is superman and jumped from his third-

floor apartment. Considering the prevalence of childhood onset schizophrenia what

age is he?

a) 5 years old

b) 8 years old

c) 13 years old

d) 21 years old.

Quiz 6 : Chapter 13 and 14 Study guide

1. Which of the following is not associated with bulimia nervosa according to

the DSM 5 TR?

a. An extremely negative self-image

b. Average height and weight

 c. fasting to compensate for eating

d. changes in cardiac rhythm

2. _____ it's strongly associated with eating disorders.

a. Dopamine

b. norepinephrine

c. serotonin

d. glutamate

3. which of the following is thought to be a precursor to an eating disorder?

a. Having an overweight parent

b. being an underweight child

c. being an overweight child

d. being a picky eater

4. a person's belief that cultural standards for attractiveness body image and

social acceptance are closely tied to the ability to…

a. pathological eating habits

b. disturbed eating attitudes

c. American eating habits

d. third world eating patterns

5. when a child starts using alcohol before age___ there is a higher risk of

becoming dependent later in life

 a. 10

b. 15

c. 17

d. 14

6. a motivational variable underlying dieting and body image among young

females in particular whereby the individual believes that being overweight

troubles and achieving success is considered

a. a drive for thinness

b. a prelude to bulimia

c. developmental eating

d. the anorexia quotient

7. which patient should be admitted to the inpatient unit for substance use

disorder treatment

a. a 15 year old female who used ecstasy at a party with her friend two

weeks ago

b. a 17 year old male who experiences blackouts after binge drinking

every weekend

c. an 8 year old boy who took a puff of his grandfather cigar after school

and liked it

d. 13 year old girl who smokes half a joint each night for sleep
8. a child with diabetes who is subsequently depressed would be best

diagnosed with

a. dysthymia

b. an adjustment disorder

c. Somatoform disorder

d. psychological factors affecting physical condition

9. which age category is most deprived of sleep

a. adolescents

b. preschoolers

c. school aged

d. toddlers

10. a 15 year old has increased his use of alcohol over the past 12 months led to

failing the 10th grade this behavior is considered

a. substance abuse

b. substance misuse

c. substance withdrawal

d. substance dependence

11. a father reports his 10 year old son is losing significant weight as a result of

restricting their diet to cooked oatmeal because it doesn't make him gag it's

the classic definition

 a. Avoidant restrictive food intake disorder

b. Binge eating disorder

c. bulimia nervosa

d. Anorexia nervosa

12. A 7 year old boy is having trouble initiating sleep which treatment should be

recommended first?

a. Melatonin

b. behavioral modification

c. diphenhydramine (Bendryl)

d. antidepressants

13. when screening a 12 year old for eating disorder the psychiatric nurse

practitioner asked if they ever thought they were overweight which response

would require more evaluation

a. my parents think I am big for my age

b. yes I have felt overweight my entire life

c. no I have never felt overweight

d. my friends say I'm overweight

14. which of the following would most likely be used as a treatment for an

adolescent diagnosed with a substance use disorder

a. multi systemic therapy

 b. psychoanalytic therapy

c. cognitive therapy

d. peer therapy

15. the psychiatric nurse practitioner is screening a patient with new onset eating

disorder which patient would most likely be positive

a. a 20 year old whose BMI is below 95 percentile of children with the

same age and sex

b. a 15 year old whose BMI is below 15th percentile of children with the

same age and sex

c. a 17 year old whose BMI is above 75 percentile of children with the

same age and sex

d. a nine-year-old whose BMI is above 95 percentile of children with

the same age and sex

16. which of the following is not associated with binge eating according to the

DSM 5 TR?

a. Eating very quickly

b. Eating when not hungry

c. Feeling disgusted about eating

d. vomiting due to shame about eating

17. for how long would an adolescent have to show a maladaptive pattern of

substance use to be diagnosed with substance use disorder

a. one month

b. six months

c. 12 months

d. three months

18. the American Psychiatric Association Define substance abuse in terms of

a. how drunk or intoxicated a person gets after ingesting A psychoactive

substance

b. Whether or not the substance interferes with the person's life

c. which drug is used and whether it is legal or illegal

d. the type and intensity of the substance abusers biological reaction

19. which of the following is a sign of anorexia nervosa according to the DSM 5

TR?

a. Weight less than 5% of ideal body weight

b. weight significantly low

c. weight more than 15% of ideal body weight

d. weight less than 10% of ideal body weight

20. A person who is physiologically dependent on a drug while experience

a. neither tolerance or withdrawal

 b. tolerance to the effects of the drug

c. both tolerance and withdrawal

d. withdrawal symptoms if the drug is withdrawn

Answers

1. d (TB discussion question 69 or pages 492-493 in book), 2.c (TB

question 51) , 3.d (TB question 4, picky eating in young childhood is

clearly connected to the later emergence of eating disorders.) , 4. B (TB

discussion question 66), 5.d (M&W book, page 472), 6.a (TB discussion

question 66), 7.b (M&W book, pg , 8.b (TB question 28), 9. A (TB

question 14 and M&W book, p. 448, adolescents have an increased

physiological need for sleep, but many get significantly less sleep than

they did during childhood, which results in teens being chronically sleep

deprived), 10. A (M&W book p. 471 and 473), 11.A (TB question 11),

12. B (M&W book, table 13.1 insomnia disorder and p. 450), 13.b

(M&W book, p. 480), 14.A (TB question 9), 15.D 16.d (M&W book,

table 14.3), 17. C (TB question 51), 18. B (M&W book p. 470-471), 19.

B (M&W book, table 14.1 section A) , 20. C

Extra Questions:
 -What is not concerning for an eating disorder: eating 3 bigs macs and

vomiting after

DSM Criteria for Bulimia:

• Recurrent episodes of binge eating. An episode of binge eating is

characterized by both of the following:
o Eating, in a discrete period of time (e.g., within a two hour period), an
amount of food that is definitely larger than what most people would
eat during a similar period of time and under similar circumstances.
o Lack of control over eating during the episode (e.g., a feeling that you
cannot stop eating, or control what or how much you are eating).
• Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain, such
as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other
medications, fasting, or excessive exercise.
• The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors both occur, on
average, at least once a week for three months.
• Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
• Binging or purging does not occur exclusively during episodes of behavior
that would be common in those with anorexia nervosa.

DSM Criteria for Anorexia:

• Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a

significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental
trajectory and physical health
• Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even when significantly
underweight
• Disturbance about body weight or shape, undue influence of body weight or
shape on self-evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of current low body
weight.
 Quiz 1 – History of Psychotherapy: The PMHNP as a Psychotherapist

Chapter 1 and 2 Corsini

1. At the end of the PMHNP program it is expected that the NP candidate be

________ to two forms of psychotherapy.

- Competent
- Familiarize
- Introduced to
- Competent and Proficient

2. What is the focus of Peplau’s theory?

- Nurse and patient

3. The interpersonal relations model for nursing theorizes that people primarily

seek psychotherapy because of

- Depression

4. In 1952, the framework for practice for psychotherapy with inpatient and

outpatient was established by

- Hildegard Peplau

5. Which type of psychotherapy views the process of helping others understand

their thoughts?

- Psychoanalytic
- Behavioral
- Humanistic
 - Cognitive

6. Acceptance, patient, kindness, non-judgemental attitude, understanding, good

listening skills, honesty and empathy are considered

- Therapeutic milieu

7. Which of the following is the role of a master’s level psychologist?

- Psychotherapy

8. Unconconscious competency is described as

- A person who is governed by rules and regulations.

- A person who is flexible, efficient and uses intuition.
- A person who is an advanced beginner
- A person who recognizes aspects of situations and makes judgements.

9. According to Benner a learner who recognizes aspects of situations and make

judgements is considered

- Advanced beginner

10. Conscious incompetency is described as

- A person who follows no rules

- A person who is governed by rules and regulations – (Unconscious
incompetency)
- A person who recognizes aspects of situations and makes judgements.
- A person is flexible efficient and uses intuition – (Unconscious competency)
11. In Chapter 1, Raymond Corsini illustrates a change in an inmate’s life after

learning he had a
 high IQ. This story demonstrates that psychotherapy can be broadly defined as

any

- Self-concept-altering experience.

12. Hellenist physicians believed that the organ contributing to mental illness

was the

- Brain

13. The idea that similar ideas attract and strengthen one another’s ability to be

conscious is the

result of the work of

- Johann Friedrich Herbart

14. Franz Anton Mesmer is often viewed as the pioneer of

- Hypnotherapy

15. Emil Kraepelin’s work focused heavily on

- Classifications of diseases

16. The idea that nonlinear messages are systematically sent between the

unconscious and
 the conscious in human interactions was developed by

- Carl Gustav Carus

17. Jungian therapy, based on the work of Moritz Benedikt, underscores the

importance of

- Purging pathogenic secrets

18. Neurosciences suggest that elective psychotherapy leads to changes at the

- Neuronal level

19. The expression of certain genes that result from their activation by specific

but common

environmental events is referred to as

- Epigenetics

20. Research suggests that interpersonal psychotherapy is effective in treating

___________.

- Depression

Test Bank from Quiz 1

 1) In contrast to therapy offered according to classic psychoanalytical theory,

newer

approaches focus less on childhood sexuality and more on

- attachment.

2) Freud’s developmental theories differ from Erickson’s in that Freud placed

greater emphasis on which of the following?

a)Psychosexual development (Quizlet)

b) cultural factors

c) interpersonal relations

d)object relations

3)The expression of certain genes that result from their activation by specific

but common environmental

a)psychiker

b)neuronal decay

c)somatiker

d) epigenetics (Quizlet)

4)Psychoanalytic therapists view the therapeutic relationships as

a) the vehicle for change (quizlet)

 b)irrelevant to the process

c)solely defined by the patient

d)secondary to the theory

5) In reference to her boyfriend, a young woman states I shouldn’t see him

anymore, I’m falling for him and I don’t want to get hurt. You explain the concepts

of the parent, adult and child…states that people have…of the following what

therapy are you practicing.

- Psycho family therapy

- Transactional analysis

- Person centered

- Psychoanalytic therapy

6) Pope and Wedding would argue that in deciding to use psychotropic

medications.

a)immediate early genes are irrelevant

b)preset clinical objectives need to be determined (quizlet)

c)psychotherapy’s common factors are undermined

d)psychotherapy has occurred if patients suffering has been alleviated

 7) A 2-year-old girl is being toilet trained by her parents. Each time she

soils her diaper, she is told that she is a very bad girl and she is punished

by having a toy taken away. When she uses the toilet appropriately, she is

not praised by her parents. Which of the following sequelae is the child

most likely to experience as a result of this kind of parental behavior?

a)guilt

b)mistrust

c)shame and doubt (QUIZLET)

d)stagnation of development

8)Franz Anton Mesmer is often viewed as the pioneer of

a)behavioral intervention

b)hypnotherapy (quizlet)

c)free association

d)manualized therapy

9) Acceptance, patient, kindness, non-judgemental attitude, understanding,

good listening skills, honesty and empathy are considered

a)the therapeutic alliance

b) the therapeutic milieu (Quizlet)

c)the healing presence

d)a therapeutic environment

10)From a contemporary psychoanalytic, the most fundamental intervention is

a)empathy (Quizlet)

b)resolution of intrapsychic conflicts

c)strengthening the superego

d)breaking down defenses

11) . A 45-year-old man is diagnosed as having diabetes and will require

insulin. His physician explains the use of the medication and tells the

patient that he will need to be seen at frequent intervals until his glucose

levels come under good control. The patient has always been somewhat

hostile with the physician, but upon hearing this news, he says angrily,

“You doctors are always the same! You always want control––of my time, of

my money, and now of my every action!” As far as the physician knows,

this patient has never had an unpleasant encounter with a physician before.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient’s reaction

to his doctor?
 a. The patient is becoming delusional.

bxx. The patient is experiencing transference to this authority figure. b

c. The patient is splitting.

d. The patient is becoming manic.

e. The patient is anticipating being rejected by his physician.

12)Emil Kraepelin’s work focused heavily on

a)use of hypnosis

b)classifications of diseases Quizlet

c)surgical approaches to mental illness

d)multicultural variants of illness

13) A psychiatric nurse practitioner becomes sexually attracted to her female

client who reminds her of an ex lover. This is called.

a)assault

b)erotic delusions

c)transference (Quizlet)

d)countertransference
 14)Herman von Helmholtz described the unconscious reconstruction of what

our past taught us about an object as

a)Psychic stimulation

b)cognitive discovery

c)restructuring objects

d)unconscious inference Quizlet

15)Psychoanalytic theory would assert that the behavior of a newborn is

dominantly controlled by

a) collective unconscious

b)secondary process

c)reaction formation

d)primary process Quizlet

16)Psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner’s candidates can sit for the

following exams

a)family PMHNP

b)child or adult PMHNP

c)acute PMHNP

d)Adult or family PMHNP

 17)Jung described emotionally charged ideas that were repressed because they

were too emotionally threatening as.

a) egos

b) complexes Quizlet

c)shadows

d)libidos

18)What is the focus of Peplau’s theory?

a)the therapist and the patient

b)the therapist and the brain

c) the patient and their mother

d)the nurse and the patient Quizlet

19)At the end of the PMHNP program, it is expected the PMHNP candidate

will be ____ two forms of psychotherapy

a)proficient in

b)introduced to

c)competent in quizlet

d)familiarize with
Quiz 2

Quiz #2 Test Bank

1. In structural therapy, Minuchin uses family mapping to examine.

a. Patterns of relating in the family
b. Age and relation of family members
c. Where the family originated
d. Occupations of family members.
2. The first therapist to treat families as a unit was
a. Harry stack Sullivan

b. Alfred Adler

c. Anna Freud

d. Nathan Åkerman

3. From the family therapy perspective, any case may be seen as an effect of a
previous cause and, in turn, the cause of a later event. This is the essence of:
a. pseudohostility

b. linear causality

c. circular causality
 d. homeostasis

4. In family therapy, the family member considered to be the problem in the

family is called the?
a. Defuser

b. identified patient

c. help seeker

d. client.

5. All of the following are associated with structural family therapy, except
a. breaking down hierarchies

b. assigning homework tasks

c. challenging rigid boundaries

d. challenging absent boundaries.

6. Which family systems therapist used straight forward tasks in his therapeutic
approach? a. Whitaker
b. Bowen

c. Minuchin

d. Haley.?????

7. The term ______is used to describe a false sense of family closeness, in

which the family gives the appearance of taking part in a mutual, open, and
understanding relationship without really doing so.
a. Redundancy principle

b. mystification

c. pseudohostility

d. pseudomutuality
8. Which of these therapists is most likely to rearrange the seating of family
members?
A. Ackerman. b Haley c. Bowen d. Minuchin

9. ______are invisible lines that separate a system, a subsystem, or an

individual from outside surroundings.
a. Cybernetics

b. Feedback loops

c. Boundaries

d. Genograms

10. The mother of a teenager experiences severe manic episodes, creating a

condition within the family that is called.
a. a marital schism

b. a pseudomutuality

c. a double bind

d. a marital skew

11. Psychoeducational approaches to family therapy can best be described as

a. psychotherapy?????

b. authoritarian

c. teaching

d. supervisory
 12. According to structural family systems therapy, boundaries that are
permeable tend to describe relationships in disengaged families.
a. disengaged families

b. enmeshed families

c. single parent families

d. divorced families

Quiz 2

A 70 year old woman is admitted to the hospital after a fall in which she broke

her left hip She is a difficult patient during her rehabilitation phase, passively

resistant attempts to get her up and walking contending that it does not matter

whether she regains her capacity to walk on her own since she is so advanced in

age. She states that while she is fearful of dying, she feels disgust at her own body

because it is “falling apart “According to Erickson which of the following is this.

Most likely working through?

Intimacy vs isolation
 Identity vs role confusion

Generative vs stagnation

Integrity vs despair j quizlet

The psychology theory created by Carl Jung is termed:

Complex psychology

Analytical psychology j quizlet

Individual psychology

Psychodynamic psychology

Freud’s development theories differ from Erickson’s in that Freud placed

greater emphasis on which of the following?

Interpersonal relations

Object relations

Cultural factors

Psychosexual development j Indira

 ?After 3 months of therapy she tells the psychiatric nurse practitioner that she is

very –afraid of him because

He is so angry and every time she behaves aa if it is true the psychiatric nurse

practitioner will explode with rage at any minute,T he PMHNP is not normally

seen as an angry person toward the patient. Which of the following defense

mechanism is this patient likely displaying?

Distortion j

Projection answer from the PMHNP?????

Blocking

Dissociation

A 25-year-old woman sees a psychiatrist for a chief complaint of having a

depressed mood for her “entire life.” She begins psychotherapy and sees the

physician once per week.

After 3 months of therapy, she tells the psychiatrist that she is very afraid of

him because he is “so angry all the time.” She behaves as if this is true and that the

psychiatrist will explode with rage at any minute. The psychiatrist is not normally

seen as an angry person and is unaware of any anger toward the patient. Which of

the following defense mechanisms is this patient likely displaying? a. Distortion b.

Blocking c. Isolation d. Projection e. Dissociation

 From questions PMHNP

Joan becomes agitated with her psychoanalyst’s interpretation perceiving the

comments as judgmental, which reminds her of interactions with her father. This is

known as.

Transference quizlet answer j

Resistance

Autoeroticism

Regression

A patient in psychodynamic therapy has been coming late to the last few

sessions and complaining in the session that he has nothing to talk about. His

therapist point of that up until several weeks ago they were making very rapid

progress into uncovering some of the difficult thoughts and feelings the patient had

about his parents. What therapeutic Principle best exemplifies the recent changes in

the patient’s behavior?

Transference
 Abreaction

Countertransference

Resistance j

John Bowlby theorized that infants develop early representation of attachment

figures and referred to these representation as

Internal working models j

Self psychology\

Transitional objects

Projective identification

8-a patient perceives his psychotherapist as wise, caring and helpful. During his

session ,he talks at length about his warm feelings toward the therapist. Which of

the following is the most appropriate next step the psychotherapist should take?

Ask the patient to explore related feelings he has about the topic j quiz;et

Tell the patient that he does not really feel this way—he is experiencing

transference
 Tell the patient that these feelings are not helpful in the service of the therapy

Tell the patient that his positive feelings cannot be reciprocated.

9- A young man gets into an argument with his teacher. Although he is very

upset he remains silent as she chastises him severely and calls him a failure as a

student. Once he gets home from school, the young man picks a fight with his

younger brother over nothing and begins screaming at him.

Projection

Introjection

Displacement

Reaction formation

10-The shift in psychoanalytic therapies from a one versus two persons

psychology refers to the emphasis psychoanalytical therapy places on

Mutual influence of therapist and patient in therapy.

Couples counseling to address distress

The role of family in development of pathology

Transference and countertransference

 Ericksons, developmental theories differ from Floyds in the Ericson placed

greater emphasis on which of the following?

Object relations,

psychosexual development,

interpersonal relations

instinctual drives.

A psychiatric nurse practitioner with a very busy practice, feel satisfied and

fulfilled when she can make a difference in the lives of her patients. Which of the

following defense mechanisms is being used?

Sublimation,

Reaction formation,

idealization,

altruism.

A man attends three sessions per week with his PMHNP. During each session

he begins to talk, saying whatever comes to his mind. Occasionally, the patient
relates to dreams that he remembers from the previous night. The PMHNP remain

silent for the majority of the session, asking only about details to clarify what the

patient says. This is an example of which of the following types of therapy?

Cognitive therapy,

Psychodream therapy.

Supportive psychotherapy,

Psychoanalysis

Psychoanalytic therapist view the therapeutic relation as.

Secondary to the theory.

Irrelevant to the process.

Solely defined by the patient.

The vehicle for change.

Several variations on psychoanalytic theory have emerged. The theorist who

emphasized the internal representations one makes of others was.

Melanie Klein.

Albert Ellis.

Margaret Mahler.

Anna Freud.
 Psychoanalytical therapies rely heavily on therapists, providing clients with

ways to become aware of aspects of their intra-psychic experiences that have

previously been unconscious. In other words, they rely on?

Reconstructions.

Interpretations.

Enactments.

Confrontations.

From a contemporary, psychoanalytic perspective, the most fundamental

intervention is? Strengthening the super ego.

Breaking down defenses.

Resolution of intrapsychic conflicts.

Empathy.

Freud’s early view of hysteria describe the symptoms as resulting from.

Behaviors learned early in childhood from the role models.

Hypnotic states for which the patient lacked awareness.

Suppressed emotions connected with painful experiences.

An unresolvable sense of social inferiority

 Every time Charles feels insecure in his relationship with Megan, he accuses

Megan of being insecure. This is an example of?

Reaction formation.

Projection.

Intellectualization.

Splitting.

A patient starts complaining of chest pain and coughing whenever her therapist

confronts her. She insists, however, that she is not at all distressed are angry.

Identify the defense mechanism:

Displacement

Sublimation

Projection

Somatization

Quizlet Questions Family therapy:

 In the view of family therapists with a functional outlook the appearance of

symptoms in a family member serves as a:

a. sign of illness in the family.

b. family stabilizing device.

c. manifestation of genetic predispositions.

d. None of the answers are correct.

According to the text, the major credit for applying cybernetic principles to

human communication belongs to:

a. Wiener.

b. Haley.

c. Bateson.

d. Sluzki.

The risk of not growing up in an intact family:

a. is a new phenomenon first appearing in the second half of the 20th century.

b. is largely the result of teenage pregnancies.

c. has been part of American life for a long period of time.

d. is largely the result of widespread adoptions by single women.

 Epistemology refers to:

a. the practice of family therapy rather than individual therapy.

b. none of the answers are correct.

c. the anthropological investigation of tribal family customs.

d. rules for gaining knowledge and drawing conclusions about the world.

The family therapist who joins a family and engages in a dialogue rather than

observing from outside is probably an advocate of:

a. first-order cybernetics

b. neither first-order nor second-order cybernetics.

c. second-order cybernetics

d. both first-order and second-order cybernetics.

A family's influence over its members is likely to cease upon:

a. physical separation by large distances.

b. death of the patriarch.

c. none of the answers are correct.

d. death of the matriarch.

 A central idea in family psychology is:

a. psychopathology

b. intrapsychic organization.

c. determining who in the family is most in need of therapy.

d. circular causality.

Systems-oriented clinicians are most interested in:

a. the process that is taking place within a family.

b. why problematic behavior has arisen

c. family history.

d. the content of the family's problems.

The "identified patient" is the person in the family who:

a. may be expressing family disequilibrium

b. manifests the disturbed behavior

c. All of the answers are correct.

d. initially seeks or is sent for treatment

Reciprocal determinism refers to:

a. linear causality
b. None of the answers are correct.

c. adopting a relationship outlook.

d. attending to content rather than process.

Which of the following constitutes a horizontal stressor

a. Birth of a handicapped child

b. Family secrets

c. Ethnic loyalties

d. Family expectations

Most of today's immigrants to the United States come from:

a. Western Europe.

b. Europe and Asia.

c. Eastern Europe

d. Asia and Latin America

A young adult's primary developmental task is:

a. realigning relationships with extended families

b. becoming a parent.
c. separating from one's parents without cutting off from them.

d. finding a suitable mate

According to the authors, the most significant milestone in a family's life cycle

is usually:

a. choosing a career

b. the arrival of children.

c. deciding on a life style.

d. deciding to marry.

Developmental tasks:

a. always impede family functioning.

b. occur at all stages of the life cycle.

c. always involve children.

d. rarely involve family conflict.

Family stage markers are events in a family's life that:

a. None of the answers are correct.

b. mark the close of the childbearing years.

c. differentiate one stage of life from the next.

d. demand a new adaptation.

Which of the following is not true?

a. There are 12 to 15 million children living with gay or lesbian parents in the US

b. Gay and lesbian families are as diverse as heterosexual families

c. Gay adults are less fit parents than straight adults

d. Lesbian women do not differ from heterosexual women in their child rearing

practices?

An example of a vertical stressor is:

a. precocious physical development in a child.

b. dealing with family transitions.

c. a family coping with changes over time

d. attitudes passing down over generations.

Family therapists with a transgenerational view:

a. are less interested in a family's "stuck" places than are the social constructionists.

b. attend to a family's intergenerational issues.

c. reject the notion of therapist as outside expert.

d. are sometimes referred to as structuralists.

Any generalizations in the family life cycle model should be seen within the

context of what?

a. Marital status

b. Developmental stage

c. Class, culture, and historical period

d. Sexual orientation?

Gender-sensitive family therapy emphasizes:

a. multicultural considerations.

b. All of the answers are correct.

c. overcoming sex-role stereotyping.

d. blurring differences between men and women.

Feminist-informed therapists are especially critical of:

a. feminist family therapy.

b. the viewpoint of men's studies.

c. the view that feeling is less mature than thinking.

d. gender analysis.

Men's studies draw attention to:

a. female role restrictions.

b. gender blindness toward women but not men.

c. curtailed emotional expressiveness in men.

d. remarriage rates in men and women.

The Women's Project in Family Therapy:

a. helped introduce a feminist perspective to the field of family therapy.

b. addressed conditions that help shape women's experiences.

c. All of the answers are correct.

d. stressed the influence of gender on relationship patterns throughout a woman's

life.

In working with acculturational and adaptational issues with immigrant

families, therapists need to take care to distinguish between:

a. Recently arrived immigrant families.

b. Immigrant descendent families.

c. Immigrant American families.

d. All of the answers are correct.

Women are especially vulnerable if divorced later in life because of:

a. their embeddedness in relationships.

b. their lifelong subordination of achievement to caring for others.

c. All of the answers are correct.

d. their orientation toward interdependence.

According to Gilligan, women are more apt than men to:

a. appreciate the value of isolation.

b. define themselves within the context of relationships.

c. strive for positions of power in relationships.

d. view nurturing as a sign of weakness.

Feminists are critical of the cybernetic concept of circular causality in male-

female relationships because of the implication of:

a. flawed family structures.

b. unequal power and control.

c. family dysfunction.

d. equal power and control.

One goal of gender-sensitive family therapy is to:

a. reduce nonsexist thinking.

b. eliminate all differences between men and women.

c. enable clients to move beyond prescribed sex roles.

d. empower women but not men.

When therapists are concerned about this, they assert that practitioners need

professional competencies to work toward universal access to justice and equity for

marginalized individuals and groups.

a. Family violence

b. Social justice

c. None of these answers are correct.

d. Both social justice and family violence

General systems theory is considered by the authors to:

a. provide the underpinning for much of family therapy theory.

b. arise from research at the Mental Research Institute.

c. be interchangeable with cybernetic theory

d. be too narrow a concept because of its specific references to feedback

mechanisms.

Returned information regarding the consequences of an event is called:

a. feedback.

b. negative information processing

c. positive feedback

d. negative feedback

The way a family organizes and maintains itself at any given time refers to its:

a. power.

b. general systems theory.

c. structure

d. processes.

Homeostasis refers to:

a. roles within a family being assigned according to traditional sex roles

b. the inclination of a system to maintain a dynamic equilibrium around a

central tendency.
c. the tendency within a family for persons of the same sex to band together.

d. None of the answers are correct

Another name for an amplifying loop is:

a. alternating positive and negative feedback.

b. None of the answers are correct.

c. positive feedback

d. negative feedback.

By marital quid pro quo, Jackson was referring to:

a. role overload

b. All of the answers are correct.

c. discontinuous changes in the family life cycle.

d. an exchange of benefits between marital partners.

A systems perspective:

a. supports linear explanations of behavior.

b. emphasizes S-R connections

c. stresses wholeness or unity.

d. views component parts as greater than the whole.

 According to the text, which subsystem is most basic in a family?

a. All are equally basic

b. Sibling

c. Parental

d. Spousal

Negative and positive feedback loops are:

a. good and bad respectively.

b. neither intrinsically good or bad.

c. invariably destabilizing.

d. bad and good respectively.

One current trend in family psychology is the emphasis on:

a. None of the answers are correct.

b. an ecosystemic analysis.

c. systems theory.

d. first order cybernetics.

 The view that there are multiple versions of reality within a family comes from

the:

a. constructionists.

b. first-order cyberneticists.

c. object relations theorists.

d. psychoanalysts.

Wynne's concept of a rubber fence refers to:

a. shifting boundaries around a family.

b. easy access to a psychiatric hospital.

c. closed family systems.

d. locked hospital wards.

Outcome research in family therapy is moving in the direction of:

a. studies of marital skew.

b. process studies.

c. studies of marital schism.

d. evidence-based practice.
 "Family therapy may be hazardous to your health." This statement points to the

fact that:

a. what most benefits the family as a whole may not be best for each member.

b. symptoms may develop in the course of treatment.

c. stress may accompany participation.

d. smoking is rarely allowed during therapy sessions.

Which of the following models of family interaction is based largely on the

psychoanalytic model?

a. Behavioral

b. Psychodynamic

c. Communication

d. Structural

The family therapy approach that comes closest to classical psychoanalytic

theory is that offered by:

a. Ackerman.

b. Framo.

c. Kohut.

d. Scharff.
 Object Relations Family Therapy emphasizes the basic human need for:

a. sexual gratification.

b. attachment.

c. experiences.

d. the release of aggression

One goal in Family Systems Therapy is for each family member to:

a. maximize attachments to the family of origin.

b. maximize self-differentiation.

c. maximize fusion.

d. minimize future contact with each other.

Genograms helps shed light on:

a. a family's multigenerational relationship patterns.

b. how many generations currently live together.

c. family enmeshments and disengagements.

d. None of the answers are correct.

 Describe how enactments contribute to change in structural family therapy.

a. Clear communication reduces family dysfunction.

b. Individual symptoms are rooted in the context of family transaction

patterns

c. Troubled marriages usually contain pathogenic introjects from past relationships.

d. Family therapy is a group encounter emphasizing growth.

One objective of structural interventions is for the psychosomatic family to

achieve:

a. clearer boundaries

b. greater enmeshment.

c. more rule-governed interactions

d. greater disengagement

Structural Family Therapy is:

a. geared to past obligations.

b. based on insight preceding action.

c. primarily concerned with pathological families.

d. concerned with the context of family structures.

 An adolescent girl and her parents agree, after a series of family therapy

sessions, that they will not argue anymore. This is an example of a:

a. second-order change.

b. simple cybernetic change.

c. first-order change.

d. complex cybernetic change.

Postmodern therapists attend particularly to a family's:

a. flawed interactive patterns.

b. dysfunctional structure.

c. assumptions regarding their problems.

d. "dirty games."

Which type of family therapist is least likely to speculate on the origin of the

problem?

a. Relational psychoanalysts

b. Object relations psychoanalysts

c. Behavior therapists

d. Intersubectivists
 Cognitive-behavioral family therapists rely, for assessment purposes, on:

a. observable behavior.

b. underlying causal agents inside family members.

c. All of the answers are correct.

d. projective techniques.

Functional family therapy has been shown to be effective in dealing with:

a. psychotic behavior.

b. marital conflict

c. adolescent at-risk behavior.

d. sexual problems.

Quiz #3

Chapter 6

1 : Behavioral theory is rooted in

A : empiricism. B: psychodynamics. C: humanism. D: eclecticism.

 Correct Answer : A

2 : A behavioral therapist focuses on the antecedents and consequences

associated with a behavior. Which approach is the therapist utilizing?

A : Mindfulness B : Cognitive defusion C : Functional analysis D : Vicarious

learning

Correct Answer : C

3 : The social-cognitive theory (previously referred to as social learning)

suggests that

A : one must uncover hypothesized hidden motives for behavior.

B : identification of defense mechanisms a person utilizes is crucial.

C : cognitions can be measured through assessment of personality

characteristics.

D : individuals learn through watching the behavior of others.

Correct Answer : D

4 : Behaviorists view abnormal behavior as

A : psychopathological. B : physiologically based illnesses. C : governed by

rules of learning.
 D : the result of unconscious conflict.

Correct Answer : C

5 : Behavioral approaches considered part of the Third Wave include

A : rational emotive therapy. B : cognitive therapy. C : dialectical behavioral

therapy.

D : multimodal therapy.

Correct Answer : C

6 : When individuals attempt to evade negative or distressing private

experiences, ACT therapists would call this

A : cognitive defusion. B : deflection. C : minimization. D : experiential

avoidance.

Correct Answer : D

7 the first figure linked with the rise of behaviorism in the United States in the

early 1900s was?

A : J. Wolpe. B : I. Pavlov. C : H. J. Eysenck. D : J. B. Watson.

Correct Answer : D
 8 : When the Society of Clinical Psychology of the American Psychological

Association developed a list of the most efficacious, empirically based treatment

approaches, which therapy approach dominated the list?

A : Psychoanalytic B : Analytical C : Behavioral or cognitive behavioral D :

Family systems

Correct Answer : C

9 : Behavioral therapy often leads to improvements in areas of functioning that

were not directly targeted in treatment. This is known as

A : desensitization. B : cognitive defusion. C : symptom substitution. D :

generalization.

Correct Answer : D

10 : The development of systematic desensitization is credited to

A : J. Wolpe. B : M. C. Jones. C : A. A. Lazarus. D : A. Bandura.

Correct Answer : A

11 : One of the only early behavior theorists to use a trait theory of personality

was

A : B. F. Skinner. B : H. Eysenck. C : J. Wolpe. D : A. Bandura.

 Correct Answer : B

12 : Which of the following represents one of the personality dimensions of the

five-factor model?

A : Reactive. B : Recklessness. C : Extraversion. D : Passivity

Correct Answer : C

13 : A US is typically a stimulus that naturally causes a characteristic response

known as

B : unconditioned response. C : unconditioned stimulus. D : conditioned

response.

Correct Answer : B

14 : Classical conditioning is viewed as the pairing of conditioned stimuli with

unconditioned stimuli and the process of learning

A : punishment follows the conditioned stimuli.

B : reinforcement follows the unconditioned stimuli.

C : correlational or contingent relationships are present.

D : a relationship does not exist between stimuli.

Correct Answer : C
 15 : A positive reinforcer should affect behavior by

A : generally strengthening it. B : suppressing it in most situations. C :

completely eliminating it. D : indirectly relating it to a CS.

Correct Answer : A

16 : Avoidance of an event that produces anxiety is

A : positively reinforcing. B : negatively reinforcing. C : stimulus control. D :

punishing.

Correct Answer : B

17 : Which of the following training types involves using strategies for reducing

the effects of anxiety and stress on the body?

A : Relaxation training B : Activity scheduling C : Problem-solving training D

: Social skill training

Correct Answer : A

18 : The acquisition of new knowledge and behavior by observing other people

and events is called

A : vicarious learning. B : classical condition. C : stimulus control. D :

operant conditioning.
 Correct Answer : A

19 : What refers to a behavior that stops occurring because it is no longer

followed by a positive consequence?

A : Reinforcement C : Extinction. D : Generalization

Correct Answer : C

20 : Which of the following statements is NOT considered in context with the

emotional-processing theory?

A : A stimulus component B : A response component C : A meaning component

D : Monitoring forms and diaries

Correct Answer : D

21 : In contrast to psychoanalysts, behavior therapists are

A : less genuine. B : less disclosing. C : past-oriented. D : more directive.

Correct Answer : D

22 : In behavioral therapy, the goals are ultimately set by the

A : diagnosis. B : family. C : client. D : therapist.

Correct Answer : C
 23 : In an initial assessment, which of the following factors would be LEAST

important in establishing a treatment plan?

A : Coping skills the client maintains B : Current reinforcement contingencies

C : Clients perception of the problem D : Early childhood experiences

Correct Answer : D

24 : Behavioral assessment usually relies on multiple methods such as

A : family members. B : self-report symptom measures. C : school. D :

therapists office.

Correct Answer : B

25 : Which of the following techniques would a behavioral therapist be LEAST

likely to use?

A : Self-report scales B : Free association C : Behavioral interviews D :

Monitoring forms and diaries

Correct Answer : B

26 : Which of the following assessment techniques would yield the best

functional analysis for a behavioral therapist?

 A : Direct behavioral observation B : Minnesota Multiphasic Personality

Inventory-2 C : Beck Depression Inventory-II. D : Projective tests

Correct Answer : A

27 : Exposure therapy primarily involves

A : immediately confronting a client with an intense anxiety situation.

B : incrementally exposing a client to anxiety-producing stimuli.

C : modeling for the client how to substitute assertive behavior for anxiety.

D : using an unpleasant consequence such as shock when anxiety is

experienced.

Correct Answer : B

28 : Exposure therapy that involves purposely inducing physical sensations in

the body is known as.

A : imaginal exposure. B : interoceptive exposure. C : reorientation therapy. D :

marginal conditioning.

Correct Answer : B

29 : Treatment targets may include

 A : behavioral deficits. B : functional analysis. C : eye contact. D : analog

observation.

Correct Answer : A

30 : A significant challenge to overcome when conducting behavioral

observations is

A : reactivity. B : unconsciousness. C : prejudice. D : intellectualization.

Correct Answer : A

31 : A research design that begins with a baseline period followed by an

intervention followed by withdrawal of the intervention with possible later

reintroduction is known as

A : a manual-based approach. B : actuarial judgment. C : reversal design. D :

single case study. Correct Answer : C

32 : Problem-solving training is designed to help people solve problems

systematically by teaching them five core steps. Which of the following steps

involves examining the costs and benefits of each solution generated in identifying

possible solutions?
 A : Choose the best solution. B : Define the problems. C : Evaluate the

solutions.

D : Implementation

Correct Answer : C

33 : Which of the following is a core feature of behavioral activation?

A : Social skill training. B : Activity scheduling. C : Problem-solving training.

D : Modeling

Correct Answer : B

34 : Behaviorists recommend that treatment outcome be assessed through

A : multiple projective and objective techniques. B : subjective measures

completed by the client. C : only therapists ratings of success. D : multiple,

objective and subjective measures.

Correct Answer : D

FILL IN THE BLANK

35 : _______________ is a reinforcement-based strategy in which the clients

environment is changed so that unwanted behaviors are no longer reinforced.

Correct Answer : Contingency management

 36 : A therapist attempts to assist a patient with anorexia nervosa by

encouraging her to face her anxieties about eating directly. This approach is

consistent with the ACT concept of addressing _______.

Correct Answer : experiential avoidance

37 : Dialectical behavioral therapy focuses on the balance between _________

and _______

.Correct Answer : behavior change; acceptance

38 : By pairing a US and a CS, a person (or animal) comes to expect the

occurrence of the US whenever exposed to the CS and eventually develops a

____________________when encountering the CS alone.

Correct Answer : conditioned response

39 : _______ is usually associated with the development of systematic

desensitization.

Correct Answer : Joseph Wolpe

 40 : Some behaviorists reject theories of personality, but others recognize that

the data regarding traits is convincing. An example of a model that many

behaviorists might accept is Costa and McCraes _____________ model.

Correct Answer : five-factor

41 : In order to help a patient quit smoking, a therapist asks the patient to record

what he or she was doing before smoking and how he or she feels afterward. This

is an example of using a_______ technique.

Correct Answer : self-monitoring

42 : In the treatment of anxiety disorders, _______ techniques are often used,

such as diaphragmatic breathing.

Correct Answer : relaxation

43 : To treat a patient with a phobia, a therapist helps the patient develop a

hierarchy of anxiety-producing situations and then helps the patient face those

situations. This is termed _______.

Correct Answer : systematic desensitization

 44 : Another term for a punishment-based strategy such as giving a patient with

alcoholism Antabuse so he vomits if he drinks is _______.

Correct Answer : aversive conditioning

Chapter 7

1 : The theory behind cognitive therapy asserts that

A : unconscious conflicts from childhood lead to pathology. B : all

psychopathology results from cognitive distortions. C : thoughts precede and

determine emotions and behavior. D : altering thoughts influences feelings,

motivations, and behaviors.

Correct Answer : D

2 : Structures that contain an individuals core beliefs and assumptions are

labeled

A : automatic thoughts. B : cognitive distortions. C : cognitive schemas.

D : voluntary thoughts.

Correct Answer : C
 3 : When an individual is predisposed under stress to misinterpret information

in a biased fashion, cognitive theory would state that the individual is exhibiting a

A : cognitive vulnerability. B : primal mode. C : cognitive profile. D :

sociotropic personality.

Correct Answer : A

4 : The original Beck Depression Inventory was first developed in the year

A : 1996. B : 1961. C : 1974. D : 1990

Correct Answer : B

5 : Primal modes refer to modes that are

A : developed before age five to six. B : universal and related to survival. C :

necessary for human relating. D : triggered by misperceptions.

Correct Answer : B

6 : Collaborative empiricism assumes the patient can play the role of a

A : practical scientist. B : therapist for their family. C : verbal debater. D :

computer analyst. Correct Answer : A

7 : Guided discovery refers to the process by which a therapist ?????

 A: serves as a guide to clarify problem behaviors and thoughts.

B : assists a patient to resolve unconscious conflicts. C : confronts and

persuades patients to change thoughts. D : guides an exploration of a patients

dreams and fantasies.

Correct Answer : A

8 : Which of the following would create the most significant change in a

dysfunctional mode for a patient?

A : Altering automatic thoughts. B : Providing reassurance and empathy. C :

Teaching distraction and relaxation techniques D : Modifying core beliefs

Correct Answer : D

9 : Cognitive and psychodynamic therapies are similar in that both theorize that

A : meanings behind behavior are readily accessible to conscious interpretation.

B : behavior can be influenced by beliefs one is not immediately aware of. C : a

patients self-report is a screen for more deeply concealed ideas. D : therapy should

be highly structured, directive, and short term.

 Correct Answer : B

10 : In contrast to rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT), cognitive

therapists hypothesize that

A : problems in cognitive processing are philosophical. B : similar irrational

beliefs underlie all psychopathology. C : beliefs are categorized as rational or

irrational. D : each mental disorder has its specific cognitive content.

Correct Answer : D

11 : A cognitive therapist will label a nonadaptive thought as

A : irrational. B : unconscious. C : dysfunctional. D : pathological.

Correct Answer : C

12 : Becks work has generated a number of assessment scales for the use of

_________.

A : psychologists. B : personality therapists. C : patients. D : cognitive-

behavior therapists

Correct Answer : A
 13 : In contrast to Albert Ellis, who confronted patients about their beliefs,

Aaron Becks approach was

A : more collaborative. B : nondirective. D : focused on irrational beliefs.

Correct Answer : A

14 : Which of the following was NOT a primary influence on the theory behind

cognitive therapy?

A : Phenomenological psychology. B : Structural theory. C : Computer

technology. D : Cognitive psychology

Correct Answer : C

15 : Research on depression in the 1960s, which served as the foundation of

cognitive therapy, was conducted by

A : Albert Bandura. B : Aaron Beck. C : Albert Ellis. D : Donald

Meichenbaum.

Correct Answer : B

16 : The cognitive model of depression postulates three specific concepts. They

are
 A : depression, anxiety, and neuroticism. B : congruence, empathy, and

unconditional positive regard. C : cognitive triad, schemas, and cognitive errors.

D : irrationality, rationality, and musturbation.

Correct Answer : C

17 : Studies comparing the efficacy of cognitive therapy versus medication for

depression have found that cognitive therapy

A : is not as effective as medication. B : is superior or equal to medication. C :

has lower long-term effects. D : does not reduce suicidal ideation.

Correct Answer : B

18 : Which of the following events is considered a primary indicator of

potential suicidal behavior?

A : Hopelessness or a belief that things cannot improve B : Financial crisis. C :

Living with chronic pain or disability. D : Talking about death or suicide

Correct Answer : A

19 : Becks research suggests that suicide risk is associated with

A : hopelessness. B : personalization. C : infantile sexuality.

Correct Answer :A
 20 : Two personality dimensions, or modes of behavior, that Beck hypothesized

were related to depression are

A : introversion and extraversion. .B : sociotropy and autonomy. C :

neuroticism and psychoticism. D : stability and instability.

Correct Answer : B

21 : A cognitive distortion refers to

A : lying to protect ones self-image. B : distortion of past memories. C : a

systematic error in reasoning. D : drug-induced shifts in beliefs.

Correct Answer : C

22 : Drawing a specific conclusion without supporting evidence, or even in the

face of contradictory evidence, is defined as

A : dichotomous thinking. B : magnification. C : personalization. D : arbitrary

inference.

Correct Answer : D

23 : Attributing external events to oneself without evidence supporting a causal

connection is termed
 A : personalization. B : selective abstraction. C : overgeneralization. D :

arbitrary inference.

Correct Answer : A

24 : Kate has anorexia nervosa and when she gains one pound she believes she

is fat. If she loses one pound, she can perceive herself as thin. Kates thought

process reflects

A : arbitrary inference. B : dichotomous thinking. C : magnification. D :

personalization.

Correct Answer : B

25 : Shannon has a history of chronic depression. According to cognitive

theory, which statement likely represents her thought process upon discovering that

she has failed an exam? A : I can study harder next time and improve my grade . B

: Yesterday was an unlucky day for me to take an exam. C : It was a poorly written

examination by a poor teacher

D. I’m a failure always have been, and always will be.

Correct Answer : D
 26 : Which of the following disorders is associated with an inflated view of self

and future?

A : Anxiety disorder B : Obsession C : Hypomania D : Compulsion

Correct Answer : C

27 : Which disorder is associated with catastrophic interpretations of

bodily/mental experiences?

A : Panic disorder B : Paranoia. C : Depression. D : Anorexia nervosa

Correct Answer : A

28 : Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for anorexia nervosa?

A : Eating too much. B : Eating nothing. C : A pathological fear of gaining

weight. D : Gaining weight

Correct Answer : C

29 : In cognitive therapy, a patient learns to eliminate negative or dysfunctional

thoughts by learning beliefs that are

A : irrational. B : absolute. C : positive. D : realistic.

Correct Answer : D
 30 : The cognitions that are most accessible and least stable are

A : core beliefs. B : voluntary thoughts. C : assumptions. D : automatic

thoughts.

Correct Answer : B

31 : Which of the following is one of the primary goals in the initial cognitive

therapy interview? A : Transference development B : Symptom relief C :

Nondirectiveness D : Dream analysis

Correct Answer : B

32: Exposure therapy serves to provide data on:

A : thoughts, images, physiological symptoms, and self-reported tension. B :

patient details. C : levels of physical activity. D : daily patient behaviors.

Correct Answer : A

33 : Asking a patient to ponder what if scenarios about feared consequences is

known as

A : redefining. B : reattribution. C : decatastrophizing. D : decentering.

Correct Answer : C
 34 : Hypothesis testing has two components: _____________and

____________.

A : structure; encouragement B : evidence; assessment C : physical; mental D

: cognitive; behavioral

Correct Answer : D

35 : For which of the following disorders has CT shown the largest treatment

effect size?

A : Bulimia nervosa B : Chronic pain. C : Panic disorder D : Schizophrenia

Correct Answer : C

FILL IN THE BLANK

36 : According to cognitive theory, thoughts _________________ shifts in

emotions.

Correct Answer : co-occur with or influence

37 : Cognitive therapists encourage patients to use _________________

reasoning, whereas REBT therapists rely on __________________ reasoning.

 Correct Answer : inductive; deductive

38 : A cognitive therapist treating a patient with suicidal ideation would focus

on_________________ because it is a strong predictor of eventual suicide.

Correct Answer : hopelessness

39 : Cognitive theory states that an individual’s fundamental beliefs and

assumptions are contained in structures termed __________________.

40 : A patient with anorexia nervosa believes that she is thin when she

exercises, but fat if she eats. This would be an example of the

___________________ cognitive distortion.

Correct Answer : dichotomous thinking

41 : The work of Albert Ellis (1962) gave major impetus to the development of

_____________.

Correct Answer : cognitive-behavior therapies

 42 : Cognitive theory recognizes that all humans make mistakes in processing

information and hypothesizes that it is ___________________biases in processing

that leads to psychopathology.

Correct Answer : systematic

43 : The preferred method of dialoguing with a patient in cognitive therapy is

through the use of______________________ questions.

Correct Answer : Socratic

44 : Early in treatment, a cognitive therapist may rely more on

_______________ techniques; later in treatment, the focus shifts toward

______________ techniques.

Correct Answer : behavioral; cognitive

45 : Through _________________ cognitive therapy, patients create homework

assignments for themselves called behavioral experiments with input from their

therapist.

Correct Answer : guided discovery

Chapter 8 Wheeler
 1) Which intervention best reflects the nursing role
regarding effective implementation of behavioral
therapy goals?

• Administering the prescribed medications accurately

• Interacting effectively with members of the health care
team
• Being aware of all the patient related therapeutic
modalities
• Evaluating patient behaviors to reward economic tokens
appropriately

ANS: D
2) A new nurse asks the mentor, How can I be sure Im
developing a therapeutic environment for my unit? The mentor
uses as a basis for the response the fact that a therapeutic milieu
is characterized by:

• Rigid adherence to timelines and unit routine

• Relaxation of boundaries when doing so is accepted by all
• The focus of the staff is directed to the most critically
disturbed patients

• Specific patient-centered goals are established mutually

by patient and staff

ANS: D
3) To plan care for a patient with a psychiatric disorder, the
nurse keeps in mind that the primary nursing role related to
therapeutic activities is:

• Assisting the patient in accomplishing the activity

• Ensuring that the patient will comply with the rules of the
activity
 • Ensuring that the patient can accomplish the activity in a
timely manner
• Providing a support system for the patient if they fail to
complete the activity
ANS: A

• 4) Which statement would the nurse use to describe the primary

purpose of boundaries?

• Boundaries define responsibilities and duties

to ones self in relation to others.
• Boundaries determine objectives of the various working
stage of the relationship.
• Boundaries differentiate the assumed roles of both the
nurse and of the patient.
• Boundaries prevent undesired material from emerging
during the interaction.

ANS: A
5) Which action will best facilitate the development of trust between a nurse

and patient?

• Responding positively to the patients demands

• Following through with whatever was promised
• Clarifying with the patient whenever there is doubt
• Staying available to the patient for the entire shift

ANS: B
 6) Which statement best defines the nurses initial role as
the patients source of help in addressing interpersonal
problems?

• Ill work with your doctor to help you get better

• Ill be working with you to help solve your marital

troubles.
• Your medications will help you feel better as soon as they
take effect.
• You will be expected to attend the group activities while
you are here.

ANS:B

7) When sharing her feelings about separating from a

therapy group, the patient stated, I feel a bit sad and
empty that I wont be seeing you folks again. What is the
most accurate evaluation of the patients statement?

• It indicates regression and her lack of readiness to

terminate.
• Unconsciously, she is hoping she will be permitted to
continue the group.
• She is demonstrating normal feelings associated with
termination of therapy.
• She needs further evaluation by her therapist to determine
readiness to terminate.
 • ANS: C
8) A patient tells the nurse, I really like you. Youre the only
true friend I have. The patients remarks call for the nurse to
revisit the issue of:

• Trust
• Safety
• Boundaries
• Countertransference

ANS: C
9) The patient and the nurse have agreed on problems to
be addressed during a short course of outpatient therapy. At
the beginning of the appointment, the patient states, Id like to
work on the issue of relationships today. Which assessment
can be made?

• Nurse-patient roles have not been clearly delineated.

• The nurse should suggest several alternative behaviors.
• The patient must be able to manage emotions before
continuing.
• The relationship is moving from orientation to working
phase.

ANS: D

10) A nurse and patient are entering the

termination phase in the group experience. An
important nursing intervention will be to:

• Encourage the group to describe goals for change.

• Inquire whether the group needs more time to accomplish
 goals.
• Assist the group to explore alternative coping strategies
for problems.
• Discuss feelings about leaving the group and the support
found with the group.

ANS: D
11) A patient attending group therapy mentions, In the
beginning, I was so sick that everyone had to help me. For the
last few days, its felt good to be able to give something back
to the group. This statement can be assessed as an example of
Yaloms factor of:

• Altruism
• Harmonizing
• Cohesiveness
• Imitative behavior

ANS: A

Altruism refers to the experience of being helpful

to others and is clearly what the patient is
displaying in the scenario. The other factors are not
applicable.

12) During the first family therapy session, the mother of

a child being treated for truancy and emotional outbursts
asks the nurse, Why are you bothering to ask the rest of us
questions? My son is the one with the problems. The best
response for the nurse would be:
• Well get more accurate information if the entire family is
involved.
• It may seem strange to you, but well get better results
doing it this way.
 • When one family member is sick, the whole family system
is sick as well.
• Every family members perceptions are very important to
the total picture.

ANS: D

Questions:

1 .A patient with chronic schizophrenia walks the floors of the state hospital

where he is an inmate swearing aloud at other inmates. The resident in charge of

this patient tells him that he has to earn the right to watch TV from now on.

According to the treatment plan submitted to the patient, for every half hour that he

is able to prevent himself from using obscenities, he can earn a ticket for a half

hour of TV time. What is the treatment plan an example of?

a. extinction
b. positive punishment
c. positive reinforcement ( Token economy)
d. counterconditioning

2. Based on current research data, which of the following interventions is more

effective than the others in treating depression in adolescents?

a. Multifamily play group

b. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) group
c. Psychodrama
d. Psychoanalytic group

3. The cognitive thought distortion defined as expecting the worst in the future
when it is actually unlikely to occur is

a. catastrophizing
b. overgeneralization
c. personalization
d. all or nothing thinking

4. Taking something good or positive away in order to reduce the likelihood of

a given behavior is considered:
a. positive reinforcement
b. positive punishment
c. negative reinforcement
d. negative punishment

5. According to cognitive behavioral therapy, which of the following is true

regarding depression?

a. Cognitive content is a threat or danger.

b. Deep breathing improves cognitive distortions.
c. Depression can improve with correction of cognitive distortions.
d. Activity scheduling is discouraged in cognitive behavioral therapy

6. According to cognitive theorist, which of the following is true regarding

depression

a. Thought diaries are rarely useful and should not recommended.

b. Activity scheduling is discouraged due to the mental workload requirement.
c. Depression can worsen even with a skillful therapist.
d. The therapy can be carried out by the active therapist.

7. A young mother is diagnosed with major depression. She believes she is

unlovable, cries several hours per day, consumes less calories than usual,
and thinks her symptoms will never end. In treatment, a behavior therapist is
most likely to target

a. The thoughts her symptoms will never end

b. The amount of food she eats each day
c. Her uncontrolled emotional sadness
d. The amount of time she cries each day

8. The cognitive thought distortion defined as assuming excessive personal

responsibility for negative events is

a. personalization
b. all or nothing thinking
c. catastrophizing
d. overgeneralization

9. If people want and expect change, it is important that patients using

cognitive behavioral therapy strategies:
 a. take specific actions to effect change.
b. explore the past roots of a particular problem.
c. gain insight into the causes of a problem.
d. engage in detailed introspection.

10. In cognitive behavioral therapy, behavioral experiments are used to:

a. Test whether their thoughts and assumptions are accurate and rational
b. Enable collection of reliable data
c. Test whether their behavior matches their cognitions
d. Ensure the validity of the treatment

11. A patient verbalizes that "When people see me they think I'm a loser"
is most often used directly in the context of which kind of therapy

a. cognitive therapy
b. supportive therapy
c. behavioral therapy
d. psychodynamic therapy
 12.Behavior therapy has been shown to be useful in all of the following except

a. depression with psychosis

b. obsessive compulsive disorder
c. major depressive disorder
d. bulimia nervosa

13.Beck's cognitive therapy of depression requires the individual to (

a. Make an objective assessment of their beliefs

b. Keep a mood diary
c. Keep a dream diary
d. Set attainable life goals

14. A young woman is afraid of dogs due to being attacked as a 5-year-old by a pit

bull. The technique used to initially treat this known as.

a. guided meditation
b. progressive relaxation
 c. guided imagery or systematic desensitization
d. biofeedback

15.Which of the following is NOT a behavioral technique?

a. Contingency contracts
b. Modeling
c. Relaxation training
d. Interpretation of dreams

16.A behavior therapist is most likely to judge the success of treatment by

changes in the patient's

a. number of illogical conditions

b. observable behaviors
c. positive self-regard
d. change in automatic thoughts

17. A psychotherapy client, is depressed about a recent breakup with her boyfriend.
She believes that the breakup is entirely her fault and that if she had done things

differently, she would not be alone now. This belief best exemplifies the cognitive

thought distortion known as

a. all or nothing thinking

b. mental filtering
c. personalization
d. catastrophizing

18. A patient was diagnosed as having an anxiety disorder. The psychiatric

nurse practitioner chose to use systemic desensitization to manage the patient's

anxiety reactions. Which of the following elements would the nurse practitioner

use during the initial sessions?

a. Association between stimulus and response

b. Reframing
c. Identification of patient's developmental level
d. Cognitive restructuring

19. Cognitive behavioral intervention does not involve:

 a. Antecedent, behavior, consequences
b. Homework
c. Role playing
d. Exposure therapy

20. A form of therapy based on classical conditioning principles (in particular,

punishment), in which an aversive unconditioned stimulus is paired with a neutral

stimulus to

a. condition a negative response to the neutral stimulus.

b. cognitive behavioral therapy cognitive therapy
c. aversion therapy
d. exposure therapy

21.A middle aged man who experiences panic attacks participates in relaxation

training that involves tensing and relaxing various muscle groups in the body. This

technique is known as
 a. guided imagery
b. biofeedback
c. progressive relaxation
d. guided meditation

22. *The nurse practitioner has determined that treating her patient who

suffers from claustrophobia with medication has not been very helpful. The

nurse practitioner decides to use systematic desensitization. This plan is to

a. Ride with the patient up and down in an elevator for 30 minutes.

b. Reward the patient each time the patient rides in an elevator without fear.
c. Caution the patient to avoid going to closed off places, like elevators.
d. Encourage the patient to use elevators little by little, day by day, slowly
one floor at a time.

23. A 20-year-old man comes to the psychiatric nurse practitioner because he

becomes extremely anxious in social situations. He is unable to talk to anyone and

experiences sweaty palms and a rapid heartbeat. Which of the following treatment

options will provide the most effective and longest lasting results for this patient?

a. Treatment with an antidepressant

 b. Treatment with an anxiolytic
c. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
d. Cognitive-behavioral therapy

24. Any behavior that increases the probability of a response by terminating or

withdrawing an unpleasant stimulus is considered:

a. positive punishment
b. negative reinforcement
c. negative punishment
d. positive reinforcement

25. _________is a form of learning in which existing responses are attached to

new stimuli by pairing those stimuli with those that naturally elicit the response;

also

referred to as respondent conditioning.

a. Modern conditioning
b. Instrumental conditioning
c. Classic conditioning
d. Aversion conditioning
 26. All of the following are true regarding cognitive behavioral therapy except

a. It may need to be modified in the elderly and children

b. it is useful in depression secondary to life problems
c. It is primarily used in patients with dementia
d. It can be employed by a therapist without full CBT training

27. A young woman with no previous psychiatric history develops an

incapacitation fear of driving after being involved in a minor automobile accident.

What is the most appropriate therapeutic option?

a. behavioral therapy

b. group therapy

C. brief psychotherapy

d. cognitive therapy

28. Which of the following therapies has been shown to be effective in treating

and anxiety disorders?

 a. Cognitive behavior therapy

b. structural family therapy

c. strategic family therapy

d. transgenerational family therapy

Quiz #4

Chapter 11 Quizlet Test Bank on Family Therapy

1)In family therapy, the term identified patient conveys that?

A systematic family member expresses family dysfunction.

2)Family therapists shift the focus of pathology from individuals to?

Family systems

3)The manner in which a family arranges, organizes, and maintains itself is

known as its?
 Structure

4)Viewing interactions as reciprocal suggests causality is?

Circular

5)During an argument, a father nonverbally communicates to his son to “cool

off” prior to further interactions. This is an example of?

Negative feedback

6)A couple escalates an argument regardless of the consequences. This is an

example of?

Positive feedback

7)Second-order cybernetics focuses primarily on?

The impact of the family therapist on the family system

8)Sandy’s parents are overly involved in her life and the boundaries within her

family are diffuse. This family would be described as?

Enmeshed
 9)Rigid boundaries that permit limited emotional contact between members

characterize families that are?

Disengaged

10)In systems terms, family boundaries yield systems that?

Exist along an open/closed continuum

11)Family therapists are encouraged to take a gender-sensitive outlook. This

means the therapist should?

Be careful not to reinforce sexist or patriarchal attitudes

12)The primary conceptual difference between family systems approaches and

Adlerian psychotherapy is the Adlerian’s?

Therapeutic focus on the individual

13)Assuming a child’s tantrum occurs because parents reinforced the behavior

would be consistent with which of the theoretical orientation?

Behavioral
 14)A parent tells a child “I Love spending time with you” while appearing

annoyed. This is an example of?

Double-bind communication

15)An alcoholic husband maintains an authoritative manner with his wife and

children, while the wife acts as If nothing is wrong. This scenario illustrates?

Marital Skew

16)The Psychodynamics of Family Life, viewed by many as the first text

defining the field of family therapy, was written by?

Nathan Ackerman

17)The family therapy approach most likely to focus on the multigenerational

transmission of problems and each family members ability to differentiate is?

Transgenerational

18)A therapists employing paradoxical interventions most likely adheres to

which of the following family therapy viewpoints?

Strategic
 19)Rather than providing an objective view regarding a conflict, a family

therapist asks questions of each family member to obtain their perspective. This

approach would be described as?

Circular questioning

20)A family is encouraged to tell the “family story” with hope that a new

family story can be developed to facilitate change. Which of the following therapy

approaches is being used?

Social constructionist

21)The redundancy principle refers to a family’s

Restricted range of interactional patterns

22)A dysfunctional family’s portrayal of false closeness that forces togetherness

despite individual needs is referred to as?

Pseudomutuality

23)Which of the following approaches involves the designing of novel

strategies by the therapist to eliminate undesired behavior?

Strategic family therapy

 24)A family argues constantly to avoid intimacy. This illustrates?

Pseudohostility

25)A mother tells her child “I know you’re no hungry,” despite the child’s sense

that he or she is hungry. This is an example of?

Mystification

26)To deal with their own sense of loneliness in a marriage, a couple becomes

overly involved in the problems of their son. This model of interaction is?

Triadic

27)To deal with their daughter’s refusal to eat, previously controlling parents

attempt to interact supportively and empower their daughter to make her own

decision. This scenario represents a change that is?

Second order

28)Blaming marital discord on a wife’s rigid, controlling demeanor would

resume a model of interaction that was?

Monadic
 29)A family therapist will typically ask which of the following family members

to attend the initial session?

The entire family

30)A genogram is a?

Family tree diagram of generational behavior patterns

31)Designing interventions that are paradoxical in nature is known as?

Therapeutic double-binds

31)A family therapist asks each member of a family sequentially to pose the

other family members in physical space as a representation of his or her view of

the family. This technique is known as?

Family sculpting

32)A family therapist employing a solution-focused approach asks the miracle

question. The therapist wants to know what would happen if a miracle occurred

and
 The problem that leads to therapy was solved

33)Which of the following focuses on treatment of the family’s presenting

problem?

Strategic family therapy

34)Which of the following results from the emotional experience gained by the

family through enactment of the directives?

Behavioral change

Quiz #4

1)Family therapist are encouraged to take a gender, sensitive outlook. This

means the therapist should?

Compensate for desperate opportunities offered to males and females in a

family.
 Be careful not to reinforce sexist or patriarchal attitude.

Assess but not attempt to modify our families of use of gender roles.

Theoretically, separate the influence of gender from culture and social class.

2) A therapist employing paradoxical interventions most likely adheres to which

of the following family therapy viewpoints?

Strategic

Structural

Behavioral

Experiential

3)A woman was married in 1975 to John and widowed in 1981. She married

Austin in 1993, then divorced in 2004. In 2021, she remarried Austin. How Austin

and the woman be drawn on the genogram?

There should be a single line from the first marriage to the illustrate this union.

There should be a dotted line to illustrate this union.

There should be a double slanted line to illustrate this union.

There should be a single slanted line to illustrate this union.

 4) Rather than providing an objective view regarding a conflict, a family

therapist asks questions of each family member to obtain their perspective. This

approach would be described as:

Reframing

Cognitive restructuring

Circular questioning

The miracle questions

5)Assuming a child’s tantrum occurs because parents reinforced the behavior

would be consistent with which of the theoretical orientation?

Psychoanalytic

Behavioral

Person-centered

Family systems

6)A family therapist will typically ask which of the following family members

to attend the initial session?

 Only the identified patient

The entire family

Only the parents

The identified patient and the parents

7) a parent tells a child “I love spending time with you” while appearing

annoyed. This is an example of?

Double bind communication.

Pseudo hostility.

Redundancy principle.

Pseudo mutuality

8) a couple escalate an argument, regardless of the consequences. This is an

example of?

Linear Casuality.

Homeostasis.

Positive feedback.

Negative feedback.
 9) when two individuals have no contact at all, characterized by extreme

disengagement and emotional intensity where is there…… defined as?

Hate

Discord

Indifferent

Cutoff

10) a teenagers parents are overly involved in her life and the boundaries within

her family are diffuse. This family would be described as?

enmeshed

isolative

disengaged

restrictive

11)A genogram is a ?

Reenactment of previous negative communication patterns.

Compilation of each family member’s values and ideals.

Family tree diagram of generational behavior patterns.

Physical acting out of family conflicts.

 12) The Psychodynamics of family life, viewed by many as the first text

defining the field of family therapy, was written by?

Jay Haley

Virginia Satir

Nathan Ackerman

Salvador Minuchin

13) which of the following results from the emotional experience gained by the

family through enactment of the directive?

Cognitive change.

Experiential change.

Structure change.

Behavioral change.

14) a couple have three children, a 10-year-old girl, a eight-year-old boy and a

six year old girl. How should they be.

 The 10 year old girl, the eight year old boy and a six year old girl are drawn

together on the right.

The 10 and six year old girls are drawn together, while the eight-year-old boy is

drawn on the left.

There is no specific way to draw the children on a genogram.

The 10-year-old girl the eight-year-old boy and a six year old girl are you going

together.

15) the primary conceptual difference between family systems approaches, and

Adlerian psychotherapy is the Adlerian’s?

Holistic view of the individual.

Focus on present circumstances and future goals.

Therapeutic focus on the individual.

Emphasis on the social context of behavior.

16)The family argues constantly to avoid intimacy. This illustrates?

Scapegoating

Pseudohostility

Double-bind

Mystification
 17)Family therapists shift the focus of pathology from individuals to.

Biological predispositions

Family systems

Sociocultural norms

parents

18)Blaming marital discord on a wife’s rigid, controlling demeanor would

presume a model of interaction that was?

Monadic

Dyadic

Biadic

Triadic

19)A woman was married in 1975 to John and widowed in 1981. She married

Dennis in 1993, then divorced in 2001. How John and the woman be drawn on the

genogram?

There is no special symbol to illustrate this union

There should be an X drawn on the single line to illustrate this union

 There should be a dotted line to illustrate this union

There should be a broken line to illustrate this union

20)A family therapist asks each member of a family sequentially to pose the

other family members in physical space as a representation of his or her view of

the family. This technique is known as?

Enactment

Circular questioning

Reframing

Family sculpting

21) designing interventions that are paradoxical in nature is known as?

Circular questioning.

Family sculpting.

Therapeutic double binds.

Reframing.

22) Second order cybernetics focuses primarily on?

The impact of the family therapist on the family system.

Feedback loops.
 The role of circular causality in a family system.

Boundaries within a family subsystem.

23) A family is encouraged to tell the “family story” with hope that a new

family story can be developed to facilitate change. Which of the following therapy

approaches is being used?

Strategic

Social constructionist

Cognitive-behavioral

Structural

24) A dysfunctional family’s portrayal of false closeness that forces

togetherness despite individual needs is referred to as?

Pseudomutuality

Mystification

Double-bind

pseudohostility
 25) Viewing interactions as reciprocal suggests causality is?

Undetermined

Determined

Linear

Circular

26) The redundancy principle refers to a family’s

Need to enact family of origin issues.

Desire to scapegoat a family member

Maladaptive response to family crises

Restricted range of interactional patterns

27) To deal with their own sense of loneliness in a marriage, a couple becomes

overly involved in the problems of their son. This model of interaction is?

Monadic

Biadic

Dyadic

Triadic
 28) Rigid boundaries that permit limited emotional contact between members

characterize families that are?

Disengaged

Enmeshed

Open

Relational

29) The manner in which a family arranges, organizes, and maintains itself is

known as its?

Structure

Evolution

Wholeness

Process

30) In family therapy, the term identified patient conveys that?

Family meetings are used to convince individual members to seek help

One member of the family typically creates the units discord

A symptomatic family member expresses family dysfunction

Family therapy should focus on identifying the problems of each individual

 31) a woman was married in 1975 to John and widowed in 1981. She married

Dennis in 1993, then divorced in 2004. In 2021, she married Austin. How should

her unions be ordered on the genogram?

Draw John first, then Dennis and Austin last.

Draw Austin first, then, Dennis, and John last.

Draw Austin only.

Drop Dennis first then Austin last.

32) Which of the following focuses on treatment of the family’s presenting

problem?

Strategic family therapy

Transgenerational family therapy

Experiential family therapy

Structural family therapy

33) When constructing a genogram, the male family member will be drawn.

On the right with a triangle

On the right with a circle

On the left with a square

With a triangle in either position

 34) During an argument, a father nonverbally communicates to his son to “cool

off” prior to further interactions. This is an example of?

Linear causality

Positive feedback

miscommunication

Negative feedback

35) A mother tells her child “I know you’re no hungry,” despite the child’s

sense that he or she is hungry. This is an example of?

Mystification

Triadic communication

Pseudomutuality

Redundancy principle

Quiz #5

Interpersonal Therapy

1: The developers of interpersonal therapy were (Quizlet)

 A : Myrna Weissman and Helen Verdeli.

B : John Bowlby and Mary Ainsworth.

C : Gerald Klerman and Myrna Weissman.

D : Gerald Klerman and Adolph Meyer.

Correct Answer: C

2 : Interpersonal therapy developed as part of a (Quizlet)

A: research study evaluating the effects of depression on cardiac patients.

B: political movement to demystify psychotherapy.

C: a therapy arm for a clinical trial evaluating antidepressant efficacy.

D: feministic movement to infuse interpersonal issues in therapy.

Correct Answer : C

3 :A group of four interpersonal problem areas that has become the focus of IPT

is known as (Quizlet)

A : PTSD.

B : depressogenic triggers.

C : personality disorders.

D : grief modulators.

Correct Answer : B
 4 : In contrast to the homework given in a cognitive therapy session, an

interpersonal therapist will (Quizlet)

A : utilize more forms to maintain standardization.

B : establish the homework for the patient.

C : be less prescriptive overall across therapy.

D : not utilize homework given the patients sick role.

Correct Answer : C

5 : In describing depression to a patient, an interpersonal therapist would

explain that (Quizlet)

A: psychosocial triggers cause depression but medications can help

B: genetic, personality, and early childhood factors contribute to

depression, but symptoms are be triggered by stress, usually of an

interpersonal nature

C: unconscious factors related to childhood will be the treatment focus.

D: dysfunctional thoughts and maladaptive core beliefs create depression.

Correct Answer : B
 6 : Interpersonal therapists prescribe a “sick role” to patients. This means that

(Quizlet)

A : depressed patients are not expected to engage in homework.

B : family members must take over their responsibilities while they are in

treatment.

C : prescription medications must be a core part of the treatment.

D : depression is a treatable medical problem, not a personal failing.

Correct Answer : D

7) The goal of prescribing a sick role to a patient in interpersonal therapy is to

(Quizlet)

A : allow the patient to be passive to get the help he or she needs.

B : insure that insurance benefits will cover treatment.

C : demystify the symptoms and engage the patient.

D : secure a leave of absence from responsibilities.

Correct Answer : C

8 : What type of therapy focuses heavily on early childhood experiences as

determinants of unconscious mental processes and intrapsychic conflict? (Quizlet)

 A : Emotive-behavior therapy

B : Cognitive-behavioral therapy

C : PTSD therapy

D : Psychodynamic psychotherapy

Correct Answer : D

9 : Who has been an important figure in a 1978 study to measure of relative risk

to examine the impact of stressful life events on depression? (Quizlet)

A : Eugene Paykel

B : Ainsworth

C : John Bowlby

D : Adolph Meyer

Correct Answer : A

10 : If a patient was in a depressive phase of his or her bipolar disorder, an

interpersonal therapist would. (Quizlet)

A : treat the depressive phase in a similar manner to unipolar depression.

B : not prescribe the patient a sick role as in unipolar depression.

C : not treat the patient because interpersonal therapy is not appropriate.

D : treat the patient with a nonstandardized interpersonal approach to therapy.

 Correct Answer : A

11 : The typical length of interpersonal therapy for depression for an adult

would be (Quizlet)

A : 8 sessions.

B : 16 sessions.

C : 24 sessions

D : 48 sessions.

Correct Answer : B

12 : In which phase of interpersonal therapy would the clinician focus on

helping the patient identify ways that depression has affected his or her

interpersonal relationships as well as how his or her interpersonal relationships

have impacted his or her depression? (Quizlet)

A: Initial

B : Middle

C : Family

D : Termination Correct Answer : A

3 : In the early 20th century, Adolph Meyer recommended the use of a life chart

with patients. A life chart. (Quizlet)

 A : estimated how long a patient would live depending on his or her level of

depression

B : recorded the physical health problems a person developed over the course of

his or her depressive illness

C : tracked the relationships between life history, physical and

psychological illnesses, and stressful events.

D : diagramed an individuals family history of depression so he or she could

see the biological nature of the illness.

Correct Answer : C

14 : In response to an insensitive or unavailable caregiver, an individual might

develop which type of attachment style according to Mary Ainsworths theory?

(Quizlet)

A: Affectionate

B: Ambivalent-insecure

C: Secure

D: Bidirectional

Correct Answer: B
 15: Which of the following statements is true about affectional bonds, as

described by John Bowlby? (Quizlet)

A: Humans have an innate need for affectional bonds.

B: Affectional bonds are destructive and should not be fostered

C: Affectional bonds develop only in congruence with pathology.

D: Higher functioning individuals have no need for affectional bonds.

Correct Answer : A

16: In the Uganda culture, it is highly likely that a depressed individual would

(Quizlet)

A: seek help readily from individuals from a different culture.

B: feel stigmatized by interpersonal therapy focus on relationship disputes.

C: not appreciate assistance for depression when it was provided.

D: respond when greeted to cover up that they were experiencing depression.

Correct Answer : C

17 : Interpersonal therapy-evaluation, support, triage (IPT-EST) is designed to

(Quizlet)

A : provide long-term, ongoing services to severely depressed patients.

 B : offer a three-session intervention based on rapid diagnosis and

treatment

C : augment IPTs focus on interpersonal issues with thought monitoring.

D : specifically target the special needs of geriatric patients with depression.

Correct Answer : B

18: The evidence for the efficacy of IPT remains varied for other adaptations

but is strongest for (Quizlet)

A : substance abuse

B : dysthymic disorder.

C : mood disorders.

D : eating disorders.

Correct Answer : C

19: Which statement accurately describes the theory of personality that drives

interpersonal therapy? (Quizlet)

A: Psychoanalytic theory forms the foundation for interpersonal therapy.

B: Interpersonal therapy is guided by multiple personality theories.

C: Cognitive theory forms the foundation for interpersonal therapy

D: A theory of personality is not directly relevant to interpersonal therapy.

 Correct Answer: D

20 : For which minorities in the United States has the most efficacy been in

clinical trials of IPT? (Quizlet)

A : Southwest Ugandan immigrants

B : German and Danish ethnic groups

C : Displaced persons

D : Black and Hispanic groups

Correct Answer : D

21 : Which studies have helped clarify the role of life events in the complex

matrix of factors that coincide in the development of psychiatric disorders?

(Quizlet)

A : Psychopathology

B : Epidemiological studies

C : Methodological studies

D : Genetic studies

Correct Answer : B

22: Which study showed the 5-HTT genotype moderated the depressogenic

influence of adverse life events? (Quizlet)

 A: Psychopathology

B: Epidemiological studies

C: Gene X environment interaction

D: Phenotype

Correct Answer: C

23: During which phase of treatment does the majority of the interpersonal

work take place? (Quizlet)

A: Middle phase

B: Initial phase

C: Therapeutic relationship building phase

D: Termination phase

Correct Answer: A

24: In contrast to interpersonal therapy for adults, interpersonal therapy for

adolescents (Quizlet)

A: lasts longer (20 or more sessions).

B: uses telephone contacts more frequently.

C: does not focus on interpersonal conflicts.

D: avoids defining a sick role in depression.

 Correct Answer: B

25: An interpersonal therapist and patient should collaboratively identify how

many problems

4 / course of treatment? (Quizlet)

A: One to two (to stay focused)

B: Four to five (to learn to generalize skills)

C: Sixteen (one per session)

D: Varies depending on patients presenting issues

Correct Answer : A

26: During which phase of treatment do therapists evaluate patients’ depressive

symptoms with them to determine if they are full or partial responders? (Quizlet)

A: Middle phase

B: Initial phase

C: Therapeutic relationship building phase

D: Termination phase

Correct Answer: D
 27 : In 2013, who proposed four specific mechanisms for changes in IPT?

(Quizlet)

A : Eugene Paykel

B : Lipsitz and Markowitz

C : John Bowlby

D : Adolph Meyer

Correct Answer : B

28 : Research studies that evaluate the effects of a treatment within a relatively

homogenous group, under optimal clinical circumstances, and with the therapy

performed by highly trained experts are called (Quizlet)

A : efficacy testing.

B : effectiveness studies.

C : expert-led research.

D : none of these are correct.

Correct Answer : A

29 : Patients with high attachment avoidance and depression (Quizlet)

A : tend to fare better in cognitive therapy.

B : tend to fare better in interpersonal therapy

. C : show similar outcomes in cognitive and interpersonal therapy.

 D : have poor responses in all forms of therapy.

Correct Answer : A

30: The data on baseline depressive severity as a moderator of treatment

suggest that (Quizlet)

A: depression severity has not been accurately measured in treatment.

B: treatment benefits emerge best in relation to less depressed individuals

C: depressive severity does not moderate treatment outcomes.

D: the research is equivocal on baseline levels of depression as moderators.

Correct Answer : D

31: Conjoint interpersonal psychotherapy for depression has demonstrated that

(Quizlet)

A : treating a couple when both spouses are depressed is not beneficial. earn

$103 per month?

B: conjoint interpersonal therapy leads to greater marital satisfaction

C: less gains are made in treatment by both spouses if treated together.

D: conflicts in therapy arise as both patients want to assume a sick role.

Correct Answer : B
 32 : Okwekubagiza, a term from Uganda, refers to (Quizlet)

A : self-pity.

B : self-esteem.

C : self-loathing.

D : selflessness.

Correct Answer : A

33 : In the randomized clinical trial evaluating modified interpersonal group

psychotherapy (IPTG) for depression in Southwest Uganda, (Quizlet)

A : the treatment was not well received by the community.

B : IPT-G was more effective than the control condition.

C : valid assessment measures to use could not be identified.

D : direct forms of communication had to offset some cultural norms.

Correct Answer : B

34 : In a study using interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) for treating depression

in adolescents living in internally displaced persons (IDP) camps in Northern

Uganda, (Quizlet)

A : IPT performed poorer than creative play but better than a wait list

. B : IDP adolescents were too anxious to discuss interpersonal conflicts.

 C : IPT performed better than both the creative play and wait list control.

D : grief was so dominant that IPT could not be used effectively.

Correct Answer : C

35 : The World Health Organizations task shifting model refers to (Quizlet)

A : the importance of collaboratively engaging patients into treatment.

B : task sharing among interdisciplinary teams to create better outcomes.

C : delegating tasks to less specialized local health workers.

D : shifting resources from a national to an international level.

Correct Answer : C

Test Banks:

1)What type of therapy focuses heavily on early experiences as determinants of

unconscious mental processes and intrapsychic conflict?

-Cognitive-behavioral therapy

-Emotive-behavioral therapy
 -Psychodynamic psychotherapy

PTSD therapy

2) Interpersonal psychotherapy was developed in the 1970’s. Which of the

following does this type of therapy focus on?

-current relationships

-childhood losses

-making aments

Intrapsychic conflict

3)Interpersonal theory was developed by

-John Bowldy

-Myrna Davis

-Gerald Klerman

Ronald Markowitz
 4)In the nurse-patient relationship phase where the patient drifts away ad breaks

the bond with the nurse and healthier emotional balance is demonstrated and both

becomes mature individuals.( quizlet)

- orientation

-resolution

-identification

-exploration

5) Interpersonal psychotherapy differs from psychodynamic psychotherapy, in that

it does not use
-practical procedures
-an attempt to improve social relationships
-empathy
-Transverse analysis.

6)During which phase of treatment do therapists evaluate patient’s depressive

symptoms with them to determine if they are full or partial responders?
-Termination phase
-middle phase
-therapeutic relationship building phase
-initial phase

7)Empathy involves
-putting yourself in someone else’s shoes
-putting others before yourself
-putting yourself before others
-feeling sorry for someone
8)The typical length of interpersonal therapy for depression for an adult would be?
-8 session
-24 sessions
-48 session
-16 session

9)In which phase of interpersonal therapy would the clinician focus on helping the
patient identify ways that depression has affected his or her interpersonal
relationships as well as how his or her interpersonal relationships have impacted
his or her depression? (Quizlet)
-Middle
-termination
-Family
-Initial

10)The developers of interpersonal therapy were

-Myrna Weissan and Helen Verdeli
-Gerald Klerman and Myrna Weissman
-John Bowlby and Mary Ainsworth
-Gerald Klerman and Adolf Meyer

11)Mother-child separation was heavily studies by

-Sigmund Freud
-John Bowlby
-Jean Piaget
-Erik Erickson

12)When discussion the last therapy session with her friend, the yound woman said
she named her depression “nina”. This approach is used in which interpersonal
therapy stage?
-Initial stage
-final stage
-middle stage
-orientation stage

13) In response to an insensitive or unavailable caregiver, an individual might

develop which type of attachment style according to Mary Ainsworth’s theory?
-Secure
-Ambivalent-insecure.?
-Bi-directional
-Affectionate

14)Patients with high attachment avoidance and depression

-tend to fare better in interpersonal therapy
-have poor responses in all forms of therapy
-show similar outcomes in cognitive and interpersonal therapy
-tend to fare better in cognitive therapy

15)Okwekubagiza, a term from Uganda, refers to (Quizlet)

-Selflessness
-self-pitty
-self-loathing
-self-esteem

16)A 54-year-old widow wants to know how long her interpersonal sessions will
last. The most appropriate response wound be?
-unlimited sessions
-3-6 sessions
-6-9 sessions
-12-16 sessions

17)This nursing theorists Science of Unitary Human Beings, is similar to Sullivans

field theories:
-Dorothea Dix
-Martha Rogers
-Dorothea Orem
-Nola Pender

18)The data on baseline depressive severity as a moderator of treatment suggests

that
-depressive severity does not moderate treatment outcomes
-treatment benefits emerge best in relation to less depressed individuals
-depression severity has not been accurately measured in treatment
-the research is equivocal on baseline levels of depression as moderators

19)Research studies that evaluate the effects of treatment within a relatively

homogenous group, under optimal clinical circumstances, and with the therapy
performed by hightly trained experts are called
-none of these are correct
-effectiveness studies
-efficacy testing
-expert-led research

20)Interpersonal psychotherapy is very effective for the treatment of

-attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
-depressive disorders
-schizophrenia related disorder
-borderline personality disorders

21)Empathy is the ability which is essential for

-discovering how psychopathology is acquired
-guiding the client towards resolving their own life problems
-making a correct diagnosis
-knowing when you have outstayed your welcome

22)______emphasizes the importance of the therapeutic and healing presence of

the advanced practice nurse.
-Peplau’s interpersonal theory
-Dorothea’s theory of self care
-rogers theory of unitary human beings
-Watsons transpersonal caring theory

23) a client is hypertensive, and the doctor prescribes weight reduction. The client
is excited about beginning the diet, but on arriving home, the spouse states, you
have always been fat, and I am not going to starve because you can’t control
yourself. The client becomes anxious and is unable to participate in the diet time,
resulting in a weight gain of 5 pounds in two weeks. Which theorist would best be
referred to for guidance regarding interventions in this situation?
-Anna Freud
-Hilegard Peplau
-Harry Stack Sullivan
-Aaron beck

24) In describing depression to a patient, an interpersonal therapist would explain

that
-genetic, personality, and early childhood factors contribute to depression, but
symptoms are be triggered by stress, usually of an interpersonal nature.
-Psychosocial triggers cause depression but medications can help

-dysfunctional thoughts and maladaptive core beliefs create depression

-unconscious factors related to childhood will be the treatment focus.

25)In which phase does the nurse practitioner help the individual to recognize

and understand his/her problem and determine the need for treatment?

-assessment

-orientation

-identification. ?

-outcomes

26)Which study showed the 5-HTT genotype moderated the depressionogenic

influence of adverse life event.

-Gene X environment interaction

 -psychopathology

-epidemiological studies

-phenotype

27)What type of therapy focuses heavily on early childhood experiences as

determinants of unconscious mental processes and intrapsychic conflict?

-Emotive-behavior therapy

-Cognitive behavioral therapy

-Psychodynamic psychotherapy

-PTSD therapy

28)A group of four interpersonal problem areas that has become the focus of

IPT is known as

-PTSD

-grief modulators

- personality disorder

-depressogenic triggers
 29)Which of the following statements is true about affectional bonds, as

described by John Bowlby?

-Higher functioning individuals have no need for affectional bonds

-Affectional bonds develop only in congruence with pathology

-Humans have an innate need for affectional bonds

-Affectional bonds are destructive and should not be fostered

30) which studies have helped clarify the role of life events in the complex

matrix of factors that coincide in the development of psychiatric disorders?

-Epidemiological studies

-psychopathology

-genetic studies,

-methodological studies.

31)The atmosphere and character of the home, neighborhood or other

surroundings that affect the patients psychological healing

-psychiatric milieu

-psychiatric space
 -psychiatric environment

32) a graduate student is turning 40 next month and is saddened that she is still

single and does not have a child…….. Reasons for why none have lasted. Reading

more, they discussed for father, leaving his family for another woman when she

was six years old. Period. Period result according to Harry stack Sullivan’s

interpersonal theory, what major theme is presented in her relationships?

-Interpersonal Harmony

-role disputes

-role transitions

-interpersonal conflicts

33) in which phase does the nurse practitioner permits exploration of feelings to

aid the patient in undergoing illness and strengthens positive forces in the

personality and provides needed satisfaction.( Quizlet)

 -identification

-assessment

-resolution

-orientation

34) Under Sullivan’s interpersonal theory, all of these statements from a patient

would represent the “bad me” sense of self except?

-“Ive never been good in group situations ,always felt like I’d be making a big

mess”

-I could never do something like that”?

-How could I do that again when I screwed it up so much the first time”

-Whenever I think of speaking in public, I just freeze up”

35) If a patient was in a depressive phase of his or her bipolar disorder, and

interpersonal therapist would (Quizlet)

-treat the patient with a non-standardized interpersonal approach to therapy

-not treat the patient because interpersonal therapy is not appropriate

-treat the depressive phase in a similar manner to unipolar depression

 -not prescribe the patient a “sick role” as in unipolar depression.

36)Who theorized that a corrective interpersonal relationship with the therapist

was the primary mode of treatment (Quizlet)

-Sullivan

-Peplau

-Glasser

-Freud

37)The founder of psychiatric nursing is: (Quizlet)

-Dorothy Orem

-Florence Nightingale

-Hildegard Peplau

-Loretta Ford

Test Bank
 1) In which phase does the nurse practitioner permit exploration of feelings to

aid the patient in undergoing illness as an experience force in the personality and

provides needed satisfaction. Quizlet

Identification

Resolution

Assessment

Orientation

2)Interpersonal therapy developed as a part of a:

A therapy arm for a clinical trial evaluating antidepressant efficacy

3)During which phase of treatment do therapists evaluate patients; depressive

symptoms with them to determine therapeutic relationship building phase

Therapeutic relationship building phase

Initial phase

Termination phase

Middle phase
 4)In this nurse patient relationship phase the patient drifts away and breaks the

bond with the nurse a healthier emotion individuals (Quizlet)

Orientation

Exploration

Resolution

Identification

5-A graduate student is turning 40 next month and is saddened that she is still

single and does not have a child.She …. Reasons for why none have lasted

.Fruthemore they discuss her father leaving her family for another woman with

result. According the Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal theory what major theme

is presented in her relationship.

Interpersonal conflicts

Role transitions

Interpersonal harmony

Role disputes

6=In describing depression to a patient an interpersonal therapist would explain

that:
 Genetic, personality and early childhood factors contribute to depression but

symptoms can be trigger

Dysfunction thoughts and maladaptive core beliefs create depression

Unconscious factors related to childhood will be the treatment focus

Psychosocial triggers cause depression but medication can help

7-under Sullivan interpersonal theory all of these statements from a patient

would represent the

“bad me” sense of self except?

I could never do something like that

How could I do that again when I screwed it up so much the first time.

Whenever I think of speaking in public, just freeze up.

I ‘ve never been good in group situations always frlt like I’d be making a big

mess.

8 -the founder of psychiatric nursing is

Hildegard peplau

9-Empathy mainly involves:

 Putting yourself in someone else’s shoes.

10-interpersonal psychotherapy was developed in the 1970 which of the

following does this type of therapy focus on?

Childhood losses

Making amends

Current relationships

Intrapsychic conflict

11-If a patient was in a depressive phase of his o her bipolar disorder an

interpersonal therapist would :

Treat the depressive phase in a similar manner to unipolar depression

12=this nursing theorists’s Science of unitary human beings is similar to

Sullivan’s field theories.

Dorothea dix

Nola pender

Martha rogers

Dorotea orem
 13-The goal of prescribing a sick role to a patient in interpersonal therapy is to:

Demystify the symptoms and engage the patient

14- a middle aged man is experiencing complicated grief after multiple deaths.

Which question is most appropriate .

Did you start having problems around the same time?

Were the possessions left the same as when the person died.

In the months after the death how did you feel?

Has anyone died in a similar fashion or when your circumstances were similar.

15-which of the following statements is true about affectional bonds as

described by john Bowlby?

Humans have an innate need for affectional bonds

16-interpersonal psychotherapy differs from psychodynamic psychotherapy in

that it does not use

Empathy

Transference analysis
 An attempt to improve social relationships danait no se

Practical procedures

17-an interpersonal therapist and patient should collaboratively identify how

many problems areas to address (quizlet)

4 to 5 (to learn to generalize skills)

16 (one session)

1to 2 (to stay focused)

Varies deoending on patient ‘s presenting.

18-interpersonal therapy was developed:

Aklerman

19-On which phase does the nurse practitioner help the individual to recognized

and understand their problem and determine

Assessment

Identification

Orientation

Outcomes

20-mother child separation was heavily studied by

 Erick Erickson

John Bowlby danait

Jean Piaget

s.freud

Quiz #6

Quiz #6

1 : In developing his theory and clinical practice regarding client-centered

therapy, Carl Rogers

was heavily influenced by the work of

A : Albert Ellis.

B : Kurt Goldstein.

C : Sigmund Freud.

D : Aaron Beck.

Correct Answer : B

2 : Which term refers to a state of wholeness and integration?

 A : Empathy

B : Positive regard

C : Congruence

D : Experiencing

Correct Answer : C

3 : Client-centered therapists believe that empathy, unconditional positive

regard, and

congruence are

A : conveyed simply through listening and repeating the patients words.

B : attitudes consonant with a therapists values and beliefs.

C : variables the client brings to the therapeutic relationship.

D : attributes that can be faked while the therapist is in training.

Correct Answer : B

4 : Success in client-centered therapy corresponds with a(n)

A : rigid experiential mode.

B : dependence on the therapist.

C : devaluation of others.

D : internal locus of control.

Correct Answer : D

5 : Client-centered therapy focuses most heavily on the

A : present.

B : future.

C : past.

D : irrational.

Correct Answer : A

6 : A distinctive characteristic of client-centered therapy is the emphasis on the

A : human being as a person.

B : evolutionary development of emotions.

C : therapists maintenance of a directive stance.

D : earliest recollections of the client.

Correct Answer : A

8 : Gendlins experiential therapy locates the experiencing process in the

A : family.

B : society.

C : therapist.
 D : body.

Correct Answer : D

9 : What is an ethical claim signifying that human beings should not be used as

means to others

ends?

A : Dignity

B : Personhood

C : Client-centered therapy

D : Psychological theories

Correct Answer : B

10 : Which of the following represents a similarity between Rogerss approach

and Rankian

theory?

A : Viewing the individual based on unconscious forces

B : Emphasis on transferential relationships

C : Allowing the client to be the central figure

D : Reliance on interpretation in therapy

Correct Answer : C
 11 : The event most commonly identified with the birth of client-centered

therapy is

A : Americas involvement in World War II.

B : Maslows creation of the hierarchy of needs.

C : Rogerss presentation at the University of Minnesota.

D : Rogerss association with Elizabeth Davis.

Correct Answer : C

12 : The University of Wisconsin study of hospitalized schizophrenics showed

that treatment

outcome correlated highest with the

A : therapists perception of the therapeutic relationship.

B : clients perception of the therapeutic relationship.

C : researchers objective ratings of therapeutic process.

D : time spent with clients who received the least empathy.

Correct Answer : B

13 : According to Rogers, the center of an individuals world of experience is the

A : mother
 C : family.

D : individual.

Correct Answer : D

14 : In Rogerss personality theory, behavior is defined as

A : the direct result of reinforcement and punishment.

B : a goal directed attempt to satisfy an organisms needs.

C : a biologically driven process of interacting.

D : fulfillment of the drives of the id, ego, and superego.

Correct Answer : B

15 : Rogers believed that an organism has one basic tendency and striving,

which is

A : a drive to seek and maintain pleasurable sensory experiences.

B : to actualize, maintain, and enhance the experiencing organism.

C : fulfillment of basic needs for personal and species survival.

D : an aggressive force the individual must balance with societal needs.

Correct Answer : B
 16 : For social purposes, reality is defined as

A : common perceptions across individuals.

B : the private world of individual perceptions.

C : uncommon perceptions across individuals.

D : public knowledge of an individuals perceptions.

Correct Answer : A

17 : If given a choice, Rogers believed most individuals would chose to be

A : dependent.

B : sick.

C : aggressive.

D : healthy.

Correct Answer : D

18 : According to Rogers, psychological maladjustment occurs when an

individual

A : denies significant sensory and visceral experiences.

B : obtains insight regarding current and past experiences.

C : relies on internal resources to define self-concept.

 D : accepts organic experiences into the self-structure.

Correct Answer : A

19 : An infants ability to evaluate experience in terms of how it maintains or

enhances them is

known as

A : self-concept.

B : self-preservation.

C : direct organismic valuing.

D : distorted symbolization.

20 : The conceptual development of a concept of self is

A : a process completed by adulthood.

B : unrelated to relationships with others.

C : absolutely indefinable operationally.

D : a fluid, changing process.

Correct Answer : D

21 : The process by which an individual becomes aware of an experience is

known as
 A : symbolization.

B : reality.

C : actualization.

D : experience.

Correct Answer : A

22 : In ambiguous situations, individuals tend to symbolize experiences in a

manner consistent

with

A : social reality.

B : parental attitudes.

C : self-concept.

D : a therapist.

Correct Answer : C

23 : Fully functioning individuals capable of experiencing complete emotions

rely on

A : external sources of evaluation.

B : pleasure sustaining impulses.

C : organismic valuing processes.

 D : biological instincts and drives.

Correct Answer : C

24 : Understanding another individual by living in their internal frame of

reference is

A : knowledge.

B : empathy.

C : congruence.

D : reality.

Correct Answer : B

25 : Rogerss ethical vision of the person is expressed in scientific language by

his axiomatic

concept of

A : organismic valuing process.

B : reparative therapy.

C : client-centered therapy.

D : actualizing tendency.

Correct Answer : D
 26 : In the first interview, a person-centered therapist will

B : go where the client goes.

C : develop a treatment plan.

D : complete a diagnostic formulation.

Correct Answer : B

27 : When asked for advice, a person-centered therapist would most likely

A : facilitate the patients personal decision-making.

B : provide an opinion based on empathic knowledge.

C : focus on the transferential nature of the interaction.

D : assign homework that would allow self-discovery.

Correct Answer : A

28 : For a moment of movement, each statement is true EXCEPT which of the

following?

A : The experience has the quality of being unacceptable.

B : It is an experience without barriers or inhibitions.

C : For the first time it is being experienced completely.

D : It is not a thought, but an experience at that instant.

Correct Answer : A
 29 : A successful person-centered therapy outcome would be defined by

A : objective assessments indicating progress.

B : alleviation of symptoms representing a diagnostic label.

C : a therapists perception that the client improved.

D : the clients evaluation that therapy was beneficial.

Correct Answer : D

30 : In person-centered therapy, termination is decided by

A : symptom reduction.

B : the therapist.

C : the client.

D : behavior change.

Correct Answer : C

31 : Zimring underscores the importance of how humans become persons

within the context of

their

A : own psyche.

B : culture.
 C : family.

D : psychic distress.

Correct Answer : B

32 : If a child were raised by critical parents and unable to verbalize their own

thoughts and

feelings, Zimrings paradigm would suggest degradation of the

A : subjective context.

B : family context.

C : objective context.

Correct Answer : A

33 : A client-centered therapist would likely view the diagnostic process as

A : crucial to treatment planning.

B : a colossal waste of time.

C : vital to establishing empathy.

D : enhancing the clients locus of control.

Correct Answer : B
 34 : The conclusion drawn from meta-analyses and large-scale studies that all

major

psychotherapies yield comparable effect sizes is referred to as the

A : Dodo Bird effect.

B : common factors research.

C : Zimrings paradigm.

D : client-driven model.

Correct Answer : A

35 : In Lamberts meta-analytical review evaluating client-centered therapy, the

outcome variable

accounting for the most variance in treatment progress was

A : core conditions.

B : therapeutic techniques.

C : placebo factors.

D : client variables.

Correct Answer : D

Final Exam
 NUR 640 FINAL EXAM (Actual exam)

1-Neurosciences suggest that elective psychotherapy leads to changes at the:

Interpersonal therapy

Neuronal level

Cognitive level (google)

Behavioral level

2-An interpersonal therapist and patient should collaboratively identify how

many problems areas to address over the counter of treatment

One to two to (stay focuses) quizlet

16 one per session

Four to five to learn to gnrl skills

Varies depending on pt prsentantion

 3-a family therapist asks each member of a family sequentially to pose the

others family members in physical space __ technique is knows as:

Circular questioning

Enactment

Family sculpting quizlet

Reframing

4-the first therapist to treat families as a unit was

Anna freud

Nathan ackerman

Harry stack Sullivan

Alfred adler

5-Fully functioning individuals capable of experiencing complete emotions rely

on

Pleasure sustaining impulses

Organismic valuing process

Biological instinctincts and drives

External sourcesof evaluation

 6-Research suggest that interpersonal psychotherapy is effective in treating -----

----

Phobias

Depression

Schizophrenia

Bipolar disorder

7-In the first interview a person centered therapist will

Complete a diagnostic formulation

Gather historical information

Go where the client goes Quizlet

Develop a treatment plan

8-In treating patients with narcisstic personality disorder positive

psychotherapy, therapists must be

Mindful of the fact

a-the client may try to usurp the therapist’s authority and shift the focus

b-focusing on virtues may make the client more anxious

c-issues related to low self esteem will be the client preferred focus

identification of character strengths may exaggerate the client’s inflated

self view
 9-which of the following types of clients might not find positive psychotherapy

effective?

Clients presenting borderline personality disorder

Those expecting a linear progression in symptom reduction Quizlet

Individuals with adjustment disorder with depressed mood

Clients who are children or adolescents

10-The event most commonly identified with the birth of client centered

therapy is

Rogers association with elixabeth davis

Rogers presentation at university of Minnesota

Maslow creation of the hierarchy of needs

America’s involvement in world war 11

11-A client is hypertensive and the doctor prescribes weight reduction. The

client is excited about beginning the diet but on arrival… fat and I am not going to

starve because you can not control yourself . the client becomes anxious and is

unable to participate in 2 weeks . Which theorist could best be referred to for

guidance regarding interventions in this situation

 Aaron beck

Anna freud

Harry stack Sullivan

Hilegard pepalu

12-In which phase does the nurse practitioner permit exploration of feelings to

aid the patient in undergoing -illness as an experience that rec---- forces in the

personality and provides needed satisfaction

Orientation

Assessment

resolution

Identification

13-two women witness a horrific mass murder. One woman is able to resume

her daily tasks after 1 month the other ------- suicide. The difference in these two

responses can be described as

a-major depressive disorder

b-suicidal gestures

c-trauma bond

d-resilience
 14-a person centered group therapist is best described as a :

Teacher

Facilitator

Judge

Friend

15-------------------------is a form of learning in which existing responses are

attached to new stimulus by pairing those stimuli with those that naturally e -------

respondent conditioning

a-aversion conditioning

b-modern conditioning

c-classic conditioning

d-instrumental conditioning

16-If a Satir oriented therapist working in a session with a client said” as listen

to you explain what happened to you during the -----------you were feeling

frustrated. Does that sound right?

What is the therapist attempting to do with the client?

 Facilitate emotional expression

Communication coaching

Understand the ingredients

Soften the family rule

17- a 70 year old woman is admitted to the hospital after a fall in which she

broke he left hip. She is a difficult to get up and walking, contending that it does

not matter whether she regains her capacity to walk on her -------------fearful of

dying,she feels disgust at her own bodybecause it is

“falling apart” according to Erickson which

a- Generative v stagnation

b- Identity vs role confusion

c- Intimacy vs isolation

d- Integrity vs despair quizlet

18-Studies evaluating positive psychotherapy have found that these exercises

Cannot be adopted for other treatment modalities

Should be delivered in the sequence recommended

Are not able to be adapted effectively to online activities

Can be altered in sequences as needed. Quizlet

 19-Positive psychotherapy is not intended :

To seek to balance the attention given to positive life events in psychotherapy

To expand and enhance the scope of traditional psychotherapy

To seek to balance the attention given to negative life events in psychotherapy

To replace traditional therapeutic approaches Quizlet

20 -viewing interactions as reciprocal suggests causality is

Linear

Circular

Undetermined

Determined

21-in describing depression to a patient an interpersonal therapist would explain

that

-Genetic personality and early childhood factors contribute to depression

but symptoms can be triggered by stress usuality of

b-unconscious factors related to childhood will be the treatment focus

c-dysfunctional thoughts and maladaptive core beliefs create depression

 Psychosocial triggers cause depression but medications can help.

22-a psychiatry nurse Practitioner becomes angry at his 16 years old male client

when he started binge drinking. The nurse called:

Displace anger

Transference

Intellectuatization

Countertransfer

23-The client centered therapist strives to use an approach that is best described

as

Instrumental

Medical

expressive Quizlet

24-Character strengths are distinguished from which of the following?

Virtues and talents

Talents and abilities Quizlet

Abilities

Virtues
 25- Beck ‘s cognitive therapy of depression requires the individual to

Keep a dream diary

Keep a mood diary

Make an objective assessment of their beliefs

Set attainable life goals.

26)According to structural family systems therapy, boundaries that are

permeable tend to describe relationships in..

a)disengaged families (quizlet)

b)divorced families

c) single parent families

d)enmeshed families

27)The expression of certain genes that result from their activation by specific

but common environmental events is referred to as

a) somatiker

b)epigenetics (quizlet)
 c)neuronal decay

d)psychiker

28) A psychiatric nurse practitioner becomes sexually attracted to her female

client who reminds her of an ex lover. This is called.

a)assault

b)erotic delusions

c)transference (Quizlet)

d)countertransference

29)In traditional format, positive psychotherapy is offered in which of the

following number of sessions?

a)14 (Quizlet)

b)8

c)20

d)6

30) a man attends three sessions per week with his PMHNP. During each

session, he begins to talk, saying whatever comes to his mind. Occasionally he

remembers from the previous night. The PMHNP remain silent for the majority of
the session, asking only about details to classify what….. which of the following

types of therapy?

a)psychodream therapy

b)psychoanalysis

c)cognitive therapy

d)supportive psychotherapy

31)A patient starts complaining of chest pain and coughing whenever her

therapist confronts her. She insists, however, that she is not at all distressed or

angry.

a)somatization (quizlet)

b)displacement

c)projection

d)sublimation

32) A 20-year-old man comes to the psychiatric nurse practitioner because he

becomes extremely anxious in…. palms and rapid heartbeat. Which of the

following treatment options will provide the most effective and

a)treatment with an anxiolytic

b)psychodynamic psychotherapy
 c)treatment with an antidepressant

d)cognitive-behavioral therapy

33) the primary difference between positive psychology approaches and other

therapy approaches. Is that the positive psychology focuses on?

A) restructuring negative thoughts

b) evidence-based approaches to treatment

c)changing maladaptive behaviors

d)building character strengths (quizlet)

34) Hermon von Helmholtz described the unconscious reconstruction of what

our past taught us about an object as

a)psychic stimulation

b)unconscious inference (quizlet)

c)cognitive discovery

d)restructuring objects

35)In family systems therapy, psychoeducational approaches are often used

with families who have members…..

a)schizophrenia
 b)obsessive compulsive disorder

c)anxiety

d)depression

36)The mother of a teenager experiences severe manic episodes, creating a

condition within the family that is called?

a)a pseudomututality

b)a marital skew

c) a marital schism

d)a double bind

37) a graduate student is turning 40 next month and is saddened that she is still

single and does not have a child. She and her therapist… reasons for why none

have lasted. Furthermore, they discussed for father, leaving his family for another

woman when she was six years old. Period. Period result according to Harry stack

Sullivan’s interpersonal theory, what major theme is presented in her relationships?

A) Interpersonal Harmony

B) role disputes

C) role transitions
 D) interpersonal conflicts

38)A genogram is a

a) reenactment of previous negative communication patters.

b) physical acting out of family conflicts

c)compilation of each family member’s values and ideals

d)family tree diagram of generational behavior patterns

39)Who created the genogram as a therapeutic tool?

a)Bowen

b)Yalom

c)Freud

d)Minuchin

40)Which of the following results from the emotional experience gained by the

family through enactment of a directive?

a)experiential change

b)structure change

c)behavioral change (quizlet)

 d)cognitive change

41)Pope and Wedding would argue that in deciding to use psychotropic

medications.

a)immediate early genes are irrelevant

b)preset clinical objectives need to be determined (quizlet)

c)psychotherapy’s common factors are undermined

d)psychotherapy has occurred if patients suffering has been alleviated

42)A family argues constantly to avoid intimacy. This illustrates

a)mystification

b)double-bind

c)pseudohostility (quizlet)

d)scapegoating

43)A young woman with no previous psychiatric history develops an

incapacitation fear of driving after being involved in a minor automobile accident,

Which psychotherapy would be most appropriate for this patient?

a)brief psychotherapy

b)group therapy
 c)behavioral therapy (Quizlet)

d)cognitive therapy

44)A client-centered therapist would likely view the diagnostic process as

a)enhancing the client’s locus of control

b)a colossal waste of time (Quizlet)

c)vital to establishing empathy

d)crucial to treatment planning.

45)A young man gets into an argument with his teacher. Although he is very

upset. He remains silent as she chastises him severely…home from school, the

young man picks a fight with his younger brother over nothing and begins

screaming at him.

a)displacement

b)introjection

c)projection

d)reaction formation

46) A distinctive characteristic of client-centered therapy is the emphasis on the

a) evolutionary development of emotions

 b) therapist’s maintenance of a directive stance (quizlet)

c)earliest recollections of the client

d)human being as a person

47)Assuming a child’s tantrums occurs because parents reinforced the behavior

would be consistent with which of the theoretical orientations

a)behavioral. (quizlet)

b)psychoanalytic

c)person-centered

d)family systems

48)Under Sullivan’s interpersonal theory all of these statements from a patient

would represent the “bad me” sense of self

a) “ I could never do something like that”

b) “Whenever I think of speaking in public, I just freeze up”

c) “How could I do that again when I screwed it up so much the first time?

d) “Ive never been good in group situations- always felt like I’d be making a

big mess”
 49)Which of the following therapies has been shown to be effective in treating

affective and anxiety disorder

a)structural family therapy

b)strategic family therapy

c)transgenerational family therapy

d)cognitive behavior therapy (Quizlet)

50) Which of the following if NOT a behavioral technique?

a)modeling

b)contingency contracts

c)Interpretation of dreams (Quizlet)

d)relaxation training

NUR 650. Quiz #1. Group Therapy

1) Group confidentiality should be established through

-informed consent

-before terminating membership

-a cathartic event

-the discharge process

 2)A democratic leadership style is likely to impact the group by

-leading the group members to compliance

-resulting in more active participation?

-causing feelings of confusion and frustration

-greater feelings of caring about other group members

3)Group therapy may be contraindicated when an individual:

- May need one on one attention to their trauma with a provider

-May acquire therapeutic benefit from observing and watching others

-May need to work out their problems in the presence of others

-May need comfort and support from others

4)Each group member must actively work to open themselves to ______ others,

and to addressing the issues that get in the way of doing so.

-Support

-Trust

-challenge

-understand
 5)A 12-week closed group was created for mothers experiencing anxiety. When

is the best time to ….

-at the last session

-during the group orientation meeting ??????

-during week 5-8 group sessions ?

-during week 1-3 group session

6)

7)Yalom believed that most ….

-interpersonal learning

-universality

-altruism

-group cohesion

8) The primary family group is important in group therapy because most clients

have a

1. satisfactory family experience.

2. they have no effect on people's adult lives

 3. individual resolution of inner conflict can be covered

4. early familial conflicts can be relived correctively.

9)The following is not an example of a primary group theory model

-person centered

-humanistic

-relaxation

-interpersonal

10)Group counseling can be designed to meet the needs of specific populations.

Which of the following is NOT

-Groups for individuals actively suicidal

-Counseling groups for college students

-Groups for children under 12 years old

-Counseling groups for schizophrenic persons

 11)In group therapy, when a good level of cohesiveness is attained.

-hostility can be openly expressed

-critical and analytic thought by the group members is discouraged

-“group-think” phenomenon occurs

-group attendance declines

12) Individuals enter therapy feeling that they are unique in their problems.

With this

therapeutic factor, these feelings are disconfirmed

-altruism

-cohesiveness

-universality

-existential factors

13)Hope is crucial to the group therapeutic process because________?

-participants need to believe change can occur.

-participants need to have inner peace about sobriety.

-participants need to believe in the group leader.

-participants need to connect to their higher power.

 14)Altruism reveals that

-good relationships are about one side taking more than giving

-there is some inherent benefit in the fact of giving to others.

-people simply do not care about each other

-people are burdensome and not worth helping

15)The main rationale for a group leader’s personal disclosures is the

assumption that

-he or she is the expert who has the answers to members’ problems.

-his or her stories will be more interesting than members’ stories.

-sharing some personal information will facilitate the work of the group.

-self-disclosure is a good strategy to use when he or she cannot think of other

strategies

16)Interpreting the meaning of behavior patterns at appropriate times so that

members will be able to engage in a deeper level of self-exploration and consider

alternative behaviors is most critical at the

-storming stage

-morning stage
 -performing stage

-forming group

17)The instilling and maintenance of hope is critical in group psychotherapy

because

-expectations of positive outcomes are therapeutic.

-as one group member improves, the others become discouraged

-faith in the treatment mode is ineffective

-hope is a unrealistic feeling

18)A group member who has difficulty accepting her own feelings of hostility

tends to view most other group members as hostile. It is likely that she is

-engaging in countertransference

-rationalizing her feelings

-projecting her own hostility onto others members.

-quite perceptive of others’ true feelings

19)Which of the following is NOT considered a therapeutic factor of a group?

-individuality

-cognitive restructuring
 -existential factors

-hope

20)A crucial phase of the group is _____ because the members learn to let go

and say goodbye

-the performing phase

-the forming phase

-the storming phase

-adjourning phase.

21)Psychodrama can be best defined as

-creating a drama play to discuss difficult topics like death

-re-enacting situations that happened in the past to face them

-using acting to recreate current events to maintain memories

-playing the role of a mother to prepare for an acting role.

22)______, according to Yalom, is curative and therapeutic in itself because it

gives members the incentive to commit themselves to the demanding work that

-Hope.

-positivity
 -freedom to experiment

-intimacy

23)It is most important screen for group members who are considered

“difficult” because

-they may need the most support

-they challenge the group leader

-they are at risk of group failure

-they are disruptive and undesirable

24)Identify the curative factor that occurs when participants begin to share,

learn about others’ similarities, and become more trusting.

-hope

-universality

-altruism

-trust
 25)Thoughts and behaviors characteristics of group members during the

transition stage of the group process include

-anxiety, sadness and fear, and questioning what comes next

-defensiveness and resistance, anxiety and fear and struggle for control

-trust and resistance, anxiety and fear, struggle for control

-defensiveness and resistance, anxiety and fear and self-disclosure

26)When characteristics exist such as a high degree of cohesion, open

communication, shared leadership functions, and freely giving feedback and

considering it non-….. can be said that the group is at the.

-norming stage

-performing stage

-adjourning stage

-initial stage

27) In dysfunctional groups, it is common for group members to

-deal with their issues in a mature manner

-work on their own family issues

-seek help from the unofficial group leader. ?

 -seek help from the assigned group leader

28) A group that was designed to meet weekly for 10 sessions to deal with

feelings of depression would be a(n)

-open group

-support group

-closed group.

-educational group

29)A 36-year-old executive is recovering from tobacco dependence. A group

member states he puts a writing pen in his mouth every time he thinks of smoking.

The ……..the same technique when he has urges to smoke. Which curative factor

does this describe?

-group cohesiveness

-interpersonal learning

-imitative behavior

-the corrective recapitulation of the primary family group

30)When group members provide support, reassurances, suggestions, and

insight to other members, it is considered

 -best group practices

-developing socialization techniques

-installing hope

-altruism

31) Unexpressed feelings often result in physical symptoms such as chronic

headaches, stomach pains, muscle tension, and high blood pressure. The expression

of pent -up feelings can be therapeutic because it releases energy that has been tied

up in withholding certain threatening feelings. This describes

-cognitive reconstruction

-catharsis

-somatization

-self-disclosure
 32) After a cathartic experience some kind of _____ is often necessary to help

members make new decisions based on what they have experienced emotionally.

-behavioral intervention

-emotional work

-solution-focused work

-cognitive work

33) Group therapy originated during:

a. The Just Say No to Drugs Era
b. World War II
c. The 60's Free Love Era
d. The Vietnam War

34) Which stage has the focus of applying what has been learned in the group and
putting it to use in everyday life begin?
a. Norming
b. Transition
c. Working
d. Storming

35)Group therapy is useful when?

-a therapeutic benefit from observing and watching videos exists

- behavioral and exposure interventions are necessary

- a group of individuals share, similar problems or psychopathology’s

- there is a need to treat an individual while others watch

 36)Which technique is typically used In the person-centered group?

-Listening, trusting and understanding

-Direct confrontation in an aggressive manner

-Structured communication exercises in groups

-Probing and questioning

37) The practice of talking in groups to discuss difficult issues can be dated

back to

-World War 1

-World War II

-the Vietnam war

-the beginning of civilization

38) Which of the following is a therapeutic benefit of group therapy?

-Transference

-Enmeshment

-Socialization
 -Countertransference

39)According to Yalom, the primary family group is important in group therapy

because

-early familial conflicts can be relived correctively

-individual resolution of inner conflict can be covered

-most clients have a satisfactory family experiences

-they have no effect on people’s adult lives

40) Self-______ develops healing within the group

-Acceptance

-Empathy

-Alturism

-existential factors

41)The target of the group’s anger and anxieties are usually not attributed to

_______ in a dysfunctional group.

-a common enemy
 -the group leader

-the person who has caused the anxiety

-the government ?????

42)A young man has trouble expressing his sexuality. His parents do not

approve of premarital sex. How can he reduce his fears using group therapy

techniques.

-journaling

-deep breathing

-role reversal

-meditation

42) During the forming stage of the group, members tend to

-be highly social in order to avoid being negatively evaluated by other members

-connect with each other by blaming their mothers for their problems

-present the dimensions of themselves they consider socially acceptable ??????

-delve into their deeper emotions in ways they have ever done before
 Other Test Bank

01- This stage of a group includes getting prepared, announcing the group,
screening and selecting the members, and preparing them for a successful
experience.
Formation Stage

02- At the initial sessions, members tend to

keep a public image, they present dimension of themselves they consider socially
acceptable

03- When characteristics exist such as a high degree of cohesion, open

communication, shared leadership functions, willingness to risk threatening
material and freely giving feedback and considering it non-defensively it can
be said that the group is at the _______ stage,
working stage / norming

04- In this type of group, no new members are added for the predetermined
duration of its life.
a closed group

05- Which stage has the focus of applying what has been learned in the group
and putting it to use in everyday life?
Consolidation
06- As the group moves through the stages
the leader's relationship with individual members will become deeper and the
leader's interventions will likely be different.

07- Group confidentiality should be established through

Informed consent

08- An ethical practice for leaders to follow is to inform members that

they should leave from the group only after they have discussed the matter in the
group leader.

09- One way for members to share their experience with others outside the
group without breaking confidentiality or informed consent is:
for them to talk about their own experience, reactions, and insights without
describing other members or mentioning others in the group by name.

10- According to research, the _______ is crucial aspect of effective therapy.

Therapeutic Alliance

11- Self-Help Groups can

Bring together people who share a common problem

12- Group therapy can be used for

When a group of individuals share similar problems or psychopathologies

13- Leaders bring to every group all of the following except:

Value (from chat) I would put: personal opinion

14- Each member must actively work to open themselves to ____ others and to
address the issues that get in the way of doing so
Trust

15- Trust is established within the group when

Members are willing to disclose their personal information

16- The main rationale for the group leader’s personal disclosure is the
assumption that
Such sharing will facilitate the work of the group

17- Group therapy can be advantageous when an individual

May acquire therapeutic benefit from observing and watching others (from chat)

18- A group leader’s primary role is to screen and select group members
Who can be integrated into the group easily

19- It is most important screen for members who are difficult” because
They may need the most support

20-Which of the following is not a type of group therapy

Experiential groups

21- Group leaders become an influential force in a group when they are
Able to model effective behavior rather than merely describe it

22- Name the type of group that focuses on issues such as remediation,
treatment, and personality reconstruction
Therapy groups
23- A meaning centered group
Encourage therapy, and self-growth through disclosure and interaction

24- Conflict happens most often during which stage of the group process
Storming; the transition phase.

25- Genuine ____ develops in a group when people have revealed enough of
themselves for others to identify with them
Intimacy

26- Group counseling can be designed to meet the needs of specific

populations. Which of the following is not one?
Either this one. Counseling groups for unmanaged individuals with schizophrenia
or this one Counseling groups for unmanaged individuals with acute psychosis

Quiz 2

01- A crucial phase of the group is because of the members learn to let
go, and say goodbye
Working phase
Termination phase
The orientation phase
The post group phase

07- Which stage has the focus of applying what has been learned in the group,
and putting it to use in every life begin
Transition
Orientation
Working
Norming

08- Leaders bring to every group all of the following except

Life experiences
Values
Personal opinions
Personal qualities

Diversity-competent group leaders recognize and understand all of the

following EXCEPT
to not allow their personal values or problems to interfere with their work with
clients who are culturally different from them.

09- In this type of group, no new members are added for the predetermined
duration of its life
A heterogeneous group
A homogenous group
An open group
A closed group
10- Conflict happens most often during which stage of the group process
A. Orientation
B. Termination
C. Working phase
D. Detachment Maybe
Storming which is the right answer is missing

11- Trust established within the group when

Members compete for the attention of the group leader
Members are dividing themselves into groups, and cliques
Members wait for the leader to discuss their thoughts
Members are willing to disclose their personal information

12- It is most important screen for members who are considered “difficult”
because
They are at risk of group failure
They challenge the group leader
They may need the most support
They are disruptive and undesirable

13- The basic criterion for the selection of group members is

The absence of any neurotic symptoms
Whether they are dependent or independent personalities
Whether they will contribute to the group or whether they will be
counterproductive
The degree to which the group leader likes the person
14- At the initial sessions, members tend to
Delve into their deeper emotions
Keep “public image” that is they present the dimension of themselves they
consider socially acceptable
Connect with each other by blaming their mothers for problems
Be higher social in order to avoid being negatively evaluated by other members

15- Self-help groups can

Enable self-diagnosis
Bring together people who share a common problem
Does not require a facilitator
Enable individuals to work through their problem alone

16- Group Therapy can be used for

Behavioral and exposure intervention
Therapeutic benefit from observing and watching videos
When there is a need to treat an individual in the presence of others
When a group of individuals share similar problems or psychopathologies

17- This stage of a group includes getting prepared announcing the group,
screening and selecting the members, and preparing them for a
Orientation stage
Transition stage
Formation stage
Working stage
18- A group leader’s primary role is to screen and select group members
Who are beneficial to the group
Who have been referred by their physician
Who can be integrated into the group easily
Who are not harmful to other group members

20- When the group leader uses as a therapeutic tool, it can be helpful in
the group process.
Goals
Self-disclosure
Respect
Empathy

21- When the group moves through the stages

The leader’s relationship with the individual members will become deeper, but the
leader’s interventions will stay the same
The leader’s relationship with the individual member will become superficial, but
the leader’s interventions will be different
The leader’s relationship with the individual members will become deeper, but the
leader’s interventions will change
The leader’s relationship with the individual member will become superficial, but
the leader’s interventions will not change

Other Test Bank

According to theorist, resistance is best seen as

 1. a function of a mismatch between the client's stage of chance and the

therapist's

strategies

2. a trait of difficult clients

3. an indicator of poor prognosis which, if persistent, indicates that the client

should

be dropped from counseling

Which of the following is an example of a change statement?

1. I can stop using anytime l am read to

2. I am a functional drinker.

3. My use has gotten a little out of hand at times.

4. Everybody sets high sometimes

Within the motivational interviewing framework, advice may be given by a

therapist to a

client

1. After the therapist receives permission to giver

2. at any time the therapist deems it appropriate

3. when the client requests it

 4. It is never permissible

Which of the following is NOT considered a therapeutic factor of a group?

1. Hope

2. Individuality

3. Cognitive restructuring

4. Existential factors

When an identified group member experiences emotional catharsis, who reaps

the

benefit?

1. the group as a whole

2. the peer members

3. the identified member

4. the group facilitator

Yalom believed the most important therapeutic factor is

1. altruism

2. interpersonal learning

3. universality
 4. group cohesion

In group therapy, when a good level of cohesiveness is attained,

1. group-think phenomenon occurs

2. group attendance declines

3. hostility can be openly expressed

4. critical and analytic thought by the group members is discouraged

In the social microcosm of a group, members will sooner or later enact their

1. ability to always be different than the group

2. maladaptive interpersonal behavior

3. ability to mask their persona dislikes

4. ability to see all things spiritually

The instilling and maintenance of hope is critical in group psychotherapy

because

1. faith in the treatment mode is effective

2. as one group member improves, the others become discouraged

3. expectations of positive outcomes are therapeutic

 4. hope is an unrealistic feeling

The motivational interviewing approach is

1. primarily educational

2. highly authoritarian

3. completely non-directive

4. directive, but client centered

Individuals enter therapy feeling that they are unique in their problems. With

this

therapeutic factor, these feelings are disconfirmed

1. existential factors

2. universality

3. cohesiveness

4. altruism

The high importance of the emotional experience in group therapy is partially

because

1. conflict and tension are undesirable in groups

2. The evocation an expression of raw affects is sufficient

 3. interactive, interpersonal social reality testing happens in groups.

4. the corrective emotional experience cannot occur in groups

When an identified group member experiences emotional catharsis, who reaps

the

benefit?

1. the group facilitator

2. the identified member

3. the peer members

4. the group as a whole

the goal of the analytic process is

1. adequate social adjustment

2. uncovering early experiences

 3. reconstructing the client's character and personality system

4. achieving intense feelings in the here and now

Expressing empathy, reflecting, and summarizing are primarily used to

1. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the patient

2. See the world through the speaker's eyes and experiences

3. Clarify the facts before developing a treatment plan

4. Look back at how the patient's childhood affect them

Practitioners of motivational interviewing utilize all of the following skills and

strategies

EXCEPT:

1. open ended questions

2. reinforcing confrontational talk

3. summarizing and linking the session

4. affirming and supporting the patient

Motivational interviewing was adapted from

1. cognitive behavioral theory

2. person centered theory

 3. positive and supportive theories

4. interpersonal theory

Which statement describes a reflection in motivational interviewing:

1. Short answers used to gain information from a complex question.

2. Statements mirroring the content or feelings explicitly or implicitly

stated by the

client

3. Transition statements that move from one idea to another

4. Yes or no statements used to gain information from a simple question

In what stage, there is no intention of changing a behavior pattern

1. preparation

2. contemplation

3. precontemplation

4. action

Which of the following is a stage in the theory of change?

1. empathy
 2. self-efficacy

3. feedback

4. preparation

Which of the following is NOT considered a therapeutic factor of a group?

1. Cognitive restructuring

2. Existential factors

3. Individuality

4. Hope

A group member who has difficulty accepting her own feelings of hostility

tends to view

most other group.

1. quite perceptive of others' true feelings.

2. projecting her own hostility onto other members.

3. rationalizing her feelings.

4. engaging in countertransference.

The therapist tells the patient, "You handled yourself really well in that

situation: This
statement is an example of:

1. an affirming response

2. an open question

3. reflective listening

4. a summary

Motivational interviewing was adapted from

1. cognitive behavioral theory

2. person centered theory

3. positive and supportive theories

4. interpersonal theory

The motivational interviewing approach is

1. completely non-directive

2. primarily educational

3. directive, but client centered

4. highly authoritarian

The goal of the analytic process is

1. uncovering early experiences.

 2. achieving intense feelings in the here and now.

3. adequate social adjustment.

4. restructuring the client's character and personality system

Which of the following is NOT considered a therapeutic factor of a group?

1. Cognitive restructuring

2. Existential factors

3. Individuality?

4. Hope

A group member who has difficulty accepting her own feelings of hostility

tends to view

most other group members:

1. quite perceptive of others' true feelings.

2. projecting her own hostility onto other members.

3. rationalizing her feelings.

4. engaging in countertransference

Select one technique each that is used in the following statements: "I can see

that
 things have been very tough for you recently".

1. facilitation

2. empathy

3. confrontation

4. interpretation

Which statement is an example of focusing?

1. You are not sure whether narcotics anonymous therapy would be most

helpful.

You prefer to attend Celebrate Recovery.

2. Checking into this inpatient facility was courageous. It is the first step in

your path

toward recovery.

3. Finding the right sponsor is a step toward recovery. It seems you have

already

located two potential sponsors.

4. Have you experienced negative physical effects because to your cocaine

addiction?

People never intend to take action in the future in the stage:

 1. precontemplation

2. preparation

3. contemplation

4. action

Motivational interviewing was founded by

1. Sullivan and Peplau

2. Miller and Rollnick

3. Freud and Erickson

4. Bandura and Flannigan

The instilling and maintenance of hope is critical in group psychotherapy

because

1. expectations of positive outcomes are therapeutic

2. as one group member improves, the others become discouraged

3. hope is an unrealistic feeling

4. faith in the treatment mode is ineffective

The high importance of the emotional experience in group therapy is partially

because:
 1. Conflict and tension are undesirable in groups

2. Interactive, interpersonal and social reality testing happens in groups.

3. The evocation and expression of raw affect is sufficient.

4. The corrective emotional experience cannot occur in groups.

In the social microcosm of a group, members will sooner or later enact their:

1. ability to mask their personal dislikes

2. ability to always be different than the group

3. maladaptive interpersonal behavior

4. ability to see all things spiritually

The high importance of the emotional experience in group therapy is partially

because

1. Conflict and tension are undesirable in groups

2. Interactive, interpersonal and social reality testing happens in groups.

3. The evocation and expression of raw affect is sufficient.

4. The corrective emotional experience cannot occur in groups.

Many psychiatric patients who beginning group therapy are demoralized and
1. possess a great deal of self confidence

2. have inflated egos

3. have a great sense of intrinsic self-worth

4. have self-esteem issues

Yalom believed the most important therapeutic factor is

1. universality

2. group cohesion

3. interpersonal learning

4. altruism

Which statement is true regarding catharsis?

1. it is vital for each group member to experience in each session

2. it is linked to imitative behavior

3. it is linked to altruism

4. it must be combined with another therapeutic factor to be effective

Motivational interviewing is designed to evoke and explore:

 1. unfinished business

2. interpersonal barriers

3. childhood trauma

4. ambivalence

Wheeler Test Bank Chapter 12

The student nurse asks if advance practice training is needed to lead

psychoeducation groups and assist families. The instructor tells the nurse that all
nurses can lead the groups as long as they:
• Support a loss of autonomy.
• Promote rigidity and chaos.
• Understand family and group dynamics.
• Isolate family members from one another

The nurse facilitating a group session is concerned that the members are hesitant
about sharing feelings and experiences. The nurse knows that there is a low level
of trust among the group members, which will also determine the level of:
• Cohesion.
• Family history.
• Risk-taking.
• Uniqueness
The nurse knows the Johari Window is a theoretical tool used to represent:
• The id and the superego in relation to self-awareness.
• Depression in family members.
• A multidimensional model of self.
• Self-disclosure in relation to others

The nurse mentions to a colleague that yesterdays therapy group was developing
cohesion and understands that this is important for:
• Flexibility.
• Boundaries.
• Goal attainment.
• Communication.

The nurse leading a group of inpatient clients observes a client trying to control the
group by monopolizing the discussion. The nurse knows this will most likely
decrease:
• Therapeutic alliance.
• Leader credibility.
• Cohesion.
• Power and influence.

When planning sessions for a group of battered women, which stage of group
development would it be most appropriate for the nurse to lead a discussion
regarding legal solutions and alternative living arrangements?
• Forming
• Norming
• Storming
• Performing

An inpatient group has decided to focus on developing better communication

skills. Each member will practice initiating a conversation with a partner while a
third member observes the interaction and provide feedback. Which stage of group
development best describes these actions?
• Performing
Forming
• Norming
• Storming

The nurse notices that one of the group members seems frustrated. He is very
friendly with everyone in the group but seems upset when some group members do
not reciprocate with an equal amount of friendliness. The nurse understands that
the group member is demonstrating his interpersonal needs for:
• Love
• Affection
• Grief
• Reasoning

The nursing student knows that clients need for inclusion allows the group
members to:
Remain emotionally available.
• Become great communicators.
• Interact with one another satisfactorily.
• Use the clients need to obtain group privacy

A group leader states that he respects the competence and responsibility of

members of the group but gets annoyed when one of the group members takes over
a group meeting. The group leader is demonstrating the interpersonal need for:
• Self-respect.
• Religion.
• Control.
• Social reasoning

The nurse knows that any group moves through three interpersonal phases in a
particular order, which includes:
• Inclusion, control, and affection.
• Reasoning, inclusion, and self-confidence.
• Control, love, and affection.
• Reasoning, self-confidence, and religion.

A nursing student learns that group therapy reveals distortions in interpersonal

relationships in an effort to:
• Learn how to stifle emotions.
• Examine and resolve issues.
• Process and examine emotions.
• Effectively handle emotions

A nurse has been working one-to-one therapy with a client but now tells the client
it would be beneficial for the client to be part of a group. The nurse knows that the
advantage of group therapy is:
• A therapeutic experience for the benefit of many therapists.
• The nurse can work with more people at one time.
• Multiple associations with various therapists.
• The presence of many people participating in a therapeutic experience

The client is being discharged from an inpatient facility. The nurse explains that
part of the outpatient treatment will be to take part in group therapy because it
provides a structure for:
• Supporting clients on a regular basis.
• Trying out old and new ways of acting and reacting.
• Using health care benefits in new and exciting ways.
• Supporting clients and families.

Clients with mental disorders benefit from therapeutic groups because they
provide:
• Feedback from a number of sources.
• A monitoring system that helps clients control impulses.
• The best stimuli for clients.
• A way for them to feel normal.

The nurse is planning a psychoeducation group for substance abusers and is

conducting selection interviews. Which of the following individuals with substance
abuse issues would not be an appropriate member?
• A client who has attended AA meetings in the past
• A client who has been court ordered to attend group therapy
• A client who has recently been promoted to district manager
• A client who is also being treated for a psychiatric illness

The nurse is planning a group to rehabilitate sex offenders in a forensic psychiatric

hospital. Which of the following factors would most likely decrease the degree of
trust and cohesion among the members?
• One hour weekly sessions
• Addition of new members
• Confidentiality rights of victims
• Member interaction outside the group

A few members of an outpatient group have begun meeting socially in a local

restaurant for coffee and donuts before going to work each day. What should the
group therapist leader do in this situation?
• Discourage social meetings outside regular group sessions
• Encourage all members to meet for coffee and donuts each morning
• Join the members a few mornings a week
• Suggest meeting for dinner once a week instead

The nursing student knows that group interaction requires the therapist to focus
attention on each members feelings toward other group members, the therapists,
and the group to illuminate relationship implications of interpersonal transactions.
This process is known as:
• Interactional group therapy.
• The here-and-now.
• Process illumination.
• Objective family burden

During a group session, a client becomes very angry at a comment by another

member of the group. The therapist asks why the client became so angry. The
group is using:
• Events for emotional awareness.
• Interpersonal conflict issues to resolve personal issues.
• The self-reflective loop.
• Fear

The nurse knows that the primary task of the interactional group therapist is to
make sure events in the session take precedence over:
• Outside events.
• Illness prevention.
• Family matters.
• Individual therapy.
The therapist for an interactive therapy group has noticed some behaviors among
the members that need to be made overt. The therapist would be concerned about:
• Expressing affection and sorrow.
• Suggesting alternatives and denigrating each other.
• Power struggles and attention-seeking.
• Seeking social support and increasing conflict

During group therapy, a male client laughs inappropriately and rolls his eyes when
another male client discusses his feelings about coming out as a homosexual. The
group therapist asks the first client to explain his reaction to the rest of the group.
This process is an example of:
• Taboo behavior.
• Clearing the air.
• Hidden homosexuality.
• Attention-seeking and power struggles

Which of the following group therapies would be most helpful for clients
diagnosed with severe and persistent schizophrenia who are living in a nursing
home?
• Bible-study groups
• Dialectical behavior groups
• Mutual-help groups
• Social skills training groups

Clients with chronic persistent mental illness have been attending a creative
activities group which focuses on expression of feelings through poetry, music, and
art. What client behaviors would be l expected?
• Increased paranoid delusions
• Increased physical activity
• Increased auditory hallucinations
• Increased social interaction and self-esteem

You are a nurse manager of an ICU in a local hospital and have lost two nurses on
your staff. One nurse quit and the other nurse is receiving treatment in a center for
alcohol abuse. What type of group would you recommend to your staff before
considering a transfer or quitting?
• Nurse-to-nurse support group
• Nurse storytelling group
Nurse bibliotherapy group
• Nurse Alcoholics Anonymous group

Quiz #2 Test Bank Motivational Interviewing

01- Motivational interviewing is designed to evoke and explore XX

Ambivalence
Interpersonal barriers
Childhood trauma
Unfinished business

02- A farmer announces, during a follow up visit for alcohol abuse, that he is
ready to quit heroin. What Motivation Interviewing style, the question should
be:
Rhetorical
Opened/ended
Yes/no
Closed-ended

03- In the ____ stage, individuals intend to take action immediately and report
some small behavioral changes
Precontemplation
preparation
contemplation
action

04- During an interview the patient states I have been feeling more depressed
lately and the therapist reply “your are feeling a bit more sad about little
things” this is considered an example of:
Complex reflection
Complex engagement
single engagement
simple reflection

05- Select one technique that is used in the following statement “It is quite
acceptable to feel the way you do”
Closing question
summarizing
facilitation
interpretation
None of the answers are right
Select one technique each that is used in the following statements: right answer is
Legitimation, indicating not only that it is OK to talk about these feelings but that
it is quite acceptable for the person to feel the way he does.

06- In the ------ stage there is no intention of changing a behavioral pattern

Action
Preparation intending to change behavior within the next
month
contemplation considering changing behavior in the next 6
months
precontemplation no intention to changing behavior in the next
6 months

07- Complex reflection is defined as

Staying close to what the speaker has said with some synonyms
Emphasizing the abnormal behaviors described
Repeating an element of what the speaker has said
Inferring/guessing at the speaker meaning and reflecting it back

Complex Reflection adds additional or different meaning beyond what the client
has just said; a guess as to what the client may have meant
08- MI emphasizes the ……of therapy which is known as the MI spirit
Familial context
emotional context
relation context
cultural context

09- The transtheoretical model does not include which state?

Contemplation
Maintenance
Change determination X
Action

10- People intend to take action in the immediate future

Preparation
action
precontemplation
contemplation

11- Motivational interviewing was founded by

Miller and Rollnick.

12- The therapist tells the patient, “you handle yourself very well in that
situation
Reflective listening
opened question
affirming response
summary

13- Expressing empathy, reflecting and summarizing are primarily used to:
See the world through the speaker's eye and experiences
clarify the facts before developing a treatment plan
look back and how the patient’s childhood affects them
establish a therapeutic relationship with the patient.

14- Select one technique that is used in the following statement. “Before we
talk about the panic attacks can I just go through what you have told me
about your depression? Please correct me as I go along”.
Closing question
summarizing
facilitation
interpretation

15- Select one technique that is used in the following statement “you seem
quite upset when you are talking about this”
Reflection
summarizing
facilitation
interpretation
16- Practitioners of MI utilize all of the following skills and strategies except
Affirming and supporting the patient
opened ended questions
summarizing and linking the session
reinforcing confrontational talk

17- According to MI techniques, when a therapist argues that a client’s

behavior needs to change, the client often response by
Asking the therapist for advice
moving to the next stage of change
accepting the need for change
arguing against change

18- In the engagement state, the goal is to

Elicit a mutual plan that will be followed
establish trust and helping relationship
identify the direction of a target of change
bring forth the patient’s motivation for change

19- When interviewing the patient, the therapist’s voice goes up at the end of
the question. This technique is known as
Another way to ask:
Inflection
deflection
ascension
reflection
Reflections are distinguished from questions by voice inflection; inflection goes up
at the end of a question and down at the end of a reflective statement. Book

20- The motivational interviewing approach is

Highly authoritarian
completely non directive
primarily educational
directive but client centered

21. According to Miller & Rollnick (1991), resistance is best seen as.
According to theorist, resistance is best seen as
• The test question is: Resistance can be defined as?
A healthy assertion of client independence
A function of a mismatch between the client’s stage of change and the
therapist’s strategies
A traits of difficult clients
An indicator of poor prognosis which, if persistent, indicate that the client should
be dropped from counseling

22. According to Miller and Rollnick (1991), when a therapist argues that a
client's behavior needs to change, the client often responds by
arguing against change.

23. Within the motivational interviewing framework, advice may be given by

a therapist to a client
It is never permissible
At any time, the therapist deems it appropriate
When the client requests it
After the therapist receives permission to give it

both b and c
b: when the client requests it
c: after the therapist receives permission to give it

24. Select one technique each that is used in the following statements: “What
do you mean when you say you have been having panic attacks?”
Closing question
Facilitation
Interpretation
Confrontation
None of the answers in the quiz are right. Clarification is the right answer

25- Select one technique each that is used in the following statements: “Go
on…. Tell me more about it”
Facilitation
Open end question
Interpretation
Closing question

26- Motivational interviewing was adapted from

Interpersonal Theory
Positive and supportive Theories
Person Centered Theory
Cognitive Behavioral Theory

extra
Interview
Select one technique each that is used in the following statements:
Statements
1. “What do you mean when you say you have been having panic attacks?”
Clarification
2. “Before we talk about the panic attacks can I just go through what you
have told me about your depression? Please correct me as I go along”.
Summarising
3. “I can see that things have been very tough for you recently”.
Empathy – the ability to reflect accurately the inner experience
4. “Go on . . . Tell me more about it”.
Facilitation
5. “You seem quite upset when you are talking about this”.
Reflection – stating or labelling the observed emotion.

Interview techniques
Name the technique used in these statements:
Statements
1. “I want to offer what help that I can”.
Support, indicating and emphasizing the interviewer’s role in helping.
2. “I think there are ways that we can work together to help you feel better”.
Offering hope, that a problem can be resolved.
3. “You have managed before and you can do it again”.
Encouragement
4. “I am impressed by what you have managed to do despite all this”.
Respectful statements, which positively reinforce the person’s
5. “It is quite acceptable to feel the way you do”.
Legitimation, indicating not only that it is OK to talk about these feelings but that
it is quite acceptable for the person to feel the way he does. Facilitation

Other Test Bank

There are mixed questions from quiz 1 and also this bank has motivational

interviewing questions…

According to theorist, resistance is best seen as

1. a function of a mismatch between the client's stage of chance and the

therapist's

strategies

2. a trait of difficult clients

 3. an indicator of poor prognosis which, if persistent, indicates that the client

should

be dropped from counseling

Which of the following is an example of a change statement?

1. I can stop using anytime l am read to

2. I am a functional drinker.

3. My use has gotten a little out of hand at times.

4. Everybody sets high sometimes

Within the motivational interviewing framework, advice may be given by a

therapist to a

client

1. After the therapist receives permission to giver

2. at any time the therapist deems it appropriate

3. when the client requests it

4. It is never permissible

Which of the following is NOT considered a therapeutic factor of a group?

1. Hope
 2. Individuality

3. Cognitive restructuring

4. Existential factors

When an identified group member experiences emotional catharsis, who reaps

the

benefit?

1. the group as a whole

2. the peer members

3. the identified member

4. the group facilitator

Yalom believed the most important therapeutic factor is

1. altruism

2. interpersonal learning

3. universality

4. group cohesion

In group therapy, when a good level of cohesiveness is attained,

1. group-think phenomenon occurs

 2. group attendance declines

3. hostility can be openly expressed

4. critical and analytic thought by the group members is discouraged

In the social microcosm of a group, members will sooner or later enact their

1. ability to always be different than the group

2. maladaptive interpersonal behavior

3. ability to mask their persona dislikes

4. ability to see all things spiritually

The instilling and maintenance of hope is critical in group psychotherapy

because

1. faith in the treatment mode is effective

2. as one group member improves, the others become discouraged

3. expectations of positive outcomes are therapeutic

4. hope is an unrealistic feeling

The motivational interviewing approach is

1. primarily educational
 2. highly authoritarian

3. completely non-directive

4. directive, but client centered

Individuals enter therapy feeling that they are unique in their problems. With

this

therapeutic factor, these feelings are disconfirmed

1. existential factors

2. universality

3. cohesiveness

4. altruism

The high importance of the emotional experience in group therapy is partially

because

1. conflict and tension are undesirable in groups

2. The evocation an expression of raw affects is sufficient

3. interactive, interpersonal social reality testing happens in groups.

4. the corrective emotional experience cannot occur in groups

 When an identified group member experiences emotional catharsis, who reaps

the

benefit?

1. the group facilitator

2. the identified member

3. the peer members

4. the group as a whole

the goal of the analytic process is

1. adequate social adjustment

2. uncovering early experiences

3. reconstructing the client's character and personality system

4. achieving intense feelings in the here and now

Expressing empathy, reflecting, and summarizing are primarily used to

1. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the patient

 2. See the world through the speaker's eyes and experiences

3. Clarify the facts before developing a treatment plan

4. Look back at how the patient's childhood affect them

Practitioners of motivational interviewing utilize all of the following skills and

strategies

EXCEPT:

1. open ended questions

2. reinforcing confrontational talk

3. summarizing and linking the session

4. affirming and supporting the patient

Motivational interviewing was adapted from

1. cognitive behavioral theory

2. person centered theory

3. positive and supportive theories

4. interpersonal theory

Which statement describes a reflection in motivational interviewing:

1. Short answers used to gain information from a complex question.

 2. Statements mirroring the content or feelings explicitly or implicitly

stated by the

client

3. Transition statements that move from one idea to another

4. Yes or no statements used to gain information from a simple question

In what stage, there is no intention of changing a behavior pattern

1. preparation

2. contemplation

3. precontemplation

4. action

Which of the following is a stage in the theory of change?

1. empathy

2. self-efficacy

3. feedback

4. preparation

Which of the following is NOT considered a therapeutic factor of a group?

 1. Cognitive restructuring

2. Existential factors

3. Individuality

4. Hope

A group member who has difficulty accepting her own feelings of hostility

tends to view

most other group.

1. quite perceptive of others' true feelings.

2. projecting her own hostility onto other members.

3. rationalizing her feelings.

4. engaging in countertransference.

The therapist tells the patient, "You handled yourself really well in that

situation: This

statement is an example of:

1. an affirming response

2. an open question

3. reflective listening

4. a summary
Motivational interviewing was adapted from

1. cognitive behavioral theory

2. person centered theory

3. positive and supportive theories

4. interpersonal theory

The motivational interviewing approach is

1. completely non-directive

2. primarily educational

3. directive, but client centered

4. highly authoritarian

The goal of the analytic process is

1. uncovering early experiences.

2. achieving intense feelings in the here and now.

3. adequate social adjustment.

4. restructuring the client's character and personality system

Which of the following is NOT considered a therapeutic factor of a group?

 1. Cognitive restructuring

2. Existential factors

3. Individuality?

4. Hope

A group member who has difficulty accepting her own feelings of hostility

tends to view

most other group members:

1. quite perceptive of others' true feelings.

2. projecting her own hostility onto other members.

3. rationalizing her feelings.

4. engaging in countertransference

Select one technique each that is used in the following statements: "I can see

that

things have been very tough for you recently".

1. facilitation

2. empathy

3. confrontation

4. interpretation
 Which statement is an example of focusing?

1. You are not sure whether narcotics anonymous therapy would be most

helpful.

You prefer to attend Celebrate Recovery.

2. Checking into this inpatient facility was courageous. It is the first step in

your path

toward recovery.

3. Finding the right sponsor is a step toward recovery. It seems you have

already

located two potential sponsors.

4. Have you experienced negative physical effects because to your cocaine

addiction?

People never intend to take action in the future in the stage: ???????

1. precontemplation

2. preparation

3. contemplation

4. action
 Motivational interviewing was founded by

1. Sullivan and Peplau

2. Miller and Rollnick

3. Freud and Erickson

4. Bandura and Flannigan

The instilling and maintenance of hope is critical in group psychotherapy

because

1. expectations of positive outcomes are therapeutic

2. as one group member improves, the others become discouraged

3. hope is an unrealistic feeling

4. faith in the treatment mode is ineffective

The high importance of the emotional experience in group therapy is partially

because:

1. Conflict and tension are undesirable in groups

2. Interactive, interpersonal and social reality testing happens in groups.

3. The evocation and expression of raw affect is sufficient.

4. The corrective emotional experience cannot occur in groups.

 In the social microcosm of a group, members will sooner or later enact their:

1. ability to mask their personal dislikes

2. ability to always be different than the group

3. maladaptive interpersonal behavior

4. ability to see all things spiritually

The high importance of the emotional experience in group therapy is partially

because

1. Conflict and tension are undesirable in groups

2. Interactive, interpersonal and social reality testing happens in groups.

3. The evocation and expression of raw affect is sufficient.

4. The corrective emotional experience cannot occur in groups.

Many psychiatric patients who beginning group therapy are demoralized and

1. possess a great deal of self confidence

2. have inflated egos

3. have a great sense of intrinsic self-worth

4. have self-esteem issues

Yalom believed the most important therapeutic factor is

1. universality

2. group cohesion

3. interpersonal learning

4. altruism

Which statement is true regarding catharsis?

1. it is vital for each group member to experience in each session

2. it is linked to imitative behavior

3. it is linked to altruism

4. it must be combined with another therapeutic factor to be effective

Motivational interviewing is designed to evoke and explore:

1. unfinished business

2. interpersonal barriers

3. childhood trauma

4. ambivalence
 Motivational Interviewing Knowledge Test

The MI approach is?

Another way to question: Motivational interviewing is

-completely non-directive

-highly authoritarian

-directive but client-centered

-primarily educational

-non directive, therapist centered

Which of the following is NOT consistent with the MI approach to counseling?

-Rolling with resistance

-Avoiding argumentation

-Confronting denial

-Supporting self-efficacy

Within the MI framework, advice may be given by a therapist to a client

-at any time

-when the client requests it

 -after the therapist receives permission to give it. BOTH

-never

According to Muller and Rollnick, when a therapist argues that a client’s

behavior needs to change, the client often responds by

-accepting the need for change

-arguing against change

-Asking for advice

-Moving to the next stage in the process of change

-All of the above

Two strategies which are usually effective for avoiding the confrontation-denial

trap are

-giving advice and reflective listening

-reflective listening and eliciting self-motivational statements

-skills training and warning

-aversive conditioning and supporting self-efficacy

Identify the motivational interviewing technique that represents the following

statement “before we talk about the panic attacks can I just go through what you

have told me about your depression? Please correct me as I go along “

Summarizing.

Facilitation

closing, question

interpretation

Ambivalence to change is thought to be:

Irrelevant to change

A roadblock to change

Normal part of the change process

A pathological process

Which of the following is an example of reflective listening?

It feels like you are not sure about your quit date.

Go back to the first tie you used cigars.

Do you have a history of tabacco use?

Let’s reflect on where you want to be in 6 months. Danait

When is it appropriate for a therapist to give advice to a client?

 When the patient is at danger of relapse

It is never okay to give the patient advice

After the therapist asks for permission

When the therapist believes it’s the right time.

Identify the motivational interviewing technique that represents the following

statement “It is quite acceptable to feel the way you do.

Summarizing

Interpretation

Facilitation

Closing question

When interviewing the patient, the therapist’s voice goes up at the end of the

question. This technique is known as

Ascension

Inflection

Reflection

Deflection
 The psychiatric nurse practitioner wants to discuss the patient’s alcohol

dependence. Which is……

Do you know that drinking is damaging your liver?

Your wife said you drink too much. Lets talk. Danait

What do you know about how drinking affects the body?

Let’s talk about your drinking and how I can help you.

Which of the following is not an open-ended question:

Can you tell me about your spouse?

What do you want to do next?

What is different about quitting this time?

Can we talk about your cigarette use today?

During a therapy session, the client says: “They found out I was using

marijuana at work. They smelled it on my clothes…. I’m a bad attorney.” The

therapist say; “No, you’re addicted to smoking marijuana.” The therapist’s

statement is an example

-Primary roadblocks
 -A labeling trap

-Secondary roadblocks

-The blame game

Motivational interviewing emphasizes the_____ of therapy, which is known as

the “MI Spirit”

Cultural context

Familial context

Emotional context

Relational context

Which statement is an example of engagement?

-You are not sure whether narcotics anonymous therapy would be most helpful.

You prefer to attend Celebrate Recovery.

-Checking into this inpatient facility was courageous. It is the first step in

your path toward recovery.

-Have you experienced negative physical effects because to your cocaine

addiction?
 -Finding the right sponsor is a step toward recovery. It seems you have already

located two potential sponsors.

The individual client assessment can be seen as

-unnecessary for effective treatment

-vital to determining the client’s needs

-a barrier to the process of change

-a devaluing experience for the client.

The PMHNP tells the patient, “You know how many times I have heard this

same excuse from patients?” This would be considered

-Arguing and Lecturing

-Ordering and Commanding

-Giving Advice

-Shaming and Ridiculing

The PMHNP tells the patient, “I would do the same thing.” This would be

considered

-Arguing and Lecturing

-Giving advice
 -Reassuring and sympathizing

-Agreeing or Approving

The best way to avoid the confrontation-denial trap is to:

-giving advice and reflective listening

-reflective listening and eliciting self-motivational statements

-therapeutic skills and deep breathing exercises

-positive reinforcement and aversive conditioning

When interviewing the patient, the therapist’s voice goes up at the end of the

question. This technique is known as

-Inflection

-deflection

-reflection

-ascencion

Quiz #3. SUBSTANCE ABUSE

1. A 29 year old African American man presents with a puffy face and steady increase
in weight despite norm: his nose is running. The most likely diagnosis is

a. Opioid withdrawal
b. Cocaine withdrawal
c. Nicotine dependence
d. Cannabis use

2. Which of the following drugs do not cause psychotic symptoms?

a. Cannabis
b. Kratom
c. Ketamine
d. PCP

3. A patient with longstanding anxiety being managed by PCP was recently

seen by her psychiatrist who made changes in few days later with
hallucinations of her joints being moved and nausea with agitation and
anxiety. What is the diagnose

a. alcohol dependence
b. benzodiazepine withdrawal
c. benzodiazepine intoxication
d. alcohol intoxication
4. Alcohol abuse is particularly high among which of the following groups?

a. African Americans
b. Hispanics
c. White Americans
d. Native Americans

5. Physical dependence to caffeine can develop

a. after 3 consecutive days of regular use

b. physical dependence does not develop to caffeine
c. after one month of regular use
d. almost immediately

6. Delirium tremors is due to

a. All of the above can cause the symptoms of delirium tremors

b. high doses of alcohol in a person who has not previously drank heavily.
c. a sudden reduction in blood alcohol levels in a chronic, heavy drinker
d. high doses of alcohol consumption in a chronic heavy drinker.
 7. A patient is diagnosed with Wernicke encephalopathy. What is the etiology
for this disorder?

a. an alcohol deficit
b. a thiamine deficit
c. a gamma-aminobutyric acid deficit
d. a serotonin deficit

8. Alcohol works as a peripheral dilator. This causes

a. dizziness
b. nausea
c. the skin to feel warm and turn red (warm, red skin)
d. blackouts

9. A 49-year-old man is highly dependent on alcohol. Due to various physical

problems, he was strongly advised to abstain. Unfortunately. experienced recurrent
voices that frighten him. In spite of 2 days of abstinence he begins to experience
hallucinations, hypertension and best suits his presentation?
 a. depressive psychosis
b. delirium tremors
c. delusional disorder
d. alcoholic hallucinosis

10. Which peer counseling group founded the 12 step program of

recovery

a. narcotics anonymous
b. Al-anon
c. celebrate recovery
d. alcoholics anonymous in 1939

11. An executive wants treatment for cocaine abuse. Which out patient
facility would provide the least restrictive treatment?

a. intensive outpatient program

b. early intervention
 c. inpatient detoxification
d. partial hospitalization program

12. Which term refers to discrete episodes of anterograde amnesia that

occur in association with alcohol intoxication

a. alcoholic dementia
b. Korsakoff's syndrome
c. Wernicke's encephalopathy
d. alcoholic blackouts

13. A patient is scheduled to take a blood test. You advise the patient this
test can detect the presence of drugs within

a. 24 hours
b. 1 hour
c. 7 days
d. 3 days
 14. Alcohol hepatitis is generally thought to occur with excessive
drinking over at least a period.

a. 2 year
b. 6 month
c. 5 year
d. 20 year

15. Which medication inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase.

a. Naltrexone (Revia)
b. Disulfiram (Antabuse)
c. Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
d. Buprenorphine (Subutex)

16. Anxiety, diaphoresis, restlessness, irritability, lightheadedness, tremor,

insomnia, and weakness are signs of
a. benzodiazepine withdrawal
b. cannabis intoxication
c. benzodiazepine intoxication
d. hallucinogen withdrawal

17. Nicotine stimulates

a. nicotinic receptors, which in turn stimulate dopamine receptors.

b. serotonin receptors only
c. muscarinic receptors, which are associated with decreased pain perception.
d. dopamine receptors directly.

18. Cocaine is detectible in urine in about after administration.

a. 2-3 days
b. 3 hours
c. 1 month
d. 2 weeks
 19. What is the minimum duration required to make a diagnosis of
alcohol dependence according to the D5M 5-TR criteria?

a. 6 months
b. 1 month
c. 12 months
d. 2 months

20. What is the nineth step in the 12 step recovery program?

a. Continue to take personal inventory and when we were wrong promptly

admitted it
b. Made a decision to turn our will and our lives over to the care of God as we
understood Him.
c. Admitting powerlessness over addiction
d. Make direct amends to people you have harmed wherever possible

21. A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in an

altered mental state. He is exhibiting ataxia, nystagmus several hours, he returns to
his normal state of health. When questioned about his presentation, he replies that
he "is not support the theory that this patient has alcohol dependence?
 a. His girlfriend has been threatening to leave him because of his drinking
b. One or more attempts to stop drinking over the past 6 months
c. He has been arrested twice in the past 6 months on a "drunk and disorderly"
charge
d. He has been fired from three jobs in the past year for coming to work drunk

22. Nicotine has a variety of effects on nicotinic receptors throughout the

body. Which of the following is NOT an effect of it

a. Vasodilation and decreased heart rate

b. Release of dopamine at the pleasure center
c. Approximately the same in nicotine content as smoking two cigarettes
d. Increased secretion of gastric acid and motility of the Gl smooth muscle

23. Among the following individuals, who is at greatest risk to become

addicted to tobacco?

a. A twenty-five year old Asian female who has been smoking five years.
b. A thirty year old white male who has been smoking ten years
c. A twenty-five year old Asian male who has been smoking two years.
d. A thirty year old African-American male who has been smoking ten years

24. Which one of the following is not a feature of Wernicke's

encephalopathy?
 a. nystagmus
b. ataxia
c. hyperthermia
d. confusion

25. The average dose of caffeine for adults is equivalent to milligrams.

a. 750
b. 200
c. 90
d. 500

26. Among college students, binge drinking is more common in

a. college teachers
b. males is more common in males among college students
c. there is no difference in male and female
d. females

27. A patient score 18 on the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for

Alcohol-Revised scale. What does this indicate?
 a. The patient has severe signs of alcohol intoxication
b. The patient has moderate signs of alcohol intoxication
c. The patient has severe signs of alcohol withdrawal
d. The patient has moderate signs of alcohol withdrawal

Other Test Bank

01- What is the first step in the 12-step recovery program

Confess to God yourself and another human being the nature of your wrong

Continue to take personal inventory and when we were wrong promptly

admitted it

Humbly asked Him to remove our shortcoming

Admit your powerlessness over addiction.

02- A woman been unable to obtain heroin for several weeks because she

has had no money and so has not used the drug for the past month. She went

through withdrawal symptoms when she was unable to take her usual dose.

She craves the drug all the time and is constantly searching for ways to get

some. Her efforts to obtain heroin have seriously interfered with her ability to
work and take care of her children. Which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses

would best fit her symptoms?

Opioid intoxication

Opioid use disorder

Opioid dependence

Opioid addiction

03-A patient with longstanding anxiety being managed by PCP was

recently seen by her psychiatrist who made changes in her medications. She

presents to the emergency room with hallucinations of her joints moved and

nausea with agitation and anxiety What is the diagnosis?

Alcohol dependence

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

Alcohol intoxication

Benzodiazepine intoxication

04- Which medication is a Mu-opioid partial agonist?

 Buprenorphine (Sabutex)

Naltrexone (Revia)

Disulfiram (Antabuse)

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

05- A patient is scheduled to take a follicle test. You advise the patient this

test can detect the presence of drugs for up to .... before the sample was

collected

3 months

90 days. (detection starting from 30-90 days)

30 days

6 months

06- A 35-year-old man presents with high blood pressure, rapid pulse, and

moist warm skin. His speech is pressured and on examination he has fine

tremor and hyperreflexia. Which of the following drugs has he taken.

Alcohol
 Hallucinogen

Stimulant

An inhalant

08- A 54-year-old male man is brought to the emergency department in an

altered mental state. He is exhibiting ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria and

appears very somnolent. After several hours he returns to his normal state of

health. When questioned about his presentation, he replied that he ‘just had a

few too many drinks, which of the following does not support the theory that

this patient has alcohol dependence?

His girlfriend has been threatening to leave him because of his drinking

One or more attempts to stop drinking over the past 6 months

He has been fired from three jobs in the passing year for coming to work drunk

He has been arrested twice in the past 6 months on a drunk and disorderly

charge

09- All Florida prescribers are required to register for:

EForce (Correct)
 Dea databank

F-Force

K-Force

10- According to DSM-5, Americans usually consume ... caffeine daily

350mg

100mg

400mg

200mg

11- What is the nineth step in the 12-step recovery program?

Make direct amends to people you have harmed wherever possible

Admitting powerlessness over addiction.

Continue to take personal inventory and when we were wrong promptly

admitted it

Made a decision to turn our will and our lives over to care of God as we

understood Him
 12-Nicotine stimulates

muscarinic receptors, which are associated with decreased pain perception.

nicotinic receptors, which in turn stimulate dopamine receptors.

dopamine receptors directly.

serotonin receptors only

13- A patient score 18 on the clinical institute withdrawal assessment for

alcohol-revised scale. What does this indicate

the patient has severe signs of alcohol withdrawal

the patient has severe signs of alcohol intoxication

the patient has moderate signs of alcohol intoxication

the patient has moderate signs of alcohol withdrawal

14- Among college students, binge drinking is more common in

males

females
 the prevalence of binge drinking is equal in men and women.

college teachers

15- A young man presents to the emergency department complaining of

mild itching, pins and needles, burning or numbness. You suspect the man has

ingested alcohol

48 hours ago

12-24 hours ago Alcoholic Hallucinosis or hallucinations time frame

48-72 hours ago

6-8 hours ago

16- Which term refers to discrete episodes of anterograde amnesia that

occur in association with alcohol intoxication?

alcoholic dementia

alcoholic blackouts

Korsakoff's syndrome

Wernicke's encephalopathy
 17- What is the minimum duration required to make a diagnosis of alcohol

dependence according to DSM 5 criteria.

12 months

2 months

1 month

6 months

19- A 78-year-old grandmother drinks wine frequently and now requires

more alcohol as six months ago to achieve the same effect. She reports that she

can outdrink most people; she is probably

delusion since it is impossible to have the same effect

developing a physiological dependence on alcohol.

developing a psychological dependence on alcohol

genetically less affected by alcohol than most people.

 21- A 49 year old man is highly dependent on alcohol. Due to various

physical problems, he was strongly advised to abstain. Unfortunately, since

last episode of intoxication he has experienced recurrent voices that frighten

him. In spite of 2 days of abstinence these hallucinations continue, and he now

presents with persecutory delusions. Which of the following diagnosis best

suits his presentation.

Alcoholic Hallucinosis

delirium tremens

depressive psychosis

delusional disorder

23- A patient is diagnosed with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. What is the

etiology for this disorder

a thiamine deficit or a B1 (folate) deficit

an alcohol deficit

a serotonin deficit

a GABA deficit
 24- The method of drug testing is the most accurate way to determine

intoxication

Sweat testing

Blood testing

Urine testing

Hair testing

25-Anxiety, diaphoresis, restlessness, irritability, lightheadedness, tremor,

insomnia and weakness are signs of

Benzodiazepine intoxication

Hallucinogen withdrawal

Cannabis intoxication

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

26- Which medication inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase

Disulfiram (Antabuse)

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
 Naltrexone (Revia)

Buprenorphine (Subutex)

27-Nicotine has various effects on nicotinic receptors throughout the body.

Which of the following is not an effect of nicotine

vasodilatation and decreased heart rate

increased secretion of gastric acid and motility of the GI smooth muscle

approximately the same in nicotine content as smoking two cigarettes

release of dopamine at the pleasure center

28- Which of the following drugs can cause psychotic symptoms in those

who do not have schizophrenia and can exacerbate such symptoms in those

who do?

Cocaine

PCP

Marijuana (correct)

LSD
 29- Delirium tremens is due to

a sudden reduction in alcohol levels in a chronic, heavy drinker.

high doses of alcohol in a person who has not previously drunk heavily.

high doses of alcohol in a chronic heavy drinker.

All of the above can cause the symptoms of delirium tremens.

30- A 29-year-old African American man presents with a puffy face and

steady increase in weight despite normal appetite. On examination his blood

pressure is 150/100 and his nose is running. The most likely diagnosis is.

Opioid withdrawal

Cocaine withdrawal

Nicotine dependence (Correct)

Cannabis use

31- In most states, a person is legally drunk if their blood alcohol level is

0.08g/dl
 5g/dl

0.01g/dl

0.40g/dl

32- Alcohol abuse is particularly high among which of the following

groups?

Hispanics

Afro-Americans

Native Americans

Asian Americans

33- An executive wants treatment for cocaine use disorder. Which

outpatient facility would provide the most intensive treatment

partial hospitalization program

intensive outpatient program

inpatient detoxification

residential treatment
 34- What is the minimum duration required to make a diagnosis of alcohol

dependence according to the DSM 5 criteria?

2 months

1 month

6months

12 months

35- Which peer counseling group founded the 12-step program of recovery

Al-anon

narcotics anonymous

Celebrate recovery

alcoholics anonymous

36- Which one of the following is not a feature of Wernicke encephalopathy

confusion

nystagmus
 hyperthermia

ataxia

37- Alcohol hepatitis is generally thought to occur which excessive drinking

over at least

six months

20 years

two years

five years

38- A 22 year old appears at the emergency room with an altered mental status.

Her friends said she ingested an unknown substance 2 hours ago….

-withdrawal

-intoxication

-addiction

-delirium tremors

39- Which medication is a mu-opioid partial agonist?

 -Disulfiram (Antabuse)

-Buprenorphine (Subutex)

-Naltrexone (Revia)

-Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

40-A severe amnestic disorder associated with alcohol use disorder is:

-Wernicke’s encephalopathy

-Alcohol hallucination

-Alcohol related dementia

-Senile psychosis syndrome

41. The nurse practitioner asks the patient. “Does the light appear to be too

bright?’ Which finding would result….

-extremely severe hallucinations

-severe hallucinations

-extremely sever delusions

-continuous hallucinations

42- 82-year-old man can’t leave his house without taking a drink of alcohol,

does not understand why?

 -addiction

-withdrawal

-cravings

-intoxication

43: Which patients can do outpatient treatment options.

Willing to go to center on a daily basis, not suicidal, etc..

44-With blackouts, the individual____

-can only partially recall events that occurred during a drinking occasion

-loses consciousness

-suffers amnesia for long past events

-cannot recall events that occurred during a drinking occasion

45-A score of 7, on any clinical institute withdrawal assessment for alcohol

category indicates:

-Hospitalization is required

-increased severity

-delirium tremens. ???

 -Chronic alcohol use disorder

46- The primary psychoactive compound found in cannabis is

-marijuana

-delta 9 tetrahydrocannabinol

-hemp

-cannabidiol

47-Among the following acute liver disorders, which one is the most

severe??????

Alcoholic pancreatitis

Alcoholic steatosis

Alcoholic hepatitis

Alcoholic cirrhosis

48-Severe alcohol withdrawal is associated with all of the following medical

complications except:

-visual hallucinations

-hyperglycemia

-seizures
-hand tremors

Quiz #4 POST PARTUM

1. A 19 year old has irregular menstruation, is overweight, has excessive body,

facial hair, and acne. What condition does this patient most likely have

a) Menstrual toxic shock syndrome (mTSS)

b) Premenopausal dysphoric syndrome (PMDS)
c) Obesity related to excessive calories (0OC)
d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

2. A young woman gave birth to a healthy child 4 days ago. Now she is tearful
and having mood swings. The woman was probably suffering from

a) major depressive episode with seasonal onset

b) persistent depressive disorder
c) baby blues
d) major depressive disorder with peripartum onset

3. When supporting holistic care, the nurse practitioner advises the pregnant
woman with a medical marijuana card that

a) THC passes from the mother to the fetus through the placenta.
b) THC will not affect the development of the brain or CNS
c) Marijuana is safe to take in oral form while pregnant.
d) Synthetic marijuana is proven less harmful in clinical studies.
4. An infant, exposed to an unknown substance in utero, is irritable, has poor
sleep and diarrhea 1 day after delivery. Which tool will be used to determine
the withdrawal symptoms?

a) NOWS-Neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome

b) MATS-Medication Assisted Treatment Screening
c) CIWA-Clinical Infant Withdrawal Assessment
d) COWS-Child Opiate Withdrawal Screening

5. Most women die from while pregnant.

a) domestic violence
b) motor vehicle accidents
c) suicide
d) eclampsia

6. In which stage of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium reach its
maximum thickness in preparation to receive and nourish a fertilized egs?

a) Luteal
b) Ovulatory
c) Follicular
d) Menstrual

7. A woman is 15 weeks pregnant with new onset anxiety. What treatment do

you start first

a) antidepressants-SSRI
b) benzodiazepines
c) psychoanalysis
d) interpersonal therapy
8. A 29 y/o female is being started on anticonvulsant medications. Which
medical workup is most important to obtain prior to treatment?

a) pregnancy test
b) white blood cell count
c) vitamin B12 level
d) hemoglobin levels

9. A patient has an Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale. Which score is

minimally considered positive for postnatal depression.

a) 12
b) 25
c) 20
d) 5

10. Intimate partner violence towards pregnant women is reported at a higher

rate for and

a) Native American. Blacks

b) Non-Hispanic Whites, Native American
c) Hispanics. Native Americans
d) Blacks, Hispanic Whites

11. A pregnant woman with a history of opioid use dependence is interested in

drug treatment. Which treatment should the NP prescribe for harm
reduction?

a) methadone
b) naltrexone
c) clonidine
d) bupropion
12. What is the age range in which menopause will typically occur?

a) 18-65
b) 50-67
c) 30-52
d) 40-58

13. A patient with a history of schizophrenia wants to plan for a family. What
medication would you order to treat this patient's symptoms while pregnant?

a) valproic acid (Depakote)

b) paroxetine (Paxil)
c) haloperidol (Haldol)
d) carbamazepine (Tegretol)

14. The most abused illicit drug among pregnant American women is

a) marijuana
b) Opioids
c) methamphetamines
d) alcohol

15. The heart is formed by the after conception.

a) 7th week
b) 12th week
c) 2nd week
d) 35th week

16. Your patient has a history of major depressive disorder X15 years. She
stopped her antidepressants during the 2nd month of her pregnancy a She is
 7 months pregnant begins to feel down and hopeless most days, and wonders
why she is even alive. She is angry and hates that she is.

a) Low tobacco use

b) Fetal cardiac defects
c) Prolonged vaginal delivery
d) Preeclampsia

17. A couple lost their pregnancy to spontaneous abortion. Which week would
the loss have occurred?

a) before week 12
b) before week 20
c) after week 24
d) before week 16

18. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers
(blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?

a) The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
b) Lipid-soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant
women
c) Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
d) The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from
brain cells

19. Which of the following is true

a) The rate of smoking cessation is the same throughout a woman's life

b) Women quit smoking at higher rates when lactating
c) Women quit smoking at higher rates when pregnant
d) Women quit smoking at higher rates when planning pregnancy

20. When anticonvulsants are given to a pregnant patient during the it typically
results in tera

a) post partum period

b) third trimester
c) second trimester
d) first trimester

21. Which of the following is not true?

a) Mothers are more likely to have a miscarriage if the mother smokes while
pregnant.
b) Mothers are less likely to experience placenta previa if the mother
smokes while pregnant.
c) A fetus receives less nutritents if the mother smokes while pregnant.
d) A baby is at higher risk for SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome) if the
mother smokes while p

22. Use of opioids during pregnancy can result in:

a) thin upper lip

b) low nasal bridge
c) impaired emotional processing
d) cleft palate
23. A pregnant woman should not be admitted to inpatient detox for opioid
dependence because:

a) being pregnant protects the mother from withdrawal symptoms W

b) there is a high risk of opioid relapse
c) being inpatient is unsafe for the mother and fetus
d) pregnant women can detox safely at home with medication
24. What are the four main areas of premenstrual dysphoric disorder symptoms?

a) Cognitive, psychosomatic, relational. mood

b) Behavioral, relational, cognitive, somatic
c) Relational, physical, internal. behavioral
d) Mood, behavioral, somatic. cognitive

25. A pregnant woman takes an antidepressant to treat moderate depression.

How this drug it be

a) through breast milk

b) through the pancreas
c) through the liver
d) through the kidneys

26. The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale can be used to detect:

a) major depressive disorder

b) bipolar disorder
c) perinatal depression
d) generalized anxiety disorder

27. A couple in their middle 40s attends the ultrasound appointment. The
woman is 24 weeks pregnant: is no longer viable, but the parents insist on
continuing the pregnancy. What should the nurse practitioners

a) Refer the family to a gynecologist for a dilation and curettage

b) Refer the family to couples’ therapy
c) Refer the family to perinatal palliative care
 d) Admit the mother as she will become septic in 24 hours

Quiz 5

01- A mother is fearful she will harm her baby, has not gotten out of bed for
10 days and has no touched the infant since being home because she believes...
by God. What should the PMHNP do at the first appointment?
treat the patient with antidepressant
treat the patient with anti-psychotic
treat the patient with cognitive behavioral therapy
admit the patient to the hospital

02- when anticonvulsants are given to a pregnant during the .... it typically
results in teratogenic effects on the fetus
first trimester
second trimester
post-partum period
third trimester

03- Intimate partner violence towards pregnant women is reported at a higher

rate for ... and ...
Hispanics. Native Americans
Blacks, Hispanic Whites
Native American, Blacks
Non-Hispanic Whites, Native American
04- A pregnant woman should not be admitted to inpatient detox for opioid
dependence because:
being inpatient is unsafe for the mother and fetus ?
being pregnant protects the mother from withdrawal symptoms
there is a high risk of opioid relapse
pregnant women can detox safely at home with medication

05- a patient with a history of schizophrenia wants to plan for a family. what
medication would you order to treat this patient symptoms while
paroxetine (Paxil)
haloperidol (Haldol)
valproic acid Depakote
carbamazepine (Tegretol)

06- The fetus is unlikely to be susceptible to teratogens during

the first two weeks of gestation
the first twelve weeks of gestation
the first ten weeks of gestation
the first four weeks of gestation

07- When supporting holistic care, the nurse practitioner advises the pregnant
woman with a medical marijuana card that
THC passes from the mother to the fetus through the placenta
Marijuana is safe to take in oral form while pregnant.
THC will not affect the development of the brain or CNS
Synthetic marijuana is proven less harmful in clinical studies.

08- A woman is 15 weeks pregnant with new onset of anxiety. what treatment
do you start first
benzodiazepine
psychoanalysis
antidepressant-SSRI
interpersonal therapy

09- Which substance is abused most during pregnancy

tobacco
alcohol
cocaine
cannabis

10- Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers
(blood-brain or placental) is true?
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
Lipid-soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women

11- An infant exposed to an unknown substance in utero is irritable, has poor

sleep and diarrhea 1 day after delivery. Which tool will be use to determine
the withdrawal symptoms?
NOWS-Neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome
MATS-Medication Assisted Treatment Screening
COWS-Child Opiate Withdrawal Screening
CIWA-Clinical Infant Withdrawal Assessment

12- Under new U.S Food and Drug Administration labeling, pregnancy
categories
Eliminated and replaced with a link to the National Library of Medicine TOXNET
web site for in depth information regarding pregnancy
Strengthened with a new coding such as C+ or C- to discern when a drug is more
or less toxic to the fetus
Change to incorporate a pregnancy risk summary and clinical considerations
adverse outcomes
Clarified to include information such as safe dosages in each trimester of
pregnancy

13- Which of the following is not true?

Mothers are less likely to experience placenta previa if the mother smokes while
pregnant.
A baby is at higher risk for SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome) if the mother
while pregnant
Mothers are more likely to have a miscarriage if the mother smokes while
pregnant.
A fetus receives less nutrients if the mother while pregnant.

14- pregnant woman with a history of opioid use dependence is interested in

drug treatment. Which treatment should the NP prescribe
naltrexone
bupropion
methadone
clonidine

15- What are the four main areas of premenstrual dysphoric disorder
symptoms
cognitive, psychosomatic, relational, mood
relational, physical, internal, behavioral
behavioral, relational, cognitive, somatic
mood, behavioral, somatic, cognitive

16- A 29 y/o female is being started on anticonvulsant medications. Which

medical workup is the most important to obtain prior to treatment.
White blood cell Count
pregnancy test
hemoglobin levels
vitamin B 12 level

17- Use of opioids during pregnancy can result in.

cleft palate
thin upper lip
impaired emotional processing
low nasal bridge

18- A 29 y/o female is being started on anticonvulsant medications. Which

medical workup is the most important to obtain prior to treatment.
White blood cell Count
pregnancy test
hemoglobin levels
vitamin B 12 level

19- A couple lost their pregnancy to spontaneous abortion 3 months ago. The
father is having trouble sleeping. He hears the baby crying, is hypervigilant,
has not sleep, irritable and avoids talking to his wife about the loss. What
would be the most likely diagnosis for this father?
Major depressive disorder
Normal Grief
Intermittent Explosive Disorder
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

20- In which stage of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium reach its
maximum thickness in preparation to receive and nourish a fertilized egg
Menstrual
Follicular
Ovulatory
Luteal

21- during the menstrual cycle, what is the purpose of the uterine lining build
up?
To maintain blood circulation through the reproductive system
To rid the body of toxins accumulated each month.
To prepare for a pregnancy
To prepare for cleaning of reproductive system

22- The heart is formed by the .. after conception

2nd week
7th week
12th week
35th week

23- A patient has an Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale. Which score is

minimally considered positive for postnatal depression
10
25
15
5

24- A young woman gave birth to a healthy child 4 days ago. Now she is
tearful and having mood swings. The woman was probably suffering from
major depressive disorder with peripartum onset
major depressive disorder with seasonal onset
persistent depressive disorder
baby blues

25- A couple in their middle 40s attends the ultrasound appointment the
woman is 24 weeks pregnant, and this is their 4th attempt to conceive. The
radiologist ... is no longer viable, but parents insist on continuing pregnancy.
what would the nurse practitioner do next as a result of this family's decision
Refer the family to couples therapy
Refer family to a gynecologist for dilation and curettage
Admit as she will become septic in 24
Refer the family to perinatal palliative care
26- What is the age range in which menopause will typically occur?
50-67
30-52
40-58
18-65

27- A couple lost their pregnancy to spontaneous abortion. Which week would
the loss have occurred?
after week 24
before week 16
before week 12
before week 20

28- A 19 year old has irregular menstruation, is overweight, has excessive

body, facial hair, and acne. what conditions does this patient most likely have?
premenopausal dysphoric disorder (PMDS)
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
Menstrual toxic shock syndrome (mTSS)
obesity due to excessive calories (OOC)

29- Which of the following is true.

women quit smoking at higher rates when planning pregnancy
women quit smoking at higher rates when pregnant
women quit smoking at higher rates when lactating
the rate of smoking cessation is the same throughout a woman's life
30- The most abused illicit drug among pregnant American woman is
Methamphetamines
cannabis-marijuana
Opioids
Alcohol

31- A woman postpartum first week is sad and cries. The woman was
probably suffering from
major depressive disorder with peripartum onset
major depressive disorder with seasonal onset
persistent depressive disorder
postpartum blues

Quiz #5 Alternative Medicine

1. Studies show that is effective in treating dystonia.

a) GABA
b) SAM-e
c) cannabidiol
d) Kava

2. Which alternative medical system addresses imbalances of qi (vital energy)?

a) Naturopathic medicine
b) Chiropractic medicine
c) Ayurveda medicine
d) Traditional Chinese medicine

3. Which alternative therapy is not used to improve immunity

a) Qi Gong
b) Deep breathing
c) Tai Chi
d) L-Theanine
e) Ashwaganda

4. The patient with early onset dementia wants to try non pharmaceutical
treatment. Based on the current evidence, which of the following would you
suggest first?

a) VitaminE
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin ©
d) Vitamin B

5. Recent studies suggest that Ginkgo biloba has on memory.

a) A major impact
b) little or no impact
c) a moderate impact
d) a mild impact
6. Treatments that rely on substances found special diets or functional foods
are part of which CAM domain

a) Minds body therapies

b) Biologically base therapies
c) energy medicines
d) body based therapies

7. All of the following treatments focus on channeling spiritual energy

EXCEPT?

a) Reiki
b) Ayurveda
c) Qigong
d) Healing touch

8. The alternative system of medicine based on the principle that "like cures
like" is

a) Ayurvedic medicine
b) traditional Chinese medicine
c) naturopathic medicine
d) homeopathic medicine

9. Ashwagandha is not used to treat

a) Depression. (Wheeler page 622)

b) hypothyroidism
c) anxiety
d) insomnia
10. The form of mind-body intervention originated in China as a form of self
defense

a) Tai Chi
b) Qi Gong
c) Reiki
d) Karate

11. The standard dosage of st John's wort for the treatment of mild depressions

a) 300 mg daily
b) 600 mg three times a day
c) 300 mg three times a day
d) 100 mg three times a day

12. The National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH.
2020) has created two classifications of complementary health
interventions. Which is an energy therapy intervention

a) Therapeutic Touch. Tusaie p 82

b) Feldenkrais
c) Meditation
d) Pilates

13. Which herbal is used to treat sexual desire

a) Lavender
b) Ginseng. (may cause vaginal bleeding) taken for 15-20days, two doses
0.5-1mg . pg 87 tusaie
c) st Johns Wort
d) Gingko Biloba
14. A 12 year old patient is having trouble sleeping. The PMHNP may
recommend which dietary supplement for insomnia

a) Ambien (zolpidem)
b) Valerian. Tusaie pg 86. Dose 20mg/kg for 2 weeks (11yrs and older)
Adults: 400-800mg of root 2 hours before bedtime.

c) Kava
d) Benadryl (diphenhydramine)

15. A patient has experienced sexual side effects of taking his blood pressure
medication and simvastatin. His wife has suggested he take ginseng over the
counter to increase his libido. How should the PMHNP counsel his patient?

a) "Rest and relaxation are the best treatment for libido"

b) "Let's review all your medications and herbals for drug-drug
interaction.
c) "Ginseng has been around for years, and it is safe."
d) “We have medications that can be prescribed for that.”

16. Acupuncture involves

a) a treatment plan based on classifying the patient into one of three body types
b) stimulating various locations on the body by placement of fine needles
to improve energy flow
c) using pressure of the fingers or hands to ease pain or improve energy
d) a system of movements and floor exercises designed to retrain the nervous
system

17. Acupuncture includes stimulating

 a) 12 pair of meridians
b) 300 acupoints
c) 50 nerves
d) 200 body points

18. St John's Wort affects all of the following neurotransmitters EXCEPT. NOT
SURE

a) glutamate
b) dopamine serotonin, norepinephrine,
c) GABA
d) Acetylcholine.

St. John's Wort affects several neurotransmitters, including serotonin,

norepinephrine, and dopamine, but it does not affect glutamate, GABA, or

acetylcholine.

19. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing often involves

a) spinal manipulation
b) bilateral tapping. Tusaie pg 97
c) movement therapy
d) muscle manipulation

20. Which herbals used to promote relaxation

a) Valerian
b) S-adenosyl methionine
c) Vitamin C
d) Omega Fatty Acids

21. Which herbal is used to treat mild to moderate depression

a) St John's Wort
b) S-adenosyl methionine
c) Kava
d) Ginseng

22. plant or plant part with medicinal, therapeutic properties are included in

a) body based therapies

b) energy medicines
c) biologically based therapies
d) mind-body therapies

23. Ginseng, which is taken to assist with memory, may also potentiates:
a) erectile dysfunction drugs
b) vitamin C
c) vitamin D
d) Antihypertensives. Tusaie pg 87

24. Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) therapies focus on treating

both the mind and the whole body, which means that CAM is part of a

a) conventional approach
b) holistic approach.
c) allopathic approach
d) psychological approach

25. Approaches that are used in conjunction with (integrated with) CAM
approaches in mainstream healthcare

a) Integrative medicine
b) Complementary healthcare
c) Alternative healthcare
d) Reiki

26. Which of the following dietary supplement should not be given with oral
contraceptives due to its drug-drug interactions?

a) St Johns Wort. Tusaie pg 85

b) SAMe
c) Omega 3
d) Kava
Other:

A patient has experienced sexual side effects from taking his blood

pressure medication and simvistatin. His ife has suggested he take ginseng

over the counter to increase his libido. How should the PMHN counsel this

patient?

a."We have medications that can be prescribed for that."

b. "Let's review all your medications and herbals for drug-drug
interaction."
c."Remember to take it with a glass of grapefruit juice for better absorption."
d. Ginseng has been around for years and it is safe."

St. John's Wort is widely known to have which side effect?

a.halitosis
b. somnolence
c.paresthesia
 d. photosensitivity

St John's Wort affects which neurotransmitter

a.MAOI-C
b. substance p
c.dopamine
d. glutamate

Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) therapies focus on treating

both the mind and the whole body, which means that CAM is part of a

a.conventional approach
b. psychological approach
c.holistic approach
d. allopathic approach

Which herbal preparation is not recommended due to its untoward psychiatric

effects

a. Yohimbine
b. Ashwagandha
c.Lavender
d.L-Theanine

Studies show that_____ _ is effective in treating dystonia.

 a.S-adenosylmethionine
b. GABA
c.Kava Kava
d. Cannabidiol

Reiki practices are included in

a.mind--body therapies
b. body based therapies
c.biologically based therapies
d. energy medicines
Recent studies suggest that Ginkgo biloba's effect on memory is

a.severe
b. moderate
c.mild
d. inconclusive

Which of the following dietary supplement should not be given with oral

contraceptives due to its drug-dru, interactions?

a.Omega 3 fatty acid

b. Kava
c.St John's Wort
d. S-adenosylmethionine

Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing often involves

 a. bilateral tapping
b. eye rolling
c.muscle manipulation
d. spinal manipulation

The alternative system of medicine based on the principle that "like cures like"

is

a.naturopathic medicine
b. traditional Chinese medicine
c.Ayurvedic medicine
d. homeopathic medicine

Which of the following therapeutic interventions is considered the LEAST

invasive, based on the patient's self-direction?

 a.Manipulation
b. Meditation
c.Injections
d. Talk therapy

This supplement and/or herb is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug

Administration for the use of psychiatric disorders and can be found in foods like

fish and seafood

a.S-Adenosyl methionine (SAM-e)

b. Omega-3 fatty acids
c.Lavendar
d.Folate

The patient with early-onset dementia wants to try a non-pharmaceutical

treatment. Based on the current evidence, which of the following would you

suggest first?

a.Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c.Vitamin C
d. vitamin B
 Which herbal it used is treat mild to moderate depression

a.Kava
b. Ginseng
c.St. John's Wort
d. S-adenosyl methionine

Treatments that rely on substances found in the diet or functional foods are part

of which complementary alternative medicine domain?

a.mind-body therapies
b. body based therapies
c.nutritional based therapies
d. biologically based therapies

The recommended daily dose of herbal product for the treatment depression is

a.Kava Kava 50 mg po daily

b. S-adenosyl methionine 400mg po daily
c.Melatonin 5mg po bedtime
d. St. John's Wort 50mg po daily

Thought Field Therapy (TFT) was first created to treat what mental health

ailment?

a.seizures
b. phobia
 c.night terrors
d.psychosis

________is the least important test in determining thyroid function

a.T4 free
b. T3 uptake
c.TSH
d.T3 total

Plant or plant part with medicinal, therapeutic properties are included in

a.biologically based therapies

b. mind-body therapies
c. herbal based medicines
d.body based therapies

Other:

1)Thought Field Therapy (TFT) was first created to treat what mental health

ailment?

a.seizures
 b. phobia
c.night terrors
d.psychosis

2) St Johns Wort affects which neurotransmitter?

-MAOI

-glutamate

-substance p

-dopamine

3)-acupuncture includes stimulating:

-12 pair of meridian

-300 acupoints

-50 nerves

-200 body points

4-all of the following treatments focus on channeling spiritual energy

EXCEPT:

-HOMEOPATHY

-Qigong
 -Reiki

-Healing touch

5-THE RECOMMENDED DAILY DOSE OF HERBAL PRODUCT FOR THE

TREATMENT DEPRESSION IS:

MELATONIN 5MG

SJW 50m PO Daily

KAVAKAVA 50MG

S-ADENOSYL METHIONINE 4OOMG PO DAILY (SAMe)

6-The supplemental and/or herb is approved by the usa food and drugs

administration for the use of psychiatric disorder

Fatty acid

7)Acupunture involves

-Stimulating various locations on the body by placement of fine needles to

improve energy flow

8)Studies show that_______ is effective in treating dystonia

-GABA
 -S adenosylmethionine

-Kava Kava

-Cannabidiol

9)A deficiency in _____ is associated with migraine headaches.

-Tyrosine

-Magnesium. (Wheeler Pg 610)

-Vitamin E

-Ferritin

10)The mind-body intervention originated in China as a form of self defense

-Reiki

-Qi Gong

-Tai Chi

-Karate

11)A new patient comes into treatment, seeking help for anxiety management.

The PMHNP begins telling the patient about the different types of therapies that

could help alleviate some symptoms and support their health goals. The patient
responds positively and states they will try down to therapy. What category of

complementary and alternative treatment medicine is the patient interested in?

-Art and drama based medicine,

-manipulative, body medicine,

-biologically based medicine,

-mind-body medicine. (Tusai pg 82)

13) Which of the following dietary supplements used to treat insomnia and

anxiety has been banned in parts of the world due to its danger…

- S-adenosylmethionine

-Omega 3 fatty acid

-Kava

-St John wort

14)The role of the nurse practitioner in the use of herbal medication’s is to?

-Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers

-Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies

-Recommended common over the counter herbs to patients

 -Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care.

15) The patient with early-onset dementia wants to try a non-pharmaceutical

treatment. Based on the current evidence, which of the following would you

suggest first?

a.Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c.Vitamin C
d. vitamin B

16)A deficit in _____can cause symptoms similar to attention disorders

-Iron. (Wheeler page 611)

-Vitamin A

-Serotonin

-Vitamine E

17)Which herbal is used to promote relaxation?

-Valerian. (Tusaie. Pg 86)

-Vitamin C

-S-adenosyl methionine
 -Omega 3 Fatty Acids

18) Which alternative medical system addresses imbalances of qi (vital

energy)?

e) Naturopathic medicine
f) Chiropractic medicine
g) Ayurveda medicine
h) Traditional Chinese medicine
19) Approaches that are used in conjunction with (integrated with) CAM

approaches in mainstream healthcare

e) Integrative medicine
f) Complementary healthcare
g) Alternative healthcare
h) Reiki

20) Which of the following therapeutic interventions is considered the LEAST

invasive, based on the patient's self-direction?

a.Manipulation
b. Meditation
c.Injections
d. Talk therapy
Other:

MAYS 650 QUIZ 5 Complementary alternative medicine

What deficiency is associated with migraine headaches?

- Vitamin E, Magnesium, Ferratin

EDMR consists of how many structured phases?

- 3, 5, 8, 9. (Tusaie pg 97)

EDMR consists of?

- Muscle manipulation, bilateral tapping

What helps treat dystonia?

- SAM-e, Carbindol, Kava, GABA

Treatment for depression

 - St. Johns Wort F PO 50mg qday, KAVA KAVA, Melatonin, SAM-e (Not
sure right answer since 50mg for St. John’s Wort is too low of a dose)

X What side effect St. John’s wart most associated with?

- Somnolence, paresthesia, photosensitivity

CAM treatment is most likely coupled with –

- Integrative, alternative, complimentary (Wheeler pg 601)

NOT associated with spiritual energy?

- Homeopathic, Qi Gong, Therapeutic Touch, Reiki (

Ginseng may:

- Affect blood pressure, impotence, constipation

Anxiety

- Iron

Other Test Bank

Quiz 6
01- Which treatment focuses on channeling spiritual energy
Reiki (Quizlet)
Qigong
Healing touch
Shiatsu

02- Which of the following dietary supplement should not be given with oral
contraceptives due to its drug-drug interactions
SAMe
Kava
St John’s Wort (Tusai page 85)
Omega 3

03-Which herbal is used to promote relaxation

omega fatty acids
vitamin c
S-Adenosyl methionine
Valerian

04- Treatment that rely on substances found in special diets or functional

foods are part of which CAM domain?
biologically based therapies
energy medicines
mind-body therapies
body-based therapies
05- Which alternative medical system addresses imbalances of qi (vital
energy)?
Ayurveda medicine
Traditional Chinese medicine
Naturopathic medicine
Chiropractic medicine

06- The patient with early onset dementia wants to try a non-pharmaceutical
treatment. Based on the current evidence which of the following would you
suggest first?
Vitamin B (CORRECT) Wheeler 605)
Vitamin E
Vitamin C
Vitamin D

07- Acupuncture involves

a treatment plan based on classifying the patient into one of three body types
a system of movements and floor exercises designed to retrain the nervous system
stimulating various locations on the body by placement of fine needles to
improve energy flow
Using the pressure of the fingers or hands to ease pain or improve energy

08- The standard dosage of St John’s Wort for the treatment of mild
depression is:
300mg three times a day
600 mg three times a day
300mg daily
100mg three times a day
09- A patient has experienced sexual side effects of taking his blood pressure
medication and simvastatin. His wife has suggested he take ginseng over the
counter to increase his libido. How should the PMHNP counsel this patient?
Let's review all your medications and herbals for drug-drug interaction
We have medications that can be prescribed for that
Ginseng has been around for years and it is safe
Rest and relaxation are the best treatment for libido

10- Plant or plant part with medicinal, therapeutic properties are included in
biologically based therapies
energy medicines
mind-body therapies
body-based therapies

11- A 12-year-old patient is having trouble sleeping. The PMHNP may

recommend which dietary supplement for insomnia
Benadryl
Ambien
kava
valerian ( valerian has been studied with children average age of 11 years for the
tx of insomnia) Tusaie Pg 86

12- Chiropractic treatment often involves

spinal manipulation
movement therapy
prescription pain killers
herbal therapy
13- Ginseng, which is taken to assist with memory, may potentiate. ?
Aricept
digoxin
Propranolol
Insulin (Using ginseng together with insulin or certain other diabetes medications
may increase the risk of hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar.)

14- The alternative system of medicine based on the principle that " like cures
like" is
Ayurvedic medicine
traditional Chinese medicine
naturopathic medicine
homeopathic medicine

15- Which of the following treatment is usually provided by a doctorally

prepared practitioner
massage therapist
naturalist
acupuncture medicine
chiropractic medicine

16- Which mind body practice is used most in the US?

massage
progressive relaxation
deep breathing
meditation
17- Reiki practices are included in
biologically based therapies
energy medicines
mind-body therapies
body based therapies

18- Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) therapies focus on

treating both the mind and the whole body, which means that CAM is part of
a
Holistic approach
Conventional approach
Psychological
Allopathic approach

19- Which of the following statements is NOT true about CAM practices in
the United States
CAM practices are used by men more than women
CAM practices are used by women more than men
CAM practices are used by women more than men
People with higher education tend to sue CAM practices more

20- The role of the nurse practitioner in the use of herbal medication is to
Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies
Recommend common over the counter herbs to patients
Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care
Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers
21-The form of movement therapy that involves gentle movements and
exercises designed to improve coordination and flexibility by retraining the
nervous system is:
Qi gong
Reiki
Light massage
Therapeutic touch
Right answer is the Feldenkrais Method.

22- The national center for complementary and integrative health (NCCIH,
2020) has created two classifications of complementary
Pilates
Feldenkrais
Tai Chi
Acupuncture
Therapeutic touch ( this is the choice I had on the test, I did not have acupuncture
as choice)

23- The form of energy medicine based on the therapist’s ability to identify
energy imbalances and enhance healing by improving the flow of energy is
Reiki
Deep massage
Therapeutic touch
Tai Chi chuari

24- Recent studies suggest that ginkgo Biloba has --------------on memory
Little or no impact/ ( inconclusive)My choice on the test
A moderate impact
A major impact
A mild impact

25- Which drug is used to treat herbal sexual desire

St. John's wort
Lavender
Gingseng
Gingko biloba

26- Which herbal is used to treatment mild to moderate depression

Ginseng
St. John's wort
S adenosyl methionine
Kava

27- Plant or plant parts with medicinal, therapeutic properties are included in
Mind-body therapies
Energy medicines
Body-based therapies
Biologically based therapies

28- Acupuncture includes stimulating ?

150 acupoints
360 body points
Twelve pair of meridians
50 nerves
29- Which of the following dietary supplements used to treat insomnia and
anxiety has been banned in parts of the world due to its dangerous side
effects?
Kava
St. John's wort
Omega 3
SAMe

30- Which mind-body practice is used most in the US?

Massage
Deep breathing
Meditation
Progressive relaxation

Other:

Which herbal is used to promote mood stability?

-Vitamin C
 -Omega 3 Fatty Acids

-S-adenosyl methionine

-Valerian

Which treatment focuses on the whole body in relation to the world?

-Reiki

-Ayurveda

-Healing touch

-Qigong

Eye-movement, desensitization and reprocessing was developed to help

individuals with trauma related disorders, EMDR uses a structural approach that

focuses on past, present, and future. How many phases are structured in this

approach?

-9

-5

-8

-3
 Evidense suggests that mindful meditation provides a calming effect and helps

the emotional process…

-Brainstem

-Amygdala

-Hypothalamus

-Frontal Lobe

Ginseng, which is taken to assist with memory, may also.

-change blood pressure

-cause impotency

-cause constipation

-cause tinnitus

Tusaie Chapter 22 Test Back

 Chapter 22. QSEN Competencies: Application to Advanced Practice Mental

Health Nursing

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A patient tells the nurse, Ive been having problems with my memory. I read

some information on the Internet and started taking gingko. Select the nurses best

response.

1. The Internet does not have reliable health information for consumers.
2. More recent studies indicate gingko does not help memory problems.
3. Valerian has been shown to have better effects for treating memory
problems.
4. Your memory problems are related to your circulation problems. Herbs will
not help.

ANS: B

Recent studies indicate gingko is does not help with cognition or memory

problems. Valerian is useful for treating mild depression or anxiety. The other

distracters are misleading.

2. A patient shows a nurse this advertisement: Our product is a scientific

breakthrough helpful for depression, anxiety, and sleeplessness. Made from an

ancient formula, it stimulates circulation and excretes toxins. Satisfaction

guaranteed or your money back. Select the nurses best response.

 1. Over-the-counter products for sleep problems are ineffective.
2. Do not take anything unless its prescribed by your doctor.
3. Lets do some additional investigation of that product.
4. It sounds like you are trying to self-medicate.

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ANS: C

Helping consumers actively evaluate the quality of information available to

them is important. It is important for the nurse to work with the patient and include

the patients preferences regarding management of health. Advertisements

indicating scientific breakthroughs or promising miracles for multiple ailments are

usually for products that are useless and being fraudulently marketed. Some may

even be harmful. Some over-the-counter products can be useful, and patients do

not need a prescription for these products. The broader issue is safety and efficacy,

rather than whether the patient is trying to self-medicate.

 3. A patient wants to learn more about integrative therapies. Which resource

should the nurse suggest for the most reliable information?

1. Internet
2. American Nurses Association (ANA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM)

ANS: D

The National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine has a

clearinghouse from which individuals may request information. The FDA has

information, but it is not as extensive as NCCAM. The Internet has many resources

but some are unreliable. The ANA does not provide extensive information about

this topic.

4. A patient with a history of asthma says, Ive been very nervous lately. I think

aromatherapy will help. I am ordering $250 worth of oils from an Internet site that

promised swift results. Select the nurses best action.

1. Support the patients efforts to become informed and to find health solutions.
2. Suggest the patient check with friends who have tried aromatherapy for
treatment of anxiety.
3. Remind the patient, If you spend that much on oils, you may not be able to
buy your prescribed medication.

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d. Tell the patient, Aromatherapy can complicate respiratory problems such as

asthma. Lets consider some other options.

ANS: D

Safety is paramount, and aromatherapy may cause complications for a patient

with asthma. The nurse should view alternative treatments with an open mind and

try to recognize the importance of the treatment to the patient while trying to give

the patient accurate, reliable information about the treatment. Although efforts to

become health literate should be supported, educating the patient about the pitfalls

of relying on the Internet is essential. The opinions of others, whether they are

positive or negative, lack a scientific basis and are subject to confounding variables

such as the placebo effect and individual factors such as age and health history.

Admonishing the patient may jeopardize the relationship.

5. A patient says, I have taken megadoses of vitamin E for 3 months to improve

my circulation, but I think I feel worse. Which action should the nurse take first?
 1. Explain to the patient that megadoses may be harmful and advise caution.
2. Assess the patient for symptoms and signs of toxicity from excess vitamin
exposure.
3. Assess for signs of circulatory integrity to determine whether improvement
has occurred.
4. Educate the patient that research has not shown that megadoses of vitamins
produce benefits.

ANS: B

Megadoses of many vitamins, especially when taken over long periods, may

produce dangerous side effects or toxicity. The priority for the nurse is to assess for

signs of any dangerous consequences of the patients use of such a regimen.

Secondary interventions would include patient education about research findings

related to the practice, along with any benefits and undesired effects associated

with the practice. A health care provider should also assess the patient for

cardiovascular concerns.

6. Acupuncture is a traditional Chinese medical treatment based on the belief

that:

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1. insertion of needles in key locations will drain toxic energies.

2. pressure on meridian points will correct problems in energy flow.
3. insertion of needles modulates the flow of energy along body meridians.
4. taking small doses of noxious substances will alleviate specific symptoms.

ANS: C

Acupuncture involves the insertion of needles to modulate the flow of body

energy (chi) along specific body pathways called meridians. Acupressure uses

pressure to affect energy flow. Homeopathy involves the use of microdosages of

specific substances to effect health improvement. Traditional Chinese medicine is

more concerned with energy and life force balance, and acupuncture is not

predicated on the removal of toxic energies.

7. A patient reports good results from taking an herb to manage migraine

headache pain. The nurse confirms there are no hazardous interactions between the

herb and the patients current prescription drugs. Select the nurses best comment to

the patient.

1. Thanks for telling me. Ill make a note in your medical record that you take
it.
2. You are experiencing a placebo effect. When we believe something will
help, it usually does.
3. Self-management of health problems can be dangerous. You should have
notified me sooner.
 4. Research studies show that herbals actually increase migraine pain by
inflaming nerve cells in the brain.

ANS: A

The nurse should reinforce the patient for reporting use of the herb. Many

patients keep secrets about use of alternative therapies. If it poses no danger, the

nurse can document the use. The patient may also get placebo effect from the herb,

but it is not necessary for the nurse to point out that information. The distracters are

judgmental and may discourage the patient from openly sharing in the future.

8. A patient diagnosed with depression tells the nurse, I want to try

supplementing my selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor with St. Johns wort.

Which action should the nurse take first?

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1. Advise the patient of the danger of serotonin syndrome.

2. Suggest that aromatherapy may produce better results.
 3. Assess the patient for depression and risk for suicide.
4. Suggest the patient decrease the antidepressant dose.

ANS: A

Research has suggested that St. Johns wort is a mild inhibitor of serotonin

reuptake and could lead to serotonin syndrome; this risk is increased if the patient

is taking other medications that increase serotonin activity. Assessing the

depression would be a secondary intervention. Aromatherapy has not been shown

to be an effective adjunct or treatment for depression. Although a dosage reduction

in her SSRI medication might reduce the risk of serotonin syndrome, this

intervention is not in the nurses scope of practice.

9. A patient tells the nurse, My memory is not as good as it once was, so I

started taking ginkgo biloba. The patients only other medication is a low-dose

aspirin daily. Which potential complication should be the focus of the nursing

assessment?

1. Gastrointestinal distress c. Thromboembolism

2. Spontaneous bleeding d. Drowsiness

ANS: B

Ginkgo interacts with anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents and may cause

spontaneous bleeding. Aspirin is such an agent and can predispose the patient to
spontaneous bleeding. It would not increase the risk of thromboembolism.

Drowsiness and gastrointestinal complaints are common side effects.

10. A patient asks, What is the major difference between conventional health

care and complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)? The nurses best reply is

that conventional health care:

a. focuses on what is done to the patient, whereas CAM focuses on body-mind

interaction with an actively involved patient.

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2. has been tested by research so less regulation is needed, but CAM is

religiously based and highly regulated.
3. is controlled by the health care industry, but CAM is the peoples medicine
and not motivated by profit.
4. is holistic and focused on health promotion, whereas CAM treats illnesses
and is symptom-specific.

ANS: A
 Conventional health care focuses primarily on curative actions implemented on

a mostly passive patient, whereas CAM focuses more on the mind-body aspects of

health, along with the active involvement of the patient. Conventional health care

is largely grounded in scientific research, and its various components are heavily

regulated; the opposite tends to be true of CAM. Some forms of CAM have their

roots in religious or cultural practices, but this is not characteristic of CAM as a

whole. Both conventional health care and CAM can focus on health promotion and

treatment of illness. Although critics express concern about the role of profit in

conventional health care, the profit motive can also apply in CAM.

11. A patient has tried a variety of complementary and alternative medicine

(CAM) approaches to manage health concerns. The nurse asks, How is going to

CAM practitioners different from seeing your medical doctors? The patient is most

likely to respond, The CAM practitioners:

1. usually prescribe a course of invasive and sometimes painful treatments.

2. spend more time talking with me and not just about my symptoms.
3. say I need to become much more spiritual to be well.
4. order many tests to determine my diagnoses.

ANS: B

CAM practitioners often spend considerable time assessing the person in a

holistic way. Visits typically involve lengthy discussions, in contrast to traditional

physician visits, where contact is often brief. CAM remedies can sometimes be

invasive or slightly painful, but usually they are noninvasive and well-tolerated.

Some CAM practices are very spiritually focused, but most do not have overt

religious elements. Conventional health care involves more diagnostic testing than

CAM.

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12. A patient tells the nurse, Look at all my bruises. They appeared about a

week after I started taking nutritional supplements from the health food store. The

nurse should focus assessment questions on the patients use of supplements

containing:

1. Vitamin A c. Vitamin C
2. Vitamin B d. Vitamin E

ANS: D
 Vitamin E has anticoagulant properties. Generally, a multiple vitamin tablet

contains the minimum daily requirement of each vitamin. Taking nutritional

supplements containing additional vitamin E would have the potential for causing

bruising and hemorrhage. Excess Vitamin A, B, and C do not produce

anticoagulant effects.

13. For which patient would it be most important for the nurse to urge

immediate discontinuation of kava? A patient with a comorbid diagnosis of:

1. cirrhosis. c. multiple sclerosis.

2. osteoarthritis. d. chronic back pain.

ANS: A

Kava should be used with caution in patients with liver disease because of its

potentially hepatotoxic effects. The other health problems do not pose immediate

dangers.

14. A patient tells the nurse, I prefer to treat my physical problems with herbs

and vitamins. They are natural substances, and natural products are safe. Which

response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

1. Natural substances tend to be safer than conventional medical remedies.

2. Natural remedies give you the idea that you are controlling your treatment.
3. The word natural can be a marketing term used to imply a product is
healthy, but thats not always true.
 4. You should not treat your own physical problems. You should see your
health care provider for these problems.

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ANS: C

CAM remedies are usually natural substances, but it is a fallacy that products

labeled natural are safer than conventional medicines. Some natural products

contain powerful ingredients that can cause illness and damage to the body if taken

inappropriately and, for some persons, can be dangerous even when used as

directed. This is the most important message for the nurse to convey to the patient.

So-called natural substances can have a number have significant side effects.

Natural substances may give one the belief that he is controlling his own treatment,

but that is not the message that most needs to be communicated here. Many

patients can safely self- manage minor physical problems.

 15. An immigrant from China needs a colonic resection but is anxious and

reluctant about surgery. This patient usually follows traditional Chinese health

practices. Which comment by the nurse would most likely reduce the patients

anxiety and reluctance?

1. Surgery will help rebalance the yin and yang forces and return you to
harmony.
2. The surgery we are recommending will help you achieve final
transformation.
3. I know this is new to you, but you can trust us to take very good care of you.
4. If you would like, we could investigate using acupuncture to help control
pain.

ANS: D

It would be helpful to incorporate elements of TCM as appropriate, such as

acupuncture for pain control. Traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) has the goal of

healing in harmony with ones environment and all of creation in mind, body, and

spirit, as well as balance of yin and yang energies and a state of transition.

However, it would not be helpful to suggest that surgery will balance the yin and

the yang, since this is not how balance is achieved in TCM. Transformation is

recognized as a stage of healing occurring when mutual, creative, active

participation occurs between healers and the patient toward changes in the mind,

body, and spirit; but final transformation could imply the end of corporeal life and

might be perceived as hastening his demise. Appealing to him to trust persons

whose practices are foreign to him conflicts with the patients values and would not

likely be effective.

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16. Which complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) method is

associated with using allergy injections of small amounts of an allergen in

solution?

a. Naturopathy c. Chiropractic b. Homeopathy d. Shiatsu

ANS: B

Homeopathy uses small doses of a substance to stimulate the bodys defenses

and healing mechanisms to treat illness. Naturopathy emphasizes health restoration

rather than disease. Chiropractic uses manipulation of the body to restore health.

Shiatsu is a type of massage.

 17. A nurse plans health education for a patient who will be receiving warfarin

(Coumadin) for several weeks after knee-replacement surgery. Which substance

should the nurse caution the patient to avoid?

1. Ginkgo biloba c. Valerian

2. Black cohosh d. Kava

ANS: A

Ginkgo biloba has anticoagulant effects and can cause bleeding in individuals

using anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents. Black cohosh is an herbal treatment

for hot flashes. Kava kava is considered to have analgesic properties but would not

cause increased risk of bleeding. Valerian has calming, sleep-inducing effects.

18. A patient reports, Last night I had several mixed drinks at a party. When I

got home, I had difficulty falling sleep. I made two cups of herbal tea with

valerian. This morning, I feel very groggy and have a headache. The nurse should

explain that:

1. valerian should be delayed at least 1 hour after using alcohol to avoid side
effects.
2. valerian may increase sedation from other central nervous system
depressants.
3. herbal teas often cause nervous system side effects such as headaches.
4. these feelings are actually a hangover from excessive alcohol intake.

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ANS: B

Valerian has sedative properties that are potentiated when used in combination

with other central nervous system depressants. Headaches are another possible side

effect of this herbal medicine. The nurse should advise caution in ingesting alcohol

and valerian for these reasons. Taking valerian an hour after alcohol will not

prevent these interactions, and it is likely that the valerian played a role in her

feeling perhaps worse than usual after this episode of drinking. Herbal teas cause

headaches in some cases, but it is not characteristic of this group of herbal

remedies.

19. A patient had a stroke 3 weeks ago and is taking warfarin (Coumadin).

When visiting the laboratory for a prothrombin time, the patient reports taking

gingko for memory enhancement. Which nursing diagnosis applies?

1. Impaired memory related to neurological changes

 2. Deficient knowledge related to potentially harmful drug interactions
3. Ineffective denial related to consequences of mismanagement of therapeutic
regime
4. Effective management of the therapeutic regime related to augmentation of
anti- coagulant therapy

ANS: B

Gingko is purported to improve memory, concentration, and mood in patients

with dementia. Because it antagonizes platelet-activating factor, it should not be

taken by patients who are receiving anticoagulants or who have other potential

bleeding problems. Thus, deficient knowledge is an appropriate nursing diagnosis.

20. Select the best desired outcome for a patient who uses valerian. The patient

will report:

1. stress level is lower.

2. undisturbed sleep throughout the night.
3. increased interest in recreational activities.
4. early morning waking without an alarm clock.

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 b. Megadoses of vitamins

d. Herbal therapy

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Valerian decreases sleep latency, nocturnal waking, and leads to a subjective

sense of good sleep. Sleeping through the night is the best indicator the herb was

effective. Although the patients stress level may be lowered by use of valerian, the

problem is insomnia; outcomes should relate to the problem. Early morning

waking is indicative of depression or anxiety.

21. Which patient would most likely benefit from taking St. Johns wort? A

patient with:

1. mood swings. c. mild depressive symptoms.

2. hypomanic symptoms. d. panic disorder with agoraphobia.

ANS: C

Research has found St. Johns wort to be effective in treating mild to moderate

depression. St Johns wort has not been found to be effective in treatment of

cyclothymic, bipolar, or anxiety disorders.

 22. During an assessment interview, a patient who reports a high level of

anxiety says, Ive been using kava in small doses for about a week. When the nurse

assesses mental status, expected findings would be:

1. intact cognitive function. c. paranoid thinking.

2. slow verbal responses. d. slurred speech.

ANS: A

Kava relieves anxiety without producing cognitive impairment, reducing mental

acuity, or affecting coordination. The patient has taken small doses, so response

times would be normal. It does not usually produce the effects cited in the

distracters.

23. Which complementary and alternative therapy may be safely combined with

traditional Western medicine in the treatment of anxiety disorder?

a. Electroconvulsive therapy c. Meditative practices

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ANS: C
 Yoga, meditation, and prayer are considered to be beneficial adjuncts to

treatment for anxiety disorder. Research supports this with findings of lower

catecholamine levels following meditation. Patient self-reports suggest patient

satisfaction, with increased ability to relax. Meditation and spiritual practices have

no associated untoward side effects. Herbal therapy and megadoses of vitamins

have potential associated side effects and interactions. Electroconvulsive therapy is

not CAM.

24. A patient diagnosed with depression confidently tells the nurse, Ive been

supplementing my paroxetine (Paxil) with St. Johns wort. It has helped a great

deal. What is the nurses priority action?

1. Assess changes in the patients level of depression.

2. Remind the patient to use a secondary form of birth control.
3. Educate the patient about the risks of selective serotonin syndrome.
4. Suggest adding valerian to the treatment regimen to further improve results.

ANS: C

Research has suggested that St. Johns wort inhibits serotonin reuptake by

elevating extracellular sodium; thus, it may interact with medication, particularly

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, to produce serotonin syndrome. Discussing

the patients birth control method is a secondary priority.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE
 1. A patient in good health and without any major health needs says, I want to

try some nutritional supplements I read about on the Internet. What information

would be appropriate for the nurse to include in a response? Select all that apply.

1. Most healthy people who eat a balanced diet do not need nutritional
supplements.
2. Research has not supported claims that various nutritional supplements
create significant benefits in healthy people.

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ANS: A, B, D, E

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c. Some nutritional supplements are proven to significantly delay aging and

reduce the incidence of age-related diseases like cancer.

4. I am glad you are actively engaged in managing your health by trusting

information from the Internet.
5. Researchers are still studying the benefits and side effects of many
supplements. We should know more in the years to come.

ANS: A, B, E
 Although some supplements do seem to improve certain disorders such as

depression, nutritional supplements generally are not needed by persons who eat a

balanced diet and are in good health. Claims for clear health benefits from

exceeding the recommended intake of nutrients are generally not supported by

science. Research is limited to date, and future findings may show more support as

our understanding of the bodys nutritional needs expands. Taken at levels

supported by most health care practitioners, supplements are probably safe.

Occasionally, research suggests that supplements thought to be safe can contribute

to health problems under some circumstances. There is no evidence that

supplements slow aging or prevent cancer. It is important for nurses to caution

patients about reliability of information on the Internet.

2. A patient who emigrated from India is hospitalized. The patient and family

use ayurvedic medicine. The nurse wants to alter this patients care so that it is more

comfortable and familiar. What changes from usual Western practice should be

considered? Select all that apply.

1. In preparation for discharge, include a significant focus on preventive

practices.
2. Spend time exploring the patients life overall, focusing on broader issues
than health.
3. Involve the patients entire family and treatment team in decisions about
treatment options.
4. Anticipate that because the patients traditions are steeped in history, there
may be distrust in high-tech interventions.
 e. Provide relevant health-related information and then allow the patient to

determine which course of action to pursue.

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Ayurvedic medicine, an ancient practice that originated in India, stresses

individual responsibility for health, is holistic, promotes prevention, recognizes the

uniqueness of the individual, and offers natural methods of treatment. Ayurvedic

medicine does not require spiritual cleansing or the involvement of family and the

treatment team in all decisions.

3. Which important points should the nurse teach a patient about using herbal

preparations?

Select all that apply.

 1. Check active and inactive ingredients.
2. Discontinue use if side or adverse effects occur.
3. Avoid herbals during pregnancy and breast-feeding.
4. Buying from online sources is preferable and cheaper.
5. Inform your health care provider about the use of herbals.

ANS: A, B, C, E

All of the instruction is correct except regarding purchase of herbals. Herbals

should be purchased from a reputable firm. Internet purchasing might not be the

best plan, unless the reputation of the firm can be confirmed.

4. A patient reports frequent sleep disturbances. Which interventions could be

considered to help improve the patients sleep pattern? Select all that apply.

1. Aromatherapy
2. Chamomile
3. Vitamin C
4. Valerian
5. SAM-e

ANS: A, B, D

Chamomile and valerian have relaxant effects that help sleep. Aromatherapy

has sedating properties that may improve sleep. SAM-e may help with mild

depression. Vitamin C has no effect on sleep.

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Quiz #6. Geriatric Test Bank

01- The clinician asks a client the steps of driving a car. Which subtype of
memory does this assess?
Episodic
Procedural
Semantic
Working

02- Which of the following is the MOST useful tool to help in the diagnosis of
dementia?
Cognitive assessment (frontal lobe assessment battery)
Clinical interview and examination
Cognitive assessment (Mini Mental State Examination MMSE)
Magnetic Resonance imaging (MRI) scan
03- A 10-item screening tool was developed to be used in primary care to
assess cognition, mental state, and memory. Select the name of the screening
tool
Mini-Cog Test
Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)
Short, Portable, Mental Status Questionnaire (SPMSQ)
Mini-Mental State Exam

04- A client presents with a slow onset of cognitive impairment with early
personality changes, problems with executive function, and speech
impairment. Which diagnosis does the PMHNP suspect?
Neurocognitive disorder, Lewy Body disease
Neurocognitive disorder, Alzheimer’s disease
Neurocognitive disorder, Frontotemporal lobar degeneration
Neurocognitive disorder, Vascular disease

05- Older adults in the United States are at an increased risk of cognitive
impairment due to which factor
Cytokine storm
Noncompliance with preventative medication
Polypharmacy
Disrupted sleep-wake cycle

06- a patient has a score of 30 in the mini mental status exam which can be
interpreted
As severe cognitive impairment
As no cognitive impairment
As mild cognitive impairment
After considering the patient’s literacy and age

07- A client with cognitive and behavioral symptoms has decreased functional
ability. The daughter reports wandering, agitation, and occasional falls. What
is most concerning to the clinician?
The client has a healing bruise on their hand from a recent fall in the home
The client needs to be reminded to take their medication
The client continues to drive a car.
The family states they set the house security alarm each night

08-After a cathartic experience, some kind of ________is often necessary to

help members make new decisions based on what they have experienced
emotionally
Emotional work
Solution-focused work
Behavioral intervention
Cognitive work

09- The primary family group is important in group therapy because

Individual resolution of inner conflict can be covered
Most clients have a satisfactory family experience
They have no effect on people’s adult lives
Early familial conflicts can be relieved correctly
https://quizlet.com/72743465/880-yalom-the-theory-and-practice-of-group-
psychotherapy-flash-cards/
10- Self-____ develops healing within the group
Dislike
Empathy
Trust
Acceptance

11- This medication is often given to persons with Parkinson's Disease to treat
depression
fluoxetine (Prozac)
citalopram (Celexa) pg 583 book
sertraline (Zoloft)
selegiline (Eldepryl)

12- Adherence is improved When a drug can be given once daily. Which of the
following drugs can be given once daily?
Memantine CORRECT ANSWER
Pyridostigmine
Tacrine
Donezepril
13- The mini mental Status exam assesses
executive function
mild cognitive impairment
abstract thinking
visuospatial function
14- The PMHNP is treating a client who has been diagnosed with Lewy Body
dementia. The nurse caring for this client reports that the client has been
talking to someone who is not present. How does the APRN interpret this
finding
Visual hallucinations can be treated with medication
Benign hallucinations are prominent in LBD
Seclusion in an isolated room is indicated
Lewy body dementia has been incorrectly diagnosed

15- A rapid cognitive screening was developed by Geldmacher (2003). Which

reflects a question asked by a clinician when using this screening
Tell me what you enjoy doing in your spare time
Repeat after me. Cookie, honesty, daffodil
How many fingers am I holding up
Who is the president of the United stated

16- Patients with this form of dementia tend to have a younger age of onset,
with more severe apathy, disinhibition, reduction in speech output, loss of
insight and coarsening of social behavior
Alzheimer' s Disease
Picks Disease
Parkinson’s Disease
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration

17- A significant decline in cognitive ability which is most prevalent in late fife
is identified as neurocognitive disorders (NCD). Which best describes these
disorders?
Only occur in the later decades of life
Delirium and Alzheimer cognitive deficits are short term
Diagnostic and Sta ti5tical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth Edition
Include acute onset and gradual onset, difficult to diagnose. (tusaie pg 307)

18- Which of the following would be the earliest and most reliable sign to
differentiate between dementia and delirium. The
Presence of hallucinations
Presence of short-term deficits
Presence of long-term memory deficits
Presence of altered consciousness. (Tusaie pg 308)

19- The Physical Self-Maintenance Scale is a tool used to assess physical

ADLs. Which does not reflect the components of this scale?
The caregiver ranks the client’s ability to perform toileting feeding, dressing and
grooming
Questions regarding the client’s memory, orientation, and judgement weighed
heavily. (Tusai p319)
The higher the score, the more impaired the client
A scale of one to five is used, with one being independent and five being totally
dependent

20. The instilling and maintenance of hope is critical in group psychotherapy

because
hope is an unrealistic feeling
expectations of positive outcomes are therapeutic - CORRECT
faith in the treatment mode is ineffective
as one group member improves the others become discouraged
21-Vascular dementia has been known to be the second most common cause of
dementia. A caregiver of a patient with vascular dementia is now worried
about “the think” of her acquiring the disorder. You should advise her that
the most significant risk is
Having an underlying heart disease
Having poorly controlled blood pressure - Correct one
Having an elevated lipid Panel
Having a previous smoking history

22- A 70 year old male was admitted last night due to behavior difficulty at
home. The nurse staff reported the patient had rapid changes in the
consciousness levels. At times he seemed to respond to both visual and
auditory hallucinations. He had some rigidity and gait disbalances as well.
Which of the following might be a likely differential diagnosis for him?
Catatonia schizophrenia
Lewy body dementia – Correct one
Delirium tremens
Senile dementia

21- Most women die from ... while pregnant.

Suicide
Domestic violence
Motor vehicle accidents
Eclampsia

22- Which of the following is a therapeutic factor in group therapy?

Altruism
23- A 55-year-old man has been suffering from short term memory problems,
and other problems related to concentration. Otherwise, his daily activities
are not affected. Which of the following is most likely to develop?
Alzheimer’s Dementia

24- Which of the following drugs used to treat Alzheimer’s disease is not an
anticholinergic?
Memantine (Namenda)

25- A client is experiencing cognitive decline, and a transition to nursing home

placement is being considered. Evidence from a study suggested that three
medications are equally effective in slowing cognitive decline. Which is not an
effective treatment?
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

26- A 78 y/o male was prescribed a new medication for anxiety. The PMHNP
should consider which prescribing practice?
Prescribe half the starting dose.

27- You are treating a patient with a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease. Which
medications is the best choice to initiate treatment?
Donezepril

28- Which of the following IS NOT accurate according to Yalom?

Maladaptive behavioral patterns by an identified group member.
Are not usually improved when they are pointed out.
29- The goal of the analytic process
is restructuring the client's character and personality system.

30- A young man presents to the emergency department complaining of mild

itching, pins and needles, burning or numbness. You suspect the symptoms
will resolve with
24-48 hours ago
12-24 hours ago
48-72 hours ago
6-8 hours ago

Tusaie Test Bank

. Integrative Management of Disordered Cognition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A patient diagnosed with moderate dementia consistently appears to be

distorting the truth

resulting in his wife asking, What should I do when he lies to me about

unimportant things?

Upon what rationale should the nurses response be based?

a. Changing the topic provides diversion.

b. Delusions should be confronted to clarify thinking.

 c. Ignoring memory deficit avoids catastrophic reactions.

d. This isnt lying but rather a way to fill in the memory gaps.

ANS: D

Confabulation is not lying but rather a method for filling in the memory gaps.

Ignoring, using

confrontation, and changing the topic would not be as useful as gently

reorienting.

2. The nurse is to perform a complete assessment of a patient in her home,

using the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) as one component. When the

nurse arrives, the patient is seated at the table with her husband, the TV is on,

and several grandchildren are visiting. The patient is quiet, but her hands are

gripped tightly, and she is staring at the ceiling. The best action for the nurse to

take would be which of the following?

a. Ask the husband to make an appointment to bring his wife to the clinic for

testing.

b. Explain to the husband that accurate data will be sought, and ask him to stay

with

the grandchildren in another room.

 c. Do not perform the test during the assessment (because it will not be valid)

and

rely on observations and reports from the family.

d. Explain the importance of the testing process and make an appointment for

another day when the environment can be better controlled.

ANS: D

Testing the patient in her home under quieter, less distracting circumstances is

the best solution.

Asking the husband to leave is likely to increase the patients anxiety and alter

test results. Use of

the MMSE is an integral component of the assessment and must not be deleted.

Testing in the

more familiar, comfortable surroundings of the home will yield more reliable

results.

3. A patient has been admitted with a diagnosis of hypoactive delirium. Which

nursing

intervention is supported by this diagnosis?

a. Encouraging fluids to minimize constipation

b. Frequently assessing both visual and auditory hallucinations

 c. Scheduling frequent changing of position to prevent skin breakdown

d. Dimming the lights to help control eye discomfort resulting from cataracts

ANS: C

Because of inactivity, hypoactive delirium patients are more likely to develop

further

complications, including decubiti that could be minimized by frequent

repositioning. The

remaining options identify interventions that are not generally a result of this

diagnosis.

4. Which of the following should the nurse use as a basis for explaining the

etiology of

Alzheimers disease to the family of a patient with this disease?

a. It is a secondary dementia indicated by loss of recent memory and

disorientation
 to time and place.

b. It is a primary dementia that is incurable, irreversible, and fatal. It is

caused by

the presence of a beta-amyloid protein in the neurons resulting in senile

plaques.

c. It is a secondary dementia that is treatable with analysis of the diet and

removal

of toxic substances from the diet and environment.

d. It is a primary dementia characterized by stepwise decreases in cognitive

abilities.

It is irreversible but treatable with antihypertensive medications.

ANS: B

This option provides accurate information about Alzheimers disease.

Alzheimers disease is not a

secondary dementia nor is it treated with antihypertensive medications.

5. Which outcome is realistic for a patient with stage 1 Alzheimers disease?

a. Caregiver will assume role of decision maker for patient to reduce stress.

b. The patient will maintain the highest possible functional level to preserve

autonomy.
 c. Arrangements will be made for appropriate long-term placement to minimize

risk

of injury.

d. The patient will retain full physical functioning through cognitive and

occupational therapies.

ANS: B

This outcome addresses health maintenance (i.e., maintaining an optimal

functional level as

determined by present capacity). Although long-term placement may be an

option, it is not

necessarily appropriate during this stage. Patients in stage 1 are often able to

make simple

decisions. Continuing to make decisions gives the patient a sense of control.

Although a patient

in stage 1 does not appear markedly deteriorated, some diminution of function

may be present.

6. The home care nurse is visiting a patient who was discharged to home after

a procedure at an
 ambulatory surgical center. The patient lives alone in a senior retirement

community. The nurses

assessment documents mild dysphasia. The patient repeatedly asks, Why is

there a bandage on

my arm? and is not able to state the appropriate day and year. Appropriate

planning for the

patient should include:

a. Assessing diet and meal preparation, assessing environment for safety

problems,

referral to a dementia program

b. Attending English class to improve speech, transferring finances to a

conservator,

employing an aide to help with medications

c. Arranging Meals on Wheels, attending speech therapy, relocation to a skilled

nursing facility if no improvement in 1 month

d. Arranging an appointment at a geriatric assessment program, OT referral for

swallowing therapy, teaching to manage public transportation

ANS: A

Further assessment is appropriate before making changes in the living

environment. Enrolling in
 a dementia program will provide stimulation and help the patient maintain

intellectual skills.

English classes will not improve speech. The other plans might have relevance,

however. The

remaining sets of options are either irrelevant or beyond the patients abilities.

7. A patient diagnosed with Alzheimers disease has a catastrophic reaction

during an activity

involving simultaneous playing of music and working on a craft project. The

patient starts

shouting no, no, no and rushes out of the room. The nurse should:

a. Discontinue the activity program since it upsets the patients.

b. Follow the patient, reassure her, and redirect her to a quieter activity.

c. Isolate the patient until she is calm, and then direct her back to the activity.

d. Give the patient prn antianxiety medication and restrict her activity

participation.

ANS: B

These actions will restore safety and self-esteem. Isolation will decrease self-

esteem and may

 increase confusion. It is only one patient that is distressed, not the entire group.

Behavioral

interventions should be attempted prior to administering medication.

8. Which behaviors would indicate that a therapeutic activity program for a

patient with

Alzheimers disease had been successful?

a. Accurate recent memory, positive emotional response, and increased verbal

expression

b. Increased attention span, verbal expression of remote memory, and positive

emotional response

c. Positive use of perseveration, reduction in use of habitual skills, and

improved

abstract reasoning

d. Positive emotional response, ability to remember multiple steps, and

accurate

recent memory

ANS: B

These are all observations that would indicate that a therapeutic activity

program has kept the

 patient functioning at the highest level of which he is capable. The behaviors

described in the

other options are not realistic expectations for this patient.

9. A patient has been diagnosed with dementia secondary to cerebral disease.

The family

members note the patient has not been as sharp as he once was and that he

has developed urinary incontinence and a gait disturbance. Which

pathophysiology can cause such symptoms?

a. Normal pressure hydrocephalus

b. Vitamin B12 deficiency

c. Hepatic disease

d. Tuberculosis

ANS: A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a disorder characterized by dementia, gait

disorder, and

urinary incontinence. Dilation of ventricles in the absence of increased CSF is

a prominent

manifestation. Early urinary incontinence is not seen in the disorders listed in

the other options.

 10. When asked about the prognosis for a patient diagnosed with a dementia

secondary to normal pressure hydrocephalus the nurse replies:

a. Unfortunately the prognosis is for a downhill course ending in death.

b. There will be good days and bad days for the rest of the patients life.

c. The symptoms generally remit after a shunt is inserted to drain fluid.

d. Well try our very best, but only time will tell how successful we are.

ANS: C

By relieving the cause, the symptoms of secondary dementias are largely

reversible. The

statements reflected in the other options do not reflect this fact.

11. Which statement by an adult child concerning the behaviors of their

parent supports the

diagnosis of Alzheimers disease?

a. Mom forgot to pay her utility bills last month.

b. Mom isnt as interested in keeping a neat house as she was.

c. Mom doesnt seem interested in going out with friends anymore.

 d. Mom refuses to stop driving even though her reaction time is very slow.

ANS: A

Increased forgetfulness, particularly that involving former routine activities

(such as bill paying),

is symptomatic of Alzheimers disease. The other options do not indicate

cognitive deficit.

12. The daughter of an older patient with dementia tearfully tells the nurse

that she doesnt know

whats wrong with her mother, who has begun accusing the family of holding

her prisoner. Which

nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this patient?

a. Powerlessness

b. Defensive coping

c. Ineffective coping

d. Disturbed thought processes

ANS: D

Paranoid thinking is common in patients with dementia. Inability to correctly

interpret
 environmental clues and to think logically leads to delusional thinking as the

patient tries to

make sense of a confusing world. The remaining options are not supported by

the data in the

scenario.

13. The daughter of an elderly patient with dementia tearfully tells the nurse

that she doesnt

know whats wrong with her mother, who has begun accusing the family of

stealing her money.

The nurse assesses the patients stage of Alzheimers disease as stage:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

ANS: B

In stage 2, memory and cognitive deficits are worsening. The patient is less

able to make sense

of a confusing world and makes faulty interpretations resulting in paranoid

delusional thinking.
 The patient in stage 1 does not usually have delusions. The patient in stage 3

often is unable to

communicate meaningfully. There is no stage 4 of Alzheimers disease.

14. An elderly patient was well until 12 hours ago, when she reported to her

family that in the

middle of the night she awakened to see a man standing at the foot of her bed.

There is no

evidence that this situation ever happened. This series of events supports

which possible

diagnosis?

a. Delirium

b. Anxiety

c. Paranoia

d. Dementia

ANS: A

Delirium is a disturbance of consciousness and cognition that develops over a

short period. It is

secondary to a medical condition. The scenario does not fit the disorders

mentioned in the
 remaining options.

15. A patient diagnosed with delirium has become agitated and fearful. Which

nursing

intervention should the nurse implement to help prevent a catastrophic

response?

a. Interact with the patient on an adult-to-child level.

b. Place the patient in a safe, nonstimulating environment.

c. Ask the patient to explain what is causing the agitation and fear.

d. Be prepared to apply physical restraints to minimize the patients risk for

injury.

ANS: B

The safety of a patient with delirium is of primary importance. Symptoms of

delirium fluctuate

and may worsen, especially at night. The greater the patients confusion and

disorientation, the

greater the possibility for self-harm. The patient should be treated as an adult;

to do otherwise is

demeaning. Asking for an explanation is inappropriate, because delirious

patients cannot
 formulate rational answers. Patients are never restrained unless all other less

restrictive measures

have failed.

16. A patient has been diagnosed with Alzheimers disease, stage 1. The nurse

would expect to

help the family plan measures to assist the patient with:

a. Perseveration

b. Recent memory loss

c. Catastrophic reactions

d. Progressive gait disturbances

ANS: B

Recent memory loss is the only symptom listed in the options that would be

expected in stage 1

Alzheimers disease.

17. An elderly patient with dementia has a nursing diagnosis of self-care

deficit: bathing,
 hygiene. She lives alone and the nursing assessment proves reason to believe

she has forgotten

how to perform hygiene and bathing activities. Which intervention is most

appropriate for this

patient?

a. Bathe daily with reminders.

b. Bathe twice weekly with assistance.

c. Patient will be provided with in-home nursing care.

d. Patient will be transferred to an assisted living facility.

ANS: B

Bathing twice weekly would be a realistic goal. Assistance should be provided,

both to prevent

falls and to regulate shower temperature. The elderly are advised not to bathe

daily because it is

too drying to their skin. The remaining options are not supported by the

information given in the

scenario.

18. Which situation would be most likely to serve as a trigger to a catastrophic

reaction in a
 patient with stage 2 Alzheimers disease?

a. Participating in singing Happy Birthday to another patient at dinner

b. Being scolded by an aide for spilling a glass of milk

c. Listening to Big Band music from the 1940s

d. Eating cupcakes in the activities room

ANS: B

Catastrophic reactions are overexaggerated negative emotional responses

initiated as a result of a perceived failure at a task or change in the environment.

Being scolded by the aide presents a

situation that would clearly be frustrating to the patient.

19. Which theory of etiology of Alzheimers disease, suggested by current

research, might the

nurse use to help a family understand that this disorder is not of psychosocial

origin? Alzheimers

disease is associated with:

a. Abnormal serotonin reuptake

b. Prion infection of gray matter

c. -Amyloid protein deposits in the brain

d. Excessive acetylcholine in the frontal cortex

 ANS: C

The prevailing theories of etiology of Alzheimers disease include the following:

angiopathy and

blood-brain barrier incompetence; neurotransmitter and receptor deficiencies

of acetylcholine;

abnormal proteins, specifically -amyloid and their products; and genetic

defects. Neither

serotonin nor prions are implicated as problems in Alzheimers disease.

20. The nurse is administering donepezil (Aricept) to a patient with stage 1

Alzheimers disease.

Based on this drugs mechanism of action, the nurse will seek evidence of

improvement in the

patients:

a. Social behaviors

b. Existing delusions

c. Ability to tolerate stress

d. Ability to remember recent events

ANS: D
 Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor that increases the concentration of

acetylcholine.

Acetylcholine is needed for intact memory and for learning. This medication is

not prescribed for

the conditions identified in the remaining options.

21. A patient with dementia is unable to name ordinary objects. Instead, he

describes the function of each item (e.g., the thing you cut meat with). The nurse

assesses this as:

a. Apraxia

b. Agnosia

c. Aphasia

d. Amnesia

ANS: B

Agnosia is the failure to identify objects despite intact sensory function. Apraxia

is the inability

to carry out purposeful, complex movements and use objects properly. Aphasia

refers to inability

to speak (expressive) or inability to comprehend what is said or written

(receptive). Amnesia is
 inability to remember a significant block of information.

22. Which intervention has highest priority for a patient with stage 3

Alzheimers disease?

a. Cutting the patients food into bite size pieces

b. Providing fluids to the patient every hour while awake

c. Demonstrating to the patient how to put toothpaste on the brush

d. Assisting the patient in signing a birthday care for a granddaughter

ANS: B

The severe dementia characteristics of stage 3 renders the patient incapable of

independently

meeting hydration and nutrition needs. These needs are basic to life, so they are

of highest

priority. The remaining options are not applicable for such an impaired patient.

23. A patient was admitted to a dementia unit after persistently wandering

away from home.

Which intervention will best address this patients risk for injury?

a. Place the patient in a geriatric chair with a tray across the lap.

b. Provide one-to-one supervision when the patient is ambulatory.

 c. Reinforce verbal explanation to the patient concerning the dangers of

wandering.

d. Activate alarm system that will alert staff to the patients attempt to open the

door.

ANS: D

Electronic alarms allow patients freedom of movement although still preventing

them from

wandering off the unit. One-to-one supervision is not necessary in an

environment designed as a

dementia unit. The geriatric chair would be an unacceptable form of restraint

for this patient. The

patient would not be capable of processing the verbal explanation.

24. A patient with moderate dementia does not remember her sons name. The

son repeatedly

questions the mother asking, Do you know my name? The mother invariably

becomes agitated.

The nurse can most effectively intervene by explaining to the son:

a. Your mother is angry with you and is punishing you by forgetting who you

are.
 Be patient and shell get over it.

b. Your mothers dementia is preventing her from retaining information even

for

short periods of time. She senses your distress and becomes agitated.

c. You will need to reorient your mother often during your visits with her. With

reinforcement, she may be able to begin to recall who you are.

d. Because you both become so distressed, it might be better if you come to see

your

mother less frequently and stay for only shorter periods of time.

ANS: B

When a patient with dementia is presented with a demand that exceeds their

capacity to function,

the demand creates a high level of stress. Showing anxiety and disapproval

adds even greater

stress. The son should be counseled to make every attempt to demonstrate

positive responses to

his mother. The other options are not effective interventions.

25. The wife of a patient with moderate to severe dementia tells the nurse, Im

exhausted. He
 wanders at night instead of sleeping, so I get no rest. Im afraid to leave him

during the day, so I

have to take him with me wherever I go. The nurse recognizes the need to

provide teaching for

this caregiver. An appropriate outcome for this teaching would include:

a. Experiences less stress indicated by improved sleep patterns

b. Feels comfortable leaving the patient in the care of others occasionally

c. No longer experiences resentment concerning the need to care for the patient

d. Feels at peace with the decision to admit the patient to an appropriate care

facility

ANS: A

Stress reduction allowing for better rest is an appropriate outcome. The other

options are not

necessarily appropriate nor will they result in improvement for the caregiver.

26. A teenager is admitted to the ED after being alternately hyperalert and

difficult to arouse.

The symptoms started within the last few hours, during which time he became

disoriented,

confused, and delusional. These symptoms support the diagnosis of:

 a. Amnesia

b. Delirium

c. Dementia

d. Depression

ANS: B

The symptoms are indicative of delirium. The other options are not supported

by the scenario.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. Which interventions provided by the caregiver will help ensure effective

care for the patient

diagnosed with dementia? (Select all that apply)

a. Taking the patients blood pressure regularly

b. Being alert to ways the patient might be hurt

c. Keeping the patient on a predictable schedule

d. Assuming responsibility for meeting the patients needs

e. Providing the patient with nonstimulating, private time

ANS: B, C, E
 These interventions take responsibility for areas in which the patient is

incapable of providing

self-care and addressing the special needs this patient has. Taking the blood

pressure is not

necessary unless there is a medical condition that requires doing so. Although

the patients ability

to provide self-care will deteriorate, independence should be encouraged as

appropriate.

2. For which medication will the nurse prepare material for the family of a

patient diagnosed

with mild to moderate Alzheimers disease? (Select all that apply.)

a. Tacrine (Cognex)

b. Donepezil (Aricept)

c. Haloperidol (Haldol)

d. Rivastigmine (Exelon)

e. Galantamine (Razadyne)

ANS: A, B, D, E

The only drug that is not generally prescribed for Alzheimers disease is Haldol
 FINAL TEST QUESTIONS

The patient with early-onset dementia first?

Vitamin E

Vitamin D

Vitamin B

Vitamin C

A client with cognitive and behavioral symptoms has decreased functional

ability. The daughter reports wandering, agitation, and occasional falls. What is

most concerning to the clinician?

The client has a healing bruise on their hand from a recent fall in the

home.

The client needs to be reminded to take their medication.

The family states they set the house security alarm each night.
 The client continues to drive a car

A woman is 8 weeks pregnant and wants to stop vaping. Which treatment

would the PMHN order?

nicotine replacement therapy

bupropion

varenicline

suboxone

---------------- is the least important test in determining thyroid function

T3 total

TSH

T3uptake

T4 free

Interpreting the meaning of behavior patterns at appropriate times so that

members will be able to engage in a deeper level of self-exploration and consider

alternative behaviors is most critical at the

 storming stage.

performing stage.

norming stage.

You are treating a patient with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease. Which

medication is the best choice to initiate treatment?

Doxazosin

Tacrine

Verapamil

Donezepril

Which of the following is a stage in the theory of the in change?

determination

self-efficacy

empathy

preparation

Pre-pregnancy and prenatal care involve discussing modifiable health behaviors

and lifestyle factors that can impact pregnancy outcomes. Which is NOT a

modifable behaviors?
 Domestic violence

Maternal age

Smoking

Obesity

A 10-item screening tool was developed to be used in primary care to assess

cognition, mental state, and memory. Select the name of this screening tool.

Short, Portable, Mental Status Questionnaire (SPMSQ)

Mini-Mental State Exam

Mini-Cog Test

Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)

A caregiver of a patient with vascular dementia is now worried about the risk of

her acquiring the disorder. You would advise her that the most significant risk is

Having a history of cocaine use

Having poorly controlled blood pressure

Having an underlying lung disease

 - according to Yalom, is curative and therapeutic in itself because it gives

members the incentive to commit themselves to the demanding work that change

requires.

Positivity

Intimacy

Freedom to experiment

Hope

Severe alcohol withdrawal is associated with all of the following medical

complications except:

Hyperglycemia

Seizures

Visual hallucinations

Hand tremors

This medication is often given to persons with Parkinson's Disease to treat

depression.

selegiline (Eldepryl)
 citalapram (Celexa).

sertraline (Zoloft)

When an identified group member experiences emotional catharsis, who reaps

the benefit?

the identified member

the group as a whole

the group facilitator

the peer members

A score of 7, on any Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol

category indicates:

hospitalization is required

chronic alcohol use disorder

increased severity

delirium tremens

The Physical Self-Maintenance Scale is a tool used to assess physical ADLs.

Which does not reflect the components of this scale?

 The caregiver ranks the client's ability to perform toileting, feeding, dressing,

and grooming.

Questions regarding the client's memory, orientation, and judgment

weighted heavily

A scale of one to five is used, with one being independent and five being totally

dependent.

The higher the score, the more impaired the client.

Adherence is improved when a drug can be given once daily. Which of the

following drugs can be given once daily?

Donezepril

Pyridostigmine

Tacrine

Memantine

In dysfunctional groups. it is common for group members to

seek help from the assigned group leader

seek help from the unofficial group leader

work on their own family issues

deal with their issues in a mature manner

 Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) was developed to

help individuals with trauma-related disorders. EMDR uses a structured approach

that focuses on the past, present, and future. How many phases are structured in

this approach?

Eight

Three

Five

The alternative system of medicine based on the principle that "like cures like"

is

traditional Chinese medicine \

naturopathic medicine

Ayurvedic medicine

homeopathic medicine

Which of the following is a therapeutic benefit of group therapy

Transference

Socialization
 Countertransference

Enmeshment

The perinatal period requires physiological, psychological, and social

adaptions. Which of the following is NOT true?

The perinatal period can trigger the onset or first occurrence of a psychiatric

illness.

Pregnancy protects the childbearing woman against mental illness.

Reproductive hormone can impact maternal biological and stress systems.

The emotional status of the mother impacts the fetus.

------- adds little or no meaning or emphasis to what the client said.

Advanced reflection

Indirect reflection

Simple reflection

Complex reflection

The psychiatric-mental health advanced practice registered nurse evaluates a

client and gives the client a diagnosis of severe Alzheimer disease. Which

pharmacological agent is the best option?

 Donepezil

Rivastigmine

Memantine ER

is associated with personality changes and speech and language abnormalities.

Vascular dementia

Late onset schizophrenia

Alzheimer's dementia

Pick's disease

You are treating a patient with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease. Which

medication is the best choice to initiate treatment?

Doxazosin

Tacrine

Verapamil

Donezepril

Which of the following is a stage in the theory of the in change?

determination
 self-efficacy

empathy

preparation

During an overeaters anonymous meeting, a participant says *I'm here because

my girlfriend made me come here. The group leader then says. "Is that the ONLY

reason you are here?' This response is an example of:

simple reflection

rephrasing

argumentation

complex reflection

Group therapy may be contraindicated when an individual:

May need one on one attention to their trauma with a provider

May need to work out their problems in the presence of others

May acquire therapeutic benefit from observing and watching others

May need comfort and support from others

A young man has trouble expressing his sexuality. His parents do not approve

of premarital sex. How can he reduce his fears using group therapy techniques?
 Role reversal

journaling

deep breathing

meditation

A rapid, cognitive screening was developed by Geldmacher (2003). Which

reflects a question asked by a clinician when using this screening?

"How many fingers am I holding up?"

"Repeat after me. Cookie, honesty, daffodil.

"Who is the President of the United States?"

"Tell me what you enjoy doing in your spare time."

A caregiver of a patient with vascular dementia is now worried about the risk of

her acquiring the disorder. You would advise her that the most significant risk is

Having a history of cocaine use

Having poorly controlled blood pressure

Having an underlying lung disease

Having an elevated body mass index

Psychodrama can be best defined as

 Re-enacting situations that happened in the past to face them

Playing the role of a mother to prepare for an acting role

Creating a drama play to discuss difficult topics like death

Using acting to recreate current events to maintain memories

This medication is often given to persons with Parkinson's Disease to treat

depression.

selegiline (Eldepryl)

citalapram (Celexa)

sertraline (Zoloft)

fluoxetine (Prozac)

is an affective episode temporally related to childbirth with an abrupt onset at

about 2-4 weeks that may be marked with psychotic features such as hallucinations

and delusions relating to the baby.

Postpartum psychosis

Maternal Schizophrenia

Postpartum depression

Schizoaffective disorder
 A significant decline in cognitive ability which is most prevalent in late life is

identified as neurocognitive disorders (NCDs). Which best describes these

Only occur in the later decades of life

Unclude acute onset and gradual onset, difficult to diagnose

Delirium and Alzheimer cognitive deficits are short term

Patients diagnosed with ----- have a marked sensitivity to antipsychotics with

this disorder and may become worse after taking them.

Senile bipolar disorder

Senile psychosis

Lewy body disease

Alzheimer's disease

Which of the following screening tools is most widely used to detect mild

neurocognitive disorder?

Frontal lobe assessment battery

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

Mini Mental State Examination [MMSE]

 Clinical interview and examination

The perinatal period requires physiological, psychological, and social

adaptions. Which of the following is NOT true?

The perinatal period can trigger the onset or first occurrence of a psychiatric

illness.

Pregnancy protects the childbearing woman against mental illness.

Reproductive hormone can impact maternal| biological and stress systems.

A 35 year old man presents with high blood pressure, rapid pulse and a moist

warm skin. His speech is pressured and on examination he has a fine tremor and

alcohol

a Stimulant

a hallucinogen

an inhalant

A 85-year-old patient with Alzheimer's Disease starts to become agitated in the

afternoon, refuses to eat, and is losing weight. Which medication would you

prescribe first?
 amitriptyline (Elavil)

aripiprazole (Abilify)

olanzapine (Zyprexa)

sertraline (Zoloft)

During an overeaters anonymous meeting, a participant says "I'm here because

my girlfriend made me come here." The group leader then says. "Is that the ONLY

reason you are here?" This response is an example of:

simple reflection

rephrasing

The mini mental status exam assesses

executive function

visuospatial function

abstract thinking mild cognitive impairment

mild cognitive impairment

A 70-year-old male was admitted last night due to behavioral difficulties at

home. The nursing staff reported the patient had rapid changes in his consciousness

levels. At times, he seemed to respond to both visual and auditory hallucinations.

He had some rigidity and gait disturbances as well. Which one of the following

might be a likely differential diagnosis for him?

Senile dementia

Catatonia schizophrenia

Delirium tremens

Lewy body dementia

The mind-body intervention originated in China as a form of self defense

Qi Gong

Tai Chi

Karate

Reiki

A significant decline in cognitive ability which is most prevalent in late life is

identified as neurocognitive disorders (NCDs). Which best describes these

disorders?

Only occur in the later decades of life

Unclude acute onset and gradual onset, difficult to diagnose

Delirium and Alzheimer cognitive deficits are short term

 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5),

provides limited categories for CDS

A 78 y/o male was prescribed a new medication for anxiety. The PMHNP

should consider which prescribing practice?

prescribe half the starting dose

prescribe twice the dose

prescribe the FDA approved starting dose

ask the doctor for guidance

Interpreting the meaning of behavior patterns at appropriate times so that

members will be able to engage in a deeper level of self-exploration and consider

alternative behaviors is most critical at the

storming stage.

performing stage.

norming stage.

forming group.

Alcohol hepatitis is generally thought to occur with excessive drinking over at

least a
 6 month

5 year

2 year

Which of the following is NOT considered a therapeutic factor of a group?

Individuality

Existential factors

Cognitive restructuring

Hope

A client is experiencing cognitive decline, and a transition to nursing home

placement is being considered. Evidence from a study suggested that three

medications are equally effective in slowing cognitive decline. Which is not an

effective treatment?

Exelon

Donepezil

Duloxetine

Reminyl
 The psychiatric-mental health advanced practice registered nurse evaluates a

client and gives the client a diagnosis of severe Alzheimer disease. Which

pharmacological agent is the best option?

Donepezil

Rivastigmine

Memantine ER

Galantamine

A 55 year old man has been suffering from short term memory problems, and

other problems related to concentration. Otherwise, his daily activities are not

affected. Which of the following is most likely to develop?

Lewy body dementia

Alzheimer's dementia

Vascular dementia

Creutzfelt Jacob disease

 The theory stating that problems within a group may serve a function for the

group, may be a function of the group’s inability to operate productively, and may

be a symptoms of dysfunctional patterns handed down across generations is:

Family systems theory

Psychoanalytical family therapy

Bowen’s family system theory

Social contructionism

A 35- year old ale recounts the feelings he has experienced when he was placed
on probation at his job….. depression. The PMHNP mentioned to him, “I just say,
if I were in your position, I might have a hard time which interviewing technique?

Validation
Clarification
Encouragement
rationalization

Quiz #1

4 questions on what actions take place in what phase – forming, norming,

storming, adjourning, etc.

 When did group therapy begin? After WWII (in 1940s)

Quiz #3 – Motivational Interviewing

What is Motivational Interviewing closest to?

- Person centered therapy

Question regarding Ambivalence, is it a normal process for change?

Roadblock?

Answers: rolling with resistance

Answers: labeling trap, blaming

Reflective listening

OARS – open question, affirmation, reflective listening, summarizing

Confrontation-Denial trap
Self-efficacy (not identified as a mechanism of MI?)

• Study 3 MI handouts + powerpoint

Affirming responds

- Handed yourself well

I can see that things have been tough for you recently

- Empathy

Go on tell me more about it

- Falicitation

Before we talk about the panic attacks

- Summarizing

People attempt to take action in the future

- Pre-contemplation

Contemplation

- Thinking about it – 30 days

 Motivational Interviewing founded by?

- Miller &

Establish trust and establish relationship

Ask about motivation to quit

- Ask open-ended questions

Quiz #4 – Substance Abuse

What patient can most likely withdrawal the safest from an outpatient setting?

- LSD, opioids, alcohol, benzos

- Put opioids since you can’t withdrawal from LSD

“Mallory Weiss Tears”

- Confabulation and making up stories, tear in esophagus, side effect of

Klonopin, crying because of hepatitis diagnosis

CIWA-Ar score of 7

- Increasing severity, chronic alcohol use disorder, needs hospitalization,

hallucinations; severe alcoholic

CIWA helps determine

 - Presence of alcohol use disorder, if patient needs pharmacological
treatment, alcohol dependence

CIWA score of 18

- Severe level of withdrawal

Most severe form of alcohol amnesia disorder?

- KS, W encephalopathy, alcohol hallucinations

“Are you feeling pins and needles?” What will give the highest level of

severity?

- Continuous hallucinations, mild hallucinations, severe hallucinations

Least restrictive form of treatment?

- Intensive outpatient

What is the first step in the 12-step recovery program

Admit your powerlessness over addiction.

Abort or no adverse side effects

Continuous hallucinations
 A patient with longstanding anxiety being managed by PCP was recently

seen by her psychiatrist who made changes in her medications. She presents to

the emergency room with hallucinations of her joints moved and nausea with

agitation and anxiety What is the diagnosis?

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

A 35-year-old man presents with high blood pressure, rapid pulse, and moist

warm skin. His speech is pressured and on examination he has fine tremor and

hyperreflexia. Which of the following drugs has he taken.

Stimulant

According to DSM-5, Americans usually consume ... caffeine daily

300mg

A patient score 18 on the clinical institute withdrawal assessment for alcohol-

revised scale. What does this indicate

the patient has severe signs of alcohol withdrawal

 A young man presents to the emergency department complaining of mild

itching, pins and needles, burning or numbness. You suspect the men las ingested

alcohol

12-24 hours ago; Alcoholic Hallucinosis or hallucinations time frame CIWA

CHART

Among the following individuals, who is going to be most addicted to tobacco?

- A thirty-year-old African American male who has been smoking ten

years
- Answer is “white male” even though Answer should be African
American

A patient is diagnosed with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. What is the etiology for

this disorder

a thiamine deficit

What is the psychoactive substance in Cannabis?

Cannaboinol, hemp, Delta-9 th-cannabinol, marijuana

Among the following individuals, who is going to be most addicted to tobacco?

What drug is the least likely to cause psychosis?

 Cannabis, PCP, Ketamine, Cocaine

An executive wants treatment for cocaine use disorder. Which outpatient

facility would provide the most intensive treatment

intensive outpatient program

Alcohol hepatitis is generally thought to occur which excessive drinking over

at least

20 years

How long can cocaine be tested by urine test?

2-3 days

Drugs can be detected within 1-2 hours after usage and remain in the blood for

several days

Quiz #5

X “All or nothing” period. What explains this period?

 - Exposure to teratogens here usually results in spontaneous abortion
or no adverse effects (first few weeks)

What medication is associated with memory loss?

- Zyprexa, Valproic acid, Olanzapine, Seroquel (Not sure the answer)?

What is NOT a mandatory requirement for diagnosis of PDD?

- Swollen, tender breasts, anxiety/tension, irritability, low interest in usual

activities

Patient who was raped, 12 weeks decided adoption, is now smoking and refuses

to take prenatal vitamins, what is diagnosis?

- OCD, Perinatal depression, Perinatal PTSD

8 weeks, auditory hallucinations, what would you prescribe patient?

- Haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine (Not sure the answer, thinking it was

Haloperidol)

Answer: Preg hormones protect against development of psychological

disorders

What is considered a fetus?

- 0-40; 3-8; 9-38

When does lower rates of depression occur?

 - Menopause

Perinatal complications associated with psych disorders?

- GDM, spontaneous abortion, low birth weight

Modifiable risk factor NOT

- Maternal age or domestic violence

Prescribe for PMDD

- 14 days after onset of period, Luteal phase (Not sure the answer)

Skin to skin contact

- Serves as a protective factor against development of PTSD

Wants to stop heroin, what would you prescribe –

- Methadone

What is associated with low maternal weight gain and fetal distress?

- Untreated depression
Answer: Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR)

Treatment for Anxiety?

- ITP and CBT

What to prescribe for vaping D/C?

- NRT or Bupropion (Not sure the answer but thinking NRT)

Lithium levels

- Monthly blood levels until 36 weeks', then change to weekly

Quiz #6

What deficiency is associated with migraine headaches?

- Vitamin E, Magnesium, Ferratin

X EDMR consists of how many structured phases?

- 3, 5, 8, 9

EDMR consists of?

- Muscle manipulation, bilateral tapping

What helps treat dystonia?

- SAM-e, Carbindol, Kava, GABA

Treatment for depression

- St. Johns Wort F PO 50mg qday, KAVA KAVA, Melatonin, SAM-e (Not
sure right answer since 50mg for St. John’s Wort is too low of a dose)
X What side effect St. John’s wart most associated with?

- Somnolence, paresthesia, photosensitivity

CAM treatment is most likely coupled with –

- Integrative, alternative, complimentary

NOT associated with spiritual energy?

- Homeopathic, Qi Gong, Therapeutic Touch, Reiki (Not sure the right

answer)

Ginseng may:

- Affect blood pressure, impotence, constipation

Anxiety

- Iron

Motivational Interviewing 12 Roadblocks

Thomas Gordon’s 12 ROADBLOCKS

1. Ordering, Directing, Commanding

• “Don’t say that”
• “You’ve have got to deal with reality”
• “You need to apologize”

2. Warning or Threatening
• “If you don’t start listening you are going to lose your job”
• “This is the last time you are going to get away with that”
3. Giving Advice, Making Suggestions, Providing Solutions
• “What I would do is…”
• “Why don’t you…”
• “Have you ever tried…”

4. Persuading with Logic, Arguing, Lecturing

• “Yes, but…”
• “You know how many times I have heard this same excuse”

5. Moralizing or Preaching
• “You really ought to…”
• “You really shouldn’t smoke, it’s bad you and for your family.”

6. Judging, Criticizing, Directing, Blaming

• “It’s your own fault.”
• “You are being so selfish.”
• “I can’t believe you didn’t know better.”

7. Agreeing, Approving, Praising

• “You are absolutely right.”
• “That’s what I would do.”

8. Shaming, Ridiculing, Name-Calling

• “That was really stupid”
• “You should be ashamed of yourself”
• “How could you have done such a thing?”

9. Interpreting or Analyzing
• “You don’t really mean that.”
• “You know what the real issue is, don’t you?”

10. Reassuring, Sympathizing, Consoling

• “It’s okay, it’s not that bad.”
• “Don’t worry, everything will be alright”

11. Questioning or Probing

• “How are you going to manage that?”
• “Doesn’t that upset you?”
 12. Withdrawing, Distracting, Humoring, Changing the Subject
• “Can we talk about that some other time?”
• “That reminds me of a time when I …”

Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz is credited with the:?

A) development of systematic psychotherapy.

B) identification of defense mechanisms.

C) creation of the nature versus nurture debate.

D) first scientific study of the unconscious.

Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz is credited with the

a.development of systematic psychotherapy.
b. identification of defense mechanisms.
c.Creation of the nature versus nurture debate.
d. first scientific study of the unconscious.

The process in which a particular individual is held responsible for whatever

goes wrong with the family, thus enabling family members to avoid dealing
with what is really talking place, is known as

a. family sculpting

b. mystification

c. scapegoating

d. blaming

The genogram usually capture------------ generations

 a. three
b. two
c. four
d. seven

Which of the following often results from heritable personality traits?

a.Faith
b. Curiosity
c.Anger
d. Happiness

Due to multicultural differences, segments of the population would likely

benefit from
a.accepting a universal approach to psychotherapy.

b. exporting Euro-American psychotherapists.

c.indigenized psychotherapies.
d. abandoning cultural philosophies.

Which of the following contains thoughts, feelings, desires and memories of

which are outside of the client's attention but readily available at any time
a. Superego
b. conscious
c. preconscious

d. unconscious

Attempts to apply positive psychotherapy with children and adolescents

have found that
a. positive psychotherapy is effective but less so than family therapy.
b. Treatment increases well-being and decreases behavioral problems.
c. the concepts are too challenging for individuals under the age of 25.

d. The exercises are only helpful if delivered directly by the parent(s).

The process by which emotionally painful intrapsychic elements are

pushed out of awareness is termed as

a. conceptualization.
b. defense.
c. blocking

d. abreaction.