UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
PRELIMS REVISION
PROGRAM
POLITY
SECTIONAL TEST - 02
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Q1. Consider the following:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should have completed 35 years of age.
3. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government.
How many of the above are qualifications required for election as the President of India?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None
Q2. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution does the President have the veto power over a bill passed
by the Parliament?
a) Article 352
b) Article 356
c) Article 360
d) Article 111
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the oath taken by the President of India:
1. To faithfully execute the office.
2. To preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law.
3. To devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.
4. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood.
Which of the above are included in the President's oath?
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a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q4. With reference to the ordinance-making power of the President of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The President can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session.
2. The President's satisfaction regarding the need for an ordinance is final and beyond judicial review.
3. An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which Parliament can make laws.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q5. With reference to the election process of the Vice-President, consider the following statements:
1. The Vice-President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of both elected and
nominated members of Parliament.
2. The election does not include members of the state legislative assemblies.
3. The voting system used is the first-past-the-post system.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
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d) 1, 2 and 3
Q6. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Prime Minister of India is typically the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
Statement-II: The Prime Minister of India always belongs to the Lower House of Parliament.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q7. Consider the following features of Cabinet Committees:
1. They were originally mentioned in the Constitution of India.
2. They are of two types–standing and ad hoc.
3. They are set up by the Prime Minister.
4. Their membership usually includes only Cabinet Ministers.
5. They are headed only by the Prime Minister.
Which of the above are correct features of Cabinet Committees?
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 4 and 5 only
d) 3, 4 and 5 only
Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Prime Minister can directly appoint ministers without the President's involvement.
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2. The Prime Minister can advise the President to dismiss a minister in case of a disagreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. Appointing the Advocate General of the state.
2. Dissolving the State Legislative Assembly if the council of ministers has lost its majority.
3. Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
4. Assenting to a bill passed by the State Legislature.
Under how many of the following circumstances does the Governor of a state exercise discretionary powers,
meaning they are not obligated to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Q10. Consider the following:
1. The President's pardoning power is independent of the judiciary.
2. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial.
3. The Governor can commute a death sentence.
4. The President is bound to give reasons for his pardoning order.
How many of the above statements are true?
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a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None
Q11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor administers the oath to state ministers.
2. The President administers the oath to Union ministers.
3. The oath or affirmation of state ministers comes under the Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q12. With reference to the constitutional provisions regarding the State Council of Ministers, consider the
following statements:
1. The total number of ministers in the council of ministers in a state shall not exceed 15 percent of the total
strength of the legislative assembly of that state.
2. The provision for the total number of ministers was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q13. With reference to the State Legislatures in India, consider the following statements:
1. There are no provisions for Joint Sitting of the house for the passage of the ordinary bill.
2. No Bills can originate in the Legislative Council.
3. The Legislative Council can only delay a Bill but cannot prevent its passage.
How many statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q14. Consider the following aspects of the composition of a legislative council:
1. 1/3 of the members are elected by the members of local bodies in the state.
2. 1/2 are elected by graduates of at least three years standing in the state.
3. 1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state.
4. 1/6 of the members are nominated by the governor from amongst persons with special knowledge.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None
Q15. Consider the following collective privileges of the Houses of State Legislature:
1. Right to publish its reports, debates, and proceedings.
2. Right to exclude strangers from its proceedings.
3. Right to make rules to regulate its procedure.
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4. Right to disqualify a member for holding an office of profit.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q16. With reference to the sessions of the state legislature, consider the following statements:
1. Adjournment suspends the work during a sitting for a specific duration.
2. Prorogation causes the dissolution of the legislative assembly.
3. Adjournment sine die can be done by the Speaker or Chairman.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2 only
Q17. Consider the following special powers of the Rajya Sabha:
1. It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List.
2. It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states.
3. It alone can initiate a move for the removal of the vice-president.
4. It solely has the power to approve the proclamation of a national emergency.
How many of the above powers are correctly attributed to the Rajya Sabha?
a) Only two
b) Only three
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c) All four
d) None
Q18. Which committee is not a part of the mechanisms of financial control by Parliament over the
Executive?
a) Public Accounts Committee
b) Estimates Committee
c) Business Advisory Committee
d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Q19. With reference to financial control by Parliament, consider the following pairs:
1. Exceptional Grant - Granted for a special purpose, not part of the current financial year's service.
2. Token Grant - Granted to meet expenditure by reallocation of existing funds.
3. Vote of Credit - Used for funds to meet new service needs.
4. Additional Grant - Granted when excess expenditure occurs, over the budgeted amount.
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Q20. Consider the following provisions under the Constitution regarding the budget:
1. No demand for a grant shall be made without the President's recommendation.
2. Parliament cannot reduce a tax without the President's prior recommendation.
3. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without an appropriation made by
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law.
4. A money bill related to taxation can be introduced in Rajya Sabha.
How many of the above provisions are correct?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None
Q21. With reference to Joint Sitting of two Houses of the Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved, any bill under dispute automatically lapses, and joint sitting is not possible.
2. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha may preside over a joint sitting.
3. Since 1950, the provision for joint sitting has been invoked only once.
4. New amendments can be proposed at a joint sitting under specific conditions.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q22. Consider the following description:
1. Contains not only matters mentioned in Article 110 but also other matters of general legislation
2. Can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
3. Requires the recommendation of the president for introduction in Lok Sabha.
What is this type of financial bill?
a) Money Bill
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b) Financial Bill (I)
c) Financial Bill (II)
d) Ordinary Bill
Q23. What happens to bills pending in the Lok Sabha when it is dissolved?
a) They are automatically passed to the Rajya Sabha.
b) They lapse and need to be reintroduced in the newly constituted Lok Sabha.
c) They are automatically passed as laws.
d) They are held in suspension until the next session.
Q24. Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha:
1. He acts as Chairman when the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is absent.
2. He is directly responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
3. He is subordinate to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha..
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q25. With reference to the Presiding Officers of Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members, and the date of election is fixed by
the President.
2. The Speaker must vacate office immediately once the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
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3. The Deputy Speaker acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group.
4. A motion for the removal of the Speaker requires the support of at least 50 members before it can be
considered and discussed.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Q26. With reference to the powers and privileges of the Attorney General of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The Attorney General has the right to vote in the parliamentary proceedings.
2. He enjoys the privileges and immunities of a member of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q27. Consider the following statements about the Indian and American Vice Presidents:
1. The Vice President in both countries is the presiding officer of the Upper House of the legislature.
2. Both the Indian and American Vice Presidents are directly elected by the citizens.
3. The Vice President in both countries assumes the role of the President in case of the President's death or
resignation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q28. Which of the following correctly connects Fundamental Duties and DPSPs?
1. Fundamental Duties are enforceable, while DPSPs are non-enforceable.
2. DPSPs guide the state in policymaking, while Fundamental Duties act as obligations for citizens to assist
the state.
3. Both Fundamental Duties and DPSPs promote environmental conservation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q29. With reference to the duties and powers of the CAG, consider the following statements:
1. The CAG audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India.
2. The CAG can also audit the local bodies.
3. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers
for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
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d) 1 and 3 only
Q30. In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court first hold that the advice tendered by the Chief
Justice of India is binding on the President for the appointment of judges?
a) First Judges case (1982)
b) Second Judges case (1993)
c) Third Judges case (1998)
d) Fourth Judges case (2015)
Q31. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's power of advisory jurisdiction:
1. The Supreme Court may refuse to offer an opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance.
2. The opinion of the Supreme Court in advisory jurisdiction is binding on the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q32. Who has the authority to make rules for regulating the practice and procedure of the Supreme Court?
a) The Parliament of India
b) The President of India
c) The Supreme Court with the approval of the President
d) The Law Minister of India
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Q33. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's Writ Jurisdiction:
1. It is exclusively held by the Supreme Court.
2. It is used for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
3. It can be exercised for matters other than Fundamental Rights by the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q34. Consider the following:
1. Disputes between two or more states
2. Disputes arising out of pre-Constitution treaties
3. Suits brought by private citizens against the Centre or a state
4. Inter-state water disputes
Which of the above are excluded from the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q35. Which Supreme Court case ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open
to judicial review?
a) Kesavananda Bharati case
b) Golaknath case
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c) Minerva Mills case
d) I.R. Coelho case
Q36. Consider the following facts regarding transfer of High Court judges:
1. The President can transfer a judge from one High Court to another after consulting the Chief Justice of
India.
2. On transfer, the judge is entitled to a compensatory allowance.
3. The consultation with the Chief Justice of India should also involve the collegium of other four senior
most judges of the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements are accurate?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q37. Consider the following conditions under which the President can appoint an Acting Chief Justice of a
high court:
1. The office of the Chief Justice of the high court is vacant.
2. The Chief Justice of the high court is temporarily absent.
3. The Chief Justice of the high court is unable to perform the duties of his office.
4. A high court judge has reached the age of 65.
How many of the above conditions are correct according to the procedure outlined?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
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d) None
Q38. Which of the following is correct with respect to the awards made by Lok Adalats?
a) They can be modified or overturned by the Chief Justice of the High Court at any time.
b) They are advisory in nature and serve only as recommendations.
c) They are deemed to be decrees of a Civil Court and are binding with no appeal allowed.
d) They require validation from a higher judicial authority to be enforced.
Q39. Consider the following features of Gram Nyayalayas:
1. Its presiding officer is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court.
2. Gram Nyayalayas exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts.
3. They are mobile courts associated with Panchayats at the intermediate level.
4. Their judgements are treated as decrees and follow a summary execution procedure.
How many of the above statements about Gram Nyayalayas are correct?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None
Q40. Consider the following pairs:
[Committee] [Recommendations]
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system
2. Ashok Mehta Committee Adopting a two-tier panchayati raj system
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3. L.M. Singhvi Committee Constitutional status for panchayats
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q41. Consider the following provisions:
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village.
2. Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
3. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all three levels.
4. Determining the manner of election of the chairperson of the village panchayat.
How many of the above are compulsory provisions under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None
Q42. With reference to the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA Act) of 1996, consider
the following statements:
1. The State Legislature must ensure that Panchayats in Scheduled Areas have ownership of minor forest
produce.
2. The recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level is not mandatory for
the exploitation of minor minerals by auction.
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3. Panchayats have the power to control money lending to Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q43. Consider the following statements regarding the 74th Amendment Act of 1992:
1. It added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution.
2. It involved the introduction of a new Twelfth Schedule.
3. It included 29 functional items of the municipalities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q44. Consider the following description:
1. Two-thirds of the members are elected by the elected members of the municipalities and chairpersons of
the panchayats.
2. This body includes representatives from both the Central government and state government.
3. Considers plans prepared by both Municipalities and Panchayats.
What is this type of committee?
a) District Planning Committee
b) Metropolitan Planning Committee
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c) Notified Area Committee
d) Special Purpose Agency
Q45. With reference to reservation of seats in a municipal area, consider the following statements:
1. There are reserved seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes based on their population in the
municipal area.
2. At least half of the total seats are reserved for women.
3. The state legislature may provide for the manner of the reservation of chairperson offices for SCs, STs,
and women.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q46. Consider the following statements:
1. There is uniformity in the administrative system of Union Territories in India.
2. The Constitution contains separate provisions for the administration of acquired territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q47. With reference to the special provisions for Delhi, consider the following statements:
1. The elections for the legislative assembly of Delhi are conducted by the Election Commission of India.
2. The strength of the council of ministers is ten percent of the total strength of the assembly.
3. The Chief Minister and other ministers are appointed by the Lieutenant Governor.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q48. The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 is primarily associated with which of the following
changes in the Indian political structure?
a) Establishment of a new state by reorganizing existing states in India.
b) Granting the Union Territory of Puducherry the status of a full state with its own legislature.
c) Recognizing Delhi as the National Capital Territory and providing it with a Legislative Assembly.
d) Extending the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha for another decade.
Q49. With reference to the 'Administration of Scheduled Areas', consider the following statements:
1. The President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area in the state concerned.
2. The governor of the state must submit a report regarding the administration of scheduled areas to the
President annually.
3. The Tribes Advisory Council in a state is composed entirely of representatives from the scheduled tribes in
the state legislative assembly.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
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b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q50. Consider the following statements:
1. The state government's executive power includes the administration of Scheduled Areas.
2. The Centre can not give directions to the states regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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