Medical Emergency MCQs collection, by Rasha

1) A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a

course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of:
A) Type I allergic reaction
B. Nervous disorder
C. Side effect of the drug
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
E. Pyloric stenosis

2) Which of the following are true regarding anaphylaxis

A) Is mediated by IgE antibodies , which cause release of histamine and other
vasoactive mediators to be released
B) is most commonly caused by NSAID in dentistry
C) Treatment includes administration of intravenous fluids, using sodium chloride in the
first instance
D)first line management should be the immediate transfer of the patient to a hospital
accident department
E) Is particularly associated with antibiotics, blood products, vaccines, aspirin, and other
NSAIDS heparin and neuromuscular blocking agents

3) Signs of respiratory distress:

a- sweating
b- central cyanosis
c- abdominal breathing
d- usage of the muscles of the neck for breathing
e- all the above

4) How much do we give oxygen initially at airway obstruction emergency:

a- 5 lit/min
b- 10 lit/min
c- 15 lit/min
d- 20 lit/min
5) Treatment of asthma condition:
a- salbutamol inhaler
b- nebulized salbutamol (5mg) with oxygen
c- I.V hydrocortisone 200 mg
d- all the above
e- A &B
6) Glucagon usually acts in 5-10mins but it may be ineffective in?
A) alcoholic
B) smokers
C) anorexic
D) A&B
E) A&C

7) Which route of drug administration for medical emergency in general dental practice
should be discouraged?
A) intramuscular B) inhalational c) intravenous d) all of the above

8) Where is ADRENALINE to be injected in a case of anaphylaxis management?

A) centre of thigh
B) lateral aspect of forearm
C) lateral aspect of thigh
D) all of the above are correct

9) Which is the drug that should be avoided in asthmatic patients?

A) Ibuprofen B)Naproxen C)Diclofenac D)all of the above

10) A diabitic man 50 years old attended the clinic, during the treatment he fainted out,
how much insulin you should give him?
A) Insulin b) Glucose C) Oxygen d) Anaesthetic

11. A potential hypoglycaemic attack in the dental practice is diagnosedBy:

A. correctly assessing signs and symptoms
B. With an electronic instrument
C. By the failure of the patient to respond to CPR
D. By the failure of the patient to regain consciousness in a couple of minutes after
being laid flat.

12. A 30 year old man with unknown allergy to latex goes into anaphylactic shock whilst
being treated in the dental surgery.
Which drug and route of administration is of most benefit in this situation?
A. Hydrocortisone - orally
B. Chlorphenamine – intramuscularly
C. Chlorphenamine - orally
D. Epinephrine - intravenously
E. Epinephrine – intramuscularly

13. An obese 40 year old who takes metformin is seen at the end of a morning
clinic. After administration of local analgesia in the supine position the patient complains
of feeling unwell. She is pale and sweating and is confused. No pulse was detectable.
She was given oxygen and maintained in the supine with no improvement in condition.
What would be the most appropriate drug to administer next?
A. Glucagon
B. Glucose
C. Adrenaline
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Chlorphenamine

14- A patient with a diagnosed heart murmur has been confirmed as requiring antibiotic
prophylaxis.
For which of the following procedures will the patient require cover?
A. Partial denture definitive impression
B. Endodontic obturation
C. Conventional porcelain laminate veneer preparation
D. Restoration of subgingival class V cervical carious lesion
E. Class I occlusal amalgam restoration requiring local anaesthetic

15. A child of 6 years requires antibiotic prophylaxis for extraction of a LRD under Local
Analgesia. There is no history of antibiotic allergies in his medical history.
Which of the following is the most appropriate regime for antibiotic prophylaxis?
A. 3g Amoxicinin 1hour pre-op
B. 1.5g Amoxicilnin 1hour pre-op
C. 1.5g Penicillin 1hour pre-op
D. 250mg Amoxicinin 3 times per day for 1 week prior to extraction
E. 300mg Clindamycin 1hour pre-op

16. When a heart is in Ventricular Fibrillation:

a It has stopped
bThe heart muscles are fluttering randomly
c It is pumping, but so weakly it is ineffective at maintaining circulation
d It is pumping so fast that it cannot pump effectively

17. Which statement is FALSE? A Myocardial Infarction:

a Is commonly known as a heart attack
b Is caused by the heart muscle's own blood supply becoming blocked
c Is a type of cardiac arrest
d Can cause jaw pain

18. Adrenal insufficiency occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough:
a Adrenaline
b Noradrenaline
c Epinephrine
d Steroid
19. If a patient is on long term steriods, a dentist should consider altering the dose for:
a Scaling
b Simple extraction
c Surgical extraction
d All the above

20. A severe anaphylaxis should be initially treated with:

a Salbutamol Inhaler
b Intra-venous Adrenaline
c Intra-venous Steroids
d Intra-muscular Adrenaline

21. Anaphylaxis can be triggered in a patient during a dental visit by:

a Latex particles in the air
b Latex elastic in their clothes
c Latex rubber dam
d All of the above

22. If a dental patient is conscious, starts to choke on something, and is unable to cough
it up, the staff should:
a Start chest compressions to dislodge it
b Start abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoevre)
c Deliver five firm slaps to the back
d Use magill or spencer wells forceps to remove the foreign body

23. If an adult patient is having a prolonged seizure at a dental practice, Midazolam may
be given:
a By IM injection
b By IV injection
c Sub-lingually
d Intra-nasally or buccally

24. Hypoglycaemia
A.Is easily confused with other medical conditions
B. Occurs when the blood glucose drops below 4 mmol/ litre
C. Is treated by giving Insulin
D. Is treated by giving Adrenaline

25. Sweating, clammy skin can be caused by:

a Hypoglycaemia
b Myocardial Infarction (Heart attack)
c Fainting (syncope)
d All of the above

26. When a patient has recovered from a severe anaphylaxis, they should be given:
A. Oxygen
B. Intra-muscular steroids
C. Intravenous Steroids
D. Intravenous Adrenaline

27. Which of these is not a sign of Anaphylaxis?

A.Urticaria (raised lumps on the skin)
B. Rash
C. Repeated coughing
D. Slurred speech

28. Angina Pectoris can be caused by

A. Narrowing of a coronary artery
B. Blockage of a coronary artery
C. A blood clot (Embolism) breaking off and lodging in the heart.
D.All the above
answer A or D

29. Which one of these statements is true?

A. People with Angina are more likely to get heart attacks.
B. Angina symptoms can be treated with Salbutamol.
C. Angina symptoms can be treated with sub-lingual Isosorbide Dinitrate tablets
D. Angina symptoms will include pain radiating into the left arm.

30. During an Asthma Attack

A.The bronchi are irreversibly narrowed
B.There may be wheezing when breathing in.
C.The nose and mouth may fill with mucus.
D.There may be repeated coughing

31. If a patient is having an acute asthma attack, and has not responded to (4 to 6) puffs
of Salbutamol inhaler, how often should the dose be repeated while waiting for an
ambulance?
A. Every minute
B. Every 10 minutes
C. Every half hour
D. Repeat doses should not be given

32. How should salbutamol be given for an acute asthma attack in the dental surgery?
A. With an inhaler.
B. With a large volume spacer device.
C. Through an endotracheal tube
D.Through an oxygen mask

33. Choking is most likely

A. When an Inferior Dental Block has been given
B. When Rubber Dam is present
C. When using an air turbine
D. When the patient is supine (lying fully back)

34. If a dental patient is conscious, starts to choke on something, and is unable to cough
it up, the staff should
A. Start chest compressions to dislodge it.
B. Start abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoevre)
C. Deliver five firm slaps to the back
D. Use magill or spencer wells forceps to remove the foreign body

35. After an epileptic seizure

A. The patient may remain unconscious, but still.
B. The patient may regain consciousness, but be confused.
C. The patient may return to normal very quickly.
D. All of the above

36. A Partial Epileptic Seizure

Is also known as a grand mal
Patient may have convulsions
Is also known as a tonic-clonic seizure
Patient may hallucinate

37. If a patient has an epileptic seizure in the dental surgery:

They should be given a muscle relaxant like midazolam
They should have a mouth prop placed to prevent tongue biting
They should be rolled onto their side.
If they vomit, this should be wiped clear from their mouth.

38. If an adult patient is having a prolonged seizure (status eilepticus), Midazolam may be
given while waiting for the ambulance. The dose is
1 mg
5 mg
10 mg
20 mg

39. If an adult patient is having a prolonged seizure at a dental practice, Midazolam may
be given:
By IM injection
By IV injection
Sub-lingually
Intra-nasally or buccally
40. Hypoglycaemia is
A type of unconsciousness
Low insulin levels
Low blood pressure
Low blood sugar

41. Hypoglycaemia
Is easily confused with other medical emergencies
Occurs when the blood glucose drops below 4 mmol / litre.
Is treated by giving insulin.
Is treated by giving adrenaline

42. A potential hypoglycaemic attack in the dental practice is diagnosed

By correctly assessing signs and symptoms
With an electronic instrument
By the failure of the patient to regain consciousness in a couple of minutes after being laid flat.
By the failure of the patient to respond to CPR

43. An unconscious hypoglycaemic patient can be treated by giving a glucagon injection.

Which of these statement is true?
It can take 30 minutes for consciousness to return.
The dose for a child is 10mg.
The patient must be given sugar on recovery.
The patient may wheeze due to fluid retention in the lungs

44. Sweating, clammy skin can be caused by:

Hypoglycaemia
Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack)
Fainting (syncope)
All the above

45. Vomiting can be caused by

Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack)
Adrenal Crisis
Epilepic seizure
All the above

46. Dose of aspirin for MI? 300mg

47. Dose for adrenaline for anaphylaxis?

0.5mL of 1:1000 IM repeated every 5 minutes for adults
Children 0.15 ml……for 6 months to 6years
0.3ml…….6years-12years
0.5 ml……over 12 years old

48. Way of 1mg of glucagon is given? IM

49. Emergency drugs and their modes of administration

Aspirin.. orally
Adrenaline…IM
Glucagon…IM
TGN…spray or sublingual
Glucose…orally
Midazolam…intranasal or buccal

50. Amount of adrenaline in emergency dosage;

a 50µgms,
b 500µgms,
c 50mg,
d 500mg
answer is b
as per me is- Adrenaline in emergency is 0.5mg/ml in concentration of 1:1000, i.e.,
1/1000x1000000µgms= 1000µgms/ml; if 1ml of solution
contains 1000µgms then 0.5 ml should contain 500µgm

51. Which medicine to avoid in asthmatics?

a. aspirin
b. Paracetamol/ panadol
c. Tramodol
d. Penicillin

52. What is the dose of aspirin for myocardial infarction?

a. 100 mg
b. 200 mg
c. 300mg
d. 400mg
e. 500mg

53. What drug should not be given to asthmatics?

aspirin, Ibuprofen, NAREXEN
54. Which drug causes bronchospasm in asthmatic?
Ibuprofen and aspirin NSAID
55. Crushing pain in the chest radiating to arm & relieved by?
Sublingual GTN

56)A patient starts complaining of central crushing chest pain after you did extraction.
Which of following medication/equipment would you need?
a)GTN spray
b)aspirin tablets
c)oxygen face mask with tubing
d)ambu bag with reservoir...
57. What it is the common medical emergencies?

58. If a patient has an epileptic seizure in the dental surgery:

A] They should be given a muscle relaxant like midazolam
B] They should have a mouth prop placed to prevent tongue biting
C] They should be rolled onto their side. ...
d} if they vomit , this should be wiped clear from their mouth

59) Noisy breathing and stridor is a feature of which ME?

60) If an adult patient is having a prolonged seizure at a dental practice, Midazolam may
be given:
A]By IM injection
B] By IV injection
C] Sub-lingually ...
d)intra nasally or bucally

61) Hypoglycaemia
A] Is easily confused with other medical emergencies
B] Occurs when the blood glucose drops below 4 mmol / litre.
C] Is treated by giving insulin. ...
d) is treated by giving adrenaline

62) An unconscious hypoglycaemic patient can be treated by giving a glucagon injection.

Which of these statement is true?
A] It can take 30 minutes for consciousness to return.
B] The dose for a child is 10mg.
C]The patient must be given sugar on recovery. ...
D)The pt may wheeeze due to fluid retention in the lungs

63) What is the recommended dose of GTN for a 55 year old patient with acute angina?
2 dose of GTN SUB LINGUAL SPRAY
64. A potential hypoglycaemic attack in the dental practice is diagnosed
A] By correctly assessing signs and symptoms
B] With an electronic instrument
C] By the failure of the patient to regain consciousness in a couple of minutes after being laid
flat. ...
D) By the failure of the patient to respond to CPR

65) How to manage the patient in case of aspiration of foreign material

sweep, encourage cough/ 5 back slap or 5 abdominal thrust, if still unconscious start CPR

66) Patient can lead to a cardiac arrest in the following seizures:

A) Grand mal seizure
B) petit mal seizure
C) partial seizure
D) Status epilepticus

67. A Partial Epileptic Seizure

A. Is also known as a grand mal
B. Patient may have convulsions
C. Is also known as a tonic-clonic seizure
D. Patient may hallucinate

68. If a patient has an epileptic seizure in the dental surgery:

A. They should be given a muscle relaxant like midazolam
B..They should have a mouth prop placed to prevent tongue biting
C. They should be rolled onto their side.
D. If they vomit, this should be wiped clear from their mouth.

69. If an adult patient is having a prolonged seizure (status eilepticus), Midazolam may be
given while waiting for the ambulance. The dose is
A. 1 mg
B. 5 mg
C. 10 mg
D. 20 mg

70. If an adult patient is having a prolonged seizure at a dental practice, Midazolam may
be given:
A. By IM injection
B. By IV injection
C. Sub-lingually
D. Intra-nasally or buccally
71. Hypoglycaemia is
A. A type of unconsciousness
B. Low insulin levels
C. Low blood pressure
D. Low blood sugar

72. Hypoglycaemia
A.Is easily confused with other medical emergencies
B.Occurs when the blood glucose drops below 4 mmol / litre.
C. Is treated by giving insulin.
D.Is treated by giving adrenaline

73. A potential hypoglycaemic attack in the dental practice is diagnosed

A. By correctly assessing signs and symptoms
B.With an electronic instrument
C.By the failure of the patient to regain consciousness in a couple of minutes after being laid
flat.
D.By the failure of the patient to respond to CPR

74. An unconscious hypoglycaemic patient can be treated by giving a glucagon injection.

Which of these statement is true?
A.It can take 30 minutes for consciousness to return.
B.The dose for a child is 10mg.
C. The patient must be given sugar on recovery.
D. The patient may wheeze due to fluid retention in the lungs

75. Sweating, clammy skin can be caused by:

A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack)
C.Fainting (syncope)
D.All the above

76. Vomiting can be caused by

A. Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack)
B. Adrenal Crisis
C. Epilepic seizure
D. All the above

http://www.dentaljuce.com/fruit/page.asp?pid=735

77 Patient had pain in the chest after prolonged dental session, with an
extraction procedure, what is the best medicine to give
A. Adrenaline
B. GTN
 C. Aspirin

78 Patient is insulin dependent diabetic, complains of faint after

prolonged dental session, what is best to give
A. IV Glucagon
B. Oral Glucose
C. Insulin
D. IM Glucagon

79 Patient is waiting in waiting room and collapse and faints. Patient is

cold, clammy, but pulse is good. What do you give?
A. IM Glucagon
B. Oral Glucose
C. GTN
D. Hydrocortison
E. Diazepam

80 Patient is suffering myocardial infarction in dental chair, which position is

best for patient
A. Upright sitting position
B. Laying flat
C. Recovery position
D. Lay the pt flat and raising legs

81 GTN in Angina act by

A. Relaxes heart muscle
B. Decreases blood pressure
C. Increase positive ionotropic charge
D. Dilation of arterioles and venules (and reducing O2 demand)

82 Patient is having epileptic seizures continuously for 10 minutes in dental

surgery – first line of management is
A. Place in recovery position
B. Give diazepam
C. Oxygen
D. Intranasal or buccal midolazam

83 Which test is the most reliable test to indicate the presence of active hepatitis
A. Hbs(surface)antigen
B. Hbc(core)antigen
C. Hbe antigen
D. Antibody to HBs antigen

84 First line treatment to needle stick injury

A. Wash the area under running water
B. Scrape the area
C. Refer to infectious disease specialist
85. Benzodiazepines are used for dental sedation.Which of the following are effect of
benzodiazepines
a. analgesia
b. amnesia
c. anticonvulsant
d. antipyretic
e. anxiolysis

86. What are appropriate drug and dosage for use in the following emergencies
a.in suspected epilepsy-oxygen 15 L per min
b.in suspected status epilepticus -1mg midazolam
c.in suspected angina attacks- glyceryl trinitrate intramuscularly
d.in a suspected diabetic hypoglycemic collapse where the patient is unconscious -glucagon 10
mg IM
e.in a suspected diabetic hypoglycemic collapse where the patient is unconscious - 50 ml of
20% glucose IV

87. Penicillins
a. the antibiotic of choice for anaerobic infection
b. interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis
c. bacteriocidal
d. antagonist to tetracycline
e. rarely cause allergic reaction

88. Paracetamol
a. anti-pyretic
b anti-inflammotory
c. locally acting
d. hepatotoxic in overdose
e. taken in doses of 500mg-1 g four times a day in adults

89. Which of the following are anti-fungal drugs

a. muconazole
b. aciclovir
c. chlorhexidine
d. nystatin
e. intraconazole

90. Which of the following must always be included in a prescription

a. the name and address of the prescriber
b. the age of the pt.
c. the date of prescription
d. the dosage of the drug in numbers and words
e. the address of the patient
91. Which of the following drug doses and concentration are correct for using in
anaphylactic reaction
a. adrenaline 0.5 ml of 1:100 IM
b. adrenaline 0.5 ml of 1:1000 IM
c. adrenaline 0.3 ml of 1:1000 IM
d. adrenaline 500 mg as the 2nd dose after 5 minutes if necessary
e.15 L oxygen

92. Which of the following can cause lichenoid reaction

a. b-blockers
b. nifedipine
c. allopurinol
d. phenytoin
e. antimalarials

93. Which of the following drug cause dry mouth

a. heavy metal poisoning
b. atopine
c. tryciclic antidepressants
d. anti-emetics
e. anti-malarials
94. You have prescribed oral metronidazole. What instructions do you need to give the
pt.
a. take the tablets twice a day
b. take the tablets three times a day
c.until the pain has subsided
d.avoid drinking alcohol while taking the tablets
e.take the whole course as prescribed

95 A suddenly swollen upper lip that lasts for 48 hours or more is most likely
A.Haemangioma
B.Agionoedema
C. Mucocele
D. Cyst

96 A diabetic patient with moist skin, moist mouth and weak pulse; what would you do:
A. Give glucose orally
B. Administer O2
C. Administer adrenaline
D. Inject insulin

97 A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the
dental chair. Your initial response is:
A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position
B. Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve in ECG
C. No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG
D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

98 A patient in your dental chair suddenly becomes agitated with shallow breathing,
full pulse and a blood pressure of 150/80. You would
A. Give insulin
B. Give glucose
C. Place patient in supine position
D. Give oxygen

99 An obese 40 year old who takes metformin is seen at the end of a morning clinic. After
administration of local analgesia in the supine position the patient complains of feeling
unwell. She is pale and sweating and is confused. No pulse was detectable. She was
given oxygen and maintained in the supine with no improvement in condition.
What would be the most appropriate drug to administer next?
A. Glucagon
B. Glucose
C. Adrenaline
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Chlorphenamine

100. Cases A 65 year old patient who has recovered from a stroke 6 months previously
and has a history of endocarditis requires the extraction of a mandibular molar. The vital
signs are :
Blood Pressure: 135/85 mm
Hg Pulse: 76/min
Respiratory Rate: 16min
The most appropriate immediate management of this patient is to
A. proceed with the treatment.
B. use prophylactic antibiotics.
C. use local anesthetic with no epinephrine.
D. delay treatment for 3 months.

101. A 45 year old with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus has a morning dental
appointment. During the examination, the patient complains of being lightheaded and
weak. Sweating is observed. The patient is most likely experiencing
A. hyperglycemia.
B. hypoglycemia.
C. syncope.
D. hyperventilation.
E. cerebrovascular accident.

102. A 27 year old woman complains of burning mouth, fatigue, palpitations and lack of
energy. The clinical exam shows angular cheilitis and atrophic glossitis. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Iron deficiency anemia.
B. Crohn’s disease.
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
D. Vitamin B deficiency.

103. A chronic alcohol abuser has just been diagnosed with Wernicke-Korsakoff’s
syndrome. He complains of pain and burning mouth and presents with angular cheilitis
and glossitis. He is suffering from a severe deficiency of
A. vitamin A.
B. ascorbic acid.
C. vitamin K.
D. thiamin

104. A 3 year old, 16kg child is given 2 cartridges of 4% prilocaine with 1:200,000
epinephrine for extraction of primary teeth. After a few minutes the child becomes
lethargic, disorientated and eventually begins to convulse. The most probable cause of
this reaction is
A. epinephrine.
B. allergic reaction to the local anesthetic.
C. overdose of local anesthetic.
D. epilepsy precipitated by epinephrine.

https://www.scribd.com/doc/299210967/Cases

105. A patient starts complaining of central crushing chest pain after you did extraction.
Which of following medication/equipment would you need?
a) GTN spray
b) aspirin tablets
c) oxygen face mask with tubing
d) ambu bag with reservoir...

106. Patient can lead to a cardiac arrest in the following seizures:

A) Grand mal seizure
B) petit mal seizure
C) partial seizure
D) Status epilepticus

107. Where is ADRENALINE to be injected in a case of anaphylaxis management??

A) centre of thigh ..
B.LATERAL ASPECT OF FOREARM
C. LATERAL ASPECT OF THIGH
D.ALL OF THE ABOVE

108. How does adrenaline work?

A) increases force of contaction
B) Bronchodilation
C) stabilizes mast cell
D) elevates glucose level
E) A&B
F) A&C
G) all the above

109. If an adult patient is having a prolonged seizure (status eilepticus), Midazolam may
be given while waiting for the ambulance. The dose is
A]1 mg
B]5 mg
C]10 mg
D]20 mg

110 Hypoglycaemia is
A] A type of unconsciousness
B]Low insulin levels
C] Low blood pressure
D] Low blood sugar

111 Sweating, clammy skin can be caused by:

A] Hypoglycaemia
B] Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack)
C] Fainting (syncope)
D all

112 First thing to do if patient faint on the dental chair during treatment on supine
position:
A give adrenaline 0.05ml of 1:1000 IM
B call the ambulance
C shout for help
D Start ABCD approach
E open airway

113 Recurrent epilepctic seizures more than 10 minutes, drugs to give is:
A administrate 10mg midazolam IV
B administrate 20 mg midazolam buccally
C oral diazepam
D administrate 10 mg midazolam buccally
E administrate IV diazepam

114. 30 yrs old man with unknown allergy to latex goes into anaphylactic shock whilst
being treated in the dental surgey :
A hydrocortisone orally
B Chlorphenamine orally
C Chlorphenamine IM
D epinephrine IM
E epinephrine IV

115. the chief distinguishing feature of psychotic disorder is:

A neurological manifestation
B confusions between reality and fantasy
C antisocial conduct
D anxiety
E obsessive behavior

116. Every practice must have Radiation Protection Supervisor? The appointed person
is:

A. Suitably qualified nurse

B. Suitably qualified dentist
C. Practice manager who had extra training in radiography
D. Any dental axilliary
E. Legal person qualified in radiation protection

117. In the majority of cases parasthesia of injured lingual nerve after dis-impaction of
wisdom tooth will last for :
A. 1 month
B. 1 week
C. 1 year
D. 3 months
E. 6 months

118. Young adult patient presented with pain in the right side increased by postural
change, he has 4mm dentin caries in his upper first molar with no bleeding:

A. Acute apical periodontitis

B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Irreversible pulpitis
D. Maxillary sinusitis
E. Trigeminal neuralgia
2.14 B C D F

2.15 B

B
A
2.17 C D

2.18 BD

2.19 C E

2.20 B D

2.21 A B C

A C E D
C

8 C E
9 A B D
A C

12 A C E
13 B D E

A B C E
B OR E

D
6E ,7B C E
10 all false
11 A D
1 B C D
2 A E
3 B D E
1-J 2-H 3-E 4-G 5-A
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 3
5. 4
6. 4
7. 3
NOT SURE ABOUT THE ANSWERS

1A

2E

3F

4C

5K
CD

BD
CE

A
B
1D
2 A OR C
3C
4D
5D

17 CD
18 BD
19 CE
20 BD
21 ABC
14 BCDF
15 B
16 A
12 ACE
13 BDE
8 CE
9 ABD
10.none
11.AD