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TS10 25 NP

This document is a sample English exam for 10th-grade students in Ninh Binh Province for the 2025-2026 academic year. It includes various types of questions such as pronunciation, stress, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and sentence transformation. The exam is designed to assess students' English language proficiency across multiple skills.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
17 views5 pages

TS10 25 NP

This document is a sample English exam for 10th-grade students in Ninh Binh Province for the 2025-2026 academic year. It includes various types of questions such as pronunciation, stress, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and sentence transformation. The exam is designed to assess students' English language proficiency across multiple skills.

Uploaded by

trantung1710
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT

TỈNH NINH BÌNH Năm học 2025 - 2026


ĐỀ THAM KHẢO Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1. A. finds B. helps C. laughs D. cooks
Question 2. A. surf B. picture C. return D. nurse
Question 3. A. headache B. chemist C. itchy D. technical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 4. A. marriage B. visit C. employ D. cottage
Question 5. A. permission B. adapter C. million D. acoustics
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 6. She will _____ our team in the international competition.
A. push B. top up C. increase D. represent
Question 7. The country's flag flew at the _____ between Mexico and the United States.
A. edge B. gap B. coastline D. border
Question 8. The magician's tricks were _____ and amazed everyone.
A. fascinating B. convenient C. incredible D. thrilling
Question 9. Participating in regular exercise offers several _____, including improved physical
health, reduced stress, and better sleep.
A. benefits B. challenges C. drawbacks D. consequences
Question 10. It's good for you to manage stress _____ with exercise, meditation, or spending
time in nature.
A. quickly B. slightly C. naturally D. regularly
Question 11. Stress can _____ your health, so find healthy ways to manage it!
A. harmful B. harmless C. harm D. harming
Question 12. Migrating birds dance across the sky, a graceful ballet of nature's _____.
A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautifully D. beautify
Question 13. The forest offers a _____ habitat for many animals.
A. irregular B. unusual C. natural D. cultural
Question 14. We signed up for a _____ tour to discover hidden gems off the beaten path.
A. crowd B. group C. band D. team
Question 15. She _____ her garden with great care and grows beautiful flowers.
A. deals with B. checks in C. takes up D. looks after
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions
Question 16. The street performer _____ brightly colored balls while the crowd _____ their
hands.
A. juggled - clapped B. was juggling – clapped
C. was juggling - were clapping D. juggled – were clapping
Question 17. I wouldn't mind _____ a delicious meal while overlooking the beautiful landscapes
of Sa Pa.
A. having to B. to have climbing C. have D. having
Question 18. If you love helping others, you _____ consider a job in healthcare.
A. should B. must C. might D. would
Question 19. Was Neil Armstrong the first person _____ set foot on the moon?
A. which B. what C. to set D. who
Question 20. Sarah learns _____ than her classmates.
A. much harder B. many harder C. more harder D. a lot more harder
Question 21. He said he would finish his homework _____
A. the day before B. the following day C. the last day D. the next day
Question 22. _____ English fluency becomes a key requirement for certain jobs, it concerns
about unfair advantage and exclusion emerge.
A. If B. Therefore C. As D. Although
Question 23. Is your sister _____ this photograph? I don't recognize her.
A. in B. on C. at D. to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. - Mary: “I really apologize for my mistake!” - Tom: “_____”
A. It’s nothing too serious B. It’s your opinion
C. What a pity D. That’s a good idea
Question 25. It’s boring. Let’s play some sports.
A. Yes, spot on. B. By all means.
C. Don’t mention it. D. Yes, with pleasure.

Read the following announcements and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
option that best fits each gap
Healthy Eating
1. Include fruits and vegetables in every meal.
2. Avoid eating too much sugar and salt (26) _____ is rich in fast food.
3. Drink water instead of sugar drinks.
4. Delete your meals in small portions throughout (27) _____ day.
5. Exercise regularly to maintain healthy life style.
6. If you feel (8) _____, consult a doctor.
26. A. who B. whom C. which D. where
27. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
28. A. good B. bad C. healthy D. unhealthy

Look at the sign or the notice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each of the
following questions.

Question 29. What does the sign say?


A. You should use this door if you want to enter.
B. Please use a different door to go inside the building.
C. This door can only be used for emergencies and is not for
general use.
D. This door cannot be opened because it is locked

Question 30. What does the notice say?


A. Please don't park on Saturday, we have an event.
"The parking lot will be full on
B. You can park in the parking lot on Saturday without any
Saturday due to a big event.
problems.
Please park on the street."
C. There will be more parking on Saturday.
D. There will be more cars in the parking lot on Saturday,
park on the street.
Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions
Over the past 600 years. English has evolved from a language of few speakers to the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350,
after having combined many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman
invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was for the most part, spoken only in England and
had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland.
However, during the course of the next two centuries. English began to missionary work. Thus,
small enclaves or English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world.
As these communities expanded, English gradually became the primary language of
International business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80% of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English:
Two thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and it is the main language of technology,
advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today, there are more than
700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, forming
the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world.
(Adapted from Workbook Tiếng Anh 9-I Learn Smart World)
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The expansion of English as an international language.
B. The me of English for science and technology.
C. The French influence on the English language.
D. The number of non-native users of English.
Question 32. In the first paragraph, the word emerged is closest in meaning to _____
A. engaged B. stopped C. appeared D. happened
Question 33. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. Before 1600 B. Around 135 C. After 1600 D. In 1060
Question 34. The word it in the paragraph refers to _____
A. language B. English C. communication D. technology
Question 35. According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English
are there in the world today?
A. A quarter million B. 700 million C. 350 million D. Half a million
Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions
The phrase “healthy lifestyle” is a definition of how you should live if you want to get the
healthiest body. A healthy person doesn't smoke, eats healthy foods with plenty of fruits,
vegetables, and fiber, and of course, exercises regularly. A healthy person also knows how to
manage stress, gets good quality sleep each night, doesn't drink too much, doesn't sit too much,
does everything in moderation all the time. When you look at everything that could make a
healthy lifestyle, you can see just how hard those things are in our current world.
There is no such thing as a “bad” food, but there are some foods you should try not to have
regular basis. Fast food refers to food that can be prepared and served quickly. It is popular as
the food is convenient, and tasty. Because fast food is high in sodium, trans fat, and cholesterol,
it isn't something you should eat often.
The good news is you don't have to change everything at the same time. In fact, the trick to
healthy living is making small changes-taking more steps each day, adding fruit to your cereal,
having an extra glass of water, or saying no to junk food. One thing you can do right now to
make your lifestyle healthier is to move more.
(Adapted from Bài tập phát triển năng lực Tiếng Anh 9 Global Success)
Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to manage stress B. Ways to live a healthy life
C. The behaviors to describe a healthy person D. Some healthy foods to eat
Question 37. The word “it” in the passage refers to _____
A. fast food B. cholesterol C. trans fat D. sodium
Question 38. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Fast food has a lot of sodium, trans fat, and cholesterol.
B. We should eat healthy foods.
C. A healthy person exercises regularly.
D. We should avoid eating fibers.
Question 39. The word “trick” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____
A. Knowledge B. stress C. method D. time
Question 40. What can we do right now to have a healthier lifestyle?
A. moving more B. drinking more C. sleeping more D. sitting more
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the sentences given
Question 41. “Do you want this pen?”, said the old man.
A. The old man said to me if I wanted this pen.
B. The old man asked me if I want this pen.
C. The old man asked me if I want that pen.
D. The old man asked me if I wanted that pen.
Question 42. If it doesn’t snow, we will go hiking.
A. Unless it doesn’t snow, we will go hiking.
B. Unless it snows, we will go hiking.
C. Unless it snows, we won’t go hiking.
D. Unless it doesn’t snow, we won’t go hiking.
Question 43. When did she begin to write her second novel?
A. When has she written her second novel?
B. How long has she started writing her second novel?
C. How long has she written her second novel?
D. When did she last write her second novel?
Question 44. She can't decide when she leaves for America.
A. She can't decide when to leaves for America.
B. She can't decide when leaving for America.
C. She can't decide when to leave for America.
D. She leaves for America when she can’t decide.
Choose the sentence that best combines each given pair of sentences.
Question 45. The girl just said hello. She is Tom’s youngest sister.
A. The girl who just said hello is Tom’s youngest sister.
B. The girl, who just said hello, is Tom’s youngest sister.
C. The girl saying hello is Tom’s youngest sister.
D. The girl just said hello is Tom’s youngest sister.
Question 46. Mount Everest is 29,032 feet tall. K2 is 28,251 feet tall.
A. Mount Everest is taller the K2.
B. Mount Everest is as tall as K2.
C. Mount Everest is shorter than K2.
D. Mount Everest is taller than K2.
Question 47. The phone rang. They were having dinner.
A. The phone rang after they were having dinner.
B. The phone rang while they were having dinner.
C. While the phone rang, they were having dinner.
D. The phone rang since they were having dinner.
Question 48. Nam studied very hard. He failed his exam.
A. Because of Nam studied very hard, he failed his exam.
B. Because Nam studied very hard, he failed his exam.
C. Although Nam didn’t study hard, he failed his exam.
D. Even though Nam studied very hard, he failed his exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of
the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/ letter in each of the following questions.
Question 49.
a. Besides, I must get up sooner so that I can have breakfast before going to the train station.
b. Dear sister, I hope you are OK and will succeed in your job
c. Also, life is hard, which reminds me the days in Vietnam when you prepared everything for
me
d. Lots of love.
e. Firstly, I’m sorry that I wake you up at 6 a.m. because it is 4 a.m. in Japan now.
A. a-b-c-d-e B. e-d-c-b-a C. b-e-a-c-d D. d-c-a-e-b
Question 50.
a. Also, volunteering helps students connect with the community, making them aware of the
need s around them.
b. Additionally, students develop important skills, such as teamwork and communication
ones, while they volunteer.
c. Firstly, students who do volunteer work gain valuable real-world experience which can
help in their future careers.
d. Finally, doing volunteer work can be rewarding experience, as students feel good about
helping others.
e. High school students benefit from doing volunteer work in many ways.
A. e-a-c-d-b B. e-c-a-b-d C. c-a-b-d-e D. c-e-a-b-d

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