UNIT 9: SOFTWARE ENGINEERING products and related modifications satisfy the client.

S/W Engineering Paradigm — life cycle models d) It means that the product designed /created should
(water fall, incremental, spiral, WINWIN spiral, be easily available.
evolutionary, prototyping, object oriented) - Project
Management Concepts - Software Project Planning Answer:b
Risk analysis and management-project scheduling Explanation: None.
and tracking software quality assurance-Software 4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations
configuration management, Requirement analysis - mentioned below:
software prototyping — prototyping in the software a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system
process — rapid prototyping techniques, Design without finishing the testing of the system.
process and concepts - Realtimesystems- b) Refusing to undertake a project.
Realtimesoftwaredesign-Softwaretesting—Typesof c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior
software testing — strategic approach and issues — management.
Software Metrics.
Answer:a
Software Engineering Ethics - 1 - Explanation: None.
“Software Engineering Ethics – 1”. 5. Identify the correct statement: “Software
1. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues engineers shall
related to professional responsibility a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his
a) Confidentiality expertise and favour.”
b) Intellectual property rights b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) Both a & b c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) Managing Client Relationships d) none

Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a
confidentiality of their employers or clients manner that is in the best interests of their client and
irrespective of whether or not a formal employer consistent with the public interest and
confidentiality agreement has been signed. shall ensure that their products and related
They should be aware of local laws governing the modifications meet the highest professional
use of intellectual property such as patents, standards possible.Thus options a & c are ruled out.
copyright, etc. 6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software
2. “Software engineers should not use their technical engineers should
skills to misuse other people’s computers.”Here the a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your
term misuse refers to: competence.”
a) Unauthorized access to computer material b) not use your technical skills to misuse other
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material people’s computers.”
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) All of the mentioned d) maintain integrity and independence in their
professional judgment.”
Answer:d
Explanation: None. Answer:c
3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with Explanation:None.
reference to one of the eight principles as per the 7. Efficiency in a software product does not include
ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ? ________
a) The product should be easy to use. a) responsiveness
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their b) licensing
products and related modifications meet the highest c) memory utilization
professional standards possible. d) processing time
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
Answer:b Answer:d
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes Explanation: rest all are clauses for software ethics,
under corporate part of the software company. environment does not focus on specific clause nor its
8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get of importace related to question.
cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun 2. What is a Software ?
their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for a) Software is set of programs.
every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is the b) Software is documentation and configuration of
reason for these statistics ? data.
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering c) Both a and b
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding d) None of the mentioned
c) Management issues in the company
Answer:c
Answer:a Explanation: Software is not just set of program but
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software it is also associated documentation and configuration
Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them of data to make program run.
both. 3. Which of these does not account for software
9. The reason for software bugs and failures is due failure ?
to a) Increasing Demand
a) Software companies b) Low expectation
b) Software Developers c) Increasing Supply
c) Both a and b d) Less reliable and expensive.

Answer:c Answer:c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to more
making policies and providing working atmosphere production and not failure.
for the software development, so in turn these 4. What are attributes of good software ?
companies become a part of software development a) Software maintainability.
process.Bugs from developers side is no new thing. b) Software functionality.
Thus option c answers the question. c) Software development.
10. Company has latest computers and state-of the- d) a and b.
art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the e) a,b and c.
quality of the product.
a) True Answer:d
b) False Explanation: Good software should deliver the
required functinality, maintainability. Software
Answer:b development is not an attribute but a fundamental.
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the 5. Which of these software engineering activities are
several factors that determine the quality of the not a part of software processes ?
product. a) Software dependence.
- Software Engineering Ethics - 2 - b) Software development.
“Software Engineering Ethics – 2”. c) Software validation.
1. Which of these are not among the eight principles d) Software specification.
followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics
and Professional Practice ? Answer:a
a) PUBLIC Explanation: Software dependence is an attribute
b) PROFESSION and not an engineering activity for process.
c) PRODUCT 6. Which of these is incorrect ?
d) ENVIRONMENT a) Software engineering belongs to Computer
science.
b) Software engineering is a part of more general
form of System Engineering. c) Web brings concept of software as service.
c) Computer science belongs to Software d) Web based system should be developed and
engineering. delivered incrementally.
d) Software engineering is concerned with the
practicalities of developing and delivering useful Answer:b
software. Explanation: Web based systems has led to
important advances in programming languages.
Answer:c - Software Life Cycle Models -
Explanation: Software engineering is a vast sub “Software Life Cycle Models”.
domain which comes under computer science which 1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming
is main domain. exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
7. Which of these is true ? a) 100-200
a) Generic products and customized products are b) 200-400
types of software products. c) 400-1000
b) Generic products are produces by organization d) above 1000
and sold to open market.
c) Customized products are comissioned by Answer:a
particular customer. Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small
d) All of the above. projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200
lines.
Answer:d 2. RAD stands for
Explanation: All of them are true. a) Relative Application Development
8. Which of these does not affect different types of b) Rapid Application Development
software as a whole? c) Rapid Application Document
a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility Answer:b
c) Business and social change Explanation: None.
d) Security 3. Which one of the following models is not suitable
for accommodating any change?
Answer:b a) Build & Fix Model
Explanation:Option b & c are a part of Software b) Prototyping Model
Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them c) RAD Model
both. d) Waterfall Model
9. The fundamental notions of software engineering
does not account for ? Answer:d
a) Software processes Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the
b) Software Security sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.
c) Software reuse 4. Which is not one of the types of prototype of
d) Software Validation Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
Answer:d b) Vertical Prototype
Explanation:Software validation is an activity for c) Diagonal Prototype
software process and not the fundamental for d) Domain Prototype
engineering.
10. Which of these is not true ? Answer:c
a) Web has led to availability of software services Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal
and possibility of developing highly distributed Prototype whereas other options have their
service based systems. respective definitions.
b) Web based systems have led to degradance of 5. Which one of the following is not a phase of
programming languages. Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design 10. Which model can be selected if user is involved
b) Coding in all the phases of SDLC?
c) Prototype Refinement a) Waterfall Model
d) Engineer Product b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
Answer:b d) both b & c
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a
working model of a system. Answer:c
6. Which of the following statements regarding Explanation: None.
Build & Fix Model is wrong? .
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfix-able & unchangeable - Evolutionary Software Process Models -
c) Maintenance is practically not possible “Evolutionary Software Process Models”
d) It scales up well to large projects 1. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary
Process Model?
Answer:d a) WINWIN Spiral Model
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100- b) Incremental Model
200 LOC c) Concurrent Development Model
7. RAD Model has d) Spiral Model
a) 2 phases e) All are Evolutionary Software Models
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases Answer:e
d) 6 phases Explanation: None.
2. The Incremental Model is a result of combination
Answer:c of elements of which two models?
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
namely:Business modeling,Data modeling,Process b) Linear Model & RAD Model
modeling,Application generation and Testing & c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
Turnover. d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
8. What is the major drawback of using RAD
Model? Answer:c
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a
are required. deliverable “increment” of the software and
b) Increases re-usability of components. particularly when we have to quickly deliver a
c) Encourages customer/client feedback. limited functionality system.
d) Both a & c. 3. What is the major advantage of using Incremental
Model?
Answer:d a) Customer can respond to each increment
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic b) Easier to test and debug
product vision leading a team to over or under- c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to
develop functionality.Also, the specialized & skilled the market early
developers are not easily available. d) Both b & c
9. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle Answer:d
b) System Development Life cycle Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier
c) Software Design Life Cycle to test and debug than other methods of software
d) System Design Life Cycle development because relatively smaller changes are
made during each iteration and is popular
Answer:a particularly when we have to quickly deliver a
Explanation: None. limited functionality system.However, option “a”
can be seen in other models as well like RAD b) False
model,hence option “d” answers the question.
4. The spiral model was originally proposed by Answer:b
a) IBM Explanation: None.
b) Barry Boehm 9. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral
c) Pressman Model?
d) Royce a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model.
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in
Answer:b Incremental Model.
Explanation: None. c) Users can see the system early in Incremental
5. The spiral model has two dimensions namely Model.
_____________ and ____________.
a) diagonal, angular Answer:a
b) radial, perpendicular Explanation: None.
c) radial, angular 10. If you were to create client/server applications,
d) diagonal, perpendicular which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
Answer:c b) Spiral Model
Explanation: The radial dimension of the model c) Concurrent Model
represents the cumulative costs and the angular d) Incremental Model
dimension represents the progress made in
completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral from Answer:c
X-axis clockwise through 360o represents one phase. Explanation: When applied to client/server
6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from applications, the concurrent process model defines
Spiral Model? activities in two dimensions: a system dimension
a) It defines tasks required to define resources, and a component dimension.Thus Concurrency is
timelines, and other project related information. achieved by system and component activities
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the occurring simultaneously and can be modeled using
beginning of each pass around the spiral. the state-oriented approach.
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical .
and management risks.
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, - Selection of a Life Cycle Model -
and provide user support. “Selection of a Life Cycle Model”.
1. Selection of a model is based on
Answer:b a) Requirements
Explanation: Except option “b” all other b) Development team
tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well. c) Users
7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model. d) Project type and associated risk
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects e) All of the mentioned
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control Answer:e
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later Explanation: Each model has to have some
date requirements, a team of developers, users and the
risk involved in developing a project.
Answer:a 2. Which two models doesn’t allow defining
Explanation: All other options are the advantages of requirements early in the cycle?
Spiral Model. a) Waterfall & RAD
8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its b) Prototyping & Spiral
phases. c) Prototyping & RAD
a) True
d) Waterfall & Spiral presence/involvement every time a new prototype is
build or designed.
Answer:b 6. A company is developing an advance version of
Explanation: Prototyping Model starts with a their current software available in the market, what
requirements analysis phase including techniques model approach would they prefer ?
like FAST, QFD, Brainstorming.In case of Spiral a) RAD
model the first phase involves activities related to b) Iterative Enhancement
customer communication like determining c) Both a & b
objectives. d) Spiral
3. Which of the following life cycle model can be
chosen if the development team has less experience Answer:c
on similar projects? Explanation: None.
a) Spiral 7. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project
b) Waterfall development schedule is tight.
c) RAD a) True
d) Iterative Enhancement Model b) False

Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: Relying on risk assessment/analysis Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the
provides more flexibility than required for many sequential flow and iterations in this model are
applications which overcomes the criteria of less handled indirectly. Thus changes can cause
experienced developers. confusion as the project proceeds thereby delaying
4. If you were a lead developer of a software the delivery date.
company and you are asked to submit a 8. Choose the correct option from given below:
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with a) Prototyping Model facilitates re-usability of
no cost barriers, which model would you select? components
a) Waterfall b) RAD Model Model facilitates re-usability of
b) Spiral components
c) RAD c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates re-
d) Incremental usability of components
d) none
Answer:c
Explanation: RAD model is inapplicable to develop Answer:c
cheaper products/software/projects as the cost of Explanation: None.
modeling, hiring highly skilled developers/designers 9. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.
and automated code generation is very high.But here a) True
the cost is not an issue, so one can select this model b) False
as it reduces development time.
5. Which two of the following models will not be Answer:a
able to give the desired outcome if user’s Explanation: None.
participation is not involved? 10. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.
a) Waterfall & Spiral a) True
b) RAD & Spiral b) False
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping Answer:b
Explanation: None.
Answer:d .
Explanation: Active Participation of user is involved
in all the four phases of RAD model and in case of - Fourth Generation Techniques -
the Prototyping model we need user’s “Fourth Generation Techniques”.
1. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from an automatically generated source code based on
the given below. these specifications.
a) FORTRAN 5. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL?
b) COBOL One originating _______________.
c) Unix shell a) on Lisp machine
d) C++ b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
Answer:c d) from GUI creators
Explanation: Rest all are third generation
languages(3GL). Answer:a
2. Arrange the following activities for making a Explanation: Fifth-generation programming
software product using 4GT. language are built on LISP.
i. Design strategy 6. In 4GT, we can specify the user requirements in
ii. Transformation into product graphic notation or small abbreviated language
iii. Implementation form.
iv. Requirement gathering a) True
a) 1, 4, 3, 2 b) False
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2 Answer:a
d) 1, 3, 4, 2 Explanation: None.
7. Productivity of software engineers is reduced in
Answer:c using a 4GT.
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned a) True
in option c represents the Fourth Generation b) False
Techniques(4GT)Model.
3. 4GL is an example of ______________ Answer:b
processing. Explanation: 4GLs are more programmer-friendly
a) White Box and enhance programming efficiency with usage of
b) Black Box English-like words and phrases, thereby increasing
c) Functional the productivity of professionals able to engage in
d) Both a & b software development.
e) Both b & c 8. Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM
and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the
Answer:e standard language for managing structured data?
Explanation: Functional processing/testing is also a) SQL
referred to as black box testing in which contents of b) PROLOG
the black box are not known.Almost anything might c) C
be referred to as a black box:an algorithm or the d) JAVA
human mind.Functionality of the black box is
understood in terms of its inputs and outputs. Answer:a
4. The 4GT Model is a package of Explanation: C & JAVA are third generation
__________________. languages(3GLs) wheras PROLOG is a 5GL.
a) CASE Tools 9. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model
b) Software tools for producing small scale products,
c) Software Programs applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers.
Answer:b b) Reduction in software development time.
Explanation: 4GT encompasses a broad array of c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators
software tools enabling the software engineer to offers a credible solution to many software
specify the characteristics at a high level leading to
problems. maintenance costs may be several times
development costs.
Answer:b 4. Which one of the following is not an application
Explanation: Since automated coding is done using of embedded software product?
CASE tools & code generators proponents claim a a) key pad control of a security system
dramatic reduction in software development time. b) pattern recognition game playing
10. Which of the following model has a major c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a
software life cycle model ? Answer:b
a) Spiral Model Explanation: Pattern recognition uses Artificial
b) Waterfall Model Intelligence (AI) software.
c) Rad Model 5. Purpose of process is to deliver software
d) 4GT Model a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
Answer:d c) that is cost efficient
Explanation: Since coding phase is eliminated in d) both a & b
4GT Model,more expertise is required for
analysis,design and testing activities. Answer:d
. Explanation: Cost of a software is a management
issue & is not related to process activities.
- Software Process and Product - 1 - 6. The work associated with software engineering
“Software Process and Product – 1”. can be categorized into three generic
1. Which one of the following is not a software phases,regardless of application area, project size, or
process quality? complexity namely the__________ phase which
a) Productivity focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses
b) Portability on how and the_________ phase which focuses on
c) Timeliness change.
d) Visibility i. support
ii. development
Answer:b iii. definition
Explanation: Portability is a software product quality a) 1, 2, 3
which means software can run on different harware b) 2, 1, 3
platforms or software environments. c) 3, 2, 1
2. _____________&_____________ are two kinds d) 3, 1, 2
of software products.
a) CAD, CAM Answer:c
b) Firmware, Embedded Explanation: None.
c) Generic, Customised 7. Which of the following activities of a Generic
Process framework provides a feedback report?
Answer:c a) Communication
Explanation: rest all are sub categories/applications b) Planning
of option c. c) Modeling & Construction
3. Software costs more to maintain than it does to d) Deployment
develop.
a) True Answer:d
b) False Explanation: In Deployment the product is delivered
to the customer who evaluates the product and
Answer:a provides feedback based on the evaluation.
Explanation: For systems with a long life, 8. Process adopted for one project is same as the
process adopted from another project.
a) True d) reliability
b) False
Answer:c
Answer:b Explanation: rest all are external qualities which are
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, visible to the user.
actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to the 3. RUP stands for____________ created by a
software team and the inter dependencies among division of ____________.
two process can never be the same. a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
9. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
Activity that complements the five process c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
framework activities and help team manage and d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Re-usability management Answer:d
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement 4. The RUP is normally described from three
d) User Reviews perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What does
e) Software quality assurance static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.
Answer:d b) It suggests good practices to be used during the
Explanation: None. process.
10. Four types of change are encountered during the c) It shows the phases of the model over time.
support phase.Which one of the following is not one
that falls into such category? Answer:a
a) Translation Explanation: None.
b) Correction 5. The only deliverable work product for a
c) Adaptation successful project is the working program.
d) Prevention a) True
b) False
Answer:a
Explanation: Translation is done in the development Answer:b
phase. Explanation: A working program is only one part of
. a software configuration that includes many
elements. Documentation provides a foundation for
- Software Process and Product - 2 - successful engineering and, more important,
“Software Process and Product – 2”. guidance for software support.
1. If a software production gets behind schedule, one 6. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a
can add more programmers and catch up. business case for the system ?
a) True a) Transition
b) False b) Elaboration
c) Construction
Answer:b d) Inception
Explanation: As new people are added, people who
were working must spend time educating the Answer:d
newcomers, thereby reducing the amount of time Explanation: None.
spent on productive development effort. 7. Which one of the following is not a fundamental
2. Choose an internal software quality from given activity for software processes in software
below: engineering ?
a) scalability a) Software Verification
b) usability b) Software Validation
c) reusability c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution - Agile Software Development -
e) Software specification “Agile Software Development”.
1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile
Answer:a Software Development
Explanation: Software Verification is accounted for a) Individuals and interactions
in implementation & testing activity. b) Working software
8. A general statement of objectives is the major c) Customer collaboration
cause of failed software efforts. d) Responding to change
a) True e) All of the mentioned
b) False
Answer:e
Answer:a Explanation: None.
Explanation: A formal and detailed description of 2. Agile Software Development is based on
the information domain, function, behavior, a) Incremental Development
performance, interfaces, design constraints and b) Iterative Development
validation criteria is essential which can be c) Linear Development
determined only after thorough communication d) Waterfall Model
between customer and developer. e) Both a and b
9. The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes Answer:e
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct Explanation: The software is developed in
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected increments with the customer specifying the
d) All of the mentioned requirements to be included in each increment and
the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through
Answer:d early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
Explanation: None. 3. Which on of the following is not an agile method?
10. Component-based Software Engineering allows a) XP
faster delivery. b) 4GT
a) True c) AUP
b) False
Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation: The 4GT approach does not
Explanation: Due to using previously tested incorporate iteration and the continuous
components they produce more reliable system at a feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of an agile
faster rate. method.
11. Arrange the following steps to form a 4. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team
basic/general Engineering Process Model. to respond rapidly to a change.
i. Test a) True
ii. Design b) False
iii. Install
iv. Specification Answer:b
v. Manufacture Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce
vi. Maintain overheads in the software process and to be able to
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3 respond quickly to changing requirements without
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6 excessive rework.
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6 5. How is plan driven development different from
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3 agile development ?
a) Outputs are decided through a process of
Answer:b negotiation during the software development
Explanation: None. process.
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing b) False
are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities Answer:a
Explanation: None.
Answer:c - Extreme Programming -
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software “Extreme Programming”.
engineering is based around separate development 1. Incremental development in Extreme
stages with the outputs to be produced at each of Programming (XP) is supported through a system
these stages planned in advance. release once every month.
6. How many phases are there in Scrum ? a) True
a) Two b) False
b) Three
c) Four Answer:b
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not Explanation: Incremental development is supported
have phases. through small, frequent system releases.
2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete,
Answer:b it is integrated into the whole system.
Explanation: There are three phases in Scrum.The a) True
initial phase is an outline planning phase followed b) False
by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.
7. Agile methods seem to work best when team Answer:a
members have a relatively high skill level. Explanation: XP follows a continuous integration
a) True approach.After any such integration, all the unit tests
b) False in the system must pass.
3. In XP Increments are delivered to customers
Answer:a every _______ weeks.
Explanation: None. a) One
8. Which of the following does not apply to agility b) Two
to a software process? c) Three
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy d) Four
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing Answer:b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) takes an
Answer:c ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development.New
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software versions may be built several times per day, hence
development process which cant be avoided. delivering the increment for approval every 2nd
9. Which three framework activities are present in week after testing the new version.
Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ? 4. User requirements are expressed as __________
a) analysis, design, coding in Extreme Programming.
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, a) implementation tasks
iterative development b) functionalities
c) speculation, collaboration, learning c) scenarios

Answer:c Answer:c
Explanation: None. Explanation: User requirements are expressed as
10. In agile development it is more important to scenarios or user stories.These are written on cards
build software that meets the customers’ needs today and the development team break them down into
than worry about features that might be needed in implementation tasks. These tasks are the basis of
the future. schedule and cost estimates.
a) True
5. Is a customer involved test development and a) True
validation in XP ? b) False
a) Yes
b) No Answer:b
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair
programming which means developers work in
Answer:c pairs, checking each other’s work and providing the
Explanation: The role of the customer in the testing support to always do a good job.
process is to help develop acceptance tests for the 10. Which four framework activities are found in the
stories that are to be implemented in the next release Extreme Programming(XP) ?
of the system.However, people adopting the a) analysis, design, coding, testing
customer role have limited time available and so b) planning, analysis, design, coding
cannot work full-time with the development team. c) planning, design, coding, testing
They may feel that providing the requirements was d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
enough of a contribution and so may be reluctant to
get involved in the testing process. Answer:c
6. Programmers prefer programming to testing and Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four
sometimes they take short cuts when writing tests. activities, and in the same in order.
For example, they may write incomplete tests that .
do not check for all possible exceptions that may – Requirement Engineering
occur. “Requirement Engineering”.
a) True 1. What are the types of requirements ?
b) False a) Availability
b) Reliability
Answer:a c) Usability
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very difficult d) Flexibility
to write incrementally.For example, in a complex e) All of the mentioned
user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests
for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and Answer:e
workflow between screens. Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial
7. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming. for an effective product to be developed.
a) True 2. Select the developer specific requirement ?
b) False a) Potability
b) Maintainability
Answer:a c) Availability
Explanation: Automated test harnesses are used to d) Both a and b
run all component tests each time that a new release
is built. Answer:d
8. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to Explanation: Availability is user specific
write tests for a new piece of functionality before requirement.
that functionality itself is implemented. 3. Which one of the following is not a step of
a) True requirement engineering?
b) False a) elicitation
b) design
Answer:a c) analysis
Explanation: XP follows Test-first development d) documentation
approach.
9. Developers work individually on a release and Answer:b
they compare their results with other developers Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement
before forwarding that release to customers. Analysis, Requirement Documentation and
Requirement Review are the four crucial process affected as a result of project execution or project
steps of requirement engineering.Design is in itself a completion.
different phase of Software Engineering. 9. Conflicting requirements are common in
4. FAST stands for Requirement Engineering, with each client
a) Functional Application Specification Technique proposing his or her version is the right one.
b) Fast Application Specification Technique a) True
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique b) False
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Answer:c Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of
Explanation: None. work as each professional has his/her way of looking
5. QFD stands for onto things & would argue to get his/her point
a) quality function design approved.
b) quality function development 10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder
c) quality function deployment from the following ?
d) none of the mentioned a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
Answer:c c) Managers
Explanation: None. d) Users of the software
6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role
that different people may play. Answer:d
a) True Explanation: Users are always the most important
b) False stakeholders.After all, without users or customers,
what’s the point of being in business?.
Answer:b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs - Functional and Non-Functional Requirements -
to interact with the system, be it a person or another “Functional and Non-Functional Requirements”.
(external) system. 1. Which one of the following is a functional
7. The user system requirements are the parts of requirement ?
which document ? a) Maintainability
a) SDD b) Portability
b) SRS c) Robustness
c) DDD d) Testability
e) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Software requirements specification Answer:e
(SRS), is a complete description of the behaviour of Explanation: All are non-functional requirements
a system to be developed and may include a set of representing quality of the system. Functional
use cases that describe interactions the users will requirements describe what the software has to do.
have with the software. 2. Which one of the following is a requirement that
8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the fits in a developer’s module ?
completed software system under development. a) Availability
a) True b) Testability
b) False c) Usability
d) Flexibility
Answer:b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an Answer:b
interest in the project. Project stakeholders are Explanation: A developer needs to test his product
individuals and organizations that are actively before launching it into the market.
involved in the project, or whose interests may be
3. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects Answer:c
an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are
kind of a requirement the system is providing ? used to find measurable scales for the quality
a) Functional attributes like efficiency, flexibility, integrity,
b) Non-Functional usability etc.
c) Known Requirement 7. How many classification schemes have been
developed for NFRs ?
Answer:a a) Two
Explanation: Functional requirements describe what b) Three
the software has to do. c) Four
4. Which of the following statements explains d) Five
portabililty in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one Answer:d
platform can easily be converted to run on another Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976],
platform. Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-Product-
b) It can be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and External considerations [Sommerville 1992], Mc
tools that are universally available and standardized. Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of Quality–
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in Components of FURPS+ are the five classification
a user-acceptable manner when operating within the schemes for NFRs.
environment for which the system was intended. .
d) Both a and b 8. According to components of FURPS+, which of
e) It refers to the level at which a software system the following does not belong to S ?
uses scarce computational resources, such as CPU a) Testability
cycles, memory, disk space, buffers and b) Speed Efficiency
communication channels. c) Serviceability
d) Installability
Answer:d
Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and Answer:b
option e refers to efficiency. Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to
5. Functional requirements capture the intended Performance (P) in FURPS+ .
behavior of the system. 9. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?
a) True a) Yes
b) False b) No

Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: The behavior of functional Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.
requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or 10. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
functions the system is required to perform. a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
Non-Functional Requirement(NFR). c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs Answer:c
can be used in the design process Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales dependability.
for the functionality attributes 11. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various integrates with Rational Unified Process ?
relationships between quality goals a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to
local user requests and changes in the environment.
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to
remote user requests and changes in the requirements and finally to consolidate or bind
environment. together the information collected.
4. What are the types of requirement in Quality
Answer:b Function Deployment(QFD) ?
Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
seconds on average. b) User, Developer
. c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
- Requirement Elicitation -
“Requirement Elicitation”. Answer:d
1. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ? Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected
a) Identifying Stakeholder and Exciting requirements maximizes customer
b) Listing out Requirements satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.
c) Requirements Gathering 5. What kind of approach was introduced for
elicitation and modelling to give a functional view
Answer:a of the system ?
Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
invest in and use the product, so its essential to chalk b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
out stake holders first. c) Fusion (by Coleman)
2. Starting from least to most important, choose the d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rambaugh)
order of stakeholder.
i. Managers Answer:b
ii. Entry level Personnel Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with
iii. Users the system, for what purpose, without dealing with
iv. Middle level stakeholder system internals.
a) i, ii, iv, iii 6. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
b) i, ii, iii, iv a) Primary
c) ii, iv, i, iii b) Secondary
c) Ternary
Answer:c d) Both a and b
Explanation: Users are your customers, they will be
using your product, thus making them most Answer:d
important of all. Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal
3. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements requiring the assistance of the system whereas, a
elicitation in an appropriate manner. secondary actor is one from which system needs
i. Consolidation assistance.There is no such thing as ternary actor in
ii. Prioritization Software Engineering.
iii. Requirements Gathering 7. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
iv. Evaluation a) Problem of scope
a) iii, i, ii, iv b) Problem of understanding
b) iii, iv, ii, i c) Problem of volatility
c) iii, ii, iv, i d) All of the mentioned
d) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical
Explanation: Requirements gathering captures detail that may confuse, rather than clarify overall
viewpoint from different users followed by system objectives.Also, the customers/users are not
evaluation of those view points.Now comes the task completely sure of what is needed, have a poor
of checking the relative importance of the understanding of the capabilities and limitations of
their computing environment and they do not Expression(CORE) says that any system can be
understand that the requirements change over time. viewed from a number of view points and that a
8. What requirement gathering method developed at complete picture of system requirements can only
IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement emerge by putting together the various viewpoints.
elicitation ? 2. ___________ and ____________ are the two
a) JAD view points discussed in Controlled Requirements
b) Traceablity Expression (CORE).
c) FAST a) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Both a and b b) User, Developer
c) Known, Unknown
Answer:d
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a Answer:a
process used to collect business requirements while Explanation: The CORE sessions includes the
developing new information systems for a discussion of functional and non-functional
company.Requirements traceability is concerned requirements.
with documenting the life of a requirement and 3. What is the major drawback of CORE ?
providing bi-directional traceability between various a) Requirements are comprehensive
associated requirements. b) NFRs are not given enough importance
9. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process c) Role of analyst is passive
a) True
b) False Answer:c
Explanation: In CORE the requirement specification
Answer:a are put together by all users, customers and analysts,
Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi- so a passive analyst will not get the requirements
directional traceability between various associated properly.
requirements. 4. Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue
10. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation Based Information System (IBIS).
activities ? a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
a) One b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
b) Two c) Issue -> Position -> Justification
c) Three d) Both b and c
d) Four e) Both a and c

Answer:d Answer:d
Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Explanation: IBIS is a simple and non-intrusive
Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are the method that provides a framework for resolving
four scenarios in requirement elicitation activities. issues and gathering requirements.
. 5. How is CORE different from IBIS ?
a) Iterative in nature
- Requirement Elicitation Techniques -1 - b) Redundancies are removed
“Requirement Elicitation Techniques-1”. c) It is simple and an easier method to use
1. Which of the following elicitation techniques is a d) Consistency problems are addressed in CORE
view-point based method ?
a) FODA Answer:d
b) QFD Explanation: Preliminary data collection is done in
c) CORE CORE to get some broad level data on each view
d) IBIS point to structure the view point and to check
consistency from within and outside the viewpoints.
Answer:c 6. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation
Explanation: Controlled Requirements Techniques removes the poor understanding of
application domain and lack of common Answer:d
terminology between the users and the analysts ? Explanation: Unified Modeling Language (UML)
a) FODA diagrams are constructed during the design phase of
b) CORE the SDLC.
c) IBIS .
d) Prototyping
- Requirement Elicitation Techniques - 2 -
Answer:a “Requirement Elicitation Techniques-2”.
Explanation: Feature Oriented Domain Analysis 1. How is brainstorming different from JAD ?
(FODA) is defined as the process of identifying, Brainstorming sessions
collecting, organizing and representing relevant a) last for about 2-3 hours
information in a domain . b) last for about 2-3 days
7. How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented c) cover the technology used for the development
Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
a) Two Answer:a
b) Three Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or individual
c) Four creativity technique by which efforts are made to
d) Five find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering
a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its
Answer:b member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an
Explanation: Context Analysis, Domain Modeling approved solution ASAP.
and Architecture Modeling are the three steps 2. How is throwaway prototype different from
involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis evolutionary prototype ?
(FODA). a) It involves successive steps.
8. IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE. b) It involves just one task.
a) True c) The prototype is built with the idea that it will
b) False eventually be converted into final system.
d) It has a shorter development time.
Answer:a
Explanation: IBIS is a more structured approach as it Answer:b
captures information which is consistent and Explanation: Except option b all other options
important.On the other hand CORE gives represent the characteristics of an evolutionary
importance to every view point even if it is obsolete. prototype.
9. Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD 3. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which
sessions ? of the following is not an example of an Expected
a) User Requirement ?
b) Tester a) Ease of software installation
c) Scribe b) Overalll operational correctness and reliability
d) Sponsor c) Specific system functions
d) Quality graphical display
Answer:b
Explanation: A Tester’s role is seen in after coding Answer:c
phase rather than in elicitation phase. Explanation: Expected requirements are so
10. What of the following is not an output of a JAD fundamental that a customer does not explicitly state
session ? them.System functions comes under the category of
a) Context Diagrams Normal requirements in QFD which is compulsory
b) DFDs to be defined,hence is not an expected requirement.
c) ER model 4. QFD works best if it has management
d) UML diagrams commitment.
a) True
b) False Answer:b
Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy.It is evolving
Answer:a and its industrial usage is low.
Explanation: QFD involves heavy investment in 8. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?
initial stages, thus bounding the management to a) Two
provide appropriate funding for the development b) Three
process . c) Four
5. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation
Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill- Answer:b
defined problem situations ? Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD) are the three phases to be achieved for a successful
b) Prototyping brainstorming session.
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM) 9. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application
d) Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE) Specification Techniques) meeting ?
a) System Analyst
Answer:c b) Scribe
Explanation: Soft systems methodology (SSM) is a c) Facilitator
systemic approach for tackling real-world d) Manager
problematic situations.It is a common
misunderstanding that SSM is a methodology for Answer:c
dealing solely with ‘soft problems’ (problems which Explanation: A Facilitator (a customer/developer/an
involve psychological, social, and cultural outsider) controls the FAST meeting.His role is to
elements). SSM does not differentiate between ‘soft’ ensure that the meeting is productive.
and ‘hard’ problems, it merely provides a different 10. Arrange the steps in order to represent the
way of dealing with situations perceived as conducting of Wideband Delphi Technique.
problematic. i. Conduct a group discussion
6. To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous ii. Conduct another group discussion
and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed iii. Present experts with a problem
several criteria that are summarized in the iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology v. Iterate until consensus is reached
(SSM).Which of the following alphabet is vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert
representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ? a) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
a) C – Customer b) iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
b) A – Actor c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
c) T – Tranformation d) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v
d) W – World view
e) O – Owner Answer:d
f) E – ER Model Explanation: The sequence represents the working
steps of a Wideband Delphi technique .
Answer:f .
Explanation: ‘E’ in CATWOE stands for
Environmental constraints. - Requirement Analysis -
7. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an ” Requirement Analysis”.
elicitation technique. 1. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in
a) It incorporates human element into design. Requirement Analysis ?
b) SSM is in its infant stage. a) Use Cases
c) SSM is suitable for new systems. b) Entity Relationship Diagram
d) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, c) State Transition Diagram
Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM. d) Activity Diagram
Answer:d b) Stakeholder, Developer
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the c) Functional, Non-Functional
design phase of SDLC.
2. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Answer:b
Requirement Analysis ? Explanation: Option a and c are the types of
a) Two requirements and not the issues of requirement
b) Three analysis..
c) Four 7. The requirements that result from requirements
analysis are typically expressed from one of three
Answer:b perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/benefit view ?
analysis), Technical feasibility a) Developer
(hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal b) User
feasibility studies are done in Requirement Analysis. c) Non-Functional
3. How many phases are there in Requirement d) Physical
Analysis ?
a) Three Answer:d
b) Four Explanation: The perspectives or views have been
c) Five described as the Operational, Functional, and
d) Six Physical views.All three are necessary and must be
coordinated to fully understand the customers’ needs
Answer:c and objectives.
Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and 8. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.
Synthesis (focus is on what not how), Modeling, a) True
Specification and Review are the five phases. b) False
4. Traceability is not considered in Requirement
Analysis. Answer:a
a) True Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted
b) False iteratively with functional analysis to optimize
performance requirements for identified functions,
Answer:b and to verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned customer requirements.
with documenting the life of a requirement and 9. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection
providing bi-directional traceability between various characteristics that should be used as an analyst
associated requirements, hence requirements must considers each potential object for inclusion in the
be traceable. requirement analysis model.
5. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a) Three
a development project. b) Four
a) True c) Five
b) False d) Six
c) Depends upon the size of project
Answer:d
Answer:a Explanation: Retained information, Needed services,
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, Multiple attributes, Common attributes, Common
measurable, testable, related to identified business operations and Essential requirements are the six
needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of criterion mentioned by Coad and Yourdon.
detail sufficient for system design. 10. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not
6. _________ and _________ are the two issues of ‘how’.
Requirement Analysis. a) True
a) Performance, Design
b) False 4. Which of the following statements about SRS
is/are true ?
Answer:a i. SRS is written by customer
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, ii. SRS is written by a developer
while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and
behavior. developer
. a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
- Requirement Documentation - c) All are true
“Requirement Documentation”.
1. Which of the following property does not Answer: c
correspond to a good Software Requirements Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication
Specification (SRS) ? media between the Customer, Analyst, system
a) Verifiable developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract
b) Ambiguous between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially
c) Complete written by a developer on the basis of customer’
d) Traceable need but in some cases it may be written by a
customer as well.
Answer: b 5. The SRS document is also known as
Explanation: The SRS should be unambiguous in _____________ specification.
nature which means each sentence in SRS should a) black-box
have a unique interpretation. b) white-box
2. Which of the following property of SRS is c) grey-box
depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a
standard is maintained” ? Answer: a
a) Correct Explanation: The system is considered as a black
b) Complete box whose internal details are not known that is,
c) Consistent only its visible external (input/output) behavior is
d) Modifiable documented.
6. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
Answer: b a) Cost
Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and b) Design Constraints
referencing of all figures, tables etc. and definition c) Staffing
of all terms and units of measure is defined. d) Delivery Schedule
3. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to Answer: b
the requirements can be made easily while retaining Explanation: Design constraints include standards to
the style and structure. be incorporated in the software, implementation
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the language, resource limits, operating environment
software shall meet etc.
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable 7. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
d) no subset of individual requirements described in a) Performance
it conflict with each other b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
Answer: d d) External Interfaces
Explanation: Real world object may conflict with
each other for example one requirement says that all Answer: c
lights should be red while the other states that all Explanation: The SRS document concentrates
lights should green. on:”what needs to be done” and carefully avoids the
solution (“how to do”) aspects.
8. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Answer: b
Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard. Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if,
i. General description every requirement stated therein is verifiable. The
ii. Introduction statement can only be answered on completion of
iii. Index the software and customer evaluation but still human
iv. Appendices interface will vary from person to person.
v. Specific Requirements 12. Narrative essay is one of the best types of
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv specification document ?
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv a) True
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii b) False

Answer: c Answer:b
Explanation: The given sequence correctly resemble Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst
a standard SRS prototype as per IEEE. types of specification document as it is difficult to
9. Consider the following Statement: “The output of change, difficult to be precise, has scope for
a program shall be given within 10secs of event X contradictions, etc.
10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is .
being depicted here ?
a) Consistent - Requirement Management -
b) Verifiable “Requirement Management”.
c) Non-verifiable 1. Which two requirements are given priority during
d) Correct Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
Answer: b b) Functional and Non-functional
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, c) Enduring and Volatile
every requirement stated therein is verifiable.Here
the given condition can be verified during testing Answer: c
phase. Explanation: Enduring requirements are core
10. Consider the following Statement: “The data set requirements & are related to main activity of the
will contain an end of file character.”What organization while volatile requirements are likely to
characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ? change during software development life cycle or
a) Consistent after delivery of the product.
b) Non-verifiable 2. Considering the example of issue/return of a
c) Correct book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What
d) Ambiguous type of management requirement is being depicted
here?
Answer: b a) Enduring
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, b) Volatile
every requirement stated therein has only one unique
interpretation. The given statement does not answer Answer: a
the question: “which data set will have an end of file Explanation: For library management system
character ?”. issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. are core
11. Consider the following Statement: “The product activities and are stable for any system.
should have a good human interface.”What 3. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It
characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ? is due to the changes
a) Consistent a) to the environment
b) Non-Verifiable b) in technology
c) Correct c) in customer’s expectations
d) Ambiguous d) in all of the mentioned.
Answer: d d) RDD 100
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as the
advancement of new products being launched in the Answer: c
market and so does the market changes, the Explanation: Rational Suite is an environment tool
technology and in turn customer’s expectation. for requirement management.
4. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for 8. Which of the following is a requirement
Quality-Oriented Development. management activity ?
a) True a) Investigation
b) False b) Design
c) Construction and Test
Answer: a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Quality makes no sense without
reference to requirements, which means quality- Answer: d
oriented development is requirements-driven Explanation: All the options are the activities of
development, thus requirements management is a requirement management.
prerequisite for quality-oriented development. 9. What functionality of Requirement Management
5. Requirements traceability is one of the most Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool
important part requirement management. It may also should be able to automatically detect relations
be referred to as the heart of requirement between artifacts. For example information retrieval
management. techniques, monitoring of change history, naming
a) True schemas or model transformations.”
b) False a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
Answer: a c) Graphical Representation
Explanation: Requirements traceability refers to the d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
ability to describe and follow the life of a
requirement in both forwards and backwards Answer: a
direction. Requirements can be traced from its Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that supports
origins, through its development and specification, Automatic Link Detection.
to its subsequent deployment and use, and through 10. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of
periods of ongoing refinement and iteration in any of all software projects are cancelled before completion
these phases. and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver
6. Requirements Management has a high initial start- expected features”. What must be the reason for
up cost but does not need ongoing funding such a situation ?
throughout a project. a) Poor change management
a) True b) Poor requirements management
b) False c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements Management needs Answer: b
continued funding throughout a project.Project Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned
funding is often limited at the onset of a project, in the statistical report is poor requirements
restricted to those aspects of the project which are management. Option a and c are its sub parts.
tangible and visible, and subsequently allocated in a .
phase-by-phase manner.
7. Which of the following is not a Requirement - System Modelling - 1 -
Management workbench tool ? by mod2
a) RTM “System Modelling – 1”.
b) DOORS 1. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has
c) Rational Suite become an effective standard for software
modelling.How many different notaions does it have
?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine

Answer:d
Explanation: The different notations of UML
includes the nine UML diagrams namely class,
object, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart,
component, deployment and use case diagrams.
2. Which model in system modelling depicts the
dynamic behaviour of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model

Answer:b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe
the dynamic behavior of an executing system. This
can be modeled from the perspective of the data
processed by the system or by the events that
stimulate responses from a system.
3. Which model in system modelling depicts the
static nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model a) Structural model
b) Context Model b) Context model
c) Data Model c) Behavioral model
d) Structural Model d) Interaction model

Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation: Structural models show the Explanation: Context models are used to illustrate
organization and architecture of a system. These are the operational context of a system.They show what
used to define the static structure of classes in a lies outside the system boundaries.
system and their associations. 6. Activity diagrams are used to model the
4. Which perspective in system modelling shows the processing of data.
system or data architecture. a) True
a) Structural perspective b) False
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective Answer:a
Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and
Answer:a each activity represents one process step.
Explanation: Structural perspective is used to define 7. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical
the static structure of classes in a system and their concept. It cannot be converted into a
associations. working/executable code.
5. Which system model is being depicted by the a) True
ATM operations shown below: b) False
Answer:b the organization of a system in terms of the
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an components that make up that system and their
approach to software development in which a relationships.
system is represented as a set of models that can be 4. ______________ & ______________ diagrams
automatically transformed to executable code. of UML represent Interaction modeling.
8. The UML supports event-based modeling using a) Use Case, Sequence
____________ diagrams. b) Class, Object
a) Deployment c) Activity, State Chart
b) Collaboration
c) State chart Answer:a
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to
Answer: model interactions between a system and external
Explanation: State diagrams show system states and actors.Sequence diagrams are used to model
events that cause transitions from one state to interactions between system components, although
another. external agents may also be included.
5. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram
- System Modelling - 2 - (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
by mod2 a) Level 1
“System Modelling – 2”. b) Level 2
1. Which of the following diagram is not supported c) Level 3
by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity Answer:b
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD) Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects
c) State Chart (entities) and their “connections” to one another
d) Component while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships,
and the attributes that provide further depth. Thus
Answer:b option b is correct.
Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and 6. ___________ classes are used to create the
do not recognize system objects. interface that the user sees and interacts with as the
2. _________________ allows us to infer that software is used.
different members of classes have some common a) Controller
characteristics. b) Entity
a) Realization c) Boundary
b) Aggregation d) Business
c) Generalization
d) dependency Answer:c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
Answer:c 7. Which of the following statement is incorrect
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator
technique that we use to manage complexity.This (CRC) modeling ?
means that common information will be maintained a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-
in one place only. case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC
3. One creates Behavioral models of a system when modelling
you are discussing and designing the system b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately.
architecture. c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC
a) True model) are given a subset of the CRC model index
b) False cards

Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation: Structural models of software display Explanation: All participants in the review (of the
CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model simultaneously and can be modeled using the state-
index cards. oriented approach.
8. A data object can encapsulates processes and 4. Identify the correct statement with respect to
operation as well. Evolutionary development:
a) True a) Evolutionary development usually has two
b) False flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away
prototyping.
Answer:b b) Very large projects are usually done using
Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. evolutionary development based approach.
There is no reference within a data object to c) It facilitates easy project management, through
operations that act on the data. the high volume of documentation it generates.
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away
- Software Evolution - prototype is not followed by a re- implementation of
“Software Evolution”. the software system using a more structured
1. The two dimensions of spiral model are approach.
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular Answer:a
c) radial, angular Explanation: Evolutionary development usually has
d) diagonal, perpendicular two flavors; exploratory development, and
throw-away prototyping.
Answer:c 5.Spiral model was developed by
Explanation: The radial dimension depicts the a) Victor Bisili
cumulative costs and the angular dimension depicts b) Berry Boehm
the progress made in completing each cycle. Each c) Bev Littlewood
loop of the spiral model represents a phase. d) Roger Pressman
2. The Incremental Model is combination of
elements of Answer:b
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model Explanation: Berry Boehm in 1986 in his Article “A
b) Linear Model & RAD Model spiral model of software development and
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model enhancement”.
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model 6. Software evolution does not comprises:
a) Development activities
Answer:c b) Negotiating with client
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a c) Maintenance activities
deliverable “increment” of the software system, d) Re-engineering activities
particularly needed in case of quick delivery of a
limited functionality system.. Answer:b
3. Model preferred to create client/server Explanation: Software evolution refers to the study
applications is and management of the process of making changes
a) WINWIN Spiral Model to software over time. Thus it comprises rest three
b) Spiral Model options.
c) Concurrent Model 7. Processes for evolving a software product depend
d) Incremental Model on:
a) Type of software to be maintained.
Answer:c b) Development processes used.
Explanation: In case of client/server applications, c) Skills and experience of the people involved.
the concurrent process model specifies activities in d) All the mentioned
two dimensions: a system dimension and a
component dimension. Hence Concurrency is
achieved by these two activities occurring
Answer:d c) hardware
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution d) all of the mentioned
depend on all these factors.
8. Which technique is applied to ensure the Answer:d
continued evolution of legacy systems ? Explanation: A sociotechnical system is a system
a) Forward engineering that includes people, software, and hardware to
b) Reverse Engineering show that you need to take a systems perspective on
c) Reengineering. security and dependability.
d) b and c 2. Which layer is missing in the sociotechnical
system stack as shown below:
Answer:d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution
depend rely on these two techniques.
9. Program modularization and Source code
translation are the activities of_____________.
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering.
d) b and c

Answer:c
Explanation: Reengineering is the examination and
alteration of a subject system to reconstitute it in a
new form and the subsequent implementation of the
new form.
10. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a
reengineering project.
a) organizational layer
a) True
b) application layer
b) False
c) physical layer
d) transport layer
Answer:b
Explanation: Reverse engineering is often the initial
Answer:b
activity in a reengineering project.
Explanation: The application layer This layer
11. The cost of re-engineering is often significantly
delivers the application-specific functionality
less than the costs of developing new software.
that is required.
a) True
3. Consider an example of a system which has a
b) False
police command and control system that may
include a geographical information system to
Answer:a
provide details of the location of incidents. What
Explanation: There is a high risk in new software
kind of system the example represents?
development. There may be development problems,
a) Complex System
staffing problems and specification problems,
b) Technical computer-based system
thereby increasing the cost.
c) Sociotechnical System
d) Both a and c
- Sociotechnical Systems -
by mod2
Answer:d
“Sociotechnical Systems”.
Explanation: Complex systems are usually
1. A sociotechnical system is a system that includes
hierarchical and so include other systems.
a) people
4. Which property of a sociotechnical system varies
b) software
depending on how the component assemblies are
arranged and connected? partly because changes to the hardware, software,
a) security and data in these systems are so frequent
b) usability 9. What are the two ways to view the human error of
c) volume a sociotechnical system?
d) reliability a) hardware and software approach
b) management and users approach
Answer:c c) person and systems approach
Explanation: The volume of a system (the total
space occupied) varies depending on how the Answer:c
component assemblies are arranged and connected. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
5. Which property of a sociotechnical system 10. Human and organizational factors such as
depends on the technical system components, its organizational structure and politics have a
operators, and its operating environment? significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical
a) security systems.
b) usability a) True
c) volume b) False
d) reliability
Answer:a
Answer:b Explanation: As people are a part of the system,
Explanation: Usability reflects how easy it is to use hence they affect the sociotechnical system.
the system.
6. In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider - Dependability and Security -
reliability from perspectives namely: by mod2
a) only software reliability “Dependability and Security”.
b) only hardware reliability 1. A characteristic of a software system that can lead
c) hardware and software reliability to a system error is known as?
d) hardware, software and operator reliability a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
Answer:d c) System error
Explanation: In a sociotechnical system, you need to d) System failure
consider reliability from all three perspectives.
7. There are ________ overlapping stages in the Answer:b
lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
systems. 2. An erroneous system state that can lead to system
a) two behavior that is unexpected by system users is
b) three known as?
c) four a) Human error or mistake
d) five b) System fault
c) System error
Answer:b d) System failure
Explanation: The stages are Procurement,
Development and Operation. Answer:c
8. Sociotechnical systems are deterministic. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
a) True 3. An event that occurs at some point in time when
b) False the system does not deliver a service as expected by
its users is called _____________.
Answer:b a) Human error or mistake
Explanation: Sociotechnical systems are non- b) System fault
deterministic partly because they include people and c) System error
d) System failure Answer:a
Explanation: The risk is assessed by considering the
Answer:d hazard probability, the hazard severity, and the
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. probability that the hazard will lead to an accident.
4. A chemical plant system may detect excessive 8. A weakness in a computer-based system that may
pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these be exploited to cause loss or harm is known as?
pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of a) Vulnerability
dependability and security issue the example states? b) Attack
a) Hazard avoidance c) Threat
b) Damage limitation d) Exposure
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:d 9. A password checking system that disallows user
Explanation: The system is designed so that hazards passwords that are proper names or words that are
are detected and removed before they result in an normally included in a dictionary is an example of
accident. ___________ with respect to security systems.
5. An aircraft engine normally includes automatic a) risk
fire extinguishers.What kind of dependability and b) control
security issue the example states? c) attack
a) Hazard avoidance b) asset
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection Answer:b
d) Hazard detection and removal Explanation: A control protective measure that
reduces a system’s vulnerability.
Answer:b 10. The safety of a system is a system attribute that
Explanation: The system may include protection reflects the system’s ability to operate, normally or
features that minimize the damage that may result abnormally, without injury to people or damage to
from an accident. the environment.
6. An assessment of the worst possible damage that a) True
could result from a particular hazard is known as b) False
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability Answer:a
c) Hazard severity Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
d) Mishap .

Answer:c - Dependability and Security Specification -

Explanation: Hazard severity can range from by mod2
catastrophic, where many people are killed, to “Dependability and Security Specification”.
minor, where only minor damage results. When an 1. How many stages are there in Risk-driven
individual death is a possibility, a reasonable requirements specification?
assessment of hazard severity is ‘very high’. a) three
7. which of the following terms is a measure of the b) four
probability that the system will cause an accident? c) five
a) Risk d) six
b) Hazard probability
c) Accident Answer:b
d) Damage Explanation: These include Risk identification, Risk
analysis, Risk reduction and Risk decomposition
2. Consider a case where the system is unavailable Answer:d
and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of Explanation: All the options are correct except
failure is being described here? option d.
a) Loss of service 7. To specify security requirements, one should
b) Incorrect service delivery identify the risks that are to be dealt with.
c) System/data corruption a) True
b) False
Answer:a
Explanation: One may separate this into loss of Answer:b
critical services and loss of non-critical services, Explanation: To specify security requirements, one
where the consequences of a failure in non-critical should identify the assets that are to be dealt with.
services are less than the consequences of critical 8. The aim of preliminary risk analysis and
service failure. assessment process is to derive security
3. Consider a case where the failure of the system requirements for the system as a whole.
causes damage to the system itself or it data. What a) True
type of failure is being described here? b) False
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery Answer:a
c) System/data corruption Explanation: In preliminary risk analysis stage,
decisions on the detailed system requirements, the
Answer:c system design, or the implementation technology
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. have not been made.
4. POFOD stands for 9. At which stage of risk analysis specification, the
a) Possibility of failure of data additional security requirements take account of the
b) Probability of failure of data technologies used in building the system and system
c) Possibility of failure on demand design and implementation decisions?
d) Probability of failure on demand a) Preliminary risk analysis
b) Life-cycle risk analysis
Answer:d c) Operational risk analysis
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
5. Which reliability metric sets out the probable Answer:b
number of system failures that are likely to be Explanation: This risk assessment takes place during
observed relative to a certain time period? the system development life cycle after design
a) POFOD choices have been made..
b) ROCOF 10. Which reliability requirements are concerned
c) AVAIL with maintaining copies of the system?
d) None of the mentioned a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
Answer:b c) Redundancy requirements
Explanation: Rate of occurrence of failures d) Ambiguous requirements
(ROCOF) sets out the probable number of system
failures that are likely to be observed relative to the Answer:b
number of system executions. Explanation: These requirements are geared to
6. Which of the following is not a functional helping the system recover after a failure has
reliability requirement for a system? occurred.
a) Checking requirements .
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements - Dependability Engineering -
d) Ambiguous requirements “Dependability Engineering”.
1. Which of the following examples does not c) System to shut down a reactor if
involve dependability engineering ? temperature/pressure are too high
a) Medical Systems
b) Power Systems Answer:b
c) Library Management Explanation: A Protection system is a specialized
d) Telecommunications system that is associated with some other control
system, which can take emergency action if a failure
Answer:c occurs.
Explanation: Software customers expect all software 6. The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is
to be dependable. However, for non-critical essential if faults in a system are to be minimized.
applications such as certain management systems, a) True
they may be willing to accept some system failures. b) False
2. What is the term for development process
organised such that faults in the system are detected Answer:a
and repaired before delivery to the customer ? Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
a) Fault Avoidance 7. Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve
b) Fault detection Software diversity ?
c) Fault tolerance a) Different programming languages
d) None of the mentioned b) Different design methods and tools
c) Explicit specification of different algorithms
Answer:a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: In Fault Avoidance, the system is
developed in such a way that human error is avoided Answer:d
and thus system faults are minimised. Explanation: Diversity means to provide the same
3. What is the term for a system that is designed functionality in different ways so that critical
such that the faults in the delivered software do not components of a dependable system will not fail in
result in system failure ? the same way.
a) Fault Avoidance 8. Exception handling is a mechanism to provide
b) Fault detection some fault avoidance.
c) Fault tolerance a) True
b) False
Answer:c
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. Answer:b
4. Which process characteristic with respect to Explanation: Exception handling is a mechanism to
Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the provide some fault tolerance.
statement: “The process should be understandable 9. Which of the following is a bad practice of
by people apart from process participants” ? Dependable programming ?
a) Diverse a) Limit the visibility of information in a program
b) Documentable b) Check array bounds
c) Auditable c) Check all inputs for validity
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:c
Explanation: It means that process standards are Answer:d
being followed and make suggestions for process Explanation: All the options are good practices to
improvement. achieve Dependability Engineering.
5. Which of the following is not a Protection 10. What is a Range check?
system ? a) Check that the input does not exceed some
a) System to stop a train if it passes a red light maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name
b) System to indicate not returning of the library b) Check that the input falls within a known range
book c) Use information about the input to check if it is
reasonable rather than an extreme value faults in the delivered software do not result in
system failure.
Answer:b 5. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. are unsuccessful is analogous to ____________ in
. dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
- Security Engineering - b) Fault tolerance
“Security Engineering”. c) Fault detection
1. Which of the following is a layer of protection for d) Fault Recovery
Security ?
a) Platform-level protection Answer:a
b) Application-level protection Explanation: In Fault avoidance the system is
c) Record-level protection developed in such a way that human error is avoided
d) All of the mentioned and thus system faults are minimised.
6. What is Life cycle risk assessment ?
Answer:d a) Risk assessment after the system has been
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. deployed
2. Security engineering is only concerned with b) Risk assessment while the system is being
maintenance of systems such that they can resist developed
malicious attacks. c) Both a and b
a) True
b) False Answer:c
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:b 7. A system resource that has a value and has to be
Explanation: Security engineering is concerned with protected is known as
maintenance as well as development of such a) Asset
systems. b) Control
3. What are security controls ? c) Vulnerability
a) Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks d) None of the mentioned
are unsuccessful.
b) Controls that are intended to detect and repel Answer:a
attacks. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) Controls that are intended to support recovery 8. An impersonation of an authorised user is an
from problems. example of a security threat.
d) All of the mentioned a) True
b) False
Answer:d
Explanation: All the options define a security Answer:b
control property. Explanation: It is a security attack.
4. Controls that are intended to repel attacks is 9. The records of each patient that is receiving or has
analogous to ____________ in dependability received treatment resembles which security concept
engineering. ?
a) Fault avoidance a) Asset
b) Fault tolerance b) Threat
c) Fault detection c) Vulnerability
d) None of the mentioned d) Control

Answer:b Answer:a
Explanation: Here the system is designed so that Explanation: Asset is a system resource that has a
value and has to be protected.
10. Circumstances that have potential to cause loss through the model
or harm is known as
a) Attack Answer:b
b) Threat Explanation: Model checking is very expensive.It is
c) Vulnerability only practical to use it in the verification of small to
d) Control medium sized critical systems.
5. Choose the fault class in which the following
Answer:b automated static analysis check would
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. fall:”Variables declared but never used”.
. a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
- Dependability and Security Assurance - c) Input/Output Faults
“Dependability and Security Assurance”. d) Interface faults
1. Static Analysis involves executing a program.
a) True Answer:b
b) False Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
6. Choose the fault class in which the following
Answer:b automated static analysis check would fall:
Explanation: Static analysis techniques are system “Unreachable code”.
verification techniques that don’t involve executing a) Control Faults
a program. b) Data Faults
2. Which of the following is a technique covered in c) Input/Output Faults
Static Analysis ? d) Interface faults
a) Formal verification
b) Model checking Answer:a
c) Automated program analysis Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
d) All of the mentioned 7. Choose the fault class in which the following
automated static analysis check would fall:”Non-
Answer:d usage of the results of functions”.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. a) Storage management faults
3. Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods b) Data Faults
a) Concurrent systems can be analysed to discover c) Input/Output Faults
race conditions that might lead to deadlock. d) Interface faults
b) Producing a mathematical specification requires a
detailed analysis of the requirements Answer:d
c) They require the use of specialised notations that Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
cannot be understood by domain experts 8. Static analysis is now routinely used in the
development of many safety and security critical
Answer:c systems.
Explanation: Formal methods are the ultimate static a) True
verification technique that may be used at different b) False
stages in the development process.
4. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Answer:a
Model Checking? Explanation: The static analyzer can discover areas
a) Model checking is particularly valuable for of vulnerability such as buffer overflows or
verifying concurrent systems unchecked inputs
b) Model checking is computationally very 9. Which level of Static Analysis allows specific
inexpensive rules that apply to a program to be checked ?
c) The model checker explores all possible paths a) Characteristic error checking
b) User-defined error checking
c) Assertion checking 4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the
____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of
Answer:b the goals and objectives of the project.
Explanation: Users of a programming language a) documentation
define error patterns, thus extending the types of b) flowchart
error that can be detected. c) program specification
10. Choose the fault class in which the following d) design
automated static analysis check would fall:”Pointer
Arithmetic”. Answer:c
a) Storage management faults Explanation: Program specification is the definition
b) Data Faults of what a computer program is expected to do.
c) Input/Output Faults 5. Actual programming of software code is done
d) Interface faults during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
Answer:a b) Design
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. c) Analysis
. d) Development and Documentation

- Software Design - Answer:d

by mod2 Explanation: The developer has to find in the
“Software Design”. technical documentation enough information to start
1. Which is the first step in the software coding.
development life cycle ? 6. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Analysis a) Programmers
b) Design b) Project managers
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification c) Technical writers
d) Development and Documentation d) Database administrators

Answer:c Answer:d
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. Explanation: The role of database administrators
2. Which tool is use for structured designing ? includes the development and design of database
a) Program flowchart strategies, system monitoring and improving
b) Structure chart database performance and capacity, and planning for
c) Data-flow diagram future expansion requirements.
d) Module 7. ____________ is the process of translating a task
into a series of commands that a computer will use
Answer:b to perform that task.
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software a) Project design
engineering and organizational theory, is a chart b) Installation
which shows the breakdown of a system to its c) Systems analysis
lowest manageable levels. d) Programming
3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem
is known as Answer:d
a) Sequential structure Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
b) A List 8. Debugging is:
c) A plan a) creating program code.
d) An Algorithm b) finding and correcting errors in the program code.
c) identifying the task to be computerized.
Answer:d d) creating the algorithm.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer: world.
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of
finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, Answer:d
in a computer program or a piece of electronic Explanation: Coupling between
hardware, thus making it behave as expected. modules/components is their degree of mutual
9. In Desigin phase, which is the primary area of interdependence.
concern ? .
a) Architecture
b) Data - Modularity in Software Design -
c) Interface “Modularity in Software Design”.
d) All of the mentioned 1. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are
examples of__________
Answer:d a) Functions
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create b) Modules
structural and behavioral models of the system c) Classes
which is covered by architecture, data and the d) Sub procedures
interface of the product.
10. The importance of software design can be Answer:b
summarized in a single word which is: Explanation: A modular system consist of well
a) Efficiency defined manageable units with well defined
b) Accuracy interfaces among the units.
c) Quality 2. Which of the property of software modularity is
d) Complexity incorrect with respect to benefits software
modularity?
Answer:c a) Modules are robust.
Explanation: Software functional quality reflects b) Module can use other modules
how well it complies with or conforms to a given c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored
design, based on functional requirements or in a library.
specifications. d) Modules are mostly dependent.
11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree
to which a module Answer:d
a) can be written more compactly. Explanation: Modularity cannot bring benefits
b) focuses on just one thing. unless the modules are autonomous or independent.
c) is able to complete its function in a timely 3. _______________ is a measure of the degree of
manner. interdependence between modules.
d) is connected to other modules and the outside a) Cohesion
world. b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single Answer:b
module/component is the degree to which its Explanation: Coupling or dependency is the degree
responsibilities form a meaningful unit. to which each program module relies on each one of
12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree the other modules.
to which a module 4. Which of the following is the best type of module
a) can be written more compactly. coupling?
b) focuses on just one thing. a) Control Coupling
c) is able to complete its function in a timely b) Stamp Coupling
manner. c) Data Coupling
d) is connected to other modules and the outside d) Content Coupling
Answer:c 9. In what type of coupling, the complete data
Explanation: The dependency between module A structure is passed from one module to another?
and B is said to be data coupled if their dependency a) Control Coupling
is based on the fact they communicate by only b) Stamp Coupling
passing of data. c) External Coupling
5. Which of the following is the worst type of d) Content Coupling
module coupling?
a) Control Coupling Answer:b
b) Stamp Coupling Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) External Coupling 10. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-
d) Content Coupling span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
Answer:c b) Temporal Cohesion
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when module c) Functional Cohesion
A changes data of module B or when control is d) Sequential Cohesion
passed from one module to the middle of another.
6. Which of the following is the worst type of Answer:b
module cohesion? Explanation: A Module exhibits temporal cohesion
a) Logical Cohesion when it contains tasks that are related by the fact that
b) Temporal Cohesion all tasks must be executed in the same time-span.
c) Functional Cohesion .
d) Coincidental Cohesion
- Function Oriented Software Design -
Answer:d “Function Oriented Software Design”.
Explanation: Coincidental cohesion exists in 1. Choose the option that does not define Function
modules that contain instructions that have little or Oriented Software Design.
no relationship to one another. a) It consists of module definitions
7. Which of the following is the best type of module b) Modules represent data abstraction
cohesion? c) Modules support functional abstraction
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion Answer:b
c) Functional Cohesion Explanation: Option b defines an Object Oriented
d) Sequential Cohesion Design.
2. Which of the following is a complementary
Answer:a approach to function-oriented approach ?
Explanation: Functional Cohesion is a type of a) Object oriented analysis
cohesion in which the tasks performed by a software b) Object oriented design
module all contribute to the performance of a single c) Structured approach
function. d) Both a and b
8. A software engineer must design the modules
with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling. Answer:d
a) True Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
b) False 3. Function-oriented design techniques starts with
functional requirements specified in
Answer:a a) SDD
Explanation: If the software is not properly b) SRS
modularized, a host of seemingly trivial c) None of the mentioned
enhancement or changes will result into death of the
project. Answer:b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
4. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of activities.
a) Top-down decomposition approach a) True
b) Divide and conquer principle b) False
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
d) All of the mentioned Answer:b
Explanation: It is an object oriented design
Answer:d whichfocus on entities.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. 10. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is
5. Which of the following is/are true with respect to denoted by
functions ? a) Circle
a) A function such as “search-book” is represented b) Arrow
using a circle. c) Rectangle
b) Functions represent some activity d) Triangle
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or
a bubble in DFD Answer:a
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
.
Answer:d
Explanation: All the options are correct with respect - Function Oriented Design using Structured
to Function Oriented Software Design. Analysis Structured Design -
6. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE “Function Oriented Design using Structured
tool ? Analysis Structured Design”.
a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD) 1. SA/SD features are obtained from which of the
b) Maintains the data dictionary methodologies?
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not a) Constantine and Yourdon’s methodology
d) It complies with the available system. b) DeMarco and Yourdon’s methodology
c) Gane and Sarson’s methodology
Answer:d d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: It takes long time to establish the
system in order to comply with the available system. Answer:d
7. What DFD notation is represented by the Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Rectangle? 2. Which of the following is not an activity of
a) Transform Structured Analysis (SA) ?
b) Data Store a) Functional decomposition
c) Function b) Transformation of a textual problem description
d) None of the mentioned into a graphic model
c) All the functions represented in the DFD are
Answer:b mapped to a module structure
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
8. Structural decomposition is concerned with Answer:c
function calls. Explanation: The module structure is the software
a) True architecture.
b) False 3. To arrive at a form which is suitable for
implementation in some programming language is
Answer:a the purpose of
Explanation: Structural decomposition is concerned a) Structured Analysis (SA)
with developing a model of the design which shows b) Structured Design (SD)
the dynamic structure. c) Detailed Design (DD)
9. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities d) None of the mentioned
in the system rather than the data processing
Answer:b (SA/SD).
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. b) Maintaining the data dictionary,
4. The results of structured analysis can be easily c) Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not
understood by ordinary customers. d) Al of the mentioned
a) True
b) False Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:a 10. Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a
Explanation: The results of structured analysis a) Physical file
directly represents customer’s perception of the b) Data Structure
problem and uses customer’s terminology for c) Logical file
naming different functions and data. d) All of the mentioned
5. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of
Bottom-Up Approach. Answer:d
a) True Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or
b) False a physical file on disk.
.
Answer:b
Explanation: Structured Analysis follows uses - Object Oriented Software Design - 1 -
decomposition approach. “Object Oriented Software Design – 1”.
6. The context diagram is also known as 1. Choose the incorrect statement in terms of
a) Level-0 DFD Objects.
b) Level-1 DFD a) Objects are abstractions of real-world.
c) Level-2 DFD b) Objects can’t manage themselves.
c) Objects encapsulate state and representation
Answer:a information.
Explanation: Context diagram captures the various
entities external to the system interacting with it and Answer:b
data flow occurring between the system and the Explanation: Objects are independent.
external entities. 2. What encapsulates both data and data
7. A directed arc or line in DFD represents manipulation functions ?
a) Data Store a) Object
b) Data Process b) Class
c) Data Flow c) Super Class
d) Sub Class
Answer:c
Explanation: It resembles data flow in the direction Answer:a
of the arrow. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
8. A DFD is always accompanied by a data 3. Which of the following is a mechanism that
dictionary. allows several objects in an class hierarchy to have
a) True different methods with the same name?
b) False a) Aggregation
b) Polymorphism
Answer:a c) Inheritance
Explanation: A data dictionary lists all data items
appearing in a DFD including definition and data Answer:b
names. Explanation: In polymorphism instances of each
9. Which of the following is a function of CASE subclass will be free to respond to messages by
Tool? calling their own version of the method.
a) Supporting Structured analysis and design
4. Inherited object classes are self-contained. a) Active Object
a) True b) Passive Object
b) False c) Multiple instance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Inherited object classes are not self- Answer:b
contained. They cannot be understood without Explanation: A passive object holds data, but does
reference to their super-classes. not initiate control.
5. Which of the following points related to Object- 10. Objects are executed
oriented development (OOD) is true? a) sequentially
a) OOA is concerned with developing an object b) in Parallel
model of the application domain c) Both a and b
b) OOD is concerned with developing an object-
oriented system model to implement requirements. Answer:c
c) Both a and b Explanation: Objects may be distributed and may
d) None of the mentioned execute
sequentially or in parallel.
Answer:c .
Explanation: The answer is in support with the
OOD. - Object Oriented Software Design - 2 -
6. How is generalization implemented in Object “Object Oriented Software Design – 2”.
Oriented programming languages? 1. How many layers are present in the OO design
a) Inheritance pyramid?
b) Polymorphism a) three
c) Encapsulation b) four
d) Abstract Classes c) five

Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. Explanation: The four layers are: Subsystem layer,
7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of class and object layer, message layer and
OOD ? responsibilities layer
a) Easier maintenance. 2. Which of the following early OOD methods
b) Objects may be incorporates both a “micro development process”
understood as stand-alone entities. and a “macro development process.” ?
c) Objects are potentially reusable components. a) Booch method
d) None of the mentioned b) Rumbaugh method
c) Wirfs-Brock method
Answer:d d) Coad and Yourdon method
Explanation: All the options define the
characteristics of OOD. Answer:a
8. Which of the following describes”Is-a- Explanation: The macro development process
Relationship” ? includes the architectural planning and micro
a) Aggregation developments process defines rules that govern the
b) Inheritance use of operations and attributes and the domain-
c) Dependency specific
policies for memory management, error handling,
Answer:b and other infrastructure
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. functions.
9. Object that collects data on request rather than 3. Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar
autonomously is known as Jacobson combined the best features of their
individual object-oriented analysis into a new 8. Throughout the OOD process, a software engineer
method for object oriented design known as should look for every opportunity for creating new
a) HTML design process.
b) XML a) True
c) UML b) False
d) SGML
Answer:b
Answer:c Explanation: A software engineer should look for
Explanation: The Unified Modeling Language every opportunity to reuse existing design patterns
(UML) has become whenever they meet the needs of the design rather
widely used throughout the industry as the standard than creating new ones.
approach to OOD. .
4. A design description of an object is known as a
class - Types of Software Metrics -
a) instance by mod2
b) object “Types of Software Metrics “.
c) case 1. Which of the following is the task of project
d) both a and b indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project.
Answer:d b) track potential risk
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. c) both a and b
5. Which of the following is conceptually similar to d) none of the mentioned
objects?
a) PACKAGE Answer:c
b) PROC Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) PRIVATE 2. Which of the following does not affect the
software quality and organizational performance?
Answer:a a) Market
Explanation: A package is a namespace that b) Product
organizes a set of related classes and interfaces. c) Technology
6. A design description in OOD includes d) People
a) Protocol Description
b) Implementation Description Answer:a
c) Type Description Explanation: Market is a collection of competitors,
d) both a and b stakeholders, users each having different views on
the product. So it does not affect the software
Answer:d quality.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. 3. The intent of project metrics is:
7. Which of the following is not an operation as per a) minimization of development schedule
OOD algorithms and data structures? b) for strategic purposes
a) operations that manipulate data in some way c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
b) operations that perform a computation d) both a and c
c) operations that check for syntax errors
d) operations that monitor an object for the Answer:d
occurrence of a controlling event. Explanation: A project metric is a quantitative
measure of the degree to which a system, component
Answer: or process possesses an attribute.
Explanation: Option c is incorrect as it is concerned 4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of
with the programming language used, so it will be SE process?
handled by the compiler. a) Efficiency
b) Cost d) All of the mentioned
c) Effort Applied
d) All of the mentioned Answer:c
Explanation: Others options are formulaes.
Answer:a 10. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
Explanation: Efficiency is an indirect measure. a) E – errors found before software delivery
5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of b) D – defects found after delivery to user
product? c) both E and D
a) Quality d) Varies with project
b) Complexity
c) Reliability Answer:c
d) All of the Mentioned Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).
.
Answer:d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are indirect - Web Engineering Project Metrics -
measures of a product. “Web Engineering Project Metrics”.
6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed 1. The user has no control over the contents of a
based on the ____________________. static web page.
a) number of Functions a) True
b) number of user inputs b) False
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage Answer:a
Explanation: Static web pages are just for
Answer:c information purposes.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. 2. Which metric gives the idea about the contents on
7. Which of the following is not an information a web page ?
domain required for determining function point in a) Word Token
FPA ? b) Word Count
a) Number of user Input c) Word Size
b) Number of user Inquiries d) Word Length
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors Answer:b
Explanation: The word count metric gives the total
Answer:d number of words on a web page.
Explanation: FPA includes five domains namely 3. How is the complexity of a web page related to
input, output, inquiries, interface and logical files. link count ?
8. Usability can be measured in terms of: a) Directly
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system b) Indirectly
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in c) No relation
system usage
c) Net increase in productivity Answer:a
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: If link count is more, complexity will
be more.
Answer:d 4. It is expected to have less number of connections
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. for a good web application.
9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and a) True
variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as b) False
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
b) Function points analysis Answer:a
c) Control Chart Explanation: More the link count, more the
complexity and the web page dependence factor will b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
increase. c) Number of Inherited Objects
5. Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea d) Word Count
about________ for a web page that is to be built.
a) size Answer:c
b) complexity Explanation: There is no such metric as an inherited
c) effort object’s count.
d) All of the mentioned .

Answer:d - Metrics Analysis -

Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. “Metrics Analysis”.
6. Which of the following web engineering metric 1. Which of the following is not a metric for design
measures the extent of relatedness between two or model?
more web pages ? a) Interface design metrics
a) Number of Static Content Objects b) Component-level metrics
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects c) Architectural metrics
c) Web Page Similarity d) Complexity metrics
d) Number of Internal Page Links
Answer:d
Answer:c Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. logical complexity of source code.
7. Which of the following is not a classification of 2. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
the web engineering metric, Web Page Similarity ? a) Analysis Model
a) Content based b) Testing
b) Link based c) Design Model
c) Usage based d) Source Code
d) Traffic based
Answer:b
Answer:d Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test
Explanation: Similarity between two web pages is cases that provide program coverage.
not judged upon its traffic activity. 3. Function Points in software engineering was first
8. The static content objects are dependent on the proposed by
actions of the user. a) Booch
a) True b) Boehm
b) False c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
Answer:b
Explanation: Dynamic Objects are user dependent Answer:c
9. Link based measures rely on ___________ Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979,
structure of a web graph to obtain related pages. hundreds of books and papers have been written on
a) Embedded functions points since then.
b) Hyperlink 4. How many Information Domain Values are used
c) Dynamic for Function Point Computation?
a) three
Answer:b b) four
Explanation: Only option b answers the blank, rest c) five
are not in accordance to the question. d) six
10. Which of the following is not a web engineering
project metric ? Answer:c
a) Number of Static Content Objects Explanation: The five values are: External Inputs,
External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal 10. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the
Logical Files and External Interface Files. number of modules
5. Function Point Computation is given by the a) in the current release
formula b) in the current release that have been changed
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi) c) from the preceding release that were deleted in
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)] c) FP = the current release
count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:b 11. The amount of time that the software is available
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for for use is known as
Function Point Computation. a) Reliability
6. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in b) Usability
nature. c) Efficiency
a) Black Box d) Functionality
b) White Box
c) Gray Box Answer:a
d) Green Box Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
12. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the
Answer:a degree to which the software
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do a) stated needs.
not require any knowledge of the inner workings of b) is easy to use.
a particular software component. c) makes optimal use of system resources.
7. Structural complexity of a module i is given as
S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here? Answer:b
a) “fan check-out” of module i Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
b) “fan check-in” of module i .
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i - Metrics for Quality Control -
“Metrics for Quality Control”.
Answer:d 1. Size and Complexity are a part of
Explanation: Fan out is number of modules directly a) Product Metrics
invoked by module i. b) Process Metrics
8. SMI stands for c) Project Metrics
a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index Answer:a
c) Software Mature Index Explanation: Product Metrics describe the
d) Software Maturity Indicator characteristics of product.
2. Cost and schedule are a part of
Answer:b a) Product Metrics
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. b) Process Metrics
9. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product c) Project Metrics
starts becoming unstable
a) True Answer:c
b) False Explanation: Project Metrics describe the project
characteristics and execution.
Answer:b 3. Number of errors found per person hours
Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the expended is an example of a
software product begins to stabilize. a) measurement
b) measure
c) metric Answer:b
Explanation: Measurement is the act of obtaining a
Answer:c measure.
Explanation: Metric is a quantitative measure of the 9. MTTC falls the the category of
degree to which a system, component, or process a) Correctness:
possesses a given attribute. b) integrity
4. Which of the following is not categorized under c) maintainability
Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality
Factors? Answer:c
a) Flexibility Explanation: Mean time to change (MTTC) is the
b) Reliability time it takes to analyze the change request, design an
c) Usability appropriate modification, implement the change, test
d) Integrity it, and distribute the change to all users.
10. Identify the correct option with reference to
Answer:a Software Quality Metrics.
Explanation: Flexibility is a part of Product revision a) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
as per McCall’s Software Quality Factors. b) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
5. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What c) Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)] d)
does ‘a’ represent in the ratio? Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]
a) maximum number of nodes at any level Answer:d
b) longest path from the root to a leaf Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) number of modules .
d) lines of control

Answer:d
Explanation: ‘a’ represents the arcs or the lines of
control.
6. Which of the following is not categorized under
Component-Level Design Metrics?
a) Complexity Metrics
b) Cohesion Metrics
c) Morphology Metrics
d) Coupling Metrics

Answer:c
Explanation: Morphology metrics are a part of High
level design metrics.
7. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a
part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics

Answer:b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
8. Metric is the act of obtaining a measure.
a) True
b) False