UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR

PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR, CALABAR

PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTIONS
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UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Choose the expression or word which BEST COMPLETES each sentence

1. I am intent __________ continuing my course
A. on B. with C. as D. to E. at
2. _________ equations use letters to stand for numbers
A. Silmultenous B. Simultanous
C.Simultanous D. Simultaneous
From the options A to D, choose the expression that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the underlined
word(s).
3. Elemi‟s sagacity contrasted sharply with his friend‟s_____________
A. Timidity B. Wisdom C. Fluency D. Foolishness
4. Some people keep ferocious animals as pets.
A. Gentle B. Wild C. Fierce D. Domestic
From the options listed A – D select the word that best CAPTURES THE MEANING of the italicized
part of the sentences
5. Every visitor to Calabar must visit where photographs and artifacts of early European colonial
presence in Nigeria are kept
A. Archives B. Ranch C. Market D. museum
From the options A to D, choose the expression that is NEAREST IN MEANING to the underlined
word
6. Ebire‟s generosity turned out to be her Achilles’ heel
A. Strong point B. Favourite habit C. Weak point D. Less popular virtue

Choose the expression or word which BEST COMPLETES each sentence

7. The giant hydro-electric project is among the ________ of colonial rule in Southern Africa
A. Inheritance B. Remnants C. Legacies D. Evidence
8. Ukpabio is proficient _______ tailoring
A. With B. In C. Of D. At
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the underlined
9. The demonstration was organized by hoodlums
A. Criminals B. Activists C. Thugs D. Soldiers
10. The plaintiff convinced the court that the murder was inadvertent
A. Brutal B. Wicked C. Careless D. Premeditated
11. The bush burning festival will further renew our forest resource
A. Increase B. Reduce C. Deplete D. Remove
Choose from the options lettered A – E the one that has the correct stress with the word given. In
each word only the stressed part is in CAPITAL
12. Planetarium
A. PLAN-e-tar-i-um B. plan-E-tar-i-um C. plan-e-TAR-i-um D .plan-e-tar-I-um
Choose from the options the word which has THE SAME SOUND as the underlined
13. COURTESY A. our B. Court C. Shirt D. Tour
From the options listed A – D select the word that best CAPTURES THE MEANING of the italicized
part of the sentences.
14. Lecturers assisted Prof. Atahiru Jega when Nigerians chose their political leaders
A. election B. nomination C. appointment D. selection
15. Mother always pays attention to details
A. frivolous B. interesting C. rigid D. meticulous
Choose the option that BEST EXPLAINS the information conveyed in the sentences below
16. The rampage in England shows that youths react the same way under provocation
A.youths in England are very good B.youths in England are miscreants
C.youths act the same way when provoked D.youths provoke people in England
From the options choose the appropriate STRESS pattern. The stressed syllables are written in
CAPITAL letters.
17. Intimacy
A. INtimacy B. inTImacy C. intiMAcy D. INTImacy
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

18. consideration
A. CONsideration B. consideration C. consiDERation D. considerAtion
From the words lettered A – D choose the word that rhymes with the given word
19. purity
A. plentiful B. security C. purify D. nonentity
From the words lettered A – D choose the word that rhymes with the given word
20. beautiful
A. beautify B. beautification C. dutiful D. dignify
Choose from the options lettered A – E the one that has the correct stress with the word given. In
each word only the stressed part is in CAPITAL
21. constitutional
A.con-sti-tu-tion-AL B.con-sti-TU-tion-al C.CON-sti-tu-tion-al D.con-STI-tu-tion-al
22. abnormality
A.AB-nor-ma-li-ty B.ab-nor-ma-li-TY C.ab-nor-ma-LI-ty D.ab-nor-MA-li-ty
From the options A to D, choose the expression that is NEAREST IN MEANING to the underlined
word
23. The use of Latin expressions in English is now dated
A. well-established B. historical C. old- fashioned D. popular
24. His uncle showed affected interest in his welfare.
A. pretended B. loving C. genuine D. deep
From the options choose the expression that BEST COMPLETES each sentence
25. I am qualified for the job; ----?
A. haven‟t I B. Isn‟t it C. aren‟t I D. ain‟t I
26. My sister along with her colleagues-----the museum today.
A. are visiting B. have visited C. were visiting D. is visiting
Choose the word that has the SAME SOUND as the one represented by the underlined letter
27. mansion
A.cheap B.leisure C.peace D.action
28. time
A.print B.might C.flip D.illegal
From the options choose the expression that BEST COMPLETES each sentence.
29. Every student _______before the principal entered the hall
A. has arrived B. have arrived C. had arrived D. arrived
30. The workers presented __________ to the National Assembly
A. five pages document B. five-paged document
C. a five - paged document D. a five - page document
From the options A to D, choose the expression that is NEAREST IN MEANING to the underlined
word(s).
31. A dogged student is likely to succeed
A. Studious B. Clever C. Curious D.Determined
Choose the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence below
32. When I visited Okon I only gave him a congratulatory card
A.the only person I visited was Okon and nobody else
B. it was only Okon that I gave a congratulatory card
C.Okon only wanted a congratulatory card
D.All that I gave Okon when I visited him was a congratulatory card
From the options choose the expression that BEST COMPLETES each sentence
33. The police ------------up a list of suspects in the recent bombings.
A.Has drawned B. Has drawn C. have drawned D. Have drawn
Choose the word that has the same sound as the one represented by the underlined letter
34. book
A.lamb B.flock C.slump D.club
35. key
Akite B.quay C.kindred D.quarter
Choose the expression or word which best completes each sentence
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

36. Since Atim hasn‟t come till now I am in doubt ________ what to do
A. to B. with C. about D. of
37. The method ________ does not give the expected results
A. you recommended B. you visited C. you told me D. you sent me
From the options listed A – E select the word that best captures the meaning of the italicized part
of the sentences
38. Wolves are meat eaters
A. herbivores B. carnivores C. animals D. omnivores
39. Miss Suzuki has published the life stories of three movies stars
A. historian B. autobiographer C. writer D. biographer
40. Most of the birds my grandfather described are no longer available in our village forest
A. travelled B. migrated C. hibernated D. extinct

Select the word that best captures the meaning of the italicised part of the sentence.
41. The principles of American government are the direct opposite of communist doctrine
A. apex B. antithesis C. anathema D. ambivalence
42. Superstition has it that certain foods and drinks are able to increase sexual desire or potency
A. Apocryphal B. Amorous C. Amorphous D. Aphrodisiac
43. Collins had little understanding of the game, and most of his moves were random, based on caprice
rather than reasoning
A. Assiduous B. Astute C. Arbitrary D. Acute
44. Eddy vowed to live a long and happy life, shun temptation and avoid extremes
A. Deny B. Devolve C. Eschew D. Emulate

Choose the expression or word which best completes each sentence.

45. By the end of this year _______ in this town for eleven years
A. I‟m living B. I‟d be living C. I have lived D. I‟ll have lived

Fill in the blank in the following sentences making use of the best of the five options.
46. He was reported_____ the policeman
A. to be assaulting B. to assault
C. assaulting D. to have assaulted
47. He devoted himself_____ homeless children
A. to helping B. to help C. with helping D. helping
48. My younger brother looked ill last night and evidently______ this morning.
A. Worse B. Worst C. More ill D. leaner

After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence:
49. For us to succeed in this task all hands must be on deck. This means that everybody
A. should push with his hands B. will have to place his hands on the deck
C. must cooperate D. should take a test to qualify
50. Kate was at home with all the questions asked by the examiner. This means that Kate was:
A. Familiar with the questions B. Went home with the questions
C. Prepared to go home with the questions D. Conceited about the questions
51. Mike flies off the handle each time there is an argument. This means:
A. Mike holds the door handle when he argues B. Mike allows the handle to fly
C. Mike easily loses his temper D. Mike can cope with any argument

Complete the following sentences with the right option from the words supplied after each sentence.
52. When the fire broke out in the hostel, students in _________ rushed out in all directions.
A. Crisis B. Panic C. Haste D. Hurry
53. Astronomers keep a close watch of the night sky in order not to miss the _________ appearance of
some stars
A. Parallel B. Periodic C. Regular D. Constant
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

Choose the word or phrase from options A-D which has the nearest meaning to the underlined word or
words in each sentence.
54. My mother has refused to come to live in Lagos because she prefers the tranquil life in the village to
the hurly burly of the city.
A. Sweet B. Prosperous C. Peaceful D. Decent
55. A lorry larger than an elephant was struck on the bridge
A. As large as an elephant B. Carrying an elephant.
C. That looked like an elephant D. Of enormous proportions.

Choose the option that best completes the sentence.

56. The dentist found that his patient‟s teeth___
A. Have long decayed B. Have long been decayed
C. Have long being decayed D. Had long decayed
57. In order to catty out the necessary examination, the dead body was_____
A. Extracted B. Exhumed C. Extradited D. Expelled
58. He went abroad with a view_____ a business partner
A. To fund B. To funding C. To be funding D. To have funded

In question 59, which of the options express the same idea as the one in quote?
59. „To put something aside‟ is to
A. Put it one‟s side. B. Put it in a side pocket for future use.
C. Keep something for some special purpose. D. Keep in safety.

Select the option that best explains the sentence:

60. The painting was beautifully faked
A. The painting was a good deceptive replica B. The painting was well framed and displayed
C. The painting was deceptively decorated D. The painting was carefully hung

From the alternatives provided select the one which best completes the sentence
61. If only I ________ insured? But I wasn‟t. But I have to pay a lot of money
A. am B. have been C. had been D. was to be
62. Since the petition writer did not include his name, the vice chancellor refused to act on
such_________ letter
A. a spontaneous B. an anonymous C. a scandalous D. a cowardly
63. The first graduation ceremony of the university was attended by men from all _______ of life
A. works B. areas C. walks D. walk

Choose the word or phrase from options A – D which has the nearest meaning to the underlined word or
words in each sentence
64. He should be able to do it alone
A. he would be able to do it alone B. he ought to be able to do it alone
C. he has to be able to do it alone D. he will do it alone
65. The old man was said to have died intestate
A. without an estate B. in his estate
C. without a will D. in good state

From the alternatives provided select the one which best completes the sentence
66. If only I ________ insured? But I wasn‟t. But I have to pay a lot of money
A. am B. have been C. had been D. was to be
67. Since the petition writer did not include his name, the vice chancellor refused to act on
such_________ letter
A. a spontaneous B. an anonymous C. a scandalous D. a cowardly
68. The first graduation ceremony of the university was attended by men from all _______ of life
A. works B. areas C. walks D. walk
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

Choose the word or phrase from options A – D which has the nearest meaning to the underlined word or
words in each sentence
69. He should be able to do it alone
A. he would be able to do it alone B. he ought to be able to do it alone
C. he has to be able to do it alone D. he will do it alone
70. The old man was said to have died intestate
A. without an estate B. in his estate C. without a will D. in good state

In each of the following questions, the word in capital letter has the emphatic stress. Choose the option
that best fits the expression in the sentence.
71. The man BOUGHT the newspaper
A. Is this the newspaper which the man bought? B. Did the man read the newspaper?
C. Who bought the newspaper? D. What did the man buy?
72. The chief RAN to the place
A. Where did the chief run to? B. Did the chief walk to the place?
C. Did the princess run to the place D. Who ran to the place?

From the options lettered A – D choose the word opposite in meaning to the underlined words in the
following sentences
73. Ebere‟s _________ contrasts with his brother‟s indolence
A. indulgence B. laziness C. labour D. diligence
74. The discussion ended on an amicable note even though there was grave _________ at the beginning
A. hostility B. incompatibility C. irresponsibility D. camaraderie

Select the word that best captures the meaning of the italicized part of the sentence
75. Some politicians in the area were said to be engaged in double dealing
A. eschewing B. effeteness C. duplicity D. dubiousness
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check MORE OF OUR STUDENTS RESULTS below:

HOW TO GAIN ADMISSION EASILY FOR JAMB UTME AND DIRECT ENTRY
CANDIDATES .

The Information I'll be sharing is outmost importance, while this information isn't new, the
proceedings to achieve it is new.
This is going to be a long article, and it'll be absolutely worth reading..
If you need more information about gaining admission join the group link below.
https://chat.whatsapp.com/Lj7P4e3LpdoC7lQPygzbHI

NOTE : ( THERE is no general JAMB cutoff mark, each university can set up a cutoff mark, both for
jamb and admission, so whenever you see "CUTOFF" on this post I'm referring to the university's
JAMB score cutoff mark).

Let's get started, as we all know Universities admits candidates on 3 criteria MERIT(45%),
CATCHMENT(30%), ELDS(25%).

The Main target of this post is to focus on ELDS( EDUCATIONALLY LESS DEVELOPED STATES) AND SEE
HOW YOU CAN TAKE Advantage of THAT, and it's loopholes.
There are a total of 23 states that fall under ELDS( 3 Southern states and 19 Northern states).

For this to work for you, you must have met the jamb score cutoff Mark for the university you're
interested in applying too, if you didn't meet your university of choice jamb cutoff mark just stop
reading this post here and click the link below:
https://wa.me/c/2349033359054

For this to be understood I'll be using an example that worked recently for a 2024 Admission
applicant..
So a candidate named Ebeh Chubuike Adam, From Anambra state scored 212 in Jamb has an average
Olevel Result and wants to study Medicine and Surgery in the University of Lagos..
Judging by his results even if he scores 25/30 in PUTMe it's Unlikely he meets the university of Lagos
cutoff for Medicine...
So what did I advice?

Step one : Data correction, Evans should Shorten his name on JAMB to Ebeh, C. Adam
(if you're going to do this ensure you don't have two tribal names showing for instance you're
Adebayo Dayo Elijah change your name to (Dayo, A. Elijah) Adopt an initial to hide one of your tribal
name.
So you're thinking won't the name on your WAEC results be different from that on JAMB, Well calm
down the aim of this process is to ensure you get the admission after that everything will be reversed
just make sure you read this post completely..

Step two : Change State of Origin, Now this is the part that needs a thorough review and research,
NOT EVERY ELDS STATE IS WORTH CHANGING TOO...
The best states to change to are
Northwest(Kebbi, Jigawa)
Northcentral(Nasarawa,Niger, Plateau)
Northeast( Borno, Adamawa)
Southern region( Ebonyi, Rivers, Bayelsa) ( I honestly won't advise anyone to change to anyone of the
southern states..
How to know the right state to pick, Go and download the admission list of your preferred university,
take a look at the names and state of those admitted for your chosen course, some universities reveal
the names and state of origin so through that you can make your own decision...
Using my early example ,
So Ebeh.C. Divine, Changed his state of origin to Nasarawa state, change Local government area to
Obi Local government..
After Making the changes what do you do? you wait! ( note you can make this changes before the
University releases the first Admission List or After the admission list but the sooner you do it the
brighter your chance, but the best time to do this is when registering for JAMB EXAM, or before
registration of PUTME)

Step 3: So after gaining admission what next, CHANGING The name back would be easy as well as the
state of origin..
But sometimes it takes time for the state of origin to change back, that's why you'll need to get an
affidavit of origin and indemnification preferably at any High Court ..
I'll explain why, sometimes when candidate’s gain the admission and they've changed back but on
jamb it's still showing the fake state, there's a process every university does for newly admitted
students called Clearance, before clearance each student is to login to their individual portals and
upload details and fill in biodata.
And after doing that you'd also have to go to the school and present documents to either the faculty
or department, now imagine on your admission letter its saying Nasarawa state, Obi LGA and on the
university portal you inputed Anambra State, Ihiala LGA you see that's a messy situation..
If that happens only the Affidavit will get you out, you present the affidavit to the clearance officer
and you'll be cleared no questions asked (I'VE SEEN AND CO-ORDINATED THIS SINCE 2012 AND
CONFIRMED IT WORKS AT EVERY INSTITUTION IN THE COUNTRY)...

If you have questions about what I've written up there you can contact me

If you want to make these changes to ensure you gain admission this year easily, send us a message
or come to the office so we can begin this process.

If you want me to carry out these changes, research the specific name arrangement and state and
local government that'll guarantee you the admission come to my office or contact me.

JOA CONSULTS AKA Just Once Assurance Educational Center is a Registered, Accredited and
Government Approved Educational Platform.
For more info...
Give Us A Call : 0903335 9054, 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 09011 270636, 070874 91028
Send us a message on Whatsapp: 090333 59054, 070466 33922, 070421 01989, 09011 270636,
070874 91028
Our services are guaranteed you can come to the office to verify our claims or check my facebook
page or WhatsApp catalogue for photos of reviews, check-ins, testimonies from followers.
Over 11 years in Academics, our Online Pages reflects our success rate.
Our Business is verified on all business platforms like Flutterwave, Paystack, Remita.
We operate Verified and Active Business accounts.
All our deals end with testimonies, 100% success rate.
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1. A story not based on fact and reality is
A. Myth B. Legend C. Pasquinade D. Love story
2. A character who defends a bad cause or who argues in a contrary position just to stimulate an
argument is referred to as
A. Legend B. Cynic C. Villain D. Critic
3. “When the criminal was arrested, he rattled like a rattle snake” is an example of
A. Pun B. Simile C. Hyperbole D. Apostrophe
4. The first-person narrative style is used when the main character in a novel recounts
A. The author‟s story B. Other character‟s story
C. His own story D. His best friend‟s story
5. A performance whereby a story is expressed through singing and music is called
A. Drama B. Opera C. Pantomime D. Ballet
6. A word or gesture which serves as a signal to an actor to do or say something is called
A. Reminder B. Correction C. Over-act D. Cue
7. The word “octave” refers to the first eight lines of
A. lyric B. sonnet C. ode D. dirge
8. “These naked sons of misery”. This expression is an example of
A. litotes B. paradox C. assonance D. metaphor
9. The expression “the knights arrived at night” is known as
A. pun B. satire C. metaphor D. simile
10. A prologue is the
A. introductory part of a literary work B. scheme of a literary work
C. last part of a literary work D. tribute paid to a character
11. “Haman is an out-at-the elbow looking man” is referred to as
A. metonymy B. idiomatic expression C. personification D. irony

12. Repetition, rhyme and rhythm are permanent features of

A. drama B. poetry C. short story D. prose

Read the poem and answer questions 1 – 5

Bent-double, like old beggars under sacks,
Knock-kneed, coughing like hags, we curse through sludge,
Till on the haunting flares we turned our backs,
And towards our distant rest began to trudge,
Men marched asleep, many had lost their boots,
But limped on, blood-shed. All went lame, all blind;
Drunk with fatigue; even deaf to the hoots
Of gas-shells dropping softly behind

13. The extract conveys a mood of

A. dejection B. desperation C. resentment D. resignation
14. The dominant figure of speech in the first stanza is
A. hyperbole B. simile C. euphemism D. pun
15. The expression Drunk with fatigue illustrates
A. Metaphor B. synecdoche C. litotes D. irony
16. The rhyme scheme of the first stanza is
A. aabb B. abab C. abcd D. abba
17. sludge in the extract means
A. water B. fire C. snow D. mud

18. “Singing songs of sorrow is symbolic of sincere sympathy” illustrates

A. Assonance B. Refrain C. Alliteration D. Anecdote
19. The predominant use of the third person pronoun in a novel creates a
A. sense of detachment on the part of the writer B. sense of detachment on the part of the reader
C. psychological affinity with the characters D. balance of opinion among the characters
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

20. A tragic hero, according to the Aristotelian precept must be a

A. noble character with hubris
B. lowly character who suddenly stumbles on some fortune
C. king with deep affection for his subjects
D. central character after whom the play is named
21. The writing convention in which the events in a narrative are scrambled as they come to the writers
mind without any attempt to arrange them in orderly sequence is called
A. shifting style B. narrator‟s mind style
C. psycho-consciousness style D. stream of consciousness
22. A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is generally called a
A. couplet B. ballad
C. tercet D. quatrain

23. “But at my back I always heard Time‟s winged chariot hurrying near” illustrates
A. Metaphor B. Apostrophe C. Oxymoron D. Metonymy

24. The exclusive right given to authors to protect their works from unlawful production is
A. copyright B. an authority C. an authors right D. a constitutional provision

25. When a story is told in a song and passed down by word of mouth, it is called
A. a sonnet B. an epic C. a ballad D. a singer‟s story

26. An exaggeration or overstatement in literature is a

A. hexameter B. hyperbole C. metaphor D. soliloquy
27. A burlesque is
A. an exaggerated mockery of a literary work B. a sentimental comedy
C. an account of a famous person‟s life D. a rhetorical device used for effect in poetry
28. When to the sessions of sweet silent thought, I summon up remembrance of things past…‟
Shakespeare, Sonnet XXX The lines contain the predominant use of
A. a motif B. irony C. sarcasm D. alliteration
29. A line of poetry is measured by the
A. number of words B. number of feet it contains C. Images D. rhythm
30. The recurrence of rhythmic pattern of stress in a poem is a
A. Couplet B. Metre C. Consonance D. Scansion
31. “I don‟t fancy forbidden fruits of fashions and fads” illustrates
A. Refrain B. Repetition C. Assonance D. Alliteration
32. “The strong gongs groaning as the guns boom far” illustrates
A. Metonymy B. Refrain C. Onomatopoeia D. Repetition

Read the poem and answer questions 21-25

Sleep, O Sleep,
With thy Rod of Incantation,
Charm my Imagination,
Then, only then. I cease to weep.

By thy power,
The virgin, by Time O’ertaken
For years forlorn, forsaken,
Enjoys the happy hour.

What’s to sleep?
‘Tis a visionary blessing;
A dream that’s past expressing;
Our utmost wish possessing;
So may I always keep.
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

33. The poem is

A. An epic B. An ode C. A lyric D. A ballad
34. The dominant device used in the first line is
A. Oxymoron B. Apostrophe C. Rhyme D. Metaphor
35. The poem makes use of
A. end-stopped lines B. run-on lines C. Rhyme D. Metaphor
36. “Sleep” in the poem is an example of
A. Alliteration B. Assonance C. Onomatopoeia D. Pun
37. The power of “sleep” is described as
A. Majestic B. Magical C. Poetic D. Worshipful
38. A stylistic device which uses the name of one thing to describe another is called a
A. synonym B. metonym C. metaphor D. antonym
39. For a play to be successful on stage, it must not be short of
A. audience B. speeches C. actions D. characters
40. An over-used expression is a(n)
A. cliché B. epigram C. archetype D. cacophony
41. To be total or complete a play needs have a ___________
A. soliloquy B. conflict C. prologue D. epilogue
42. One of the following applies to both tragic and comic plays:
A. climax B. happy ending C. temper D. sympathetic ending
43. Dialogue is crucial in a piece of drama because it
A. makes the audience laugh B. is like a discourse
C. reveals the character‟s mind D. makes the character honest
44. One major narrative technique the novel shares with drama is
A. scenes B. dialogue C. soliloquy D. sarcasm
45. A necessary quality of every work of literature is that it
A. shows creative use of language B. has to be publishable in order to gain wide acceptance
C. teaches a moral lesson D. uses characters or actors
46. The dominant device used in drama is
A. oratory B. stage direction C. characterization D. dialogue
47. The style of writing in the Joys of Motherhood is
A. first person narrative B. Epistolary C. third person narrative D. Argumentative
48. Pick the odd item from the options listed: A. epic B. ode C. lyric D. novel

Read the extract and answer questions 37-41

Angels and ministers of grace defend us!
Be thou a spirit of health, or globlin damn’d
Bring with thee airs from heaven, or blasts from hell,
By thy intents, wicked or charitable,
Thou comest in such a questionable shape…
49. The speaker is
A. Hamlet B. Marcellus C. Horatio D. Laertes
50. The character being addressed is
A. the king B. the ghost C. angels D. God
51. The character who just spoke before the speaker is
A. Horatio B. Laertes C. Hamlet D. Marcellus
52. The setting of the extract is
A. a room in the castle B. the platform C. the queen‟s closet D. a graveyard.
53. The passage creates an atmosphere of
A. surprise and determination B. insecurity and resignation
C. security and assurance D. courage and assurance
54. Line 1 suggests the speaker‟s belief in
A. ghost B. spirits C. purgatory D. magic
55. A stanza of four lines in poetry is
A. a quartrain B. a sestet C. an octave D. an elegy
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

56. pick the odd item out of the under listed

A. ode B. elegy C. sonnet D. simile
57. A struggle between opposing forces in a literary work is the
A. plot B. conflict C. climax D. denouement
58. “Friendship is a sheltering tree” illustrates
A. simile B. metaphor C. personification D. oxymoron
59. A foil in drama is known as a ___________
A. flat character B. protagonist C. round character D. antagonist
60. A necessary quality of every work in literature is that it
A. shows creative use of language B. has to be publishable in order to gain wide acceptance
C. reaches a moral lesson D. uses characters or actors

HISTORY
1. Which of the following concepts was associated with land ownership following the fall of the Roman
Empire?
A. Back to Land Movement B. Nazism C. Feudalism D. Socialism
2. As was practiced in the four communes of Senegal, the policy of assimilation implied that
A. Africans were modeled after the French B. Africans should rule themselves
C. Traditional rulers were to be assimilated D. Senegal should be granted independence
3. _____________ was the birthplace of the organization of African unity
A. Nigeria B. Ghana C. Ethiopia D. Egypt
4. The significance of the Women‟s Riot of 1929 was that it:
A. Ruined the Warrant Chief System B. Terminated Indirect Rule
C. Made colonial rule unprofitable D. Led to the independence of Eastern Nigeria
5. The first military counter-coup took place in Nigeria on ___________
A. January 15, 1966 B. July 29, 1966 C. July 29, 1975 D. December 31, 1983
6. The first colonial consul sent to administer the west coast of Africa by Britain was
A. John Beecroft B. Water Egerton C. George Goldie D. Donald Cameron
7. The policy of paternalism was practised in the colonies controlled by which of the following
countries?
A. Portugal B. Germany C. France D. Britain
8. The second jihad of the 19th century took place in Masina under the leadership of ____
A. Usman Dan Fodio B. Samori Toure C. Seku Almadu D. Al Hajj Umar
9. Which of the following was the first country to abolish the slave trade?
A. Denmark B. Britain C. U.S.A D. Brazil
10. Which of the following movements was founded in 1933?
A. Gold Coast Youth Movement B. Nigerian Youth Movement
C. Progressive Youth Movement D. Aba Youth Movement
11. The first Governor-General of the colony and protectorate of Nigeria was
A. Lord Chamberlain B. Sir Lord Frederick Lugard
C. Lord Thomas Birch freeman D. Sir Hugh Clifford
12. This was the main reason for the establishment of the African Union
A. Form an African High Command B. Economic dominance of the World by Africa
C. Address current international developments affecting Africa D. Consolidate Africa‟s position
in global politics
13. Nigeria became a democratic nation in
A. June 12, 1999 B. July 12, 1999 C. May 29, 1999 D. June 29, 1999
14. Which statement is not true of the U.N.O
A. Is a conglomeration of independent African states
B. Is presided by the president who holds office for one year
C. Maintains international peace and security D. All the members are equal
15. The first African Bishop of the Anglican church in Nigeria was
A. Joseph Shanghan B. Samuel Agley C. Ajayi Crowther D. Mary Slessor
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16. One of the disadvantages of an unwritten constitution is that it

A. Is handy but not readily available for all citizens B. Is usually hidden and not common
C. Is outdated, obnoxious and difficult to understand D. Can lead to abuse and victimization
17. Which of the following statements is not a contribution of Queen Amina of Zaria
A. Amina was a warrior B. She built strong walls called ganuwar Amina
C. She encouraged trade D. She challenged the colonial masters
18. The following devoted their time for the abolition of slave trade except
A. Granville Sharpe B. William de craft
C. William Wilberforce D. Thomas Clarkson
19. A totalitarian government is a government
A. that aspires to control every aspect of a citizen‟s life B. for the masses
C. of a people by the people and for the people
D. that aspires to control only the economic aspect of a citizens life
20. Hope Waddell Training Institution Calabar was founded in
A. 1965 B. 1948 C. 1895 D. 1890
21. Which statement is not true of the U.N.O
A. Is a conglomeration of independent African states
B. Is presided by the president who holds office for one year
C. maintains international peace and security D. All the members are equal
22. The organization of African unity came into being in
A. 1945 B. 1946 C. 1947 D. 1948
23. The first country to become independent in West Africa
A. Ghana B. Nigeria C. Ivory coast D. Togo
24. The mid-western Nigeria was created in Nigeria in
A. 1961 B. 1962 C. 1963 D. 1964
25. Under the 1979 Nigerian constitution, each state is allowed to elect
A. Two senators B. Five senators
C. As many senators as the state could finance
D. From two to five senators, depending on the population of the state
26. The major problem that arose from the 1970 election centred around the
A. Inability of many voters to find their names on the voters register
B. Cancellation of election results in many constituencies because of alleged irregularities
C. Inability of some dissatisfied candidates to seek redress in the court of law
D. Controversy over the presidential election result
27. The objective of the 1841 Niger expedition included the following except
A. The abolition of the slave trade
B. Establishment of legitimate commerce
C. Establishment of friendly relationship with Africans
D. Acquire greater knowledge of the interior of Africa.
28. The system of indirect rule failed in the former Eastern Nigeria primarily because
A. of the fragmented political structures
B. the chiefs refused to co-operate with the colonial officials
C. of high taxation
D. of forced labour
29. The headquarters of OAU is in
A. Togo B. Senegal C. Addis Ababa D. Nigeria
30. What is the meaning of this acronym OPEC
A. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
B. Organization of Petroleum Exploring Countries
C. Organization of Petroleum Exploration Committee
D. Organization of Petroleum Empowerment Countries
31. In Oyo traditional political system, the Alafin of Oyo was elected or chosen by a group known as
A. Tributary chiefs B. Bales C. Obas D. Oyomesi
32. Dis-enfranchisement refers to the
A. qualification of voters in an election B. disqualification of fraudulent presidential aspirants
C. denial of the right to vote in an election D. right to vote in all elections
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PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

33. The delegation of Administrative Powers to the local units with the central supervision and control is
called
A. devolution B. decentralization C. deconcentration
D. centralization E. concentration
34. Which of the following is not an accepted way of resolving international conflict
A. Diplomacy B. Propaganda C. Non-military use of force
D. Military Force (war) E. Nuclear War
35. A unified- local government system was adopted in Nigeria under the
A. Tafawa Balewa administration B. Yakubu Gowon administration
C. Shehu Shagari administration D. Murutala/Obasanjo administration
E. Mohammadu Buhari administration
36. The emergency powers conferred on the Federal Government under the independence constitution
was first exercised in the
A. Western region B. Mid-Western region
C. Eastern Region D. Northern region
E. Federal Territory Lagos
37. The international organization formed after the Second World War to guarantee international peace
and security is called
A. The European Common Market B. The British Common Wealth of Nations
C. The League of Nations D. The United Nations Organization
38. Nigeria changed to the right hand driving in
A. 1970 B. 1973 C. 1975 D. 1977
39. Mary Slessor was popular for her
A. Involvement in the abolition of slave trade B. Intervention in the killing of twins
C. Cordial relationship with the Efik people D. Soliciting for peace among the indigenes.
40. The Vice-chancellor of the University of Calabar is
A. Professor Kelvin Ettah B. Professor Ivara Esu
C. Professor Charles Effiong D. Professor Bassey Asuquo
41. Rev. Henry Townsend and John Christopher Taylor were associated with
A. The church missionary society B. The Church of Scotland mission
C. The Methodist church D. The Baptist mission
42. Nigeria is a member of all except one
A. OAU B. UNO C. OPEC D. NATO
43. Immediately after the Nigerian civil war, Gowon‟s regimes embarked on
A. rejuvenation, resettlement and reconstruction
B. reconciliation, rehabilitation and reconstruction
C. rebuilding, rejuvenation and rehabilitation
D. rehabilitation, renaissance and repression
44. Mussolini‟s fascism and Hitler‟s Nazism are good examples of
A. Anarchy B. Feudalism C. Totalitarianism D. Oligarchy
45. One major disadvantages of a two-party is that is
A. does not allow citizens to participate in politics B. divides the country into factions
C. creates two countries D. stifles public opinion
46. An Oba in the traditional Yoruba political system was
A. the executive head of his people B. a ceremonial monarch only
C. a war general only D. the spokesman of his people
47. The colonial Governor whose constitution introduced elective principle into Nigerian politics was
A. Arthur Richards B. Frederick Lugard
C. Hugh Clifford D. John Macpherson
48. After the annexation in 1861, Lagos became a
A. true territory B. crown colony
C. protectorate D. consular territory
49. Who founded the Unity Party of Nigeria in the Second Republic?
A. Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe B. Chief Michael Ajasin
C. Chief Obafemi Awolowo D. Alhaji Shehu Shagari
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50. Universal adult suffrage was first adopted throughout Nigeria under the constitution of
A. 1922 B. 1946 C. 1958 D. 1979
51. Nationalist movements started late in French West Africa because
A. France suppressed political associations and parties.
B. Africans felt they were free
C. Africans wanted to maintain trade relations with France
D. France did not allow Africans to travel abroad
52. The International court of Justice has its headquarters in
A. the Hague B. Paris C. London D. New York
53. Which of the following is the lowest class of people in the hierarchy of a feudal system?
A. Nobles B. Serfs
C. Lords D. Manor
54. Northern and Southern protectorates of Nigeria were amalgamated by
A. General Gowon B. George Goldie C. Fredrick Lugard D. Donal Cameron
55. The first African President of the Republic of South Africa
A. Jacob Zuma B. Thabo Mbeki C. Jacob Chilumbua D. Nelson Mandela
56. The Nigerian Civil war ended in
A. 1970 B. 1971 C. 1973 D. 1975
57. The headquarters of OAU is in
A. Togo B. Senegal C. Addis Ababa D. Nigeria
58. Nelson Mandela was inaugurated as the first black president of South Africa on
A. July 14, 1978 B. May 10, 1994 C. March 20, 1984 D. August 17, 1988
59. The two states created on the 23rd September 1987 in Nigeria were:
A. Abia and Akwa Ibom B. Anambra and Abia C. Katsina and Abia D. Katsina and Akwa Ibom
60. Which of the following countries did not attend the Berlin conference where Africa was partitioned?
A. Britain B. France C. Portugal D. Holland

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE

1. The main condition for justification according to Paul is
A. Human merit B. Ability to keep the law
C. Faith in Christ redemptive work D. Possession of spiritual gifts
2. God told Ezekiel at his commissioning that “…briers and thorns are with you and you sit upon
scorpions….” This implies that
A. The land of exile should bring forth briers and thorns
B. Ezekiel would sit comfortably on scorpion
C. Briers, thorns and scorpions would torment him
D. His situation would be uncomfortable as he prophesied to unwilling people
3. How many baskets of broken meat were left after Jesus fed the people?
A. Five baskets B. Sixteen baskets C. Twelve baskets D. Seven baskets
4. The prophet regularly addressed as „son of man‟ was
A. JeremiahB. Ezekiel C. Isaiah D. Amos
5. Who was the first female judge in Israel?
A. Barak B.Jabin C.Jezreel D. Deborah
6. The Israelites rejected the sons of Samuel from judging them because they
A. took meat with fat B. desecrated God‟s altar
C. laid with women at the altar D. took bribes ad perverted justice
7. Who was released from prison to the Jews in place of Jesus Christ?
A. Judas B. Barabbas C. Basabbas D. Barnabas
8. Who replaces Judas as one of the Apostles of Christ?
A. Barnabas B. Barsabas C. Matthew D. Mathias E. Silas
9. The eating of the scroll by prophet Ezekiel was an indication that
A. the prophet liked eating scrolls
B. he must digest what is inside the scroll before communicating it to others
C. the content of the scroll should be hidden from the people
D. every prophet should eat scrolls for physical nourishment
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PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

10. Who informed Nehemiah that the walls of Jerusalem has broken down and its gates were burnt with
fire?
A. Samballat B. Tobish C. Geshem D. Hanani
11. How old was Abram when God asked him to depart from his country?
A. 65 B. 75 C. 85 D. 95
12. David took Jerusalem from
A. the Jebusites B. the Philistines
C. the Ammonites D. the Edomites
13. What is the Hebrew name for the Ten Commandments?
A. Torah B. Massah C. Goshen D. Menorah
14. How many were Jesus‟ disciples?
A. 24 B. 12 C. 10 D. 72
15. The leader of the Jews who rebuilt the walls of Jerusalem after the exile was
A. Ezra B. Nehemiah C. Ezekiel D. Jeremiah
16. In the parable of the prodigal son, Jesus intended to teach
A. Respect for parents B. God‟s love for a repentant sinner
C. his dislike for careless living D. love of parents for their children
17. Boanerges is another name for the sons‟ of_____?
A. God B. Light C. Zebedee D. Barnabas
18. The parable of the lost sheep and the prodigal son shows
A. Jesus love for the church B. God‟s love for His son Jesus
C. God‟s love for humanity D. Jesus‟ love for his followers
19. Which of the following brethren introduced Paul to the disciples in Jerusalem after his conversion?
A. Peter B. Barnabas C. Barsabas D. James
20. The first covenant in the Bible was made between God and______
A. Abraham B. Noah C. Isaac D. Jacob
21. The contest on Mount Camel was to demonstrate that
A. Baal was the God of Israel B. Baal controls nature
C. Yahweh was supreme to other gods D. Israel had declared for Yahweh
22. Which of the following is not the result of Christian baptism?
A. Being burned with Christ B. Obeying one‟s passions
C. Yielding members as instruments of righteousness D. Being raised with Christ
23. In the first letter of Peter, he enjoined Christians to uphold all the following principles except
A. subjection for the Lord‟s sake, to every human institution
B. doing right in order to silence the ignorance of foolish men
C. living as free men, et as servants of God
D. use of freedom as a pretext for revolt
24. Jesus‟ use of an ass during the Triumphal entry signifies that He was
A. humble Messiah B. A conquering Messiah
C. The King of Israel D. The expected Messiah
25. When Jesus was asked “Are you the King of the Jews” by Pilate, he replied.
A. Yes, I am the king of the Jews B. I am the son of God
C. You have said so D. I didn‟t say so
26. Eli‟s lack of parental responsibility led his sons into doing all the following except
A. taking their choice meat raw B. behaving violently towards the worshippers
C. treating the Lord‟s offering with respect D. regarding themselves as superior to God
27. Which of the following best describes David‟s attitude to Abner‟s death?
A. sincere shock and sorrow B. gladness for the death of an enemy
C. hypocritical shock and disbelief D. disappointment for unrealized dreams
28. Agape is another name for?
A. Divine love B. God‟s love for the church
C. God‟s love for Jesus Christ D. God‟s love towards man.
29. „Master, we toiled all night and took nothing! But at your word I will let down the nets‟. These words
were spoken when Jesus
A. called the two Sons of Zebedee, at the Sea of Galilee
B. met and called Levi to be a disciple
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PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

C. met and called Peter and Andrew his brother

D. ordered Peter to let down his net for a catch, just before he was called.
30. Jesus told the scribe who wanted to follow him that „Foxes have holes, and birds of the air have nest
but the Son of man has no where to lay his head‟ because
A. Jesus knew that the scribe was self-righteous and therefore unfit to be a disciple
B. Jesus foresaw that the scribe thought that discipleship was a thing of pleasure.
C. Jesus knew as a lawyer, the scribe would disprove his teachings
D. the scribe asked Jesus first to allow him to bury his father.
31. What is the name of the Apostle who replaced Judas Iscariot?
A. Barabas B. Matthias C. Stephen. D. Ananias
32. Which of the following actions shows that King David was a man after God‟s own heart? He
A. laid in ambush against Saul in the wilderness of Ziph
B. attacked Saul‟s camp secretly when his spies gave him useful information
C. ordered Abishai to slay Saul in his sleep
D. rejected the suggestion to slay Saul
33. As part of the heritage of their calling, Peter enjoined Christians to do all the following except
A. Bearing all their anxieties courageously on their shoulders.
B. The young clothing themselves with humility.
C. Humbling themselves under the mighty hand of God.
D. Firmly resisting the devil, conscious of the fact that suffering is part of Christian life.
34. According to Matthew‟s account, John the Baptist immediate reaction when Jesus came to be
baptized was to
A. baptize Jesus B. ask why he should baptize a non-sinner
C. ask that he should rather be baptized by Jesus D. ask him to confess his sins.
35. How old was Abraham when he left his home in Haran?
A. Seventy years B. Sixty five years
C. Seventy five years D. Ninety nine years
36. The rich man who ignored the needs of Lazarus lacked
A. a sense of proportion B. parental care
C. human sympathy D. spiritual contentment
37. Who said this “the soul that sinneth shall die”
A. Moses B. Ezekiel C. Isaiah D. Jesus
38. The kingdom of Israel is made up of how many tribes?
A. 24 tribes B. 10 tribes C. 12 tribes D. 13 tribes
39. My son, your sins are forgiven. Jesus said this to?
A. The paralytic B. The centurion‟s servant C. The leper D. Jarius‟ son
40. What is the name of the Apostle who replaced Judas Iscariot?
A. Barabas B. Matthias C. Stephen D. Ananias
41. What is the other name for the sons of Zebedee?
A. Sons of Light B. Boanerges C. Sons of God D. Sons of Sceva
42. The name of the man whose ear Peter cut off is?
A. Malchus B. Pontius C. Judas D. Justus
43. The king noted for his greed in Israel is?
A. Solomon B. Ahab C. Saul D. Josiah
44. The healing miracles of Jesus show that?
A. Jesus has power and authority over disease and illness
B. Jesus is the son of God and Messiah C. A and B above
D. Jesus could do magic
45. How many Deacons did the Apostles select, to look after their Christian community in Jerusalem?
A. 12 deacons B. 7 deacons C. 10 deacons D. 2 deacons
46. Who led the Israelites into the land of Canaan?
A. Joshua B. Moses
C. Moses and Aaron D. Caleb
47. God‟s creative ability was manifested by His
A. approving that a thing be done
B. commanding word prefaced by „there be‟
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

C. ordering the Holy Spirit to act

D. choosing the better of two alternative models.
48. One of the following people interpreted Nebuchadnezzar‟s dream
A. Joseph B. Daniel
C. Samuel D. Eli
49. Behold the fire and the wood, but where is the lamb for a burnt offering? Who said this and to whom?
A. Abraham to Jacob B. Isaac to Abraham
C. Jacob to Isaac D. Abraham to Isaac
50. Blessed are the meek for______
A. They shall be comforted
B. They shall inherit the earth
C. They shall obtain mercy
D. Theirs is the Kingdom of Heaven
51. Ruben advised his brothers not to kill Joseph but to cast him into a pit because he
A. Did not want them to shed the blood of the innocent
B. Wanted to rescue him afterwards and bring him safely to their father
C. Wanted to bury him alive in the pit.
D. Loved his brother dearly
52. During the reign of Josiah, the Book of the Law was found in the temple by
A. Shaphan B. Hilkiah
C. Isaiah D. Zedekiah
53. Which of the following parables illustrates the Day of Judgement?
A. The sower B. The wheat and the tares
C. The mustard seed D. The leaven
54. The good shepherd as described by St. John has all the following qualities except that
A. He enters the sheepfold by the door
B. He climbs into the sheepfold by another way
C. He leads the sheep out by the door
D. The gatekeeper opens the gate for him
55. The two men nominated by the Apostles to vie for the place of Judas Iscariot were
A. Joseph and Matthias B. Justus and Barnabas
C. Paul and Silas D. Barnabas and Matthias
56. The delegation from Antioch to the council of Jerusalem consisted of
A. Paul and Peter B. Peter and Barnabas
C. Paul and Barnabas D. John and Peter
57. What did God use to destroy the first world?
A. Water B. Flood C. Fire D. Fire and Brim Stones
58. Who is regarded as the prophet of hope in Israel?
A. Ezekiel B. Isaiah C. Jeremiah D. Nahum
59. Thou art my beloved son; with thee I am well pleased. Who said this?
A. God said to Jesus B. A voice from heaven
C. God said to John the Baptist D. God said to Paul
60. Ahab‟s request for Naboth‟s vineyard exposed his
A. fairness and justice B. consideration for others‟ rights
C. cleverness and treachery D. envy and disregard for the law
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

GOVERNMENT
1. Who propounded the theory of the rule of law?
A. A.V. Dicey B. Karl Max C. Baron de Montesquieu D. Abraham Lincoln
2. The constitution that introduced federalism to Nigeria was__________
A. The McPherson Constitution B. The Clifford Constitution
C. The Lyttleton Constitution D. The Richards Constitution
3. Which of the following is not a pressure group A. P.D.P B. A.S.U.U C. N.A.S.U
D. N.L.C
4. Which of these is an organ of The United Nations organization?
A. The council of ministers B. The senate of the U.N
C. House of Lords D. The general assembly
5. A body charged with the responsibility of employing, promoting dismissing and disciplining of civil
servants is
A. The Nigerian police B. The Senate
C. The Judiciary D. The public service
6. The rule of law entails
A.there is no man without law B.the law is everywhere
C.impartiality before the law D.the law exist before man
7. A type of election in which an important political matter or a proposed law is referred to the electorate
for final approval is
A. Primary elections B. Run-off election C. General election D. Referendum
8. Laws made by the Federal Government are called
A. Executive laws B. Central laws C. Bye-laws D. Concurrent laws
9. The name, Nigeria, was suggested by ______
A. Sir Frederick Lugard B. Nnamdi Azikiwe C. Flora Shaw D. Bishop Ajayi Crowther
10. In 1919, Lord Lugard was replaced with _________ as the Governor of Nigeria
A. Sir Arthur Richards B. Lord Milverton Thatcher C. Sir John Macpherson
D. Sir Hugh Clifford
11. The ability of a state to make laws which are free from internal aggression and external control is
known as
A.independence B.power C.authority D.sovereignty
12. Organization of petroleum exporting countries (OPEC) was founded in
A. 1955 B. 1960 C. 1979 D. 1977
13. The admistratior of the capital in pre-colonial Hausa/Fulani was
A. Maagi B. Galadima C. Madawaki D. Sarkin Yan Doka
14. Which is the highest office in the structure of organization of the civil service?
A. The executive class B. The professional or specialist class C. The Administrative class
D. The Technical class

15. The ombudsman originated in which of the following countries

A. The U.S.A B. Sweden C. Britain D. Greece
16. The theory of separation of powers was for the first time clearly formulated by
A. Baron de Montesquieu B. Albert Dicey C. Lord Bryce D. Jean Bodin
17. One major disadvantages of a two-party is that is
A. does not allow citizens to participate in politics B. divides the country into factions
C. creates two countries D. stifles public opinion
18. The Aba riots of 1929 was a direct consequence of the
A. attempt to introduce taxation B. introduction of Western education
C. Yoruba political organization D. pre-colonial Bini System
19. Fascism emphasizes
A. equality B. individualism
C. nationalism D. totalitarianism
20. When a high court declares an action of the executive ultra-vires, it means that
A. the executive has to reconsider the action
B. such an action should never be brought up again
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PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

C. only the legislature can deal with such an action

D. the action is illegal and of no effect
21. The two parties which formed the coalition government in 1959 were the
A. NPC and the NCNC B. NCNC and AG
C. NPC and the NNA D. PRP and UPGA
22. Dis-enfranchisement refers to the
A. qualification of voters in an election B. disqualification of fraudulent presidential aspirants
C. denial of the right to vote in an election D. right to vote in all elections
23. The objective of the 1841 Niger expedition included the following except
A. The abolition of the slave trade B. Establishment of legitimate commerce
C. Establishment of friendly relationship with Africans
D. Acquire greater knowledge of the interior of Africa.
24. The system of indirect rule failed in the former Eastern Nigeria primarily because
A. of the fragmented political structures
B. the chiefs refused to co-operate with the colonial officials
C. of high taxation
D. of forced labour
25. The headquarters of OAU is in
A. Togo B. Senegal
C. Addis Ababa D. Nigeria
26. The emergency powers conferred on the Federal Government under the independence constitution
was first exercised in the
A. Western region B. Mid-Western region C. Eastern Region
D. Northern region E. Federal Territory Lagos
27. The international organization formed after the Second World War to guarantee international peace
and security is called
A. The European Common Market B. The British Common Wealth of Nations
C. The League of Nations D. The United Nations Organization
28. Nigeria changed to the right hand driving in
A. 1970 B. 1973 C. 1975 D. 1977
29. Mary Slessor was popular for her
A. Involvement in the abolition of slave trade B. Intervention in the killing of twins
C. Cordial relationship with the Efik people D. Soliciting for peace among the indigenes.
30. The following are key factors which influence Nigeria‟s foreign relations except
A. peaceful co-existence B. economic dependence
C. non-interference D. respect for territorial integrity
31. The second military coup d‟etat in Nigeria took place on
A. July 29, 1966 B. July 29, 1975
C. February 13, 1976 D. October 1, 1966
32. The mechanism used to limit a parliamentary debate is known as
A. guillotine B. prerogative C. abrogation D. adjournment
33. Some pre-colonial West African governments were democratic because of the existence of
A. powerful traditional rulers B. age grade
C. religious institutions D. checks and balances
34. The head of the executive branch in a parliamentary system is called
A. Senate President B. Prime Minister C. President D. Governor-General
35. Under what constitution did the Supreme Court become the highest Court of Appeal in Nigeria?
A. Lyttleton Constitution B. Republican constitution
C. McPherson constitution D. Independence constitution
36. The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is
A. An economic association B. A political association
C. Cultural association D. A social association
37. Government as an act of governing means
A. Activities of pressure groups and political parties B. Act of vetoing a bill
C. Orders of judiciary and legislature
D. Activities by which government policies are made and implemented
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

38. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that

A. it is faster than other systems B. nobody can be prevented from voting
C. it ensures the anonymity of each voter D. it extends franchise to all adults
39. The process of depriving persons of the right of voting is known as
A. Disenfranchisement B. Disqualification
C. Prohibition D. Dismissal
40. The question of civil war was raised for the first time at the meeting of the OAU in September 1967 in
A. Kampala B. Addis Ababa
C. Nairobi D. Kinshasa
41. Military governors were members of the supreme military council under
A. Murtala Mohammed regime B. Yakubu Gowon
C. Ibrahim Babangida regime D. Muammadu Buhari regime
42. Residual powers under the Nigerian independence constitution were the powers exercised by
A. the Federal government B. the Regional government
C. the Local government D. both the Federal and Regional governments
43. It is the duty of a government to perform all the following functions except
A. Providing all the needs of its citizens B. Preventing internal disorder
C. Providing basic welfare services D. Promoting industrial and commercial development
44. The following factors favoured the introduction of indirect rule in Nigeria except the
A. shortage of manpower B. shortage of funds
C. existence of education elites D. existence of a system of taxation
45. It is argued that most of the new states of Africa cannot remain faithful to the doctrines of non-
alignment mainly because of
A. corruption B. ethnic problems C. bad leadership D. poor economy
46. The delegation of Administrative Powers to the local units with the central supervision and control is
called
A. devolution B. decentralization C. deconcentration
D. centralization E. concentration
47. Which of the following is not an accepted way of resolving international conflict
A. Diplomacy B. Propaganda C. Non-military use of force
D. Military Force (war) E. Nuclear War
48. A unified- local government system was adopted in Nigeria under the
A. Tafawa Balewa administration B. Yakubu Gowon administration
C. Shehu Shagari administration D. Murutala/Obasanjo administration
E. Mohammadu Buhari administration
49. One of the criticisms against delegated legislation is that it
A. gives too much power to all organs of government B. enhances separation of powers
C. encroaches on parliamentary power D. is not practised in advanced countries
50. Which of the following is not an objective in foreign policy?
A. prestige B. large population C. territorial integrity D. survival
51. Voting started in Nigeria in 1923 because the Clifford constitution of 1922 granted
A. decolonization B. parliamentary government
C. an elective principle D. Self government
52. Which of the following is not a component of political culture
A. Attitudes B. Beliefs C. Emotions D. Age
53. With which country did Nigeria break diplomatic relations in 1963 for exploding a nuclear device in the
Sahara?
A. The USA B. China C. Soviet Union D. France
54. Which of the following did not formally recognize “Biafra” as an independent state?
A. Zambia B. Tanzania C. Gabon D. Ivory Coast
55. The Armed forces Ruling Council came into existence under the
A. Buhari Administration B. Babangida Administration
C. Gowon Administration D. Obasanjo Administration
56. Residual powers under the Nigerian independence constitution were the powers exercised by
A. the Federal government B. the Regional government
C. the Local government D. both the Federal and Regional governments
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

57. It is the duty of a government to perform all the following functions except
A. Providing all the needs of its citizens B. Preventing internal disorder
C. Providing basic welfare services D. Promoting industrial and commercial development
58. The following factors favoured the introduction of indirect rule in Nigeria except the
A. shortage of manpower B. shortage of funds
C. existence of education elites D. existence of a system of taxation
59. It is argued that most of the new states of Africa cannot remain faithful to the doctrines of non-
alignment mainly because of
A. corruption B. ethnic problems C. bad leadership D. poor economy
60. Which of the following is not an objective in foreign policy?
A. prestige B. large population C. territorial integrity D. survival

COMPUTER
1. The following are output devices except:
A. Mouse B. Plotter C. Printer D. Speakers E. Monitor
2. What type of device is a computer monitor?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
3. What type of device is a computer keyboard
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
4. What type of devices are computer speakers or headphones?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
5. What type of device is a computer printer?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
6. What type of device is a 3 1/2 inch floppy drive?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
7. What type of device is a computer mouse?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
8. What type of devices are CDs or DVDs?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
9. What type of device is a digital camera?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
10. A program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the
owner is called what?
A. Floppy B. Virus C. Java D. Monitor E. Flash
11. Which of these is a correct format of IP address?
A. 192.168.1.1B.192.168.111.1111C.192.168.900.1D.192.900.168.1
E. 192.16.168.111
12. Which was the first web browser?
A. WorldWideWebB. Netscape Navigator C. Internet Explorer D. Safari
E.Chrome
13. It is a small piece of text stored on a user's computer by a web browser for maintaining the state.
What we are talking about?
A. Application B. Session C. Cookie D. QueryStringE. Applets
14. Which of these is a correct format of Email address?
A. contact.website.infoB. contactwebsite.infoC. contact@website.info
D. contact@website@infoE. Contact.website@info
15. What does HTTP stands for?
A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol B. Hypertext Transfer Plotter C. Head Tail Transfer Plot
D. Head Tail Transfer Protocol E. Hypertext Transmission Process
16. In computers,what is the smallest and basic unit of information storage?
A. BitB. Byte C. Newton D. Mega byte E. Kilo byte
17. What is Windows XP?
A. Operating System B. Storage Device C. Processor D. Output Device E. Input Device
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

18. Which of the following is responsible for the management and coordination of activities and the
sharing of the resources of the computer?
A. Application Software B. Motherboard C. Operating System D. RAM
E. System Software
19. MP3 file format is associated with what type of files?
A. Video B. Audio C. Image D. Word Document E. Flash file
20. MS-Word is an example of
A. Application Software B.System Software C. Operating System D. Scanner E. ALU
21. Which software application is used for accessing sites or information on a network (as the World
Wide Web)?
A. Operating System B. Web Browser C. Microsoft Word D. Microsoft Excel E. FileZilla
22. What are the two broad categories of software?
A. MS Word and Spreadsheet B. Transaction and Application C. Microsoft and Mac OS D. System
and Application E. Transaction and System
23. One kilobyte contains how many bytes?
A. 1000B. 1001C. 100D. 1024E. 10
24. Who Owns the Internet?
A. Internet Engineering Task Force B. ICANN C. Internet Architecture Board
D. No one owns it E. InterNIC
25. What is the shortcut key of printing a document for computer having windows?
A. Ctrl + P B. Shift + P C. Alt + P D. Shift + PP E.Fn + P
26. In computers, '.TMP' extension refers usually to what kind of file?
A. Temporary file B. Image file C. Video file D. Text file E. Database file
27. The way of manipulating data into information is called
A. Storing B. Processing C. Deletion D. Organizing E. Transmission
28. What Does BIOS Stand For?
A. Better Integrated Operating System B. Basic Input Output System
C. Battery Integrated Operating Setup D. Backup Input Output System
E. Battery Input Operating System
29. Memory management is a feature of
A. Processor B. Operating System C. MS Word D. Animation E. UPS

30. Which of the following is not a storage device?

A. DVD B. Hard Disk C. Floppy Disk D. Mouse E. Flash Drive
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

ANSWERS
ENGLISH
1. A
2. D
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. C
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. C
26. D
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. D
31. D
32. D
33. D
34. D
35. B
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. D

40. D
41. B
42. D
43. C
44. C
45. D
46. D
47. A
48. A
49. C
50. A
51. C
52. B
53. B
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

54. C
55. D
56. D
57. B
58. B
59. C
60. A
61. C
62. B
63. C
64. A
65. D
66. C
67. B
68. C
69. A
70. D
71. B
72. B
73. D
74. B
75. C

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. B

12. B
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. D
29. D
30. B
31. C
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

32. C
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. A
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. D
47. C
48. D
49. A
50. B
51. A
52. B
53. A
54. B
55. A
56. D
57. C
58. A
59. D
60. A

HISTORY
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. A

10. B
11. B
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. D
18. B
19. A
20. C
21. A
22. A
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

23. A
24. C
25. B
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. C
33. A
34. E
35. D
36. A
37. D
38. B
39. B
40. D
41. A
42. D
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. A
47. C
48. B
49. C
50. D
51. A
52. A
53. D
54. C
55. D
56. A
57. C
58. B
59. D
60. D

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE

1. C
2. D
3. D
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. B

12. A
13. A
14. B
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

15. B
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. C
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. D
30. B
31. B
32. D
33. A

34. C
35. C
36. C
37. B
38. C
39. A
40. B
41. B
42. A
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. A
47. B
48. B
49. B
50. B
51. B
52. B
53. B
54. B
55. D
56. C
57. B
58. C
59. B
60. D
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

GOVERNMENT
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. D
13. B
14. C

15. B
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. D
24. A
25. C
26. A
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. B
31. A
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. D
38. C
39. A
40. D
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. C
45. D
46. A
47. E
48. D
49. C
50. B
51. C
52. D
53. D
54. A
UNIVERSITY OF CALABAR
PAST POST-UTME SCREENING QUESTONS – UNICAL POST-UTME SCREENING COMMITTEE

55. B
56. B
57. A
58. C
59. D
60. B

COMPUTER
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. A
13. C
14. C
15. A
16. A
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. D
25. A
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. B
30. D