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Session (2025-26)
 SUB: BIOLOGY
CLASS – XII

Part - I (Human Reproduction)

(Q1 – Q10) Given below are four options against each question. Choose the
option which you consider the most appropriate as your answer.

1. is a lytic enzyme released by the sperm.

a) Hyaluronidase
b) Trypsin
c) Helicase
d) None of the above

2. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have? a)

34
b) 44
c) 54
d) 33

3. is an organelle that helps the sperm to penetrate the ovum

a) Acrosome
b) Zona pellucida
c) Megalis
d) None of the above

4. Umbilical cord contains

a) Pluripotent stem cells
b) Cord blood stem cells
c) Blood stem cells
d) None of the above

5. Which of the following option shows correctly matched pairs for colum I and colum II
Column-I Column-II
(P) Foetus Cells (i) Relaxian
(Q) Placenta (ii) Hyaluronidase
(R) Acrosome (iii) Prostaglandins
(S) Ovary (iv) Oxytocin

a) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i b) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i

c) P-ii, Q-iii, R-iv, S-i d) P-ii, Q-iii, R-iv, S-i
6. Cryptorchidism is a condition where
a) One of both testes are not developed
b) One or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum
c) One or both testes are not formed
d) None of the above

7. Acrosome is made up of
a) Lipids
b) Hormones
c) Digestive enzymes
d) None of the above

8. is an example of a viviparous animal.

a) Goat
b) Duck
c) Crocodile
d) None of the above

9. The is a temporary organ that connects a mammalian mother to its

fetus a) Placenta
b) Chorion
c) Endometrium
d) None of the above

10. Fertilization in human takes place in

a) Vagina
b) Uterus
c) Ampullary-isthmic junction
d) Infundibulum

Answer the following questions:

11. Write the effect of high concentration of LH on a mature Graafian follicle.

12. Write the differences between in morula and blastocyst.

13. Draw a labeled diagram of a female reproductive system.

14. Why parturition called a neuro-endocrine mechanism? Explain.

15. Write in proper sequence, the major events in human reproduction.

16. Explain the ovarian and uterine events that occur during a menstrual cycle in a
human female under the influence of pituitary and ovarian hormones respectively.

17. (a) Draw a labeled diagram of a male reproductive system.

 (b) What is structure and function of sperm?
(c) What are the accessory glands present in male reproductive system? State
their function.

18. Medically, it is advised to all young mothers that breast feeding is the best for their
newborns babies. Do you agree? Give reason in your support of your answer.

19. During the reproductive cycle of a human female when, where and how does a
placenta develop? What is the function of placenta during pregnancy and embryo
development?

20. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis on the basis of

(a) Time of initiation of the process
(b) Site of completion of process
(c) Nature of meiotic division undergone by gamete mother cells

Part – II: Reproductive Health

Given below are four options against each question. Choose the option which
you consider the most appropriate as your answer.
1. Which Artificial Reproductive Technique can help a lady conceive a child if both her
fallopian tubes are blocked?
(A) SUZI
(B) IVF
(C) ZIFT
(D) GIFT
2. Which of the following is not a copper releasing IUD?
(A) LNG 20
(B) CuT
(C) Lippes Loop
(D) a and c

3. What is the expansion for MTP?

(A) Medical Termination of Parturition
(B) Mechanical Transfer of Pollen
(C) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(D) Maternally Transmitted Pathogens

4. Amniocentesis is a process of
(A) Growing cells on culture media
(B) Know about brain disease
 (C) Determine mutations
(D) Determine disease of the embryo

5. The function of Copper-T is

(A) Stop gastrulation
(B) Stop cleavage
(C) Check mutation
(D) Stop fertilization

6. What is the shape of the growth curve?

(A) S shaped
(B) V shaped
(C) C shaped (D) J shaped

7. Which part of the female reproductive system remains blocked after tubectomy?
(A) Fallopian tube
(B) Oviduct
(C) Cervix
(D) Uterine cavity

8. What problems in reproductive health care require doctor’s help?

(A) STDs
(B) Conception, parturition and abortion
(C) Contraception, infertility, menstruation problem
(D) All

9. Test tube baby implies which of the following techniques?

(A) IUI
(B) ICSI
(C) IVF
(D) ZIFT

10. Which technique is used to detect AIDS?

(A) Northern blot and ELISA
(B) Immuno blot and ELISA
(C) Western blot and ELISA
(D) Southern blot and ELISA

Answer the following questions.

11. Expalin the barrier methods of birth control.
 12. What is amniocentesis? Write its significance.
13. Draw a labeled diagram of vasectomy and tubectomy.

14. Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive function. Comment.

15. Give reason why family planning techniques are not adopted by all in our country?

16. Suggest the reproduction related aspects in which counseling can be provided at the
school level.

17. Explain one application of each one of the following:

(a) Lactational amenorrhoea
(b) MTP
(c) Saheli

18. A village health worker was talking with women .She tells the women that one has
to be very careful while using oral pills as a method of birth control. Wrong usage
cab actually promote conception.
(a) Analyse the statement and compare the merits and demerits of using oral pills
and surgical method of birth control.
(b) Village women are confused as to how a thin metallic copper loop can provide
protection against pregnancy. Justify the use explaining the mode of action of
IUDs.

19. What is infertility? How is Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) helpful in an

infertile couple?

20. What are STDs? Mention the different types of STDs along with pathogen and
symptoms.

Chapter 2 Sexual reproduction in flowering plants

Objective type questions

1. How many microspore mother cells are required to produce 1000
microspores/pollen grains?
a) 100 b) 150 c) 200 d) 250

2. Which of the following represents the female gametophyte

a) Embryo b) Embryo sac c) Synergid d) Endosperm

3. when the pollen of the flower is transferred to the stigma of another flower on the
 same plant the process is called as
a) autogamy b) geitonogamy c) xenogamy d) cleistogamy

4. From among the situations given below choose one that prevents both autogamy
and geitonogamy

a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers

b) dieocious plant bearing only male and female flowers
c) monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
d) dieocious plant with bisexual flowers

5. In a fertilized embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures are:

a) Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus.

b) Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei.
c) Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus.
d) Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.

6. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after fertilization are

a) Synergids and primary endosperm cell.

b) Synergids and antipodals
c) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell
d) Egg and antipodals

7. Which of the following floral parts forms the pericarp after fertilization?

a) Nucellus b) Outer integument c) Ovary wall d) Inner integument

Practice questions

1. Describe the structure of a typical embryo sac found in flowering plants? Why
is it generally referred to as monosporic?
2. Describe the structure of a mature angiospermic pollen grain.
3. Name the three parts of pistil and mention one function of each of them.
4. Differentiate between albuminous and non-albuminous seeds, with an example
for each.
5. What are parthenocarpic fruits? Give an example. Mention one
characteristic feature of such fruits.
6. Differentiate between true fruits and false fruits, with an example of each.
7. (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of an
anatropous ovule.
ii) Which cell of the ovule gets transformed into megaspore mother cell ?
8. (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the vertical section of maize grain.
ii) Why can we not use the term seed for the maize grain.
9. What develops into a microspore mother cell in a flower ? Trace the
development of this cell into a pollen grain, which is ready for germination .
Draw a labelled figure of a mature pollen grain.
10. Trace the development of a megaspore mother cell of a flower into a
 mature ovule. Give a labelled diagram of the final stage.
11. Trace the events that would take place in a flower from the time the pollen
grain of the same species falls on the stigma upto the completion of
fertilization.
12. Draw a well labelled diagram of the L.S. of embryo of grasses. How does it
differ from that of bean?

13. What brings about pollination in plants like silk cotton tree and bottle brush?
14. The microscopic pollen grains of the past are obtained as fossils . Mention
the characteristic of the pollen grain that makes it happen.
15. An anther with malfunctioning tapetum often fails to produce viable male
gametophytes. Why?
16. Differentiate between perisperm and endosperm.
17.i) Write characteristic features of anther, pollen and stigma of wind
pollinated flowers.
ii) How do flowers reward their insect pollinators
Explain the process of artificial hybridization to get improved crop variety in i) plants
bearing bisexual flowers ii) female parent producing unisexual flowers.
18. State one advantage and one disadvantage of cleistogamy.
19. Mention the reason for difference in the ploidy of zygote and endosperm.
20. If a diploid number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 28.
What number would you expect in endosperm and embryo of that plant.
21. Give reasons why:
(a) Apple is a false fruit?
(b) Groundnut seeds are exalbuminous and castor seeds are albuminous.

Topic :- Principles Of Inheritance & Variation

1. A condition characterized by not having an exact number of chromosomes in a multiple of
haploid set is called
a) Polyploidy b) Synploidy c) aneuploidy d) None of these

2. Choose correct option for 𝐴,𝐵,𝐶 and 𝐷

TT Tt

a) A-tt, B-TT, C-TT, D-TT b) A-Tt, B-Tt, C-Tt, D-Tt

c) A-TT, B-TT, C-Tt, D-TT d) A-Tt, B-Tt, C-Tt, D-TT

3. When a cross is conducted between black feathered hen and a white feathered cock, blue
 feathered fowls are formed. When these fowls are allowed for interbreeding, in F2-
generation, there are 20 blue fowls. What would be the number of black and white fowls?
a) Black 20, white 10 b) Black 20, white 20 c) Black 10, white 10 d) Black 10, white 20

4. Chromosomes are made up of

a) DNA are protein b) RNA and DNA c) DNA and histone d) Only histones

5. In pedigree analysis, the square, blackened and horizontal lines represents

a) Female, healthy individual, parents b) Female, affected individual, parents
c) Male, affected individual, parents d) Male, affected individual, progeny

6. Following pedigree chart shows

a) Character is carried by Y-chromosome b) Character is sex-linked recessive

c) Character is sex-linked dominant d) Character is recessive autosomal
7. Mr. Sidd is suffering from hypertrichosis and phenylketonuria. His father is heterozygous
for phenylketonuria. The probability of Sidd’s sperm having one recessive autosomal
allele and holandric gene is
1 1 1
a) b) d)
2 8 4
c)
1
0
8. F3-generation is obtained by
a) Selfing of F1 b) Selfing of F2 c) Crossing of F1 and F2 d) None of these

9. In which one of the following, complementary gene interaction rato of 9 : 7 is observed?

a) Fruit shape in Shepherd’s purse b) Coat colour in mouse
c) Feather colour in fowl d) Flower colour in pea

10. Starch synthesis gene in pea plant is the example of

a) Single gene produce more than one effects
b) Multiple genes produce more than one effects
c) Two genes produce more than one effects
d) Multiple genes produce less than one effects

11. In 𝐷𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑜𝑝ℎ𝑖𝑙𝑎 , the sex is determined by

a) The ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
b) Whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically
c) The ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the set of autosomes
d) X and Y-chromosomes

12. The 1 : 2 : 1 ratio with the pink flower in the F2-generation indicate the phenomenon of
a) Dominance b) Codominance
c) Incomplete dominance d) Segregation

13. Sexual reproducation leads to

a) Genetic recombination b) Polyploidy
c) Aneuploidy d) Euploidy

14. Husband has blood group-A and wife has blood group-B. What is the blood group of
children?
a) A b) B c) AB d) A, B, AB and O

15. Study the following figure and find out the most probable position at which the
crossing over takes place

a) w and W b) X and y c) y and Z d) w and z

16. Given diagram shows certain type of traits in human. Which one of the following
option could be an example of this pattern?
 a) Haemophilia b) Anaemia c) Phenylketonuria d) Thalassaemia

17. In case of incomplete dominance, what will be the phenotypic ratio of 𝐹2generation?
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 2 : 1 c) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 d) 2 : 2

18. Haemophilia, a X-linked recessive disease is caused due to deficiency of

a) Blood plasma and vitamin–K b) Blood platelets and haemoglobin
c) Lack of clotting material and vitamin-K d) All of the above

19. All of this obeys Mendel’s laws except

a) Codominance b) Independent assortment
c) Dominance d) Purity of gametes

20. in β-thalassaemia, the affected chromosome is

a) 16th b) 14th c) 13th d) 19th
 Chemistry
Class - XII
Summer Home Assignment
Unit – 1 ( Solutions)
Section – A
Multiple Choice questions:
1.Which one of the following pairs will form an ideal solution?
(a)Chloroform and acetone (b) Ethanol and acetone.
(c) n-hexane and n-heptane. (d) Phenol and aniline
2. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than either of the two
when it
(a) shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law.
(b) shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law.
(c) shows no deviation from Raoult's law. (d) is saturated.
3. On mixing 20 mL of acetone with 30 mL of chloroform, the total volume of the solution is
(a) < 50 mL. (b) = 50 mL (c) > 50 mL. (d) = 10 mL
4. Elevation of boiling point is inversely proportional to
(a) molal elevation constant (Kb). (b) molality (m).
(c) molar mass of solute (M). (d) weight of solute (W)
5. An unknown gas 'X' is dissolved in water at 2.5 bar pressure and has mole fraction 0.04 in
solution. The molefraction of 'X' gas when the pressure of gas is doubled at the same
temperature is
(a) 0.08. (b) 0.04. (c) 0.02. (d) 0.92
6. The boiling point of a 0.2 m solution of a non-electrolyte in water is (Kb for water = 0.52 K
kg mol–1)

(a) 100 °C (b) 100.52 °C (c) 100.104 °C (c) 100.26 °C

7. In the following diagram point, 'X' represents
(a) Boiling point of solution (b) Freezing point of solvent
(c)Boiling point of solvent (d) Freezing point of solution

8. Which of the following condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?

(a) ΔHmixing = 0 (b) ΔVmixing = 0
(c) Raoult’s Law is obeyed (d) Formation of an azeotropic mixture
9The van’t Hoff factor (i) accounts for
(a) degree of solubilisation of solute. (b) the extent of dissociation of solute.
(c) the extent of dissolution of solute. (d) the degree of decomposition of solution.
10 .The molal elevation constant depends upon
(a) nature of solute. (b) nature of the solvent.
(c) vapour pressure of the solution. (d) enthalpy change.
11. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water
and ethanol. The mixture shows
(a) no deviation from Raoult’s Law. (b) positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(c) negative deviation from Raoult’s Law. (d) that the solution is unsaturated.

12.The value of Henry’s Law constant is:

(a) larger for gases with higher solubility (b) larger for gases with lower solubility

(c) constant for all gases (d) not related to the solubility of gases

13. If a molecule AB undergoes dimerization in Benzene, its Van’t Hoff factor is found to be
0.60. The degree of dissociation of AB is

(a) 20% (b) 60% (c) 80% (d) 50%

14.The type of intermolecular interaction present in a solution of n- Hexane and n-Octane is:

(a) London dispersion forces (b) Dipole-dipole interaction

(c) Hydrogen bonding (d) Ion-dipole interaction

15. How much ethyl alcohol must be added to 1 litre of water so that solution will freeze at
-14°C ? Kf= 1.86 KKg/mol
a. 7.5 mol b. 8.5 mol c. 9.5 mol d. 10.5 mol
9. If molality of solution is doubled value of Kf will be:
a. doubled b. Unchanged c. tripled d. Halved
16. The molarity if 900 g of water is
a.50M b55.5M c5M d40M
17. Calculate the amount if benzoic acid required to prepare 250 ml of 0.15 M solution in
methanol
a. 4.75 g b. 5.475 g c. 4.015 g d. 5.015 g
18 . Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause:
a. Increase in Molarity b. Increase in Molality
c. Decrease in Molarity d. Decrease in Molality
19. Which of the following pairs will not form an ideal solution?
a. Benzene and Toluene b. Hexane and Heptane
c. Ethanol and acetone d. Bromobenzene and Chlorobenzene
20. A 5% by mass solution of glucose is isotonic with 1% solution by mass of a substance X .
The molar mass of X is :
a.36 b.18 c.72 d.900
21. When 2.5 g of a non volatile solute was dissolved in 50 ml water it gave boiling point
elevation of 0.52°C . The molar mass of solute is ( Kb= 0.52 K/m) :
a.100 b.50 c.25 d.75

Section-B[ Assertion Reason ]

In the questions given below, two statements are given Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
select the correct answer
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is wrong.
d. A is wrong but R is correct
Q. 1 Assertion: A raw mango placed in a saline solution loses water and shriveles into pickle.
Reason: Through the process of reverse osmosis, raw mangoes shrivel into pickle.
Q.2 Assertion: Relative lowering in vapour pressure is a colligative property.
Reason: Relative lowering in Vapour pressure depends upon the mole fraction of solvent.
Q. 3 Assertion: A mixture of Chloroform and acetone forms a non ideal solution with positive
deviation.
Reason: Acetone is more volatile than chloroform.
Q.4 Assertion: Cryoscopic constant depends upon the nature of solvent.
Reason: Cryoscopic constant is a universal constant.
Q.5 Assertion: Molarity of a solution changes with temperature.
Reason: Molarity is a colligative property.
Q.6 Assertion: Vant hoff factor for benzoic acid in benzene is less than one .
Reason: Benzoic acid behave as a weak electrolyte in Benzene.
Q.7 Assertion: 0.1 M Sucrose solution has greater osmotic pressure than 0.1 M glucose
solution.
Reason: Molecular mass of sucrose is greater than glucose.
Q.8 Assertion: Increasing pressure on pure water decreases its freezing point.
Reason: Density of water is maximum at 273 K
Q.9 Assertion: Cooking time is reduced in pressure cooker.
Reason: Boiling Point inside the pressure cooker is raised.
Q.10 Assertion: One molar aqueous solution has always higher concentration than one molal
solution.
Reason: One molar solution contains less solvent than one molal solution.

Question Answers :
1. State Raoult's law for a solution containing volatile components. Write two characteristics
of the solution which obeys Raoult's law at all concentrations.

2. A 4% solution(w/w) of sucrose (M = 342 g mol−1) in water has a freezing point of 271.15

K. Calculate thefreezing point of 5% glucose (M = 180 g mol−1) in water. (Given: Freezing
point of pure water = 273.15 K
3Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 60 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180 g
mol–1) in 250 g ofwater. (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
4. Give reasons for the following:
(i) Measurement of osmotic pressure method is preferred for the determination of molar
masses ofmacromolecules such as proteins and polymers.
(ii) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.
(iii)Elevation of boiling point of 1 M KCl solution is nearly double than that of 1 M sugar
solution.
5. A 10% solution (by mass) of sucrose in water has freezing point of 269.15 K. Calculate the
freezing point of10% glucose in water, if freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K.
6. .Define the following terms: (i) Ideal solution. (ii) Molarity (M)4. 30 g of urea (M = 60 g
mol−1) is dissolved in 846 g of water. Calculate the vapour pressure of water for this solution
if vapour pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23·8 mm Hg.

7. Calculate the freezing point of solution when 1.9 g of MgCl2 (M = 95 g mol−1) was
dissolved in 50 g of water, assumingMgCl2

undergoes complete ionization. (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol−1)

8. (i) Out of 1 M glucose and 2 M glucose, which one has a higher boiling point and why?
When 2.56 g of sulphur was dissolved in 100 g of CS2, the freezing point lowered by 0.383 K.
Calculate the formula ofsulphur

(Sx). (Kf for CS2 = 3.83 K kg mol−1, Atomic mass of sulphur = 32 g mol−1]
9. Blood cells are isotonic with 0.9% sodium chloride solution. What happens if we place
blood cells in a solution containing
(i) 1.2% sodium chloride solution?
(ii) 0.4% sodium chloride solution?
10. Gas (A) is more soluble in water than Gas (B) at the same temperature. Which one of the
two gases will havethe higher value of KH (Henry's constant) and why?
11. In non-ideal solution, what type of deviation shows the formation of maximum boiling
azeotropes?

12. Calculate the boiling point of solution when 4 g of MgSO4 (M = 120 g mol–1) was
dissolved in 100 g of water,assuming MgSO4

undergoes complete ionization.(Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol–1)

13. Why does a solution containing non-volatile solute have higher boiling point than the
pure solvent ? Why iselevation of boiling
point a colligative property ?
14. What is meant by negative deviation from Raoult's law? Give an example. What is the
sign of ∆mixH for negative deviation?
15. Define azeotropes. What type of azeotrope is formed by negative deviation from Raoult's
law? Give an example.

16. Calculate the mass of NaCl (molar mass = 58.5 g mol−1) to be dissolved in 37.2 g of water
to lower the freezingpoint by 2°C, assuming that NaCl undergoes complete dissociation. (Kf
for water = 1.86 K kg mol−1)
17. What is meant by positive deviations from Raoult's law? Give an example. What is the
sign of ∆mixH for positivedeviation?
18. Define azeotropes. What type of azeotrope is formed by positive deviation from Raoult's
law ? Give an example.
19. 3.9 g of benzoic acid dissolved in 49 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point of
1.62 K. Calculate thevan't Hoff factor and predict the nature of solute (associated or
dissociated). (Given : Molar mass of benzoic acid = 122 g mol−1, Kf for benzene = 4.9 K kg
mol−1)
20. Define the following terms: (i)Cryoscopic constant. (ii) Molal elevation constant (Kb)

21. A solution containing 15 g urea (molar mass = 60 gmol–1) per litre of solution in water
has the same osmotic pressure(isotonic) as a solution of glucose (molar mass = 180 gmol–1)
in water. Calculate the mass of glucose present in one litreof its solution.

22. Calculate the mass of a compound (molar mass = 256 g mol−1) to be dissolved in 75 g of
benzene to lower itsfreezing point by 0.48 K (Kf = 5.12 K kg mol−1). 1·00 g of a non-
electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene by
0·40 K. Find themolar mass of the solute. (Kf for benzene = 5·12 K kg mol−1)

23 18 g of glucose, C6H12O6 (Molar Mass = 180 g mol−1) is dissolved in 1 kg of water in a

sauce pan. At what temperature will this

solution boil? (Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol−1, boiling point of pure water = 373.15 K)

24. Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 2.5 × 10−2 g of
K2SO4 in 2L of water at 25°C, assumingthat it is completely dissociated. (R = 0.0821 L atm K
−1 mol−1, Molar mass of K2SO4 = 174 g mol−1)
25. A 1.00 molal aqueous solution of trichloroacetic acid (CCl3COOH) is heated to its boiling
point. The solution has the boilingpoint of 100.18°C. Determine the van’t Hoff factor for
trichloroacetic acid. (Kb for water = 0.512 kg mol −1)

Unit – 2 ( Electrochemistry )
Multiple Choice Questions:
Q.1 In a lead storage battery, the electrolyte H2SO4 is
a. 38% b. 62% c. 80% d. 48%
Q.2 Galvanisation is applying a coating of
a. Cr b. Cu c. Zn d. Pb
Q.3 The cell constant of a conductivity cell
a. Changes with change in concentration of the electrolyte.
b. changes with nature of electrolyte.
c. changes with increase in temperature of electrolyte.
d. remains constant for a cell.
Q.4 The potential of Hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution of ph10 is:
a. 0.591V b. -0. 591V c. 0.002V d. 2V
Q.5 Which of the following is not a good conductor of electricity?
a. CH3COONa b. C2H5OH c. NaCl d. KOH
Q.6 The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of aluminium from Al2O3 is
a.1F b. 2F c. 3F d 6F
Q.7 During electrolysis of aq.CuSO4 in presence of Cu electrodes:
a. Cu will deposit at anode. b. Oxygen will be released at anode.
c. Oxygen will be released at cathode d. Cu will deposit at Cathode.
Q.9 For which of the following compounds, the graph bw molar conductivity and (c) ^1/2 is
obtained a straight line?
a. CsCl b. NH4OH c. CH3COOH
d. all of these
Q.10 Which one of the following metals can not be obtained by electrolysis of aq. Solution of
its salt?
a.Ag b.Mg c.Cu d.Cr
Section- B [Assertion -Reason]
Q.11 Assertion: Molar conductivity increases on dilution.
Reason: Ions move faster in dilute solutions.
Q.12 Assertion: Copper sulphate can be kept in a zinc vessel.
Reason: Zinc is more reactive than Cu.
Q.13 Assertion: F2 is stronger oxidising agent than Cl2.
Reason: Oxidation potential of F2 is greater than that of Cl2.
Q.14 Assertion: The daniel cell becomes dead after some time.
Reason: Oxidation potential of Zn decreases and that of Cu increases.
Q.15 Assertion: Current stops flowing when Ecell=0.
Reason: Equlibrium of the cell reaction is obtained.
16.Two half cell reactions of an electrochemical cell are given below :
MnO–4(aq) + 8H+ (aq) + 5e– → Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O (I), E° = + 1.51 V
Sn2+ (aq) → 4 Sn4+ (aq) + 2e–, E° = + 0.15 V
Construct the redox equation from the two half cell reactions and predict if this reaction favours
formation of reactants or product shown in the equation.
17. The conductivity of 0.001 M acetic acid is 4 × 10-5 S/cm. Calculate the dissociation constant of
18. A copper-silver cell is set up. The copper ion concentration in it is 0.10 M. The concentration of
silver ion is not known. The cell potential is measured 0,422 V. Determine the concentration of silver
ion in the cell.
Given : E°Ag+/Ag = + 0.80 V, E° Cu2+/Cu = + 0.34 V.
19. A voltaic cell is set up at 25°C with the following half cells :
Al/Al3+ (0.001 M) and Ni/Ni2+ (0.50 M)
Write an equation for the reaction that occurs when the cell generates an electric current and
determine the cell potential.
20. The cell in which the following reaction occurs :
2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I– (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2 (s) has E0cell = 0.236V at 298K. Calculate the standard Gibbs
energy and the equilibrium constant of the cell reaction.
(Antilog of 6.5 = 3.162 × 106; of 8.0 = 10 × 108; of 8.5 = 3.162 × 108)
21. Silver is uniformly electro-deposited on a metallic vessel of surface area of 900 cm2 by passing a
current of 0.5 ampere for 2 hours. Calculate the thickness of silver deposited.
[Given: the density of silver is 10.5 g cm-3 and atomic mass of Ag = 108 amu.]
22. Calculate e.m.f. of the following cell at 298 K: 2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+ (0.1 M) → 2Cr3+ (0.01 M) + 3 Fe(s)
Given: E0(Cr3+| Cr) = -0.74 V E0(Fe2+ | Fe) = -0.44 V
23. Calculate ΔrG° and log Kc for the following reaction at 298 K.
2Cr(s)+3Cd2+(aq)⟶2Cr3+raq+3Cd(s)
[Given : E0Cell = +0.34 V, IF = 96500 C mol-1]

24. (a) Define the term molar conductivity. How is it related to conductivity of the related solution?
(b) One half-cell in a voltaic cell is constructed from a silver wire dipped in silver nitrate solution of
unknown concentration. Its other half-cell consists of a zinc electrode dipping in
1.0 M solution of Zn(NO3)2. A voltage of 1.48 V is measured for this cell. Use this information to
calculate the concentration of silver nitrate solution used.

Make any One Project:

INVESTIGATORY PROJECT :
• Study of the presence of oxalate ions in guava fruit at different stages of ripening.
• Study of quantity of casein present in different samples of milk.
• Preparation of soybean milk and its comparison with the natural milk with respect to curd
formation,
effect of temperature, etc.
• Study of the effect of Potassium Bisulphate as food preservative under various conditions
(temperature, concentration, time, etc.)
• Study of digestion of starch by salivary amylase and effect of pH and temperature on it.
• Comparative study of the rate of fermentation of following materials: wheat flour, gram flour,
potato
 XII Phy. Edu.
Summer Break Home Work 2025-26

Revision:
( Concepts, MCQ, Assertion- Reasons, Case study) :
1. Ch. 1 management of Sporting events
2. Ch. 2 Children and Women in Sports
3. Ch 3. Yoga and Preventive Measures for Lifestyle Lifestyle Diseases.
Practical Record File:

➢ Practical-2: Procedure , Benefits & Contraindication for any two Asanas for each lifestyle
disease.
➢ Practical-3: Anyone one IOA recognized Sport/Game of choice. Labelled diagram of Field &
Equipment. Also, mention its Rules, Terminologies & Skills.

Subject -English
. Class -XII
• Project Work will be done by the students according to their Groups & Topics which
• were discussed in their classes.
• Revise & go through the Prose & Poetry from NCERT Books.
• Do the practice of Reading & Writing Section from CBSE Question paper 2024-25.

SUMMER VACATIONS HOMEWORK (2025-2026)

CLASS : XII
SUBJECT : PHYSICS

● Written Practice of all the derivations of Unit - 1 ( Electrostatic) and Unit - 2 ( Current and
electricity ) till completed.
UNIT - ELECTROSTATIC
Chapter - Electric Charges and fields
● Do Objective questions given In the Dinesh helpbook Page no.- 119 to 126
-MCQ's - Page no. 119
-Assertion Reason - Page no. 124
-Case Based - Page no. 126
-Unsolved Numericals- Page no. 77,78,98,114
Chapter - Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
● Do Objective questions given In the Dinesh helpbook Page no.- 225 to 238
-MCQ's - Page no. 231
-Assertion Reason - Page no. 231
-Case Based - Page no. 232
- One mark questions - 235
-Unsolved Numericals- Page no. 166, 182, 197, 213, 219, 220
 Class XII Business Studies

01 Self Assessment Test

Time allowed : 45 min.
Maximum Marks : 20
0.1 Assertion (A): Each group of activities having the same objective must have one head and one
Reason (R): All the units of an organisation should be moving towards different objectivesplan.through coordinated and focused
efforts.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (1 mark)
).2 The picture given below depicts one of the principles of scientific management. Identify it. (1 mark)
PRODUCTION

Sharing of gains between management and workers

(a) Science, not rule of thumb

(b) Harmony, not discord
(c) Cooperation, not individualism
(d) Development of each and every person to his/her greatest efficiency and prosperity
Q.3 Vaibhav Sharma was working as the Production Manager in Crescent Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. To ger his son admitted in school
he wanted to take leave from the office but on the same day, an important meeting with the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the
company was scheduled to discuss some new medicines to be manufactured. Considering the significance of the meeting, he did
not take leave. The CEOappreciated his exemplary behaviour as he gave priority to the organisational interest over his personal
interest. Identify the principle of management being followed by Vaibhav Sharma in the above case. (1 mark)
(a) Subordination of individual interest to general interest (b) Centralisation and Decentralisation
() Discipline (d) Initiative
Q4 ABC &Co. is conducting training to help its managers understand the principles of management. Howevet, one employee does
not want to attend it as he thinks that such training only benefits employees of large organizations and not small firms like his.
Which of the following nature of principles of management has the employee NOT understood? (1mark)
(a) flexible (b) general guidelines
(c) universal applicability (d) formed by practice and experimentation
headquarters at
Q5 Damini D'souza took over the reins of 'Kinsa Retail' as its Managing Director in India. Kinsa Retail with its office taking
many countries with each regional
Japan has been in retail business for the last 40 years. It has regional offices in
care of the shops in that particular region. As it is a large organisation, the regional officers have been given the powers to decide
customers of their region. Kinsa Retail wants the
and spend funds sanctioned to them by the headquarter for the welfare of the
is in place for putting values into practice.
highest possible standards of ethical conduct being followed for which a code of conduct highest standards of personal and professional
with the
All employees as well as Board members are required to act in accordance penalty including termination of employment.
integrity when acting on behalf of the company. Non-compliance involves a
heavy (3 marks)
by Kinsa Retail.
ldentify and state two principles of general management being followed the objective of
0 Name and explain with a suitable example the technique of Scientific Management given by Taylor, with (3 marks)
determining the number of workers to be employed for a task. (4 marks)
highlighting the significance of principles of management.
e Define principles of management. Explain any three points
 Q.8 Fayol and Taylor both have contributedimmensely to the knowledge of management, which has become a basis for further practice
bymostmanagers. Taylorforthought
remembered his timethat
andby motion
sientifically
studies analysing work foremnanship.
and functional it would be possible
He said tothatfindtheone
bestbest
resultwaywould
to doCome
it Hefrom
the partnership between a trained and qualified management and a cooperative and innovative workforce. Fayol explained vhat
amounts to a manager's work and what principles should be followed in doing this work.
In the light of the above discussion, differentiate between the contribution of Taylor and Fayol on the following basis;
(b) Unity of command
(a) Perspective
(c) Focus (d) Expression
() Basis of formnation (6 marks)
(e) Applicability

02 Self Assessment Test

Time allowed : 45 min. Masimum Marks :20
Q.1 Which
"The application of principles of management has to be changed as per requirements.
characteristic of management principles is highlighted above? (Choose the correct alternative) (1 mark)
(a) Flexible (b) Contingent
(c) Behavioral (d) General guidelines
Q.2 The diagram given below depicts one of the techniques of ouentificmanagement. Idntify ir. (1 mark)

Factory Manager

Planníng Incharge Production Incharge

|Instruction Route Time and Speed Gang Repairs Inspector

Card Clerk ClerkCost Clerk Boss Boss Boss

Disciplinarian

Workman

(a) Cooperation, not individualism (b) Functional foremanship

(c) Unity of Direction (d) Standardisation and Simplification of work
Q3 Assertion (A): Employee turnover should be maximised to maintain organisational efficiency.
Reason (R): Employees should have stability of tenure. They should be given reasonable time to show results.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (1 mark)
Q.4 Sangeeta visited 'Smile Dental Clinic for treatment of toothache. She observed that the receptionist was seated at the reception desk.
the place fixed for her. Dental instruments were laid neatly in dental instrument trays and the used instruments were placed in the
sterilization arca. There was a fixed place for everything and it was present there. There was no hindrance to the work of the(1dentst
mark)
and she was working with her maximum efficiency. The principle of management followed at the Smile Derntal Clinicwas:
(a) Equity (b) Discipline
(c) Order (d) Initiative
Q5 Management principles enable managers to learn from past mistakes and conserve time by solving recurring problems quicky
As such management principles increase managerial efficiency. For example, a manager can leave routine decision-making to
subordinates and deal with exceptional situations which require his/her expertise.
(a) State the point of significance of principles of management highlighted above. (3 marks)
(b) Identify and state the principles of management highlighted above. customer,
Q.6 Kirtika Kapoor, the CEO of Mobilo Ltd, firmly believes in providing fair wages to the employees superior value to the
care for the environment and honest dealings with business associates.
(a) Identify and explain the general principle of management followed by Kirtika Kapoor. ( 3 marks)

(b) State the point of importance of management principles highlighted above.

 o.7 Tanvi is a manager in Beta Itd, a company manufacturing plastic
result, Beta Ltd. incurred a huge loss as it had to stop production ofglasses and bowls. The government banned plastic items. As a
plastic glasses and bowls, and had to purchase new machinery
for producing paper glasses and bowls.
The management of the company entered into an agreement with
without additional payment to revive the company out of loss. In labour return
union whereby workers agreed to put in extra hours
workers when this mission was accomplished. the management promised to increase wages of the
Tanvi found that workers' efficiency declined due to long working hours. She
improvement of physical conditions of work to reduce stress. It worked and workersconducted
cfficiency
an experiment to see the effect of
and
Within two months, the company revived out of loss. The productivity increased manifold.
(a) Identify and explain the management, in return, increased their wages by 30 per cent.
(b) State the characteristic ofprinciples/technique of management highlighted
principles of management highlighted above. above.
0.8 Vishesh completed his MBA at a reputed business school in Lucknow. He (4 marks)
was impressed by the Principles and Techniques of
Scientific Managenment developed by EW. Taylor. On completing his MBA, he wanted to
familv's business of fast food chain of restaurants named apply scientific Management in his
'Burger Mania'.
His main goal was to reduce costs with an increased output. To begin with, he
be followed throughout the organisation. So, he investigated traditional methodswanted to develop astandard method which would
The standard method, ie. the best way of doing the job was then developed through work study and unified the best practices.
procurement of raw materials till the delivery of the final product to the customer. taking into account all parameters right from the
not only be scientifically selected but should also be given the required Vishesh also believed that each person should
training to increase efficiency. For this, he set up a Special
Training Unit called 'Hamburger in Bengaluru where the workers were given the
he set up a workers were given the required training to learn the best method. At required the
training to increase efficiency. For this,
were strategically placed to reduce the time taken for excess movements. The standard factory, the ingredients making up a burger
time and other parameters were determined
on the basis of work study and Vishesh rewarded the workers for
meeting the standard output.
Now, Burger Mania has standardised processes, raw material, time, machinery, product and working conditions that ensure the
food they send out to their customers has the same high standards of excellence and level
The application of ScientificManagement to every aspect of restaurant operations led to of quality in every chain or franchise.
Quoting the lines from the above, explain the Principles and Techniques of Scientific Management Burger Mania's widespread success.
used by 'Burger Mania'. (6 marks)

03 Self Assessment Test

Time allowed : 45 min.
Maximum Marks : 20
Q.1 In an organisation, cach person should be scientifically selected. Then work assigned should suit his physical,
mental and intellectual
capabilities. To increase efficiency, they should be given the required training. Efficient employees would produce
more. Which of the following principles of management is highlighted above? (Choose the correct alternative) more and earn
(a) Science, not rule of thumb (1 mark)
(b) Division of work.
(c) Development of each and every person to his/her greatest efficiency and prosperity.
(d) Remuneration of employees.
Q.2 Assertion (A): The intent of division of work is to produce more and better work for the same
effort. Specialisation is the most
efficient way to use humnan effort.
Reason (R): In business work can be performed more efficiently if it is divided into specialised tasks; each performed by a
or trained employee. This results in efficient and effective output. specialist
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
QQ3 Vidhya PublicSchool is a renowned school in Nagpur. The management recently appointed a new Business Studies teacher, (lShwera,
mark)
to teach classes XI and XII and gave her a monthly salary of50,000. Shweta is not satisfied with it and said The salary is not just
and equitable as per the amount of work required to be done by a Business Studies teacher. Other schools in the city are paving
(70,000 to their teachers teaching classes XI and XII."
Name the principle of management that has been violated by Vidhya Public School in the above case: (1 mark)
(a) Discipline (b) Remuneration of Employees
(c) Equity (d) Esprit de corps
 do it in the best and the cheanes.
Q.4 'Scientific Managem.. ,ou want men to doand seeing that they
ayor developed various technigues tor application of Scientific Management principles and was able to achieve a three-fold
One of the techniques helps to determine the number
e In productivity in Berhlchem Steel Company, where he worked. costs. Another technique recognises those workers who
of workers to be emploved: frame suirable incenrive schemes and labour
the premise that efficiency is the result of the joint efforts of the
dre able to accomplish/exceed the fair dav's work and is based on (1 mark)
managerS and the workers. Identify the rechnique of Scientific Management discussed above.
(a) Time Study (b) Method Study
(c) Motion Study (d) Diferential Piece Wage System
25 The diagram given below depicts the application of one of the principles of general management. Identify and explain it. What
(3 marks)
is the significance of the dotted line joining Eand O? A

Q6 For greater productivity, work should be divided into small tasks and each employee should be trained to perform his/her specialised
job. This principle is applicable to a government office where there is a diaryl dispatch clerk whose job is to receive and send mail
or documents, adataentry operator whose task is to input data on the computer, a peon and an officer etc. This principle is also
applicable
to a limited company where there are separate departments like Production, Finance, Marketing and Research and
Development (R&D)etc.
(a) Identify and explain the principle of management highlighted in the above para
(b) Identify and state the characteristic of principles of management highlighted in the
Q7 A production manager at top level in a reputed corporate, Mr. Rathore above para. (3 marks)
firm. While deciding on the supplier for the financial year 2018-19, he holds the responsibility for ordering raw material for the
gave the
instead of the firm's usual supplier who was willing to lower the rates for the order. order to his cousin at a higher price per unit
(a) Which principle of management was violated by Mr. Rathore?
(b) What are the positive impacts of following the above
Q.8 Explain any four points regarding significance of principlesidentified principle?
of management. (4 marks)
(6 marks)
 Self Assessment Test
Time allowed : 45 min.
03 MaximIn Marks : 20
Q.1 is considered an element of social environment. (Choose
(a) Expansion of transportation and communication the correct alternative) (1 mark)
facilities.
(b) Expectations from the workforce
(c) The extent and nature of government interventions
in business.
(d) Rate of saving and investment.
o.2 Assertion (A): Business environment is dynamic.
Reason (R): It becomes casy to comprehend at once what exactly constitutes a given
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct environment.
explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
explanation of Assertion (A).
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(1 mark)
0.3 Rising traffic congestion levels made Subhash think out-of the-box. He came up with 'Speedo', the first Bike Taxi App in India
for a fast and an affordable means of daily travel. His aim was to provide cconomical, cost-effective, fuel-efficient and ime
saving transport to the people with an affordable means of transportation. The consumers could navigate narrow lanes and bypass
traffic congestion problems. The business started growing at 209% month over month. Today, it is successfully operating in twclve
cities with more than 60,000 consunmers. Subhash and his team continuously monitor the business environment to improve its
present performance so that the business continues to succeed in che long-run also. Identify the point of importance of business
environment discussed in the above para. (1 mark)
(a) It enables the firm to identify opportunities and getting the first mover advantage.
(b) It helps in improving performance.
(c) It helps the firm to identify threats and early warning signals.
(d) It helps in tapping useful resources.
Q.4 Goodwill Enterprises is a large-scale automobile manufacturer, who fulfills the needs of both industrial users and consumers. The
company is providing easy finance facilities at a low rate of interest, which has considerably increased the demand for the product.
The company has installeda new branch managementsoftware to efficiently manage and coordinate activities across their multiple
branches and locations. Identify the components of the business environment from the above case study. (1 mark)
(a) Political and economic environment (b) Economicand social environment
() Technological and legal environment (d) Economic and technological environment
Q5 State any three features of business environment. (3 marks)
Q.6 State any three features of Demonetization. (3 marks)
Q.7 Environment is a source of various resources for running a business. To engage in any type of activity, a business enterprise assembles
various resources called inputs like finance, machines, raw materials, power and water, labour, etc., from its environment including
financiers, government and suppliers. They decide to provide these resources with their own expectations to get something in return
from the enterprise. The business enterprise supplies the environment with its outputs such as goods and services for customers,
payment of taxes to government, return on financial investment to investors and so on. Because the enterprise depends on the
environment as asource of inputs or resources and as an outlet for outputs, it only makes sense that the enterprise designs policies
that allow it to get the resources that it needs so that it can convert those resources into outputs that the environment desires. This
can be done better by understanding what the environment has to offer.
Since environment is asource of both opportunities and threats forguidelines
abusinessforenterprise, its understanding and analysis can be the
decision making (policy). For instance, entry of new
basis for deciding the furure course of action (planning) or training situation.
players into the market, which means more competition may make an enterprise think afresh about how to deal with the
Explain briefly any three points of importance of business environment other than those explained in the above paragraphs. (4 marks)
Q.8 India's craft heritage continues because of its customs and traditions. Crafts are used not only in the country by craftsmen in
exports and imports
Rajasthan, Gujarat and Assam but are also exported to the USA, Germany, the UK and France. The volume ofMinister
of payments and the much needed foreign exchange reserves. The Prime desires that
gives India an advantage in balance process,
the handicraft industry should be expanded by linking it with technology. Focus should be on changing the manufacturing
ensuring durability and adapting innovations. (6 marks)
business environment.
Quoting the lines from the above para, explain four dimensions of the
 Self Assessment Test
Time allowed : 45 min.
04 Maximm Marks : 20
Q.I Non-discriminatory employment practices is an example of environment of business.
(a) Economic (b) Social
(1 mark
(c) Political (d) Legal
Q.2 Statement - I: Business Environment is dynamic as it differs from country to
country.
Statement Il: Business Environment is largely uncertain as it is very difficult to predict future happenings.
(a) Statement I is true and Statement II is false. (b) Statement II is true and Statement I is false.
(c) Both the statements are true. (d) Both the statements are false. (1 mark)
Q.3 "Cartoony Planer is a well-known indoor playground for organising parties for children in Noida. It has many playstations and
itindoor
organises various activities for the kids to enjoy. Looking at the increasing number of children visiting 'Cartoony Planer.
playground in the name ofTiny-Tots House' came up with advanced swings, play stations and entertainment activities ner
Cartoony Planet'. To compete with the newly opened indoor playground, 'Cartoony Planet also added some advanced swings and
entertainment activities to attract more children.
The above information highlights one of the features of business environment. Identify the feature from the following:
(a) Uncertainty (b) Dynamic Nature
() Relativity (d) Interrelatedness
0.4 Match the column-I with column-II and identify the correct (1 mark)
sequence: (Imark)
Column I Column II
A Economic Easy access to the internet has helped with the emergence of ecommerce businesses which in turn
Environment has
increased the availability of goods to places which were earlier considered to be inaccessible.
B Social () A political instability or unrest like a national emergency, a war can lead to uncertainty in business
Environment activities.
C Technological(iii) Inflation increases the cost of raw materials and human resources in an
Environment organisation.
D. Political (iv) A change in the companies act or workmen's compensation act can influence
Environment the business activities
E. Legal Celebration of festivals influences the business of card makers,
Envionment outlets. confectionery shops and other retail
(a) (iv), (v), (i), (ü), (iii) (b) (ii), (v), ), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (i), (v), (i), (iv)
(d) (iii), (v), (i), (ii), (iv)
Q.5 State any three impacts of demonetization on the
Indian economy. (3 marks)
Q.6 In accordance with the economic planning the government of
India gave a lead role to the public sectors for infrastructure industries
whereas the private sectors was broadly given the
government imposed several restrictions, requisitionsresponsibility
and controls
of developing consumer goods industry. At the same time,
on the working of private sector enterprises.
the
Identify and explain briefly any dimensions of business
Q.7 'Konark Ltd.' is an electronic goods manufacturing environment. (3 marks
in comparison to a competing electronic goods
enterprise situated in Shivpuri, Madhya Pradesh. It is earning a very low revenue
Nova's operations are affected directly by the manufacturing enterprise, Nova Ltd.' situated in Mumbai. Both
locations. In addition to this, individual firmsinvestors, customers, competitors and suppliers, which are unique to Konarks and
of this field are affected indirectly by the their respe
economy, composition of the families, the technological changes, factors like the money supply in u
(a) Idenify and state the feature of the etc.
(b) Also, state any three points of concept discussed in the above paragraph.
Q.8 The government of India announced importance of this concept. (4 marks)
Demonetization
November 8, 2016. As a result, the existing 500 of 500 and 1,000 currency notes with effect from the midnig
currency notes of the denomination of{500 and 2,000 and ?1,000 currency notes ceased to be legal tender from that date. New
This step resulted in a substantial increase in the were issued by Reserve Bank of India after the
awareness about and use of Point of Sale machines,announcement.
and other modes of cashless transactions. e-wallets, digital
Also, increased transparency in monetary
government revenue in the form of tax collection. transactions and disclosure led to a
Explain the dimensions of business environment highlighted above, by (6 marks
quoting the lines from the above.
 Self Assessment Test
Time allowed : 45 min.
Q.1 consists of various
05 Maximum Marks: 20
impact on business and industry. macro-level factors related to the means of production
and
(a) Economic environment (Choose the correct alternative) distribution of wealth which have an
(b) Political environment (1 mark)
(c) Social environment
(d) Legal environment
o2 Which of the following
will be included in economic
(a) Banks environment? (Choose the correct alternative)
(b) National Income (1 mark)
(c) Annual Budgets
(d) All of these
03 Statement I: Demonetisation
led to tax administration
Statement II: The aim of demonetisation channelizing savings into the formal financial
formal financial system and improving tax is to create a less-cash or cash-lite economy, i.., channeling system.
(a) StatementI is correct compliance. more savings through the
and Statement II is not
(b) Statement II is correct correct.
and Statement Iis not correct.
(c) Both the Statements Iand II are
(d) Both the correct.
Statements I and II are not correct.
0.4 Dolma and Una were gardners with (1 mark)
decades of hands-on experience. They were the first
gardens specially for plant-overs living in apartments. one to recognise the need of indoor
They took advantage of this opportunity and decided to
designing ideas for indoor gardening through their offer beautiful
'My Space' offered creative ideas like Garden innovative venture 'My Space'.
wall', Hanging Garden, Window Garden', 'Book-shelf
Since there were no competitors they soon became the garden and many more.
From the following points identify the importance of market leaders in the field.
(a) Business Environment helps the firm to Business Environment highlighted above: (1 mark)
identify
(b) Business Environment helps in tapping useful threats and early warning signals.
(c) Business Environment enables the firm to identifyresources.
opportunities
(d) Business Environment helps in assisting in planning and policy and getting the first mover advantage.
Q.5 Explain the following features of business environment: formulation
() Uncertainty (ii) Complexity (ii) Relativity (3 marks)
Q.6 Explain the technological environment of business.
Q7 As a part of economic reforms, the government of India announced a new industrial policy in (3 marks)
July 1991.
(a) The Government reduced the number of industries under compulsory licensing to six.
(b) Many of the industries were deserved. The role of the publicsector was limited only to four
(c) Disinvestment was carried out in case of many public sectors industrial enterprises. industries of strategic importance.
(d) Policy towards foreign capital was liberalised. The share of foreign equity participation was increased and in many
activities
100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) was permitted.
ldentify and explain any two dimensions of business environment highlighted above.
Q8 Naman and Govind after finishing their Bachelor's under vocational stream decided to start their own travel agency (4 marks)
which will
book Rail Tickets and Air Tickets on a commission basis. They also thought of providing tickets within ten minutes through the
use of internet. They discussed the idea with their Professor Mr. Mehta who liked the idea and suggested that they shouia rst
analyse the business environment which consists of investors, competitors and other forces like social, political etc. that may afect
their business directly or indirectly. He further told them about the technological improvements and shifts in consumer preferences
that were taking place and hence they should be aware of the environmental trends and changes which may hinder their business
pertormance. He emphasised making plans keeping in mind the threat posed by the competitors, so that chey can deal with the
situation efectively. This alignment of business operations with the business environment willresult in better performance.
) Identify and explain the component of business environment highlighted in the above Para.
(1) Explain any two features of business environment as discussed by Professor Mehta with Naman and Govind.
(üi) Explain two points of importance of business environment as stated by Professor Mehta in the above situation. (6 marks)
 01 Self Assessment Test
Tine allowed : 45 min,
Vishesh Constructions , a construction Maximum Marks : 20
Q.1 at their construction sites:
company, decided to strictly implement 'No Helmert, No
Entry and put the following sign
NOHELMET

NO ENTRY
Jdentify the type of plan indicated by the above sign:
(a) Policy (1 mark)
(c) Method (b) Rule
02 Assertion (A): Planning does not guarantee success. (d) Programme
Reason (R): Managers have a tendency to rely on previously tried and tested
aplan has worked before it will work again. successful plans. It is not always true that just because
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R)
is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is
not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
0.3 A sanitizer manufacturing company wants to become a market leader. For this purpose the (1 mark)
manager follows an activity with certain
logical steps. The first step suggested by him is to increase profits by at least 30% in the next quarter.
What will be the last step of
the activity being followed by the manager. (1 mark)
(a) Follow-up action (b) Identifying alternative course of action
(c) Setting objectives (d) Evaluating alternative courses of action
Q.4 YTS, a Shipping company has been successfully carrying out its shipping business for the past five years. Last year, it rolled out a
new shipping initiative during the holiday season, with the promise to deliver all packages by a particular time before the holidays.
The company had an objective of increasing the profit at aconsistent rate. The unexpected high demand hasled the workers and the
delivery team, causing adelay in the delivery of alarge number of packages. The comparny did not recognise the logistical diftculties n
training new staff, in order to meet its dlivery schedules as promised. The complacency of the company to think that aconsistent rate
of profir could be maintained, led to its failure. Identify the limitation of planning discussed above (1 mark)
(a) planning is a time consuming process (b) planning does not guarantee success
(c) Planning involves huge costs (d) planning reduces creativity
Q5 "Failing to plan is planning to fail." Comment. (3 marks)
Q0 Matta Auto Ltd. is manufacturing different types of commercial vehicles. Their sales were rupees two hundred crores in the previous
year. The company decided to increase sales by 20% during the current year. It conducted internal as well as external audits for
the same. Through internal audit, they analysed the strengths and weaknesses of the business acrossall departments. External audit
tocused on the opportunities and the threats in the constantly changing business environment. Thus, a comprehensive plan was
prepared taking into consideration the business environment and the necessary resources were allocated to achieving the target. The
company directed its offices throughout the country to follow the plan. The company's commitment to developing effective plans
to achieve a consistent increase in sales has ensured its continual growth over the past one decade.
ldentity and explain the two types of plans discussed above. (3 marks)
e Mega Ltd. holds an Annual Management Programme every year in the month of March in which the top managerial personnel
Tormulate plans for the next year by analysing and predicting the future to meet future events effectively. As they are responsible
tor providing direction tothe organisation, facts are thoroughly checked through scientific calculations. Detailed plans are prepared
ater discussion with professional experts. Preliminary investigations are also undertaken to find out the viability of the plan. Since
 it is an intellectual activity requiring intelligent imagination and sound judgement, it is mainly done by the top management.
Usually rest of the members just implement the plans. Middle level managers are neither allowed to deviate from the plans nor
permitted to act on their own. The top management ensures that the cxpenses incurred in formulating the plans justify the benek.
derived from them. State tuo limitations and two features of planningdiscussed above. (4 marks)
Q.8 Explain the following statements related to the planning function of management:
() Planning is closely connected with creativity and innovation. (i) Planning will be a futile exercise if it is not acted(6 marks)
unon
implemented. (ii) Planning is the most challenging activity for the management (iv) Planning is a pre-requisite for controlling.
(9) Planning is purposeful. (vi) Planning is not an exclusive function of top management.

02 Self Assessment Test

Time allowed : 45 min. Maximum Marks : 20
Q1 'Surya Fashion Lrd.' hired Suresh Malhotra, an ace fashion designer to develop a new product line. He charged 50 lakh for
consultation. The company spent another 1.5 crore in formulating the marketing campaign for launching their new product line.
Their products were not liked by the consumers and the company could generate arevenue of 15lakh only from this product line
Thus, the cost incurrec is not justifying the benefits derived from the plans.
Which limitation of planning is reflected in the above para? (1 mark)
(a) Planning is time consuming (b) Planning involves huge costs
(c) Planning leads to rigidity (d) Planning reduces creativity
Q2 Statement I: Programmes are detailed statements about aproject which outlines the objectives, policies, procedures, rules, tasks,
human and physical resources required and the budget to implement any course of action.
Statement II: Programmes include the entire gamut of activities as well as the organisation's policy and how it will contribute to the
overall business plan.
(a) Statement Iis correct and Statement II is not correct.
(b) Statement II is correct and Statement Iis not correct.
(c) Both the Statements Iand II are correct.
(d) Both the Statements I and II are not correct.
Q3 During the devastating carthquake in Gujarat, Mansukhbhai, a traditional clay craftsman, incurred (1 mark)
heavy
business. Journalists photographed his broken matkas and referred to them with the caption" The poor man's broken losses in the pottery
idea struck him to make a real fridge with the same cooling principle and after several tests of soil fridge". An
the innovative Claycool' fridge in 2005. His company is growing at 15% annually and he and fridge designs, he introduced
the end of next fiscal year. The company has stuck to its statement of keeping all the seeks to achieve a target of10 crores by
affordable. ldentify the plans referred to in the above case study. products priced at a lower rate in order to be
(a) objective and strategy (1 mark)
(b) strategy and policy
(c) policy and objective (a) objective and rule
Q4 Assertion (A): Planning does not guarantee
success.
Reason (R): The success of an enterprise is possible only when plans are
be translated into action or it becomes properly drawn up and implemented. Any plan needs to
meaningless.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(d) Assertion (A) is false and
Reason (R) is
Q.5 State the main aspects in the concept of true. (I mark)
the planning function of management . (3marks)
Q.6 Define Budget as a type of plan. Why is budget also a
control device? Why is it regarded as a fundamental planning instru
(3 marks)
Q.7 Pan Masala and Sons is a manufacturer of tobacco
products. It decided to increase profits by at least 20% in the next
many options. (i) To increase the working hours of labourers without quarte l
community. (ii) To sell its products outside the schools and additional payment. (ii)To employ children trom ue
(a) Identify the function of management described in the colleges. It opted the (i) and (iii) options to achieve the target.
(b) State the steps of the process involved in the function above para.
of management identified in (a) quoting the lines trom the aboe r
(4 marks)
 Qs plavers
An autoincompany CLrd. is facing a problem of adedlining market share due to increased competition from other new and existing
the market. Its competitors are introducing lower priced models for mass consumers who are price sensitive. C Lzd.
realized that it needs to take steps immediately to improve its market standing in the future. For quality conscious consumers,
Limited plans to introduce new modls with added features and new technological advancements. The company has formed ateam
with representatives from all the levels of management. This team will brainstorm and determine the steps that will be adopted by
the organisation for implementing the above strategy.
Explain the features of Planning highlighted in the situation given above. 6 macks

03 Self Assessment Test

Time allowed : 45 min. Maximum Marks : 20

0.1 'Best Electronics' is led by its visionary Chief Executive Oficer, Nikhil. Ir has a reputation for good quality products and customer
service. Nikhil recognised the need to continually innovate and provide customers with the latest products. He wanted the company
to be the market leader in electronics. Nikhil knew that to realise his ambitious vision, he needed a cear and well-defined plan
that would provide broad contours of the company's business. His team conducted extensive market research to uncover emerging
trends, customer preferences, and potential competitors. On its basis, a plan was prepared defining the company's direction and
scope in the long run. On the implementation of the plan 'Best Electronics became the marker leader in rwo years. The ype1mar
ot
plan which helped 'Best Electronics to become the market leader was:
(a) Policy (b) Rule () Strategy (d) Procedure
Q2 Esya Cars was founded by engincers who wanted to prove chat people dont need to compromise to drive electric vehicles They
took it as achallenge and new ideas took the shape of concrete plans. In July,. 2021 they launched their irst set of all detric cars.
proving to the world that electric vehicles could be better, quicker and more fun to drive than gasoline cars. ( mark
The point of importance of planning discussed in the above case is:
(a) Planning reduces the risk of uncertainty. (b) Planning reduces overlapping and wasteful activities.
(c) Planning promotes innovative ideas. () Planning establishes standards for controlling.
Q3 beStatement
taken.
l: Planning isbasically an intellectual activity of doing rather than thinking, because planning determines the action to
of each
Statement II: Planning presupposes the existence of alternatives and, thus, involves thorough examination and evaluation
alternative and choosing the most appropriate one.
(a) Statement Iis correct and Statement II is not correct. (b) Statement II is correct and Statement I is not correct.
(c) Both the Statements I and II are correct. (d) Both the Statements I and II are not correct. (1 mark
the basis of new requirenments and furure conditions.
Q.4 A plan is framed, it is implemented, and is followed by another plan on (1 mark
Which of the following best describes the above statement?
(a) Planning focuses on achieving objectives. (b) Planning is continuous.
(c) Planning is futuristic. (d) Planning is a mental exercise.
3 marks)
Q.5 Explain the following as features of planning:
(a) Planning is continuous; and (b) Planning is fururistic.
they are Single use or Standing plan: (3 marks)
Q.6 Identify and explain the type of plan and state whether
(a) A type of plan which serves as a controlling device as well.
(b) A plan based on research and analysis and is concerned with physical and technical tasks.
(4 marks)
Q.7 Answer the following questions:
(a) What would be the consequences if there was no planning?
(b) How does planning provide the basis for control?
(c) What does 'primacy of planning' refer to?
(d) Why is planning an intellectual activity of thinking rather than doing? venture
28 Suhasini a home science graduate fromn a reputed college has recendy done a cookery course. She wished to start her own
with the goal of providing 'health food' at reasonable price. She discussed her idea with her teacher (mentor) who encouraged her.
they shortlisted the option to sell ready made and 'ready to make'
After analyzing various options for starting her business venture, cons of both the shortlisted options.
vegetable shakes and sattu milk shakes. Then, they both weighed the pros and
discussed above and give any one of its characteristics.
(a) Identify the function of management being discussed in the case.
(b) Discuss any two limitations of the function (6 marks)
any three points.
() Explain the importance of of the function by giving
 Assignment for Summer Vacations, 2025-26
Class:- XII (Economics)
Written Assignment :-
Introductory Macroeconomics:-

1 Will the following be included in the domestic income of India? Give reasons for your answer.

A Profits earned by foreign companies in India.

B Salaries of Indian working in the Russian embassy in India.
C Profits earned by a branch of State Bank of India in Japan.
2 Does increase in domestic income always lead to increase in national income? If not, give an
illustration in support of your answer. Also write to suggestions to accelerate the growth of domestic
income.
3 If the Nominal GDP is ₹ 1050 and price index is 125, calculate Real GDP.
4 Suppose the GDP at market price of a country in a particular year was ₹1100 crore. Net factor income
from abroad was ₹100 crore. The value of NIT was ₹ 150 crores and national income was ₹ 850 crores.
Calculate the aggregate value of depreciation.
5 Will the following items be included in national income or not. Explain with reasons.
A Winning of a lottery prize or cross word or contests or other windfall gains.
B Old age pension
C Milk purchased by a sweet shop to make milk cake.
D Earning of a self employed doctor having a clinic at his own residence.
E HP uses its own new laptops in its office for self consumption.
F Expenditure on the purchasing of fertilizers by a farmer.
G Payment of electricity bill by a school.
6 Explain main components of net factor income from abroad in detail.
7 In an economy the following transactions take place:-
• A sells goods of ₹ 20 cr. to B, ₹30 cr. to C, ₹40 cr. to households and goods worth ₹10 cr. remain
unsold. Value of inputs of firm a is assumed to be zero.
• B sells his output worth ₹40 cr. to C, ₹60 cr. to D and ₹ 50 cr. to final consumption.
• C sells his output worth ₹100 crore to D, ₹100 crores to households and exports worth ₹100
crores.
• D sells ₹ 300 crores to household and ₹ 100 crores to government.
Calculate Value added by each firm, Total Value added and Total consumption Expenditure.
8 Net factor income from abroad can never be negative. Defend or refute the given statement with valid
argument.
9 Which of the following expenditures incurred are on intermediate products and which are on final
products? You must state reason for your answer:-
A Purchase of ticket for train journey by an individual.
B Purchase of eatables by a firm.
C Purchase of a car by an employer for office use by his employees.
10 ‘Machine’ purchased is always a final good. Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer.
11 Explain ‘banker to the government’ function of central bank.
12 Give the Meanings of Bank Rate, Repo Rate, CRR, SLR, Reverse Repo Rate, Open Market Operation,
Margin Requirement.
Explain there use to create stability in the economy also.
Learn Work:-

Learn all the MCQ, Assertion/Reason based, Statement based questions of

chapter Money and Banking.

Have Happy Summer Vacations

 SUMMER VACATIONS HOMEWORK (2025-2026)
CLASS : XII
SUBJECT : ACCOUNTANCY
,
Chapter 1 : Accounting for partnership Fundamentals
● Solve Additional Question from 78 to 110
●Solve Assertion Reason based questions and Multiple Choice Questions.
Chapter 2 :Change in profit sharing ratio among Existing partner
●Solve Additional Questions from 43 to 61
●Solve Assertion Reason Based Questions and Multiple Choice Questions .
Note : The above mentioned homework Should be done in Fair Notebooks along with
proper Working notes .
 O.S.D.A.V.PUBLIC SCHOOL KAITHAL
Summer Assignment(XII Computer Science)
XI Revision Tour
Text File
Data Structure
File Handling(Binary and CSV)
Case study based for Text file
 XII Hindi 2025-26

ग्रीष्मावकाश गृहकार्य

प्रोजेक्ट:-ककन्ीीं पाीं ँच ककवर्ोीं का सकचत्र वर्यन (कचत्र सकहत जीवन परिचर्,प्रकसद्ध िचनाएीं ,भाषा शैली , प्रकसद्ध
ककवता, ककवर्ोीं की प्रमुख कवशेषताएीं ककन-ककन पुिस्कािोीं से सम्माकनत ककर्ा गर्ा आकि।)

अनुच्छेि:- मोबाइल फोन औि कवद्यार्थी, पुस्तकालर् के लाभ, स्वास्थ्य औि व्यार्ाम,मधुि वार्ी, कहीं िी भाषा की
उपर्ोकगता ,मैंने गमी की छु किर्ाीं कैसे कबताई, पिीक्षा से एक किन पूवय, मन के हािे हाि है मन के जीते जीत ,जल
िहे गा हम िहें गे, मेिे जीवन का लक्ष्य।
Subject Painting
Class XII
Summer Assignment
Session 2025 -26

A Multiple choice questions

1. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of
Rajasthani miniature paintings?
A) Use of bold colors
B) Intricate details
C) Use of European techniques
D) Both A and B
2. Which Rajasthani school of painting is known for its
depiction of the Krishna legend?
A) Mewar school
B) Marwar school
C) Kishangarh school
D) Bundi school
3. Which of the following is a notable feature of Pahari
miniature paintings?
A) Use of soft colors
B) Depiction of natural landscapes
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
4. Which Pahari school of painting is known for its
depiction of the Gita Govinda?
A) Kangra school
B) Guler school
C) Nurpur school
D) Chamba school
5. Who was the Mughal emperor who patronized the
development of miniature painting?
A) Akbar
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Jahan
D) All of the above
6. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of
Mughal miniature paintings?
A) Use of European techniques
B) Depiction of courtly life
C) Intricate details
D) All of the above
7. Who was the famous Mughal painter known for his
portraits?
A) Abul Hasan
B) Farrukh Beg
C) Mansur
D) Bichitr
8. Which Rajasthani school of painting is known for its
bold and vibrant colors?
A) Mewar school
B) Marwar school
C) Kishangarh school
D) Bundi school
9. What is the primary theme depicted in Rajasthani
miniature paintings? A) Courtly life
B) Mythological themes
C) Natural landscapes
D) Both B and C
10. Which Pahari school of painting is known for its
delicate and lyrical style?
A) Kangra school
B) Guler school
C) Nurpur school
D) Chamba school
11. What is the significance of the Pahari school of
painting in Indian art history?
A) It marked a departure from Mughal influence
B) It showcased the beauty of natural landscapes
C) It depicted the life of common people
D) All of the above
12. Who was the Mughal emperor who encouraged the
depiction of European themes in Mughal paintings?
A) Akbar
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangzeb

B. “Create a landscape painting depicting a serene

natural scene, such as a mountain range, a lake, or
a forest. Use colors and brushstrokes to capture
the mood and atmosphere of the scene. Consider
composition, proportion, and balance in your
artwork.”
 OSDAV Public School, Kaithal
Summer Vacation Assignment (2025 ) Roll No. _____
Class XII
Name __________

• Get the print of this PDF and Solve this assignment on this sheet only.
• Make the project, instructions are given in the last.
1. The disintegration of Soviet Union was one of the most important events that altered
the global geopolitics after the second world war. Consider the following statements in
this regard and choose the correct one/s.
1. A coup took place in 1991 that was encouraged by Communist Party hardliners.
2. Boris Yeltsin emerged as a national hero in opposing this coup.
3. In December 1991, under the leadership of Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus, three
major
republics of the USSR, declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
2. European Union is a major alternate political and economic power centre in the
unipolar world led by US. Consider the following statements about origin of EU. Which
of the following is/are not correct?
1. European integration after 1947 was aided by the Cold War.
2. Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC)
was established in 1948 to channel aid to the east European states.
3. The Council of Europe was established in 1948, which was another step forward in
political cooperation.
Code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
3. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) came into being after the socialist
revolution in Russia in 1917. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this
regard?
1. The revolution was inspired by the ideals of socialism, as opposed to capitalism, and the
need for an egalitarian society.
2. In doing so, the makers of the Soviet system gave primacy to the state and the institution of
the party.
3. This was perhaps the biggest attempt in human history to abolish the institution of private
property and consciously design a society based on principles of equality.
Codes:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
1. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) came into being after the socialist
revolution in Russia in 1917. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this
regard?

Pg.1
XII Summer Vacations Assignment
 1.The revolution was inspired by the ideals of socialism, as opposed to capitalism, and the
need for an egalitarian society.
2. In doing so, the makers of the Soviet system gave primacy to the state and the institution of
the party.
3.This was perhaps the biggest attempt in human history to abolish the institution of private
property and consciously design a society based on principles of equality.
Codes:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
Ans:
2. Consider the following statement about ASEAN and choose the incorrect one/s.
1. ASEAN Community comprises of three pillars, namely, the ASEAN Military Community,
the ASEAN Economic Community and the ASEAN Socio-Cultural Community.
2 The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), which was established in 1994, is the organisation
that carries out coordination of security and foreign policy.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:
3. Consider the following statements about relation between India and it’s neighbours.
1. India and Nepal had conflicts related to migration of ethnic Napalese into India.
2. In 1960, with the help of the World Bank, India and Pakistan signed the Indus Waters
Treaty.
Which of these statements are not correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:
4. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is a major regional
initiative by the South Asian states to evolve cooperation through multilateral means.
Which among the following statements is/are correct in this regard?
1. SAARC was comparatively successful in most of the arenas inspite of the political
differences between the member countries.
2. External influence of non-regional players is a major bone of contention which prevents
attainment of full potential of SAARC.
Code:
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of these
Ans:
5. Contemporary World Politics have expanded its scope to include environmental
concerns as the major element in global politics today. Which of the following
statement/s is are correct regarding this?
1. Throughout the world, cultivable area is barely expanding anymore, and a substantial
portion of existing agricultural land is losing fertility.
2. There is a steady decline in the total amount of ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere.
3. Coastal waters are relatively less polluted than the open sea.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
Pg.2
XII Summer Vacations Assignment
c) 3 only d) All of the above
Ans:
6. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development was held in Rio De
Janeiro, in June 1992, which was also called Earth Summit and is marked as the
watershed in the history of climate change and sustainable development. Choose the
correct statement/s in this regard.
1. The Summit was attended by 170 states, thousands of NGOs and many multinational
corporations.
2. The 1987 Brundtland Report, ‘Our Common Future’ acted as a precursor to Earth Summit.
3. In ‘Agenda 21’, there was a consensus between developed and developing countries, on
combining economic growth with ecological responsibility.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Ans:
7. Consider the following statements about the 1992 United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and choose the correct one/s.
1. It provides that the parties should act to protect the climate system “on the basis of equity
and in accordance with their common but differentiate capabilities and respective
capabilities”.
2. India, China and other developing countries were exempted from the requirements of the
Kyoto Protocol.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:
8. What is often called economic globalization usually involves greater economic flows
among different countries of the world. Choose the correct statements from the
following about the features of economic globalisation.
1. The restrictions imposed by different countries on allowing the imports of other
countries have been reduced.
2. The restrictions on movement of capital across the countries have been increased.
3. Developed countries carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure that
citizens of other countries cannot take away the jobs of their own citizens.
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) All the above Ans:
9. Choose the correct statements about reasons for acceleration of globalization:
1. The invention of the telegraph, telephone and microchip has revolutionized
communication.
2. Printing came into being laying the basis for the creation of nationalism.
3. Technology affects not only the way we think of our personal but also our collective lives.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
10. World Social Forum is a global platform opposed to neoliberal globalization. Which
of the following statements about WSF is/are incorrect?
1. It is a wide coalition composed of human rights activists, environmentalists, labour, youth
and women activists.

Pg.3
XII Summer Vacations Assignment
2. The first WSF meeting was organized in Porto Alegre, Brazil in 2000.
3. Fourth and seventh WSF meeting were held in Mumbai in 2004 and 2007 respectively.
Code:
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 only
11. Consider the following statements about Amnesty International and choose the
incorrect one/s.
1. Amnesty International is a part of United Nation campaigns for the protection of human
rights all over the world.
2. A major focus of Amnesty is the misconduct of government authorities.
3. Amnesty promotes respect for all human rights in the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only d) None of the above
Ans:
12. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organization that oversees
those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level. Consider
the following statements and choose the correct one/s.
1. The IMF has 188 member countries but they do not enjoy an equal say
2. The IMF promotes international monetary co-operation and exchange rate stability
3. IMF is a United Nations specialized agency
Code:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) All of the above d) 1 and 3 only
Ans:
13. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development
goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of UN in 2000. Which
among the following are Millennium Development Goals?
1. To achieve Universal Primary Education
2. To improve Maternal Health
3. Provide safe Drinking Water
4. To improve Sanitation
5. To develop Global Partnership for Development
6. To promote Gender Equality and Empower Women.
Code:
a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only b) 1, 2 and 6 only
c) 5 and 6 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only
14. The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Court is composed of 15 Judges, who are elected for terms of office of five years by
the UNGA
2. The Court’s role is to settle disputes in accordance with international law and to give
advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized UN organs and specialized
agencies.
3. The Seat of the court is at peace place in New York.
Choose the incorrect ones.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
Ans:
Pg.4
XII Summer Vacations Assignment
15. Consider the following statements about Bangladesh and choose the correct ones.
1. Secularism is one of the four fundamental principles according to the original Constitution
of Bangladesh in 1972.
2. The secularism principle was removed from the constitution in 1977 by Ziaur Rahman and
declared Islam as the state religion.
3. In 2010, Bangladesh Supreme Court restored secularism as one of the basic tenets of
the Constitution but also kept Islam as the state religion.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
16. Hegemony is also about the capacity to ‘manufacture consent’. Consider the
following statements in this regard and choose the correct one/s.
1. Hegemony implies class ascendancy in the social, political and particularly ideological
spheres.
2. Hegemony arises when the dominant class or country can win the consent of the dominated
classes.
3. It is achieved by coercing the dominated classes to view the world in a manner favourable
to the ascendancy of the dominant class.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
17. Consider the following statements comparing US and European Union and choose
the correct one/s.
1. The EU is the world’s biggest economy with a GDP slightly larger than that of the United
States.
2. EU’s share of world trade is three times larger that of United States.
3. Militarily, the EU’s combined armed forces are the largest in the world with US in the
second position.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
18. lowing statements about Maastricht Treaty, based on which the European
Union was formed. Choose the correct statements.
1. The treaty provides for single visa for all the European Union countries.
2. Margaret Thatcher kept the UK out of the European market.
3. Denmark and Sweden have resisted the Maastricht treaty and the adoption of the euro.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
19. Consider the following statements about the formation of ASEAN and choose the
correct one/s.
1. ASEAN was established in1967 by ten countries of the region through the Singapore
declaration.
2. The primary objective of the association is to accelerate economic growth and through that
‘social progress and cultural development’.
3. A secondary objective was to promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law
and the principles of the United Nations Charter.

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XII Summer Vacations Assignment
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
Ans:
20. Consider the following statements about the condition of China before they started
the economic reform process. Choose the correct one/s.
1. From the inception of the People’s Republic of China in 1949, they were following the
economy based on Soviet model.
2. Agricultural production generated surplus for China to start the industries in a better way
compared to India.
3. Before reforms, China’s industrial production was not growing fast enough to play a good
role in international trade.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
21. Japan can be termed as one of the alternative centres of power which progressed
rapidly after the end of the Second World War. Consider the following in this regard
and choose the correct one/s:
1. Japan has very few natural resources and imports most of its raw materials.
2. It is the only Asian member of the G-8.
3. It is the second largest contributor to the regular budget of the UN.
4. Japan’s military expenditure is the fourth largest in the world.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
1. Soviet system which came into being after socialist revolution in 1917 was a very
powerful leader of communist bloc, but disintegrated in 1990s and reasons cited for this
are:
1. One-party system
2. Russian dominance over other 14 republics of USSR
3. Non-recognition of cultural affairs of people residing in these republics
4. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
2. There are some important events which happened in course of disintegration of
Soviet Union. Consider the following statements and choose the correct one/s:
1. Latvia becomes first of 15 Soviet republics to declare its independence.
2. Permission for Multi-party politics was given in 1990.
3. Russia, Belarus and Armenia established Commonwealth of Independent States in 1991.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only d) 3 only
Ans:
3. New theories and doctrines were proposed during cold war era to control the
influence of opposing bloc. Consider the following statements regarding these and
choose correct one/s:
1. The Truman Doctrine of containment was a United States policy to stop Soviet expansion
during the Cold War.
2. Asian collective security system was proposed by Leonid Brezhnev.
3. The Marshall Plan was the American initiative to aid Europe, in which the United States
gave $17 billion in economic support to help rebuild European economies after the end of
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XII Summer Vacations Assignment
World War
Code:
a) 1and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
Ans:
4. In Eastern Europe, there have been splits in the countries and emergence of new
countries as communism was weakened due to various causes. Consider the following
statements and choose incorrect ones regarding this:
1. Yugoslavia went a peaceful split resulting in emergence of states like Slovenia, Bosnia and
Herzegovina etc
2. Czechoslovakia split resulted into a major conflict and Czechs and Slovaks formed two
independent countries.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans:
5. Economic policies of post-communist regime also underwent a change after the
disintegration of Soviet Union. Consider the following statements and choose correct
one/s:
1. Initiatives were taken to attract foreign investment along with currency convertibility and
deregulation policies.
2. Trade alliances with Western countries were made besides the alliances among the Soviet
Bloc countries.
3. Western capitalist states controlled the development of these countries:
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
Ans:
6. After the disintegration of USSR, newly independent countries started reviving after
about ten years of decline. The reasons cited for their revival are:
1. Revival was brought by export of oil and natural gas.
2. Rent gained from oil pipelines, crossing many countries.
3. Priority given to establishment of stable democratic institutions.
4. Independence of judiciary, prevented any dissent among these countries.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
Ans:
7. Post USSR disintegration, geopolitical scenario has undergone change between India
and USSR.
Consider the following statements regarding this and choose the correct one/s:
1. India has strong friendly relations with Russia but it is not quiet friendly with other Soviet
bloc countries, after their independence.
2. Soviet Union gave assistance to Indian public sector companies.
3. India has remained a major arms and oil importer from Russia.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
Ans:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:
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XII Summer Vacations Assignment
8. World Bank was established under Bretton woods agreement after the Second
World War. Choose the incorrect statements about World Bank:
1. International Development Association is the investment arm of World Bank which
provides loans to private sector.
2. International Finance Commission is the soft loan window of World Bank.
3. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) is the insurance arm of World Bank.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
Ans:
9. World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an international organization that sets rules
for global trade. Which of the following statements about WTO is/are incorrect?
1. It was set up in 1995 as the successor to General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
2. WTO has 160 members with Yemen being the latest to join on June 26, 2014.
3. The decision making power is WTO mostly lies with the top 10 countries having 55% of
the votes.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
Ans:
10. SAARC is slowly emerging from the slumbers, after caught in between India and
Pakistan since inception, with new initiatives like SAARC university. Consider the
following statements about SAARC and choose the correct one/s.
1. The SAARC is a major regional initiative by South Asian states to evolve cooperation
through multilateral means.
2. SAARC members signed the south Asian free trade agreement which promised the
formation of a trade zone for whole zone of South Asia.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. ‘Unfortunately, recognizing the need for co-operation and actually co-operating are
two different things.’ Keeping in view the above statement which among the following
is/are correct.
1. Nations cannot always agree on how best to cooperate, how to share the costs of co-
operating and how to ensure that others do not break or cheat on an agreement.
2. An International Organisation can provide mechanisms, rules and a bureaucracy to honour
the terms and conditions of an agreement.
3. International Organisations help member states to resolve their problems peacefully.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above

PROJECT WORK
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XII Summer Vacations Assignment
NOTE :
• The project work should be individual.
• Take the topic of your interest, and it should be made by you only, based on research.
• While working on project analyze and evaluate real world scenario using social
constructivism, a theory based on observation and scientific study.
• It should consist of pictures, newspaper cuttings relevant to the topic chosen by you.
• Abide by the given criteria for marks allocation.
• 20- 25 pages

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XII Summer Vacations Assignment
 Pg.10
XII Summer Vacations Assignment
Summer Vacations Homework
Subject -Mathematics(core)
Class -12
According to elements new edition .
CHAPTER NO. 1
Exercise1.2
Example No. 8,10
Exercise 1.2 Ques no. 9,14
Exercise 1.3
Ques No. 16,17
CHAPTER NO. 2
Exercise 2.1
Ques no. 7,9,10
Exercise 2.2
Ques no. 7,9
CHAPTER NO. 3
Exercise 3.3
Ques no. 17,25,26
CHAPTER NO.5
Exercise 5.1
Ques no. 8(ii,iii),9
Exercise 5.2
Oues no. 18
Exercise 5.3
Ques no. 7 (ii),8,9
CHAPTER NO. 6
Exercise 6.1
Ques no-11,12,14,16(iii,iv),17
Exercise 6.2
Ques no. 5,6(ii)
Exercise 6.3
Ques no-.3,5,8
CHAPTER NO. 7
Exercise 7.1
Ques no-3,5
Exercise 7.2
Ques no-6,7
Exercise 7.3
Ques no-4(viii),5(ii,vi),6(iv),8
Exercise 7.4
Ques no-5(v),7(i,iii)
Exercise 7.5
Ques no-4(i),5(ii),6(i),8(i,ii,iv)
Exercise 7.6
Ques no-9(i),10,11(i,ii)
Exercise 7.7
Ques no-5(iv),7
Exercise 7.8
Ques no 4(i,iii),5,7(iii)
Exercise 7.9
Ques no-3(iv,vii),5(iii),8(i),10
 CLASS - 12TH
SUMMER VACATION HOLIDAYS HOMEWORK
ELEMENTS OF APPLIED MATHEMATICS

Ex 1.2 Ques 7,8,10

Ex 1.3 Ques 12,14,16
Ex 1.4 Ques 10,13,15
Ex 1.5 Ques 6,9,11,16

Ex 2.1 Ques 8-ii , 9-ii,iv

Ex 2.4 Ques 2,3,6,8
Ex 2.5 Ques 3,8,9

Ex 3.3 Ques 14,16,17,18,19,20

Ex 3.5 Ques 7-iv , 8

Ex 4.3 Ques 5,6

Ex 4.4 Ques 5,6,7
Ex 4.5 Ques 11(ii),13
Ex 4.6 Ques 11,12,13,14,15
Ex 4.7 Ques 6,7,8,9

Ex 5.1 Ques 1-iii,viii ; 2-ii ; 3-ii ; 5

Ex 5.2 Ques 2-v ; 3-iv ; 4-iii ; 5-ii ; 6,7
Ex 5.3 Ques 1-ii,vi ; 3,4-iv,v
Ex 5.4 Ques 4,5,7,11