NAME

NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2080

(Set-VI)
Date: Poush 21th, 2080 (Saturday) Duration – 3 hrs
Venue: NAME Time – 11:00 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
choice is correct.
. Fill ( ) the most appropriate one.
1. Areolar tissue connects:
a) Bone with bone b) Bone with muscles
c) Fat body with muscles d) Integument with muscles
2. RBC’s count is carried out by:
a) haemocytometer b) electrocardiograph
c) haemoglobinometer d) sphygmomanometer
3. Match the following:
SET-1 SET-2
A. Basophils 1. Phagocytosis
B. Neutrophils 2. Inflammation
C. Plasma cells 3. Blood clotting
D. Thrombocytes 4. Antibodies
a) A=2,B=1.C=4.D=3 b) A=2,B=1,C=3,D=4
c) A=1,B=2,C=4,D=3 d) A=4,B=1,C=2,D=3
4. Krause membrane or Z-lines is a myofibril which separate two adjacent:
a) Sarcomeres b) H-zones c) I-bands d) A-bands
5. A person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because:
a) Both A and B antibodies in the plsma
b) No antigens in RBCs no antibody in Plasma
c) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies
d) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
6. Enterokinase stimulates
a) Trypsinogen b) Trypsin c) Pepsin d) pepsinogen
7. Which one of following hormones helps in secretion of HCL from stomach?
a) Rennin b) Gastrin c) Secretin d) Somatomedin
8. The releasing hormones are secreted by:
a) Pituitary b) Hypothalamus c) Thymus d) Pancreas
9. Cowper’s gland secretes a substance to:
a) Kill pathogens b) Neutralize acidity c) Nourish sperms d) All of these
10. Which one of following is not a part of nephron ?
a) Bowman's capsule b) PCT c) LOH d) CD
11. Which of the following is one of the parts of the hindbrain?
a) Hypothalamus b) cerebellum
c) Corpus callosum d) Spinal cord
12. Which of the following is responsible for the control of reflex action?
a) Sensory nerves b) Motor nerves
c) Sympathetic response d) CNS
13. Which one of following is non-refractive medium of the eye?
a) Lens b) Pupil
c) Vitreous humour d) Aqueous humour
14. In the internal ear,the ’Organ of corti’ which bears hair cells is located in:
a) Sacculus b) Scala media c) Scala tympani d) Scala vestibuli
15. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of eutherian mammals?
a) Ear pinnae b) Corpus callosum c) Placenta d) Diaphragm
16. Widal test is employed for:
a) Typhoid b) Tetanus
c) Whooping cough d) Diphtheria
17. Metastasis is :
a) spread of cancer cells to new sites b) Rapid division in cancer cells
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
c) Regeneration of cancer cells d) All of the above
18. Each secondary spermatocytes after second meiosis produces:
a) two haploid spermatids b) two diploid spermatids
c) four diploid spermatids d) four haploid spermatids
19. Most accepted theory of origin of life:
a) Theory of spontaneous generation b) Theory of special creation
c) Biogenesis d) Oparin and Haldane theory
20. Which of the following features does NOT contradict the morphology of extinct species
Archaeopteryx lithographica?
a) Sternum with a keel
b) Hindlimbs had four toes, three forward and one backward
c) Skull bones were not fused
d) Bones were pneumatic like those in birds
21. The epoch of human civilization:
a) Holocene b) Pliocene c) Pleistocene d) Palaeocene
22. The wings of birds and insects is an example of:
a) Variation b) Divergent evolution
c) Convergent evolution d) Adaptation
23. Nerve ring of earthworm is formed encircling
a) Stomach b) Pharynx c) Gizzard d) All of above
24. Earthworm moves with helps of
a) Setae,muscles and hydraulic skeleton b) Setae alone
c) Muscles alone d) Parapodia
25. Mouth of earthworm is called:
a) Peristomium b) Prostomium c) Clitellum d) Gizzard
26. In life cycle of Plasmodium, microgametes are formed in:
a) RBCS of human b) Stomach of mosquito
c) Liver cells of human d) WBCS of human
27. Inoculation against malaria hasn’t been possible as
a) Plasmodium produces minute bodies b) Plasmodium produce antitoxins
c) Plasmodium doesn’t produce antitoxins d) None
28. The zoological name of Dwarf tapeworm is:
a) Taenia solium b) Taenia saginata
c) Hymenolepis nana d) Echinococcus granulosus
29. Pancreas of frog secretes:
a) 3 enzymes and 1 hormone b) 2 enzymes and 3 hormones
c) 4 enzymes and 2hormones d) 2 enzymes and 4 hormones
30. In frog,bulging of eye helps in:
a) Masticating of fprey b) Swallowing of prey
c) Chewing of prey d) None
31. According to locomotory organ,which is wrong pair?
a) Hydra-Tentacles b) Paramecium-Cilia
c) Nereis-Parapodia d) Plasmodium-Flagella
32. Cellular organization of body is present in:
a) Porifera b) Annelida c) Platyhelminthes d) Urochordata
33. Select the taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species:
a) Cnidaria b) Echinoderm
c) Ctenophora d) Cephalochordata
34. Platyhelminthes are generally parasites,which of following class is exempted?

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
a) Turbellaria b) Monogenea
c) Digenea d) Certoda
35. Infection of Ascariasis is usually occurs by:
a) tse-tse fly
b) mosquito bite
c) eating imperfectly cooked meat
d) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
36. The botryoidal tissue is found in:
a) Leech b) Nereis
c) Sea mouse d) Earthworm
37. Which of the following is not a character of Echinoderma?
a) Tube feet b) Ambulacral system
c) Incurrent canal d) Radial symmetry
38. Which one is not a vertebrate?
a) Oryctolagus b) Amphioxus c) Fish d) Sparrow
39. Behaviour aimed at the opposite sex of the same species and designed to stimulate
copulation is called:
a) Courtship b) Conflict
c) Conditioning d) Sexual stimulation
40. Digits provided with backwardly directed claws and sount are best fitted for:
a) Cursorial animals b) Fossorial animals
c) Arboreal animals d) Volant animals
41. The branch of science dealing with the study of fruit is
a) Agronomy b) Agrostology c) Pomology d) Ethnology
42. The first living cell was discovered by
a) Linnaeus b) Ehrenberg c) Leeuwenhoek d) Robert Koch
43. Clinically unidentified stage in life cycle of virus is
a) absorption b) lysis c) eclipse stage d) maturation stage
44. Most primitive method of reproduction in Monera cells is
a) fission b) Conjugation c) Oidia d) cleavage
45. Sea weeds are rich in
a) Iodine b) Sulphur c) Phosphorus d) Calcium
46. Which of the following shows heterotrophic mode nutrition?
a) Plantae b) Mycota c) Spermophyta d) Protista
47. Female gametes of Marchantia are
a) multiciliate b) non-flagellate c) biflagellate d) uniflagellate
48. Heterosporic alternation of generation is found in
a) Selaginella b) Funaria c) Dryopteris d) Marchantia
49. The most successful land plants before angiosperms are
a) bryophytes b) angiosperms c) gymnosperms d) pteridophytes
50. Thick and woody twiners or climber are called
a) climbers b) creepers c) suckers d) lianas
51. Fruit develop form bicarpellary ovary with parietal placentation is
a) caryopsis b) cypsela c) carcerulus d) regma
52. Best soil for agriculture production is
a) sandy soil b) loamy soil c) silty soil d) clay soil
53. Cuscuta is:
a) a semi-parasite b) a total parasite c) an epiphyte d) a saprophyte
54. Smallest national park of Nepal is

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
a) Phoksundo National Park b) Royal Chitwan National Park
c) Makalu Barun National Park d) Rara National Park
55. Not a renewable source of energy is
a) air b) water c) fossil fuel d) forest
56. One of the important diseases related with water pollution is
a) siderosis b) anthracosis c) Minamata d) jaundice
57. The outermost layer of plant cell wall is
a) tertiary cell wall b) middle lamella
c) primary wall d) secondary wall
58. Meiocyte should be
a) may be haploid b) may be haploid or diploid
c) usually diploid d) always diploid
59. Most of the storage carbohydrates remain in
a) monosaccharide form b) disaccharide form
c) oligosaccharide form d) polysaccharide form
60. Leptotene is a
a)interphase b) karyophase c) interkinesis d) prophase
61. If trisomy of maize contains 13 chromosomes, what may be the number of chromosomes
in endosperms?
a) 22 b) 11 c) 33 d) 18
62. The ratio of 1:2:1 indicates
a) multiple allelism b) linkage
c) incomplete dominance d) complete dominance
63. Mendel proposed the law of segregation based on experiment of
a) pigeon pea b) garden pea c) wild pea d) sweet pea
64. Common mutagen in plant breeding is
a) nitrous oxide b) alkaloid c) methane gas d) colchicine
65. Actively dividing tissues is
a) parenchyma b) aerenchyma c) periderm d) meristem
66. The phase of cell cycle for replication of centriole is
a) G1 phase b) S phase c) G2 phase d) M phase
67. Crossing over occurs during
a) interphase b) interkinesis c) prophase d) metaphase
68. It a plant has 12 chromosomes in roots stalk and 10 in scion, what will be the number in
pollen grains and root meristem?
a) 12, 10 b) 5, 12 c) 6, 5 d) 6, 10
69. Stem branches are
a) partly exogenous in origin b) endoscopic in origin
c) endogenous in origin d) exogenous in origin
70. Among them the primary element essential for plant growth is
a) P b) Ca c) Mn d) Mg
71. The process of photophosphorylation was discovered by
a) Calvin b) Arnon c) Priestley d) Warburg
72. Both respiration and photosynthesis require
a) sunlight b) green cells
c) cytochromes d) organic substrate
73. Respiration in plants
a) occurs only when stomata are open b) occurs only when photosynthesis ceases
c) occurs during day time only d) is universal and occurs at all times

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
74. Which is not produced during Krebs cycle?
a) CO2 b) FADH2 c) NADH2 d) ATP
75. Hormone of fruit ripening is
a) gibberellin b) cytokinin c) auxin d) ethylene
76. The movement of tendril of climber plants is
a) thigmotropism b) haptotropism c) thigmonastic d) thigmotactic
77. Double fertilization is common in
a) monocots b) dicots c) tracheophytes d) angiosperms
78. The technique of tissue culture was first explained in
a) stem tissues b) phloem parenchyma
c) xylem parenchyma d) cambium tissues
79. The plant species produce through genetic engineering is called
a) mutant b) genome c) mutagen d) muton
80. Green manures are cultivated
a) between two crops b) after first crop
c) after second crops d) in between crops
81. Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?
a) 44 g CO2 b) 48 g O3 c) 8 g H2 d) 64 g SO2
82. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen
atoms?
a) 1.25 × 10–2 b) 2.5 × 10–2 c) 0.02 d) 3.125 × 10–2
83. The density (in g mL ) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% H2SO4 (molar
–1

mass = 98 g mol–1) by mass will be

a) 1.45 b) 1.64 c) 1.88 d) 1.22
84. A neutral atom (Atomic No > 1) has
a) electron and proton b) neutron and electron
c) neutron, electron and proton d) neutron and proton.
85. Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy?
1 1
a) n = 4, l l = 0, m = 0, s = + 2 b) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 2
1 1
c) n = 3, l = m = l, s = + 2 d) n = 3, l = 2, m = l, s = + 2
86. As per the modern periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of elements are
periodic functions of their
a) atomic volume b) electronic configuration
c) atomic weight d) atomic size
87. Eka-aluminium and Eka-silicon are known as
a) Gallium and Germanium b) Aluminium and Silicon
c) Iron and Sulphur d) Manganese and Magnesium
88. Polarization power of a cation increases when
a) charge on the cation increases b) size of the cation increases
c) charge on the cation decreases d) has no relation to its size or charge
89. Which contains both polar and non - polar bonds?
a) NH4Cl b) HCN c) H2O2 d) CH4
90. Which of the following mixtures of gases does not obey Dalton’s law of partial pressure?
a) O2 and CO2 b) N2 and O2 c) Cl2 and O2 d) NH3 and HCl
91. The compressibility factor for H2 and He is usually :
a) >1 b) =1 c) <1 d) Either of these
92. An adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas always has

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
a) decrease in temperature b) q = 0
c) w = 0 d) H = 0
93. In lime kiln, the reversible reaction, CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO2 (g), proceeds to
completion because
a) of high temperature b) CO2 escaped out
c) CaO is removed d) of low temperature
94. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?
a) CO b) SiCl4 c) SO3 d) Zn2+
95. To suppress the dissociation of acetic acid, the compound to be added to it is
a) sodium oxalate b) sodium acetate
c) sodium carbonate d) sodium nitrate
96. It is found that 0.1 M solution of four sodium salts NaA, NaB, NaC and NaD have the
following pH values 7.0, 9.0, 10.0 and 11.0 respectively. Which one of the corresponding
acids is strongest ?
a) NaD b) NaC c) NaB d) NaA
97. The oxidation state of osmium (Os) in OsO 4 is
a) +7 b) +6 c) +4 d) + 8
98. Fusion of AgCl with Na2CO3 gives
a) Ag2CO3 b) silver carbide c) Ag d) Ag2O
99. A mixture of Al(OH)3 and Fe(OH)3 can be separated easily by treating it with :
a) HCl b) NH4OH c) HNO3 d) NaOH
100. When sulphur is heated with NaOH (aq). The compounds formed are
a) Na2S+ H2O b) Na 2SO3 + H2O
c) Na2S + Na 2S2O3 + H2O d) Na2S2O3 + H2O
101. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds with greatest and the least ionic
character, respectively, are
a) LiCl and RbCl b) RbCl and BeCl2
c) RbCl and MgCl2 d) MgCl2 and BeCl2
102. The electric cookers have a coating that protects them against fire. The coating is made
of
a) heavy lead b) zinc oxide
c) magnesium oxide d) sodium sulphate
103. The percentage of lead in lead pencil is
a) zero b) 20 c) 80 d) 70
104. 25 ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with a 0.1 molar solution of
hydrochloric acid gave a titre value of 35 ml. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution
was
a) 0.07 b) 0.14 c) 0.28 d) 0.35
105. A current of 2.0 A passed for 5 hours through a molten metal salt deposits 22.2 g of metal
(At wt. = 177). The oxidation state of the metal in the metal salt is
a) +1 b) +2 c) +3 d) +4
106. The reaction A → B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to
produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A
to produce 0.675 mole of B?
a) 0.5 hour b) 0.25 hour c) 2 hours d) 1 hour
107. Extraction of Ag from commercial lead is possible by
a) Parke’s process b) Clarke’s process
c) Pattinson’s process d) Electrolytic process

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
108. The phenomenon of removing layers of basic oxides from metals before electroplating
is called
a) galvanising b) anodising c) pickling d) poling
109. Liquid ammonia bottles are opened after cooling them in ice for sometime. It is because
liquid NH3
a) Brings tears to the eyes b) Has a high vapour pressure
c) Is a corrosive liquid d) Is a mild explosive
110. Orthophosphoric acid on heating gives:
a) metaphosphoric acid b) phosphine
c) phosphorus pentoxide d) phosphorus acid
111. Oxidation of thiosulphate by iodine gives
a) tetrathionate ion b) sulphide ion
c) sulphate ion d) sulphite ion
112. HF present as impurity in gaseous F2 can be removed by passing over
a) P2O5 b) NaF c) H2SO4 d) CaCl2
113. In sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic compound is
converted into
a) Sodamide b) Sodium cyanide
c) Sodium nitrite d) Sodium nitrate
114. The IUPAC name of the compound

a) 2- ethyl -3- methylbut -1- ene b) 2- isopropylbut -1- ene

c) 2- methyl - 3 ethyl - 3- butene d) 2- (1- methylethyl) but -1- ene
115. The structure of H2C = C = CH2 is
a) linear b) planar
c) non-planar d) has several resonance structures
𝑯𝟐 𝑶
116. The reaction: (CH3)3C-Br → (CH3)3-C-OH is a/an
a) elimination reaction b) substitution reaction
c) free radical reaction d) displacement reaction
117. Which of the following compounds will show metamerism?
a) CH3–CO–C2H5 b) C2H5–S–C2H5
c) CH3–O–CH3 d) CH3–O–C2H5
118. How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for butane-2, 3- diol?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
119. The addition of HBr is easiest in
a) CH2=CHCl b) ClCH=CHCl
c) CH3–CH=CH2 d) (CH3)2C=CH2
120. The hydrocarbon which decolourises alkaline KMnO 4 solution, but does not give any
precipitate with ammonical silver nitrate is
a) benzene b) acetylene c) propyne d) butyne-2
121. Butanenitrile is formed by reaction of KCN with
a) propyl alcohol b) butyl chloride
c) butyl alcohol d) propyl chloride
122. Which of the following alkyl halides is used as a methylating agent?
a) C2H5Br b) C6H5Cl c) CH3I d) C2H5Cl
123. Chloroform when reacts with nitric acid gives
a) HCCl3 . HNO3 b) CCl3CHOH c) CCl3NO2 d) CCl3NO3

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
124. Which of the following amine will not react with nitrous acid to give nitrogen?
a) CH3 NH2 b) CH3-CH2-NH2 c) d) (CH3)3 N

125. The reaction of Grignard reagent with formaldehyde followed by acidification gives
a) an aldehyde b) a primary alcohol
c) a carboxylic acid d) a ketone
126. An organic compound A reacts with sodium metal and forms B. On heating with conc.
H2SO4, A gives diethyl ether. A and B are respectively
a) C2H5 O H and C2H5ONa b) C3H7OH and C3H7ONa
c) CH3OH and CH3ONa d) C4H9OH and C4H9ONa
127. Dow’s reaction involves
a) electrophilic addition b) nucleophilic addition
c) electrophilic substitution d) nucleophilic substitution
128. Diethyl ether is prepared by passing vapours of ethyl alcohol over a heated catalyst
under high temperature and pressure. The catalyst is
a) SiO2 b) CuO c) Al2O3 d) Ag2O
129. Acetaldehyde cannot give
a) Iodoform test b) Lucas test c) Benedict’s test d) Tollen’s test
130. Acetic acid on heating in presence of P2O5 gives
a) acetic anhydride b) acetylene c) peracid d) No reaction
131. Dimensional formula for torque is
a) ML2T–2 b) ML–1T–2 c) ML2T–3 d) MLT–2
132. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 gm with a velocity 1200 ms –1.
The man holding
it can exert a maximum force of 144N on the gun. How many bullets can be fire per
second at the most?
a) One b) Four c) Two d) Three
133. A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces of equal mass, then the two pieces will
a) be at rest
b) move with different velocities indifferent directions
c) move with the same speed in opposite directions
d) move with the same speed in same direction
134. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is
a) zero b) infinite
b) same as on the surface of earth d) none of these
135. A box is lying on an inclined plane. What is the coefficient of static friction if the box
starts sliding when an angle of inclination is 60º?
2 3
a) 3 b) 2 c) d) 2
3
136. In the elastic collision of objects
a) only momentum remains constant b) only K.E. remains constant
c) both remains constant d) none of these
137. Time period of a simple pendulum will be double, if we
a) decrease the length 2 times b) decrease the length 4 times
c) increase the length 2 times d) increase the length 4 times
138. A circular disc of mass m and radius r is rotating about its axis with uniform speed V.
What is its kinetic energy?

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
1 1 1
a) mv2 b) 2 mv2 c) 4 mv2 d) 8 mv2

139. The isothermal elasticity of a gas is equal to

a) density b) volume c) pressure d) specific heat
140. Soap helps in cleaning clothes because
a) chemicals of soap change
b) it increases the surface tension of the solution
c) it absorbs the dirt
d) it lowers the surface tension of the solution
141. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4ºC. It will over flow if
a) heated above 4ºC
b) cooled below 4ºC
c) both heated and cooled above and below 4ºC respectively
d) none of these
142. For an ideal gas, in an isothermal process
a) heat content remains constant
b) heat content and temperature remain constant
c) temperature remains constant
d) none of these
143. R.M.S. velocity of an ideal gas at 300K is 500m/s. Temperature is increased four times,
rms velocity will become
a) 1000 m/s b) 560 m/s c) 2000 m/s d) 260 m/s
144. The temperature of the sun is measured with
a) platinum thermometer b) gas thermometer
c) pyrometer d) vapour pressure thermometer
145. For a perfectly black body, its absorptive power is
a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0 d) infinity
146. A gas is being compressed adiabatically. The specific heat of the gas during
compression is
a) zero b) infinite c) finite but non zero d) undefined
147. The minimum distance between the object and its real image for concave mirror is
a) f b) 2f c) 4f d) zero
148. If the critical angle for the medium of a prism is C and angle of prism is A, then these
will be no emergent ray when
a) A < 2C b) A = 2C c) A > 2C d) A  2C
149. The angle of prism is 30º. The rays incident at 60º at one refracting face suffers a
deviation of 30º. Then the angle of emergence is
a) 0º b) 30º c) 60º d) 90º
150. Myopia eye form image of distant object
a) at the retina b) infront of retina
c) behind the retina d) no image is formed
151. Coherent sources are those sources for which

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
a) phase difference remain constant
b) frequency remains constant
c) both phase difference and frequency remains constant
d) none of these
152. In the interference pattern, energy is
a) created at the position of maxima b) destroyed at the position of minima
c) conserved but is redistributed d) none of these
153. The distance between two particles in wave motion vibrating out of phase is
 3 
a)  b) 2 c) 2 d) 4
154. Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 and 258 vibrations/sec are sounded together, then
time interval between consecutive maxima heard by the observer is
a) 2 sec b) 0.5 sec c) 250 sec d) 252 sec
155. If the temperature increases, then what happens to the frequency of the sound produced
by the organ pipe?
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Unchanged d) Not definite
156. Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart. If a brass sheet is placed between
them, the force between them will be
a) zero b) same c) decreased d) increased
157. In bringing an electron towards another electron, electrostatic potential energy of the
system
a) decreases b) increases c) becomes zero d) remains same
158. To a given capacitor, another capacitor is connected in parallel to
a) increase the capacitance b) decrease the capacitance
c) improve perform d) increase the active live
159. A 2 volt battery, a 15 resistor and a potentiometer of 100cm length, all are connected in
series. If the resistance of potentiometer wire is 5, then the potential gradient of the
potentiometer wire is
a) 0.005 v/cm b) 0.05 v/cm c) 0.02 v/cm d) 0.2 v/cm
160. Wheat Stone Bridge is a
a) dc bridge b) ac bridge
c) high voltage bridge d) power dissipation bridge
161. If t1 and t2 are times taken by two different coils for producing same heat energy with
the same supply and they are connected in parallel, the time taken to produce same heat
energy is
t1t2
a) t1 – t2 b) t1 + t2 c) t1t2 d) t + t
1 2

162. The direction of current in an iron copper thermocouple

a) from copper to iron at the hot junction b) from iron to copper at the hot junction
c) from copper to iron at cold junction d) no current will flow
163. Susceptibility is positive and large for
a) paramagnetic substance b) ferromagnetic substance
c) diamagnetic substance d) non-magnetic substance
164. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron, then the electron

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
a) moves in the direction of the field
b) moves in an opposite direction of the field
c) starts spinning
d) remains stationary
165. A coil of resistance 20 and inductance 5H has been connected to a 200V battery. The
maximum energy stored in the coil is
a) 250 J b) 125 J c) 500 J d) 100 J
166. Choke coil is used to control
a) ac b) dc c) both ac & dc d) neither ac nor dc
167. The peak value of an alternating current is 6A, then rms value of current will be
a) 3A b) 3 3 A c) 3 2 A d) 2 3 A
168. As the intensity of incident light increases
a) photoelectric current increases
b) photoelectric current decreases
c) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons increases
d) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons decreases
169. What will be the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and -particle of same
energy?
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 4 : 1 d) 1 : 4
170. If the voltage of X-ray tube is doubled, then intensity of X-rays will become
a) half b) unchanged c) double d) four times
171. In Bohr's model, if the atomic radius of the first orbit is ro, then the radius of the fourth
orbit is
ro
a) ro b) 4ro c) 16 d) 16ro

172. The half life of a radio isotope is 5 years. What fraction of it will remain active after 20
years?
3 1 1 1
a) 4 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16

173. The average binding energy of a nucleus is

a) 8eV b) 8KeV c) 8MeV d) 8BeV
174. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction
band is of the order of
a) 1 MeV b) 0.1 MeV c) 1 eV d) 5 eV
175. Avalanche breakdown is due to
a) collision of minority charge carriers b) increase in depletion layer thickness
c) decrease in depletion layer thickness d) none of these
176. Zener diode is used
a) as an amplifier b) as an rectifier
c) as an oscillator d) as an voltage regulator
177. Which of the following logic gate is an universal gate?
a) OR b) NOT c) AND d) NOR
178. Source of sun's energy is
a) burning of hydrogen b) fission reactions involving hydrogen

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
c) fusion reactions involving hydrogen d) some other source
179. Hubble's law is related with
a) comet b) speed of galaxy c) black hole d) planetary motion
180. How many types of quark particles are known?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
181. If GOLD is coded as HOME, COME is coded as DONE and CORD is coded as DOSE,
how would you code SONS?
a) TPOT b) TOOT c) TOOS d) TONT
182. If '-' stands for 'division', '+' for 'multiplication' '÷' for 'subtraction' and '×' for 'addition',
then which one of the following equations is correct?
a) 4×5+9-3÷4=15 b) 4×5+9+3÷4=17 c) 4-5÷9×3-4=11 d) 4÷5+9-3+4=18
183. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given
statements and select the appropriate answer.
Statements
V=D<Y<A≥G≥E; P=A; R<V
Conclusions
I. E>P
II. P>E
a) Only conclusion I is true b) Only conclusion II is true
c) Both conclusion I and II are true d) No conclusions are true
184. There are 13 couples, 5 single males and 7 single females in party. Every male shakes
hand with every female once. But none shakes hand with his wife. How many
handshakes in total took place in the party?
a) 156 b) 247 c) 347 d) 156
185. Odd one out: Sketch, Poster, Chart, Paper, Diagram
a) Sketch b) Diagram c) Paper d) Chart
186. A father told his son, “I was as old as you are at present at the time of your birth”. If the
father’s age is 38 years now, the son’s age five years back was:
a) 14 years b) 19 years c) 33 years d) 38 years
187. 3 days before yesterday was Sunday. What day will be the day 2 days after tomorrow?
a) Sunday b) Monday c) Tuesday d) Saturday
188. A does half as much work as B and C does half as much work as A and B together in the
same time. If C alone can do the work in 40 days, all of them together will finish the
work in
c) 12 days b) 12.5 days c) 13.33 days d) 15 days
189. If the positions of the first and the sixth letters in the word DISTRIBUTE are
interchanged; similarly, the positions of the second and the seventh, the third and the
eighth and so on, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left after
interchanging the positions?
a) E b) I c) S d) T
190. Bird : Wing ∷ Fish : ?
a) Gill b) Fin c) Tail d) Scale
191. What will be in the place of the question mark?

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
a) 30 b) 125 c) 225 d) 1125
192. How many triangles are in the figure below?

a) 13 b) 15 c) 12 d) 14
193. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Animal, Living
thing and Man?

194. Calculate the compound interest on Rs.1000 at a rate of 20% per year for 18 months when
interest is compounded semi-annually.
a) 1331 b) 331 c) 216 d) 728
195. A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the selling price of
the cycle?
a) Rs. 1090 b) Rs. 1190 c) Rs. 1260 d) Rs. 1305
196. Starting from point X, Jack walked 15 m towards the west. He turned left and walked 20
m. He then turned left and walked 15 m. After this he turned to his right and walked 12
m. How far and in which directions is now Jack from X?
a) 32 m, South b) 47 m, East c) 32 m, North d) 27 m, South
197. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
198. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will replace the missing place
in the given series as established by the five Problem Figures.

a) A b) B c) C d) D
199. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure X) as its part.

13
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)

a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1
200. Which number is on the face opposite 5, if the three different positions of a dice are as
shown in the figure given below.

a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 6

Best of Luck
Result will be published on Sunday Log on to www.name.edu.np or
www.facebook.com/nameinstitute
Best of Luck

14
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)

NAME
NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2080

(Set-VI)
Date: 2080/09/21

Hints and Solution

15
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)

Zoology
1. d)
2. a) RBC’s count-Haemocytometer
Haemoglobinometer-Hemoglobin
Sphygmomanometer-Blood pressure
3. a)
4. a) Sarcomere is functional unit of muscle
Myofibrils is structural unit of muscle.
5. c) Both antigens present but no antibodies so no transfusion rejection.
6. a) Enterokinase present In duodenum which converts trypsinogen to trypsin.
7. b) G-cells of stomach produces Gastrin that helps in secretion of HCL from stomach.
8. b) Hypothalamus produces Releasing and inhibiting hormones
Pituitary gland produces stimulating hormones.
9. b) Cowper’s Gland secretes alkaline mucus which act as lubricant during sexual intercourse
and also neutralizes acidic urethra after micturation.
10. d)
11. b) Hindbrain has 3 – main parts: pons, cerebellum, and medulla oblongata.
12. d) Spinal cord>CNS>Motor nerves
13. b) Size of pupil is altered by Iris by two muscle:Dilator pupillae and Constrictor Pupillae.
14. b) On scala media,Organ of corti is resting which is lined by basilar membrane.
15. c) Placenta is exclusive feature of eutherian mammals.
16. a) Test for Typhoid:@BASU
B-Blood test
A-Antibody test
S-stool test
U-Urine test
17. a) Metastasis is feature of Malignant Cancer.
18. a) Primary spermatocytes after meiosis-I produces 4 haploid spermatids
Secondary spermatocytes after meiosis-II produces 2 haploid spermatids.
19. d) Most accepted theory of origin of life is Abiogenesis.
20. b) Option B is only correct. Other correct characters include sternum without a keel. fused
skull bones and non-pneumatic bone.
21. a) Humans are believed to originate in Pleistocene epoch of quaternary period of cenozoic
era.
Holocene epoch is known as age pof man or age(epoch) of human civilization.
22. c) Analogous organs like Wings of insects, birds and bat illustrate convergent evolution.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
23. b) Sub-Pharyngeal ganglia and Supra-pharyngeal ganglia are interconnected by 2 peri-
pharyngeal connectives that form nerve ring/brain ring that encircles pharynx.
24. a) Seta are embedded in setal sac in body wall and are operated by 2 seta of musles(a pair of
protractor muscles and single retractor muscles),Muscles like circular and longitudional
muscles of body walls and coelomic fluid is also called hydraulic skeleton.
25. a) First segment is peristomium which bears mouth and fleshly lobed structure over the
mouth is called prostomium which is sensory lobe.

26. b) But micro-and microgame tocytes are formed in RBC S of human

27. c) Plasmodium doesn’t produces antitoxins.
28. c) Pheretima posthuma-Earthworm
Periplanta americana-Cockroach.
29. a) Pancreas of frog secretes (Trypsinogen,Amylase,Lipase) enzymes and insulin hormone.
30. b)
31. d) Plasmodium belongs to class sporozoan so.it lacks locomotory organs.
32. a) Sponges exhibits cellular level of construction without tissues.
33. a) All cnidaria are marine but few are fresh water animals.
34. a) Turbellaria is mostly free living or parasitic.
35. d) The transmission of infective stage through embryonated eggs takes place by
contaminated food and water.
36. a)
37. c) Incurrent canal is found in sponges.
38. b) Amphioxus(Lancelet) belongs to subphylum Cephalochordate.
39. a) Courtship behaviour is a fixed action pattern.
40. b) Generally,snakes have cursorial adaptaion
Desert snake:fossorial adaptation for going inside deserts.
Flying snake:scansorial
Botany
41 c) Study of fruit is pomology, and pomophytes are fruit bearing plants.
42 c) First living cell was discovered by Anton V. Leeuwenhoek as bacterial cell.
43 c) The duration between entry into host cell and exit from the cell is eclipse period which is
clinically undetectable stage of viral infections.
44 a) Several monerans like bacteria show most primitive method of vegetative reproduction as
binary fission, fragmentation or budding.
45 a) Seaweeds or several members of brown algae are important source of Iodine, Bromine,
Sulphur and Algin. Iodine can be used to treat goitre or deficiency of iodine.
46 b) The members of Mycota (fungi) are heterotrophic thallophytes.
47 b) Male gametes of Bryophytes are bifilagellated (motile) and female gametes are non-motile
(egg cell).

2
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
48 a) Selaginella shows heterospory with two types of spores: microspores and megaspores.
49 c) First successful complete land plant with seed habit belongs to Gymnosperms.
50 d) Woody climbers or lianas are found in dense tropical forests.
51 b) Cypsela is common fruit found in members of family Asteraceae. It is produced from
bicarpellary with parietal placentation.
52 b) Loamy soil is best soil for agricultural production which consists of mixture of soil, sand
and silts.
53 b) Cuscuta (dodder) is complete stem parasite (holo-parasite).
54 d) Rara National Park and Psephoksundo National Park are smallest and largest national
parks of Nepal.
55 c) Coal, petroleum and kerosene are non-renewable source of energy while biomass like
forest, air and water are renewable source of energy.
56 c) Minamata disease is related to water pollution caused by mercury poisoning on fishes.
57 b) Middle lamella is outermost layer of cell wall which consists of pectin of calcium and
magnesium. Inside middle lamella, other layers like primary cell wall, secondary cell wall
and tertiary cell wall are present.
58 d) The meiocytes are diploid cell which can undergo meiosis.
59 d) Common storage material is carbohydrate (starch, glycogen) in cell, usually remain in
polysaccharide forms.
60 d) Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis are sub phases of prophase I of
meiosis.
61 c) Endosperm of angiosperm (like maize) has 3n chromosomes. If trisomy (2n+1) has 23
chromosomes, it 3n number would be 33.
62 c) The ratio of 1:2:1 indicates similar phenotype and genotype of incomplete dominance.
63 b) Pisum sativa (garden pea) is the material used by Mendel for experiment on law of
inheritance.
64 d) Colchicine is an alkaloid or mutagen which can cause polyploidy (duplication of
chromosomes).
65 d) Meristem is the group of cells having power of active cell division.
66 b) S phase of cell cycle is responsible for replication of DNA and duplication of centrioles.
67 c) Crossing over is exchange of segment of chromosomes between two non-sister chromatids
of two homologous chromosomes and occurs during pachytene of prophase I of meiosis.
68 b) During grafting scion provides genetic characters for leaves, flowers, fruits, while stalk
provides for root parts. So, pollen grains (n) should bear 5 and meristem (2n) have 12
chromosomes.
69 d) Lateral stem or branches of stem arise from cortex (exogenous) while lateral roots or
secondary roots arise from pericycle (endogenous).
70 a) C, H, O, N, P and K are major elements of plant cells. Deficiency of these elements leads to
severe disorders.
71 b) Arnon discovered the process of formation of ATP during light reaction and called
photophosphorylation.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
72 c) Cytochromes, enzymes and coenzymes are common compounds required for
photosynthesis and respiration both.
73 d) Respiration is universal process and occur throughout all time, day and night time in all
living organisms.
74 d) Krebs cycle is oxidative decarboxylation of acetyl CoA in matrix of mitochondria with the
help of oxygen. It produces 3NADH2, 1FADH2, 2CO2 and 1GTP; direct ATP is not
produced.
75 d) Ethylene is the hormone of fruit ripening.
76 a) Permanent movement of tendril of climber plants for clinging is called thigmotropism
(movement due to touch).
77 d) During double fertilization involves three gametes of male and female plants of
angiosperms.
78 b) Based on cellular totipotency, Steward et al experimentally proved tissue culture on
phloem explant of root of carrot.
79 a) The plant produced through genetic engineering are transgenic plant or mutant.
80 a) Green manure are small herbaceous plants having short life span and cultivated in between
two crops.
Chemistry
81. c)

82. d) 1 Mole of Mg3(PO4)2 contains 8 mole of oxygen atoms

 8 mole of oxygen atoms  1 mole of Mg3(PO4)2
1
0.25 mole of oxygen atom = x 0.25 = 3.125 x 10-2
8

83. d) Since molarity of solution is 3.60 M. It means 3.6 moles of H 2SO4 is present in its 1 litre
solution. Mass of 3.6 moles of H2SO4 = Moles × Molecular mass = 3.6 × 98 g = 352.8 g
 1000 ml solution has 352.8 g of H2SO4
29% H2SO4 by mass means 29 g of H2SO4 is present in 100 g of solution
400
 352.8 g of H2SO4 is present in = 𝑥 352.8 g of solution = 1216 g of solution
29
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 1216
Density = = = 1.216 g/ml = 1.22 g/ml
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 1000

84. c) A neutral atom with Z > 1 can have neutron, proton and electron.
85. d) Atomic orbitals are 4s, 3s, 3p and 3d. (n + l) values being 4, 3, 4 and 5. Hence 3d has highest
energy.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
86. b) As per the modern periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of elements are
periodic functions of their atomic number means electronic configuration.
87. a) Mendeleev named Gallium and Germanium elements as eka aluminium and eka-silicon
respectively.
88. a) Polarizing power = charge/ radius.
89. c) H2O2 contains both polar and non – polar bonds.
90. d) Dalton's law of partial pressure is applicable to non reacting gases. Here NH3 and HCl react
to form NH4Cl.
𝑃𝑉
91. a) Since for H2 and He, PV > nRT and Z = . Hence, Z is more than 1
𝑛𝑅𝑇

92. b) For adiabatic process q = 0.

93. b) Forward reaction is favoured by removal of products.
94. a) CO cannot accept electrons. Hence it is not Lewis acid.
95. b) Common ion effect. CH3COONa will suppress ionization of CH3COOH.
96. d) The pH values indicate that NaD, NaC and NaB are salts of strong base and weak acid. pH
of NaA = 7 it is salt of strong acid and strong base.
97. d) OsO4 Let O.N. of Os be x then 1×(x) + 4(–2) = 0 ∴x=8
98. c) 2AgCl + Na2CO3 →Ag2CO3 + 2 NaCl.
∆
Ag2CO3 → 2Ag + CO2 +1/ 2 O2
99. d) Al (OH)3 is soluble in NaOH and Fe (OH)3 is insoluble. Hence it can be separated by NaOH
100. c) 4S+ 6NaOH Na2S2O3 + 2Na2S + 3H2O
101. b) Rbcl has greatest ionic character while BeCl2 has least.
102. c) MgO being high melting does not catch fire and hence protects the cooker against fire.
103. a) Lead pencils do not contain lead. Lead pencils contain graphite.
104. b) M1V1 = M2V2 M1 × 25 = 0.1 × 35;  M1 = 0.14
E.Wt×Q m ×96500 22.2 ×96500
105. c) m = 96500 ⟹∴E.wt = Q = 2 × 5× 60 × 60 = 60.3

At wt. 177
Oxidation state = Eq. wt = 60.3 = 3
𝑎 0.8
106. d) In first case, = =4
𝑎−𝑥 0.2
𝑎 0.9
In second case, = =4
𝑎−𝑥 0.225

Since the ratio is the same, hence time will be same. Therefore 1 hr.
107. a) Recovery of silver from argentiferous lead is ecnomical and is carried by Parke's process.
108. c) Pickling is removal of basic oxide layers on metals before electroplating.
109. b) Liquid ammonia has high vapour pressure which is lowered down by cooling, otherwise
the liquid will bump.
110. a) 2H3PO4 → 2HPO3 + 2H2O meta phosphoric acid
111. a) 2S2O3-2 + I2 → S4O6-2 +2I-

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
Tetrathionate

112. b) NaF+ HF NaHF2

113. b) Sodium cyanide (Na + C + N → NaCN).
(Lassaigne's test)
114. a)

Here numbering should be done in a way that simpler alkyl group(s) is (are) present on
the main chain.
115. c) The hydrogen atoms on terminal C-atoms lie in perpendicular planes and hence the
molecule as a whole is non-planar. H2C = C = CH2.
116. b) The reaction is nucleophilic substitution reaction.
117. b) C2H5–S–C2H5 shows metamerism.
118. b) Butane-2, 3-diol (CH3CHOHCHOHCH3) has two similar chiral carbon atoms (similar to
tartartic acid), hence like tartaric acid it has three optical isomers (d,-l-, and meso-), of which
only two (d– and l– ) are optically active.
119. d) Addition of HBr on alkenes is an electrophilic reaction, hence more the number of electron-
releasing groups on the double bond easier will be the addition.
120. d) Since the hydrocarbon decolourises KMnO4 solution, it must be unsaturated, i.e. alkene or
alkyne. However, it does not give any precipitate with ammonical AgNO3, it must be a
non-terminal alkyne, i.e. butyne-2.
121. d) Butanenitrile is CH3CH2CH2CN hence will be prepared from CH3CH2CH2Cl (propyl
chloride) and not from butyl chloride.
122. c) C2H5Br and C2H5Cl are ethylating agents, while C6H5Cl is inert.
123. c) HNO3+CHCl3→CCl3NO2+H2O
Chloroform on reaction with nitric acid produces Chloropicrin which is used as war gas
(tear gas). It also acts as an insecticide.
124. d) Tertiary amine does not react with nitrous acid because in it ∝ - H atom is absent.
125. b) Primary alcohol is obtained.

126. a) C2H5OC2H5
Given reactions indicate that A and B should be C 2H5OH and C2H5ONa respectively.
127. d) Dow's reaction is a nucleophilic substitution reaction. This reaction involves the reaction
of an alkyl halide with a nucleophile to form a new compound.
128. c) Dehydration of alcohols to ethers is done with Al2O3.
129. b) Lucas’ test is used for differentiating 1º, 2º and 3º alcohols. Aldehydes and ketones do not
respond to Lucas reagent.
130. a) P2O5 is a dehydrating agent and removes a molecule of water from two molecules of acetic
acid.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)

Physics

131. a) [torque] = [force × ⊥ distance] = [MLT–2 × L] = [ML2T–2]

132. d) F = mnv = 40 × 10–3 × n × 1200
144 = 40 × 10–3 × n × 1200
n=3
133. c) According to law of conservation of linear momentum, both pieces should possess equal
momentum in opposite direction after explosion. As their masses are equal therefore, they
will possess equal speed in opposite direction.
134. a) Wcentre = mgcentre = m (o) = 0
135. a) s = tan60º = 3
136. c) In the elastic collision, momentum as well as kinetic energy of the system are conserved
137. d) T l
T → 2 times, l → 4 times
1 mr2
138. c) EKroot = 2 I2 I= 2

1 mr2 v2 v
= 2  2   r2  = r
  
1
= 4 mv2

139. c) Kisothmal = P
140. d) Soap helps to lower the surface tension of solution, thus soap get stick to the dust particles
and grease and these are removed by action of water.
141. c) Volume of water at 4ºC is minimum. It will overflow if both heated and cooled above and
below 4ºC respectively.
142. c) For an ideal gas, in an isothermal process temperature remains constant.
143. a) T2 = 4T1 V T
V2 = 2V1 = 2 × 500 = 1000m/s
144. c) The temperature of the sun is measured with pyrometer.
145. a) For a perfectly black body, its absorptive power is one.
Q 0
146. a) S= = =0
m m
147. d) When objects is kept at centre of curvature. Its real image is also formed at centre of
curvature.
148. c) If A > 2C, light is totally reflected from the second face and there is no emergent ray.
149. a) i + e = A + , e = A +  – i = 30º + 30º – 60º = 0º

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
150. b) Myopic eye form image of distant object in front of retina because the power of the eye is
too large due to the decrease in focal length of the lens.
151. c) Coherent sources are those sources for which both phase difference and frequency remains
constant
152. c) In the interference pattern, energy is conserved but is redistributed.
phase difference  
153. b) Path diff. = ×= ×=2
2 2
1
154. b) T = 258 – 256 = 0.5 sec

v
155. a) Due to rise in temperature, the speed of sound increases. Since f = and  remains

unchanged, hence f increases.
Fair
156. c) Force in medium =
r
For brass sheet r > 1
Fbrass sheet < Fair
kq1q2 k(–e) (–e) ke2
157. b) U= r = r = r

As r → decreases, U → increases
158. a) CP = C 1 + C 2 CP > C 1
E R 2 5
159. a) Potential gradient = R + R + r × L = 15 + 5 + 0 × 1 = 0.5 v/m = 0.005 v/cm
h

160. a) The Wheat Stone Bridge is a dc bridge that is used for the measurement of medium
resistance.
1 1 1
161. d) In parallel t = t + t
p 1 2

162. a) The direction of current in an iron copper thermocouple is from copper to iron at the hot
junction.
163. b) Susceptibility is positive and large for ferromagnetic substance
164. d) F = qVB sin = 0 since V = 0
Stationary electron remains stationary.
1 v 200
165. a) Energy = 2 LI2 I = R = 20 = 10A

1
= 2 × 5 × 102 = 250 J

166. a) The choke coil can be used only in ac circuits, not in dc circuits.
I0 6
167. c) Irms = = =3 2A
2 2
168. a) Intensity increases means more photon of same energy will emit more electrons of same
energy, hence only photoelectric current increases.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
h 1
169. a) = 
2mE m

p m 4mp
= mp = mp = 2 : 1

170. b) If the voltage of X-ray tube is doubled, then intensity of X-rays will become unchanged
because no. of electrons remains same.
r4 42
171. d) rn  n2 r1 = 1 = 16
r4 = 16r1 = 16ro
N 1n 120/5 1
172. d) N0 = 2 = 2 = 16

173. c) The average binding energy of a nucleus is 8MeV.

174. d) In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction band
is of the order of 5eV to 6eV.
175. a) Avalanche breakdown is due to collision of minority charge carriers.
176. d) At reverse breakdown the resistance is negligibly small and hence large current is setup. It
is used in power supplies as voltage regulator.
177. d) NOR gate is an universal gate. NAND gate is also an universal gate.
178. c) Source of sun's energy is fusion reactions involving hydrogen.
179. b) Speed of galaxy is proportional to its distance from us, i.e. V  r , this is Hubble's law.
180. d) There are six kinds of quark particle physics present namely up, down, top, bottom, charm
and stronger. These are also known as flavors of quark.
MAT

181. b) Each consonant in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter
of the code, while the vowels remain unchanged.
182. a) Using the proper notations in (a), we get the statement as:
= 4+5×9÷3-4⟹ 4+5×3-4= 4+15-4=15.
183. b) R<V=D<Y<A=P≥G≥E
184. c) There are 13 couples(13 males & 13 females), 5 single males and 7 single females Now, 5
single males can shake hands with (13+7) females each of 13 males (from the couples) can
shake hands with (12(except his wife) + 7) females. Therefore, in total 5×20+13×19=347
ways
185. c) All others can be drawn on paper.
186. a) Let the son's present age be x years. then, (38−x)=x⇔2x=38⇔x=19. So, the son’s age five
years back was, x−5=19−5=14 years
187. a) Sunday+3+1+1+2=Sunday
188. c)

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –VI (2080-09-21)
Days Eff TW
A 1≡2
B 120 2≡4
C 40 3/2≡𝟑
A+B+C → 120/9=13.33
189. a)
D I S T R I B U T E
I B U T E D I S T R
The new letter sequence is IBUTEDISTR. The fifth letter from the left is E.
190. b) Second is the organ for movement of first.
191. b) 12 52 = 125
192. d) 3×4+1+1=14
193. a) Man ∈ Animal ∈ Living Thing.
220 220 220
194. b) 1000 × × × -1000
200 200 200

195. b) S.P = 85% of Rs. 1400= Rs 1190

196. a)

197. a)
198. b)
199. c)
200. b) The second & fourth figure has two faces in common, then the remaining are opposite to
each other.

Best of Luck

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